Star Institute

MDCAT CRASH TEST TEST # 1

PHYSICS
1. A cyclist bends while taking a turn to
A) Reduce reaction C) Provide centripetal force
B) Reduce speed D) Reduce friction
2. A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block resting a horizontal frictionless table.
What isconserved?
A) momentum and K.E only C) K.E alone
B) momentum only D) Neither momentum nor K.E
3. What unit do scientists use to measure force?
A) grams C) meters
B) meter per second per second D) newton
4. A bomb of mass 12 kg, initially at rest explodes into two parts of masses 4 kg and 8 kg.
Thespeed of 8kg mass is 6ms-1. The K.E of 4kg mass is:
A) 32 J C) 114 J
B) 48 J D) 288 J
5. A lift is going up. The variation in the speed of the lift is as given in the graph (where speed is in
ms–1 and time is in second): v

velocity (m/sec) 3.6

What is the height to which the lift takes the passengers?

A) 3.6 m C) 36.0 m t
2 10 12
B) 28.8 m D) Cannot be calculated from the above graph
6. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving body is:
A) Always less than one C) Always more than one
B) Always equal to one D) Equal to or less than one
7. Force bear by wall on which water strike normally at speed of 10 m sec–1 and at a discharge
.0001 m3/sec is
A) 1 N C) 10 N
B) 100 N D) 1000 N
8. A motorcyclist doubles its velocity while taking a turn. The force exerted outwardly will be
A) Doubled C) Halved
B) Increased by 4 times D) Decreased by 4 times
9. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km with a speed of 3 km h–1 and walks back
with aconstant speed of 2 kmh–1 his average speed for round trip in kmh–1 is
A) 2.3 C) 2.5
B) 2.4 D) 5
10. The gravity does no work, when the body moves
A) Horizontally C) Vertically down ward
B) Vertically upward D) At an angle of 45° with horizontal
11. When two bodies stick together after the collision, the collision is said to be
A) Perfectly elastic C) Partially elastic
B) Completely inelastic D) None of these
12. Bus passenger ends forward when bus is suddenly stopped due to:
A) Inertia of bus C) Due to external force
B) Inertia of passenger D) None of these
13. A particle goes from point A to B in 1.0s. It is moving in a semicircle of
radius 1.0m.The magnitude of average velocity is
A) 3.14 m/s C) 2.0 m/s
B) 1.9 m/s D) Zero
14. At the highest point, the velocity of projectile is
A) Maximum C) Zero
B) Minimum D) Equal to half of x–component of velocity
15. From the top of tower, two stones whose masses are in ratio 1 : 2 are thrown, one
straight upand other straight down with same speeds. Taking ideal conditions:
A) The heavier stone hits the ground with high speed
B) The light stone hits the ground with high speed
C) Both will have same speed when they hit the ground
D) None of these
16. A fighter jet flying horizontally at a height of 500 m above the ground releases a bomb
when thetarget 2 km ahead is sighted At what speed must the jet be flying in order to hit the
target? [Neglect air resistance and take g = 10 ms–2]:
A) 200 ms–1 C) 250 ms–1
B) 100 ms–1 D) 500 ms–1
17. In order to change the momentum of an object there must be:
A) A force applied C) Change in distance
B) Change in position D) Change in displacement
18. A ball is projected at an angle of 45°. If its range is 10m, Then maximum height of the
ball willbe.
A) 5m C) 4 m
B) 2.5 m D) 10 m
19. A body of mass M collides against a wall with a velocity v and retraces its path with
the samespeed The change in momentum is (take the initial direction of the velocity as
positive)
A) 2Mv C) Mv
B) –2Mv D) Zero
20. Taking off rocket can be explained by
A) 1st law of motion C) Law of conservation of momentum
B) 2nd law of motion D) Law of conservation of energy
21. The thrust of rocket in absence of gravity
A) Constant C) Constant for short time
B) Not constant D) Not possible
22. Flight of rocket in space is example of
A) 1st law of motion C) 2nd law of motion
B) 3rd law of motion D) Law of gravitation
23. While launching a rocket of mass 104kg, a force of 106N is applied for 10s. The speed
attained byrocket at the end of 10s.
A) 500 m/s C) 1500 m/s
B) 1000 m/s D) 2000 m/s
24. If two equal masse (m1 = m2) collide elastically in one dimension, where m2 is at rest
and m1 moving with velocity u1, then final velocities of the two masses are
A) v1 = v2 = 0 C) v1 = –u1 ; v2 = 0
B) v1 = 0 ; v2 = u1 D) v1 = 0 ; v2 = –u1
25. A freight train rolls along a track with considerable momentum. If it rolls at the same
speed buthas twice as much mass, its momentum is
A) Zero. C) Unchanged
B) Twice D) Four times as much.
26. The average force necessary to stop a hammer with 25 N-s momentum in 0.05s.
A) 500 N C) 50 N
B) 125 N D) 25 N
27. The impulse-momentum relationship is a direct result of
A) Newton's 1st law C) Newton's law of gravity
B) Newton's 3rd law. D) Newton's 2nd law.
28. A heavy truck has more momentum than a passenger car moving at the same speed
because thetruck
A) Has greater speed C) Has a large wheelbase
B) Is not streamlined D) Has greater mass
29. Which ball will hit the ground first if dropped at the same time and at the same
height in aperfect vacuum?

A) They will all hit at the same time

B) Metal first, then plastic, then wood last
C) Wood first, then plastic, then metal last
D) None of these
30. Commercial unit of electrical energy is
A) erg-second C) kWh
B) Horse power D) J-s
31. One horse power is equal to
A) 746 watt C) 750 watt
B) 745 watt D) 775 watt
32. How much water a pump of 2 kW can raise in one minute to a height of 10 m (Take g = 10 ms–2)
A) 1000 liters C) 100 liters
B) 1200 liters D) 2000 liters
33. Three objects can only move along a straight, level path. The graphs below show the
position x of each of the objects plotted as a function of time t. The net force on the object is
zero in whichof the cases?

A) II only C) I and III only

B) III only D) I and II only
34. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a
straight line under the action of a force of 5 N. If thework done is 25 J, the angle which the
force makes with is the direction of motion of body is A) 0° C) 60°
B) 30° D) 90°
35. A constant force F acting through a distance of 10 m changes the kinetic of a body from
30 J to45 J. The magnitude of force is
A) 15 N C) 1.5 N
B) 4.5 J D) 45 N
36. The work done on a body is 49 J in raising it through 2.5 m, the mass of the body is
A) 20 kg C) 2 kg
B) 4 kg D) 40 kg
37. The kinetic energy of a body of mass 2 kg and momentum 2 Ns is
A) 1 J C) 3 J
B) 2 J D) 4 J
 38. A man pushes a lawn mover with 75 N force directed at an angle of 30o from the
vertical. Thework done by the man as he cuts a strip of grass 20 m long.
A) 750 3 J C) 750 J
750
B) J D) 1500 J
3
39. Which one of the following is not a conservative force?
A) Gravitational force C) Elastic spring force
B) Electric force D) None of these
40. A body of mass 1000 kg traveling at 36 kmh-1 is brought to rest in 50 s. The average
retardingforce on the body will be
A) 500 N C) 250 N
B) 200 N D) 1000 N
41. A body is dropped from height h. On reaching the height (h – x) its velocity will be
A) 2g(h-x) C) 2gx
B) 2mg(h-x) D) 2mgx
42. The point on the rim of a wheel moves 0.3 m when wheel turns through an angle of
30°. Theradius of wheel is
1.8
A) m C) 0.01 m
π
π
B) m D) 0.1 m
1.8
43. Three particles of a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis are located at 5 cm, 10 cm and
15 cmfrom axis of rotation. Which particle has greater tangential velocity?
A) 5 cm C) 15 cm
B) 10 cm D) All have same tangential speed
44. The ratio of angular speed of minutes hand and hours hand of a watch is
A) 1 : 12 C) 60 : 1
B) 12 : 1 D) 1 : 60
45. A rotating wheel of radius 0.5 m has an angular velocity of 5 rad s–1 at some instant
–1
and 10rads after 5s. Its angular acceleration is
A) 2 rads–2 C) 0.5 rads–2
B) 1 rads–2 D) 4 rads–2
46. The direction of angular velocity is along
A) Tangent to the circle C) Outward radius
B) Inward radius D) The axis of rotation
47. Maximum tension in the string of length 1 m when tied to a mass of 100 g and
making 2revolutions per second is
A) 1.6π² N C) 160π² N
B) 16π² N D) 0.16π² N
48. A stone tied to the end of a circle is whirled in a vertical circle of radius r(Choose correct)
A) The tension at the lowest point is maximum
B) The speed at the lowest point is maximum
C) The speed at the highest point is minimum
D) All of these
49. If a wheel of diameter 1 m is rotating at 2 rads-1 then its linear rim velocity is
A) 1 ms–1 C) 0.5 ms–1
B) 2 ms–1 D) 0.75 ms–1
50. A toy car is rotating in circle with angular speed of 60 rev/min. If a circle is 1 m,
then linearspeed of car in m/s is
A) 2 C) 9
B)  D) 3
51. If the angular velocity of a body increases from zero to 60 rev/min in 1 sec angular
accelerationin rad/sec2 is
A)  C) 3
B) 2 D) 4
52. A stone attached to a string is being whirled in a vertical circle. The string is likely to
break (astension is maximum ) when the stone is at
A) Lowest position C) Any point
B) Highest position D) At middle
53. A beetle crawls 2 cm/minute for ten minutes. How far did it crawl?
A) 8 centimeters C) 5 centimeters
B) 20 centimeters D) 0.20 centimeters
54. In uniform circular motion, which of the following does not remain constant?
A) Speed C) K.E
B) Angular momentum D) Momentum
55. If a fan is switched ON, then its angular acceleration and angular velocity are
A) Parallel C) Perpendicular
B) Antiparallel D) Inclined at an angle less than 90°
 56. Which of the following graph represents the distance-time variation of a body released
from thetop of a building?

A) C)
S S

t t

B) D)
S S

t t
BIOLOGY
57. How many NADH2 are utilized during fermentation per glucose molecule
A) 2 C) 4
B) 3 D) 6
58. Two hydrogen or two electrons are removed in which step of glycolysis
A) Preparatory C) Oxidative
B) Assimilatory D) Reductive
59. Which conversion is accompanied by free energy change during Krebs cycle?
A) Succinate _ Fumarate C) Fumarate _ malate
B) Ketoglutarate _ succinate D) Malate _ oxaloacetate
60. Both animal and plant cells are included in.
A) Prokaryotic category C)Eukaryotic category
B) Acellular category D)Coenocytic category
61. There is no Gametogenesis in.
A) Protists C) Prokaryotes
B) Fungi B Fungi D)Eukaryotes
62. Which is red to orange and yellow
A) Chl a C) Carotenoids
B) Chl b D) Xanthophylls
63. C3H6O3 is
A) Pyruvic acid C) Ethyl alcohol
B) Lactic acid D) Acetyl coA
64. Pyruvic acid is consumed by how many ways in different kinds of respiration
A) 2 C) 4
B) 3 D) 6
65. Following functions are performed by cell membrane EXCEPT.
A) Cell drinking C) Cell vomiting
B) Cell eating D) Autolysis
66. Diffusion and osmosis are two types of.
A) Active transport C) Uphill movement
B) Passive transport D) Facilitated transport
67. Phospholipids are the main lipids component of.
A) Capsule C) Cell wall
B) Slime D) Cell membrane
68. An isolated virus is not considered living, since it
A) Separates into two inert parts C) Cannot metabolize
B) Rapidly loses its genome D) Is coated with an air tight shield
69. Identify the structure/s found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes but is/are
chemicallydifferent in both
A) Flagella C) Ribosomes
B) Cell wall D) Flagella and Cell wall
70. Which of the following is non-cytoplasmic and non-membranous structure?
A) Ribosome C) Nucleolus
B) Cytoskeleton D) Nucleoid
71. Which of the following contain ribosomes?
A) Chloroplast C) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria D) Chloroplast, Mitochondria, Nucleus
72. All bacterial cells are while eukaryotes .
A) Without cell walls, have cell wall C) Haploid, Polyploid
B) Without Nucleus, have nucleus D) Mononucleated, Polynucleated
73. Golgi complex is concerned with:
A) Cell eating C) Photosynthesis
B) Energy synthesis D) Cell secretions
74. The entire cell wall in prokaryotes is regarded as a single huge complex known as
A) Envelope C) Slime
B) Capsule D) Sacculus
75. rDNA is found in:
A) Nucleoplasm C) Chromosome
B) Nucleolus D) Mitochondria and chloroplast
76. The transport of secretory proteins take place through organelles in the order:
A) RER SER Golgi Secretory vesicles C) RERSERSecretory vesiclesGolgi
B) SERRERGolgiSecretory vesicles D) RERGolgiSERSecretory vesicles
77. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is called “rough” because:
A) Rough texture of the surface
B) Surface is studded with membrane proteins
C) Surface is studied with ribosomes
D) All of these
78. During unfavorable conditions certain bacteria produce:
A) Ribosomes C) Mitochondria
B) Plasmids D) Spores
79. Many bacteria are motile due to presence of:
A) Flagella C) Cilia
B) Pilli D) Microtubules
80. is an invagination of cell membrane which helps in cell division:
A) Fimbriae C) Mesosome
B) Nucleoid D) Endospore
81. Ribosome’s are the factories for the synthesis of:
A) Enzymes C) None
B) Proteins D) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
82. Ribosomal composition includes an almost equal amount of
A) Proteins & tRNA C) Proteins & DNA
B) Proteins & mRNA D) Proteins & rRNA
83. Nucleus is only visible when the cell is in stage:
A) Non-dividing C) Active
B) Dividing D) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
84. The smooth ER is especially abundant in cells that synthesize extensive amounts of:
A) Salts C) Enzymes
B) Proteins D) Lipids
85. Eukaryotic cells differ from prokaryotic cells in that
A) Eukaryotic cells usually are smaller than prokaryotic cells
B) Eukaryotic cells may possess a cell wall and prokaryotic cells lack a cell wall
C) Eukaryotic cells possess a cytoskeleton and prokaryotic cells do not
D) Eukaryotic cells contain DNA and prokaryotic cells do not
86. Prokaryotic cell is one, which does not have:
A) Proper nucleus
B) Endoplasmic reticulum & mitochondria
C) Proper nucleus and most of cell organelles
D) Cell wall
87. The main function of a plasma membrane is to:
A) Prevent water from entering or leaving
B) Control what goes into and out of the cell
C) Act as a sieve, allowing only lipids to pass
D) Move the cell from place to place
88. Bacteri
al Membranes differ from eukaryotic membranes in lacking such as
cholesterol:
A) Lipids C) Proteins
B) Sterols D) Carbohydrates
89. When DNA is exchanged viA Cytoplasmic bridges between two bacteria the process is called
A) Transduction C) Transformation
B) Conjugation D) Recombination
90. Site of respiration in bacteria is
A) Mitochondria C) Mesosome
B) Ribosome D) Microsome
91. Bacterial ribosomes lie in
A) Cytoplasm C) Nuclear envelope
B) E.R D) All of these
92. Choose the correct combinations of labeling the carbohydrate molecule involved in the
Calvincycle

A) a – RuBP, b – Triose phosphate, c – PGA C) a – PGA, b – RuBP, c – RuBP

B) a – PGA, b – RuBP, c – Triose phosphate D) a – RuBP, b – PGA, c – Triose phosphate
93. In general appearance the helical phages are:
A) Cubical C) Polyhedral
B) lcosahedral D) Rod shaped
94. Which one is false about AIDS:
A) HIV C) Host specific
B) Acquired D) B-lymphocyte
95. The receptor site for HIV cd4 is present on cell membrane of
A) Monocytes C) T-lymphoblast
B) Helper-T- lymphocytes D) erythrocytes
96. Genetic material of retroviruses is.
A) DNA C) DNA and RNA
B) RNA D) Nucleoprotein
97. A biochemical process which occurs within a cell to breakdown complex compounds to
produceenergy is called:
A) Respiration C) Photosynthesis
B) Oxidation reduction D) Photophosphorylation
98. Which part of chlorophyll molecule absorbs light?
A) Phytol C) Porphyrin ring
B) Pyrrole D) Thylakoid membrane
99. The product (s) of cyclic Photophosphorylation is / are
A) ATP C) NADP and PTA
B) NADP D) NADP, ATP 2
100. Total NADH formed by one glucose molecule during kerb’s cycle is
A) 12 C) 6
B) 3 D) 9
101. Which one provides electrons for reduction reactions in photosynthesis?
A) NADPH C) cytochrome
B) chlorophyll D) water
102. Maximum photosynthesis occurs in.
A) Blue light C) Green light
B) Red light D) White light
103. HIV is a retrovirus because its genetic information is carried in.
A) DNA instead of RNA C) RNA instead of DNA
B) DNA D) Protein coat
104. Which one occurs in the dark reaction of photosynthesis?
A) CO2 reduced C) H2O is added in CO2
B) RuBP is oxidized D) ADP is phosphorylated
105. Photo phosphorylation takes place in
A) Matrix C) Intermembrane space
B) Thalakoid D) Stroma
106. Glycolysis is a catabolic reaction. Which statement is true regarding glycolysis?
A) ATP are produced only C) ATP are used only
B) ATP are used & produced only D) Net gain and loss of ATP is equal
107. Which of the following is not a cell but show some characteristics of cell?
A) E.coli C) HIV
B) Taxus baccata D) Homo sapiens
108. Golgi apparatus is absent in
A) Higher plants C) Yeast
B) Staphlococcus aureus D) Amoeba
109. Formation of food vacuole in a cell is associated with
A) Endocytosis C) Osmosis
B) Diffusion D) Faciliated diffusion
110. Lysosomes are single membranous organelles that mainly contain
A) Oxidative enzymes C) Hydrolytic enzymes
B) Photosynthetic enzymes D) Respiratory enzymes
111. In prokaryotic cells, polysaccharide chains bound covalently to peptide fragments to form
A) Glycoprotein C) Peptidoglycan
B) Glycolipids D) Nucleoprotein
112. Self eating due to food deprivation or hormonal signals is done by
A) Lysosome C) Peroxisome
B) Nucleosome D) Polysome
113. Cholesterol is absent in the cell membrane of
A) Paramecium C) Sycon
B) E.coli D) Rhizopus
114. Circular DNA is found in
A) Bacteria C) Bacteria and chloroplast
B) All viruses D) Chloroplast, bacteria and mitochondria
115. Which one of the following is the site of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria
A) Cristae C) Outer membrane
B) Matrix D) Ribosomes
116. An enveloped virus have which is absent on non-enveloped viruses:
A) DNA or RNA C) Lipoprotein layer
B) Protein coat D) protein sheath
117. Which of the following are symptoms of AIDS:
A) Swollen lymph nodes C) Weight loss
B) Pneumonia D) All are true
118. Not a part of HIV
A) RNA genome C) Viral envelop
B) CD-4 receptors D) Protein capsid
119. Viruses usually size from to nm
A) 20-100 C) 20-250
B) 1-20 D) 25-500
120. Kingdom monera includes.
A) Prokaryotes only C) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes
B) Eukaryotes only D) none
 121. Virus with nucleic acid but without protein coat is.
A) Virion C) Capsid
B) Viroid D) Prion
122. Capsid is made up of
A) Octamers C) Capsomers
B) Peptons D) Polypeptides
123. Pick the best suitable term for following diagram
A) Monotrichous C) Peritrichous
B) Lophotrichous D) Amphitrichous
124. A spiral bacterium with thick rigid wall is
A) Vibrio C) Streptobacillus
B) Spirochaete D) Spirillum
CHEMISTRY
125. Which molecular solid is called ice?
A) H2 C) H2O(s)
B) CO2 D) None of the above
126. A solid having very low melting point and insoluble in water with nonconductor nature is
likelyto be
A) ionic C) molecular
B) Metallic D) Covalent
127. Maximum number of electrons in 4p orbital is
A) 6 C) 4
B) 12 D) 10
128. Bromine is a molecule, in polar solvents
A) Polar C) Non-polar
B) Polar as well as non-polar D) None of the above
129. Water shows minimum density at
A) 4oC C) 100oC
B) 0oC D) –4oC
130. Among Noble gases the deciding criteria for non-ideal behavior is?
` A) Polarity of bonds C) Number of bonds
B) Number of moles D) Molar mass
131. At ordinary temperature, the most real gas is
A) N2 C) H2
B) He D) NH3
132. The attractive forces between molecules of a gas and their sizes can be ignored at
A) High pressure C) Low temperature
B) Low temperature and high pressure D) Low pressure and high temperature
133. Which is the incorrect order of boiling points?
A) H2O > HF > NH3 > CH4 C) C2H5OH > H2O > HF > CH4
B) HCOOH > HF > C2H4 > CH4 D) HF > HI > HBr > HCl
134. Which one of the following molecule shows maximum strength of hydrogen bond?
A) HF C) H2S
B) H2Se D) H2O
135. The attractive forces which are created due to repulsion of electronic cloud of the molecules are
A) Dipole – Dipole forces C) Ion dipole forces
B) Instantaneous dipole – induced dipole force D) Dipole – induced dipole forces
136. Given the equation: N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) When 60g of H2(g) is added to an excess of
N2(g) at450°C, 170g of NH3(g) is produced.
A) The theoretical yield is 14.1 g C) The percent yield is 50.0%
B) The actual yield is 0.8 kg D) The actual yield is greater than theoratical
137. It is very much difficult to cook food at Mount Everest, because
A) Temperature of atmosphere is very low C) The boiling point of water is increased
B) The boiling point of water is 69oC D) Water becomes heavier
138. Incorrect about Orbitals having same energy is except ?
A) Called Hybird orbitals C) Known as Degenerate orbitals
B) orbitals with same l value D) None
139. If four electron pairs ( one LP and three BP) are present in the outer most orbitals of
centralatoms in a molecule the hybridizations is
A) sp2 C) sp
B) sp3 D) dsp3
140. For which of the following compounds hybridization and VSEPR concepts predict the
samestructure except.
A) SiH4 C) H2O
B) CH4 D) None of these
141. Which of the following elements in its crystalline form will have the lowest enthalpy
change ofvaporization?
A) Chlorine C) Phosphorous
B) Argon D) Silicon
142. Which solid does not contain covalent bonds?
A) Copper C) Graphite
B) Diamond ` D) Ice
143. Which molecular solid is called dry ice?
A) H2O at 0Co C) Solid O3
B) CO2 D) Solid CO2
144. A solid having very high melting point and insoluble in water with nonconductor nature is
likelyto be
A) ionic C) Ionic
B) Metallic D) Covalent
145. Maximum number of electrons in 4p orbital is
A) 6 C) 4
B) 12 D) 10
146. Lattice energy is maximum for which species
A) NaCl C) MgCl2
B) AlCl3 D) LiCl
147. Dipole moments are measured in non SI units in
A) Coulomb-meter C) Joule
B) Joule-meter D) None of the above
148. If the principal quantum no. is 3. Then the value of azimuthal quantum no. are
A) 1, 2 C) 1, 2, 3
B) 0, 1, 2 D) –1, 0, 1
149. The percentage of H is highest in
A) CH4 C) H2SO4
B) NH 3 D) C6 H12 O6
150. The maximum number of electrons in d-orbitals is
A) 6 C) 12
B) 8 D) 10
151. 3.0 mole of calcium will contained ———— g of calcium
A) 105 gm C) 80 gm
B) 120 gm D) 100 gm
152. How many moles of sodium are present in 11.5 g of sodium?
A ) 4.3 x 10–3 C) 0.5 x 10–1
–1
B) 5 x 10 D) 1x10-1
153. While finding the relative atomic mass, which of the following standard is used to
compare theatomic mass of chlorine (35.5amu).
A) Carbon -13 C) Carbon-12
| B) Neon-20 D) Nucleon number

154. The above graph indicate that which group members will have hydrogen bonding
between theirmolecules?
A) IV+V C) V+VI+VII
B) VII+V D) VI+IV+VII
155. Ice is less dense than water at:
A) 0 degree C C) – 4 degree C
B) 4 degree C D) 2 degree C
156. Molecular crystals are generally
A) hard C) unstable
B) soft D) stable
157. Weight of one dm 3 of O2 at STP is
.A) 1.4384 gm C) 1.6384 gm
B) 1.84 gm D) 1.0384 gm
158. If the volume of a gas collected at a temperature of 600 C and pressure of 1.05 x 105 Nm–
2
is 60dm3 what would be the volume of gas at STP (P = 1.01 x 103 Nm–2, T = 273K)?
A) 25 x 102 dm3 C) 10 x 102 dm3
B) 75 x 102 dm3 D) 51 x 102 dm3
159. When 50ml of ethanol is mix with 50ml of water, the total volume of this solution is 97ml.
this ispossibly due to :
A) Vapour Pressure C Hydrogen Bonding
B) Boling Point D) Chemical Bonding
 160. Gas is enclosed in a container of 20cm3 with the moving piston. According to kinetic
theory of gases , what will be the effect on freely moving molecules of the gas if temperature
is increased from 20oC to 100°C ?
A) Pressure will become one half
B) Volume will be increased
C) Temperature has no effect on freely moving molecules
D) Colliding capability of molecule will become lower
161. Which graphs represents Boyle’s law.

A) A C) C
B) B) B D) D

162. S.I units for measurement of pressure

A) Pascal C) atm
B) mm of Hg D) torr

163. Which of the following is a pseudo solid?

A) PVC C ) Nylon
B) Glass D) All of these
164. The weakest intermolecular force is
A) hydrogen bonding C) ion-dipole forces
B) dipole-dipole forces D) London dispersion forces
165. Which one of the following hydrogen bonds is stronger that others?
A) Nδ– – Hδ+ ………. Nδ– – Hδ+ C) Fδ– – Hδ+ ............. Fδ– – Hδ+
δ– δ+
B) O – H ………. O – H δ– δ+
D) Nδ– – Hδ+ .............Oδ– – Hδ+
166. liquid in the container have temperature 70°C . what will be the temperature in Kelvin Scale?
A) 350K C) 300K
B) 343K D) 283K
167. Quantum number which tells the energy of electron is?
A) n C) m
B) l D) s
168. If the e/m value of electron is 9.579x109 Coulomb kg – 1 , then what would be the mass of
protonin grams (charge on proton is 1.6022 x 10 -12 Coulombs)?
A) 9.1095 x 10–31 g C) 1.6726  10-27kg
–11
B) 91.095 x 10 g D) 0.919095 x 10–31 kg
169. When the 6d orbital is completed the entering electron goes into
A) 7f C) 7p
B) 7s D) 7d
170. Which one of the following is the correct dot and cross diagram of bonding
between twochlorine atoms?
A) C)

D)
B)

171. When the two partially filled atomic orbitals overlap in such a way of that the probability
of finding the electron is maximum around the jointing the two nuclei, the result is the
formation of:
A) Sigma bond C) Hydrogen bond
B) Pi – Bond D) Metallic Bond
172. Number of O atoms in 10.037 g of CuSO4. 5H2O is
A) 1.18 x 1022 atoms C) 4.45 x 1022 atoms
23
B) 3.12 x 10 atoms D) 2.18 x 1023 atoms
173. Intermolecular forces
A) are weaker than the forces of attraction between the atoms in a molecule.
B) are stronger than the forces of attraction between the atoms in a molecule.
C) are equal to the forces of attraction between the atoms in a molecule.
D) depend upon the nature of the mass.
174. In a molecule of HCl, there is
A) a covalent bond between H and Cl.
B) an ionic bond between H and Cl.
C) a non-polar bond between H and Cl.
D) a co-ordinate covalent bond between H and Cl.
 175. Arrangement of the fundamental particles within an atom determines its
A) Physical Properties C) Chemical Properties
B) Physical & Chemical Properties D) No properties
176. Chemical bond formation take place when
A) Energy is absorbed
B) Force of attraction is equal to force of repulsion
C) Force of attraction overcomes force of repulsion
D) Force of repulsion overcomes force of attraction
177. Ionic compounds are normally soluble in
A) Non polar solvent C) Polar Solvent
B) Both polar and non-polar solvent. D) Neither polar nor non-polar solvent.
178. Fluorine boils at
A) -188.1 oC C) -200 oC
o
B) -150 C D) -210 oC
179. 20g of H2 reacts with 80g of O2 mass of water formed is
A) 100 g C) 90g
B) 80 g D) 20g
180. Combustion Analysis is used to determine
A) Empirical formula C) Molecular formula
B) Ionic formula D) Complex formula
ENGLISH
CHOOSE THE GRAMMATICALLY CORRECT SENTENCE.
Q.181
A) He's got dozen of suits but not one of them is presentable.
B) He's got dozens of suits but not one of them is presentable.
C) He's got dozen of suits but not one of them are presentable.
D) He's got dozens of suits but not one of them are presentable.
Q.182
A) A little is better than none.
B) Little is better than none.
C) The little is better to none.
D) Little is better to none.
Q.183
A) The mother rushed to catch the child who was leaning against the wall.
B) The mother rushed to catch the child whom was leaning against the wall.
C) The mother rushed to catch the child who was leaning over the wall.
D) The mother rushed to catch the child whom was leaning over the wall.
Q.184
A) Take 3 from 8, and 5 remaining.
B) Take 3 from 8, and 5 remained
C) Take 3 from 8, and 5 remain.
D) Take 3 from 8, and 5 remains.
Q.185
A) Just between you and I Marcy’s hair is fright.
B) Just between you and I Marcy’s hairs is fright.
C) Just between you and me Marcy’s hairs is fright.
D) Just between you and me Marcy’s hair is fright.
Q.186
A) Who would have guessed that his teasing my hair would make such a difference?
B) Who would have guessed that he teasing my hair would make such a difference?
C) Who would have guessed that him teasing my hair would make such difference?
D) Who would have guessed that him teasing my hair would make such difference?

SPOT THE ERROR.

187. Involving of terrorists in the blast has been ruled out by the police.
A B C D

188. Because the pen contained permanent ink, I had to spend a long time washing me in the shower.
A B C D

CHOOSE THE CORRECT OPTION TO COMPLETE THE SENTENCE.

189. The patient when the doctor reached

A) died C) die
B) has died D) had died
190. He in the B)A) examination next year.
A) is appearing C) appear
B) appeared D) was appearing

191. I here before 2000.

A) has lived C) live
B) have lived D) lived

192. She is very poor Mathematics.

A) with C) on
B) for D) at

193. She wrote the letter green ink.

A) from C) with
B) on D) in

194. In some countries, motorists drive the left.

A) in C) on
B) by D) to

CHOOSE THE MOST NEAREST WORD IN MEANING.

195. ANXIETIES
A) ingenious C) forgetful
B) developed D) worries

196. BASHFUL
A) shock C) twist
B) occupy D) nervous

CHOOSE THE MOST OPPOSITE WORD IN MEANING.

197. BOON
A) restrained C) disadvantage
B) bonus D) reluctance

198. DISTRACT
A) focus C) registry
B) requisition D) regularity

CHOOSE THE MOST SUITABLE WORD TO COMPLETE THE SENTENCE.

199. The philanthropist naturally loves his fellow man and is with first-order desires to
help.
A) flawed C) attach
B) glaring D) brimming

200. Patients were told to walk at a pace for 6 min and the distance walked in that time was
measured
A) bashful C) astound
B) beckon D) brisk
 LOGICAL REASONING
Q.201 12, 14, 34, 36, 56, 58, 78,
A) 90 C) 60
B) 70 D) 80
E) 100
202. BCDE, CEGI, DGJM, EIMQ,
A) FKQV C) GPOU
B) FKPW D) GOTV
E) FKPU
203. Statements: No gentleman is poor; All gentlemen are rich.
Conclusions: I. No poor man is rich. II. No rich man is poor.
A) If only conclusion I follows C) If either conclusion I or II follows
B) If only conclusion II follows D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
E) If both conclusion I and II follows
204. Statement: The Japanese petroleum industry venturing into the west European markets faces
tough competition from the Chinese.
Actions:
1. Japan should search for other markets for its products.
2. Japan should improve the quality of the petroleum products to compete with the Chinese in
capturing these markets.
A) If only 1 follows C) Either 1 or 2 follows
B) If only 2 follows D)Neither 1 nor 2 follows
E) Both 1 and 2 follows
205. During the past year Josh saw more movies than Stephen.
Stephen saw fewer movies than Darren.
Darren saw more movies than Josh.
If the first two statement are true, the third statement is
C) True C) False
D) Uncertain
206. Fact 1: Mary said, ‘’Ann and I both have cats’’.
Fact 2: Ann said, ‘’I don’t have a cat’’.
Fact 3: Mary always tells the truth, but Ann sometimes lies.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?
I. Ann has a cat.
II. Mary has a cat.
III. Ann is lying.
A) I only C) I and III only
B) II only D) All the statements are fact.
207. Four friends in the 6th grade were sharing a pizza They decided that the oldest friend would get
the extra piece. Randy is two months older than Greg, who is three month younger than Ned Kent is one
month older than Greg. Who should get the extra piece of pizza
E) Randy C) Ned
F) Greg D) Kent
208. Statement: Should the government open more medical colleges in the country?
Arguments:
I. Yes. There is urgent need of qualified doctors and the ratio between doctors and the citizens
is the lowest in India
II. No. The Government should ensure quality education in the existing Medical Colleges as
majority of the colleges lack necessary infrastructure,
A) if only argument I is strong C) if either I or IT is strong
B) if only argument II is strong D) if neither I nor II is strong and
E) if both I and II are strong.
209. Statement: Railway officials have started ten new trains and increased the frequency of
fourteen running trains.
Assumptions:
I. The existing trains are not sufficient to provide accommodation to all passengers.
II. The new and additional trains would have sufficient passengers so that they will be
economically viable.
A) if only assumption I is implicit C) if either I or II is implicit
B) if only assumption II is implicit D) if neither I nor II is implicit and
E) if both I and II are implicit.
210.

A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4
E) 5