1.

Resting energy expenditure is the amount of energy required for the basal metabolic processes and
TEF per unit weight per unit time. It is also called resting metabolic rate.
a. Only statement 1 is correct
b. Only statement 2 is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Both statements are incorrect.

2. Prolonged calorie undernutrition can cause a 20-30% decrease in BMR. Habitual High energy intake
also decreases BMR.
a. Only statement 1 is correct
b. Only statement 2 is correct
c. Both statements are correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect.

3. The enzyme that cleaves aromatic amino acids. (Phenylalanine, Tyrosine, Tryptophan aromatic AA)
a. Chymotrypsin
b. Pepsin
c. Carboxypeptidase
d. Aminopeptidase

4. It refers to the anabolic formation of triacylglycerol from glycerol and fatty acids.
a. Lipogenesis
b. Fatty acid synthesis
c. Cholesterol synthesis
d. Gluconeogenesis

5. Electron-carrier molecules that are used in the electron-transport chain to generate additional ATP are:
a. Glucose and ketone bodies
b. Pyruvic acid and lactic acid
c. Acetyl CoA and amino acids
d. NADH and FADH2

6. The conversion of acetyl-COA into acetoacetic acid, beta-hydroxybutyric acid or acetone called:
a. Gluconeogenesis
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Ketogenesis
d. Lipogenesis

7. Substance found in raw egg white that binds with biotin preventing its absorption:
a. Avidin
b. Albumin
c. Vitelline
d. Ovomucin

8. Keshan disease is a condition characterized by heart enlargement and is caused by deficiency of what
nutrient?
a. Zinc
b. Selenium
c. Calcium
d. Potassium
9. The following statements are true, except:
a. Pyruvate is the end product of glycolysis
b. Pyruvate proceeds to the Kreb’s cycle under aerobic condition
c. Pyruvate is reduced to lactate under anaerobic environment
d. None of the above

10. A patient on tube feeding has a Diet Rx of 2000 Calories, 2:1 dilution; how much is the total fluid Rx per
day
a. 1500 ml
b. 1250 ml
c. 1000 ml
d. 2250 ml

11. ____ and __ are the major intracellular and extracellular cations in the body, respectively.
a. Potassium, sodium
b. Potassium, phosphate
c. Sodium, chloride
d. Sodium, potassium

12. The body’s normal pH range is:

a. 7.35 – 7.45
b. 7.45 – 7.55
c. 7.25 – 7.35
d. 7.00- 7.45

13. Dietary antioxidants: I. Manganese II. Flavonoids III. Phenolic compounds

a. I only
b. I and II only
c. II and III only
d. All of the above

14. This phytochemical, which is usually found in red wines and peanuts, prevents artery-damaging effects
of high fat diets.
a. Tannins
b. Phenols
c. Resveratrol
d. Isoflavones

15. When a person is stressed, the secretion of the following hormones is increased EXCEPT:
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Cortisol
d. Catecholamines

16. Which of the following proteins have an important role in the immune response?
a. Fibrinogen
b. Lipoproteins
c. Globulins
d. Albumins
17. __ are responsible for cell-mediated immunity while ___ are responsible for humoral immunity
a. T cells, B cells
b. B cells, T cells
c. Macrophages, B cells
d. B Cells, macrophages

18. It is secreted by macrophages to activate lymphocytes, suppress appetite and induce malaise and
fever
a. Monokines
b. Cytokines
c. Macrokines
d. Complement

19. These scavenge and engulf foreign bodies and secrete complement and cytokines
a. Phagocytes
b. Macrophages
c. T Cells
d. B cells

20. Which of the following is/are considered severe weight loss?

I. 5% over a month III. >5% over 1 month
II. 7.5% over 3 months IV. >7.5% over 3 months
a. I and II only
b. III and IV only
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

21. All of the following are possible nutritional effects of intestinal resection among cancer patients
EXCEPT:
a. Blind loop syndrome
b. Hyperoxaluria
c. Diarrhea
d. Diabetes Mellitus

22. A general principle in the prevention and management of an inborn error of metabolism if there is
accumulation of precursor to toxic levels:
a. Provide replacement
b. Give increased quantities of the vitamins involved
c. Avoid exposure
d. Restrict source of precursor

23. Hypoparathyroidism can lead to Chvostek’s and Trousseaus’s syndrome. Hyperparathyroidism, on the
other hand, can cause osteopenia and osteoporosis.
a. Only statement 1 is correct
b. Only statement 2 is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Both statements are incorrect

24. Which of the following are diseases of the large intestines?

a. Diverticular disease
b. Irritable bowel syndrome
c. Constipation
d. All of the above
25. Which of the following are included in the nutrition care guidelines for reducing gastroesophageal
reflux disease?
a. Avoid large, high fat meals
b. Avoid acidic and highly spiced foods when inflammation exists
c. Avoid alcoholic beverages
d. All of the above

26. An 84 year-old client complains of chronic constipation. To improve bowel function, what could be a
possible intervention?
a. Increasing fiber intake
b. Avoidance of binding foods such as cheese and chocolate
c. Monitoring a balance between activity and rest
d. Daily use of laxatives

27. Which is the most important component of the medical nutrition therapy for patient with celiac
disease?
a. Omit sources of gluten such as wheat, rye and barley
b. Reading labels to check if the product contains gluten
c. Substitute wheat flour with potato, rice, corn
d. All of the above

28. Childhood diarrhea plays a significant role in malnutrition. Infections within the intestine can lead to
loss of nutrients, damage to the gut mucosa and impaired nutrient absorption. The WHO and UNICEF
guidelines for managing diarrheal diseases in children include which of the following?
a. Fluid replacement
b. Continued feeding
c. Zinc supplementation
d. All of the above

29. Which of the following is true about anemia?

I. Characterized by reduction in the size and quantity of RBCs
II. Result to decreased capacity of the blood to carry oxygen
a. Only statement 1 is correct
b. Only statement 2 is correct
c. Both statements are correct
d. Both statements are incorrect

30. Anemia that is induced by poor blood clotting:

a. Microcytic anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Hemorrhagic anemia
d. Hemolytic Anemia

31. What vitamin should be provided for the dietary management for sideroblastic anemia that is
characterized by pale RBC but with normal hemoglobin?
a. Vitamin B6
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin D
32. Ostemalacia is a result of:
a. Dietary deficiency
b. Inadequate sunlight exposure
c. Parathyroid problems
d. All of the above

33. Which is not a predisposing factor of gout

a. Obesity
b. Renal disorders
c. High fat diet, starvation
d. Low purine intake

34. The following are dietary management for Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, EXCEPT:
a. Thiamine supplementation
b. Adequate hydration
c. Avoidance of alcohol
d. High Energy and protein tube feedings

35. Dietary management for Myasthenia Gravis:

I. Adjusted food consistency depending on tolerance: nutrient dense food; small frequent
feeding
II. Avoid foods which contain I-dopa
III. limit dietary protein at breakfast and lunch
IV. Low Glycemic Index Treatment
a. I only
b. I and II only
c. I, II, and III only
d. All of the above

36. Dietary management for Guillain-Barre Syndrome:

a. Thiamine supplementation
b. Adequate hydration
c. Avoidance of alcohol
d. High Energy and protein tube feedings

37. Dietary management for rheumatic fever

I. High kcal, high protein, high fluids, low fiber
II. High kcal, high protein, Na and fluids controlled, vitamin and mineral supplementation
III. High kcal, high protein, fat restricted
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. All of the above

38. An eating disorder that is characterized by an individual who has the habit of eating excess and the
purging by vomiting:
a. Bulimia nervosa
b. Anorexia nervosa
c. Binging type
d. Restricting type
39. What is the initial therapy for kwashiorkor?
a. Fat replacement
b. Energy replacement
c. Protein replacement
d. Fluid and Balance restoration

40. Post bariatric surgery dietary management:

a. Clear liquids for the first day
b. Pureed foods for a month
c. Small feeding
d. All of the above

41. The following are dietary management for anorexia nervosa, Except:
a. Use of food items that promote early satiety
b. Small Frequent feeding
c. Give cold or room temperature foods
d. Less caffeine

42. Which of the following is not recommended for patients with GERD
a. Avoid foods and beverages that contribute to heart burn
b. Stay upright while eating
c. Avoid vigorous activity soon after eating
d. Lie down after eating to slow down gastric emptying

43. Dietary management for hepatic coma:

a. High kcal, zero to low protein
b. High kcal, high protein
c. High kcal, adequate protein
d. Adequate kcal and protein

44. The following are dietary management of ileostomy, EXCEPT:

a. Vitamin B12 supplementation
b. High fiber
c. Low residue
d. Low fat

45. High protein is given to burned patients to:

a. Provide energy reserves
b. Control water retention
c. Replace losses
d. Meet energy requirements

46. The science that deals with progressive movement and alteration of chemical substances within the
body:
a. Pharmaconutrition
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Pharmacokinetics
d. Pharmacogenomics

47. Drug that may bind with phosphorus

a. Antacid
b. Laxative
c. Digitalis
d. Amphetamines
48. May interact with phenobarbital through competitive inhibition:
a. Vitamin K
b. Folate
c. B Vitamins
d. Vitamin C

49. Food to be restricted in dumping syndrome:

a. Simple Carbohydrates
b. Complex carbohydrates
c. Protein foods
d. Fat sources

50. The following are characteristics of hypothyroidism, EXCEPT:

a. Cold intolerance
b. Bradycardia
c. Constipation
d. None of the above

51. The following foods are allowed for patient with celiac disease, EXCEPT
a. Yogurt
b. Texted Vegetable protein
c. Popcorn
d. Egg

52. The following are management of hyperparathyroidism, EXCEPT:

a. Provide phosphate binders
b. High fluid
c. Acid ash diet
d. High Calcium

53. Which of the following is the primary purpose of nutrition screening?

a. Define nutritional status
b. Identify clients who need complete nutrition assessment
c. Determine nutrient needs
d. Provide a basis for nutrition care plan

54. The following are the domain of nutrition diagnosis, EXCEPT:

a. Intake
b. Clinical
c. Behavioral-environmental
d. Screening

55. Method of delivery of EN when the rate is 300 to 400ml, 20 to 30 mins, several times/day via gravity
drip or syringe, as determined by medical status, feeding route and volume and nutritional goals
a. Bolus
b. Intermittent
c. Cyclic
d. Continuous

56. Enteral nutrition composed of intact CPF:

a. Polymeric
b. Modular
c. Hydrolyzed
d. Specialty
57. A complication in parenteral nutrition with symptoms showing failure to grow, dermal problems, and
poor immune function.
a. Metabolic imbalance
b. Air embolism
c. Hemothorax
d. Essential Fatty acid deficiency

58. Parenteral nutrition can be discontinued when approximately this percentage of estimated energy
needs are being met by oral intake, tube feeding or a combination of both.
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 75%
d. 80%

59. The following statements are true about food intolerances, except:
a. Food intolerances are more common than true food allergy
b. It causes anaphylactic life-threatening immune reaction
c. PKU and G6Pd are examples of food intolerances caused by inborn errors of metabolism
d. None of the above

60. The following are the major food allergens, except:

a. Milk, tree nuts, peanuts, wheat
b. Shellfish, soybeans, fish, eggs
c. A and B
d. A only
None of the above.

61. Amount of protein equivalent to a gram of nitrogen:

a. 0.16 g
b. 6.25 g
c. 2.54 g
d. 10 g

62. Compute for the calorie from a-2 L dialysate solution 2.5%
a. 180 kcal
b. 150 kcal
c. 108 kcal
d. 148 kcal

63. Using the adopted method, calculate for the DBW of 25 y/o female student, small frame, with a
height of 175.26 cm and actual weight of 66 kgs.
a. 67.7 kg
b. 143 lbs
c. 68.2 kg
d. 145 lbs

64. Patients under MAOI medication should be put in what type of restricted diet?
a. Tyramine-restricted
b. Phenylalanine-restricted
c. BCAA-restricted
d. Tyrosine-restricted
65. Which of the following medications affect food intake by altering salivary secretions?
a. Digitalis
b. Amphetamines
c. Phenorbarbital
d. Methotrexate

66. The nutrition prescription is included in which step of the NCP?

a. Nutrition Assessment
b. Nutrition Diagnosis
c. Nutrition Intervention
d. Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation

67. Which of the following goals below is considered a SMART goal?

a. Client to consume 1 oral nutrition supplement for 1 month
b. Client to consume oral nutrition supplements 6 or 7 days per week
c. Client to consume oral nutrition supplements approximately half of the week
d. Client to consume 1 oral nutrition supplement per day 6 of 7 days per week for 1 month

68. In planning energy and nutrient requirements of athletes, the following factors are considered EXCEPT:
a. Type of activity
b. Duration
c. Intensity
d. None of the above

69. The following statements regarding carbohydrates are true EXCEPT:

a. Carbohydrates is metabolized up to three times faster than fat which allows for faster muscle
contractions
b. Carbohydrate loading is beneficial for athletes doing all types of exercise both long term and
short-term activities
c. Complex Carbohydrates provide energy at a slow and gradual pace
d. Simple carbohydrates cause a rapid drop in blood sugar

70. How many grams of additional protein daily is needed for muscle building?
a. 6-7 g
b. 3 g
c. 0.8g/kg BW
d. None of the above

71. This nutrient is supplemented with the idea of helping to build muscle and promote growth. Humans
synthesize adequate amounts of this nutrient; its functions are with the central nervous system and
cell structure.
a. Chromium
b. Choline
c. Riboflavin
d. Pyridoxine

72. The point at which it is impossible to keep moving; corresponds to the time when the reserves of the
glycogen in the muscles are depleted.
a. Carbohydrate loading
b. Muscle Fatigue
c. Hitting the Wall
d. Muscle cramps
73. Calculate the total calories of Ms. HD’s breakfast: 2 ex. of ripe banan, ½ cup steamed white rice, 1
poached chicken egg, and 1 cup of black coffee.
a. 326 kcal
b. 266 kcal
c. 221
d. None of the above

74. The following are the type of motility diseases EXCEPT:

a. Dyspepsia
b. Gastric atony
c. Gastrectasia
d. Achylia gastrica

75. A disease characterized by atrophy of the intestines due to lack of peptidase to digest the gliadin
factors of gluten.
a. Gluten-sensitive enteropathy
b. Enteritis
c. Tropical sprue
d. Lymphagiectasis

76. Which of the following is true for nutritional management of hemorrhoids?

a. High calorie
b. High fiber
c. Low protein
d. Low residue

77. Dietary management of irritable bowel syndrome includes the following EXCEPT:
a. Fat restricted
b. Fiber controlled
c. High Protein
d. All of the above

78. In weight management, how much calories should be deducted from the TER to achieve 1.5lbs/ week
weight loss?
a. 250 kcal
b. 500 kcal
c. 600 kcal
d. 750 kcal

79. The basal energy expenditure (BEE), thermic effect of food (TEF),and activity thermogenesis (AT) make
up a persons daily total energy expenditure (TEE). Which of the following describes AT?
a. Energy expended in exercise-related activity
b. Energy expended in physical activity, either exercise related or as part of daily work and
movement
c. AT tends to increase with age, a trend which may be due to the decline in FFM and an increase
in fat mass
d. In general, women have greater skeletal muscle than men, which may account for their higher
AT

80. Basal Insulin refers to:

a. It is the insulin injected to correct high glucose level after meals
b. It is a rapid-acting insulin
c. It covers background insulin requirements overnight while sleeping and between meals
d. All of the above
81. Which of the following nutrition concepts is/are not true?
I. Food is made up of different nutrients for health and growth
II. No food by itself has all the nutrients needed for full growth and health
III. Nutrients in the body are in dynamic equilibrium
IV. all persons throughout life have need for the same nutrients but in varying amounts.
a. II only
b. IV only
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

82. Comes from the Greek word meaning wasting

a. Kwashiorkor
b. Maramus
c. Malnutrition
d. Edema

83. What is commonly present in corn, soybean and sunflower oil and dairy foods and organ meats?
a. Omega 6 fatty acids
b. Omega 3 fatty acids
c. Non-essential amino acids
d. None of the above

84. Which of the following is true about Respiratory Quotient (RQ)?

a. RQ is the ratio of carbon dioxide produced by the body to oxygen consumed by the body.
b. RQ is the ratio of oxygen produced by the body to carbon dioxide consumed by the body
c. RQ is the ratio of carbon dioxide consumed by the body to oxygen produced by the body
d. RQ is the ratio of oxygen consumed by the body to oxygen produced by the body.
85. How much sodium does a 1 tsp of salt contain?
a. 2000mg
b. 2500mg
c. 3000mg
d. None of the above
Note: Salt is denser than sugar. 1 tsp of salt is actually 5.9g or 6g. 2400mg (40% Na)

86. The patient was prescribed with a 1800 kcal, 1.5:1 using a commercial formula containing
4.3kcal/gram. How much formula will the patient need in a day?
a. 279 grams
b. 380 grams
c. 408 grams
d. 419 grams

87. The patient was prescribed with a 1800 kcal, 1.5:1 using a commercial formula containing
4.3kcal/gram. How much is the patient’s fluid Rx?
a. 1,000 ml
b. 1,200 ml
c. 1,800 ml
d. None of the above

88. How much energy can a 1 liter of 5% dextrose solution provid?

a. 100 kcal
b. 150 kcal
c. 170 kcal
d. 200 kcal
89. What is the first feeding for a patient with 1200 kcal, 2:1 diet Rx?
a. ½ c evaporated milk diluted in ½ cup water
b. ½ c juice diluted in ½ c water
c. No first feeding
d. Cannot be determined from the given provided

90. 2300 mg Na is equivalent to:

a. 100 mEq Na
b. 120 mEq Na
c. 140 mEq Na
d. 160 mEq Na

91. The normal GFR ___ ml/min

a. 125
b. 115
c. 130
d. 150

92. The recommended intake for SFA in the diet is approximately:

a. 7-10%
b. 10%
c. 10-15%
d. As high as possible

93. How much carbohydrates should be given to individuals on a 2000kcal diet/day, where 60% of the total
energy comes from carbohydrates?
a. 250 g
b. 300 g
c. 135 g
d. None of the above

94. The following is a characteristic of diabetic acidosis except:

a. Blood pH of <7.35
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Infection
d. Ketonuria

95. Protein recommendation for patients with stage 2 CKD:

a. 0.8 – 1.4 g/kg/day
b. >1.2g/kg/ ABW
c. 0.6 – 0.8g/kg/day
d. None of the above

96. Protein recommendation for patients who just underwent kidney transplant:
a. 1.2 to 1.5 g/kg IBW
b. 0.8 to 1g/kg/day
c. 2.0 g/kg IBW
d. None of the above

97. Energy recommendation for patients with stage 3 CKD

a. 15-20 kcal/kg
b. 25-35 kcal/kg
c. 30-40 kcal/kg
d. <30 kcal/kg
98. Foods to avoid when preparing a patient for a test for occult blood in the stool:
a. Meat and leafy vegetables
b. Milk and Cheese
c. Acidic fruits
d. Excessive Fat

99. Preferred mode of feeding if the patient is on NPO for more than 5 days
a. Gastrostomy
b. Parenteral Nutrition
c. Intravenous
d. All of the above

100. Foods allowed in a low purine diet:

a. Milk, cheese and eggs
b. Glandular organs
c. All of the above
d. None of the above