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Kacmarek: Egan's Fundamentals of Respiratory Care, 10th Edition Chapter 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care Test Bank
Kacmarek: Egan's Fundamentals of Respiratory Care, 10th Edition Chapter 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care Test Bank
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
5. A near-drowning patient has a recorded body temperature of 30° C. What is the equivalent
temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?
a. –4°F
b. 86°F
c. 32°F
d. 77°F
7. What term is used for the transfer of heat by the direct interaction of atoms or molecules in a
hot area with atoms or molecules in a cooler area?
a. radiation
b. convection
c. condensation
d. conduction
8. Which of the following would be the worst heat conductor?
a. water
b. glass
c. air
d. copper
10. Which of the following is a good clinical example of using the principle of convection to
transfer heat?
a. humidifiers with immersion heaters
b. heated, enclosed infant incubators
c. wire-heated pneumotachometers
d. heated ventilator exhalation valves
11. Which of the following methods of heat transfer requires no direct contact between the
warmer and cooler substances?
a. conduction
b. convection
c. evaporation
d. radiation
12. Which of the following would help to decrease a patient’s loss of body heat?
1. Increase the temperature of the room.
2. Increase the exposed skin surface area.
3. Move the patient away from cold windows.
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. 1 and 3
14. What is the physical process whereby the gaseous form of a substance is changed back into
its liquid state?
a. condensation
b. sublimation
c. vaporization
d. radiation
16. Which of the following equations can be used to calculate the pressure exerted by a
liquid? a. liquid pressure = liquid depth ÷ liquid density
b. liquid pressure = liquid depth × surface area
c. liquid pressure = liquid density × liquid viscosity
d. liquid pressure = liquid density × liquid depth
17. According to Pascal’s principle, the pressure exerted by a liquid in a container depends on
which of the following?
1. depth of the liquid
2. density of the liquid
3. shape of the container
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
19. What is the internal force that opposes the flow of fluids (equivalent to friction between solid
substances)?
a. conductivity
b. kinetic energy
c. viscosity
d. density
21. After placing a liquid into a small-diameter glass tube, you observe the formation of a convex
(upwardly curved) meniscus. What conclusion is correct?
a. The liquid must have a very low surface tension.
b. Strong adhesive forces exist between the liquid and glass.
c. The liquid must have an extremely high viscosity.
d. Strong cohesive forces exist among the liquid molecules.
22. What force is responsible for the spherical shape of liquid droplets and their ability to keep
this shape when placed into an aerosol suspension?
a. cohesion
b. adhesion
c. viscosity
d. surface tension
23. Which of the following liquids has the lowest surface tension?
a. whole blood
b. ethyl alcohol
c. plasma
d. mercury
25. What is the phenomenon whereby a liquid in a small tube tends to move upward against the
force of gravity?
a. capillary action
b. shear stress
c. surface tension
d. buoyancy
26. Which of the following is/are good clinical examples of the principle of capillary action? 1.
capillary stick blood samples
2. absorbent humidifier wicks
3. certain surgical dressings
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 2
27. What is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the pressure exerted
on the liquid by the surrounding atmosphere?
a. boiling point
b. dew point
c. triple point
d. melting point
30. Which of the following is/are TRUE about molecular water vapor?
1. Water vapor exhibits kinetic activity.
2. Molecular water vapor can be seen.
3. Water vapor exerts pressure.
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. 1 and 3
32. What is the equilibrium condition in which a gas holds all the water vapor molecules that it
can?
a. Evaporation
b. Stabilization
c. Saturation
d. body humidity
33. Which of the following methods would increase the rate of evaporation of a container of
water?
1. Increase the temperature of the surrounding air.
2. Decrease the pressure of the surrounding air.
3. Increase the temperature of the water.
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
34. Which of the following represents a direct measure of the kinetic activity of water vapor
molecules?
a. absolute humidity
b. water vapor pressure
c. percent body humidity
d. relative humidity
35. What is the term for the actual content or weight of water present in a given volume of air?
a. percent body humidity
b. water vapor pressure
c. absolute humidity
d. relative humidity
36. What is the absolute humidity (water vapor content) of saturated gas at normal body
temperature (37°C)?
a. 47.0 mg/L
b. 37.0 mg/L
c. 98.6 mg/L
d. 43.8 mg/L
37. What is the water vapor pressure of saturated gas at normal body temperature
(37°C)? a. 47.0 mm Hg
b. 43.8 mm Hg
c. 37.0 mm Hg
d. 98.6 mm Hg
38. What is the term for the ratio of the actual water vapor present in a gas compared with the
capacity of that gas to hold the vapor at a given temperature?
a. relative humidity
b. absolute humidity
c. water vapor pressure
d. percent body humidity
39. At a room temperature of 22°C, air has the capacity to hold 19.4 mg/L of water vapor. If the
absolute humidity in the air is 7.4 mg/L, then what is the relative humidity (RH)? a. 45%
b. 58%
c. 70%
d. 38%
40. When the water vapor content of a volume of gas equals its capacity, what is the relative
humidity (RH) of this gas?
a. 80%
b. 100%
c. 40%
d. 60%
41. A gas at 50° C with a relative humidity of 100% is cooled to 37° C. Which of the following
will occur?
1. condensation on surfaces
2. visible droplet formation
3. warming of the adjacent air
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
42. What is the term for the temperature at which the water vapor in a gas begins to
condense back into a liquid?
a. triple point
b. critical pressure
c. dew point
d. boiling point
43. What occurs when the temperature of a saturated gas drops down to its dew
point? a. Excess water vapor will condense as visible droplets.
b. The temperature of the surrounding air decreases.
c. Any liquid water present will quickly evaporate.
d. The relative humidity of the gas begins to decrease.
44. The American National Standards Institute has set a water vapor content level of 30 mg/L as
the minimum absolute humidity required for patients whose upper airways have been
bypassed. This equals what body humidity (BH)?
a. 68%
b. 47%
c. 75%
d. 100%
45. If the absolute humidity in a medical gas being delivered to a patient is 14 mg/L, then what is
the body humidity (BH)?
a. 7%
b. 16%
c. 24%
d. 32%
46. What is the term for the ratio of the amount of water vapor in a volume of gas compared to the
amount of the water in gas saturated at a normal body temperature of 37°C? a. percent body
humidity (BH)
b. relative humidity (RH)
c. absolute humidity
d. water vapor pressure
47. Which of the following properties of gases distinguish them from liquids—that is, are unique
to the gaseous phase of matter?
1. Gases fill the available space.
2. Gases exhibit viscosity.
3. Gases exert pressure.
4. Gases are readily compressed.
5. Gases are capable of flow.
a. 2, 3, 4, and 5
b. 1, 3, and 4
c. 2, 3, and 4
d. 1 and 4
48. Which of the following occurs when the temperature of a gas rises?
1. The kinetic activity of the gas increases.
2. The rate of molecular collisions increases.
3. The pressure exerted by the gas rises.
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 3
50. In International System (SI) units, what is any quantity of matter that contains 6.023 × 1023
atoms, molecules, or ions?
a. pound (lb)
b. gram (g)
c. ounce (oz)
d. mole (mol)
51. According to Avogadro’s law, under standard conditions of temperature and pressure (0°C
and 760 mm Hg), 1 mole of any gas occupies which of the following?
a. 1.34 L
b. 22.40 L
c. 7.48 L
d. 28.30 L
52. What is the density of a mixture of 40% oxygen and 60% helium at STPD?
a. 0.34 g/L
b. 0.55 g/L
c. 0.68 g/L
d. 1.25 g/L
53. What is the physical process whereby atoms or molecules tend to move from an area of higher
concentration or pressure to an area of lower concentration or pressure?
a. Sublimation
b. Melting
c. Diffusion
d. capillary action
54. According to Graham’s law, which of the following gases would diffuse most quickly?
Gas density
a. W 1.432 g/L7
b. X 0.543 g/L
c. Y 0.834 g/L
d. Z 1.213 g/L
55. Which of the following best describes the physical concept of pressure?
a. weight ÷ unit volume
b. mass × acceleration
c. force × distance
d. force ÷ unit area
57. A mercury barometer reads 770 mm Hg. What is the actual atmospheric pressure in
g/cm2? a. 14.7 g/cm2
b. 1034.0 g/cm2
c. 1020.0 g/cm2
d. 1047.0 g/cm2
59. You obtain a mercury barometric reading of 760 mm Hg at 17°C. Using the following factor
table, compute the corrected pressure.
°C 740 750 760
a. 223.0 mm Hg
b. 747.7 mm Hg
c. 757.8 mm Hg
d. 762.3 mm Hg
60. The peak pressure on a ventilator reads 40 cm H2O. What is the equivalent pressure in
mm Hg?
a. 37.0 mm Hg
b. 29.6 mm Hg
c. 68.3 mm Hg
d. 4.9 mm Hg
61. The peak pressure on a ventilator reads 30 cm H2O. What is the equivalent pressure
in kilopascals (kPa)?
a. 37.0 kPa
b. 68.0 kPa
c. 4.9 kPa
d. 2.9 kPa
62. From a bedside capnograph (CO2 measuring device), you obtain a “dry” gas reading of 5.3%
CO2 in a patient’s exhaled gas. Given a barometric pressure of 765 mm Hg, what is the
partial pressure of CO2 in this patient’s exhaled gas?
a. 347 mm Hg
b. 41 mm Hg
c. 164 mm Hg
d. 35 mm Hg
63. In the lung’s alveoli, there are four gases mixed together: oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen,
and water vapor. At a normal barometric pressure of 760 mm Hg, alveolar O2 exerts a partial
pressure of 100 mm Hg, CO2 40 mm Hg, and water vapor 47 mm Hg. What is the alveolar
partial pressure of nitrogen?
a. 187 mm Hg
b. 713 mm Hg
c. 660 mm Hg
d. 573 mm Hg
64. Which of the following factors determine how much of a given gas can dissolve in a liquid?
1. solubility coefficient of the gas
2. temperature of the liquid
3. gas pressure above the liquid
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
66. Which of the following will occur when a gas undergoes expansion?
1. The pressure of the gas increases.
2. Molecular collisions decrease.
3. The gas temperature increases.
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2
d. 1 and 3
67. If a given mass of a gas is maintained at a constant temperature, what will decreasing its
pressure do?
a. decrease its volume
b. increase its mass
c. increase its volume
d. decrease its mass
68. In what processes of gas compression or expansion does the temperature remain
constant? a. isothermal
b. adiabatic
c. hypothermal
d. neutral kinetic
69. Both a compressed gas cylinder and its regulator are at room temperature with all valves in
the off position. After the cylinder is opened and gas begins flowing, you note that the
regulator is extremely cold to touch. Which of the following principles best explains this
observation?
a. adiabatic compression
b. Gay-Lussac’s law
c. Joule-Thompson effect
d. Venturi principle
70. Respiratory therapists must ensure that any oil or dust is cleared from high-pressure medical
gas delivery systems before pressurization. Why is this action needed?
a. Inhaled dust particles can cause pneumoconiosis.
b. The oil or dust can cause a leak in the system.
c. Oil or dust does not easily mix with medical gases.
d. Adiabatic compression could ignite the oil or dust.
71. Which of the following occurs when water vapor is added to a dry gas at a constant
pressure? 1. The volume occupied by the gas mixture increases.
2. The relative humidity of the mixture increases.
3. The partial pressure of the original gas is reduced.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 3
72. During some pulmonary function tests, saturated gas exhaled from a patient’s lungs is
gathered at room temperature. Which of the following correction-factor tables would you use
to determine what volume this gas occupied in the patient’s lungs?
a. standard temperature, standard pressure, dry (STPD) to body temperature,
ambient pressure, saturated (BTPS)
b. BTPS to STPD
c. ambient temperature, ambient pressure, saturated (ATPS) to BTPS
d. ATPS to STPD
73. Which of the following are true of the behavior of gases at very low temperatures or very high
pressures?
1. The actual volume of the gas molecules becomes important.
2. Intermolecular attractive forces have greater impact.
3. Gases begin to deviate from their “ideal” behavior.
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
74. For every liquid there is a temperature above which the kinetic activity of its molecules is so
great that the attractive forces cannot keep them in a liquid state. This temperature is called
the:
a. critical temperature
b. melting point
c. flash temperature
d. triple point
76. Which of the following medical gases can be maintained in the liquid form at room
temperature?
1. nitrous oxide
2. carbon dioxide
3. Oxygen
4. Helium
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
77. What temperature is necessary to liquefy oxygen at 1 atm pressure?
a. –118.8° C
b. –181.1° F
c. –463.3° F
d. –183.0° C
78. With all else equal, under which of the following conditions would the drop in pressure
occurring while a fluid flows through a tube be greatest?
Tube Diameter Fluid Viscosity
A. A Small Low
B. B Large Low
C. C Large High
D. D Small High
a. A; Small; Low
b. B; Large; Low
c. C; Large; High
d. D; Small; High
79. The resistance to flow of a fluid through a tube can be computed according to which of the
following formulas?
a. resistance = flow × viscosity
b. resistance = flow ÷ pressure
c. resistance = pressure ÷ flow
d. resistance = flow × pressure
80. What is the pattern of flow in which a fluid moves in discrete cylindrical streamlines?
a. Transitional
b. Turbulent
c. Laminar
d. Tracheal
81. According to Poiseuille’s law, the pressure needed to drive a fluid through a tube will increase
under which of the following conditions?
1. increased fluid viscosity
2. decreased tube length
3. decreased rate of flow
4. decreased tube radius
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 3, and 4
83. Which of the following conditions tend to cause laminar flow to become turbulent (producing a
high Reynold’s number)?
1. high linear gas velocity
2. high gas density
3. low gas viscosity
4. large tube diameter
a. 2, 3, and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2, and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
84. Assuming a constant flow, what will happen to a fluid if the cross-sectional area of the tube in
which it flows decreases?
a. Its velocity will increase.
b. Its velocity will decrease.
c. Its density will decrease.
d. Its viscosity will decrease.
85. According to Bernoulli’s principle, as a fluid flows through a narrow passage or stricture,
which of the following will occur?
1. Fluid velocity will decrease.
2. Lateral pressure will fall.
3. Total energy will increase.
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2
86. What is the most common application of Bernoulli’s principle in respiratory care equipment?
a. fluidic ventilator
b. Pneumotachygraph
c. air injector
d. U-tube manometer
87. Which of the following design components of an air injector would result in entraining the
greatest amount of air?
88. For which of the following purposes might a Venturi tube be used?
1. to restore fluid pressure distal to a restricted orifice
2. to help keep entrainment ratios constant with varying flows
3. to make possible entrainment of large volumes of gas
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 3
89. What physical principle underlies most fluidic circuitry?
a. Poiseuille’s law
b. Bernoulli’s principle
c. law of continuity
d. Coanda effect
91. What is the motion referred to when solid molecules travel until they collide?
a. Jiggle
b. jingle
c. surface tension
d. boiling point
92. Solids maintain their shape because their atoms are kept in place by strong mutual attractive
forces, called:
a. van der Waals forces
b. thermodynamic equilibrium
c. Buoyancy
d. Fluidics
93. A combination of neutral atoms, free electrons, and atomic nuclei describes:
a. potential energy
b. kinetic energy
c. plasma
d. compressed gases
94. The ratio of the density of one fluid when compared with the density of another reference
substance, which is typically water, describes the fluid’s:
a. specific gravity
b. specific weight
c. atomic mass
d. atomic volume