GEN. PATHO/ OPATH/ MICROBIO- c. Anaerobic streptococci 11.

Which of the following forms of

REVALIDA 1-37 d. Aerobic streptococci oral ulcerations involves oral, ocular
APRIL 11, 2021 e. Beta-hemolytic streptococci and genital lesions?
6. The core of a cilium is composed of:
a. Recurrent aphthous
1. In which of the following a. Tonofilaments b. Herpetiform and recurrent
mycotic infections are the organisms b. Microvilli aphthous
characteristically found within the c. Microfibrils c. Behcet’s
reticuloendothelial cells? d. Microtubules d. Herpetiform
e. microfilaments
a. Histoplasmosis 12. The submucosa is present in each
b. Blastomycosis 7. A patient has two or more of her of the following, except:
c. Blastomycosis and Aspergillosis teeth joined only by cementum. This
d. Candidiasis phenomenon is known as: a. Duodenum
e. Aspergillosis b. Jejunum
a. Hypercementosis c. Colon
2. Lymphatic nodules are formed in b. Concrescence d. Gallbladder
the following lymphoid organs, except c. Gemination e. Stomach
d. fusion
13. Antibiotics are obtained from
a. Peyer's patch 8. What kind of immunity would growth of:
b. Lymph node result in a susceptible person given
c. Thymus tetanus antitoxin? a. Bacteria and fungi
d. Tonsils b. Mycoplasma and rickettsiae
e. spleen a. Natural, passive c. Tissue cell culture
b. Artificial, passive d. Bacteria, fungi and spirochetes
3. Which of the following is useful in c. Natural, active e. Fungi and virus
differentiating between Salmonella d. Artificial, active
typhi and Escherichia coli? 14. Genetic disorders influencing
9. Each of the following structures is permanent teeth eruption:
a. Fermentation of lactose bound by a membrane, except:
b. Test of motility 1. `genetic disorders influencing
c. Phenylalanine deaminase a. Lysosome permanent teeth eruption
d. Urease test b. Nucleolus 2. Apert syndrome
e. Production of acid from glucose c. Mitochondria 3. cherubism
d. Nucleus
4. Enamel contains: e. Pinocytotic vesicle a. 1&2
b. 1&3
a. 96% inorganic material 10. Shock during infection with the c. 2&3
b. 70% inorganic material gram-negative bacteria is most likely d. 1, 2 & 3
c. 30% inorganic material caused by:
d. 100% inorganic material 15. The following are characteristics
a. A capsular antigen of bronchioles, except?
5. Which of the following is the most b. A flagellar antigen
numerous group of microorganisms in c. Ribonuclease a. Segmented cartilage plates
the oral cavity? d. An exotoxin b. Absence of glands
e. An endotoxin c. Ciliated columnar cells
a. Enterococci d. Irregularly shaped lumen
b. Facultative streptococci e. Complete ring of smooth muscle

1
 e. Collagen bundles a. Bell’s palsy
16. The following are characteristics b. orolingual paresthesia
of spleen, except: 22. A cigarette-smoking patient c. Menlere’s disease
notices a gradual onset of progressive, d. auriculotemporal syndrome
a. Presence of blood-forming tissues labored breathing characterized by e. glossopharyngeal neuralgia
b. Cortex has lymphatic nodules prolonged, expiratory effort. The most
c. Capsule has smooth muscle fibers likely diagnosis is: 27. The wound is ‘rebuilt’ with new
d. Billroth cords granulation tissue and a new network
e. Periarterial lymphatic sheath a. Bronchopneumonia of blood vessels develop.
17. MOST viral antigens of diagnostic b. carcinoma of the lung
importance are: c. chronic bronchitis a. Hemostasis
d. left sided heart failure with b. Remodelling
a. Proteins pulmonary congestion and edema c. Inflammation
b. Polysaccharides e. pulmonary emphysema d. Proliferation
c. Nucleic acid
d. Lipids 23. Dry heat destroys microorganisms 28. Which of the following is a soft
e. Lipopolysaccharides primarily by: tissue cyst?
a. Incisive canal cyst
18. Known as proliferation stage: a. lysis b. Nasopalatine cyst
b. precipitation of salts c. Nasolabial cyst
a. Bell stage c. oxidation d. Median alveolar cyst
b. Cap stage d. coagulation of protein
c. Bud stage e. acceleration of enzyme 29. Tooth is derived from the:
d. Cap, bell, bud stage metabolism
a. Ectoderm only
19. A rhabdomyosarcoma is a 24. A zoonotic disease that spread b. Mesoderm and endoderm
malignant neoplasm derived from: among cattle, sheep and wild animals c. Ectoderm and mesoderm
by tics and acquired by humans d. Mesoderm only
a. Striated muscle tissue through inhalation of the airborne
b. The blood vessels organism, Coxiella Burnetii 30. The most serious
c. The nerve tissue immunodeficiency disorders is:
d. Smooth muscle tissue a. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
b. Epidemic Typhus fever a. Ataxia-telangiectasia
20. In the digestive tract, glands in c. Human Q Fever b. hyper-IgE syndrome
the submucosa are round only in: d. fever blister c. Severe combined
e. African swine fever immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
a. Duodenum and jejunum d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
b. Liver and gallbladder 25. In which of the following do
c. Stomach and esophagus adenomatoid odontogenic tumors 31. Areas of hypersegmentation of
d. Liver and pancreas most often occur? the skin of the axilla, ther neck and
e. Esophagus and duodenum the groin with marked hyperkeratosis
a. Anterior maxilla and papillomatosis which may be
21. Tunica media of blood vessels is b. Anterior mandible indicative of internal malignancy are
generally made up of: c. Posterior maxilla the characteristics of
d. Posterior mandible
a. Loose areolar tissue a. acanthosis nigricans
b. Smooth muscle and elastic fibers 26. Gustatory sweating is the chief b. malignancy melanoma
c. Fibrous tissue symptom in c. junctional nevus
d. All of the choices

2
d. pigmented squamous cell d. Brucella
carcinoma e. Aspergillus a. Spermatogenic cells
e. basal cell carcinoma b. All of the choices
37. Persons having anti-A and anti-B c. None of the choices
32. Which of the following is not a isoagglutinins in their serum belong in d. Leydig cells
category of external resorption? the blood group: e. Sertoli cells

a. Inflammatory a. B 43. Which of the following represents

b. Regenerative b. AB the main support of the wall of a
c. Replacement c. O bronchus?
d. surface d. A
a. Elastic membrane
33. The biological purpose of meiosis 38. The walls of the pulmonary alveoli b. Elastic and collagenous
is to maintain in somatic cells: are line with: connective tissue
c. Hyaline cartilage
a. 46 pairs of chromosomes a. Simple squamous d. Smooth muscle
b. 23 chromosomes b. Pseudostratified epithelium e. Dense irregular connective tissue
c. haploid number of chromosomes c. Simple cuboidal
d. none of the above d. Stratified squamous 44. Hypertensive heart disease is
e. diploid number of chromosomes consistently associated with which of
39. Staphylococci are the following anatomic findings?
34. Which of the following is the characteristically grouped in:
single most numerous group of a. Tricuspid stenosis
microorganisms in the oral cavity? a. Irregular clusters b. Left ventricular hypertrophy
b. Tetrads c. Aortic stenosis
a. Enterococci c. Chains d. Pericardial effusion
b. Anaerobic streptococci d. Palisade arrangement e. Right ventricular hypertrophy
c. Beta-hemolytic streptococci e. pairs
d. Facultative streptococci 45. The renal corpuscle is made up of:
40. Microorganisms of which the
35. Defensive cells of the pulp that following general are most a. Glomerulus and Bowman’s
usually acts as macrophages: predominant in the normal oral flora? capsule
b. Collecting tubules
a. histiocytes a. Streptococcus c. All of the choices
b. resting wandering cells b. Lactobacillus d. Convoluted tubules
c. undifferentiated mesenchymal c. Bacillus e. Loops of Henle
cells and fibroblasts d. Staphylococcus
d. Fibroblasts e. corynebacterium 46. A virus which persists in the oral
e. undifferentiated mesenchymal tissue throughout the life of most
cells 41. What type of epithelium is one individuals is:
cell layer thick?
36. Which of the following is most a. Varicella virus
likely to be cultured from chronic a. Stratified b. Herpes zoster virus
bilateral ulcerations at the corners of b. Simple c. Rubella virus
the mouth? c. Cuboidal d. Herpes simplex virus
d. squamous
a. Mucor 47. A tropical disease characterized by
b. Treponema 42. The interstitial tissue of the testi frambesiomas and gangosa which
c. Candida contains shows many resemblances to syphilis.

3
 52. Immediate phase of wound a. Polypeptides
a. Yaws healing; occurs during dental surgical b. Chitins
b. Chlamydia procedures. c. Polysaccharides
c. Gonorrhea d. cellulose
d. pinta a. Hemostasis
b. Inflammation 58. An individual that presents with
48. Which of the following laboratory c. Remodelling keratoconjunctivitis, parotid gland
results is diagnostic of acute d. proliferation enlargement and a positive Rh factor
pancreatitis? is most likely to be diagnosed with:
53. Which of the following reactive
a. Decreased albumin lesions of the gingival tissue reveals a. Polyarteritis nodosa
b. Elevated alkaline phosphatase bone formation microscopically? b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Elevated serum amylase c. Reiter’s syndrome
d. Elevated serum lipase a. Osteoma d. Sjogren's syndrome
e. Decreased serum amylase b. Peripheral ossifying fibroma e. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
c. Traumatic neuroma
49. Most predominant d. Irritation fibroma 59. Tuberculosis of the vertebrae or of
microorganisms in the normal oral the spine is called
flora? 54. Most antibodies are produced in
the: a. scrofula
a. Lactobacillus b. tabes mesenterica
b. Corynebacterium a. Heart and the liver c. tabes dorsalis
c. Staphylococcus b. Thymus and the appendix d. Pott’s disease
d. Streptococcus c. Spleen and the lymph nodes e. Tabes Spinae
e. Bacillus d. Brain and the meninges
e. Upper and lower G.I. Tract 60. The following are characteristics
50. A chronic obstructing fibrosis of of thymus, except:
the lymph nodes caused by the 55. A lysogenic bacterium is one that:
organism, Wuchereriabancrofti or by a. Lymphocytes are abundant in the
Brugia Malayi a. Produces properdin cortex
b. Lyses red cells b. None of the choices
a. schistosomiasis c. Produces spheroplasts when c. Presence of Hassall’s bodies
b. filariasis incubated anaerobically d. Each lobule has cortex and
c. ancylostomiasis d. Produces lecithinase when medulla
d. ascariasis incubated anaerobically e. Entire organ has cortex and
e. pediculosis e. Harbors a temperate medulla
bacteriophage
51. All are undergoing changes in the 61. Each of the following cell types
plasma membrane with cell injury, 56. Acute osteomyelitis is most secretes the substance with which it is
except: frequently caused by which of the paired, except:
following microorganisms?
a. Loosening of intracellular a. Gonococcus a. Chromaffin cells of the
attachments b. streptococcus suprarenal- catecholamine
b. Blunting of microvilli c. Enterococcus b. Corpus luteum- progesterone
c. Formation of cytoplasmic blebs d. staphylococcus c. Alpha cells of the pancreas-
d. Swelling glucagon
e. Detachment of ribosomes 57. Bacterial capsules usually consists d. Sertoli’s cells-testosterone
of:

4
62. Which of the following are viral b. Lactobacillus d. Acetic
diseases? c. Bacteroides e. butyric
d. Streptococcus
1. Mumps e. veillonella
2. Influenza 67. Each of the following structures is 72. Death of the odontoblasts usually
3. Scarlet fever bound by a membrane, except: results to:
4. Herpes simplex
5. Whooping cough a. Nucleus a. Sclerotic dentin
b. Mitochondria b. Dead tracts formation
a. 1&5 c. Lysosome c. Tertiary dentin
b. 2,3 & 5 d. Pinocytotic vesicle d. Reparative dentin formation
c. 2, 4 & 5 e. nucleolus e. Transparent dentin formation
d. 1, 2 & 4
e. 1&3 68. Dens invaginatus (dens in dente) 73. The following are characteristics
occurs most commonly in which of trachea, except:
63. Tissues formed from the fusion of teeth?
the maxillary and medial nasal
process: a. Maxillary and mandibular lateral a. Muco-serous glands
incisors b. Ciliated pseudostratified with
a. Palatine shelves b. Maxillary lateral incisors goblet cells
b. Primary palate c. Maxillary canines c. None of the choice
c. Secondary palate d. Mandibular first premolars d. C-shaped hyaline cartilages
d. Branchial arch e. Trachealis muscle
69. Systemic inflammatory disease
64. Mycotic organisms are with acute febrile attacks that occurs 74. A disease of childhood
characteristically found in the heart with characteristic characterized by mental retardation,
microscopically within Aschoff nodules. delayed growth, and delayed tooth
reticuloendothelial cells in: eruption:
a. Impetigo contagiosa
a. Mucormycosis b. Rheumatic fever a. Testicular hormone
b. Candidiasis c. Scarlet fever b. Oxytocin
c. Aspergillosis d. Erysipelas c. Growth hormone
d. Histoplasmosis e. Epidemic spotted fever d. Mineralocorticoids
e. Thyroid hormone
65. Which of the following genera 70. Wirtz Conklin is a special stain
MOST frequently develops resistance used to demonstrate:
to penicillin? 75. An maculopapular rash caused by
a. Flagella obligate intracellular organism that is
a. Staphylococcus b. Capsule transmitted from human to human by
b. Actinomyces c. Spore body lice is:
c. Streptococcus d. Flagella and capsule
d. Treponema a. Rheumatic fever
e. Neisseria 71. Which of the following acids is the b. Scarlet fever
chief product of carbohydrate c. Typhoid fever
66. Organisms belonging to which of metabolism of Streptococcus mutans? d. Winter fever
the following genera can tolerate the e. Epidemic typhus fever
lowest pH? a. Propionic
b. Formic 76. Cells are involved in active growth
a. Staphylococcus c. Lactic and early keratin synthesis:

5
 81. Dry heat destroys microorganisms
a. Stratum spinosum primarily by: a. Traumatic introduction of
b. All of the choices bacteria
c. Keratin layer a. Lysis b. Septic emboli
d. Stratum granulosum b. Coagulation of protein c. Bacteria from the large bowel
e. Stratum basale c. Precipitation of salts migrating to the kidney through
d. Acceleration of enzyme retroperitoneal lymphatics
77. White matter of the spinal cord metabolism d. Bacteria ascending from the
consists chiefly of which of the e. oxidation lower urinary tract
following? e. Bacteria in the bloodstream
82. When this enzyme, lipase escapes
a. Unmyelinated axons into fatty depots, it will give rise to: 87. It is possible to distinguish
b. Loose connective tissue histologically between the stomach
c. Myelinated axons a. Coagulative necrosis and the duodenum because of the
d. Nerve cell bodies b. Gangrene necrosis presence of:
e. perineurium c. Caseous necrosis
d. Enzymatic fat necrosis a. Mucosal glands in the stomach
78. In adult cells, the regressive only
change shown by variation in their 83. This disease refers to iron b. Submucosal glands in the
size, shape and orientation is known overload associated with organ duodenum only
as: failure. c. Simple columnar epithelium
lining the stomach only
a. Hyperplasia a. Siderosis d. Muscularis mucosa in the
b. Aplasia b. Hemosiderosis stomach only
c. Metaplasia c. Hemoglobinuria e. Smooth muscle in the external
d. Dysplasia d. Hemochromatosis musculature of the duodenum
e. Anaplasia e. Biliary pigmentation only

79. These are non calcified 84. What histologic feature 88. Glycocalyx is located:
cementum: differentiates a periapical granuloma a. None of the choices
from a periapical cyst? b. Internal to nucleolemma
a. Cementoid and cellular c. Within the plasma membrane
cementum a. Presence of lymphocytes d. External to plasma lemma
b. Cellular cementum b. Presence of an epithelial line e. External to nucleolemma
c. Amyloid cavity
d. Cementoid c. Presence of mast cells
e. dentinoid d. Presence of plasma cells 89. An organism which thrives in a 8.5
% NaCl solution is said to be:
80. A sudden increase in the severity 85. A dark striae of retzius that occurs
of the signs and symptoms during the at the time of birth. a. Bacteriostatic
course of a disease is called: b. Antagonistic
a. Enamel tuft c. Thermophilic
a. Exacerbation b. Neonatal line d. Pleomorphic
b. Complication c. DEJ e. Halophilic
c. Sequel d. Gnarled enamel
d. Lesion e. Enamel lamellae
e. remission 90. A child has a history of generalized
86. Infection of the kidney is usually growth failure (failure to thrive)
caused by: during the first six months of his life.

6
Which of the following sequela is 94. An infectious disease caused by a b. DEJ
likely in this child? fungus which spreads from the lungs c. Enamel tuft
to the brain and CNS, skin, skeletal d. Enamel lamellae
a. enamel hypoplasia system and urinary tract, e. Striae of Retzius
b. retrusive mandible characterized by development of
c. retrusive midface tumors filled with gelatinous material 99. Which of the following cell types is
d. small permanent teeth in visceral and subcutaneous tissues associated with antibody formation?
e. dentinogenesis imperfecta
a. candidiasis a. Basophil
91. The bacterial population in the b. cryptococcosis b. Neutrophil
gingival sulcus or the pocket that c. actinomycosis c. Plasma cell
influences the courses of periodontal d. thrush d. Eosinophil
disease involves: e. amebiasis e. monocyte

a. Essentially a pure culture 95. All of the following are DNA 100. Malignant malaria is caused by:
b. Essentially the same organisms viruses except:
found in the healthy sulcus a. Plasmodium malariae
c. Mostly aerobic bacteria a. Coronaviridae b. Plasmodium vivax
d. Organisms that are not usually b. Hepadnaviridae c. Plasmodium falciparum
found in the healthy sulcus c. Adenoviridae d. Plasmodium ovale
e. Bacteria not indigenous to the d. Poxviridae
oral cavity e. Herpesviridae
GEN. PATHO/ OPATH/ MICROBIO-
92. A low grade indolent infection 96. In glycogen nephrosis, a REVALIDA
caused by an obligate intracellular complication of diabetes mellitus MAY 3, 2021
parasite with a strong tropism for wherein the glycogen Infiltration
macrophages and Schwann cells and occurs in the
affects primarily the cooler areas of 1. What type of tissue lines the
the body like the skin and the a. distal convoluted tubule esophagus?
peripheral nerves b. loop of Henle
c. glomerular tuft a. Simple columnar epithelium
a. tuberculosis d. proximal convoluted tubule b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
b. syphilis e. Bowman’s capsule c. Stratified squamous epithelium
c. leprosy d. Transitional epithelium
d. gonorrhea 97. Which of the following forms of e. Simple squamous epithelium
e. diphtheria connective tissue has a
preponderance of amorphous ground
93. One of the distinguishing substance over fibers? 2. Which of the following muscle
characteristics of all viruses is: tissues have the greatest chance for
a. Cartilage regeneration after healing?
a. Growth in cell-free medium b. Loose
b. Failure to grow in the absence of c. Dense, irregularly arranged a. Skeletal muscle
living cells d. Reticular b. Both smooth and cardiac muscle
c. Absence to nucleic acids e. Dense, regularly arranged c. Smooth muscle
d. Adaptability to external d. Cardiac muscle
environment 98. This causes the changes in the
e. Constant route of infection coloration of the enamel. 3. What is another term for an acinar
gland?
a. Water

7
a. Tubuloalveolar
b. Tubular a. Microfilaments 14. What type of tissue lines blood
c. Simple gland b. Tonofilaments vessels?
d. Compound gland c. Microtubules a. Simple cuboidal epithelium
e. alveolar d. Microfibrils b. Transitional epithelium
e. microvilli c. Simple columnar epithelium
4. What type of epithelium appears d. Stratified squamous epithelium
stratified, but is not? 9. The basophils in the circulating e. Simple squamous epithelium
blood are similar to which cell?
a. Endothelium 15. What is the collective name given
b. Mesothelium a. Platelet to lifeless substances- such as yolk, fat
c. Epithelioid tissue b. Kupffer cell and starch- that may be stored in
d. Transitional c. Mast cell various parts of the cytoplasm?
e. pseudostratified d. macrophage
a. ectoplasm
5. Which of the following explains 10. An active fibroblast is b. metaplasm
why the Barr body found in certain characterized by? c. protoplasm
epithelial cells is significant? d. nucleoplasm
a. Abundant endoplasmic reticulum
a. It suggests mitotic activity. b. Multiple nucleoli 16. The renal corpuscle is made up of:
b. It indicates protein synthesis. c. An unusually large nucleus
c. It indicates a metaplasmic d. A bloated appearance a. Collecting tubules
change. e. A thick plasma membrane b. Convoluted tubules
d. It is a symptom of nuclear c. Glomerulus and Bowman’s
disintegration. 11. Which of the following is NOT a capsule
e. It assists in differentiating cytoplasmic organelle? d. Loops of Henle
between the sexes.
a. Lysosome 17. Which of the following is a pure
6. What forms the striated border? b. Endoplasmic reticulum serous gland?
c. DNA
a. Cilia d. Golgi apparatus a. Glands of brunner
b. Microvilli b. Glands of von Ebner
c. Stereocillia 12. What type of epithelium is more c. Glands of Blandin-Nuhn
d. Keratinization than one layer thick? d. Sublingual gland
e. Microvilli and stereocilia e. Submandibular gland
a. Simple
7. Which of the following groups of b. Squamous 18. Each of the following cell types
organs are all retro-peritoneal? c. Cuboidal secretes the substance with which it is
d. Stratified paired, except:
a. Kidney, transverse colon and e. columnar
ovary a. Sertolli’s cells-testosterone
b. Pancreas, transverse colon and 13. The formation of the secondary b. Alpha cells of the pancreas-
descending colon palate completes around: glucagon
c. pancreas , stomach and ovary c. Corpus luteum-progesterone
d. Ureter, gallbladder, transverse a. 6th month d. Chromaffin cells of the
colon b. 3rd month suprarenal-catecholamine
e. kidney , adrenal and rectum c. Between 2nd and 3rd month
d. 5th month 19. What are the characteristics of the
8. The core of a cilium is composed of: e. 4th month cells in the epidermis of the skin?

8
 c. 4th week d. Type II
a. Cilia d. 7th week
b. Stereocillia e. 5th week 30. Development of the body of the
c. Keratinization mandible involves:
d. microvilli 25. The cribriform plate:
a. Intramembranous bone
20. The nucleolus of a cell functions a. Does not contain bundle bone development
to: b. Is avascular b. A complete cartilage model
a. synthesize t-RNA c. Is compact bone c. Reichert’s cartilage
b. synthesize r-RNA d. Is spongy bone d. A complete cartilage model and
c. synthesize m-RNA e. Is supporting bone reichert’s cartilage
d. synthesize DNA
26. Compared with intertubular 31. Kroff’s fibers are
21. Why are deeper carious lesions dentin, peritubular dentin is
more injurious to the dental pulp? characterized by which of the a. Intracellular
following? b. Related to reticular fibers
a. Increased dentin permeability in c. The same as enamel spindles
deeper areas a. Greater sustainability d. Found in odontoblastic processes
b. Decreased density of dentinal b. Greater content of inorganic salts e. The same as the enamel tufts
tubules in deeper areas c. Higher quantity of fluids
c. Increased length of the dentinal d. Greater content of large collagen 32. Known as proliferation stage:
tubules in deeper areas fibers
d. Decreased diameter of dentin e. Lesser content of inorganic salts a. Bud stage
tubules in deeper areas b. Bell stage
27. Which of the following is derived c. Cap stage
22. Dentin tubules are S-shaped in the from ectomesenchyme? d. Cap, bell, bud stage
crown of the tooth due to the:
a. Stratum intermedium 33. During which of the following
a. Formation of peritubular dentin b. Reduced enamel epithelium stages of tooth development does
b. Calcification pattern of maturing c. Stellate reticulum fused or geminated teeth occur?
dentin d. Odontoblasts
c. Epithelial diaphragm e. ameloblasts a. Calcification
d. Incremental pattern b. Initiation and proliferation
e. Crowding of odontoblasts 28. Which of the following dentat c. Eruption and exfoliation
entities is derived from the d. Apposition
23. Death of the odontoblasts usually mesoderm?
results to: 34. What is anachoresis?
a. Dental lamina
a. Transparent dentin formation b. Permanent anlage a. Artificial formation of an apical
b. Dead tracts formation c. Lamina propia barrier
c. Tertiary dentin d. Enamel spindle b. Induction of a biologic calcified
d. Reparative dentin formation e. Vestibular lamina apical barrier
e. Sclerotic dentin c. Systemic infection resulting from
29. What type of collagen is the most infected pulp tissue
24. At what week does the tongue prominent found in the dental pulp? d. Microorganism transport from
begin to develop? blood vessels into damaged tissue
a. Type IV
a. 3rd week b. Type III 35. Tooth formation is similar to
b. 6th week c. Type I exocrine gland formation in that:

9
 corresponding permanent teeth, is e. metaplasia
a. A proliferation of basal cells approximately:
occurs 44. A cigarette-smoking patient
b. The secretions both calcify and a. one-fourth notices a gradual onset of progressive,
the cells retreat b. one-half labored breathing characterized by
c. The secretory cells are cuboidal c. one-third prolonged, expiratory effort. The most
d. Both are formed mostly by d. one-fifth likely diagnosis is:
ectoderm e. same thickness
e. The dental lamina is a hollow a. Bronchopneumonia
cord of cells 40. During which trimester of b. carcinoma of the lung
pregnancy does calcification of teeth c. chronic bronchitis
36. What is the usual sequence of begin? d. left sided heart failure with
events in the histogenesis of s tooth? pulmonary congestion and
a. First edema
1.deposition of the first layer of b. third e. pulmonary emphysema
enamel c. Second
2.deposition of the first layer of d. fourth 45. The virus that causes acute
dentin e. Fifth herpetic gingivostomatitis is closely
3.elongation of inner enamel related to the virus that causes
epithelial cells 41. All are undergoing changes in the
4.differentiation of odontoblasts plasma membrane with cell injury, a. Mumps
except b. measles
a. 1,2,3,4 c. chickenpox
b. 3,4,1,2 a. swelling d. cat-scratch disease
c. 3,4,2,1 b. formation of cytoplasmic blebs
d. 4,1,2,3 c. blunting of microvilli 46. The most serious
e. 4,3,2,1 d. detachment of ribosomes immunodeficiency disorder is a:
e. loosening of intracellular
37. Hertwig’s epithelial sheath plays attachments a. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
an important role in the development b. Severe combined
of: 42. Which of the following is MOST immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
characteristic of cervicofacial c. Ataxia-Telangiectasia
a. Roots actinomycosis? d. Hyper-IgE syndrome
b. Crown a. Incrustation of the skin of the
c. Pulp cheek and neck 47. Acute leukemia may be
d. Dentin b. Enlarged cervical lymph nodes characterized by which of the
e. enamel c. Multiple abscesses with sinuses following?
d. Indurated nodules in the skin of
38. Cellular cementum and compact the neck 1. Anemia
bone contain: e. Single or multiple ulcers 2. Thrombocytopenia
3. Prolonged bleeding time
a. Sharpey’s fibers and elastic fibers 43. Which adaptive response is most 4. Elevated leukocyte count
b. All of the choice likely to fit the description of the a. 1,3,4
c. Collagen fibers and blood vessels uterus during pregnancy? b. 1,2,3,4
d. Lacunae and elastic fibers c. 3,4
e. Canaliculi and incremental lines a. Aplasia d. 1,2
b. Hyperplasia e. 2,3
39. The thickness of coronal dentin in c. Hypertrophy
primary teeth, compared with that in d. Dysplasia

10
48. Which of the following has been c. Angiosarcoma 58. A chronic obstructing fibrosis of
shown to have a relationship to d. Hemangiopericytoma the lymph nodes caused by the
carcinoma of the cervix? organism, Wuchereriabancrofti or by
53. The pulmonary neoplasm to which Brugia Malayi
a. Papovavirus the endocrine effect of
b. Herpesvirus hominis type II hyperparathyroidism is attributed is: a. schistosomiasis
c. Varicella-zoster virus b. filariasis
d. Herpesvirus hominis type I a. Medullary carcinoma c. ancylostomiasis
b. Oat cell carcinoma d. ascariasis
49. Vitamin A functions to: c. Pheochromocytoma e. pediculosis
d. Adenocarcinoma
a. Maintain the integrity of e. Squamous cell carcinoma 59. A two-year-old baby fractured his
connective tissues femur while crawling. He has pale
b. Promote absorption of calcium 54. When this enzyme, lipase escapes blue sclera, porosity of the long
c. Promote differentiation of into fatty depots, it will give rise to: bones, is extremely fragile, and is
epithelial cells deaf. He suffers from:
d. Prevent pellagra a. Enzymatic fat necrosis
e. Maintain skin hue b. Gangrene necrosis a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Caseous necrosis b. Craniofacial dysostosis
50. A non-specific stomatitis with d. Coagulative necrosis c. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
severe and painful ulcerations and d. Cleidocranial dysostosis
bloody encrustations, malaise, fever 55. The MOST common cause for e. Albers-Schonberg disease
and photophobia with lesions often in megaloblastic anemia is:
the pharynx and accompanied by 60. The deletion theory which is a
generalized cutaneous eruptions, widely accepted concept of
conjunctivitis and balanitis or vaginal a. Gastric bleeding carcinogenesis is based on:
ulcer in women are the findings of : b. Lack of dietary folic acid
c. Lack of absorption of vitamin B12 a. Heredity
a. Behcet’s syndrome d. Lack of dietary iron b. Viruses
b. lupus erythematosus e. Lack of dietary pyridoxine c. Loss of control mechanisms
c. Steven-Johnson syndrome d. Induction of chemical carcinogens
d. Reiter’s syndrome 56. Tuberculosis of the vertebrae or of e. DNA destruction
e. Darier white disease the spine is called
61. Stiffening or fixation of a tooth as
51. Which type of chromosome is a. scrofula the result of a disease process, with
usually missing from the cells of b. tabes mesenterica fibrous or bony union or fusion.
persons with Turner’s syndrome? c. tabes dorsalis
d. Pott’s disease a. Ectopic eruption
a. An autosome e. tabe spinae b. Eruption cysts
b. a sex chromosome c. Ankylosis
c. Chromosome 21 57. Rigor mortis occurs approximately d. impaction
d. a “ring” chromosome in how many hours after death?
e. a group A chromosome 62. The oral vesicular lesions of
a. 1-2 herpangina and hand-foot-mouth
52. Lymphangioma is most closely b. 2-4 disease are caused by:
related to c. 6-8
d. 4-6 a. Respiratory syncytial virus
a. Hemangioma b. Epstein-barr virus
b. cystic hygroma c. Varicella-zoster virus

11
d. Herpes simplex type 1 fluid. The remainder of the oral cavity c. 3, 4, & 5
e. coxsackievirus is normal. The most likely diagnosis is: d. 1, 2, & 3
e. 1 & 3 only
63. Clear Cell Odontogenic Tumor is a a. lymphangioma
rare neoplasm of the mandible and b. neurofibromatosis 72. Biopsy of a smooth, red,
maxilla and the etiology is unknown. c. cystic hygroma protruding lesion at the tip of the
a. if the first statement is correct d. granular cell tumor tongue reveals a stratified squamous
and the second statement is e. Sturge-Weber syndrome epithelium covering loose, fibrous
incorrect connective tissue that contains many
b. if the first statement is incorrect 68. Described as an out of place path thin-walled, engorged, vascular
and the second statement is of eruption that causes root spaces. The diagnosis is:
correct resorption of a portion of the adjacent
c. if both statements are correct primary tooth. a. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
d. if both statements are incorrect b. Granular cell tumor
a. Eruption cyst (myoblastoma)
64. The enlarged mandible of adults b. Ectopic eruption c. Papilloma
who have an eosinophilic adenoma of c. Ankylosis d. Hemangioma
the pituitary is due to: d. Impaction e. Fibroma

a. Frohlich’s syndrome 69. A rhabdomyosarcoma is a 73. Which of the following

b. Simmond’s disease malignant neoplasm derived from: characteristics most readily
c. Addison’s disease distinguishes amelogenesis
d. Cushing’s syndrome a. The blood vessels imperfecta from dentinogenesis
e. Acromegaly b. Smooth muscle tissue imperfecta?
c. The nerve tissue
65. In which of the following do d. Striated muscle tissue a. Color of the teeth
adenomatoid odontogenic tumors b. Associated hair loss
most often occur? 70. An individual with Addison’s c. Radiographic appearance
disease is most likely to experience d. Presence of blue sclera
a. Posterior maxilla which of the following? e. Hereditary background
b. Anterior mandible
c. Anterior maxilla a. Decreased ACTH levels
d. Posterior mandible b. Hypoglycemia 74. A maxillary first premolar shows a
c. Hypernatremia typical wedge-shaped notch from
66. The use of the suffix “blastoma” in d. Water retention dentifrice abrasion. The area is
oral neoplasia means: e. weight gain sensitive to scratching with an
explorer. This may be explained as:
a. Made of immature cells 71. Which of the following are
b. Slow growing common sites of intraoral squamous a. Hypersensitive cementum’
c. Malignant cell carcinoma? b. Hypersensitive dentin
d. Rapidly growing c. Neuritis
e. Benign 1. Hard palate d. Hypersensitive ename
2. Tongue e. None of the choices
67. Examination of a 6-year old girl 3. Gingiva
discloses macroglossia on the left side 4. Labial mucosa 75. The characteristics oral
of her tongue. It displays a diffuse 5. Floor of the mouth manifestation of agranulocytosis
distribution of 2-3mm elevated, gary- (malignant neutropenia) consists of:
pink nodules, some of which contain a. 2&5
b. 2, 3, & 4 a. Gingival hyperplasia

12
b. Ulceration of oral mucosa and c. Show complete anodontia 1. To have a higher
gingiva d. Are easily fractured because they occurrence in post-
c. Acute stomatitis are thin instrumentation samples
d. Multiple palatal petechiae e. Contain well-calcified teeth 2. To be more resistant to
antimicrobial treatments
76. Periapical cemento osseous 80. Of the following, which is most 3. To able to adapt to
dysplasia features include the likely to recur after initial surgery? harsh environmental
following except: conditions
a. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
a. usually involves more than one b. Ameloblastoma
tooth c. Cementoblastoma a. 1&2
b. usually involves maxillary d. Ameloblastic fibroma b. 1, 2 & 3
anterior teeth e. Complex odontoma c. 2&3
c. involved tooth or teeth retain its d. 1&3
vitality 81. High levels of Porphyromonas
d. initial lesion presents as gingivalis-specific antibodies are seen 85. What kind of immunity would
radiolucency in most adult periodontitis. These result in a susceptible person given
antibodies are which of the following? tetanus antitoxin?
77. A patient complains of severe pain
and fever. A poorly circumscribed a. IgE a. Natural, passive
radiolucency of the body of the b. IgD b. Artificial, active
mandible with a central sclerotic c. IgG c. Artificial, passive
nidus is detected. The disease is d. IgA d. Natural, active
probably: e. IgM
86. Type of organism needing small
a. osteosarcoma 82. Which of the following bacterial amounts of oxygen for existence is
b. ameloblastoma exotoxins converts plasminogen to known as?
c. osteomyelitis plasmin?
d. fibrous dysplasia a. Obligate anaerobe
e. ossifying fibroma a. M-protein b. Microaerophile
b. Plasmolysis c. Obligate aerobe
78. Chondrosarcoma more often c. Coagulase d. Facultative aerobe
involves the mandible and both d. Hyaluronidase
gender affects with equal distribution. e. Streptokinase 87. Antibiotics are obtained from
growth of:
a. if the first statement is correct 83. A number of fungi that commonly
and the second statement is cause superficial skin infections a. Bacteria and fungi
incorrect belong to the genus: b. Fungi and virus
b. if the first statement is incorrect c. Bacteria, fungi and spirochetes
and the second statement is a. Aspergillus d. Mycoplasma and rickettsiae
correct b. Histoplasma e. Tissue cell culture
c. if both statements are correct c. Blastomyces
d. if both statements are incorrect d. Coccidioides 88. The most likely source of bacteria
e. Trichophyton found in diseased periodontal tissue?
79. In osteogenesis imperfecta, the
maxilla and mandible: 84. Gram positive bacteria have been a. Sub and supra gingival
demonstrated: plaque
a. The teeth have elongated roots b. Serum
b. Show failure in eruption of teeth c. Saliva

13
 d. Supragingival plaque c. Produces properdin
e. Subgingival plaque 94. In which of the following mycotic d. Lyses red cells
infections are the organisms e. Produces lecithinase when
89. Protection against encapsulated characteristically found within the incubated anaerobically
bacterial pathogens is mediated reticuloendothelial cells?
mainly by: 99. The major cariogenic property of
a. Aspergillosis Streptococcus mutans is associated
a. Cellular immunity b. Histoplasmosis with its ability to produce which of
b. Non-specific anatomic barriers c. Candidiasis the following enzymes?
c. Cellular and humoral immunity d. Blastomycosis and aspergillosis
d. Humoral immunity e. blastomycosis a. Glucosyltransferase
b. Aminopeptidase
90. Which of the following is not c. Chondroitinase
considered a natural or acquired 95. Which of the following is an d. Fructosyltransferase
discoloration source? example of natural passive immunity? e. hyaluronidase

a. Calcific metamorphosis a. Vaccination with dead organisms 100. An Rh-negative mother delivered
b. Intrapulpal hemorrhage b. Placental transfer of mother’s a normal first child. Her second child
c. Tetracycline stain antibody developed symptoms of
d. Stain from amalgam c. Treatment with antibiotics erythroblastosis fetalis. Which of the
d. Injection of gamma globulin’ following can be concluded?
91. Which of the following is the
single most numerous group of 96. Which of the following is most a. The first baby is Rh-negative
microorganisms in the oral cavity? likely to be cultured from chronic b. The mother has very high levels of
bilateral ulcerations at the corners of serum complement and anti-Rh IgE
a. Beta-hemolytic the mouth? c. The first baby is a girl; the second
streptococci baby is a boy
b. Facultative streptococci a. Mucor d. None of the choices
c. Anaerobic streptococci b. Treponema e. The father is Rh-negative
d. enterococci c. Aspergillus
d. Brucella REVALIDA 4 SEPTEMBER 18, 2021
92. Persons having anti-A and anti-B e. candida
isoagglutinins in their serum belong in 1. What type of tissue is Wharton's
the blood group: 97. Which of the following genera jelly? A. Mucous connective tissue B.
MOST frequently develops resistance Mesenchyme C. Loose irregular
a. AB to penicillin? connective tissue D. Dense irregular
b. A connective tissue E. Dense regular
c. O a. Staphylococcus connective tissue
d. B b. Streptococcus
c. Actinomyces 2.Cells are involved in active growth
93. Shock during infection with gram- d. Treponema and early keratin synthesis: a. Keratin
negative bacteria is most likely caused e. Neisseria layer b. Stratum granulosum c.
by: Stratum basale d. Stratum spinosum
98. A lysogenic bacterium is one that: e. All of the choices
a. A capsular antigen
b. A flagellar antigen a. Harbors a temperate 3.What type of tissue composes the
c. Ribonuclease bacteriophage kidney tubules? a. Simple cuboidal
d. An endotoxin b. Produces spheroplasts when epithelium b. Stratified squamous
e. An exotoxin incubated anaerobically epithelium c. Transitional epithelium

14
d. Simple columnar epithelium e.
Simple squamous epithelium
4. Which of the following can be
classified as “connective tissue
proper”? a. Cartilage b. Bone c. Blood
d. Adipose tissue e. Dense irregular
connective tissue
5. Malformation resulting from fusion
between the maxillary and lateral
nasal process. A. Median cleft lip C.
bilateral cleft lip B. Macrostamia D.
oblique facial cleft E. unilateral cleft
lip
6. The ffg are characteristics of
thymus, except: A. entire organ has
cortex and medulla C. presence of
Hassall’s bodies B. each lobule has
cortex and medulla D. lymphocytes
are abundant in the cortex
7. Lymphatic nodules are formed in
the following lymphoid organs, except
L. Peyer's patch M. Lymph node N.
Thymus O. Tonsils P. spleen
8. What do you call a tissue composed
of a conglomeration of cells which are
tightly packed together, yet which
does not have a free surface? An
example of such a tissue would be the
parenchyma of the adrenal gland. A.
Epithelioid tissue B. Mesothelium C.
Endothelium D. Transitional E.
Pseudostratified
9. The renal corpuscle is made up of:
A.Convoluted tubules B. glomerulus
and Bowman’s capsule C. Loops of
Henle D. collecting tubules
10. This egg divides into two cells
while resulting cells divide again and
again a. Sperm b. Zygote c. Egg cell d.
Ovum e. Gotus
11. taenia coli characterize the___? A.
esophagus B. ileum C. stomach D.
transverse colon
12. What type of gland secretes its
product directly into the
bloodstream? A. Endocrine gland B.
Multicellular gland C. Exocrine gland
D. All of the above E. None of these
13. Which one of these cells is not a
cell type routinely found in loose
connective tissue? A. Fibroblast B.
Microglia C. Histiocyte D. Plasma cell
E. Mast cell
14. . Which of the following is NOT
lined by a mucosa? A. Genitourinary
tract B. Pericardial cavity C.
Respiratory tract D. Alimentary canal
E. All of the above are lined by a
mucosa
15. What type of epithelium has dome
shaped cells on the apical surface? a.
Pseudostratified b. Endothelium c.
Transitional d. Epithelioid tissue e.
Mesothelium
16. The primary purpose of cilia in
mammalian cells is to: A. Move solids
over their surface B. Move fluid,
mucous or cells over their surface C.
Absorb fluid, mucous or cells over
their surface D. Absorb solids and
liquids over their surface
17. A sinusoidal arrangement of blood
vessels is found in ___________. I.
hypophysis II. kidney III. spleen IV.
liver Choose the CORRECT answer A. I,
II C. I, II, IV B. II, III, IV D. I, III
18. Cytoplasmic ribonucleic acid is
localized in the ___? a. Mitochondria
b. Golgi apparatus c. Granular
endoplasmic reticulum d. Lysosomes
15
19. Which of the following features
distinguishes bone from osteoid? A.
Bone is not resorbed. B. Bone has a
mineralized matrix. C. Osteoid
contains fewer lacunae per unit area.
D. Osteoid contains a different type of
fiber in its matrix. E. All of these
20. from the standpoint of lesser to
greater size, which of the following
sequences of leukocytes is correct? A.
basophil, neutrophil, eosinophil,
monocyte B. monocyte, basophil,
neutrophil, eosinophil C. neutrophil,
eosinophil, monocyte, basophil D.
none of the choices E. eosinophil,
monocyte, basophil, neutrophil
21. Hertwig’s epithelial sheath plays
an important role in the development
of: A. enamel B. dentin C. roots D.
pulp E. none of the choices.
22. Tooth formation is similar to
exocrine gland formation in that: a.
The dental lamina is a hollow cord of
cells b. A proliferation of basal cell
occurs c. The secretory cells are
cuboidal d. The secretions both calcify
and the cells retreat e. Both are
formed mostly by ectoderm
23. The area where Sharpey’s fibers
are embedded into bone is termed? a.
Intramembranous bone b. Bundle
bone c. Haversian bone d. Cribriform
plate e. Lamellar bone
24. The main cell type in the
periodontal ligament is a: A.
ameloblast B. cementoblast C.
fibroblast D. odontoblast E. osteoblast
25. Dentinal tubules: A. form enamel
tufts B. anastomose C. are directly
surrounded by intertubular dentin D.
are not found in true denticles E. are
channels for blood vessels
26. which of the following has the
highest fluoride content: A. dentin B.
bone C. cementum D. enamel
27. gives rise to the pulp: A. inner
dental epithelium B. stellate reticulum
C. none of the choices D. dental
papilla E. dental sac
28. Odontoblasts are characterized
by: A. being located on external
surfaces of roots. B. Being shed from
the tooth at the time of eruption. C.
Differentiating first at the cervical
region of a forming tooth. D. Secreting
a non-fibrous matrix composed of
chains of amino acids. E. Possessing
long cytoplasmic processes which lie
within dentinal tubules.
29. Which of the following dental
entities is derived from the
mesoderm? A. dental lamina C.
enamel spindle B. vestibular lamina D.
permanent anlage E. lamina propria
30. Tooth is derived from the: a.
Ectoderm only b. Mesoderm and
endoderm c. Ectoderm and
mesoderm d. Mesoderm only
31. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath is
derived from which of the following?
A. Inner dental epithelium and stellate
reticulum B. Inner dental epithelium
and stratum intermedium C. Outer
dental epithelium and stellate
reticulum D. Outer dental epithelium
and stratum intermedium E. Inner
dental epithelium and outer dental
epithelium
32. In the life cycle of an ameloblast,
there are cells that contain Tome’s
processes. These cells are in which of
the following stage: A.Secretory B.
morphogenic C. organizing D.
maturative
33. During which trimester of
pregnancy does calcification of teeth
begin? A. First B. Second C. third D.
fourth E. fifth
34. The following are the
characteristics of cellular cementum,
except: A. Structural components are
cementocytes C. layer of cementum
with cells B. Extend to the inner wall
of dentin D. thickest at the apex
35. Mucosal areas of the oral cavity
that are not keratinized; 1. soft palate
2. sublingual 3. buccal 4. hard palate
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 1,2 & 3 E.
4 only
36. Compared with intertubular
dentin, peritubular dentin is
characterized by which of the
following? A. Greater stainability D.
Greater content of inorganic salts B.
Higher quantity of fluids E. Greater
content of large collagen fibers. C.
Lesser content of inorganic salts
37. one is most likely to find gnarled
enamel in: A. cervical areas B.
opposite Tome’s granular layer C.
carious areas D. cuspal areas E. only in
the canines for gnarling
38. A dark striae of retzius that occurs
at the time of birth. h. Enamel tuft i.
Neonatal line j. DEJ k. Gnarled enamel
l. Enamel lamellae
39. The thickness of coronal dentin in
primary teeth, compared with that in
corresponding permanent teeth, is
approximately: a. one-fourth b. one-
half c. one-third d. one-fifth e. same
thickness
40. which of the following is not a
stage of tooth formation? A. bell B.
basal C. cap D. bud
16
41. This disorder, related to any
occupational activity associated with
stone cutting, manifests as nodules of
fibrosis that are black. Those affected
have a propensity for developing
tuberculosis. A. anthracosis B.
berylliosis C. asbestosis D. siderosis E.
silicosis
42. Osgood-Schlatter disease is: A.
destruction of the growth plate in the
neck of the tighbone. B. inflammation
of the bone and cartilage at the top of
the shinbone C. a relatively common
condition in which backache and
humpback are caused by changes in
the vertebrae D. a rare form of
inflammation of bone and cartilage
affecting one of the small bones in the
foot.
43. A sudden increase in the severity
of the signs and symptoms during the
course of a disease is called: a. Sequel
b. Remission c. Exacerbation d. Lesion
e. Complication
44. A classic hemophilia is due to a
deficiency of normal Factor VIII which
in turn is due to a genetic deficiency
that is: A. Partially dominant B.
autosomal recessive C. Autosomal
dominant D. sex-linked dominant E.
sex-linked recessive
45. In adult cells, the regressive
change shown by variation in their
size, shape and orientation is known
as A. metaplasia C. anaplasia B.
dysplasia D. aplasia E. hyperplasia.
46. The MOST common cause for
megaloblastic anemia is: a. Gastric
bleeding b. Lack of dietary folic acid c.
Lack of absorption of vitamin B12 d.
Lack of dietary iron e. Lack of dietary
pyridoxine
47. Which of the following contains
enamel and dentin? A.
ameloblastoma B. cementoblastoma
C. complex odontoma D. ameloblastic
fibroma E. adenomatoid odontogenic
tumor
48. Bone pain, osteolytic lesions,
plasma cell infiltration of marrow and
synthesis of abnormal
immunoglobulins describe: A.
Systemic lupus erythematosus B.
polyclonal gammopathy C. Selective
IgA Deficiency D. Paget’s disease of
bone E. multiple myeloma
49. Lymphomas principally involve
which of the following: 1. lymph
nodes 2. spleen 3. liver 4. bone
marrow A. 1 & 2 B. 1,2 & 3 C. 2,3 & 4
D. 1,2,3 & 4 E. 1 only
50. Which of the following represents
the most frequent cause of a clinically
palpable breast mass in an adult
women? A. Sarcoma
B.adenocarcinoma C. Fibroadenoma
D. fibrocystic disease E. intraductal
papilloma
51. A self-limiting fibroosseous
developmental condition of young
people that may cause a facial
swelling that usually does not cross
the midline, has a “ground glass” x-ray
appearance is: A. fibrous dysplasia B.
odontogenic myxoma C. Pindborg
tumor D. ossifying fibroma E. florid
osseous dysplasia
52. Patients with CML (chronic
myelogenous leukemia) present a
structural chromosome anomaly
arising at the somatic level known as
the Philadelphia chromosome. There
is translocation from chromsosome 9
to A. 12 B.21 C,22 D.20 E.23
53. Reed-sternberg cell is
characteristic of which type of
lymphoma? a. Burkitt’s lymphoma b.
Cutaneous lymphoma c. Mycosis
fungiodes d. Non-Hodgkin’s
lymphoma e. Hodgkin’s disease
54. For the majority of individuals, the
initial infection with herpes simplex
virus results in: a. A dermal rash in
childhood b. Subclinical disease c.
Genital herpes d. Herpes labialis in
puberty e. Encephalitis as a young
adult
55. Amyloid deposits in the splenic
lobules is called ; A. lardaceous spleen
B. idiopathic spleen C. sago spleen D.
congested spleen E. atrophied spleen.
56. Which of the following findings is
an invariably histologic feature of
granulomatous inflammation? A.
caseous necrosis D. multinucleated
giant cells B. positive acid-fast staining
of causative organism E. surrounding
cuff of lymphocytes C. epithelioid cells
57. the disease characterized by
radiolucent bone lesions, anemia
hypergammaglobulinemia, and one or
more bone marrow tumors containing
predominantly plasma cells is: A.
multiple myeloma B. thalassemia C.
Hodgkin’s disease D. Pernicious
anemia E. Leukemia
58. Which of the following is the usual
cause of chronic pyelonephritis? A.
Systemic hypertension B. chronic
glomerulonephritis C. Type IV
hypersensitivity D. bacteremia
seeding of the kidneys E. Infection
resulting from urinary reflux
59. An individual that presents with
keratoconjunctivitis, parotid gland
enlargement and a positive Rh factor
is most likely to be diagnosed with: a.
17
Polyarteritis nodosa b. Rheumatoid
arthritis c. Reiter’s syndrome d.
Sjogren's syndrome e. Systemic Lupus
Erythematosus
60. Which of the following
inflammation commonly is
characterized by collections of dead
and dying polymorphs, dead and
dying bacteria, and necrosis of tissue,
all of which form a turbid or thick fluid
in tissues? A. catarrhal inflammation
C. phlegmonous inflammation B.
cellulitis D. abscess formation E.
granulomatous inflammation
61. A condition where the enamel has
defective formation of matrix: A.
Enamel Hypoplasia C. Enamel
Hypomaturation B. Enamel
Hypocalcification D. none of these
62. An oral papilloma: A. may occur as
multiple lesions on the palate B. never
occurs in young children C. has been
proven to be of viral etiology D. is
composed of proliferating connective
tissue E. very frequently develops into
a squamous cell carcinoma
63. the first clinical manifestation of
herpes simplex virus type 1 infection
is usually A. involvement of genital
tract B. none of the choice C.
gingivostomatitis D. perleche E.
keratoconjunctivitis
64. pathologic fracture of the maxilla
and mandible does not occur in: A.
multiple myeloma B. myositis
ossificans C. giant cell tumor of bone
D. bone cyst E. primary or metastatic
carcinoma
65. what is the most common
iatrogenic etiology related to tooth
discoloration? A. incomplete removal
of pulp tissue B. the use of intracanal
medicaments C. incomplete removal
of obturating material from the
chamber D. intracanal irrigants
66. Which of the following
characteristics most readily
distiguishes amelogenesis imperfecta
from dentinogenesis imperfecta?
a.Radiographic appearance
b.Hereditary background c. Presence
of blue sclera d.Color of the teeth
e.Associated hair loss
67. Described as an out of place path
of eruption that causes root
resorption of a portion of the adjacent
primary tooth. a. Eruption cyst b.
Ectopic eruption c. Ankylosis d.
Impaction
68. Which of the following contains
enamel and dentin? A.
ameloblastoma C. adenomatoid
odontogenic tumor B.
cementoblastoma D. complex
odontoma E. ameloblastic fibroma
69. an abnormal accumulation of fluid
in the oral tissues due to blocking of
lymphatics is: A. embolism B.
inflammatory edema C. cardiac
edema D. lymph edema E. nephrotic
edema
70. Stiffening or fixation of a tooth as
the result of a disease process, with
fibrous or bony union or fusion. a.
Ectopic eruption b. Eruption cysts c.
Ankylosis d. impaction
71. Genetic disorders influencing
permanent teeth eruption: 1. `genetic
disorders influencing permanent
teeth eruption 2. Apert syndrome 3.
cherubism a. 1 & 2 b. 1 & 3 c. 2 & 3 d.
1, 2 & 3
72. The bacterial population in the
gingival sulcus or the pocket that
influences the courses of periodontal
disease involves: a. Essentially a pure
culture b. Essentially the same
organisms found in the healthy sulcus
c. Mostly aerobic bacteria d.
Organisms that are not usually found
in the healthy sulcus e. Bacteria not
indigenous to the oral cavity
73. A panorex radiograph shows a
well-defined, mixed
radiolucent/radiopaque lesion in the
left ramus. Differential diagnosis
considerations for this lesion include:
1. ameloblastic fibroma 2. complex
odontoma 3. odontogenic myxoma 4.
central ossifying fibroma A. 1 and 3 B.
2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 4 E. 1,2, 3 and
4 the following except: A. may arise in
74. Of the following, which is a major
neuralgia that may be characterized
as a paroxysmal disturbances of the
fifth cranial nerve and the presence of
a trigger zone? a. Glossopharyngeal
neuralgia b. Sphenopalatine neuralgia
c. Trigeminal neuralgia d. Orolingual
neuralgia
75. An uncommon benign
odontogenic neoplasm in which both
epithelial and connective tissue
components are neoplastic, which
affects young people, occurs in the
posterior mandible, and does not
infiltrate the surrounding tissues is
a/an: A. mixed tumor B.
ameloblastoma C. ameloblastic
fibroma D. odontogenic myxoma E.
odontogenic adenomatoid tumor
76. The characteristics oral
manifestation of agranulocytosis
(malignant neutropenia) consists of: a.
Gingival hyperplasia b. Ulceration of
oral mucosa and gingiva c. Acute
stomatitis d. Multiple palatal
petechiae
18
77. Pindborg tumor exhibit the
following features except: A.
microscopic features are similar to an
ameloblastoma B. usually affects the
mandibular molar-ramus area C. slow
growing D. age of occurrence is same
as that in ameloblastoma E. none of
the above
78. What histologic feature
differentiates a periapical granuloma
from a periapical cyst? hh. Presence
of lymphocytes ii. Presence of an
epithelial line cavity jj. Presence of
mast cells kk. Presence of plasma cells
79. Ameloblastoma features include
wall of dentigerous cyst C.
asymptomatic c. asymptomatic B.
may exhibit aggressive behavior D.
multilocular radiopacities
80. Which of the following reactive
lesions of the gingival tissue reveals
bone formation microscopically? A.
Peripheral ossifying fibroma B.
Irritation fibroma C. Traumatic
neuroma D. Osteoma E. Pyogenic
granuloma
81. Bacterial capsules usually consist
of: a. Polypeptides polysaccharides b.
Lipids and cellulose c. Cellulose d.
Lipids e. Chitins
82. histamine release from mast cells
requires: A. antigen attached to mast
cells and reacting with antibody B.
antibodies (IgE) attached to mast cells
and reacting with antigen C. Antigen
attached to mast cells, but no reaction
with antibody D. antibodies (IgE)
attached to mast cells but no reaction
with antigen E. antibodies (IgE) of
attached to mast cells and not
reacting with antigen
83. Dry heat destroys microorganisms
primarily by: a. Lysis b.Oxidaton c.
Precipitaton of salts d.Coagulation of
protein e.Acceleration of enzyme
metabolism
84. Persons having anti-A and anti-B
isoagglutinins in their serum belong in
the blood group: a. B b. AB c. O d. A
85. Bacterial capsules usually consist
of: a. Polypeptides polysaccharides b.
Lipids and cellulose c. Cellulose d.
Lipids e. Chitins
86. Infection of the kidney is usually
caused by: j. Traumatic introduction
of bacteria k. Septic emboli l. Bacteria
from the large bowel migrating to the
kidney through retroperitoneal
lymphatics m. Bacteria ascending
from the lower urinary tract n.
Bacteria in the bloodstream
87. Shock during infection with gram-
negative bacteria is most likely caused
by: a. A capsular antigen b. A flagellar
antigen c. Ribonuclease d. An
endotoxin e. An exotoxin
88. The oral vesicular lesions of
herpangina and hand-foot-mouth
disease are caused by: A.
Coxsackievirus C. herpes simplex type
1 B. Epstein-Barr virus D. varicella-
zoster virus E. respiratory syncytial
virus
89. Wirtz Conklin is a special stain
used to demonstrate: A. Flagella C.
spore B. Capsule D. both A & B E. all of
these
90. Acute osteomyelitis is most
frequently caused by which of the
following microorganisms? A.
Gonococcus C, streptococcus B.
Enterococcus D. staphylococcus E. all
of them
91. Human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV) can directly infect all of the
following cells, except: A, neurons C.
CD4 (helper) lymphocytes B,
macrophages D. CD8 (suppressor)
lymphocytes
92. A dentist uses an unsaturated,
chemical sterilizer for sterilizing
dental instruments. To effectively kill
all microorganisms and spores, the
dentist must maintain a temperature
of 132ºC at 20 – 40 psi for at least
how many minutes? A. 10 B. 20 C. 30
D. 40
93. the ghon complex, a lesion in the
lung and the regional lymph nodes, is
found in: A.primary tuberculosis B.
blastomycosis C.none of the above
D.histoplasmosis E.actinomycosis
94. What kind of immunity would
result in a susceptible person given
tetanus antitoxin? a. Natural, passive
b. Artificial, active c. Artificial, passive
d. Natural, active
95. Which of the following are viral
diseases? j. Mumps k. Influenza l.
Scarlet fever m. Herpes simplex n.
Whooping cough o. 1 & 5 p. 2,3 & 5 q.
2, 4 & 5 r. 1, 2 & 4 s. 1 & 3
96. Which of the following is not
considered a natural or acquired
discoloration source? a. Calcific
metamorphosis b. Intrapulpal
hemorrhage c. Tetracycline stain d.
Stain from amalgam
97. A child that has blood taken and
analyzed reveals a high IgM titer for
the mumps antigen. The presence of
this antigen indicates which of the
following? A. The child has developed
an immunity to mumps. B. The child
has recovered from the mumps. C.
19
The child is about to develop the
mumps. D. The child is allergic to
mumps. E. The child is not able to
“spread” the mumps to anyone else.
98. A number of fungi that commonly
cause superficial skin infections
belong to the genus: A, Aspergillus C.
Histoplasma E. Blastomyces B.
Coccidiodes D. Trichophyton
99. the microorganisms most resistant
to elimination to dry heat and
autoclave sterilization A. mold B. fungi
C. parasites D. endospores
100. A 17-yr old patient had
periodontitis involving the anterior
teeth with sparse plaque. Which of
the following is the probable primary
pathogen? A. fusobacterium
nucleatum B. bacteriodes forsythius C.
actinobacillus
actinomycetemcomitans
D.porphyromonas gingivalis E.
prevotella intermedia
GEN PATH/ ORAL PATH / MICROBIO
1. Acute leukemia may be
characterized by which of the
following
a. Anemia
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Prolonged bleeding time
d. Elevated leukocyte count
e. All of the above
2. Radiographs of a young adult
show that all permanent teeth
have small roots and obliterated
pulp chambers. These findings
are indicative of:
a. Osteomalacia
b. amelogenesisimperfecta
c. cleidocranialdysostosis
d. dentinogenesis imperfect
e. none of the above
3. which of the ff diseases is
characterized by normal serum
calcium and phosphorus and
elevated serum alkaline
phosphatase
 a. psteomalacia 9. Of the following, the one NOT an 14. The pathologic basis for
b. renal rickets odontogenic lesion, mongolism is
c. hypoparathyroidism histogenetically, is the a. Excessive ingestion of
d. hyperparathyroidism a. Ameloblastoma fluorides
4. aspiration of blood or fragments b. Radicular cyst b. Trisomy 21
of tissue during operative c. Complex odontoma c. Disomy 21
procedures in the mouth MOST d. Median palatal cyst d. Congenital syphilis
frequently results in e. Adenomatoidodontogenic e. Nutritional deficiencies
a. fatal laryngeal spasms tumor 15. The characteristic oral
b. lobar pneumonia 10. Which of the ff statements about manifestation of agranulocytosis
c. laryngitis syphilis is CORRECT? (malignant neutropenia consists
d. lung abscess A. The Serological test for of
e. actinomycoses of the lung syphilis is strongly positive a. Acute stomatitis
5. Of the following, which is a during the early primary b. Gingival hyperplasia
MAJOR neuralgia that may be stage c. Multiple palatal
characterized as a paroxysmal B. The mucocutaneouslesionsof petechiae
disturbances of the fifth cranial secondary spirochetes d. Ulceration of oral
nerve and the presence of a contain many spirochetes mucosa and gingiva
trigger zone? C. The typical lesion of e. None of the above
a. Trigeminal neuralgia secondary syphilis is called 16. 16. A two-year old baby fractures
b. Orolingual paresthesia the gumma his femur while crawling. He has
c. Sphenopalatine neuralgia D. The chancre is not pale blue sclera, porosity of the
d. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia contagious long bones, is extremely fragile
e. None of the above E. All of the above and is deaf. He suffers from
6. Which of the ffconnective tissue 11. All of the ff may have similar a. Craniofacial dysostosis
tumors is noted for the property radiographic findings EXCEPT b. Osteogenesis imperfect
of inducing pseudocarcinomatous a. Ameloblastoma c. Cleidocranialdysostosis
change in adjacent epithelium? b. Radicular cyst d. Albers-Schonberg
a. Fibroma c. Complex odontoma syndrome
b. Neurilemomma d. Eosinophilic granuloma e. Mandibulo-facial
c. Fibrosarcoma e. Lateral periodontal cyst dysostosis
d. Granular cell myoblastoma 12. The FIRST cell to arrive from the 17. A one-year old child who has
e. None of the above vascular bed to an injured area is bilateral facial swelling, fever,
7. Which of the following is most the leukocytosis, and hyperostosis of
characteristic of a. Eosinophil the facial bones with negative
cervicofacialactinomycosis b. Lymphocyte blood cultures MOST likely has
a. Single or multiple ulcers c. Neutrophil a. Caffey-Smith syndrome
b. Enlarged cervical lymph d. Plasma cell b. Infectious parotitis
nodes e. None of the above c. Osteogenic sarcoma
c. Multiple abscesses with 13. The oral mucosal lesions of lichen d. Osteomyelitis
sinuses planus, leukoplakia, and discoid e. Cherubism
d. Indurated nodules in the skin lupus erythematosus have at 18. The primary sources of the
of the neck least one common feature. They pathogenic microorganism in the
e. Incrustation of the skin of the are all dental infirmary is
cheek and neck A. keratotic lesions a. Light handles
8. Fordyce’s granules appear B. Premalignant lesions b. Dust particles
microscopically to be C. Consequences of vitamin A c. Patient’s charts
a. Sweat glands deficiency d. Mouths of the patients
b. Sebaceous glands D. Characterized by e. Hands of clinicians
c. Actinomycotic lesions granulomatous proliferation 19. A disease of childhood
d. Mucuos salivary glands E. Associated with local chronic characterized by mental
e. Serous salivary glands irritation

20
 retardation, delayed growth, and of glucose by homofermentative b. Epstein-Barr virus
delayed tooth eruption strep. Mutans? c. Herpes simplex type 1
a. Oxytocin a. Mannitol d. Varicella-zoster virus
b. Growth hormone b. Lactic acid e. Respiratory syncytial
c. Thyroid hormone c. Acetic acid virus
d. Testicular hormone d. Proprionic acid 31. An embolus originating as a
e. Mineralocorticoids 25. Adenocarcinomas of the large thrombus in the femoral vein
20. During delayed hypersensitivity intestine are most common in usually occludes a blood vessel in
reactions, sensitized small which segment of the colon the
lymphocytes produce a. Ascending a. Lung
a. Antibodies b. Transverse b. Brain
b. Histamine c. Descending c. Liver
c. Lymphokines d. Rectosigmoid d. Kidney
d. None of the above e. Ascending and e. Heart
21. The class of antibodies first transverse 32. In skin graft rejection, the MAJOR
detected in serum after primary 26. Which of the ff microorganisms is host response is
immunization is actually most likely to be cultured from a. An Arthus reaction
a. IgA chronic, bilateral ulcerations at b. A cell-mediated reaction
b. IgD the corners of the mouth? c. Passive cutaneous
c. IgE a. Candida anaphylaxis
d. IgG b. Brucella d. None of the above
e. IgM c. Treponema 33. Lecithinase are produced by
22. The rickettsial disease that may d. Aspergillus a. Bacillus anthracis
have oral manifestations e. Histoplasma b. Clostridium perfringens
a. Rickettsial pox 27. The most likely source of bacteria c. Salmonella schottmulleir
b. Brill’s disease found in diseased periodontal d. Mycobacterium
c. Epidemic typhus tissue tuberculosis
d. None of the above a. Serum e. Corynebacteriumdipther
23. The ability of certain oral b. Saliva iae
microorganisms to function as c. Subgingival plaque 34. If a susceptible person were given
etiologic agents of dental caries d. Supragingival plaque tetanus antitoxin, what kind of
appears to be correlated with the e. None of the above immunity would result?
capacity of these organisms to 28. Keloids are composed a. Innate
produce predominantly of b. Natural active
a. Proteolytic enzymes a. Adipose tissue c. Natural passive
capable of hydrolyzing b. Collagen fibers d. Artificial active
salivary proteins c. Granulation tissue e. Artificial passive
b. Capsules that inhibit the d. Caseous necrotic debris 35. Aspiration of material from
activity of phagocytic e. Serum carious teeth may cause
cells present in saliva 29. Which of the following diseases is a. Lung abscess
c. Carbonic anhydrase, an caused by an agent that produces b. Tuberculosis
enzyme active in neither exotoxins nor c. Lobar pneumonia
decreasing the CO2 endotoxins? d. Bronchopneumonia
content of saliva a. Cholera e. Interstitial pneumonia
d. An extracellular b. Gonorrhea 36. Sterilization refers to which of the
polysaccharide dextran- c. Brucellosis following?
like substance in the d. Gas gangrene a. Absence of all living
formation of dental e. Tuberculosis forms
plaque 30. The oral vesicular lesions of b. Inhibition of bacterial
e. None of the above herpangina and hand-foot and growth
24. Which of the ff is formed in large mouth diseases are caused by c. Removal of pathogenic
quantities during the degradation a. Coxsackie virus bacteria only

21
 d. Removal of pathogenic
bacteria, viruses and
fungi
e. Generation of bacteria
37. For the majority of individuals,
the initial infection with herpes
simplex virus results in
a. Genital herpes
b. Subclinical disease
c. Herpes labialis in
puberty
d. A dermal rash in
childhood
e. Encephalitis as a young
adult
38. Which of the ff diseases exhibit a
normal prothrombin time with a
prolonged partial thromboplastin
time?
a. Leukemia
b. Afibrinoginemia
c. Chronic liver disease
d. Athrombocytopeniapurp
ura
e. Factor VIII deficiency
(hemophilia)
39. Cytopathogenic effect in tissue
culture cells is used specifically
for identification of certain
a. Fungi
b. Viruses
c. Anaerobes
d. Spirochetes
e. Spore-formers
40. Which of the following is
demyelinating disease of the
CNS?
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Hodgkin’s disease
41. Bacterial capsules usually consist
of
a. Chitins
b. Cellulose
c. Polypeptide
polysaccharides
d. Lipids
42. Esophageal varices are a common
complication of
a. Portal hypertension
b. Primary hypertension
c. Mesenteric thrombosis
d. Carcinoma of the
esophagus
e. Metastatic disease of the
breast
43. On the basis of histogenesis and
transition observed in clinical
cases, there appears to be a
relationship between lymphocytic
lymphoma and
a. Lymphadenitis
b. Lymphoepithelioma
c. Lymphocytic leukemia
d. Lymphocytic
leukocytosis
e. None of the above
44. The bacterial population in the
gingival sulcus or the pocket that
influences the courses of
periodontal disease involves
a. Mostly aerobic bacteria
b. Essentially a pure culture
c. Bacteria not indigenous
to the oral cavity
d. Essentially the same
organisms found in the
healthy sulcus
e. Organisms that are not
usually found in the
healthy sulcus
45. Classic hemophilia I due to a
deficiency of normal Factor VIII
which in turn is due to a genetic
deficiency that is
a. Partially dominant
b. Autosomal dominant
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Sex-linked dominant
e. Sex-linked recessive
46. A rhabdomyosarcoma is a
malignant neoplasm derived from
a. The nerve tissue
b. The blood vessels
c. Smooth muscle tissue
d. Striated muscle tissue
47. Which of the following drugs is
likely to aid in treating or
preventing influenza in high risk
subjects during epidemics?
a. Acyclovir
b. Amantadine
c. Griseofulvin
22
d. Stilbamide
e. Amphotericin B
48. A reduction in acid secretion by
the stomach, an increased
tendency toward gastric
carcinoma, atrophic glossitis, and
myelin degeneration in the spinal
cord are characteristics of:
a. Thalassemia
b. Agranulocytosis
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Pernicious anemia
e. Polycythemia vera
49. Histamine release from mast cells
requires
a. Antibodies (IgE) attached
to mast cells and
reacting with antigen
b. Antigen attached to
mast cells and reacting
with antibody
c. Antibody (IgE) attached
to mast cells but no
reaction with antigen
d. Antigen attached to
mast cells but no
reaction with antibody
e. Antibodies (IgE) not
attached to mast cells
and not reacting with
antigen
50. Squamous epithelium exhibiting
acanthosis, disorganization of
pattern and atypical cells without
invasion is diagnostic of ___plasia
a. Dys
b. Neo
c. Meta
d. Hypo
e. Proso
51. Antiseptics differ from
disinfectants in that antiseptics
a. Sterilize
b. Kills pathogens
c. Are bactericidal only
d. Are bacteriostatic only
e. Are applied to living
tissues
52. As opposed to loabr pneumonia,
bronchopneumonia is
characterized grossly and
microscopically by
 a. Inflammation of a e. Bacteria from the large d. Streptococcus
bronchus bowel migrating to the e. Staphylococcus
b. Organization of alveolar kidney through 62. The earlieast changes in
exudates retroperitoneal rheumatoid arthtitis occur in the
c. A patchy, inflammatory lymphatics a. Synovia
distribution 57. Which of the following forms of b. Epiphysis
d. A diffuse, inflammatory oral ulcerations involves oral, c. Attached ligament
distribution ocular and genital lesions? d. Attached cartilage
e. NOTA a. Bahcets e. Attached tendons
53. The disease char. By radiolucent b. Herperiform 63. The etiologic agent of
bone lesions, anemia c. Recurrent aphthous actinomycosis in man is
hypergammaglobulinemia, and d. All of the above a. Exogenous and is found
one or more bone marrow e. None of the above in infected meat
tumors containing predominantly 58. Striated muscles, smooth muscle, b. Exogenous and requires
plasma cells is and cardiac muscle have in contact with a vector
a. Leukemia common the fact that c. Exogenous and requires
b. Thalassemia a. Hyperplasia of these inhalation of spores
c. Multiple myeloma elements is common d. Endogenous and is found
d. Hodgkin’s ds. b. Hypertrophy is a in healthy mouths
e. Pernicious anemia common response to e. Endogenous and is
54. Multinucleated giant cells of the injury carried in the lower GIT
foreign body type originate from c. They have a limited 64. Actinomycosis is characterized by
a. Nuclear division of capacity to regenerate a ____ exudates
granulocytes d. They need a constant a. Serous
b. Atypical regeneration of high O2 concentration to b. Purulent
epithelium function c. Hemorrhagic
c. Bone marrow with e. They have an unlimited d. Pseudomembranous
migration into the area capacity to regenerate e. Fibrinous, nonpurulent
d. Multiplication of nuclei 59. Which of the following is the 65. A lysogenic bacterium is one that
in surrounding fibrocytes most numerous group of a. Lyses red cells
e. Fusion or nuclear microorganisms in the oral cavity b. Produces properdin
division of mononuclear a. Enterococci c. Harbors a temperate
cells b. Anaerobic streptococci bacteriophage
55. Which of the ff lab results is c. Facultative streptococci d. Produces recithinase
diagnostic of acute pancreatitis? d. Beta-hemolytic when incubated
a. Decreased albumin streptococci anaerobically
b. Decreased serum e. Aerobic streptococci e. Produces spherolpiasts
amylase 60. In which of the following mycotic when incubated
c. Elevated serum lipase infections are the organisms anaerobically
d. Elevated serum amylase characteristically found within 66. A complete blood cell count in a
e. Elevated alkaline the reticuloendothelial cells? patient with severe emphysema
phosphatase a. Candidiasis is most likely to show
56. Infection of the kidney is usually b. Aspergillosis a. Anemia
caused by? c. Blastomycosis b. Leucopenia
a. Septic emboli d. Histoplasmosis c. Polycythemia
b. Bacteria in the e. None of the above d. Leukocytosis
bloodstream 61. Which of the following genera e. Macocythemia
c. Traumatic introduction most frequently develops 67. The pulmonary neoplasm to
of bacteria resistance to penicillin? which the endocrine effect of
d. Bacteria ascending from a. Neisseria hyperparathyroidism is attributed
the lower urinary tract b. Treponema is
c. Actinomuces a. Adenocarcinoma

23
 b. Oat cell carcinoma d. Summer diarrhea a. Simple squamous ep.
c. Pheochromocytoma e. Staphylococcal food b. Simple cuboidal ep.
d. Medullary carcinoma poisoning c. Simple columnar ep.
e. Squamous cell 74. In which of the ff mycotic d. Stratified squamous ep.
carcinoma infections are the organism e. Pseudostratified ep.
68. Of the ff the most common site of characteristically found 80. What type of tissue lines blood
a basal cell carcinoma is the microscopically within vessels?
a. Tongue reticuloendothelial cells? a. Simple squamous ep.
b. Gingiva a. Candidiasis b. Simple cuboidal ep.
c. Lower lip b. Aspergillosis c. Simple columnar ep.
d. Upper face c. Blastomycosis d. Stratified squamous ep.
e. Oral mucosa d. Histoplasmosis e. Transitional ep.
69. MOST viral antigens of diagnostic e. Sclerosis 81. What type of epithelium is more
importance are 75. Which of the ff conditions is than one layer thick?
a. Lipids suggested in a patient with a. Simple
b. Proteins nausea and vomiting, b. Stratified
c. Nucleic acid pigmentation of the oral mucosa c. Squamous
d. Polysaccharides and skin, hypotension, and d. Cuboidal
e. Lipopolysaccharides asthenia? e. Columnar
70. The most common cause for a. Myxedema 82. What do you call a tissue
megaloblastic anemia is b. Pineal tumor composed of a conglomeration of
a. Gastric bleeding c. Grave’s ds. cells which are tightly packed
b. Lack of dietary iron d. Addison’s ds. together, yet which does not
c. Lack of dietary folic acid e. Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome have a free surface? An example
d. Lack of dietary 76. Which of the ff has been shown of such a tissue would be the
pyroxidine to have a relationship to parenchyma of the adrenal gland.
e. Lack of absorption of vit carcinoma of the cervix? a. Epithelioid tissue
B12 a. Papovavirus b. Mesothelium
71. Vit A functions to b. Varicella-zoster virus c. Endothelium
a. Prevent pellagra c. Herpesvirus hominis d. Transitional
b. Promote absorption of type I e. Pseudostratified
calcium d. Herpesvirus hominis 83. What type of epithelium appears
c. Promote differentiation type II stratified but is not?
of epithelial cells e. NOTA a. Epithelioid ts.
d. Maintain the integrity of 77. A pt with which of the ff diseases b. Mesothelium
connective tissues is pre-disposed to develop c. Endothelium
e. Maintain skin hue osteosarcoma? d. Transitional
72. Which of the ff cell types is a. Osteomalacia e. Pseudostratified
associated with antibody b. Osteopetrosis 84. Which of the ff is lined by a
formation? c. Paget’s ds of the bone mucosa?
a. Basophil d. Osteogenesis imperfect a. Peritoneal cavity
b. Monocyte e. Osteomyelitis b. Pericardial cavity
c. Eosinophil 78. Organisms belonging to which of c. Pleural cavity
d. Neutrophil the ff genera can tolerate the d. Alimentary canal
e. Plasma cell lowest pH? e. AOTA
73. Which of the ff ds., in which a. Veillonella 85. What type of gland secretes its
gastroenteritis is the principal b. Bacteroides product directly into the
feature, has an incubation period c. Streptococcus bloodstream?
of 2-4 hours? d. Lactobacillus a. Endocrine gland
a. Cholera e. Staphylococcus b. Multicellular gland
b. Botulism 79. What type of epithelium lines the c. Exocrine gland
c. Salmonellosis trachea? d. AOTA

24
 e. NOTA 93. What is a characteristic of the 100.Cementoblastoma:
86. What is a gland called if it has an cells in the epidermis of the skin? a. True cementoma
unbranched duct? a. Microvilli b. Very common to male
a. Simple gland b. Stereocilia c. Mandibular post. Region
b. Compound gland c. Cilia d. A & B
c. Tubular d. Keratinization e. A & C
d. Alveolar e. Both A & B
e. Tubuloalveolar 94. Which of the ff is a unicellular
87. What is a gland called if the gland?
secretory portion is tube shaped a. Squamous cell
ending in a flask shaped area at b. Goblet cell
the terminus? c. Basal cell
a. Simple gland d. Basket cell
b. Compound gland e. Sertoli cell
c. Tubular 95. Which of the ff is NOT lined by a
d. Alveolar serosa?
e. Tubuloalveolar a. Peritoneal cavity
88. What is the surface modification b. Pericardial cavity
seen on the cells of the c. Pleural cavity
epididymis? d. Respiratory tract
a. Microvilli e. AOTA
b. Stereocilia 96. What type of epithelium has
c. Cilia dome shaped cells on the apical
d. Keratinization surface?
e. Both A & B a. Epithelioid ts.
89. What type of epithelium forms b. Mesothelium
the epidermis? c. Endothelium
a. Simple squamous ep. d. Transitional
b. Simple cuboidal ep. e. Pseudostratified
c. Simple columnar ep. 97. What type of epithelial cells are
d. Stratified squamous ep. taller than they are wide?
e. Pseudostratified ep. a. Simple
90. What type of tissue composes the b. Stratified
kidney tubules? c. Squamous
a. Simple squamous ep. d. Cuboidal
b. Simple cuboidal ep. e. Columnar
c. Simple columnar ep. 98. What type of epithelium is one
d. Stratified squamous ep. cell layer thick?
e. Transitional ep. a. Simple
91. What forms the striated border? b. Stratified
a. Microvilli c. Squamous
b. Stereocilia d. Cuboidal
c. Cilia e. Columnar
d. Keratinization
e. Both A & B 99. What type of tissue lines the
92. What is another term for an esophagus?
acinar gland? a. Simple squamous ep.
a. Simple gland b. Simple cuboidal ep.
b. Compound gland c. Simple columnar ep.
c. Tubular d. Stratified squamous ep.
d. Alveolar e. Transitional ep.
e. Tubuloalveolar

25