TESTBOOKLET

19-08- 2021 Batch : MEDICAL - 2021

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE NEET MODEL EXAM - UNIT IX + REMAINING
CODE
Puliyannoor P.O., PA LA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459
www.brilliantpala.org
Physics + Chemistry + Biology Time: 3 hrs.
Max. Mark: 720
A1
PHYSICS Q.4) A ray of light travelling in a
transparent medium falls on a
Section A (1-35) Answer all questions
surface separating the medium from
Q.1) A ray of light is incident at an angle air at an angle of incidence of 45o.
of incidence  as shown in fig. If the The ray undergoes total internal
reflection. If n is the refractive
angle between the two plane mirror
index of the medium with respect to
is 90o, then for what value of  , the
air, select the possible values of n
reflected ray from the 2nd plane from the following:
mirror becomes parallel to the
incident ray? 1) 1:3 2) 1.4

3) 1.5 4) 2
Q.5) A plano- convex lens of refractive
index 1.5 and radius of curvature
30 cm is silvered at the curved
surface. Now this lens has been
used to form the image of an object.
At what distance from this lens an
object is to be placed in order to have
1) 30o 2) 45o
a real image of the size of the object?
3) 60o 4) All of these 1) 20 cm 2) 30 cm
Q.2) A convex mirror of focal length f 3) 60 cm 4) 80 cm
produces an image  1n  th of size of Q.6) A beam of light consisting of red,
green and blue colours is incident
the object. The distance of the on the surface of a liquid as shown
object from the mirror is; in figure. The R.I. of liquid for red,
1) nf 2) f/n green and blue colours are 1.9, 2.1
and 2.2 respectively then
3)  n  1 f 4)  n  1 f

Q.3) A monochromatic ray of light passes

through a transparent parallel sided
glass slab, then
1) The deviation produced by the slab
is equal to zero.
2) The lateral shift of ray does not 1) Red colour will separate from the
depend on the R.I. of the slab beam.
3) The maximum lateral shift may 2) Blue colour will separate from the
be greater than the thickness of the beam.
slab 3) Separation of all the component
4) Both 1 and 3 colour will occur
4) All of these
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Q.7) Four similar prism of same material
having same angle of prism are
arranged as shown in the following
figures. Which of the following
arrangements give no net angular
deviation?
1)
2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.10) If a convergent beam of light passes
through a diverging lens, the result
1) may be a convergent beam
2) may be a divergent beam
3) may be a parallel beam
4) all of these are correct

Q.11) Focal length of a convex lens

2) possessing chromatic aberration is

1) equal for all colours

2) less for red colour

3)
3) more for red colour

4) more for violet colour

4)
Q.12)
Q.8) A convex lens made up of a material
of refractive index  1 is immersed
in a medium of refractive index  2
as shown in the figure. The relation
between 1 and  2 is :
The magnification produced by an
astronomical telescope for normal
adjustment is 10 and the length of
the telescope is 1.1 m. The
magnification when the image is
formed at least distance of distinct
vision (D= 25 cm), is

1) 14

2) 6

3) 16

4) 18

Q.13) The resolution limit of the eye is 1

1) 1  u 2 2) 1  u 2 minute. At a distance x km from
the eye, two persons stand with a
3) 1  u 2 4) 1  u 2 lateral separation of 3 metre. For
the two persons to be just resolved
Q.9) In an experiment with a lens, the
by the naked eye, x should be
object distance u versus image
distance v data were obtained. Which 1) 10 km
of the following graphs will not be
linear 2) 15 km

1 1 3) 20 km
1) versus 2) uv versus (u-v)
v u
4) 30 km
v
3) versus v 4) v versus u
u
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Q.14) The necessary condition for an
interference by two sources of light
is that
1) two light sources must have the
same wavelength.
2) two point sources should have the
same amplitude and same
wavelength.
3) two sources should have the same
wavelength, nearly the same
amplitude and have a constant
phase angle difference.
4) the two point sources should have
a randomly varying phase
differences.
Q.15) If two waves, each of intensity I o,
having the same frequency but
differing by a constant phase angle
of 60o, superpose at a certain point
in space, then the intensity of
resultant wave is
3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.17) Yellow light emitted by sodium lamp
in Young’s double slit experiment is
replaced by monochromatic blue
light of the same intensity
1) fringe width will decrease
2) fringe width will increase
3) fringe width will remain
unchanged
4) fringe will become less intense
Q.18) In Young’s experiment
monochromatic light is used to
illuminate the two slits A and B.
Interference fringes are observed on
a screen placed in front of the slits.
Now, if a thin glass plate is placed
normally in the path of the beam
coming from the slit A, then

1) 2Io 2) 3 Io

3) 3Io 4) 4Io
Q.16) Four light sources produce the 1) the fringes will disappear
following four waves 2) the fringes width will increase

i) y1  a sin  t  1  3) the fringe width will decrease

4) there will be no change in fringe
ii) y 2  a sin 2t width but fringe pattern shifts

iii) y3  a 'sin  t  2  Q.19) In Young’s double slit experiment, if

width (aperture) of the slit S is
increased keeping other parameters
iv) y 4  a 'sin  3t   
constant, then the interference
Superposition of which two waves fringes will
give rise to interference? 1) remain unchanged
1) i and ii 2) from closer
2) ii and iii 3) form further away
3) i and iii 4) gradually disappear
4) iii and iv
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Q.20) A mixture of polarised and Q.24) In Young’s double slit experiment the
unpolarised light is incident on a distance between the slits and the
polariser. As the polariser is rotated screen is doubled. The separation
through 360 o, it is found that the between the slits is reduced to half.
minimum and the maximum of the As a result the fringe width
transmitted intensity is in the ratio 1) is doubled
1: q. The ratio of intensities of
polarised to unpolarised light in the 2) is halved
incident beam is
3) becomes four times
1 1 4) remains unchanged
1)  q  1 :1 2) 1:  q  1
2 2
Q.25) The maximum number of possible
1 1 interference maxima for slit
3) q :1 4) 1: q separation equal to 1.8, where  is the
2 2
wavelength of light used, in a
Q.21) The angle of polarisation for a Young’s double slit experiment is
medium is 60 o. The critical angle
for this is 1) zero 2) 3
3) infinite 4) 5
1 1
1) sin 2) cos 1
3 Q.26) A hole in a semiconductor
3
1) has negative mass
3) sin 1 3 4) tan 1 3
2) has mass equal to that of proton
Q.22) When petrol drops from a vehicle fall
over rain water on the road, colours 3) has mass equal to that of positron
are seen because of 4) is a positively charged vacancy
1) dispersion of light
Q.27) In a semiconductor diode, the
2) scattering of light barrier potential offers opposition to
3) interference of light only

4) absorption of light 1) majority carriers in both regions

Q.23) A wavefront AB passing through a 2) minority carriers in both regions

system C emerges as DE. The 3) free electrons in the n- region
system C could be
4) holes in the p- region.

Q.28) A car has speed v1 for first one metre

and v2 for next one metre. What is
the minimum possible value of the
average velocity?

1) a slit 2v1 v2 v1  v 2
1) v  v 2)
1 2 2
2) A convex lens
3) a prism
v1  v 2
4) a glass slab 3) 4) zero
2
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Q.29) A particle of mass m is projected Q.32) The figure shows the force verses
time graph for a particle. Then
with a velocity 6iˆ  8jˆ . Find the
change in momentum when it just
touches ground.

1) 0

2) 12 m

3) 16 m 1) Change in momentum of the

4) 20 m
Q.30) A force produces an acceleration of
4 m/sec2 in body of mass m1 and the
same force produces an acceleration
of 6m/s2 on a mass m2. If the force
is applied to a body of mas (m1 + m2),
its acceleration will be a. Then
m1 5
1) m  7
2
particle is 20 N- s
2) Average force acting on the particle
is 50 N
3) Change in momentum of the
particle is 50 N- s
4) Both 1 and 2
Q.33) A string fixed at both ends is
vibrating as shown in figure, then
mark correct statements.

m1 2
2) m  3
2

3) a  2.4m / sec2 1) All particles in between x and y

are vibrating in phase
4) a = 5.4 m/sec2
2) All particles in between A and x
are vibrating in phase with particles
Q.31) If the kinetic energy of a particle
between x and y.
continuously increases with time,
then 3) All particles between A and X are
vibrating in phase with particles in
1) the magnitude of its linear Y and B
momentum decreases continuously
with time. 4) Both 1 and 3

2) the height above the ground level Q.34) The temperature, at which
must continuously decrease. centigrade thermometer and Kelvin
thermometer give the same reading,
3) the resultant force on the particle is
must be parallel to the velocity at
all instants. 1) 4o

4) the resultant force on the particle 2) 273o

must be at an angle less than 90 o
all the time. 3) Not possible
4) 0o
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Q.35) A body is projected at an angle with Q.39) If maximum speed of particle in a
the horizontal in the uniform medium carrying a travelling wave
gravitational field of the earth, the is V o , then find speed of particle
angular momentum of the body about when displacement is half of
the point of projection as it proceeds maximum value.
along its path
1) Remains constant vo 3
1) 2) vo
2) Increases 2 4

3) Decreases
3
4) Initially decreases and then 3) vo 4) vo
2
increases.
Section B (36-50) Q.40) The absolute volume coefficient of
Answer any 10 questions expansion of a liquid is 7 times that
of the volume coefficient of expansion
Q.36) Two satellites X and Y revolve in the of the vessel. Then the ratio of
same circular orbit around the absolute and apparent expansion of
earth. The mass of X is greater than the liquid is
the mass of Y. Which of the following
is greater for X then Y? 1) 1/7 2) 7/6
1) Speed only
3) 6/7 4) None
2) Speed and gravitation force only
Q.41) In an adiabatic process 1m3 of an
3) Potential energy and gravitation
ideal monoatomic gas expands to
force
8m 3 . The ratio of final to initial
4) Kinetic energy and gravitation temperature is
force.
1) 4 2) 1/4
Q.37) A material has density  and bulk
modulus k. The increase in the 3) 8 4)1/8
density of the material when it is
subjected to an external pressure P Q.42) A cyclic thermodynamic process has
from all sides is been shown on the PV- diagram.
The work done in the cyclic process
P k is
1) 2)
k P

P k
3) 4)
k P
Q.38) Which of the following quantities are
always negative in a SHM?
  
F  Force, a  acceleration, v  velocity
 1) Zero
r  position with respect to
equilibrium position. 2) Positive
  
1) F.a 2) v.r 3) Negative
 
3) a.v 4) F.r 4) May be positive or negative
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Q.43) A proton and a deutron initially at
rest are accelerated with same
uniform electric field for time t.
1) Both particles will have same
momentum
2) Both particles will have same K.E
3) Both particles will have same
speed.
4) Both particles will cover same
distance
Q.44) A parallel plate capacitor is charged
and the charging battery is then
disconnected. If the plates of the
capacitor are moved further apart by
means of insulating handles. Then:
1) the charge on the capacitor
increases.
2) the voltage across the plates
increases
3) the capacitance increases
4) the electrostatic energy stored in
the capacitor decreases.
Q.45) Current is passing through a
conductor of non- uniform cross-
section. Choose the incorrect
statement out of the following .
1) Current is same at all cross-
sections of the conductor.
2) Current - density is same at all
cross- sections of the conductor
3) Drift - speed of electrons changes
along the length of the conductor
4) Electric field changes along the
length of the conductor.
Q.46) A uniform electric field and a
uniform magnetic field are produced,
pointed in the same direction. An
electron is projected with its velocity
pointing in the same direction.
1) the electron will turn to its right
2) the electron will turn to its left
3) the electron velocity will increase
in magnitude, initially
4) the electron velocity will decrease
in magnitude, initially.
Q.47) A circuit contains a self - inductance
of 1H and carries a current of 2A.
To prevent sparking when the circuit
is switched off, a capacitor is used.
The least capacitance required, if
the capacitor can withstand 400 V,
is
1) 10F
2) 50 F
3) 25 F
4) 100 F
Q.48) In a series LCR circuit, when
1
C  , e.m.f
L
1) lags behind current
2) leads current
3) is in phase with current
4) may lead or lag current depending
on the resistance R.
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.49) Electrons are emitted due to Q.53) In the metallurgy of iron, the material
incidence of green light, but not due obtained from the bottom of blast
to yellow light. When red light is furnace is
incident, then 1) slag 2) pig iron
1) more energetic electrons are 3) cast iron 4) wrought iron
emitted Q.54) Among the following statements, the
incorrect one is
2) less energetic electrons are
emitted. 1) calamine and siderite are
carbonates;
3) no electrons are emitted 2) argentite and cuprite are oxides;
4) emission will depend upon 3) zinc blende and pyrites are
intensity of light sulphide;
4) malachite and azurite are ores of
Q50) When an electron in a hydrogen copper
atom is raised from the ground state
to an excited state, Q.55) The heating of benzyl ethyl ether
with HI produces
1) Potential energy U decreases and 1) iodobenzene
kinetic energy K increases
2) benzyl iodide
2) U increases K decreases 3) phenol
3) both U and K increase 4) ethyl iodide

4) both U and K decrease Q.56) Copper (at mass 63.55 u) has fcc unit
cell st r u ct u r e wit h ed ge l en gt h x A 0
CHEMISTRY at 100 0 C. The density of copper in
g cm–3 at 1000 C is close to
Section A (51-85) Answer all Qns.
Q.51) Extraction of gold and silver involves 105 422
1) 2)
leaching with CN-ion. Gold and Silver x3 x3
are later recovered by
211 205
1) distillation 3) 4)
x3 x3
2)) zone refining
3) displacement with Zn Q.57) Given: The mass of electron is 9.11×
10 –31 kg, Planck constant is 6.626
4) liquation ×10 –34 J s, the uncertainty involved
Q.52) The extraction of copper from its in the measurement of velocity
sulphide ore, the metal is finally within a distance of 0.1A0 is
obtained by the reduction of cuprous
oxide with 1) 5.79 105 ms 1
1) carbon monoxide
2) 5.79 10 6 ms 1
2) copper (I) sulphide
3) sulphur dioxide 3) 5.79 10 7 ms 1
4) iron (II) sulphide
4) 5.79 108 ms 1
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.58) Shape and hybridisation of XeF6 is Q.64) 3 faradays of electricity are passed
1) Distorted octahedral, sp3d3 through molten Al 2 O 3 , aqueous
solution of CuSO4, and molten NaCl
2) Square planar, sp3d2
taken in three different electrolytic
3) Pentagonal bipyramidal, sp3d3 cells. The amount of Al,Cu and Na
4) Square pyramidal, sp3d2 deposited at the cathodes will be in
the ratio of
Q.59) Which molecule has zero dipole
moment
1) 1 mole : 2 mole : 3 mole
1) H2O 2) CO2
2) 3 mole : 2 mole : 1 mole
3) HF 4) HBr
Q.60) A solution containing 62g ethylene 3) 1 mole : 1.5 mole : 3 mole
glycol in 225 g water is cooled to –100C.
If kf of water is 1.86 K kgmol–1 the 4) 1.5 mole : 2 mole : 3 mole
number of grams of water separated
as ice is Q.65) Most common oxidation states of Ce
(cerium) are
1) 64 g 2) 32g
3) 39 g 4) 28 g 1) +2, +3
Q.61) In a galvanic cell, the electrons flow
2) +2, +4
from
1) anode to cathode through the 3) +3, +4
solution
4) +3, +5
2) cathode to anode through the
solution Q.66) Which of the following ions has the
maximum paramagnetic moment?
3) anode to cathode through the
external circuit 1) Mn+2
4) cathode to anode internal circuits
2)Fe +2
Q.62) During the extraction of iron, slag
produced is 3) Ti+2
1) CO 2) MgSiO3
4) Cr+2
3) FeSiO3 4) CaSiO3
Q.63) Arrange Be++, Mg++, Ca++, Ba++, Sr++ Q.67) Which of the following compounds
in increasing order of Hydration give same SN1 and SN 2
energy

1) Be   Mg   Ca   Ba   Sr  CH2Cl

2) Sr   Ba   Ca   Mg   Be  1) 2)
Cl

3) Ba   Sr   Ca   Mg   Be 

4) Ba   Sr   Mg   Ca   Be 
3) 4)
Cl Cl
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Q.68) During nuclear explosion one of the Q.73) Drugs that bind to receptor site and
pr odu cts is 90Sr with half life 15.2 yrs. inhibit its natural functions are
called
If 1  g of 90Sr was absorbed in the
bones of a newborn baby instead of 1) antagonists
calcium, how much of it will remain 2) agonists
after 70 years if it is not lost
metabolically? 3) enzymes
4) molecular targets
1) 0.13  g 2) 0.06  g
Q.74) One mole of sucrose on hydrolysis
3) 0.04  g 4) 0.016  g gives

H2 / Na 1) One mole of glucose and 2 mole of

Q.69) In the reaction O + CH3CH2NH2 (X) .
fructose
The product (X) is
2) One mole of glucose and 1 mole of
1) O CH 2 NH 2 fructose
3) Two moles of glucose
OCH3
2) 4) Two moles of fructose
CH2 NH2
Q.75) Terpineol and chloroxylenol are the
compounds of which of the following
3) N C H 2 CH 3 classes?
1) Disinfectant
4) NHCH2 CH3
2) Chemosterilant
3) Tranquilizers
Q.70)  M  Cl  F  NO 2  SCN   is a square
4) Plant growth hormones
planar complex of metal M. The total
number of isomers for the complex Q.76) The reduction of nitro compounds is
is most preferred in the presence of
1) 3 2) 8 1) Pd/H2 in ethanol
3) 12 4) 16
2) Sn + HCl
Q.71) Which of the following would be least
3) finely divided Ni
reactive towards nitration?
4) iron scrap and HCl
1) Benzene
2) Nitro benzene Q.77) The compound obtained by heating a
mixture of a primary amine and
3) Toluene chloroform with ethanolic potassium
4) Chloro benzene hydroxide (KOH) is
Q.72) Artificial sweetner which is stable 1) an alkyl cyanide
only under cold conditions is
2) a nitro compound
1) Saccharine 2) Sucralose
3) an alkyl isocyanide
3) aspartame 4) alitame
4) an amide
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.78) A 10m3 container contains 0.5 mol of Q.81) Methanol is industrially prepared by
gas A and x moles of gas B at 1000K.
The pressure of the gas mixture is 1) oxidat ion of CH 4 by steam at 9000C
200 Pa. If R in the gas constant in 2) reduction of HCHO using LiAIH4
J K–1 mol–1 x is
3) reaction HCHO with a solution of
2R 2R NaOH
1) 2)
4  12 4R 4) reduction of CO using H2 and ZnO-
Cr2O3
4R 4R
3) 4) Q.82) For the reaction A    2Bg 
2R 2R

H2S2O7  1 moltenNaOH U  2.7kcal and S  20calK1 at

Q.79)  X 
 Y ; Y is
 2 H 300K. G for the reaction at 300K
is
SO3H OH
1)–3.3 kcal 2) –2.7 kcal
1) 2)
3) –2.1 kcal 4) –4.5 kcal

Q.83) The rate of esterification of the

ONa following alcohols with formic acid
will be in the order
3) 4)
1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH>CH3–CH2–
CH2–OH>CH3–CH2OH>CH3–OH

Q.80) In the reaction 2) CH3–OH>CH3–CH2–OH>CH3–CH2 –

CH3 CH2–OH>CH3 –CH2–CH2 –CH2–OH
CH3 CH CH2 O CH2 CH3 Hl heated 3) CH3–CH2 –OH>CH3–OH>CH3–CH2 –
CH2–OH>CH3 –CH2–CH2 –CH2–OH
Which of the following compounds
will be formed? 4) CH3–OH=CH3–CH2–OH>CH3–CH2 –
CH2–OH>CH3 –CH2–CH2 –CH2–OH
1) CH3 CH CH3 CH3 CH2OH
Q.84) A mixture containing (i) benzanilide
CH3 (ii) aniline and (iii) acetophenone are
separated using a chromatographic
2) CH3 CH CH2OH CH3CH3 column packed with silica gel as
CH3 stationary phase. When the column
is elucidated with a mixture of
CH3 solvents hexane and ethylacetate in
3) the ratio 1:4 the sequence of
CH3 CH CH2OH CH3CH2l
obtained compounds is

CH3 1) (i), (ii), (iii) 2) (ii), (iii), (i)

4)
CH3 CH CH2 I CH3CH2OH
3) (iii), (i), (ii) 4) (ii), (i), (iii)
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.85) The order of reactivity of the following Q.91) In the calgon process of softening of
alcohols water which of the following is used?
CH3
CH3 CH3 CH 3 1) Sodium polymetaphosphate
OH F
F Ph OH
OH OH 2) Hydrated sodium aluminium
I II IV
III silicate
towards concentrated HCl is
3) Cation exchange resins
1) 1>II>III>IV 2) IV>III>II>I
4) Anion exchange resins
3) IV>III>II>I 4) IV>III>I>II
Q.92) Mainly which colligative property is
Section B ( 86-100) Answer any 10 Qns.
used to determine molar mass of a
Q.86) The metal oxide which cannot be polymer?
reduced to metal by carbon is
1) elevation in boiling point
1) Al2O3 2) ZnO
3) PbO 4) Fe2O3 2) depression in freezing point

Q.87) Extraction of Zinc from zinc blende 3) osmotic pressure

is achieved by
4) relative lowering of vapour
1) electrolytic reduction pressure
2) roasting followed by reduction with Q.93) Mohr’s salt is
carbon
1) Simple salt 2) Complex salt
3) roasting followed by reduction with
another metal 3) Complex ion 4) double salt
4) roasting followed by self-reduction Q.94) When aniline is treated with
Q.88) Mond’s process is used for the benzene diazonium chloride at low
refining of temperature in weakly acidic
medium, the final product obtained
1) nickel 2) lead
is
3) copper 4) iron
Q.89) Which of the following pairs of d- NH2
orbitals will have electron density
along the axes? 1)
N N

1) d z 2 , d xz 2) d xz , d yz

2)
3) d z 2 , d x 2  y 2 4) d xy , d x 2  y 2 N N NH2

Q.90) Isoelectronic species are 3)

N N NH2
1) CO, CN  , NO  , C 2 2 

2) CO  , CN, NO, C2 NH2

4)
3) CO  , CN  , NO , C 2 N N

4) CO , CN, NO, C2
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.95) Which of the following is a non Q.100) The major product formed in the
reducing sugar ? following reaction is
OH
1) Glucose 2) Sucrose
(1)NaOH
3) Maltose 4) Lactose 
(2)CH I
P
3

Q.96) The basic character of amines is due

to OH

CH3
1) presence of nitrogen atom 1)
2) lone pair of electrons on nitrogen
atom
OCH3
3) tetrahedral structure
2)
4) high electronegativity of nitrogen

NH2 OH

NaNO2/HCl CuBr
Q.97) (P) (Q) the 3)
00C HBr
CH3
compound Q is -
1) bromobenzene OH

2) benzyl bromide
4)
3) chlorobenzene
CH3
4) benzyl chloride
Q.98) When phenol is treated with CHCl 3
and NaOH, the product formed is
BOTANY
1) benzaldehyde
Section A (101-135) Answer all questions
2) salicylaldehyde
3) salicylic acid Q.101) Many species of small plants like
______ growing in forests are adapted
4) benzoic acid to photosynthesize optimally under
very low light condition .
Q.99) The compound which reacts fastest
with Lucas reagent at room 1) Trees and shrubs
temperature is
2) Herbs and shrubs
1) butan-1-ol
2) butan -2-ol 3) Trees and herbs

3) 2-methylpropan-1-ol 4) Herbs only

4) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.102) Find out the correct diagrammatic Q.105) According to Gause, if two species
representation of organismic are occupying same ecological niche
response with regards to regulators. and competing for common resources
then,

1) Both species will eliminate each

other
1)
2) Inferior type will eliminate the
superior type of species

3) Superior species will exclude the

inferior type of species

2) 4) Both species will remain

unaffected

Q.106) Mango, Tuna fish and Snow leopards

are

1) Euryhaline
3)
2) Stenothermal

3) Eurythermal

4) Eurythermal and Euryhaline

4) Q.107) Which of the following significantly

in cr eased t h e r at e of r elease of CO 2
into the atmosphere ?

Q.103) Which of the following organism is a) Rapid deforestation

capable of meeting its water
requirement through internal b) Massive burning of fossil fuel for
oxidation of fats ? energy and transport
1) Desert Lizard
c) Burning of wood
2) Antartic fish
d) Combustion of organic matter
3) Kangaroo rat
4) Seal e) Volcanic activity
Q.104) The maximum number of individuals f) Forest fire
of a population which can be
supported with optimum resources 1) b, c, d, e and f only
for the survival is called
1) Biotic potential 2) a, b, c, d, e and f

2) Carrying capacity 3) a, b, c and d only

3) Environmental resistance
4) a, c, d, e and f only
4) Potential natality
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1]
Q.108) The process by which water soluble
inorganic nutrients go down into the
soil horizon and get precipitated as
unavailable salts is called as :
15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.113) Match Column I with Column II and
select the correct option from the
given codes :

1) Fragmentation Column I Column II

2) Catabolism Gross primary Self-sustainable

A. i)
productivity ecosystem
3) Leaching Net primary
B. ii) Aquatic ecosystem
productivity
4) Mineralisation C. Pond iii) O2 requiring process

Q.109) The individual transitional Photosynthetic

D. Aquarium iv)
communities in succession are production
termed as Available to primary
E. Decomposition v)
consumers
1) Pioneer community

2) Climax community 1) A  iv; B  ii; C  i; D  iii; E  v

3) Seral community 2) A  i; B  iii; C  ii; D  iv; E  v

4) Both 2 and 3 3) A  ii; B  i; C  iii; D  v; E  iv

Q.110) What is the amount of carbon fixed
in biosphere through photosynthesis
annually ?
1) 4×1013 kg 2) 5×1013 kg
3) 4×1016 kg 4) 5×1016 kg
Q.111) __________ is the rate of production
of organic mater by consumers.
1) Primary productivity
2) Secondary productivity
4) A  iv; B  v;C  i; D  ii; E  iii
Q.114) In vehicles, catalytic converters are
used to
1) Increase mileage
2) Convert CO2 to carbonates
3) Increase efficiency of leaded petrol
4) Convert CO to CO2
Q.115) Contribution of ‘Methane’ and ‘CFCs’
towards green house effect is
1) 20% and 60%

3) Net primary productivity 2) 14% and 6%

3) 20% and 14%
4) Gross primary productivity
4) 6% and 20%
Q.112) It is estimated that 170 billion tonnes Q.116) The use of incinerators is crucial in
(dry weight) of organic weight is disposal of
produced annually. What
contribution is expected by oceans ? 1) Nuclear waste from reactors
2) e-waste
1) 20% 2) 30%
3) Solid waste of hospital
3) 50% 4) 90% 4) Waste of thermal power plant
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1]
Q.117) Shell of egg in bird becomes thin due
to the pollution of pesticides. This
occurs due to disturbed
1) Sodium metabolism
2) Calcium metabolism
3) Potassium metabolism
4) Phosphorus metabolism
Q.118) In which of the given region of roots,
there is initiation of nodule
formation takes place?
1) Root hair
2) Epiblema
3) Inner cortex
4) Epidermis
Q.119) Which of the given is not true with
respect to photosystem II (PS-II)?
1) It occurs on inner surface of
thylakoids
2) It is found in both grana and
stroma lamella
3) It is involved only in non-cyclic flow
of electrons
4) It is associated with splitting of
water and release of O2
Q.120) Zoospores and zygote produced in
algae differs from each other as the
former
1) Is always diploid
2) Is non-motile
3) Is a sexual reproductive structure
4) Is an asexual spore
Q.121) Based on chemical nature of plasma
membrane in human erythrocytes,
percentage of proteins and lipids are
respectively ;
1) 52 & 40
2) 40 & 52
3) 92 & 8
4) 8 & 92
16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.122) Which one is correct for lysosomes ?
1) It is non-membranous
2) It lacks proteases
3) It works at a lower pH than the
cytoplasm
4) It is abundantly present in plant
cells
Q.123) Identify the meiotic stage in which
the homologous chromosomes
separate while the sister chromatids
remain associated at their
centromeres.
1) Metaphase I 2) Metaphase II
3) Anaphase I 4) Anaphase II
Q.124) Spindle fibre is made up of
1) Tubulin
2) Humulin
3) Intermediate filament
4) Flagellin
Q.125) In which of the following, movement
of water and minerals occur from one
cell to the other via plasmodesamata
1) Apoplastic pathway
2) Symplastic pathway
3) ATP mediated pathway
4) Both 1 and 2
Q.126) During phloem unloading ;
1) Loss of solute produces a high
water potential in the phloem
2) Water never returns to xylem
3) Gain of solute occurs in phloem
4) Both 1 and 2
Q.127) An element playing important role in
nitrogen fixation is :
1) Copper
2) Manganese
3) Zinc
4) Molybdenum
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.128) Which of the following is incorrect ? Q.131) Match the column :

1) Conversion of shoot apical

meristem into cortex is a case of
Column I Column II
differentiation
Peripheral
2) The non-living differentiated cells A. membrane protein i) Complex-III
can regain the capacity of division complex
which is called dedifferentiation
Pyruvate
3) The formation of interfascicular B. ii) F0
dehydrogenase
cambium and cork cambium can
occur from the fully differentiated Integral membrane
parenchyma C. iii) F1
protein complex

4) Secondary xylem and phellem are

the products of redifferentiation Mitochondrial
D. Cytochrome bc1 iv)
matrix
Q.129) Read the following statements :

i) NAA and 2,4-D are synthetic auxins

1) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
ii) Auxins promote flowering in 2) A-ii; B-iv; C-iii; D-i
pineapples
3) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii
iii) Auxins help to prevent fruit and 4) A-iii; B-iv; C-ii; D-i
leaf drop at early stages but promote
the abscission of older mature leaves Q.132) Read the following statements and
and fruits select the correct option with respect
to electron transport chain in the Z-
iv) Apical bud removal is applied for scheme of light reaction ?
hedge making and creating bushy
a) The electrons are not used up as
tea plants
they pass through the electron
v) Auxin induces parthenocarpy in transport chain but passed on to the
tomatoes pigments of PS-I.
b) During movement of electrons
How many of the above statements from one carrier to the next results
are correct ? in gain of energy in the electrons.
1) Four 2) Five c) The transfer of electrons, starting
from PS-II, uphill to the acceptor,
3) Two 4) Three down the electron transport chain to
PS-I, excitation of electrons, transfer
Q.130) Select the wrong match with respect
to another acceptor and finally down
to respiratory quotient (R.Q)
hill to NADP+ occurs.
1) Proteins = 0.9 1) a only correct
2) Carbohydrate = 1 2) Both a and c are correct

3) Tripalmitin = 4 3) b only correct

4) Both b and c are correct
4) Organic acid = >1
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 18 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.133) Read the following statements and Q.135) Match Column I and Column II and
select the correct option : select the correct option :

(i) Wheat, Maize, Barley and Castor

seeds are endospermic or
albuminous Column I Column II

(ii) Most zygotes divide only after A. Elution i) Gene gun

certain amount of endosperm is
2+
formed B. Competence ii) Ca

 galactosidase
(iii) Though the seeds differ greatly, C. Biolistics iii)
gene
the early stages of embryo
Insertional Extraction of DNA
development is similar in both D. iv)
inactivation from agarose gel
monocots and dicots

(iv) The zygote divides to form

proembryo and subsequently 1) A   i  ; B   ii  ; C   iv  ; D   iii 
globular, heart shape and mature
embryo
2) A   iii  ; B   iv  ; C   i  ; D   ii 
v) Epicotyl and hypocotyl are absent
in monocot seeds.
3) A   i  ; B   ii  ; C   iii  ; D   iv 
Which of the above statements are
correct ?
4) A   iv  ; B   ii  ; C   i  ; D   iii 
1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
Section B (136-150) Answer any 10 ques.
2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only Q.136) The integral form of exponential
growth equation will be :
3) (i), (iii) and (v) only
1) N 0  N t e rt
4) (iii), (iv) and (v) only
2) N t  N 0  ert
Q.134) From among the situations given
below, choose the one that prevents 3) N t  N 0 e rt
both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Nt 1
4)  rt
1) Monoecious plant bearing N0 e
unisexual flowers
Q.137) Mark the incorrect match with
2) Dioecious plant bearing only male regards to population interactions.
or female flowers 1) Amensalism : -, 0

3) Plant with bisexual condition 2) Predation : +, -

3) Parasitism : +, -
4) Plant with only bisexual flowers
4) Commensalism : +, +
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 19
Q.138) Which is the correct order of
ecological hierarchy ?
1) Biome  Populations
Community  Organism
2) Organism  Biome  Population
 Community
3) Population  Community 
Biome  Organism
4) Organism  Population 
Community  Biome
Q.139) Which of the following is incorrect ?
1) F0 is embedded in the thylakoid
membrane and forms a hearing ability
transmembrane channel whereas F1
protrudes on the outer surface of the
thylakoid membrane towards stroma
side.
2) The breakdown of the proton
gradient across thylakoid membrane
provides enough energy to cause a
conformational change in the F 1
particle of ATP synthase to form ATP
3) Chemiosmosis requires a proton
pump but not a facilitated diffusion
channel
4) Biosynthetic phase of
photosynthesis occur in the presence
or absence of light.
Q.140) What is incorrect about ecosystem ?
1) Its size can vary from small sized
pond to large sized sea
2) These may be anthropogenic in
origin
3) These may be temporary or
permanent
4) These involve flow of energy but
not recycling of nutrients
Q.141) Which of the following compounds is/
are well known for biological
magnification ?
1) DDT 2) Mercury
3) Silicon 4) Both 1 and 2
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.142) What steps should be taken before
the disposal of nuclear waste ?
 1) Nuclear waste should be
pretreated
2) It should be stored in shielded
containers
3) It should be buried about 500M
deep within rock
4) All of the above
Q.143) A brief exposure to 150dB sound may
1) Damage ear drums
2)Cause permanent impairing
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Cause temporary impairing
hearing ability
Q.144) Identify the organism with the
following characters :
i) A well defined nucleus
ii) Biflagellate condition with one
flagellum lying longitudinally and
other transversely
iii) Unicellular structure
iv) Cell wall present
1) Dinoflagellate 2) E.coli
3) Plasmodium 4) Slime mould
Q.145) Which of the following statements
with regards to gymnosperms is/are
correct ?
A) The megaspore mother cell divides
meiotically to form four megaspores
B) One of the megaspores enclosed
within the megasporangium develops
into a multicellular female
gametophyte that bears two or more
archegonia.
C) The multicellular female
gametophyte is also retained within
the megasporangium.
1) A only 2) A and B only
3) B and C only 4) A, B and C
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 20
Q.146) The period of growth in plants before
attaining the sexual maturity is
called
1) Juvenile phase
2) Vegetative phase
3) Gametic phase
4) Both 1 and 2
Q.147) Which of the following is correct ?
1) Vallisneria and Hydrilla are
marine plants
2) In Vallisneria, female flowers are
always beneath the water
3) In Vallisneria, pollengrains are
released on the water surface
4) Vallisneria shows hypohydrophily
Q.148) The Maize varieties developed in
India based on increased amino acid
content
1) Lysine and Tryptophan
2) Valine and Leucine
3) Lysine and Leucine
4) Tryptophan and Valine
Q.149) Which of the following statement is
correct ?
1) The tissue involved in secondary
growth are the two lateral meristems-
vascular cambium and cork
cambium.
2) In dicot roots cambium is present
from the beginning ie, during primary
growth
3) In dicot stem cambium is not
present from the beginning ie, during
primary growth.
4) All lateral meristems are present
at the time of primary growth of a
plant body.
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.150) Identify the family with the following
characters :
i) Leaves having alternate phyllotaxy
ii) Bisexual and actinomorphic
flowers
iii) Five epipetalous stamens
iv) Fruits are berry or capsule
v) Seeds are endospermous
1) Liliaceae
2) Brassicaceae
3) Fabaceae
4) Solanaceae
ZOOLOGY
Section A ( 151-185) Answer all Qns.
Q.151) In which of the following step large
and small particles are removed from
sewage through sequential filtration
and sedimentation ?
1) Primary treatment
2) Secondary treatment
3) Biological treatment
4) Tertiary treatment
Q.152) Which of the following micro-
organism is involved in last step of
biogas production ?
1) Methanobacterium
2) Bacillus
3) Pseudomonas
4) Rhizobium
Q.153) Which micro-organism is used in the
formation of cheese ?
1) Staphylococcus
2) Aspergillus
3) Acetic acid bacteria
4) Lactic acid bacteria
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 21
Q.154) The first antibiotic was discovered
accidently by ___(A)___ while
working on ___(B)___ .
1) A-Waksman; B-Streptococcus
2) A-Fleming; B-Penicillium notatum
3) A-Waksman; B-Bacillus brevis
4) A-Fleming; B-Staphylococci
Q.155) Select the microbe which is the
source of ‘clot buster’ enzyme :
1) Bacterium : Lactobacillus
2) Fungi : Aspergillus niger
3) Fungi : Penicillium notatum
4) Bacterium : Streptococcus
Q.156) During primary treatment, all solids
that settle forms ___(A)___ and the
supernat forms ___(B)___
1) A-Primary sludge; B-effluent
2) A-Primary sludge; B-secondary
effluent
3) A-Activated sludge; B-clarified
effluent
4) A-Activated sludge; B-effluent
Q.157) Read the following four statements
(A-D) and select the incorrect option
A) Dough, which is used for making
foods such as dosa and idli is
fermented by fungi and algae
B) Toddy, a traditional drink of
Southern India is made by
fermenting sap from palms.
C) Large holes of ‘Swiss cheese’ are
due to production of large amount of
methane by Propionibacterium
sharmanii.
D) In our stomach, lactic acid
bacteria play very beneficial role in
checking disease- causing microbes.
1) Statements A and C
2) Statements A and B
3) Statements B and C
4) Statements C and D
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.158) All of the following is a part of IPM
(Integrated Pest Management) except
1) Use of resistant varieties
2) Use of crop rotation
3) Biological and mechanical control
of pests
4) Regular use of high dose of
pesticides from beginning to end of
the crop
Q.159) Which of the following statements is
incorrect ?
1) Biofertilizers are used to maintain
and improve soil fertility.
2) Chemical fertilizers pollute soil
and water resource
3) Chemical fertilizers are expensive
4) Most pesticide used these days are
specific in nature
Q.160) Each genus :
1) Always has one specific epithet
2) May have one or more specific
epithets
3) Is a group of many families
4) Is always have more common
characters than species
Q.161) A segment of dsDNA has 120 adenine
and 120 cytosine bases. The total
number of nucleotides present in the
segment is:
1) 120
2) 480
3) 60
4) 240
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 22
Q.162) Which of the following statements
are correct with regards to Variable
Number Tandem Repeat (VNTR) ?
A) Is a location in a genome where
short nucleotide sequence is
organized as tandem repeat
B) The number of repeat varies from
chromosome to chromosome in an
individual and also between
individuals
C) Its size varies from 0.1-20 Kbp
1) A only
2) A and B only
3) B and C only
4) A, B and C
Q.163) Read the following statements and
select the correct option :
Statement I : Bioprospecting related
to exploring molecular, genetic and
species level diversity for products
of economic importance.
Statement II : ‘Rivert-popper’
hypothesis related to explanation of
importance of all types of species in
an ecosystem.
1) Only statement I is correct
2) Only statement II is correct
3) Both the statements I and II are
correct
4) Both the statements I and II are
wrong
Q.164) An ovum from a donor is deposited
in the fallopian tube of another
female who cannot produce an ovum.
Fertilisation and development occur
in the receipient. This method of
infertility treatment is
1) IVF 2) ZIFT
3) GIFT 4) IUI
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.165) Which of the following are correctly
matched with respect to their
taxonomic classification?
1) Housefly, Butterfly, Honey bee,
Silver fish - Arthropoda
2) Neries, Sea urchin, Sea cucumber
- Echinodermata
3) Flying fish, Cuttle fish, Silver fish
- Pisces
4) Earthworm, Cockroach, Spider,
Scorpions - Annelida
Q.166) Which of the following is true for in-
breeding
1) It creates heterozygosity
2) It is the result of out crossing
3) Helps in the accumulation of less
desirable genes and elimination of
superior genes
4) Helps in the accumulation of su-
perior genes and elimination of less
desirable genes
Q.167) Which hormones do stimulate the
production of pancreatic juice and
bicarbonates?
1) Angiotensin and Epinephrine
2) Gastrin and Insulin
3) Cholecystokinin and Secretin
4) Insulin and glucagon
Q.168) Which of the following options best
represents the enzymatic composi-
tion of pancreatic juice?
1) Amylase, Pepsin, Trypsinogen,
Maltase
2) Peptidase, Amylase, Pepsin,
Rennin
3) Lipase, Amylase, Trypsinogen,
Procarboxypeptidase
4) Amylase, Peptidase, Trypsinogen,
Rennin
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 23
Q.169) If for some reason the parietal cells
of the gut epithelium becomes par-
tially non functional, what is likely
to happen?
1) Pancreatic enzymes, especially
trypsin and lipase will not work
efficiently
2) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly
3) Nuclease will be more effective
4) Proteins will not be adequately
hydrolysed by pepsin into proteases
and peptones
Q.170) Bulk of carbondioxide released from
body tissues into the blood is
transported as
1) bicarbonate in blood plasma
2) free CO2 in blood plasma
3) 70% carbaminohaemoglobin and
30% as bicarbonate
4) carbaminohaemoglobin in RBC
Q.171) Chemosensitive area of respiratory
centre in medulla is affected by
1) Less CO2 and H+ ions
2) Less O2 and H+ ions
3) Excess CO2 and H+ ions
4) Excess O2 and H+ ions
Q.172) What would be the heart rate of a
person, if the cardiac output is 5L,
blood volume in the ventricle at the
end of diastole is 100ml and at the
end of ventricular systole is 50mL?
1) 125 beats per minute
2) 50 beats per minute
3) 75 beats per minute
4) 100 beats per minute
Q.173) Which part of the nephron is
impermeable to water?
1) Proximal convoluted tubule
2) Distal convoluted tubule
3) Ascending loop of Henle
4) Descending loop of Henle
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.174) The renal fluid isotonic to blood is
found in
1) Collecting duct and ascending duct
2) Distal convoluted tubule and
ascending limb
3) The proximal convoluted tubule
4) The ascending limb and
descending limb
Q.175) Which one of the following statement
is correct with respect to kidney
function regulation?
1) When someone drinks lot of water
ADH release is suppressed
2) Exposure to cold temperature
stimulates ADH release
3) An increase in glomerular blood
flow stimulates formation of
angiotensin II
4) During summer when body loses
lot of water by evaporation the
release of ADH is suppressed.
Q.176) When kidney of a person is damaged,
he/she invariably suffers from
anemia because,
1) RBCs pass through the glomerulus
2) Sufficient erythropoeitin is not
produced
3) Myoglobin is not synthesised
sufficiently
4) Iron and vitamin B12 are not able
to bind to haemoglobin
Q.177) During muscular contraction which
of the following events occur
i) H-zone disappears
ii) A-band widens
iii) I band gets reduced
iv) A-band retains the length
v) Z lines come closer
1) i, iii, iv and v 2) i, ii and v
3) ii, iv and v 4) i, ii and iii
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 24
Q.178) Which of the following muscular
disorders is inherited?
1) Botulism
2) Tetany
3) Muscular dystrophy
4) Myasthenia gravis
Q.179) Select the correct option?
1) There are seven pairs of
vertebrosternal ribs, three pairs of
vertebrochondral ribs and two pairs
of vertebral ribs
2) 8 th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs
articulate directly with the sternum
3) 11 th and 12 th pairs of ribs are
connected to the sternum with the
help of hyaline cartilage
4) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all
the ribs are connected dorsally to the
thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to
the sternum
Q.180) The pivot joint between atlas and
axis is a type of
1) Cartilagenous joint
2) Synovial joint
3) Saddle joint
4) Fibrous joint
Q.181) Select the correct option describing
gonadotropin activity in a normal
pregnant female
1) High level of FSH and LH
stimulates the thickening of
endometrium
2) High level of FSH and LH
facilitates implantation of the embryo
3) High level of hCG stimulates the
synthesis of estrogen and
progesterone
4) High level of hCG stimulate the
thickening of endometrium
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.182) Which one of the following is not
correct?
1) Photopigments are composed of
opsin and retinal
2) In retina the rods have the
photopigments rhodopsin while
cones have three different
photopigments
3) Retinal is a derivative of
vitamin C
4) Rhodopsin is a purplish red protein
present in rods only
Q.183) Crocodile and Penguin are similar to
whale and dog fish in which one of
the following features
1) Possess a solid single stranded
central nervous system
2) Lay eggs and guard them till they
hatch
3) Possess bony skeleton
4) Have gill slits at some stages of
development
Q.184) Organ of Corti is located on
1) Basilar membrane
2) Basement membrane
3) Reissner’s membrane
4) Synovial membrane
Q.185) The posterior pituitary gland is not a
true endocrine gland because
1) It is provided with a duct
2) It only stores and releases
hormones
3) It is under the regulation of
hypothalamus
4) It secretes enzymes
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 25 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Section B (186-200) Q.190) Match column I and II and choose
the correct combination from the
Answer any 10 Qns
options given
Q.186) Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely
to affect the secretion of which of
the following
Colum n I Colum n II
1) Aldosterone Help to s top substances
a) Adhering
1) from leaking across
2) Sex hormones junction
a tissue
P erform cementing to
3) Adrenaline
b) Gap junction 2) k eep neighbouring
c ells together
4) Cortisol
Facilitate the cells to
Q.187) Hormones secreted by the placenta c ) Tight junction 3) c ommunicate with
to maintain pregnancy are each other

1) hCG, hpL, progestogens, prolactin

1) a-3, b-2, c-1
2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin,
oxytocin 2) a-2, b-3, c-1
3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens 3) a-2, b-1, c-3
4) hCG, progestogen, glucocorticoids
4) a-1, b-3, c-2
Q.188) Choose the correct statement
Q.191) Smooth muscles are
1) hPL plays a major role in
1) Involuntary, cylindrical, striated
parturition
2) Voluntary, spindle shaped,
2) Foetus shows first movements
uninucleate
during the 7th month of pregnancy
3) Involuntary, fusiform, non striated
3) Signals for parturition comes from
fully developed foetus and placenta 4) Voluntary, multinucleated,
cylindrical
4) Embryo’s heart is formed by the
end 2nd month of pregnancy Q.192) In cockroach walking legs arise from
Q.189) Microenvironment for the develop- 1) prothorax and mesothorax and are
ment and maturation of T lymphoctes two pairs
provided by the
2) mesothorax and metathorax and
1) Bone marrow and thymus are two pairs
2) Lymph nodes and spleen 3) all the thoracic segments and are
three pairs
3) Mucosa associated lymphoid tis-
sue 4) first three abdominal segments
and are three pairs
4) Tonsils and Peyer’s patches
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 26 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Q.193) Match the items given in column I Q.197) What are flocs ?
with those in column II and select
the correct option given below 1) Masses of anaerobic bacteria only

2) Masses of aerobic fungi only

Column I Column II
3) Masses of anaerobic bacteria and
A Fibrinogen i Osmotic balance fungi

B Globulin ii Blood clotting 4) Masses of aerobic bacteria

associated with fungi filaments
C Albumin iii Defense mechanism
Q.198) If the base sequence of a codon in
mRNA is 5  AUG  3 the sequence
of tRNA pairing with it must be :
A B C
1 iii ii i
1) 5  UAC  3

2 i ii iii 2) 3  UAC  5
3 i iii ii
3) 5  AUG  3
4 ii iii i
4) 5  GUA  3
Q.194) Mark the odd one (with respect to Q.199) Multiple alleles are present :
Nucleopolyhedroviruses)
1) On sister chromatids
1) Narrow spectrum herbicide
2) On different chromosomes
2) Species specific
3) At different loci on the same
3) Bioinsecticide chromosome
4) Nucleoprotein particles 4) At the same locus of the
homologous chromosome
Q.195) Production of beverages at industrial
scale requires growing microbes in Q.200) Read the following statements and
very large containers known as identify the correct option :

1) Digesters Statement I : The secondary

structure of protein is according to
2) Fermentors aminoacid present inside the
polypeptide.
3) Dough
Statement II : Competitive inhibitor
4) Concrete tank is also called substrate analogue.

Q.196) _____ are used in detergent 1) Only statement I is correct

formulations and are helpful in
removing oily stains from laundry. 2) Only statement II is correct

1) Ligases 2) Proteases 3) Both the statements I and II are

correct
3) Lipases 4) Pectinases
4) Both the statements I and II are
wrong
 TESTBOOKLET
19-08- 2021 Batch : MEDICAL - 2021
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE NEET MODEL EXAM - UNIT IX + REMAINING
CODE
Puliyannoor P.O., PA LA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459
www.brilliantpala.org
Physics + Chemistry + Biology Time: 3 hrs.
Max. Mark: 720
A1
PHYSICS 34. 3
1. 4 35. 2
2. 4 36. 4
3. 1 37. 3
4. 3 38. 4
5. 1 39. 3
6. 1 40. 2
7. 2 41. 2
8. 1 42. 3
9. 4 43. 1
10. 4 44. 2
11. 3 45. 2
12. 1 46. 4
13. 1 47. 3
14. 3 48. 2
15. 3 49. 3
16. 3 50. 2
17. 1 CHEMISTRY
18. 4
51. 3
19. 4
52. 2
20. 1
53. 2
21. 1
22. 3 54. 2
23. 3 55. 2
24. 3 56. 2
25. 2 57. 2
26. 4 58. 1
27. 1
59. 2
28. 4
60. 3
29. 3
61. 3
30. 3
31. 4 62. 4
32. 4 63. 3
33. 4 64. 3
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
65. 3 96. 2
66. 1
97. 1
67. 3
98. 2
68. 3
99. 4
69. 4
70. 3 100 .

71. 2
72. 3 BOTANY

73. 1 101. 2
74. 2 102. 3
103. 3
75. 1
104. 2
76. 4
105. 3
77. 3
106. 2
78. 3
107. 2
79. 2
108. 3
80. 3 109. 3
81. 4 110. 1
82. 3 111. 2
112. 2
83. 2
113. 4
84. 3
114. 4
85. 3 115. 3
86. 1 116. 3
87. 2 117. 2
118. 3
88. 1
119. 2
89. 3
120. 4
90. 1
121. 1
91. 1
122. 3
92. 3
123. 3
93. 4
124. 1
94. 2
125. 3
95. 2
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
126. 1 156. 1
157. 1
127. 4
158. 4
128. 2 159. 4
129. 2 160. 2
130. 3 161. 2
162. 4
131. 4
163. 3
132. 2
164. 3
133. 1
165. 1
134. 2
166. 4
135. 4
167. 3
136. 3
168. 3
137. 4
169. 4
138. 4
170. 1
139. 3
171. 3
140. 4
172. 4
141. 4
142. 4 173. 3

143. 3 174. 3
175. 1
144. 1
176. 2
145. 4
177. 1
146. 4
178. 3
147. 3 179. 1
148. 1 180. 2
149. 1 181. 3
150. 4 182. 3

ZOOLOGY 183. 4
151. 1 184. 1
152. 1 185. 2
153. 4 186. 3
154. 4 187. 3
155. 4 188. 3
FT21L/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

189. 1
190. 2
191. 3
192. 3
193. 4
194. 1
195. 2
196. 3
197. 4
198. 2
199. 4
200. 3