1.

When examining a newborn male infant, the nurse notes that neither testicle is
descended. How would the nurse document this finding?
A) Epididymitis
B) Orchitis
C) Cryptorchidism
D) Varicocele

2. During the health history, a young male client asks the nurse why his scrotum
rises and relaxes. The nurse would include which statement when responding to
the client?
A) “When the temperature is warm, it causes the scrotum to rise.”
B) “The cremasteric reflex controls the rise and relaxation of the scrotum.”
C) “When the scrotum is in a relaxed state, it has many rugae.”
D) “When the temperature is colder, the scrotum relaxes.”

3. While interviewing a teenage male client, the nurse reviews the various structures
of the male genitalia. The client asks, “So what does this epididymis do?” What
would the nurse include in the response?
A) “It allows sperm to mature.”
B) “It transports sperm away from the testes.”
C) “It separates the testes from the scrotal wall.”
D) “It produces sperm and male sex hormones.”

4. An adult male client reports hesitancy when urinating. The nurse would further
assess this client for which complication?
A) Scrotal hernia
B) Sexually transmitted infection
C) Prostate enlargement
D) Testicular tumor

5. The nurse is presenting a program about sexually transmitted infections,

including HIV, to a group of young men. The nurse would include who as having
the highest incidence of HIV infection in the United States?
A) Men having sex with men
B) Heterosexual partners
C) Bisexual individuals
D) Intravenous drug users

6. When the nurse is examining a male client's genitalia, the client experiences an
erection. What would be most appropriate for the nurse to do?
A) Remain silent but continue the examination.

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B) Stop the exam and leave the room for a few minutes.
C) Ask the client whether continuing the exam will embarrass him.
D) Reassure the client that this is not unusual.

7. The nurse is beginning the physical exam of a male client's genitalia. The nurse is
sitting on a stool in front of the client. In which position would it be best to place
the client?
A) Lying supine
B) Kneeling
C) Standing
D) Sitting

8. A male client is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. Which

finding should the nurse anticipate during examination of the client's genitalia?
A) Sparse pubic hair
B) Hardness along the ventral surface of the penis
C) Cyanosis to the glans
D) Tenderness on scrotal palpation

9. A nurse is planning to assess a male client for urethral discharge. Which

technique would be best for the nurse to use?
A) Have the client hold the penis while the examiner looks for discharge.
B) Gently squeeze the glans between the thumb and index finger.
C) Inspect the scrotal skin while holding the penis aside.
D) Observe the glans of the penis for signs of abnormal discharge.

10. While assessing the scrotum of an adult client, the nurse notes thin and rugated
scrotal skin with little hair dispersion. How would the nurse document this
finding?
A) Reiter syndrome
B) Normal findings
C) Effects of chemotherapy
D) Gonorrhea

11. During a client's genitourinary exam, the nurse notes that the client's scrotum is
enlarged and easily transilluminates. What should the nurse suspect?
A) Tumor
B) Hernia
C) Varicocele
D) Hydrocele

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 12. A client complains of scrotal pain, and the nurse elicits a positive Prehn sign. The
nurse would refer the client for treatment of what condition?
A) Strangulated hernia
B) Tortuous varicocele
C) Epididymitis
D) Scrotal mass

13. The nurse is assessing a client who is suspected of having an incarcerated scrotal
hernia. Which finding would help confirm this suspicion?
A) The mass cannot be pushed up into the abdomen.
B) The area around the hernia is ecchymotic.
C) The client complains of tenderness and nausea.
D) A scrotal bulge disappears when the client lies down.

14. While inspecting the penis of a client, the nurse suspects herpes progenitalis
based on which assessment finding?
A) Red, oval ulcerations
B) Hardened nodules on the glans
C) Clear vesicles that erupt
D) Painless, fleshy papules

15. Assessment findings reveal that a client has herpes progenitalis. What would be
most important to include in the teaching related to after the initial lesions
disappear?
A) The disease will spontaneously regress.
B) The client is at increased risk for cancer of the glans.
C) Recurrence can happen with varying frequency.
D) The next outbreak will include moist, fleshy papules.

16. A nurse is preparing to examine a client's inguinal area. The nurse understands
that this area is contained by which structure laterally?
A) Symphysis pubis
B) Inguinal ligament
C) Inguinal canal
D) Anterior superior iliac spine

17. When inspecting a client's inguinal area for bulging, what would be most
appropriate for the nurse to have the client do?
A) Bend forward from the waist
B) Bear down as if having a bowel movement

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C) Hold his breath after exhaling
D) Lie supine and draw his knees to his chest

18. A client's electronic health record reveals that he had surgery as an infant to
correct the fact that his urethra was located on the ventral side of his penis. The
nurse should recognize that this client had what condition?
A) Epispadias
B) Hypospadias
C) Paraphimosis
D) Phimosis

19. The nurse is assessing the genitalia of an older adult client. What would the nurse
document as a normal finding?
A) Decrease in size of the testes
B) Testes hanging lower in the scrotum
C) Abundant pubic hair
D) Bulging in the inguinal area

20. A nurse teaches a male client how to perform testicular self-examination. The
nurse should instruct the client to perform the self-examination at which
frequency?
A) Weekly
B) Bimonthly
C) Monthly
D) Quarterly

21. A client has a family history of prostate cancer and is committed to regular
screening. What should the nurse teach the client about prostate-specific antigen
(PSA) blood testing?
A) Annual PSA blood testing should begin at age 50.
B) PSA blood testing is not recommended for most clients.
C) PSA blood testing should only be performed on men who reject digital rectal
examinations.
D) PSA blood tests should be performed biannually between ages 45 and 60 and then
annually thereafter.

22. An adult client has sought care because he has a 2-day history of stool that is
“black like road tar.” How should the nurse best respond to this aspect of the
client's history?
A) Refer the client for treatment of a possible gastrointestinal bleed.
B) Refer the client to a dietitian for treatment of a possible vitamin deficiency.

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C) Encourage the client to increase his intake of fluids and soluble fiber.
D) Tell the client to use an over-the-counter laxative for the next 2 to 3 days.

23. A client has admitted to the nurse that he has been having difficulty obtaining and
maintaining erections for many months. Which of the nurse's assessment
questions most clearly addresses a potential cause for the client's problem?
A) “How would you describe a typical day's food intake?”
B) “What medications are you currently taking?”
C) “Have you ever been screened for prostate cancer?”
D) “Do you ever experience pain when you urinate?”

24. A nurse is a preparing to assess a male client's anus and rectum. How should the
nurse best prepare the client for this assessment?
A) Ask the client if he is feeling anxious or fearful about the examination.
B) Assist the client into the supine position.
C) Administer a dose of analgesia 15 minutes before the examination.
D) Position the client in a left side-lying position.

25. A nurse is aware of the need to protect against false allegations of inappropriate
physical touch during a client's genitourinary assessment. How can the nurse best
address this risk?
A) Thoroughly explain the rationale for each aspect of the assessment.
B) Ensure that a chaperone is present in the room during the examination.
C) Perform the assessment as quickly and efficiently as possible.
D) Ask for the client's permission prior to starting the assessment.

26. Palpation of a male client's urethra produces a yellowish-white discharge. What

is the nurse's best action?
A) Obtain a urine sample for culture and sensitivity testing.
B) Obtain a sample of the discharge for culture.
C) Ask the client to void and then repeat palpation of the client's urethra.
D) Palpate the client's scrotum and testes for the presence of fluid.

27. A nurse is performing transillumination as part of the assessment of a client's

swollen scrotum. What finding constitutes a normal scrotum?
A) The testes transilluminate, but the other regions of the scrotum do not.
B) Transillumination of the scrotum results in a pale yellow or white glow.
C) Transillumination of the scrotum results in a red glow.
D) Contents of the scrotum do not transilluminate.

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 28. A client has sought care because of a sudden increase in the size of his scrotum.
The nurse's assessment reveals the presence of a large scrotal mass. How can the
nurse best assess for a scrotal hernia?
A) Palpate the mass for pain.
B) Auscultate the mass for bowel sounds.
C) Percuss the mass for dullness.
D) See if the mass disappears when the client stands.

29. A male client has presented for follow-up to a diagnosis of genital warts. The
nurse should expect to assess for what type of lesions?
A) Reddened ulcers that occasionally bleed
B) Pimple-like vesicles
C) Firm, shiny nodules
D) Moist, fleshy papules

30. A teenage boy has been diagnosed with orchitis. When reviewing the child's
health history, the nurse should expect that the client may have recently been
treated for what health problem?
A) Measles
B) Varicella
C) Phimosis
D) Influenza A

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Answer Key

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. D
12. C
13. A
14. C
15. C
16. D
17. B
18. B
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. A
23. B
24. D
25. B
26. B
27. D
28. B
29. D
30. A

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