Pharma Method 5s 21-22

ΜINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND SCIENCE OF UKRAINE
Petro Μohyla Black Sea Νational University
Μedical Institute
Department of medical biology and chemistry, biochemistry, phisiology, pathophisiology

and pharmacology
WORKSHOP ON PHARMACOLOGY
Part 1
Medical prescription. General pharmacology. Drugs that affect the nervous system and
metabolism
field of knowledge 22 “Health care”

in the specialty 222 “Μedicine”
Developers: PHD Ogloblina M.V.

PhD Larycheva Ο.Μ.
Μycolaiv – 2021
CΟΝTEΝTS
1. Introduction to medical prescriptions. Solid dosage forms 2

2. Soft dosage forms 16
3. Liquid dosage forms 23
4. General pharmacology. Control of practical skills in the ability to use modern 37
reference books on medicines
5. Drugs that act on the transmission of excitation in cholinergic synapses 46
6. Drugs that affect the transmission of excitation in adrenergic synapses 60
7. Drugs for general and local anesthesia. Pharmacology of ethyl alcohol 77

8. Analgesics 91
9. Neuroleptics, tranquilizers, hypnotics and sedatives 102
10. Anticonvulsants. Drugs for the treatment of neurodegenerative diseases 112
11. Antidepressants, nootropic drugs, psychomotor stimulants and analeptics 120
12. Hormonal drugs, their synthetic substitutes and antagonists 128
13. Anti-inflammatory, anti-allergic and immunotropic drugs 141
14. Water-soluble and fat-soluble vitamin preparations 154

15. Final control of block 1 163
List of drugs for final control of knowledge
The list of theoretical questions to the final control of knowledge
16. Recommended sources of information 168
1
Topic 1. Introduction to prescription. Rules for writing prescriptions. Solid dosage forms
The main questions for studying the topic

1. General questions.
1.1 State Pharmacopoeia of Ukraine, its content and purpose.
1.2 Prescription. Requirements for the prescription, its structure. Forms of prescription
forms. The most important abbreviations and their designations in the prescription.
Dosage of medicinal substances.
1.3 Rules for prescribing medicines; legislative and regulatory framework.
1.4 Features of prescribing on forms 1 and form 3.
1.5 Pharmacy, its purpose and structure. Rules for dispensing drugs from pharmacies and
pharmacy warehouses.
1.6 Medicinal substances that are allowed to be dispensed without a doctor's prescription.
1.7 Medicines that are subject to subject-quantitative accounting in treatment and prevention
facilities.
1.8 Instructions on how to store prescription forms.
1.9 Types of prescriptions.
2. General characteristics of solid dosage forms and rules of their prescription.
2.1 Solid dosage forms, their classification and characteristics.
2.2 Powders, their varieties, shape-forming substances for complex separated powders.
Minimum, maximum and average weight of dosed powder. Advantages and
disadvantages of powders for internal use. Tooth powders.
2.3 Powders (powders for external use). Their classification and purpose. Shaping substances
for complex powders.
2.4 Tablets. General characteristics of tablets. Determination of the suitability of tablets.
Options for prescribing tablets.
2.5 Dragee. General characteristics of dragee. Their advantages over other solid dosage
forms.
2.6 Capsules. General characteristics of capsules.
2.7 Species. Features of their prescription. Officinal and magisterial species.
General questions that a student has to learn in preparation for the lesson
RULES FOR PRESCRIBING PRESCRIPTIONS FOR MEDICINES

When prescribing prescriptions should be guided by the order of the Ministry of Health
of Ukraine №360 from 19.07.2005 “On approval of the rules for prescribing prescriptions and
requirements-orders for medicines and medical devices, the order of release of medicines and
medical devices from pharmacies and their structural units, instructions on the order of storage,
accounting and destruction of prescription forms”.
Prescriptions MUST be issued on:
• prescription drugs;
• over-the-counter medicines, medical devices in case of their release free of charge or on
preferential terms;
• medicines that are manufactured in a pharmacy for a specific patient.
2
Health professionals who have the right to prescribe prescriptions are responsible for
prescribing medication to the patient and complying with the rules for prescribing prescriptions
in accordance with the legislation of Ukraine.
Prescriptions are prescribed on a Prescription Blank №1 (F-1) and a Special Prescription
Blank №3 (F-3) for prescribing narcotic and psychotropic drugs.
Prescriptions for medicines, except for narcotic (psychotropic) medicines and medical
devices are written on prescription blanks F-1. No more than three names of medicines are
allowed to be prescribed on F-1 prescription blanks.
One name of the drug is prescribed in the case of:
- appointment to privileged categories of the population on the blank F-1;
- which are subject to subject-quantitative accounting;
- appointment of narcotic (psychotropic) drugs on the blank F-3;
- appointment of medicines, the cost of which is subject to state reimbursement.
The prescription is certified by the doctor's signature and personal seal. Prescriptions for
medicines, the cost of which is subject to state reimbursement, are additionally certified by the
red seal “The cost is subject to reimbursement”.
Prescriptions for narcotic (psychotropic) drugs in pure form or in a mixture with
indifferent substances are prescribed on Special Prescription Blank F-3. Special Prescription
Blank №3 are made on pink paper, size 75х120 mm, have through numbering. Control over their
registration and use is entrusted to a responsible person, who is appointed by order of the head of
the health care institution.
Prescription F-3 is additionally signed by the head of the health care institution or his
deputy for medical work (and in their absence – the signature of the head of the department of
this institution, which is responsible for prescribing narcotic (psychotropic) drugs) and certified
by the subject management that carries out activities related to medical practice.
Prescriptions are written clearly and legibly in ink, ballpoint pen or computer set with the
obligatory filling of the appropriate information provided in the form of the Prescription form.
Corrections in the Recipe are not allowed!
When prescribing narcotic (psychotropic), poisonous and potent drugs in doses exceeding
higher single doses, the healthcare professional is obliged to write the dose of this drug in words
and put an exclamation mark.
If it is necessary to immediately release the drug to the patient at the top of the
prescription is marked “cito” (fast) or “statim” (immediately).
The name of the medicinal product, namely: the international non-proprietary name, the
name of the form-forming and correcting substances, the composition of the medicinal product,
the dosage form, the doctor's appeal to the pharmaceutical worker about the manufacture and
dispensing of medicinal products are written in Latin.
The method of drug administration is written in the state language or the language of
international communication, indicating the dose, frequency, time and conditions of
administration. It is forbidden to be limited to general instructions such as “External”, “Known”,
etc.
Prescriptions are issued for medicines registered in Ukraine, except as provided by
applicable law.
3
The Form of the Prescription Blank №1 (F-1) for Prescribing of Recipe valid for 1 month Seal of
Medicinal Agents for full cost, free of charge, with surcharge and treatment-and-
those subject to substantive and quantitative accounting (size prophylactic establishment
105x150) The Form of the Special Prescription Blank №3 (F-3)
for Prescribing of Narcotic and Psychotropic Drugs
The name of establishment The Code of establishment on ZKUD
(A stamp of establishment) The Code of establishment on ZKPO The name of establishment The Code of
Medical documentation F-1 establishment on ZKUD
____________________________________________________________ (A stamp of establishment) The Code of
___________ establishment on ZKPO
PRESCRIPTION Prescription number ______ Medical documentation F-3
(adult, children – “___” ____________ 20__
to underline the necessary) PRESCRIPTION
___________________________________________________________ on the right to obtain a drug containing a narcotic agent or psychotropic
For the full price Free of charge 50% Payment substance
_______________________________________________________ Series __________ № _______________
“___”_____________ 20__
Surname, first name and patronymic, and age of the Special accounting document
patient__________________________________________________
The address of the patient or number of a medical card of an Surname, initials, and age of the patient __________________________
ambulatory_______________________________________________ The address of the patient or number of a medical card of an
Surname, first name and patronymic of the doctor ambulatory:__________________________________________________
________________________________________________________ Surname and initials of the doctor ________________________________
Rp.:
Rp.:
_______________________________________________________
Rp.:
_______________________________________________________
Rp.:
_______________________________________________________
Signature and personal stamp Signature and personal stamp of the doctor (legible)
of the doctor (legible) LS Seal of treatment-and prophylactic establishment
The recipe remains in the pharmacy. Note. The series and number of the form are indicated in a typographical
way.
5
DOSAGE RULES, WEIGHT AND VOLUME MEASURES
The amount of solid and bulk drugs is indicated in grams (0.001; 0.01; 0.5; 1.0). The amount of
liquid drugs in prescriptions is indicated in millilitres, drops (for example: 1 ml; 100 ml; gtt). If the
drug is dosed in units of action (OD), the prescription indicates the number of units of action.
If the dosage form includes a drug in drops, the number of drops is indicated by a Roman
numeral, preceded by gtts (abbreviated name of the word guttas (drops) in the accusative plural), for
example gtts V (drops 5).
Table of endings of nouns in the genitive case
Case End of the nominative case Genitive case Note

Singular Plural
«а» - feminine as well as words Aloe, With endings on

І Benzoe ae Arum «ma» - on the
third case
«us» - masculine Exclusionspiritus,
ІІ «um» - neuter i Orum quercus - on the
forth case
«o, os, or, is, s, x, ma, l, cl, n, ur»

ІІІ (masculine, feminine, neuter) is um(ium)
«us» - masculine
ІV «u» - neuter us Uum
V «es» - feminine ei Erum

LIST OF ABBREVIATIONS ACCEPTED IN THE RECIPE
The use of Latin abbreviations is allowed only in accordance with accepted medical and
pharmaceutical practice.
It is forbidden to reduce the names of ingredients that are close in name, which can lead to
confusion as to which drug is prescribed.
The most important prescription abbreviations:
Abbreviation Full writing Translation
āā ana on, equally
ac. acid. acidum acid
amp. ampulla ampoule
aq. aqua water
aq. pur. aqua purificata purified water
but. butyrum oil (solid)
comp. compositus (a, um) complex
D. Da, Detur, Dentur give out, let it be issued
D. S. Da Signa, Detur Signetur give out, mark
D. t. d. Da (Dentur) tales doses give (to issue) such doses
dil. dilutus diluted
div. in. p. aeq. divide in partes aequales sections at the level of the part
extr. extractum extract
f. fiat (fiant) let it be formed
gtt., gtts. gutta, guttae drop, drops
hb. herba grass
inf. infusum infusion
in ampl. in ampullis in ampoules
in tab. in tabulettis in tablets
linim. linimentum liquid ointment, liniment
liq. liquor liquid
M. pil. massa pilularum pill mass
M. Misce, Misceatur mix, let it be mixed
N. numero number
ol. oleum oil
pil. pilula pill
P. aeq. partes aequeles equal parts
pulv. pulvis powder
q. s. quantum satis how much is needed
r., rad. radix root
Rp. Recipe take
Rep. Repete, Repetatur repeat, let it be repeated
rhiz. rhizoma rhizome
S. Signa, Signetur mark, let it be marked
sem. semen seed
simpl. simplex simple
sir. sirupus syrup
sol. solutio solution
steril. aerilisa sterilisetur sterilize, let it be sterilized
supp. suppositorium suppository
tab. tabuletta tablet
t-ra tinctura tincture
ung. unguentum ointment
vitr. vitrum glass
praecip. praecipitatus precipitated
1
PRESCRIPTION AND ITS STRUCTURE
A prescription is a written appeal of a doctor, heads of medical or obstetric points to a

pharmacist about the manufacture and release of a medicinal product to a certain person, indicating the
method of its use. This is an important medical, financial and legal document that needs to be treated
very carefully.
Prescription structure:
1. Inscriptio – inscription, which includes:

• stamp of medical and preventive institution and its code;
• indication: children or adults (it is necessary to emphasize);
• date of prescription (date, month, year);
• surname, name and patronymic of the patient, age;
• surname, name and patronymic of the doctor.
2. Invocatio – A doctor's request to a pharmacist is a “prescription”, which means “take”.
Abbreviated – “Rp”.
3. Designatio materiarum – a list of medicinal substances in Latin in the genitive case,
indicating their number in the following order:
 basis – the main active ingredient;
 adjuvans – auxiliary drug substance;
 corrigens – substances that correct or mask the taste, smell and other unpleasant
organoleptic properties of drugs;
 constituens – substances that give drugs a certain dosage form:
 for solid dosage forms
o dosed powders for oral administration – sugar,
o for powders – indifferent powders (talc, white clay, starch, zinc oxide);
 for soft dosage forms - vaseline, lanolin, spermaceti;
 for liquid dosage forms - water, vegetable oil, alcohol.
4. Subscriptio – instructions of the pharmacist on the manufacturing technology, dosage forms,
number of doses (in Latin).
5. Signatura – begins with the word Signa (mark). This part is written in the state or other
languages, in accordance with the Law of Ukraine “On Languages in Ukraine”, without any
abbreviations.
6. Nomen medici – the doctor's signature, his personal seal and, if necessary, the seal of the
medical institution.
The prescription can be simple and complex. A simple prescription consists of one, complex of
two or more drugs.
Simple prescription Complex prescription
Rp.: Analgini 0.5 Rp.: Dimedroli 0.05

D.t.d.N. 12 Sacchari 0.3
S. By 1 powder 2 times a day M.f.pulv.
D.t.d.N. 12
S. By 1 powder 3 times a day.
2
Example correctly composed prescription:
Stamp medical and preventive institution

Prescription number ______
PRESCRIPTION Inscriptio
"___" ____________ 20__
(adult, children)
Surname, name and patronymic and age of the patient:_____________

Medical card number:_______________________________________
Surname, name and patronymic of the doctor:____________________
Rp.: Dibazoli 0.02 Basis Designatio

Phenobarbitali 0.05 Adjuvans
Invocatio materiarum
Sacchari 0.3 Corrigens et constituens
M.f. pulv. Subscriptio
D.t.d.N. 12
S. By 1 powder 3 times a day. Signatura
Doctor's signature and personal seal (legible) Nomen Medici
Not all parts of designatio materiarum can be represented in the recipe. The obligatory part of
the prescription is only basis – a substance that determines the nature of the action of the entire dosage
form.
Adjuvans – used to enhance the desired effect and (or) reduce some of the side effects of the
main substance. For example, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, enalapril, has a pronounced
hypotensive effect mainly due to vasodilation. Using enalapril in combination with a diuretic (eg,
hydrochlorothiazide), which will further reduce the volume of circulating blood, you can achieve a
more pronounced and lasting pharmacotherapeutic effect.
Corrigens – substances that correct the taste and smell, are used to give a more attractive
appearance and taste of drugs. When prescribing powders, it can be sugar, and when prescribing liquid
dosage forms - syrups, etc.
Constituens – filler (sugar - in powders used internally; talc, starch, white clay, zinc oxide - in
powders for external use); substance for shaping (water, oil, alcohol - for liquid dosage forms and
Vaseline, lanolin - for ointments and pastes).
Signatura – short and comprehensive recommendations of the doctor to the patient on the use
of this dosage form.
1. Dosage (1 tablet, 1 powder, 1 ml, 1 tablespoon, etc.)
2. The method of application of the drug (for example: subcutaneously, intravenously,
intramuscularly, administered slowly). Ingestion of the drug may not be indicated in the signature. If
before use the contents of the vial or ampoule must be diluted, the signature shall indicate: the contents
of the vial diluted (dissolved) in 500 ml (or other required volume) of sterile (parenterally administered
only sterile solutions) 5% glucose solution (or other solvent).
3. Frequency and time of reception (2 times a day).
3
The names of drugs in the recipe are written in Latin in the genitive case, one below the other,
each of the new line. The amount of drugs included in the prescription is indicated on the right side of
the prescription form next to the name of the drug substance ā (0.01; 1 ml; 10000 IU, etc.).
In cases where the maximum dose of toxic or potent substances is exceeded, it is necessary to
indicate their number in words with an exclamation mark and a doctor's signature to confirm that the
high dose is not prescribed by accident. If the correct dose is not confirmed, the pharmacist reduces the
dose of the substance (up to 50% of the highest single dose specified in the Pharmacopoeia).
If several drugs are prescribed in the same dose, its numerical value is indicated only once after
the name of the last substance. To indicate that the specified number refers to all of the above names,
put the sign āā, which means ana – equally:
Rp.: Riboflavini
Thiamini сhloridi āā 0.01
Ac. аscorbinici 0.1
M.f.pulv.
D.t.d.N. 12
TYPES OF PRESCRIPTION
An officinal prescription is a method of prescribing drugs, the composition of which is

established and given in the State Pharmacopoeia; prescribing such a drug, the doctor, without listing
its constituent ingredients, prescribes the name and quantity established by the Pharmacopoeia for
release:
Rp.: Ung. Zinci 30,0
D.S. Apply to affected areas of skin 2 times a day.
The magisterial prescription is a prescription made by the doctor on the basis of

pharmacological properties of drug taking into account features of a disease of the patient:
Rp.: Dibazoli 0.02
Phenobarbitali 0.05
Sacchari 0.3
M.f. pulv.
D.t.d. N. 12
A detailed prescription is a prescription that lists all the ingredients and their quantity, and
then prescribes to pharmacists how to prepare the dosage form:
Rp.: Anaesthesini 5.0
Vaselini ad 50.0
M.f. ung.
D.S. Apply to affected areas of skin 2 times a day.
Dosage formulation – in the formulation the dose of the medicinal and form-forming
substance is indicated in one dose and after the instruction on the preparation of the dosage form it
should be indicated: “Give such doses in numbers”. In this case, the drug will be prepared, divided into
separate methods:
Rp.: Acidi ascorbinici 0.05
Sacchari 0.3
4
M.f.pulv.
D.t.d.N. 12
Non-dosed prescription – in the prescription the dose of the main and formative substance is
indicated in the total amount for all receptions and the patient himself doses the drug for one reception.
In this form it is allowed to prescribe drugs for external use, or non-potent substances for internal use:
Rp.: Carbonis activatis 30.0
D.S. At poisonings inside in the form of suspension in 1 liter
of water for gastric lavage
General characteristics of solid dosage forms

POWDERS
For internal use
For external use (not dosed)
Dosed Non-dosed
Weight
Minimum weight – 0.1; Minimum weight – For application to the skin and wound
for plant substances – 0.05; 5.0; surfaces 5.0-100.0.
Maximum weight – 1.0 Maximum weight –
(optimal – 0.3-0.5). 100.0
If the weight of the powder
is less than the minimum,
add 0.3 sugar.
If the weight of the powder
is greater than the
maximum, it is used as a
solution (laxative salts)
Constituents
cane or beet sugar (Saccharum), lactose (Saccharum wheat starch (Amylum Tritici), corn
lactis), glucose (Glucosum, -і or Glucosa, -ае), (Amylum Maydis), potato (Amylum
licorice root powder (Pulvis radicis Glycyrrhizae) Solani), rice (Amylum Oryzae), talc
(Talcum), argil (Bolus alba), lycopodium
(Lycopodium).
TABLETS
For internal use, under the tongue, in the vagina, in For external use (soluble in water)
the rectum, for subcutaneous implantation
Weight from 0.1 to 1 g
CAPSULES
Capsule content – powders, granular, pasty, semi-liquid or liquid drugs.
The capsule contains from 0.1 to 1.5 g of drug substance
DRAGEE
Weight from 0.1 to 1 g
SPECIES
Weight 50-200 g
Preparations for prescription.
1. Aminazine (Aminazinum) at 0.025 in dragee.

5
Rp.:
2. Pancreatin (Pancreatinum) at 0.5 in powder 3 times daily before a meal.

Rp.:
3. Diazepam (Diazepamum) at 0.005 in tablets.

Rp.:
4. Rifampicin (Rifampicinum) at 0.15 in capsules 3 times daily before a meal.

Rp.:
5. Powder containing 10% anesthetic (Anaesthesinum).

Rp.:
6. Prednisolone (Prednisolonum) at 0.005 in tablets.

Rp.:
7. Folic acid (Acidum folicum) at 0.005 and thiamine bromide (Thiamini bromidum) at 0.03 in
powders.
Rp.:
8. Reduced iron (Ferrum reductum) at 0.5 in capsules.

Rp.:
6
9. “Papasol” (“Papasolum”) in tablets.
Rp.:
10. 50.0 collection of choleretic (Species cholagogae).

Rp.:
11. Diphenhydramine (Dimedrolum) at 0.05 and phenobarbitalum (Phenobarbitalum) at 0.03 in

powders.
Rp.:
12. Metacyclin (Metacyclinum) at 0.15 in capsules.

Rp.:
13. Furosemide (Furosemidum) at 0.04 in tablets.

Rp.:
14. Barbital (Barbitalum) at 0.05 in powders.

Rp.:
15. Methylene blue (Methylenum coeruleum) 0.1 in capsules. 1 capsule 3 times a day.
Rp.:
7
16. Collection of chamomile flowers (Flores Chamomillae), marshmallow root (Radix Althaeae)
and peppermint leaves (Folium Menthae piperitae) 20.0 each. Make one tablespoon of the
collection in a glass of boiling water, cool, strain. Take 1/4 cup 3 times a day.
Rp.:
17. 20.0 complex undivided powder consisting of 20% magnesium oxide (Magnesii oxydum) and
80% sodium bicarbonate (Natrii hydrocarbonas). Dissolve 1/2 teaspoon in a glass of water and
take for heartburn.
Rp.:
18. Male fern extract (Extractum Filicis maris spissum) in capsules at 0.5. Single dose 6.0. Take all
capsules within 30 minutes.
Rp.:
19. Chinioform (Chinioformium) at 0.6 in capsules.

Rp.:
20. Papaverine hydrochloride (Papaverini hydrochloridum) at 0.02 in powder.

Rp.:
The report is checked up ________________________

(The signature of the teacher, date)
Examples of Krok-1 tests
1. In what range can the mass of dosed A. 0.05 - 1.0

powders of plant origin for internal use B. 5.0 - 100.0
fluctuate? C. 0.1 - 1.0
8
D. 0.5 - 5.0
E. 20.0 - 50.0
2. Specify the degrees of grinding of A. Large, medium-sized, medium-sized,

powders listed in the State small, smaller, smallest
Pharmacopoeia of Ukraine: B. Large, medium, thin
C. Large, medium, small, colloidal
D. Large, medium, small, the smallest
E. Large, medium-sized, medium-small,
smaller, colloidal
3. In what range can the mass of dosed A. 0.1 - 1.0

powders of synthetic origin for internal B. 5.0 - 100.0
use fluctuate? C. 0.5 - 5.0
D. 0.05 - 1.0
E. 20.0 - 50.0
4. In what range can the mass of non- A. 5.0 - 100, 0

dosed (non-divided) powders fluctuate? B. 0.5 - 5.0
C. 0.1 - 1.0
D. 0.05 - 1.0
E. 20.0 - 50.0
5. Choose a solid dosage form for internal A. Powders

and external use, which includes dry, B. Tablets
loose, evenly ground substances? C. Dragees
D. Capsules
E. Meetings
6. Indicate the medicinal product, A. Poisonous drug

prescription, release, accounting, B. Narcotic drug
storage and control of which is subject C. Standard drug
to special safety rules and is included in D. Potent drug
List A (Venena) according to the E. Substitute drug
requirements of the pharmacopoeia:
7. Specify the mass of metered powder for A. 0.1 - 1.0

internal use: B. 5.0 - 100.0
C. 10.0 - 15.0
D. 50.0 - 70.0
E. 5.0 - 10.0
8. To which dosage form are pills? A. Solid

B. Soft
C. Liquid
D. Injectable dosage forms
E. All of the above
9. To which dosage form is the species? A. Solid

B. Soft
C. Liquid
9
E. All of the above
10. To which dosage form do powders A. Solid
belong? B. Soft
C. Liquid
E. No correct answer
11. To which dosage form is the dusting A. Solid

powder? B. Soft
C. Liquid
12. To which dosage form do tablets A. Solid

belong? B. Soft
C. Liquid
13. Medicinal substances that have an A. Capsules

unpleasant taste, odour, harmful effects B. Pills
on the teeth or have an irritating effect C. Dragees
are prescribed in: D. Powders
E. Granules
14. On the prescription form of which form A. N3

prescribe narcotic drugs in pure form or B. N1
in a mixture with indifferent substances C. N6
D. N5
E. N2
15. Name the filler for metered powders A. Sugar

B. Zinc oxide
C. Lycopodium
D. White clay
E. Talc
16. Name the filler for non-dosed powders A. Talc

B. Sodium citrate
C. Sugar
D. Sodium bicarbonate
E. Glucose
17. Mark the dosage forms that are A. Magisterial

prepared in the pharmacy on a doctor's B. Official
prescription: C. Poisonous
D. Potent
E. Galenic
18. Indicate the mass of dosed powder for A. 0.1 - 1.0

internal use: B. 5.0 - 100.0
C. 10.0 - 15.0
10
D. 50.0 - 70.0
E. 5.0 - 10.0
19. Label the solid dosage form obtained A. Tablets

by compression of drugs or drugs and B. Powders
excipients, and preferably administered C. Dragees
orally. D. Granules
E. Capsules
20. The form of release of drugs that best A. Dosage form

meets the purpose of use and is most B. The drug
advantageous for use for therapeutic C. Medicinal substance
and prophylactic purposes? D. Reagent
E. Excipients
21. What is specie? A. A mixture of different plants

B. One medicinal plant
C. A mixture of vegetable raw materials
with mineral fertilizers
D. A mixture of salts and essential oils
E. A mixture of plant and animal raw
materials
22. What are species? A. A mixture of different parts of one plant

B. A mixture of different plants
C. A mixture of vegetable raw materials
with mineral fertilizers
D. A mixture of salts and essential oils
E. A mixture of plant and animal raw
materials
23. What is the name of the preparation A. The drug

after the appropriate technological B. Medicinal substance
processing in accordance with the rules C. Dosage form
of pharmacy? D. Reagent
E. The drug of comparison
24. What is the name of the part of the A. Designatio materiarum

recipe that follows the designation B. Praepositio
“Rp”? C. Invocatio
D. Subscriptio
E. Inscriptio
25. Which of the following drugs belongs A. Morphine hydrochloride

to the narcotic drugs that are prescribed B. Epinephrine hydrochloride
on prescription form №3 C. Paracetamol
D. Ampicillin
E. Diamond green
26. Which regulatory and technological A. Pharmacopoeial article

document sets requirements for the B. State Pharmacopoeia of Ukraine
drug, its packaging, conditions and C. Law of Ukraine “On Medicinal Products”
11
shelf life and methods of quality D. Recipe
control? E. Order of the Ministry of Health of
Ukraine
27. What is the term for the need for A. Cito

immediate release of medication to the B. Simplex
patient? C. Da
D. Repete
E. Misce
28. What forms are used for prescribing A. Requirement

medicines and medical devices for the B. Prescription (form №1)
needs of treatment and prevention C. Prescription (form №3)
facilities: D. Medical card
E. Needs card
29. What is the name of the drug that A. Functional drug

restores impaired function? B. Symptomatic drug
C. Substitute drug
D. Pathogenetic drug
E. Prolonged drug
30. Indicate to which dosage form the A. Solid

species belong. B. Soft
C. Liquid
E. All of the above
31. Magisterial forms are made in A. Pharmacy

B. In the hospital
C. At the factory
D. At the factory
E. In the clinic
32. What does prescription abbreviation aq. A. water

mean? B. on
C. equally
D. liniment
E. ampoule
33. What does prescription abbreviation A. Solid oil

but. mean? B. Oil
C. Water
D. Seeds
E. Ointment
34. What does prescription abbreviation D. A. There is no correct answer

mean? B. Sign
C. Water
D. Solution
E. Mix
12
35. What does prescription abbreviation A. Diluted
dil. mean? B. Infusion
C. Decoction
D. Seeds
E. Rhizome
36. What does the prescription abbreviation A. Infusion

Inf. mean? B. Diluted
C. Decoction
D. Seeds
E. Rhizome
37. What does the prescription abbreviation A. Number

N. mean? B. Mix
C. Give out
D. Sign
E. Stir
38. What does the prescription abbreviation A. Equal parts

P. aeq. mean? B. Distilled water
C. Issue
D. Sign
E. Immediately
39. What does the prescription abbreviation A. Pill

pil. mean? B. Tablet
C. Powder
D. Water
E. Ointment
40. What does the prescription abbreviation A. Powder

pulv. mean? B. Pasta
C. Issue
D. Root
E. Pasta
41. What does the prescription abbreviation A. Rhizome

rhiz. mean? B. Root
C. Flower
D. Repeat
E. Simple
42. What does the prescription abbreviation A. Mark

S. mean? B. Give out
C. Seeds
D. Rhizome
E. Solution
43. What does the prescription abbreviation A. Solution

sol. mean? B. Water
C. Oil
D. Root
13
E. Solid oil
44. What does the prescription abbreviation A. Acid

ac. mean? B. Equally
C. By
D. Issue
E. All of the above
45. What does the abbreviation aa mean? A. By, equally

B. Complex
C. Divide
D. Water
E. Acid
46. What is a prescription? A. A written request of the doctor to the

pharmacist with a request to give the patient
the drug
B. Oral appeal of the doctor to the
pharmacist with a request to dispense the
drug
C. A written request from a pharmacist to a
doctor
D. Oral address of the pharmacist to the
pharmacist
E. Oral treatment of the doctor to the patient
47. How to correctly indicate in the A. 0.02

prescription that the patient needs B. 20.0
twenty milligrams of powder for 1 C. 0.2
reception? D. 20 mg
E. 0.002

prescription that the patient needs one B. 100 gr
hundred grams of powder? C. 0.01
D. 0.1
E. 0.1 kg

prescription that the patient needs one B. 0.001
hundred milligrams of powder for 1 C. 100.0
reception? D. 100 mg
E. 0.01
50. What languages are used when writing A. Native and Latin
prescriptions? B. Only Latin
C. Only native
D. Native and English
E. Latin and Greek
51. In what language is the signature A. Native

written? B. In English
14
C. Latin
D. Any
E. There is no correct answer
52. What number indicates the Invocatio? A. 5

B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 1
15
Topic 2. Soft dosage forms

1. Soft dosage forms, their classification and brief description.
2. Ointments. General characteristics. Ointment bases, characteristics and requirements to
them. Detailed and abbreviated methods of prescribing ointments. Eye ointments. Official ointments
and rules of their prescription.
3. Paste. General characteristics. The method of prescribing pastes. Official pastes and rules of
their writing. Comparative characteristics of ointments and pastes. Dental pastes.
4. Liniments. General characteristics. Substances used as a basis for the manufacture of
liniments. Forms of registration of liniments (main and official).
5. Suppositories. General characteristics. Rectal and vaginal suppositories, bases for their
production, methods of use. Options for prescribing suppositories. Suppositories for children. Official
suppositories and rules of their prescription.
6. General characteristics of plasters.
7. General characteristics of applications and poultices.
8. General characteristics of ointments and gels.
9. General characteristics of membranes.
General characteristics of soft dosage forms

Dosage medicinal
forms for
Non-dosed medicinal forms for external use
introduction into
body cavities
Ointments Pastes Liniments Suppositories
Weight
For application to the Weight 20.0-100.0 g. Weight 10.0-100.0. The weight of the
skin 20.0-100.0 g. The amount of The amount of rectal suppository is
Eye ointments 5.0- powdered substances powdered substances 1.1-4.0 g (optimal -
10.0 g. is 30-65%. Dental up to 5%. 3.0 g).
The amount of pastes contain more The weight of the
powdered substances than 65% of vaginal suppository is
is not more than 25% powdered substances. 1.5-6.0 g (optimal -
of the total mass. 4.0 g).
Constituents
Vaseline, lanolin, lard. Liquid oils: Vaseline, Cocoa butter, butyrol,
Talc, starch, white clay are used as indifferent linseed, sunflower, gelatin-glycerin mass,
powdered substances. etc. polyethylene oxide
Preparations for prescription

1. Mercury amidochloride (Hydrargyri amidochloridum) 10%, basic bismuth nitrate (Bismuthi
subnitras) 5%, salicylic acid (Acidum salicylicum) 1% in the ointment.
Rp:
16
2. 60.0 paste, which is 5% of dermatol (Dermatolum). To lubricate the edges of the wound.
Rp:
3. Omnoponum (Omnoponum) 0.02 and dry belladonna extract (Extractum Belladonnae

siccum) 0.1 in rectal suppositories.
Rp:
4. Tannin (Tanninum) in the form of 10% ointment on Vaseline and lanolin in equal amounts.
5. Prescribe 2% salicylic paste (Acidum salicylicum).

Rp:
6. Prescribe rectal suppositories containing ichthyol (Ichthyolum) 0.2.

Rp:
7. Anesthesin (Anaesthesinum) in the form of 5% paste.

Rp:
8. 30.0 ointment containing 10% streptocide (Streptocidum).

Rp:
17
9. Liniment containing 1% menthol (Mentholum), 5% methylsalicylate (Methylii salicylas) and
sunflower oil (Oleum Helianthi).
Rp:
10. Iodoform (Jodoformium) in the form of 20% paste.

Rp:
11. Prescribe eye ointment containing 5% aceclidine (Aceclidinum).

Rp:
12. Dry belladonna extract (Extractum Belladonnae siccum) 0.1 with anesthesin
(Anaesthesinum) 0.3 in rectal suppositories.
Rp:
13. Belladonna thick extract (Extractum Belladonnae spissum) of 0.015 and dry opium extract
(Extractum Opii siccum) of 0.01 in rectal suppositories.
Rp:
14. Prescribe 2% salicylic ointment (Unguentum salicylicum).

Rp:

18
1. In which cases is powdered A. Powdered substances less than 25%

constitution added to the paste? B. Powdered substances more than 35%
C. Powdered substances more than 25%
D. Powdered substances less than 40%
E. Powdered substances less than 50%
2. To what extent does the mass of A. 1.5 - 6.0

vaginal suppositories fluctuate? B. 3.0 - 6.0
C. 2.1 - 4.5
D. 10.0 - 15.0
E. 1.1 - 4.0
3. To what extent does the mass of rectal A. 1.1 - 4.0

suppositories fluctuate? B. 3.0 - 6.0
C. 2.1 - 4.5
D. 10.0 - 15.0
E. 1.5 - 6.0
4. Indicate in what ratio the pharmacist A. 9: 1

should prepare the ointment base for B. 1: 1
the preparation of eye ointment based C. 5: 1
on vaseline-lanolin base. D. 6: 4
E. 7: 3
5. Specify the formative substance for A. Cocoa butter

the manufacture of suppositories? B. Milk sugar
C. Vaseline
D. Lanolin
E. Purified lard
6. A patient who needs to prepare A. 10%

camphor ointment went to the B. 20%
pharmacy. What concentration of C. 15%
ointment should be prepared by a D. 5%
pharmacist, guided by the E. 1%
requirements of regulatory
documents?
7. Which dosage forms do liniments A. Soft

belong to? B. Liquid
C. Solid
D. For injections
E. Gaseous
8. To which dosage form do ointments A. Soft

belong? B. Solid
C. Liquid
E. All of the above
19
9. What dosage form is the paste? A. Soft
B. Solid
C. Liquid
10. To which dosage form are A. Soft

suppositories? B. Solid
C. Liquid
11. Liniment is: A. Liquid ointment

B. Thick ointment
C. Aerosol
D. Glossette
E. Lozenge
12. Pasta is: A. Thick ointment

B. Liquid ointment
C. Liniment
D. Glossette
E. Lozenge
13. As a basis in the manufacture of A. Vaseline oil

liniments used B. Sugar
C. Vaseline
D. Talc
E. Althaea syrup
14. As a basis in the manufacture of A. Vaseline

ointments used B. Sugar
C. Talc
D. Vaseline oil
E. Althaea syrup
15. What is the mass of eye ointment: A. 5.0 - 10.0 g

B. 5.0 - 20.0 g
C. 10.0 - 15.0 g
D. 5.0 - 15.0 g
E. 20.0 - 100.0 g
16. What is the percentage of A. 0.5%
prednisolone ointment, 100 grams of B. 1%
which contains 0.5 grams of C. 5%
prednisolone? D. 2%
E. 2.5%
17. What is the percentage of A. 1%

prednisolone ointment, 50 grams of B. 5%
which contains 0.5 grams of C. 0.5%
prednisolone? D. 2%
E. 2.5%
20
18. What substances are used as a A. Cocoa butter
forming agent for the manufacture of B. Milk sugar
suppositories? C. Vaseline
D. Lanolin
E. Refined pork fat
19. What substance is used to make A. Vaseline

surface ointments? B. Lanolin
C. Lard
D. Spermaceti ointment
E. Gelatin mass
20. What substance is used to make stable A. Lanolin

ointments that can be stored for a long B. Lard
time? C. Naphthalane ointment
D. Spermaceti ointment
E. Gelatin mass
21. What is the shape of rectal A. Cone

suppositories? B. Spherical
C. Ovate
D. Flat
E. Bullets
22. Specify the shaping agent for rectal A. Cocoa butter

suppositories B. Talc
C. Castor oil
D. Vaseline
E. Lanolin
23. Rectal suppositories, if the A. 3.0 g

prescription does not specify the B. 4.0 g
weight, are made by weight: C. 5.0 g
D. 1.0 g
E. 2.0 g
24. Vaginal suppositories, if the A. 4.0 g

prescription does not specify the B. 2.0 g
weight, are made by weight: C. 5.0 g
D. 1.0 g
E. 3.0 g
25. The amount of indifferent powder to A. 25%

be taken in the manufacture of the B. 40%
paste should not be less than: C. 85%
D. 30%
E. 55%
26. What ointments are by the place of A. Magisterial

manufacture? B. Simple
C. Local
21
D. Reflex
E. Complex
27. What amount of indifferent powder A. 65%

should be taken when making the B. 40%
paste (should not be more than): C. 85%
D. 30%
E. 55%
28. The doctor prescribed pessaries and A. 4.0

did not specify their weight. What B. 3.0
weight of pessaries should be C. 1.5
prepared in a drugstore? D. 0.5
E. 6.0
29. The doctor prescribed sulfur ointment A. Lard or emulsion base

for scabies. What are the basics that B. Wax or Vaseline
you need to use to prepare it in the C. Cocoa butter or butyrol
pharmacy? D. Soap-glycerin base
E. Lanolin or paraffin
22
Topic 3. Liquid dosage forms

1. Solutions. Their general characteristics and types of solvents.
2. Solutions for external use: classification, solvents. Expanded and abbreviated (expression of
concentration in percentages and ratios) methods of discharge. General characteristics of aerosols and
sprays.
3. Solutions for internal use: characteristic, dosage method. Calculation and expression of the
concentration of solutions, calculation of drops and doses of drugs used in drops.
4. Dosage forms for injections. Requirements for them. Advantages over other dosage forms.
Ampoules and vials. Definitions and rules of discharge. Non-ampoule solutions for injection.
5. Drops. Eye drops (definitions and requirements for them, rules of discharge). Drops for
external use. Nasal drops.
6. Infusions and decoctions. Ways to write them in the form of prescriptions. Medicinal raw
materials, dosage, manufacturing methods and extraction modes for infusions and decoctions.
7. General characteristics of tinctures and extracts. Prescriptions of tinctures and extracts, their
dosage. Classification of extracts depending on the consistency and solvent. Rules for prescribing
tinctures in pure form and as part of mixtures.
8. Emulsions. Characteristics of oil emulsions and emulsions from seeds, their components.
Rules for writing (expanded and abbreviated forms) emulsions.
9. Mucilage. General characteristics. Rules for prescribing enemas and mixtures.
10. Mixtures. General characteristics. Advantages over solid dosage forms. Disadvantages.
Dosage rules. Mucus, syrups, aromatic waters as a part of mixtures.
11. Enemas. General characteristics. Dosage rules.
General characteristics of liquid dosage forms

For internal and external use
Infusions Decoctions Tincture Extracts Drops
Weight categories
Made of soft parts Made from solid Made from Concentrated Solution of solid
of plants. parts of plants. medicinal raw extract from drugs. Discharged
Prescribed for 12 Prescribed for 12 materials without vegetable raw for 30 receptions.
receptions, receptions, heating the materials. Thick Prescribed drops.
prescribed with prescribed with extractant. and dry extracts
spoons. spoons. Discharged for 30 are dosed in grams,
receptions. liquid – in drops.
Prescribed drops
For external use

Gastric lavage Rinsing, Enemas Drops Eye-drops
solution, douching
disinfectant
Volume
1-2 l 50-500 ml 50-100 ml 10-20 ml 5-10 ml
Constituencies
Distilled water, ethyl alcohol, glycerine, vegetable oils, ether Sterile water for
injections
23
For internal use
Solutions Mixtures Emulsions
Weight
1 tablespoon – 15 ml; Dosage with spoons is the Emulsions from seeds – 1:10
1 dessert spoon – 10 ml; same. Oil emulsions – 2:1:17
1 teaspoon – 5 ml; Syrups are added in an amount
Medicinal enemas (containing of 5-20% of the total amount of
50% mucus). the mixture.
Enema volume: Mucus is added to the mixture
Up to 3 years – 10-15 ml; in an amount of 10-30%.
4-6 years – 20 ml;
7-10 years – 30 ml;
11-14 years – 40-50 ml;
15 years and more – 50-100 ml
Constituencies Emulsifiers
Distilled water Distilled water, infusion, Arabian gum, tragacanth
decoction gum, gelatine, egg yolk
Preparations for prescription.
1. 50 ml of 2% alcohol solution of menthol (Mentholum spirituosae). Prescribe for rubbing into

the skin in the area of the damaged joint.
Rp.:
2. Platyphylline (Platyphyllini hydrotartras) (single dose of 0.002) in a solution for oral

administration of 10 drops 2 times a day for 15 days.
Rp.:
3. Furacillin (Furacilinum) in 0.02% solution for washing wounds.

Rp.:
24
4. 0.25% solution of scopolamine hydrobromide (Scopolamini hydrobromidum) in eye-drops.
Rp.:
5. Chloral hydrate (Chlorali hydras) 1.0 for a single injection into the rectum in convulsions.
Dissolve the drug in purified water and mucus in equal amounts.
Rp.:
6. Ephedrine hydrochloride (Ephedrini hydrochloridum) 5% in ampoules for subcutaneous

injection of 1 ml.
Rp.:
7. Atropine sulfate (Atropini sulfas) 0.1% in ampoules of 1 ml for intramuscular injection.

Rp.:
8. Strophanthin (Strophanthinum) 0.025% in ampoules of 1 ml. Dissolve the contents of the

ampoule in 20 ml of sterile isotonic sodium chloride solution and inject intravenously (jet).
Rp.:
25
9. Sodium bromide (Natrii bromidum) 0.5 per reception for oral administration on a dessert
spoon 3 times a day.
Rp.:
10. Mercury dichloride (Hydrargyri dichloridum) in solution (1: 5000) for disinfection of
patient care items.
Rp.:
11. Salicylic acid (Acidum salicylicum) in 1% alcohol solution for the treatment of damaged
skin.
Rp.:
12. 1000 ml of 5% glucose solution (Glucosum). Inject intravenously 500 ml 2 times a day.
Rp.:
26
13. Physostigmine salicylate (Physostigmini salicylas) 0.25% and pilocarpine hydrochloride
(Pilocarpini hydrochloridum) 0.5% in the form of eye drops.
Rp.:
14. Synestrol (Synoestrolum) 0.1% oil solution in ampoules. Inject 1 ml intramuscularly once a
day.
Rp.:
15. Ammonium chloride (Ammonii chloridum) 0.5 per reception in solution for oral
administration with tablespoons.
Rp.:
16. Officinal solution of cordiamin (Cordiaminum) in ampoules of 1 ml. Inject 1 ml

subcutaneously.
17. Sterile solution of sodium chloride (Natrii chloridum) 0.9% for intravenous administration
of 50 ml.
Rp.:
27
18. Zinc sulfate (Zinci sulfas) 0.25% in the form of eye drops.
Rp.:
19. Diocide (Diocidum) in 0.03% solution for hand disinfection.

Rp.:
20. Infusion of rhizomes with valerian roots (Rhizomata cum radicibus Valerianae) 0.5 g per
reception. Add sodium bromide (Natrii bromidum) 0.3 g per reception. Prescribe a tablespoon 3 times
a day.
Rp.:
21. Decoction of oak bark (cortex Quercus) in a ratio of 1:10 for gargling.
Rp.:
22. Infusion of hay leaves (Folium Sennae) in a ratio of 1:10. Prescribe 1 tablespoon 3 times a
day.
Rp.:
28
23. 180 ml of infusion of 0.6 g of thermopsis herb (Herba Thermopsidis). Prescribe 1
tablespoon 3 times a day.
Rp.:
24. Decoction of oleander leaf (Folium Uvae-ursi) in a ratio of 1:30. Assign 1 tablespoon 3
times a day.
Rp.:
25. Tincture of valerian (Tinctura Valerianae) 15 drops per reception.

Rp.:
26. Liquid water-pepper extract (Polygonum hydropiperis fluida) (single dose of 25 drops).
Rp.:
29
27. Tincture of dog nettle (Tinctura Leonuri) with tincture of lily of the valley (Tinstura
Convallariae) 15 drops per reception.
Rp.:
28. Mixture containing sodium bromide (Natrii bromidum) 0.5 g per reception, codeine
phosphate (Codeini phosphas) 0.015 g per reception and tinctures of valerian (Tinctura Valerianae) 20
drops per reception.
Rp.:
29. Emulsion with 20 ml of castor oil (Oleum Ricini). Take 1 tablespoon for 30 minutes.
Rp.:
30. Emulsion with 20 ml of almond oil (Oleum Amigdalarum). To the emulsion add codeine
phosphate (Codeini phosphas) 0.02 g per reception. Prescribe 1 tablespoon 3 times a day.
Rp.:
30
31. A mixture containing potassium bromide (Kalii bromidum) 0.5 g per reception and caffeine
sodium benzoate (Coffeini natrii benzoas) 0.05 g per reception. Prescribe 1 tablespoon once a day.
Rp.:
32. 200 ml of a mixture containing a decoction of oak bark (Cortex Quercus) in a ratio of 1:10,
1% alum (Alumen), 10% glycerin (Glycerinum). For rinsing the mouth.
Rp.:
33. Infusion of thermopsis herb (Herba Thermopsidis) 0.05 g per reception with codeine
phosphate (Codeini phosphas) 0.0015 g per reception. Prescribe 1 tablespoon 3 times a day.
Rp.:
34. Prescribe in a mixture of pepsin (Pepsinum) 0.3 g per reception, hydrochloric acid (Acidum
hydrochloricum dilutum) 10 drops per reception. Assign 1 tablespoon 3 times a day.
Rp.:
31
35. Mixture containing infusion of rhizomes with valerian roots in a ratio of 1:30 (Rhizomata
cum radicibus Valerianae), with the addition of 20 ml of tincture of nettle (Tinctura Leonuri) and
barbital-sodium (Barbitalum-sodium) 0.15 g per reception for 4 days . Prescribe 1 tablespoon 3 times a
day.
Rp.:
36. Infusion of marshmallow root (Radix Althaeae) 0.5 g per reception with sodium
bicarbonate (Natrii hydrocarbonas) 0.3 g per reception with the addition of simple syrup (Sirupus
simplex).
Rp.:
37. Emulsion with 15 ml of castor oil (Oleum Ricini). Take 1 tablespoon for 30 minutes.
Rp.:

1. What percentage of the total volume of A. 10-30%

the mixture can be syrup? B. 10-50%
C. 30-60%
D. 25-65%
E. 20-70%
32
2. In what ratio take raw materials and A. 1:10
water at manufacturing of decoctions? B. 1: 1000
C. 2: 100
D. 1: 200
E. 1: 400
3. Indicate what percentage of mucus A. 30-60%

should be added to the mixture, if the B. 50-80%
composition includes a substance with C. 10-30%
pronounced irritant properties. D. 20-40%
E. 40-60%
4. To which dosage form are emulsions? A. Liquid

B. Solid
C. Soft
5. To which dosage form are novogalenic A. Liquid

drugs? B. Solid
C. Soft
6. From which parts of plants are A. Roots

decoctions prepared? B. Leaves
C. Grass
D. Flowers
E. Seeds
7. From which parts of plants are A. Flowers

infusions prepared? B. Bark
C. Roots
D. Tubers
E. Rhizomes
8. Dosage forms for injection should be: A. Sterile

B. Essential
C. Alcohol
D. Oil
E. All of the above
9. Unlike solutions for external use, A. Aquae pro injectionibus

solutions for injection are prepared on: B. Olei Lini
C. Althaeae Syrups
D. Mucilaginis Salep
E. Aquae distillatae
10. Name liquid dosage forms that are A. Tinctures

dosed with spoons B. Infusions
C. Sprays
D. Liquid extracts
33
E. Enemas
11. Infusions of emetic root are prepared at A. 1: 400

the rate of: B. 1:10
C. 1:30
D. 1:50
E. 1:40
12. Infusions of butterbur herb are prepared A. 1: 400

at the rate of: B. 1:10
C. 1:30
D. 1:50
E. 1:40
13. In which pathology aerosols are A. Bronchopulmonary diseases

preferred? B. CNS diseases
C. Heart disease
D. Hypertensive disease
E. Injuries
14. Injectable solutions use: A. Pyrogen-free water

B. Glycerin
C. Vaseline oil
D. The water is purified
E. Alcohol
15. Which emulsifier is used in the A. Arabian gum

manufacture of oil emulsions? B. Peach oil
C. Glycerin
D. Olive oil
E. Gelatin mass
16. What dosage forms are prescribed by A. Tinctures

drops inside? B. Infusions
C. Decoctions
D. Species
E. Mucus
17. What preparations are made as stable A. Novogalenic

extracts from vegetable raw materials B. Galenic
as much as possible cleared of ballast C. Officinal
substances D. Magisterial
E. Dosage forms for injection
18. What drugs are obtained by simple A. Galenic

extraction of vegetable raw materials B. Novogalenic
with water, alcohol or ether? They C. Magisterial
contain active ballast substances. D. Officinal
E. Potent
19. What solvents are used in injectable A. Water is twice distilled, sterilized, pyrogen-
solutions? free
34
B. Alcohol
C. Glycerin
D. Purified water
E. Vaseline oil
20. How much oil did the pharmacist take A. 15.0

to prepare 150.0 ml of emulsion, if the B. 10.0
doctor did not specify in the C. 30.0
prescription D. 5.0
E. 20.0
21. Indicate what percentage of the total A. 10-30%

volume of the mixture may be syrup B. 10-50%
C. 30-60%
D. 25-65%
E. 20-70%
22. Indicate the ratio of raw materials and A. 1: 400

water in the manufacture of infusions B. 1: 100
of potent plants? C. 1: 200
D. 1: 3
E. 1:10
23. Indicate to which dosage form the A. Liquid

tincture belongs. B. Solid
C. Soft
E. All of the above
24. Indicate to which dosage form the A. Liquid

mixtures belong. B. Solid
C. Soft
D. For injections
E. Gaseous
25. In order to improve the taste and smell A. 10-30%

of the mixture, other corrective B. 10-50%
substances are added. Mostly it's C. 30-60%
syrups. What percentage of the total D. 25-65%
volume of the mixture can be syrup? E. 20-70%
26. Indicate from which parts of the plants A. Roots

the decoctions are prepared. B. Leaves
C. Grass
D. Flowers
E. Seeds
27. At what pathology prefer aerosols? A. Bronchial asthma

B. Injuries
C. CNS diseases
D. Infected wounds
E. Dermatitis
35
28. If the composition of the mixture A. The first
includes infusion, decoction, emulsion B. After the main ingredients
in the prescription they write: C. After corrective substances
D. In the end
E. After the solvent
29. If there are no other instructions for the A. Aquae destillatae

solvent in the manufacture of mixtures B. Olei Lini
take: C. Sirupi Althaeae
D. Mucilaginis Salep
E. Aquae pro injectionibus
30. How to state in the prescription that A. gtts XX

you need to add 20 drops of tincture to B. 20 caps
the mixture? C. guttas 20
D. 20 drops
E. 0.2 gtt
31. How many drops are contained in one A. 40 drops

milliliter of oil solution? B. 30 drops
C. 60 drops
D. 50 drops
E. 80 drops
32. Which of the following drugs is A. Omnopon (mix of opium alkaloids)

novogalenic B. Drotaverine (no-spa)
C. Paracetamol
D. Morphine
E. Phenobarbital
36
Topic 4. General pharmacology
1. Definition of pharmacology, its place among other medical and pharmaceutical sciences.
2. Types of action of drugs. The concept of receptors, substances-agonists and antagonists. The
breadth of therapeutic action.
3. Types of toxic effects of drugs.
4. Addiction, material and functional accumulation of drugs, drug dependence (psychological
and physical). Medical and social aspects of the fight against drug addiction.
5. Combined action of drugs. Synergism (summation and potentiation). Antagonism.
Antidotism.
6. Side effects of allergic and non-allergic nature. Teratogenicity, embryotoxicity.
7. Principles of finding new drugs. Pharmacological Center of the Ministry of Health of
Ukraine, its purpose. The concept of “placebo” and “blind” control.
8. Types of drug interactions.
9. Dependence of the pharmacological effect of drugs on the state of the organism, age and
genetic factors.
10. Pharmacokinetics, its main stages and their characteristics.
11. Absorption of drugs, the main mechanisms and factors influencing this process.
Bioavailability.
12. Biotransport of drugs in the body.
13. Distribution of drugs in the body.
14. Biotransformation of drugs in the body. The role of microsomal liver enzymes.
15. Elimination of drugs from the body.
GENERAL TERMINOLOGY
A medicinal substance is a material of bacterial, vegetable, mineral, animal or synthetic origin
from which drugs are made.
A medicinal compound is a separate chemical compound or biologically active substance,
which when administered into the body is able to prevent the disease, change the course of the
pathological process, normalize function and promote rapid recovery.
A pharmacological agent is a substance or mixture of substances with established
pharmacological activity that is the subject of a clinical trial.
A medicinal remedy (medicine) is a pharmacological agent authorized for use by an
authorized body of the country in accordance with the established procedure for the prevention,
treatment or diagnosis of human or animal diseases. Permission to use the new drug is granted by the
State Expert Centre of the Ministry of Health of Ukraine.
A drug is a medicine in the form of a specific dosage form.
Dosage form is a convenient for use condition provided by a medicinal product or medicinal
plant raw material, in which the desired therapeutic effect is achieved.
Combination drugs are drugs that contain more than one active substance in a single dosage
form in fixed dosages.
The drug may have several names according to different classifications:
• chemical – approved in accordance with the requirements of the International Union of Pure
and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC);
37
• international non-proprietary name (INN) – the name of the active substance in accordance
with the International Anatomical-Therapeutic-Chemical Classification (ATC). INN is not the property
of a particular manufacturer and is not protected by a patent;
• trade (commercial, brand) – is the “name” under which the drug is sold on the pharmaceutical
market, protected by a patent, is a trademark of the manufacturer and is protected by patent law.
The drug Pilocarpine – INN name.
(3S-cis)-3-Ethyldihydro-4-[(1-methyl-1H-imidazol-5-yl) methyl]-2(3H)-furanone – chemical
name of Pilocarpine.
Salagen, Pilocarpine hydrochloridе, Oftan® Pilocarpin, Pilocarpine-DIA – trade names of
Pilocarpine.
An original (innovative) drug is a drug developed on the basis of a substance first obtained,
which has undergone a full course of preclinical and clinical studies and is protected by a patent for a
certain period (usually 20 years).
Generic (generic – general) drug (generic) is the full therapeutic equivalent of an innovative
and is released after the expiration of the patent protection of the original drug.
Synonyms (Greek Synonymos – the same name) – are trade names of drugs (generic and
original), created on the basis of one INN.
Analogs (Greek Analogos – similar) – drugs from one pharmacological group.
A branded drug is an original or generic drug with a sales revenue of more than $ 1 million per
year.
An umbrella (or corporate) brand is when one well-known brand (brand) “covers” several
different trade names of drugs and consists of well-known INNs and parts of the name of the
manufacturer.
Branded generic is a generic drug that generates more than $ 1 million a year in sales.
A best-selling pharmaceutical is a drug with sales of between $ 500 million and $ 1 billion
per year (such as no-spa).
Blockbuster is a drug with sales of more than $ 1 billion a year (such as Viagra).
Top drug is a drug that occupies one of the first places in the ranking for a certain time (week,
month, year), in a certain place (region, country, world) on a certain indicator (the most sold, assigned,
domestic, foreign etc.).
Non-name drug is a long-known drug that is sold under INN and under trademarks, and to
determine which name is the original is impossible (e.g., phenobarbital).
Orphan drug is a drug used to treat severe serious diseases (e.g., cystic fibrosis, Gaucher
disease, hemophilia).
A chiral drug is a drug that contains a pharmacologically active stereoisomer of a drug
substance (for example, the S (-) isomer of amlodipine has 1000 times higher affinity for calcium
channel receptors than the R (+) isomer).
Galenic drug is a preparation obtained after treatment of simple phytopreparations by methods
of infusion, extraction (tinctures, extracts, powders, tablets, granules, capsules, suppositories,
emulsions), containing ballast substances (fibre, mucus, proteins, resins, etc.) and not suitable for
parenteral (injection) use.
Novogalenic drug is a galenic preparation released from ballast substances, suitable incl. for
parenteral use. After cleaning, the side effects of ballast substances are reduced. Novogalenic
preparations are dry and liquid. Dry preparations are dosed by weight and used for the manufacture of
powders, tablets, granules, capsules, ampoules.
38
Alkaloids are substances of plant origin that contain nitrogen in the cycle and are organic
bases. In plants, they form salts with organic acids, well soluble in water. Common properties for all
alkaloids are the ability to have a physiological effect on humans and animals.
Experimental work.
Experiment 1. Solubility of drugs in different solvents.

Dissolve calcium chloride in various solvents – water, oil, ethyl alcohol. Observe the solubility,
draw a conclusion.
Observations
Conclusion
Experiment 2. Types of action of drugs.

To establish the presence of reflex action in ammonia. Ask the volunteer student to count his or
her breathing rate and heart rate before and after gently inhaling ammonia, and then ask him or her
about the subjective sensation. Pay attention to the rate of onset and duration of the reaction. To draw a
conclusion about the practical use of the properties of ammonia that have been identified.
Observations
Conclusion
Experiment 3. Antidotism.
In a test tube containing a solution of methylene blue add activated carbon, filter. Observe the
disappearance of colour. Conclude.
Observations
Conclusion

39
1. In the second half of pregnancy, the A. Teratogenic

woman was taking tranquilizers of the B. Mutagenic
benzodiazepine group. Childbirth came C. Embryotoxic
on time, proceeded normally, but a D. Fetotoxic
child was born with numerous E. Sensitizing
developmental abnormalities (hare lip,
polydactyly). What is the name of the
described effect of the drug?
2. Prolonged use of certain drugs that A. Mutagenic effect

precede pregnancy increases the risk of B. Embryotoxic effect
giving birth to a child with a genetic C. Teratogenic effect
defect. What is this action called? D. Fetotoxic effect
E. Blastomogenic effect
3. During pregnancy, a woman with A. Teratogenic effect

epilepsy took an anticonvulsant. B. Allergic reaction
Childbirth came on time, but a child C. Tachyphylaxis
was born with developmental D. Tolerance
disabilities – a gorge of the spine. What E. Sensitizing effect
is the name of the described effect of
the drug?
4. A pregnant woman was taking A. Teratogenic

nitrazepam, a benzodiazepine B. Mutagenic
tranquilizer, in the second trimester of C. Embryotoxic
pregnancy. Childbirth came on time, it D. Fetotoxic
proceeded normally, but a child was E. Sensitizing
born with numerous developmental
abnormalities (hare lip, dove-shaped
limbs). What is the name of the
described effect of the drug?
5. A man who has been taking medication A. Abstinence

for a long time cannot stop using it, B. Sensitization
because there are disorders of mental C. Idiosyncrasy
and somatic functions. What is the D. Tachyphylaxis
name of the syndrome of various E. Cumulation
disorders when refusing to take the
drug?
6. The patient after a long course of A. Abstinence

treatment with narcotic analgesics B. Sensitization
cannot stop their use, in connection C. Idiosyncrasy
with development of disturbances of D. Cumulation
mental and somatic functions of an E. Tachyphylaxis
organism. What is the syndrome of
somatic disorders called when stopping
taking drugs?
40
7. A patient with hypertension took an A. Withdrawal syndrome
antihypertensive drug for a long time, B. Cumulation
which suddenly stopped taking. After C. Tolerance
that, the patient's condition D. Sensitization
deteriorated, developed a hypertensive E. Dependence
crisis. What category does this side
effect belong to?
8. Choose the type of action of the drug, A. Preresorptive action

which means a set of effects that occur B. Resorptive action
at the site of application of the drug C. Toxic effect
D. Reflex action
E. Indirect action
9. A patient who was prescribed a drug A. A substance that binds to the receptor and
that affects the adrenaline stimulates it.
hydrochloride receptors was admitted B. A substance that does not interact with the
to the hospital. What is a receptor receptor.
agonist? C. A substance that blocks the receptor.
D. A substance that causes the destruction of
the receptor.
10. A 35-year-old patient was prescribed A. Unilateral antagonism

atropine sulfate in the form of eye B. Synergism
drops to examine the fundus, after C. Tachyphylaxis
which he was instilled pilocarpine D. Bilateral antagonism
hydrochloride to restore E. Addiction
accommodation, but this did not give
the desired effect. What underlies the
lack of effect?
11. The teenager, who was in a state of A. Physiological antagonism

severe alcohol intoxication, was given B. Synergism
an intramuscular injection of a solution C. Potency
of caffeine by an ambulance doctor, D. Competitive antagonism
among other measures. Explain on the E. Summation of effects
basis of which principle of operation
this manipulation is appropriate:
12. The anticholinesterase agent proserine A. Indirect functional antagonism

when used parenterally increases B. Additive action
skeletal muscle tone. The anesthetic C. Synergism
fluorothane causes skeletal muscle D. Potentiation or superadditive action
relaxation and weakens the effects of E. Chemical antagonism
proserine. Determine the nature of the
interaction of proserine and
fluorothane:
13. The antagonism that is observed in the A. Physical

adsorption of various toxic substances B. Physiological
by a sorbent is called C. Competitive
D. Non-competitive
E. Indirect physiological
41
14. Vikasol antagonists are indirect A. Competitive
anticoagulants (neodicoumarin, B. Chemical
phenylin). What kind of antagonism C. Physical
occurs between drugs D. Indirect physiological
E. Non-competitive direct
15. Various combinations of drugs are used A. In the opposite direction (acetylcholine –
to enhance the therapeutic effect, atropine)
reduce the duration of treatment and B. With increasing toxicity of drugs (digoxin
prevent complications. Direct and calcium gluconate)
physiological antagonism of drugs is C. With increasing therapeutic effect and
realized by acting on the same cellular decreasing dose (diazepam + ketamine)
elements – receptors, but: D. Increased toxicity of drugs (monomycin +
neomycin)
E. Formation of inactive compounds (mercury
and unithiol)
16. Drug antagonism involves the specific A. Chemical reaction with the formation of
interaction of two substances with a inactive compounds
reduction or loss of effect of one (or B. Formation of more toxic compounds (drugs)
both) substances. Chemical antagonism C. Laxative effect of drugs
in eliminating the negative effects of D. Stimulation of mental processes
drugs is realized by: E. Suppression of mental processes
17. The patient underwent surgery for A. Potentiation

abdominal injuries using tubocurarine. B. Cumulation
At the end of the operation, when C. Antagonism
breathing was restored, the patient was D. Addiction
administered gentamicin. Suddenly E. Sensitization
there was a respiratory arrest and long-
term relaxation of skeletal muscles.
What effect underlies this
phenomenon?
18. A patient treated for neurosis with A. Potentiation

sibazone experienced a toothache. The B. Summation
doctor prescribed him a painkiller in a C. Cumulation
dose lower than the average D. Drug dependence
therapeutic. What phenomenon did the E. Tolerance
doctor take into account when reducing
the dose of the drug?
19. A 45-year-old patient went to the A. Symptomatic

doctor with complaints of sleep B. Etiotropic
disturbances, manifested by worsening C. Pathogenetic
of sleep and waking up in the middle of D. Selective
the night. The doctor prescribed a E. Reflex
sleeping pill. What type of
pharmacotherapy did the doctor use?
20. A 50-year-old patient suffers from A. Physical and mental dependence

42
insomnia. For three months she took B. Tachyphylaxis
various sleeping pills: etaminal sodium, C. Sensitization
phenobarbital, barbamil. After D. Addiction to drugs
withdrawal of drugs the patient became E. Functional cumulation
irritable, insomnia resumed, there was
aggression, loss of appetite, tremor of
extremities. What are the complications
that occurred in the patient?
21. Which pharmacological group of drugs A. Psychosedatives

is most characterized by such side B. Cholinergic
effects as the development of tolerance C. Anti-Parkinnic
and drug dependence? D. Antiepileptic
E. Adrenomimetics
22. A patient with neurosis was taking the A. Tolerance

sleeping pill nitrazepam. After two B. Withdrawal syndrome
weeks of treatment, the dose adhered to C. Sensitization
by the patient became unsuitable for D. Idiosyncrasy
achieving a hypnotic effect. What is the E. Allergies
name of this complication of
pharmacotherapy
23. A patient with inoperable gastric cancer A. Drug tolerance has developed
was prescribed morphine to relieve B. There was tachyphylaxis
severe pain. Over time, the patient C. Mental dependence has developed
noted a decrease in the analgesic effect D. Morphine is capable of accumulation
and duration of the drug, a significant E. Decreased reabsorption of morphine in the
increase in pain. The doctor explained tubules of the kidneys
this by saying that:
24. Decreased sensitivity to the drug after A. Addiction

repeated use, which requires increasing B. Idiosyncrasy
the dose to obtain the effect of the same C. Sensitization
effectiveness is called D. Cumulation is functional
E. Material accumulation
25. Choose the name of the phenomenon of A. Tachyphylaxis

repeated use of drugs, which quickly B. Potentiation
develops tolerance in a short period of C. Withdrawal syndrome
time D. Retraction syndrome
E. Withdrawal syndrome
26. The child suffers from idiosyncrasy to A. Hereditary enzymopathy

the drug, which is due to: B. Depletion of the substrate with which the
drug interacts.
C. The accumulation of the drug in the body.
D. Inhibition of microsomal liver enzymes.
E. Concomitant disease of the target organ.
27. A patient with tachyarrhythmia treated A. Idiosyncrasy

with quinidine developed an unusual B. Addiction
43
reaction to the drug. What is the C. Drug dependence
increase in sensitivity and distortion of D. Cumulation
the reaction to drugs, which is due to E. Withdrawal syndrome
genetic enzymopathy?
28. Six weeks after starting treatment for A. Material accumulation

chronic heart failure with digoxin, the B. Withdrawal syndrome
patient showed signs of cardiac C. Antagonism
glycoside intoxication. What is the D. Tachyphylaxis
name of the phenomenon that led to the E. Idiosyncrasy
accumulation in the body of the drug in
the amount that provoked intoxication?
29. The psychotropic drug, prescribed to A. Functional cumulation

the patient, causes functional changes B. Withdrawal syndrome
that do not disappear until the next C. Antagonism
dose. Diagnosed signs of disturbance of D. Allergic reaction
mental processes are connected with E. Dependence
the fact that each subsequent dose of
drug strengthened previous effect.
What is the name of such a
phenomenon that led to a violation of
mental processes in the patient?
30. With repeated use of benzylpenicillin- A. Sensitization

sodium salt, the patient developed B. Withdrawal syndrome
allergic dermatitis. What is the C. Antagonism
phenomenon of qualitative change of D. Mental dependence
effect with increased sensitivity when E. Allergic reaction
re-using the drug called?
31. The dosage form should be considered A. Prolonged (about 24 hours) effect of the
as a complex complex, the components drug
of which together affect the B. Ultra-rapid effect on the heart
effectiveness of the drug. Transdermal C. Decreased development of tolerance to the
system of the drug nitroglycerin – drug
nitroderm provides nitroglycerin: D. Treatment of nicotine dependence
E. Termination of an acute attack of angina
32. Dosage form created with the help of A. Prolongation of the drug
various formative, excipients affects the B. Prevention of gastric irritation
nature of the interaction of the drug and C. Prevention of inactivation in the oral cavity
the body. Sustak (isosorbit D. Maintaining stability in case of sensitivity
mononitrate) - is a microencapsulated to moisture
form of nitroglycerin, which E. Masking the unpleasant taste of the drug
contributes to:
33. Loss of pharmacotherapeutic efficacy is A. Pharmaceutical incompatibility

possible due to physical, chemical or B. Pharmacological incompatibility
physico-chemical interaction in the C. Sensitization
process of manufacture and storage of D. Idiosyncrasy
dosage forms and is called E. Tachyphylaxis
44
34. The patient used the sleeping pill A. Retraction syndrome
nitrazepam for three weeks. Two weeks B. Idiosyncrasy
after stopping treatment, the patient C. Tachyphylaxis
complained that he had the impression D. Ataractanalgesia
that he had not slept at all, there were E. Neuroleptanalgesia
often terrible dreams, his mood
worsened, and his ability to work
decreased. What is the name of this
phenomenon
35. What is the danger of using a drug with A. The drug is easy to overdose.
a small breadth of therapeutic action? B. It is difficult to achieve a therapeutic effect.
C. At the same dose, you can get different
effects.
D. The drug is slowly metabolized.
E. The drug is slowly excreted from the body
45
Topic 5. Agents that act on the transmission of excitation in cholinergic synapses
1. Anatomical and physiological properties of the autonomic nervous system. Modern ideas
about nerve synapses, mediators and receptors.
2. The concept of cholinergic receptors. Pharmacological regulation of impulse transmission in
synapses. Localization of muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.
3. Classification of drugs that affect the autonomic nervous system. Classification of drugs that
affect the function of cholinergic nerves.
4. Pharmacological effects that occur during excitation and suppression of cholinergic
receptors.
5. M- and N-cholinomimetic drugs. Pharmacology of Carbachol.
6. M-cholinomimetics. Pharmacological characteristics of pilocarpine hydrochloride and
aceclidine. Effects on the eyes, smooth muscles of internal organs, secretion of glands, cardiovascular
and urogenital systems. Indications for use. Acute muscarine poisoning. First aid, antidote therapy.
7. Anticholinesterase drugs and cholinesterase reactivators. Classification of anticholinesterase
drugs. Mechanism of action, pharmacological effects, indications for use, side effects. Comparative
characteristics of anticholinesterase drugs (Neostigmine (Proserine), Galantamine hydrobromide,
Pyridostigmine bromide).
8. Features of action of organophosphorus compounds (FOS). Acute FOS poisoning and first
aid. Pharmacology of FOS reactivators (Alloxim, Dipyroxime).
9. Definition and classification of cholinoblockers.
10. Effects of blockade of different types of cholinoreceptors.
11. Pharmacology of M-cholinoblockers.
11.1. Pharmacodynamics of Atropine sulfate – features of the effect on the organ of vision,
smooth muscles of internal organs, secretion of glands, cardiovascular and urogenital
systems.
11.2. Indications and contraindications to the use of M-cholinoblockers. Their side effects.
11.3. Comparative characteristics of Platyphyllin hydrotartrate, Scopolamine hydrobromide,
Methacin, Belladonna’s extract, Ipratropium bromide, Pirenzepine.
11.4. Acute poisoning by Atropine and plants containing Hyoscyamine. First aid.
12. Pharmacology of ganglioblockers.
12.1. Mechanism of action.
12.2. Influence of ganglioblockers on the functions of the cardiovascular system (systemic
and organ hemodynamics), gastrointestinal tract, myometrium.
12.3. Indications for the use of ganglioblockers (Hygronium, Benzohexonium, Pentamine).
12.4. Side effects, overdose first aid. Contraindication.
13. Pharmacology of muscle relaxants.
13.1. Classification of drugs by mechanism of action.
13.2. Pharmacodynamics of muscle relaxants.
13.3. Indications for the use of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants.
13.4. Comparative characteristics and pharmacokinetics of non-depolarizing muscle
relaxants (Tubocurarine chloride, Mellictin, Arduan (Pipecuronium bromide)).
13.5. Side effect, principles of decurarization.
46
13.6. Pharmacological characteristics of depolarizing muscle relaxants.
13.7. Indications for the use of Dithylin.
13.8. Overdose first aid of Dithylin, the role of genetic factors in the long-term effect of
depolarizing muscle relaxants.
1. Practical tasks performed in preparation for the lesson:
Fill in the gaps in the classification:

I. Direct acting cholinomimetics
1. M-cholinomimetics 3. M-, N-cholinomimetics
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________ - _____________________
2. N-cholinomimetics
- _____________________
- _____________________
II. Indirect acting cholinomimetics (Anthicholineterase agents)

1. Reversible acting 2. Irreversible acting
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________
III. Agents used in organic phosphate poisoning (cholinesterase reactivators)

- _____________________
- _____________________
- _____________________
IV. Cholinoblockers
1. M-cholinoblockers
1.1. Natural remedies 1.2. Synthetic nature
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________ - _____________________
2. N-cholinoblockers
2.1. Ganglioblockers
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________ - _____________________
2.2. Myorelaxants
a. Non-depolarizing type b. Depolarizing type
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________
47
2. The list of drugs that the student must learn in preparation for the lesson:
№ Name Medicinal form Application method
preparation
M-, N-cholinomimetics
1. Carbachol Vial 0.5%; 1% 5ml; In the lower conjunctival sac 1-2
(Carbacholum) 10 ml (eye drops) drops 4 times a day
M-cholinomimetics
2. Pilocarpine Vial 1%; 2% 5 ml; 10 ml In the lower conjunctival sac 1-2
hydrochloride drops 2-4 times a day
(Pilocarpini Eye ointment 1%; 2% Apply in the lower conjunctival
hydrochloridum) sac 2-4 times a day
3. Aceclidine Pwd. SC 0.002-0.004 g (1-2 ml ) 1-2
(Aceclidinum) Amp. 0.2% 1ml; 2 ml times a day
Eye ointment 3%; 5%
Anticholinesterase
4. Neostigmine Pwd. PO 0.015 g 2-3 times per day
methylsulfate Tab. 0.015 g
(Neostigmini Amp. 0.05% 1 ml SC 0.0005 g (1 ml) 1-2 times per
methylsulfas) – day
Proserine In the lower conjunctival sac 1-2
(Proserinum) drops of 0.5% solution 2-4 times
per day
5. Galantamine Amp. 0.1%; 0.25%; SC 0.0025-0.01 g 1-2 times per
hydrobromide 0.05%; 1% 1 ml day
(Galanthamini
hydrobromidum)
6. Armin (Arminum) Eye drops 0.01% 10 ml 1-2 drops 2-3 times per day
7. Pyridostigmine Tab. 0.01 g 0.01 g 2-4 times per day
bromide Dragee 0.06 g 0.06 g 2-4 times per day
(Pyridostigmini Amp. 0.1% 1 ml SC, IM, IV 0.005 g
bromidum)
Reactivators of Cholinesterase
8. Trimedoxime bromide Amp. 15% 1 ml SC, IM 0.015 g 1 ml
(Trimedoximi
bromidum) –
Dipyroxime
(Dipiroximum)
9. Alloxim (Alloximum) Amp. 0.075 g IM, IV 0.075 g dissolved before
introduction in 1 ml of water for
injection
M-cholinoblockers
10. Atropine sulfate Pwd.
(Atropini sulfas) Tab. 0.0005 g PO 0.00025-0.0005 g
Amp. and syrette SC, IM or IV 0.00025-0.0005 g
(syringetube) 0.1% 1 ml (0.25-0.5 ml)
Eye drops 1% In the conjunctival sac 1-2 drops
Eye ointment 1% of 0.5-1% solution or 1%
ointment 1-2 times per day
11. Belladonna’s dried Pwd. PO or PR 0.02-0.04 g
extract (Extr.
Belladonnae siccum)
48
12. Platyphyllin Pwd.
hydrotartrate Tab. 0.005 g PO 0.005 g
(Platyphyllini Amp. 0.2% 1 ml SC 0.002-0.004 g
hydrotartras) In the conjunctival sac 1-2 drops
of 1-2% sol.
13. Scopolamine Pwd. PO 0.00025 g
hydrobromide Amp. 0.05% 1 ml SC 0.00025 g
(Scopolamini In the conjunctival sac 1-2 drops
hydrobromidum) of 0.25% sol.
14. Methacin Tab. 0.002 g PO 2-4 mg
(Methacinum) – Amp. 0.1% 1 ml SC, IM or IV 0.0005-0.001 g
Methocinium iodide (0.5-1 ml)
(Metocinii iodidum)
15. Ipratropium bromide Aerosol 15 ml 1-2 inhalations via oral inhaler or
(Ipratropii bromidum) inhalation solution via oral
nebulizer
16. Pirenzepine Tab. 0.025 g; 0.05 g PO 0.05 g
(Pirenzepinum) Vial (0.01 g of sterile IM or IV 0.01 g
pwd.)
N-cholinoblockers
17. Hexamethonium Amp. 2.5% 1 ml SC or IM 0.025 g (1-2 ml)
benzosulfonate (slowly)
(Hexamethonii
benzosulfonas) –
Benzohexonium
(Benzohexonium)
18. Azametonium Amp. 5% 1 ml; 2 ml IM 0.05-0.1 g (1-2 ml)
bromide (Azametonii IV 0.01-0.025 g (0.5-2 ml)
bromidum) – (slowly)
Pentamine
(Pentaminum)
19. Trepirium iodide Amp. 0.1 g IV drop infusion 0.04-0.08 g
(Trepirii iodidum) – (dissolved in 0.9% sol. of NaCl
Hygronium for inj. or 5% sol. of glucose for
(Hygronium) inj.)
Muscular relaxants
20. Suxamethonium Amp. 2% 5 ml; 10 ml IV 0.0015-0.002 g/kg
iodide (Suxamethonii
iodidum) – Dithylin
(Dithylinum)
21. Pipecuronium Lyophilisate for solution IM; the initial dose for intubation
bromide for injection of 4 mg in and surgery in adults is 0.06-0.08
(Pipecuronium vial; with 5 amules of mg/kg, provides conditions for
bromidum) solvent (0.9% solution of intubation for 150-180 seconds,
sodium chloride) in 2 ml with a duration of muscle
relaxation of 60-90 minutes.
22. Tubocurarine chloride Amp. 1% 1.5 ml 0.0004-0.0005 g/kg
(Tubocurarini
chloridum)
23. Mellictin Pwd. 0.02 g PO 0.02 g 2 times per day (pwd.)
(Mellictinum) Tab. 0.02 g or 3 times per day (tab.)
49
3. Prescribe recipes:
Pilocarpine hydrochloride
Carbachol
Aceclidine
Proserine (Neostigmine methylsulfate)
Galantamine hydrobromide
Armin
Dipyroxime (Trimedoxime bromide)
Alloxim
Atropine sulfate
50
Platyphyllin hydrotartrate
Scopolamine hydrobromide
Mellictin
Hygronium (Trepirium iodide)
Pentamine (Azametonium bromide)
Pirenzepin
Benzohexonium (Hexamethonium benzosulfonate)
Pipecuronium bromide
Dithylin
51
Ipratropium bromide
4. Get acquainted with the drugs of the educational collection on the topic, determine
their belonging to the pharmacological group and indications for use.
5. Fill in the tables
Preparation Indications for use Side effects
Carbachol
Proserine
(Neostigmine
methylsulfate)
Dipyroxime
(Trimedoxime
bromide)
Aceclidine
Galantamine
hydrobromide
Pyridostigmine
bromide
Pilocarpine
hydrochloride
52
Belladonna’s dried
extract
Atropine sulfate
Methacin
(Methocinium
iodide)
Pirenzepin
Ipratropium bromide
Benzohexonium
(Hexamethonium
benzosulfonate)
Pentamine
(Azametonium
bromidi)
Dithylin
Tubocurarine
chloride
53
Clinical signs of mushroom poisoning First aids
Clinical signs of FOS poisoning First aids
6. Tasks in pharmacotherapy
Justify the choice of drug, its dosage form, dose, concentration and route of administration.
1. Agents for the treatment of glaucoma.
2. Remedies for the treatment of myasthenia gravis.
3. Agentss for the treatment of atony of the intestines and bladder.
4. Agents used in FOS poisoning.
5. Remedies for the treatment of paresis and paralysis.
6. Drugs used to prevent bronchospasm before surgery.
7. M-cholinoblockers for the treatment of bradyarrhythmias.
8. Ganglioblocker for artificial hypotension.
9. Muscle relaxant for long-term surgery.
10. Muscle relaxants for tracheal intubation.

54
1. The patient was diagnosed with A. Pilocarpine hydrochloride

glaucoma. Choose a drug to treat this B. Atropine sulfate
disease: C. Naphthyzin
D. Anaprilin
E. Anaesthesine
2. The patient went to the dentist with A. Pilocarpine hydrochloride

complaints of dry mouth. Upon further B. Atropine sulfate
examination, a diagnosis was made: C. Methacin
xerostomia. Which of the drugs should D. Ipratropium bromide
be prescribed. E. Galazolin
3. After instilling drops in the eye, the A. M-Cholinomimetics

patient developed miosis, spasm of B. M-Cholinoblocking agents
accommodation. Intraocular pressure C. Local anesthetics
decreased. What group of drugs can D. N-Cholinomimetics
cause this effect. E. Ganglioblockers
4. A patient with mushroom poisoning A. Direct functional one-sided antagonism

was admitted to the hospital. As a part B. Physico-chemical antagonism (antidotism)
of complex therapy the patient was C. Chemical antagonism
prescribed atropine sulfate, as a result D. Direct functional bilateral antagonism
of which the symptoms of poisoning E. Indirect functional antagonism
were significantly reduced. Specify the
type of interaction of muscarine and
atropine sulfate.
5. When working with insecticides, the A. Atropine sulfate and dipyroxime

man developed nausea, salivation, B. Sodium thiosulfate and bemegride
spastic abdominal pain, miosis, C. Tetacin-calcium and unithiol
dizziness. The toxicology department D. Nalorphine hydrochloride and bemegride
diagnosed him with organophosphorus E. Glucose and bemegride
poisoning. What drugs should be
included in antidote therapy:
6. As a result of careless handling of A. Atropine sulfate

organophosphorus insecticide, the B. Berotek
worker developed bronchospasm. C. Euphylline
Which of the proposed drugs is D. Adrenaline
indicated in this situation? E. Ephedrine
7. A patient with myasthenia gravis was A. Atropine sulfate

administered proserine. After some B. Physostigmine
time there was nausea, vomiting, C. Pyridostigmine bromide
diarrhoea, twitching of the striated D. Isadrine
muscles. Assign a physiological E. Mesatone
proserine antagonist.
8. The patient after nephroctomy A. Proserine

developed intestinal paresis. Which B. Carbacholine
55
drug from the group of C. Aceclidine
anticholinesterase drugs should he be D. Pilocarpine hydrochloride
prescribed? E. Acetylcholine
9. A 71-year-old patient was taken to an A. Proserine

ambulance with paralytic bowel B. Dipyroxime
obstruction. Which of these drugs C. Atropine sulfate
should be prescribed to stimulate D. Lobeline hydrochloride
peristalsis? E. Papaverine hydrochloride
10. A patient with paralytic intestinal A. Blockade of acetylcholine esterase.

obstruction developed in the B. Reactivation of cholinesterase
postoperative period was prescribed C. Blockade of cholinergic receptors
proserine. What is the mechanism of D. Blockade of adrenergic receptors
action of this drug. E. Blockade of dopamine receptors
11. As a result of conduction anesthesia, A. Proserine

the patient developed a complication - B. Atropine sulfate
nerve paresis. Which of the drugs can C. Methacin
be prescribed. D. Ipratropium bromide
E. Galazolin
12. The patient developed paralysis after a A. Proserine

cerebrovascular accident. Choose a B. Phosphocol
reversible anticholinesterase agent to C. Aceclidine
prescribe to the patient in this case: D. Atropine sulfate
E. Dithyline
13. A woman diagnosed with myasthenia A. Proserine

gravis consulted a doctor. Choose the B. Pentamine
anticholinesterase agent indicated for C. Aceclidine
this disease: D. Atropine sulfate
E. Dithyline
14. After instilling drops in the eye, a A. M-Cholinomimetics

patient with glaucoma developed B. M-Cholinoblocking agents
miosis and myopia. Intraocular pressure C. Alpha-adrenomimetics
decreased. What group of drugs can D. N-Cholinomimetics
cause this effect. E. Ganglioblockers
15. A patient with complaints of dry A. Proserine

mouth, photophobia and visual B. Aceclidine
disturbances was taken to the admission C. Pilocarpine
department. The skin is hyperemic, dry, D. Armin
dilated pupils, tachycardia. At the E. Dipyroxime
subsequent inspection the diagnosis
was established: poisoning by alkaloids
of the Belladonna. Which of the drugs
should be used?
16. A 65-year-old man was admitted to the A. Galantamine hydrochloride

neurology department with a diagnosis B. Ipratropium bromide
56
of post-stroke syndrome. Which drug is C. Dipyroxime
most appropriate to prescribe to the D. Isonitrosine
patient to accelerate recovery? E. Aceclidine
17. A patient with myasthenia gravis, after A. Atropine sulfate

the appointment of proserine, B. Physostigmine
developed nausea, diarrhoea, twitching C. Pyridostigmine bromide
of the muscles of the tongue and D. Isadrine
skeletal muscles. What can eliminate E. Mesaton
intoxication?
18. Glaucoma is a concomitant disease in a A. M-cholinoblockers

patient undergoing inpatient treatment B. Adrenomimetics
for bronchial asthma. Which group of C. Myotropic antispasmodics
drugs is therefore not recommended in D. Glucocorticoids
the treatment of bronchial asthma? E. β-adrenoblockers
19. A 5-year-old child was diagnosed with A. Anticholinesterase drugs

Belladonna poisoning by a doctor on B. N-cholinoblockers
the basis of an objective examination C. N-cholinomimetics
(motor-speech arousal, delirium, D. M-cholinomimetics
mydriasis, photophobia, dry, hot, E. Cholinesterase reactivators
hyperemic skin, tachycardia,
tachypnea). Which of the following
pharmacological groups should be
prescribed?
20. A 6-year-old child was hospitalized A. Atropine

with severe symptoms of motor and B. Papaverine
speech arousal, dry mouth, difficulty C. Pilocarpine
swallowing, and a hoarse voice. The D. Proserine
skin is dry, hot. Pupils are sharply E. Morphine
dilated, photophobia, tachycardia. The
anamnesis showed that the child had
eaten some dark purple berries. Which
of the toxic substances is the cause of
poisoning?
21. A patient with complaints of dry A. Proserine

mouth, photophobia and visual B. Aceclidine
disturbances was taken to the admission C. Pilocarpine
department. The skin is hyperemic, dry, D. Armin
dilated pupils, tachycardia. At the E. Dipyroxime
subsequent inspection the diagnosis
was established: poisoning by alkaloids
of the Belladonna. Which of the drugs
should be used?
22. Prior to anesthesia, the anesthesiologist A. Atropine sulfate

performed premedication with a drug B. Epinephrine hydrochloride
that prevented laryngospasm, C. Proserine
hypersalivation, and reflex cardiac D. Alloxim
57
arrest. Identify this drug. E. Pyrroxane
23. You have been approached by a patient A. M-Cholinoblocking agents

suffering from seasickness and air B. M-Cholinomimetics
sickness. The drug from which C. Local anesthetics
pharmacological group will help him to D. N-Cholinomimetics
transfer the flight by plane: E. Muscle relaxants
24. A patient with frequent attacks of A. Ipratropium bromide

bronchial asthma was diagnosed with B. Atropine sulfate
glaucoma. Which M-cholinoblocker C. Proserine
drug should be preferred for comorbid D. Gentamicin
conditions? E. Strophanthin
25. Patient M., 60 years old, a doctor A. Scopolamine hydrobromide

prescribed a drug from the group of M- B. Platyphyllin hydrotartrate
cholinoblocking agents, which has a C. Methacin
calming effect on the CNS. Identify this D. Atropine sulfate
drug. E. Gastrocepin
26. The patient needs to dilate the pupil to A. Atropine sulfate

examine the fundus. Specify the drug B. Pilocarpine hydrochloride
that can be used for this: C. Proserine
D. Epinephrine hydrochloride
E. Acetylcholine
27. Atropine sulfate is prescribed to the A. Glaucoma

patient to eliminate intestinal colic. B. Bronchial asthma
What concomitant disease may be a C. Sinus bradycardia
contraindication for the drug? D. Hypotension
E. Dizziness of the head
28. The patient consulted a dentist. A. Atropine sulfate

Examination and care were B. Pilocarpine hydrochloride
complicated by hypersalivation. Which C. Methacin
of the drugs should be used. D. Ipratropium bromide
E. Galazolin
29. The ambulance doctor diagnosed the A. Atropine sulfate

patient with bradycardia and B. Pyridostigmine bromide
atrioventricular conduction disorders. C. Pilocarpine hydrochloride
Which of the drugs that affect the D. Anaprilin
autonomic regulation of cardiac activity E. Atenolol
is indicated for this patient
30. For the treatment of gastric ulcer, the A. Pirenzepine

patient is shown a selective M1- B. Cimetidine
cholinoblocking agent. Which of the C. Ranitidine
following drugs can be prescribed. D. Omeprazole
E. Almagel
31. At the patient attacks of bronchial A. M-Cholinoblocking agents

58
asthma arise usually at night. Which B. M-Cholinomimetics
group of drugs can be prescribed? C. Local anesthetics
D. N-Cholinomimetics
E. Muscle relaxants
32. An ambulance doctor diagnosed the A. M-Cholinoblocking agents

patient with acute renal colic. The drug B. M-Cholinomimetics
of which pharmacological group should C. Local anesthetics
be prescribed in this case? D. N-Cholinomimetics
E. Muscle relaxants
33. With poisoning by an unknown drug, A. With blockade of M-cholinoreceptors

the patient had dry mouth and dilation B. With stimulation of M-cholinoreceptors
of the pupils. What is the effect of this C. With stimulation of N-cholinoreceptors
drug? D. With adrenergic receptor stimulation
E. With adrenergic receptor blockade
59
Topic 6. Drugs that affect the transmission of excitation in adrenergic synapses
1. Modern ideas about adrenergic receptors, their types and localization.

2. Classification of adrenomimetics by their effect on α- and β-adrenoreceptors. Drugs of direct
and indirect action.
3. Pharmacology of adrenomimetics that stimulate α- and β-adrenoceptors.
3.1. Pharmacodynamics of adrenaline hydrochloride (effects on the cardiovascular system:
heart, systemic hemodynamics, microcirculation; smooth muscle organs; metabolism).
3.2. Indications for the use of α-, β-adrenomimetics.
3.3. Comparative characteristics of α-, β-adrenomimetics (Norepinephrine hydrotartrate,
Ephedrine hydrochloride, Epinephrine hydrochloride).
3.4. Side effect. The concept of tachyphylaxis.
4. Pharmacology of adrenomimetics that stimulate mainly α-adrenoreceptors.
4.1. Pharmacodynamics of Mesatone (Phenylephrine): influence on systemic and organ
hemodynamics, vascular tone. Application, side effects.
4.2. Drugs for topical use (Naphthyzine (Naphazoline)), Xylometazoline).
5. Pharmacology of adrenomimetics, which mainly stimulate β-adrenoreceptors.
5.1. Pharmacodynamics of Isadrine (Isoprenaline): effects on the heart and
bronchopulmonary system. Indications for use, side effects.
5.2. Indications for the use of β2-adrenomimetics (Salbutamole, Fenoterole).
6. Classification of adrenoblocking agents.
7. Pharmacology of α-blockers.
7.1. Mechanism of action and pharmacological effects.
7.2. Features of application of Phentolamine hydrochloride, Prazosin.
7.3. Side effect.
8. Pharmacology of β-blockers.
8.1. Mechanism of action and pharmacological effects.
8.2. Comparative characteristics of Anaprilin (Propranolol), Talinolol, Atenolol,
Metoprolol.
8.3. Indications for use (angina, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension).
8.4. Side effect. Features of cardioselective adrenoblockers.
9. Pharmacological characteristics of sympatholytics (Methyldopa). Therapeutic use. Side
effects.

1. α, β-adrenomimetics
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
2. α-adrenomimetics
60
a. α1-adrenomimetics
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
b. α2-adrenomimetics
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
3. β-adrenomimetics
a. β1, β2-adrenomimetics
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
b. β1-adrenomimetics
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
c. β2-adrenomimetics
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
4. Indirect acting adrenomimetics

- ___________________________
- ___________________________
5. α-adrenoblockers
a. α1, α2-adrenoblockers
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
b. α1-adrenoblockers
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
6. β-adrenoblockers
a. β1, β2-adrenoblockers
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
b. β1-adrenoblockers
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
7. α, β-adrenoblockers
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
61
8. Sympatholytics
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
preparation
α, β-adrenomimetics (direct actin)
1. Epinephrine Amp. 0.1% 1 ml SC and IM 0.3-0.75 mg
(Epinephrinum) Vial 0.1% 10 ml (for In the conjunctival sac: 1-2 drops of 1-
– Adrenaline external application) 2% sol.
hydrochloride
(Adrenalini
hydrochloridum)
2. Norepinephrine Amp. 0.2% 1 ml IV infusion 0.2% 1-2 ml (2-4 mg) in 0.5
(Norepinephrinum) – L 5% Glucose sol.
Noradrenaline
hydrotartrate
(Noradrenalini
hydrotartras)
α-adrenomimetics
3. Phenylephrine Amp. 1% 1 ml SC and IM 0.5-1 ml 1% sol.
(Phenylephrinum) – IV 0.3-1 ml 1% sol. in 40 ml 40%
Mesatone Glucose sol. (in case of collapse)
(Mesatonum) Eye drops 2.5%; In ophthalmology and otolaryngology –
10% 5 ml 0.25% and 1% sol.
In glaucoma – eye drops 10%
4. Oxymetazoline Vial (nasal drops, In the nasal cavity 1-2 drops (1-2
(Oxymetazolinum) nasal spray) 0.01%; injections) 2-3 times a day
0.025%; 0.05% 5ml;
10 ml
5. Xylomethazoline Vial (nasal drops, In the nasal cavity 1-2 drops (1-2
(Xylomethazolinum) nasal spray) 0.05%; injections) 2-3 times a day
0.1% 10 ml
6. Naphazoline Vial (nasal drops, In the nasal cavity 1-2 drops (1-2
(Naphazolinum) – nasal spray) 0.05%; injections) 2-3 times a day
Naphthyzine 0.1% 10 ml
(Naphtyzinum)
7. Clonidine Tab. 0.075 mg; 1 tablet 2-4 times per day before meals
(Clonidinum) – 0.15 mg SC and IM 0.5-1.5 ml
Clopheline Amp. 0.01% 1 ml IV 0.5 ml together with 10 ml of
(Clophelinum) isotonic NaCl solution
Eye drops 0.125%; In glaucoma – eye drops 2-4 times a day
0.25%; 0.5% 1.5 ml
β-adrenomimetics
8. Salbutamole Tab. 0.002 g PO 0.002g
(Salbutamolum) Aerosol inhalers 10 ml Inhalation as needed
(200 doses; 0.0001 g
per dose)
62
9. Fenoterole Tab. 0.005 mg PO 0.005 g (to prevent premature
(Fenoterolum) termination of pregnancy)
Amp. 0.0005 g IV 0.0005 g
Vial 15 ml Inhalation
At an attack of bronchial asthma – 1
dose, in 5 minutes it is possible to
repeat. Next application in 3 hours. To
prevent seizures – 1 dose 3 times a day
10. Isoprenaline Tab. 0.005 g PO 1 tablet (keep in the mouth until
(Isoprenalinum) completely absorbed)
Isadrine (Isadrinum) Vial for inhalation With a threatening attack of bronchial
0.5% 25 ml (350 asthma or at the beginning, one dose is
doses; 0.075 mg per inhaled. If the effect has not come, then
dose) after 3-5 minutes another dose is
inhaled. Repeated inhalations are
possible after 3-4 hours. The total
number of inhalations per day should
not exceed 12.
α-adrenoblockers
11. Prazosin (Prazosinum) Tab. 0.001 g; 0.002 g; PO 0.0005-0.002 g
0.005 g In the first days of 0.5 mg at bedtime,
then 1 mg 3-4 times a day, gradually
increasing the dose, achieving a
hypotensive effect. The maintenance
dose is selected individually – from 3 to
20 mg/day, more often 6-15 mg/day
12. Doxazosin Tab. 0.002 g; 0.004 g PO 0.001-0.004 g
(Doxazosinum) starting from 0.001 g once a day,
gradually increasing the dose to 4-8 mg
per day
13. Tamsulosin Caps. 0.4 mg 1 capsule the day after the first meal
(Tamsulosinum)
β-adrenoblockers
14. Propranolol Tab. 0.01 g; 0.04 g PO 0.01-0.04 g (15-30 min. before
(Propranololum) – meals, 10 mg 3 times a day with a
Anaprilin gradual increase in dose to 20-40 mg 3-
(Anaprilinum) 4 times a day (sometimes up to 200 mg
per day)
Amp. 0.1% 1 ml IV 0.001 g
15. Atenolol (Atenololum) Tab. 0.025 g; 0.05 g; PO 0.05-0.1 g
0.1 g
16. Metoprolol Tab. 0.05 g; 0.1 g PO 0.05-0.1 g 2-3 times a day
(Metoprololum) Amp. 1% 5 ml IV from 0.005 g to 0.01-0.015 g
17. Bisoprolol Tab. film-coated PO 0.055-0.1 g 3 times a day
(Bisoprololum) 0.005 g; 0.01 g
18. Carvedilol Tab. 12.5 mg; 25 mg PO 0.0125-0.025 g
(Carvedilolum) The initial dose is 12.5 mg in the
morning after breakfast or 6.25 mg 2
times a day. After 2 days, the dose
should be increased to 25 mg in the
morning (or 12.5 mg 2 times a day).
63
After 14 days, the dose can be increased
again to 25 mg 2 times a day.
19. Timolol (Timololum) Eye drops 0.25%; 1-2 drops 0.25% or 0.5 % is installed
0.5% 5 ml into the conjunctival sac 2-3 times a day
20. Talinolol Dragee 0.05 g PO starting from 0.05 g (1 tablet) 3
(Talinololum) times a day
Sympatholytics
21. Methyldopa Tab. 0.25 g PO from 0.01 g to 0.05-0.075 g per day.
(Methyldopa)
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Phenylephrine
Xylomethazoline
Salbutamole
Isoprenaline
Prazosin
64
Propranolol
Metoprolol
Talinolol
Bisoprolol
Timolol
Methyldopa
5. Fill in the table

Preparation Pharmacologi- Indications for use Side effects
cal group
Epinephrine
65
Norepinephrine
Phenylephrine
Salbutamole
Xylomethazoline
Isoprenaline
Prazosin
Propranolol
66
Metoprolol
Talinolol
Bisoprolol
Timolol
Methyldopa
Fill in the table “Comparative characteristics of adrenomimetics”
Pharmacological effect Epinephrine Xylomethazoline Salbutamole Isoprenaline

Associated with effects on α-adrenoceptors:
Vascular tone (blood
pressure level)
Associated with effects on β-adrenoceptors:
Heart (heart rate,
automatism, contractility,
conductivity, myocardial
oxygen demand)
Vascular tone (blood
pressure level)
67
Bronchial muscle tone
Myometrial tone
Blood glucose level
1. Drugs to combat vascular collapse.
2. Adrenomimetics for the prevention of asthma attacks.
3. Adrenomimetics used in an attack of bronchial asthma.
4. Medicines prescribed for acute rhinitis.
5. Therapeutic agents for the treatment of open-angle glaucoma.
6. Vasoconstrictive drugs used to enhance and prolong local anesthesia, as well as to prevent
the manifestations of toxic properties of local anesthetics.
7. Drugs for the treatment of endarteritis.
8. Medicines used in hypertension.
9. Drugs for the treatment of coronary heart disease that reduce heart function.
10. β-blockers for the treatment of tachyarrhythmias.

(The signature of the teacher, date
1. The patient with the introduction of A. Epinephrine

a drug of protein nature developed B. Anaprilin (Propranolol)
anaphylactic shock with symptoms C. Atenolol
of bronchospasm and lower blood D. Mesatone (Phenylephrine)
pressure. Which of the following E. Metoprolol
drugs should be administered to the
patient to eliminate these symptoms:
2. During tooth extraction, the patient A. Epinephrine

developed bleeding. The dentist B. Octadine
applied a tampon with the drug and C. Isadrine (Isoprenaline)
the bleeding decreased. What drug D. Salbutamol
did the doctor use? E. Prazosin
3. The patient has anaphylactic shock. A. Epinephrine

68
Which of the following B. Mesatone (Phenylephrine)
adrenomimetics should be expected C. Ephedrine hydrochloride
to have the greatest therapeutic D. Norepinephrine
effect? E. Salbutamol
4. A patient with hypoglycemic coma A. Epinephrine

was given an intravenous glucose B. Mesatone (Phenylephrine)
solution as an emergency. The C. Ephedrine hydrochloride
patient's condition improved. What D. Dopamine
other drug can be prescribed to a E. Pilocarpine hydrochloride
patient to normalize blood glucose
levels?
5. The ambulance doctor recorded a A. Epinephrine

sudden cardiac arrest in the patient. B. Norepinephrine
A drug from the group of C. Mesatone (Phenylephrine)
adrenomimetics was administered D. Salbutamol
intracardiacally to restore heart E. Naphthyzine (Naphazoline)
function. What is this drug?
6. The surgeon decided to remove the A. Narrowing of blood vessels, prolongation of

patient's benign soft tissue tumour local anesthetic
under local anesthesia with a B. Prevention of cardiac arrest
solution of novocaine in C. Prevention of bronchospasm
combination with a 0.1% solution of D. Treatment of anaphylactic shock
adrenaline hydrochloride. For what E. Increased blood glucose
purpose was the adrenomimetic
used?
7. Adrenaline hydrochloride was A. Excitation of β1-adrenoreceptors

administered to a patient with B. Excitation of α-adrenoceptors
anaphylactic shock to increase the C. Excitation of β2-adrenoreceptors
strength and heart rate. What causes D. Inhibition of β2-adrenoreceptors
this pharmacodynamic effect of the E. Inhibition of β1-adrenoceptors
drug?
8. The patient was prescribed A. Vasoconstrictor.

norepinephrine to increase blood B. Vasodilator
pressure. What is the C. Bronchodilation
pharmacodynamic effect of the drug D. Analytical
used: E. Bronchospastic
9. The patient developed a collapse due A. Norepinephrine hydrotartrate

to a decrease in the tone of B. Naphthyzine (Naphazoline)
peripheral vessels. What drug can be C. Xylometazoline
used to treat this condition? D. Fenoterole
E. Salbutamol
10. In order to increase blood pressure, A. Norepinephrine hydrotartrate
the patient was administered a drug B. Anaprilin (Propranolol)
that mainly stimulates α- C. Ephedrine hydrochloride
adrenoceptors. It was : D. Reserpine
E. Salbutamol
69
11. A 63-year-old man in a colaptoid A. Excitation of α-adrenoreceptors
condition was taken to the B. Excitation of serotonin receptors
ambulance. In order to eliminate C. Excitation of β-adrenoreceptors
hypotension, the doctor chose D. Blockade of M-cholinoreceptors
norepinephrine hydrotartrate. What E. Excitation of dopamine receptors
is the mechanism of hypertensive
action of this drug?
12. In order to correct blood pressure in A. Excitation of α-adrenoreceptors

a colaptoid condition, the patient B. Excitation of β2-adrenoceptors
was administered meіatonу. What is C. Blockade of α-adrenoreceptors
the mechanism of action of this D. Blockade of β2-adrenoreceptors
drug? E. Excitation of α- and β-adrenoreceptors
13. A patient in a state of acute vascular A. Mesatone (Phenylephrine)

insufficiency (collapse) was taken to B. Anaprilin (Propranolol)
the hospital admission department. C. Naphthyzine (Naphazoline)
Which of these drugs should be used D. Isadrine (Isoprenaline)
to provide emergency medical care? E. Salbutamol
14. After fluorothane anesthesia, the A. Activation of alpha-adrenoreceptors

patient developed collapse. B. Stimulation of beta-1-adrenoreceptors
Mesatone was prescribed to C. Stimulation of beta-2-adrenoreceptors
normalize blood pressure. What D. Activation of M-cholinoreceptors
causes the mechanism of E. Stimulation of α- and beta-adrenoreceptors
hypertensive action of this drug?
15. To treat the common cold, the doctor A. Naphthyzine (Naphazoline)

prescribed a drug from the group of B. Epinephrine
adrenomimetics. Name the remedy C. Norepinephrine
D. Ephedrine hydrochloride
E. Atropine sulfate
16. Identify a drug that narrows the A. Xylometazoline

vessels of the nasal mucosa, and can B. Salbutamol
be used in ENT practice for the C. Euphylline
treatment of rhinitis, nosebleeds: D. Fenoterole
E. Norepinephrine
17. A patient with bronchial asthma was A. Isadrine (Isoprenaline)
used a drug that meets the following B. Mesatone (Phenylephrine)
characteristics: stimulates β1- and β2- C. Adrenaline
adrenoceptors, activates the heart, D. Norepinephrine
causing an increase in heart rate and E. Atenolol
promotes bronchodilation. What is
this drug?
18. The patient was taken to hospital A. Beta-adrenomimetics

with a diagnosis of atrioventricular B. Cardiac glycosides
block. Select a group of drugs that C. Beta-blockers
can be prescribed in this situation D. Calcium channel blockers
E. Sympatholytics
70
19. An ambulance doctor was called to a A. Salbutamol.
40-year-old patient with bronchial B. Ephedrine hydrochloride.
asthma, who suddenly had an attack C. Adrenaline hydrochloride
of bronchospasm with symptoms of D. Norepinephrine
angina. Which of the drugs is most E. Reserpine
effective for emergency care?
20. A 42-year-old patient suffers from A. Stimulates beta-2-adrenoreceptors

bronchial asthma. During an attack B. Blocks beta-2-adrenoreceptors
of bronchospasm, the doctor C. Stimulates alpha-2-adrenoreceptors
prescribed salbutamol. What is the D. Stimulates alpha-1-adrenoreceptors
effect of the drug determines the E. Stimulates beta-1-adrenoreceptors
therapeutic effect?
21. A patient with bronchial asthma A. Salbutamol

began to complain of heart failure. B. Epinephrine
He was diagnosed with arrhythmia C. Ephedrine hydrochloride
(tachycardia). What adrenomimetic D. Isadrine (Isoprenaline)
can be prescribed to a patient to E. Orciprenaline
eliminate asthma attacks?
22. The patient asked the doctor to A. Fenoterole

replace the currently absent B. Euphylline
bronchodilator salbutamol with a C. Epinephrine
drug with a similar effect. Which of D. Atropine sulfate
the following drugs can be E. Ephedrine hydrochloride
recommended to the patient?
23. During an attack of bronchial A. Fenoterole

asthma, the patient inhaled the drug. B. Propranolol
It is known that this drug is used in C. Adrenaline
therapeutic practice as a D. Ephedrine
bronchodilator, and in obstetrics – to E. Euphylline
prevent premature birth. What is this
drug?
24. A 30-year-old woman was A. Stimulation of beta-2-adrenoreceptors

prescribed fenoterole because of the B. Stimulation of alpha-2-adrenoreceptors
risk of preterm birth because it C. Activation of alpha-1-adrenoreceptors
reduces the contractile activity of the D. Activation of M-cholinoreceptors
myometrium. What is the E. Inhibition of acetylcholine synthesis
mechanism of its tocolytic action?
25. After a few days of using the drug to A. Ephedrine hydrochloride

prevent attacks of bronchospasm, the B. Euphylline
patient's sleep was disturbed due to C. Platyphyllin hydrotartrate
arousal. Which of the drugs is the D. Epinephrine
probable cause of this complication? E. Salbutamol
26. The patient was taking a A. Ephedrine hydrochloride

combination drug for treatment, B. Isadrine (Isoprenaline)
which caused him sleep disturbances C. Euphylline
71
(insomnia), headache and high blood D. Epinephrine
pressure. Which adrenomimetic did E. Naphthyzine (Naphazoline)
the drug contain?
27. A patient with acute rhinitis often A. Progressive decrease in norepinephrine in the
instilled a 5% solution of ephedrine sympathetic nerve endings
hydrochloride in the nose. B. Impaired norepinephrine synthesis in the
Gradually, the effectiveness of the sympathetic nerve endings
drug began to decline, and on the C. Violation of the process of releasing the
3rd day disappeared completely. mediator from the depot
What causes a rapid decrease in D. Increased reuptake of the mediator
efficiency (tachyphylaxis)? E. Blockade of adrenoceptors
28. The patient prescribed α1-blocker to A. Prazosin

a patient with circulatory disorders B. Anaprilin (Propranolol)
of the lower extremities. Which drug C. Metoprolol
was prescribed? D. Atenolol
E. Reserpine
29. A patient with high blood pressure A. Prazosin

and concomitant pathology - B. Mesatone
prostate hypertrophy was admitted C. Naphthyzine
to the therapeutic department. Which D. Anaprilin
antihypertensive drug from the E. Clopheline
group of alpha-blockers is most
appropriate to prescribe to the
patient?
30. A patient with a hypertensive crisis A. Alpha-blockers

was parenterally administered an B. Nonselective beta-blockers
antiadrenergic drug. Which group of C. Cardioselective beta-blockers
drugs can cause a rapid and D. Sympatholytics
significant decrease in vascular E. Sympathomimetics
resistance and lower blood pressure?
31. A 23-year-old woman with high A. Alpha-blockers

blood pressure was diagnosed with a B. Calcium channel blockers
pheochromocytoma (an adrenal C. Sympatholytics
tumour that produces adrenaline) D. Ganglioblockers
after examination. Determine which E. Beta-blockers
group of drugs can be prescribed to
the patient before surgery to reduce
blood pressure.
32. Metoprolol therapy had a positive A. Blockade of β1-adrenoreceptors and

effect on the dynamics of the disease decreased myocardial oxygen demand.
of a 44-year-old woman with angina. B. Decreased oxidative metabolism in the
What is the mechanism of myocardium due to blockade of Krebs cycle
therapeutic action of this drug? enzymes
C. Reduction of myocardial energy expenditure
due to reduced load.
D. Increased oxygen supply to the myocardium
72
E. Decreased need and increased oxygen supply
to the myocardium
33. A patient diagnosed with coronary A. Decreased myocardial oxygen demand

heart disease was prescribed B. Decreased myocardial sensitivity to
anaprilin (propranolol). What can catecholamines
explain its therapeutic effect? C. Decreased synthesis of catecholamines in the
presynaptic part of the synapse
D. Reduction of catecholamine release from the
presynaptic part of the synapse
E. Increased myocardial sensitivity to
catecholamines
34. The patient was prescribed a β- A. Anaprilin

blocker for the treatment of coronary B. Atenolol
heart disease. After a while he C. Talinolol
developed a cough and D. Adrenaline
bronchospasm. Which of the E. Metoprolol
following means is characterized by
such a side effect?
35. A patient with coronary heart A. Anaprilin

disease did not tell the doctor that he B. Adrenaline
had attacks of bronchospasm. The C. Mesatone
doctor prescribed a drug after which D. Norepinephrine
the heart pain decreased, but the E. Isadrine
attacks of bronchospasm became
more frequent. What drug was
prescribed?
36. The doctor decided to prescribe a A. Increased uterine tone and risk of miscarriage
drug from the group of beta-blockers B. Lowering blood sugar
to treat a young woman (28 years C. Collapse
old). Upon learning that the woman D. Dilation of coronary vessels
was 12 weeks pregnant, he E. Increased sensitivity to catecholamines
prescribed a drug from another
group. What caused the doctor's
decision?
37. A 45-year-old patient with a history A. Metoprolol

of bronchial asthma, in order to treat B. Mesatone
hypertension, the doctor decided to C. Anaprilin
prescribe a drug from the group of D. Salbutamol
adrenoblockers. Which drug should E. Isadrine
be preferred?
38. Anaprilin was prescribed to a patient A. Blockade of beta-2-adrenoreceptors of the

with hypertension with concomitant bronchi
obstructive bronchitis as part of B. Blockade of beta-1-adrenoreceptors of the
complex therapy. When using it, the bronchi
patient had asthma attacks. What is C. Stimulation of beta-2-adrenoreceptors of the
the cause of this side effect? bronchi
73
D. Blockade of alpha-2-adrenoreceptors of the
bronchi
E. Stimulation of alpha-1-adrenoreceptors of the
bronchi
39. An adrenoblocker was prescribed to A. Anaprilin

a patient with hypertension to lower B. Prazosin
blood pressure. The pressure C. Clopheline
returned to normal, but bradycardia D. Mesatone
developed. What drug was used? E. Verapamil
40. Patient with hypertension has a A. Metoprolol

number of comorbidities: atrial B. Reserpine
arrhythmia, angina, chronic C. Anaprilin
bronchitis. The doctor decided to D. Pindolol
prescribe a drug from the group of E. Oxprenolol
beta-blockers. What is this drug?
41. Which of the following drugs may A. Anaprilin

be contraindicated in a patient with B. Nifedipine
hypertension and concomitant C. Talinolol
diabetes? D. Verapamil
E. Captopril
42. A 36-year-old woman suffering A. Bronchial asthma

from coronary heart disease was B. Hypertension
initially prescribed anaprilin by a C. Peptic ulcer of the duodenum
doctor. But after finding out about D. Myasthenia
the concomitant disease, he decided E. Cholecystitis
to replace it with atenolol. What
disease could be the cause of
replacement?
43. The patient was admitted to the A. Anaprilin

admission department with a B. Atenolol
diagnosis of hypertensive crisis. C. Metoprolol
History of asthmatic bronchitis. D. Celiprolol
Which adrenoblocker is E. Talinolol
contraindicated for the patient?
44. The diabetic patient worsened after A. Adrenaline

the next insulin injection: anxiety, B. Butamide
cold sweat, tremors of the C. Caffeine
extremities, general weakness and D. Norepinephrine
dizziness. What drug relieves these E. Glibutide
symptoms?
45. A 63-year-old man with collapse A. Activation of alpha-1-adrenoreceptors

symptoms was taken to the B. Activation of serotonin receptors
ambulance. To combat hypotension, C. Activation of beta-adrenoreceptors
the doctor chose norepinephrine. D. Activation of dopamine receptors
What is the mechanism of action of E. Blockade of M-cholinoreceptors
74
this drug?
46. A patient with bronchial asthma did A. Isadrine

not tell the doctor that he had angina B. Salbutamol
attacks. The doctor prescribed a C. Euphylline
drug, after which asthma attacks D. Cromolyn sodium
became less frequent, but angina E. Fenoterol
attacks became more frequent.
Indicate which drug was prescribed?
47. A patient with hypertension A. Salbutamol

developed an attack of bronchial B. Isadrine
asthma. What remedy should be C. Adrenaline
prescribed to relieve the attack? D. Euphylline
E. Ephedrine
48. A patient with hypertension with A. Anaprilin

concomitant obstructive bronchitis B. Clopheline
was prescribed an antihypertensive C. Cordanum
drug. After some time, the patient D. Verepamil
began to have asthma attacks, E. Reserpine
developed severe bradycardia. The
ECG showed signs of
atrioventricular conduction. When
prescribing which drug is most
likely to have such effects?
49. A patient with hypertension with A. Blockade of beta-2-adrenoreceptors of the

concomitant obstructive bronchitis bronchi
as part of complex therapy was B. Blockade of beta-1-adrenorreceptors of the
prescribed anaprilin. After some bronchi
time, the patient began to have C. Stimulation of beta-2-adrenoreceptors of the
asthma attacks. What is the cause of bronchi
this side effect? D. Blockade of alpha-2-adrenoreceptors of the
bronchi
E. Stimulation of alpha-1-adrenoreceptors of the
bronchi
50. A 60-year-old patient has been A. Anaprilin

suffering from diabetes for 9 years B. Prazosin
and receives insulin-semilente to C. Verapamil
correct hyperglycemia. He started D. Captopril
treatment for hypertension 10 days E. Nifedipine
ago. An hour after taking the
antihypertensive drug, a
hypoglycemic coma developed.
Which of the following drugs could
cause such a phenomenon?
51. A 42-year-old patient suffers from A. Stimulates beta-2-adrenoreceptors

bronchial asthma. At an attack of a B. Blocks beta-2-adrenoreceptors
bronchospasm the doctor appointed C. Stimulates alpha-2-adrenoreceptors
75
salbutamol. What is the effect of the D. Stimulates alpha-1-adrenoreceptors
drug determines the therapeutic E. Stimulates beta-1-adrenoreceptors
effect?
52. A patient with atrial fibrillation with A. Anaprilin

a history of bronchial asthma should B. Aimalin
be prescribed an antiarrhythmic C. Verapamil
drug. Which drug from this group is D. Nifedipine
contraindicated for the patient? E. Novocainamide
53. The young man, an athlete, has high A. Anaprilin

blood pressure and heart rate. Which B. Prosezin
of the antihypertensive drugs is most C. Clopheline
appropriate to prescribe? D. Papazol
E. Nifedipine
54. A patient with coronary heart A. Metoprolol

disease was admitted to the B. Atropine sulfate
cardiology department. To prevent C. Morphine hydrochloride
angina attacks, a drug from the D. Oxytocin
group of beta-blockers is prescribed. E. Furosemide
Name this drug:
76
Topic 7. Medicines for general and local anesthesia. Pharmacology of ethyl alcohol
1. Medicines for local anesthesia. Classification by chemical structure and use for different
types of anesthesia. Requirements for drugs of the group of local anesthetics.
2. Pharmacology of esters (Procaine, Benzocaine) and substituted amides (Articaine,
Lidocaine, Bupivacaine, Mepivacaine).
3. Comparative characteristics of local anesthetics and complex drugs based on them
(Ultracaine DS). Indications for use. The purpose and possibilities of combination with
adrenomimetics.
4. Side effects of local anesthetics, measures for its prevention and treatment.
5. Organic and inorganic astringent drugs. Mechanism of action, indications for use.
Pharmacological characteristics of Tannin, Bismuth subcitrate, phytopreparations containing
surfactants, herbs St. Johns wort grass, Salvia leaves, Chamomile flowers. Complex drugs based on
them.
6. General characteristics of gastroprotectors (mucosal protective drugs). Mechanism of action,
indications for use (starch mucus, flax seeds).
7. Adsorbent drugs. Classification of adsorbents. Mechanism of action. Indications for use.
8. Preparations of coal (Activated charcoal). Synthetic sorbents (Enterosgel). Principles of
hemo- and enterosorption.
9. Drugs that irritate the end of sensitive nerves (Menthol, Ammonia spirit). Mechanism of
action. Effects on skin and mucous membranes. Indications for use.
10. General characteristics of anesthesia. See anesthesia.
11. Classification of drugs for anesthesia. Requirements for anesthetics. Theories of anesthesia.
12. Comparative characteristics of agents for inhalation anesthesia (Ether pro narcosis,
Halothane, Isoflurane, Sevoflurane, Nitrous oxide, Xenon). Side effect. Combined use of anesthetics
with drugs of other pharmacological groups.
13. Agents for non-inhalation anesthesia. Classification by duration of action. Pharmacological
and comparative characteristics of Propofol, Thiopental sodium, Hexobarbital, Ketamine, Sodium
oxybutyrate.
14. The concept of premedication, introductory, basic, combined anesthesia.
15. Pharmacology and toxicology of Ethyl alcohol, use in clinical practice.
16. Acute and chronic alcohol poisoning, relief measures. The principle of treatment of
alcoholism. The mechanism of action of Disulfiram. The use of emetics for the treatment of
alcoholism (Apomorphine hydrochloride).
1. Local anesthetics b. for infiltration anesthesia

a. for superficial anesthesia - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________
77
c. for conduction anesthesia 2. Adsorbents
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
3. Astringent agents
a. organic b. inorganic
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
4. Gastroprotectors (mucosal protective 5. Irritating agents

drugs) - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________
6. Agents for general anesthesia

a. Inhalation anesthetics b. Non-inhalation anesthetics
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
preparation
Local anesthetics
1. Articaine Amp. 1% 1 ml 1% 1 ml for infiltration anasthesia
(Articainum)
Ultracaine
2. Lidocaine Amp. 1% 10 ml; 20 ml 0.25-0.5% for infiltration anasthesia
(Lidocainum) 2% 2 ml; 10 ml 0.5-2% for conduction anasthesia
10% 2 ml 1-5% for terminal anasthesia
3. Novocaine Amp. 0.25%; 0.5% 1 ml; 0.25-0.5% for infiltration anasthesia
(Novocainum) 2 ml; 5 ml; 10 ml; 20 ml 1-2% for conduction anasthesia
1%; 2% 1 ml; 2 ml; 5 ml; 2% for peridural anasthesia
10 ml 5% for terminal anasthesia
Vial 0.25%; 0.5%
200 ml; 400 ml
Rectal suppositories
0.1 g
Pwd.
Adsorbents
4. Activated Tab. 0.25 g; 0.5 g PO 1-2 g for flatulence
charcoal 20-30 g as suspension in water for
(Carbo activatus) poisoning
5. Enterosgel Pwd. PO 45 g
(Enterosgelum) Paste 135 g; 270 g; 405 g
Irritating agents
6. Ammonia spirit Vial 100 ml Inhalation: a small piece of cotton or gauze
(Solutio Ammonii Amp. 1 ml wetted with the drug is brought to the nose
78
caustici 10%) inlet (for 0.5-1 sec)
Inhalation anesthetics
7. Ether pro narcosis Vial 140 ml Inhalation, initially up to 20-25 vol. %,
(Aether pro with a gradual decrease to 2-4 vol. %.
narcosi)
8. Nitrous oxide Gas in metal cylinders For inhalation in a mixture with oxygen
(Nitrogenium (70-80% nitrous oxide and 20-30%
oxydatum) oxygen)
9. Xenon (Xenonum) Gas in metal cylinders Inhalation, in the form of a xenon-oxygen
1 L; 3 L; 5 L; 10 L mixture, the maximum concentration of
xenon – 80%.
10. Halothane Solution for inhalation in Inhalation, with oxygen, and with a
(Halothanum) vial 50ml mixture of nitrous oxide and oxygen. First
increasing from 0.5% to 3% with a gradual
decrease to 1.5% and then to 0.5%.
11. Isoflurane Solution for inhalation in Inhalation, the initial concentration of
(Isofluranum) vial 125 ml 0.5%, with a subsequent increase to 1.5-
3% surgical level of anesthesia is achieved
and a decrease of 1-2.5 in combination
with a mixture of oxygen/70% nitrous
oxide.
Non-inhalation anesthetics
12. Thiopental Vial 0.5 g; 1 g IV 20-30 ml 2% solution
sodium
(Thiopentalum
natrium)
13. Ketamine Amp. 5% 10 ml IV 2 mg/kg
(Ketaminum) Vial 1% 20 ml IM till 6-10 mg/kg
14. Propofol Vial 1% emulsion 20 ml IV 2 mg/kg for 60 sec
(Propofolum)
15. Sodium Amp. 20% 10 ml IV from 50-70 mg/kg to 70-120 mg/kg
oxybutyrate depending on the condition
(Natrii
oxybutiras)
Alcohols
16. Ethyl alcohol A mixture of alcohol and Externally 20-40% solution;
(Spiritus water (95%, 90%, 70%, IV 20-33% solution (in sterile isotonic
aethylicus) 40%) sodium chloride solution)
Remedies for alcoholism
17. Disulfiram Tab. 0.15 g; 0.25 g 0.5 g daily, gradually reducing the dose to
(Disulfiramum) 0.15-0.1 g per day
18. Apomorphine Amp. 1% 1 ml SC 0.002-0.005 g
hydrochloride
(Apomorphini
hydrochloridum)
Lidocaine
79
Novocaine
Enterosgel
Thiopental sodium
Propofol
Teturam
Apomorphine hydrochloride

Preparation Pharmacological Indications for use Side effects
group
Ketamine
Sodium
oxybutyrate
80
Sevoflurane
Propofol
Thiopental sodium
Ethyl alcohol
Disulfiram
Apomorphine hydrochloride
Halothane
Isoflurane
Fill in the table “Pharmacology and toxicology of ethyl alcohol”
Organs and Effects that develop with the Effects that develop when alcohol
systems introduction of alcohol in small is administered in toxic doses
doses
Digestive organs
Cardiovascular
system
81
CNS
1. Agents for superficial local anesthesia.
2. Agents for infiltration local anesthesia.
3. Agents for conducting local anesthesia.
4. Agents used in poisoning as an adsorbent.
5. Agents used in poisoning to protect the gastric mucosa.
6. A drug for reflex excitation of respiration in case of fainting.
7. A drug to reduce bloating.
8. A drug used topically as a distraction therapy for radiculitis.
9. The drug is used mainly for induction of anesthesia.
10. The drug used in the treatment of alcoholism.

1. As a result of exposure to which A. Sensitive nerve endings

elements of the skin and mucous B. Epidermis
membranes develops terminal C. Subcutaneous fat
anesthesia? D. The walls of the capillaries
E. Actually the dermis
2. Under conditions of inflammation, the A. Local tissue acidosis

strength of the local anesthetic effect of B. Local tissue alkalosis
novocaine is reduced. Under what C. Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase
conditions in the inflammatory focus D. Activation of succinate dehydrogenase
there is a violation of the hydrolysis of E. Inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation
novocaine salt and the release of active
anesthetic-base?
82
3. To anesthetize the suturing of perineal A. Lidocaine hydrochloride
tears after childbirth, the woman was B. Papaverine hydrochloride
administered a local anesthetic from the C. Novocaine
group of substituted amides. Name this D. Bismuth nitrate basic (De-nol)
drug. E. Castor oil
4. For pain relief manipulations, the A. Lidocaine hydrochloride

dentist performed conduction B. Papaverine hydrochloride
anesthesia with a local anesthetic from C. Novocaine
the group of substituted amides. D. Bismuth nitrate basic (De-nol)
Identify this drug. E. Castor oil
5. A cardiologist complained of A. Lidocaine hydrochloride

palpitations. Based on the examination, B. Tannin
he was diagnosed with tachyarrhythmia C. Decoction of oak bark
and prescribed an arrhythmic drug from D. Bismuth nitrate basic (De-nol)
the group of local anesthetics. Identify E. Activated charcoal
this drug?
6. The harvester felt a sharp pain in his A. Dicaine

eye during the harvest. He was taken to B. Novocaine
hospital. What anesthetic could be used C. Lidocaine
to remove a foreign body from the eye? D. Trimecaine
E. Sovkain
7. The patient should be treated with a A. Lidocaine

local anesthetic to treat panaritium. B. Dicaine
History of allergy to novocaine. Which C. Anaesthesine (Benzocaine)
of the anesthetics do you use? D. Novocaine
E. Trimecaine
8. The patient was diagnosed with a A. Novocaine

genetically determined deficiency of B. Lidocaine
the enzyme butyrylcholinesterase. C. Trimecaine
Which local anesthetic is D. Sovkain
contraindicated for the patient? E. Anaesthesine (Benzocaine)
9. For infiltration anesthesia, the patient A. Novocaine

was used a drug that has N- B. Flax seeds
cholinoblocking action and C. Valerian tincture
anticholinesterase activity. Name this D. Infusion of spring mustard herb
drug. E. Korglikon
10. A patient with renal colic anesthesia A. Novocaine solution

was performed by paranephric B. Decoction of valerian root
blockade according to O.V. C. Menthol alcohol solution
Vishnevsky. What drug was D. Atropine sulfate solution
administered to the patient in this case? E. Infusion of salvia
11. A patient undergoing treatment with a A. Novocaine

sulfonamide drug, the dentist used a B. Lidocaine hydrochloride
83
means of conductive anesthesia, which C. Tannin
reduced the effectiveness of D. Decoction of oak bark
antimicrobial therapy. Which drug from E. Basic bismuth nitrate (De-nol)
the group of local anesthetics was
administered?
12. A patient undergoing treatment with A. Lidocaine hydrochloride

sulfonamides requires local anesthesia. B. Epinephrine
Which drug will you choose for C. Tannin
anesthesia? D. Novocaine
E. Silix
13. To conduct conduction anesthesia, the A. Ultracaine

patient is prescribed a combined drug B. Lidocaine hydrochloride
containing a local anesthetic of the C. Dicaine
group of substituted amides and D. Novocaine
adrenaline hydrochloride. Identify this E. Silix
drug.
14. A patient diagnosed with gastritis A. Anaesthesine (Benzocaine)

complains of epigastric pain. Which B. Ammonia solution
drug from the group of local anesthetics C. Enterosgel
will you prescribe to this patient to D. Lily of the valley tincture
eliminate the pain syndrome? E. Menthol solution
15. A patient suffering from hemorrhoids A. Anaesthesine (Benzocaine)

and complaining of severe pain B. Lidocaine
consulted a proctologist. What local C. Dicaine
anesthetic is prescribed by a doctor to D. Novocaine
relieve pain in rectal suppositories? E. Silix
16. After erroneous parenteral A. Washing of the mucous membrane with

administration of dicaine, the patient isotonic sodium chloride solution and
quickly developed signs of poisoning administration of analeptics.
by this substance. What emergency B. Gastric lavage with potassium
therapy measures should be taken in permanganate solution and administration of
this case? naloxone
C. Administration of atropine sulfate and
dipyroxime
D. Introduction of protamine sulfate
E. High siphon enema
17. The ophthalmologist prescribed the A. Adrenaline hydrochloride

patient eye drops, which include B. Tannin
dicaine and an agent that reduces the C. Novocaine
resorptive and toxic effects of the local D. Ultracaine
anesthetic. Determine the auxiliary E. Activated charcoal
component of eye drops:
18. A woman with a history of allergic A. Adrenaline hydrochloride

allergies consulted a surgeon. Which of B. Tannin
the following drugs is used in C. Novocaine
84
conjunction with local anesthetics to D. Ultracaine
prevent possible anaphylactic reactions: E. Activated charcoal
19. A child with alkaloid poisoning of plant A. Tannin solution

origin was hospitalized in the B. Eleutherococcus solution
toxicology department. Which of the C. Activated charcoal
following drugs precipitates alkaloids D. Decoction of oak bark
and is used for gastric lavage to reduce E. Basic bismuth nitrate (De-nol)
the absorption of toxins?
20. In a patient diagnosed with peptic ulcer, A. Bismuth nitrate basic (De-nol)
the doctor prescribed an astringent that B. Lidocaine hydrochloride
coagulates proteins, has C. Dicaine
antihelicobacterial and gastroprotective D. Novocaine
properties. Identify this drug. E. Silix
21. For the treatment of burns, the patient A. Tannin

is prescribed a drug from the group of B. Lidocaine hydrochloride
astringents in solution. Name this drug. C. Ammonia solution
D. Activated charcoal
E. Basic bismuth nitrate (De-nol)
22. As a result of the Chernobyl accident, A. Enterosorbents

the environment was contaminated with B. Anticoagulants
radionuclides and accumulated in the C. Analgesics
human body. Choose drugs that help D. Antidepressants
eliminate them from the body. E. Stimulants of leukopoiesis
23. An elderly man often has flatulence and A. Activated charcoal

bloating in the evening. Which of the B. Flax seeds
drugs for symptomatic therapy will you C. Potato mucus
prescribe in this case? D. Turpentine oil purification
E. Menthol solution
24. A woman with poisoning by an A. Activated charcoal

unknown substance was hospitalized in B. Tannin solution
the toxicology department. Which of C. Eleutherococcus solution
the following drugs should be used to D. Decoction of oak bark
adsorb the poison and reduce its entry E. Basic bismuth nitrate (De-nol)
into the body?
25. To reduce the intoxication syndrome A. Enterosgel

after chemotherapy, the patient was B. Activated charcoal
prescribed a course of treatment with C. Infusion of sage leaves
an adsorbent. Identify this drug. D. Bismuth nitrate basic
E. Tannin solution
26. An angina pectoris patient was A. Menthol alcohol solution

diagnosed with angina pectoris. The B. Eucalyptus extract
doctor prescribed a drug that irritates C. Ammonia solution
nerve endings and reflexively dilates D. Valerian tincture
coronary vessels. Identify a E. Tincture of dog nettle
85
preparation.
27. A woman who fainted in the admission A. Ammonia solution

department was given a first-aid agent B. Novocaine solution
that acts on peripheral nerve endings C. Anesthetic solution
and reflexively restores the activity of D. Tannin solution
the respiratory centre. Identify this E. Zinc sulfate solution
drug.
28. Which of these drugs when applied A. Menthol

topically narrows the superficial vessels B. Ammonia solution
of the mucous membrane, reflexively C. Purified turpentine oil
dilating coronary vessels? D. Infusion of chamomile flowers
E. Tannin
29. A man complained of a cough and A. Purified turpentine oil

difficulty passing sputum. Which drug B. Enterosgel
from the group of irritants for C. Sorbex
inhalation can be recommended to this D. Tannin
patient? E. Decoction of oak bark
30. For anesthesia during gallbladder A. Additive synergism

surgery, inhalation anesthesia was used, B. Potentiated synergism
which was administered after C. Competitive antagonism
introductory non-inhalation anesthesia D. Non-competitive antagonism
(sodium thiopental). What kind of drug E. Independent antagonism
interaction is observed?
31. For faster anesthesia, the patient used A. Summarized synergism

the following combination: nitrous B. Synergistic antagonism
oxide + fluorothane. What is the type of C. Potentiated synergism
drug interaction? D. Physical antagonism
E. Indirect synergism
32. For anesthesia during surgery, the A. Additive synergism

patient was administered drugs for non- B. Potentiated synergism
inhalation and inhalation anesthesia C. Competitive antagonism
(propanidide + fluorothane). What kind D. Non-competitive antagonism
of drug interaction is observed? E. Independent antagonism
33. A 40-year-old man underwent A. Fluorothane

inhalation anesthesia with volatile fluid B. Ether pro narcosis
during surgery on the abdominal C. Nitrous oxide
organs. Anesthesia occurred 5 minutes D. Propanidide
after the start of inhalation, without the E. Hexenal
stage of excitation. During anesthesia
there was a decrease in blood pressure,
bradycardia. Awakening after
anesthesia occurred quickly, without
postoperative depression. What
anesthetic was used?
86
34. During surgery for acute phlegmonous A. Ether pro narcosis
appendicitis, the patient was B. Fluorothane
administered a gaseous drug from the C. Thiopental sodium
group of drugs for inhalation D. Propanidide
anesthesia, which is characterized by a E. Sodium oxybutyrate
long stage of excitation. What drug was
administered to the patient?
35. A 48-year-old patient, M., was A. Nitrous oxide

diagnosed with an acute myocardial B. Fluorothane
infarction with severe pain. For C. Thiopental sodium
anesthesia, a drug from the group of D. Propanidide
drugs for inhalation anesthesia was E. Sodium oxybutyrate
introduced, which is characterized by a
pronounced analgesic effect and a long
stage of excitation. What drug was
36. For anesthesia during treatment of the A. Ketamine

burn surface, the patient was B. Nitrous oxide
intravenously administered a drug for C. Ether pro narcosis
short-term anesthesia. Anesthesia came D. Thiopental sodium
in a minute, during it increase in BP, E. Hexenal
tachycardia, increase in a tone of
skeletal muscles were observed. After
recovery from anesthesia, the patient
had disorientation, visual
hallucinations. What drug was
37. A 28-year-old woman went to the A. Propanidide

dentist for dental prosthetics. Because B. Hexenal
she was allergic to local anesthetics, her C. Sodium oxybutyrate
teeth had to be treated under general D. Thiopental sodium
anesthesia. Which drug should be used E. Fluorothane
for this, given the short duration of
manipulation?
38. The patient was given an intravenous A. Propanidide

drug for analgesia during the biopsy, B. Sodium oxybutyrate
which a minute later caused anesthesia C. Predion
lasting about 5 minutes. During D. Nitrous oxide
anesthesia, there was a slight decrease E. Fluorothane
in blood pressure and short-term
respiratory arrest, which quickly
recovered. What drug was used?
39. For general anesthesia, the A. 3-5 min

anesthesiologist prescribed propanidide B. 20-30 min
to the patient. What is the duration of C. 40-60 min
action of this drug? D. 1.5-2 hours
E. 30-40 sec
87
anesthesiologist prescribed propanidide B. 20-30 min
to the patient. What is the duration of C. 40-60 min
action of this drug? D. 1.5-2 hours
E. 30-40 sec

anesthesiologist prescribed the patient B. 5-10 min
intravenous thiopental sodium C. 10-15 min
anesthetic. What is the duration of D. 1.5-2 hours
action of this drug when administered E. 30-40 sec
intravenously?
42. To achieve sufficient muscle relaxation A. Fluorothane + tubocurarine chloride

during surgery, the anesthesiologist B. Sodium thiopental + fluorothane
performed potentiated anesthesia: C. Nitric oxide + ketamine
inhalation anesthesia + muscle relaxant. D. Fluorothane + fentanyl
Find this combination. E. Droperidol + ether
43. Significant skeletal muscle relaxation is A. Muscle relaxants

required to improve surgical access. B. Antispasmodics
Drugs of which pharmacological group, C. Ganglioblockers
of the following, potentiate this effect D. Sympatholytics
of anesthetics: E. Anticholinesterase
44. During surgery, a combination of A. Fluorothane + sodium thiopental

inhalation anesthetic and barbituric acid B. Promedol + fluorothane
derivative was used for general C. Nitric oxide + ketamine
anesthesia. Define this combination: D. Fluorothane + fentanyl
E. Droperidol + ether
45. A patient with a skull injury was A. Sodium oxybutyrate

admitted to the neurosurgical B. Fluorothane
department. He was diagnosed with C. Propanidide
concussion, cerebral edema, and D. Ketamine
hypoxia of brain tissue. Assign the E. Ether pro narcosis
patient medical anesthesia, which can
be used as a agent of combating
hypoxia.
46. The patient was admitted to the A. Sodium oxybutyrate

intensive care unit in a state of acute B. Hexenal
cerebral circulatory disorders. The C. Chloral hydrate
doctor prescribed a drug with sedative, D. Thiopental sodium
hypnotic, anesthetic, antihypoxic, E. Diazepam
muscle relaxant effect, which is used
for anesthesia and in the treatment of
sleep disorders. Identify a preparation.
47. After repeated surgery using the same A. Fluorothane

means for inhalation anesthesia, acute B. Ether pro narcosis
88
toxic hepatitis developed. What remedy C. Nitrous oxide
was used? D. Propanidide
E. Hexenal
48. Before performing inhalation A. Preventing the development of the

anesthesia with a gaseous substance excitation stage.
(fluorothane), a non-inhalation B. Stimulation of intestinal motility
anesthetic (ketamine) was administered C. Stimulation of the respiratory center
intravenously to patient M. What was D. Prevention of arrhythmia
the purpose of this? E. Potentiation of muscle relaxation
49. The patient was given intravenous A. Atropine sulfate

sodium thiopental for induction of B. Epinephrine hydrochloride
anesthesia, after which bronchospasm C. Proserine
developed and salivation increased. D. Dithylin
Which drug could prevent side effects? E. Anaprilin
50. Ethyl alcohol was administered to a A. Inhalation

patient with pulmonary edema. Which B. Cutaneous
route of administration of this drug was C. Intradermal
chosen? D. Subcutaneous
E. Intravenous
51. In order to warm up after hypothermia, A. Increased heat dissipation

the patient used a solution of ethyl B. Decreased heat dissipation
alcohol orally. How does ethyl alcohol C. Increases heat production
affect thermoregulation? D. Decreased heat production
E. Decreased heat and heat production
52. After internal intake of ethyl alcohol, A. Euphoria

the patient developed psycho-emotional B. Abstinence
arousal. What changes in the functional C. Tachyphylaxis
state of man are most characteristic of D. Tolerance
this stage of the drug: E. Dependence
53. In the narcological department of the A. Alcoholism

psychoneurological hospital the patient B. Acute poisoning by ethyl alcohol
was prescribed teturam. Which of the C. Addiction
following diseases may be an indication D. Acute morphine poisoning
for its use? E. Alcoholic psychosis
54. The patient was prescribed a drug that A. Alcoholic beverages

has a side teturam-like effect. What B. Cheese
foods should be excluded from the diet C. Milk
of this patient? D. Citrus
E. Meat
55. The patient prescribed alcohol to a A. Blocks the enzyme acetaldehyde

patient with alcohol dependence. What dehydrogenase, which leads to the blockage of
are the mechanisms of action of this the metabolism of ethyl alcohol and the
drug? accumulation of acetaldehyde
B. Activates the enzyme alcohol
89
dehydrogenase and stops the oxidation of ethyl
alcohol
C. Sensitizes the body to alcohol.
D. Stimulates the CNS.
E. Facilitates the withdrawal syndrome
56. The patient consumed a small amount A. Accumulation of acetaldehyde

of alcohol during the course of B. Allergic reaction
metronidazole treatment, as a result of C. Neuralgic disorders
which severe poisoning developed. D. Cardiovascular insufficiency
Explain the cause of poisoning: E. Renal dysfunction
90
Topic 8. Analgesics
1. Classification of analgesics. The mechanism of analgesia.

2. Pharmacology of narcotic analgesics.
2.1. Classification of narcotic analgesics by affinity for opiate receptors.
2.2. Mechanism of action.
2.3. Pharmacology of Morphine hydrochloride. Features of the impact on the CNS,
gastrointestinal tract and other systems.
2.4. Comparative characteristics of Omnopon, Codeine phosphate, Promedol, Fentanyl,
Pentazocine.
2.5. Indications for use.
2.6. Side effects.
2.7. Acute poisoning by narcotic analgesics, clinical manifestations.
2.8. Poisoning measures. Characteristics of Nalorphine hydrochloride, Naloxone.
2.9. Clinical manifestations of drug dependence, the concept of withdrawal syndrome,
methods of treatment.
2.10. Drug addiction as a medical and social problem.
2.11. Non-opiate narcotic analgesics.
3. Pharmacology of non-narcotic analgesics.
3.1. Classification by chemical structure.
3.2. Mechanism of analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory action.
3.3. Comparative characteristic.
3.4. Complications of therapy that occur when taking non-narcotic analgesics.
3.5. Features of drugs that block mainly cyclooxygenase-2.

I. Opioid (narcotic) analgesics
1. Opiate receptor agonists: 2. Agonists-antagonists:
a) Opium derivatives - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________ 3. Opioid receptor antagonists:
- ___________________________
b) Synthetic opiates - ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________ 4. Painkillers with mixed type of action:
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
II. Non-opioid (non-narcotic) analgesics

1. Derivatives of salicylic acid: 7. Derivatives of naphthylpropionic acid:
- ____________________________ - ____________________________
- ____________________________ 8. Aniline derivatives:
- ____________________________ - ____________________________
91
2. Pyrazolone derivatives: 9. Derivatives of heteroarylacetic acid:
- ____________________________ - ____________________________
3. Derivatives of anthranilic acid: 10. Oxicami:

- ____________________________ - ____________________________
- ____________________________
11. Coxibs:
4. Derivatives of indoleacetic acid: - ____________________________
- ____________________________ - ____________________________
- ____________________________
5. Derivatives of phenylacetic acid:
- ____________________________ 12. Methanesulfonamides:
- ____________________________ - ____________________________
6. Derivatives of phenylpropionic acid:

- ____________________________
- ____________________________
№ Name Medicinal form, Application method

preparation dose of the drug
Opioid analgesics (opiate receptor agonists)
1. Morphine granules (slow release): 20 mg- PO 0.01 g
(Morphinum) 200 mg (morphine sulfate)
injection: 10 mg (1%) SC 0.01 g
(morphine hydrochloride or
morphine sulfate) 1 ml in
ampoules
solution for oral administration:
10 mg (morphine hydrochloride
or morphine sulfate)/5 ml
tablets (prolonged release): 10
mg-200 mg (morphine sulfate or
hydrochloride)
tablets: 5 mg; 10 mg (morphine
sulfate or hydrochloride)
2. Codeine tablets: 30 mg (phosphate) PO 0.03-0.06 g every 4 hours, the
(Codeinum) maximum daily dose is 240 mg.
3. Trimeperedine tablets: 25 mg PO 0.0025 g
(Trimeperidinum) injection: 10 mg (1 %) 1 ml in SC 0.01-0.02 g
– Promedol ampoules
(Promedolum)
4. Fentanyl transdermal patch: 12 μg/h; 25 Transdermal
(Phentanylum) μg/h; 50 μg/h; 75 μg/h; 100 μg/h
solution for injection: 0.05 For premedication and in the
mg/ml (0.005%) in 2 ml postoperative period IM 1-2 ml
ampoules (0.05-0.1 mg of fentanyl); for
induction of anesthesia IV 2–4 ml
(0.1–0.2 mg of fentanyl).
Neuroleptanalgesia – IV 4-12 ml
92
(0.2-0.6 mg of fentanyl);
To reduce severe pain – IM or IV
0.5-1-2 ml (0.025-0.05-0.1 mg).
Agonists-antagonists of opioid receptors
5. Methadone tablets: 5 mg; 10 mg PO 0.02-0.04 g 1-2 times a day.
(Methadonum) concentrate for solution for oral
use: 5 mg/ml; 10 mg/ml
(hydrochloride)
solution for oral administration:
5 mg/ml; 10 mg/ml; 5 mg/5 ml;
10 mg/5 ml (hydrochloride) or
1 mg/ml in vial 200 ml or 1000
ml
6. Tramadol capsules: 500 mg PO 0.05 g
(Tramadolum) solution for injection: 5% in 1 SC, OM or IV infusion 50-100
ml and 5 ml ampoules mg
rectal suppositories: 50 mg PR 100 mg 2-3 times a day
Antagonists of opioid receptors

7. Naloxone injection: 400 μg (0.04%; 0.4 SC, IM or IV 0.4-0.8 mg
(Naloxonum) mg) (hydrochloride) 1 ml in Acute opiate overdose: the initial
ampoules dose is 0.4-2 mg IV or IM
Non-opioid (non-narcotic) analgesics
8. Metamizole injections: 500 mg/ml (50%) in IM, IV 1-2 ml 1-3 times per day
sodium 1 ml, 2 ml in ampoules
(Metamizolum
natricum)
9. Paracetamol solution for oral administration:
(Paracetamolum) 30mg/ml; 120 mg/5 ml;
125 mg/5 ml in vial 100 ml
solid oral drug form: 100 mg- PO 0.2-0.5 g every 4-6 hours
500 mg
solution for infusion: 10 mg/ml IV infusion
in vial 20ml; 50 ml; 100 ml PR 0.1-0.25 g 1-4 times per day
suppositories: 80 mg, 100 mg,
150 mg
10. Diclofenac injection: 25 mg/ml (2.5%) 3 ml IM 75 mg
in ampoules
tablets: 25 mg PO 25-50 mg
11. Dexketoprofen tablets: 25 mg PO 12.5 mg every 4-6 times
(Dexketoprofenum) hours or 25 mg every 8 hours
Daily dose is 75 mg
12. Acetylsalicylic suppositories: 50 mg-150 mg PR
acid (Acidum tablets: 100 mg-500 mg; 75- PO 0.25-1 g; 0.075-0.1 g
acetylsalicylicum) 300 mg (antiplatelet action)
13. Mefenamic acid capsules: 250 mg; 500 mg PO 0.25-0.5 g 3-4 times per day
(Acidum tablets: 500 mg
mefenamicum)
14. Ketorolac tablets: 10 mg PO 10 mg every 4-6 hours
(Ketorolacum) injections: 3% 1 ml in ampoules IM 10-60 mg
eye drops: 0.5 % 10 ml
93
15. Indometacin eye drops: 0.1 % 5 ml 1 drop 4 times per day
(Indometacinum)
16. Ibuprofen solution or suspension for oral PO 0.2-0.4 g
(Ibuprofenum) application: 200 mg/5 ml Do not prescribe to children
tablets: 200 mg; 400 mg; under 3 months
600 mg
solution for injection: 5 mg/ml
17. Naproxen tablets: 275 mg; 550 mg PO 1 tablet 2 times per day
(Naproxenum) gel: 100 mg/g (10%) in tubes of External
50 ml
18. Meloxicam tablets: 7.5 mg; 15 mg PO 1 tablet 1 time a day
(Meloxicamum) suppositories: 15 mg PR
solution for injection: 1%; 1.5% IM 10-15 mg 1 time per day
1.5 ml in ampoules (contraindicated IM!)
19. Celecoxib capsules: 100 mg; 200 mg PO 0.1-0.2 g 1-2 times per day
(Celecoxibum)
20. Nimesulide tablets: 100 mg PO 0.1 g 1-2 times a day
(Nimesulidum) gel: 10 mg/g (1%) in tubes of External
30 ml
Morphine hydrochloride
Promedol
Omnopon
Fentanyl
Methadone
Naloxone
94
Meloxicam
Acetylsalicylic acid
Metamizole sodium
Diclofenac-Natrium (tabl.)
Diclofenac-Natrium (gel)
Paracetamol (syrup)
Paracetamol (supp.)
Celecoxib
95

Preparation Pharmacological Indications for use Side effects
group
Morphine
hydrochloride
Promedol
Fentanyl
Naloxone
hydrochloride
in dose 500 mg
Metamizole sodium
Diclofenac-Natrium
Paracetamol
Celecoxib
96
Meloxicam
1. Medicines to reduce pain in cancer.
2. Narcotic analgesic, mainly used for neuroleptanalgesia.
3. Narcotic analgesic used to treat cough.
4. Drugs used in acute poisoning by narcotic analgesics.
5. Medicines for the treatment of headache.
6. Drugs used to reduce body temperature in acute respiratory viral infection.

1. A 40-year-old patient with a diagnosis of renal A. Narcotic analgesics

colic was admitted to the surgical department. B. Sympatholytics
Drugs of which pharmacological group should C. Adrenoblockers
be prescribed in order to reduce severe pain and D. Non-narcotic analgesics
prevent painful shock? E. M-cholinomimetics
2. A patient with acute myocardial infarction was A. Stimulation of opiate receptors

admitted to the intensive care unit and morphine B. Blockade of opiate receptors
hydrochloride was administered to reduce pain. C. Phosphodiesterase blockade
The mechanism of action of morphine D. Stimulation of adenylate cyclase
hydrochloride is due to: E. Cholinesterase blockade
3. Patient L., 60 years old, has lung cancer with A. Morphine hydrochloride
multiple metastases. Choose a drug to reduce B. Diclofenac-Natrium
pain in this patient C. Analgin
D. Acetylsalicylic acid
E. Paracetamol
4. A 65-year-old woman with a fracture of the A. Promedol

lower extremities was prescribed a drug from B. Piracetam
the group of narcotic analgesics. Name the drug. C. Heparin
97
D. Cinnarizine
E. Furosemide
5. For labor pain, the doctor prescribed a narcotic A. Promedol

analgesic – a derivative of phenylpiperidine. B. Morphine hydrochloride
What is this drug? C. Fentanyl
D. Paracetamol
E. Analgin
6. The patient has an acute myocardial infarction A. Narcotic analgesic + neuroleptic

accompanied by persistent chest pain. The B. Narcotic analgesic + non-narcotic
ineffectiveness of the administered drugs gives analgesic
the doctor reason to perform neuroleptanalgesia. C. Narcotic analgesic + M-
Combinations of which drugs are prescribed for cholinoblocker
neuroleptanalgesia? D. Narcotic analgesic + ganglioblocker
E. Narcotic analgesic + M-
cholinomimetic
7. A patient with gastric tumour and lung A. Constipation

metastases was prescribed morphine B. Bradycardia
hydrochloride, after long-term use can be C. Cough
diagnosed: D. Tachycardia
E. Increased blood pressure
8. A person who has been taking morphine A. Abstinence

hydrochloride for a long time cannot suddenly B. Cumulation
stop using it, as this causes mental and somatic C. Sensitization
dysfunction. What is the syndrome of various D. Tachyphylaxis
disorders called refusal to take certain E. Idiosyncrasy
substances?
9. A patient diagnosed with an inoperable ovarian A. Physical and mental dependence

tumor was prescribed promedol. At long B. Sensitization
introduction narcotic analgesics cause: C. Cumulation
D. Mental dependence
E. Dysbacteriosis
10. A drug-addicted patient wants to get rid of A. Euphoria

addiction and is interested in what the B. Tolerance
development of drug addiction is connected C. Abstinence
with. D. Dysbacteriosis
E. Sensitization
11. 2-3 hours after parenteral administration of the A. Morphine hydrochloride

drug, the patient developed a comatose state, B. Aminazine
Cheyne-Stokes respiration is observed, the knee C. Sibazon
reflex is preserved. What drug could have D. Analgin
caused the poisoning in this case? E. Phenobarbital
12. An unconscious man was taken to the Hospital A. Naloxone hydrochloride

ER, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, pupils narrowed, B. Apomorphine hydrochloride
knee reflex preserved. He was diagnosed with C. Calcium chloride
98
morphine hydrochloride poisoning. Prescribe D. Protamine sulfate
antidote therapy. E. Unithiol
13. A patient with symptoms of acute morphine A. Potassium permanganate

poisoning was admitted to the intensive care B. Sodium bicarbonate
unit. Which of the following drugs should be C. Cordiamine
prescribed for gastric and intestinal lavage in D. Decoction of oak bark
this situation? E. Tannin
14. To the patient with acute poisoning by morphine A. Gastric lavage with potassium
hydrochloride it is expedient to appoint: permanganate and administration of
naloxone hydrochloride
B. Gastric lavage with tannin
C. Gastric lavage with sodium
bicarbonate
D. Gastric lavage with saline
E. Gastric lavage with unithiol
15. A patient with opium poisoning was prescribed A. Blockade of opiate receptors
naloxone hydrochloride. What is the effect of B. Stimulation of adenylate cyclase
naloxone? C. Cholinesterase blockade
D. Stimulation of opiate receptors
E. Blockade of phosphodiesterase
16. A woman who consulted a gynecologist with A. Non-narcotic analgesics

complaints of painful menstruation, the doctor B. Ganglioblockers
recommended taking the drug from the group: C. Adrenomimetics
D. Narcotic analgesics
E. M-cholinoblockers
17. A patient with a high temperature was admitted A. Acetylsalicylic acid

to the infectious department. The patient was B. Analgin
prescribed a non-narcotic analgesic from the C. Ibuprofen
group of salicylic acid derivatives. Name the D. Paracetamol
drug. E. Diclofenac-Natrium
18. A patient with a respiratory disease with a high A. Acetylsalicylic acid

body temperature used an antipyretic agent – a B. Paracetamol
derivative of salicylic acid. The temperature C. Diclofenac-Natrium
dropped, but nausea, epigastric pain, and D. Analgin
vomiting of blood appeared. What drug can E. Mefenamic acid
cause such side effects?
19. A patient with angina to prevent thrombosis, the A. Blockade of cyclooxygenase-1

doctor prescribed a non-narcotic analgesic with B. Cholinesterase blockade
antiplatelet properties. The patient soon C. MAO blockade
developed nausea and abdominal pain. What D. Local irritant action
causes these side effects and antiplatelet effects? E. Blockade of cyclooxygenase-2
20. The patient recommended taking acetylsalicylic A. Antiplatelet

acid for 3-4 months after acute myocardial B. Antipyretic
infarction. What effect of acetylsalicylic acid did C. Analgesic
99
the doctor expect? D. Anti-inflammatory
E. Antispasmodic
21. A patient with acute respiratory viral disease and A. Paracetamol

a body temperature of 39.5°C was admitted to B. Ambroxol
the infectious department. Which drug should be C. Salbutamol
prescribed as an antipyretic? D. Epinephrine hydrochloride
E. Retabolil
22. In the exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis, a A. Celecoxib

patient with a history of chronic gastritis was B. Indomethacin
prescribed a selective COX-2 blocker. Name C. Butadione
this drug. D. Piroxicam
E. Diclofenac-Natrium
23. A 48-year-old woman suffers from peptic ulcer A. Celecoxib

disease of the duodenum. She went to the doctor B. Acetylsalicylic acid
about the pain syndrome with radiculitis. Which C. Diclofenac sodium
selective COX-2 blocker should she be D. Indomethacin
prescribed? E. Analgin
24. The doctor prescribed Diclofenac-Natrium to a A. Peptic ulcer

patient with rheumatism. Due to the B. Angina pectoris
exacerbation of concomitant disease, the drug C. Bronchitis
was cancelled. What disease is a D. Diabetes mellitus
contraindication to the appointment of E. Hypertensive disease
diclofenac sodium?
25. A 55-year-old patient on the 4th day of A. Blockade of cyclooxygenase-1

treatment with diclofenac sodium developed B. Decreased phosphodiesterase activity
gastric bleeding as a result of gastric ulcer. What C. Stimulation of adenylate cyclase
is the ulcerogenic effect of the drug related to? D. Blocking cyclooxygenase-2
E. Cholinesterase blockade
26. A 4-year-old child was hospitalized in the A. Promedol

orthopedic department with a fracture of the B. Analgin
tibia with displacement. Analgesia is required C. Morphine hydrochloride
before repositioning the fragments. Which drug D. Panadol
should you choose? E. Paracetamol
27. A drug addict with an overdose of narcotic A. Depression of the respiratory centre
analgesics was hospitalized in the intensive care B. Renal failure
unit. Applied resuscitation measures were C. Hepatic failure
ineffective - the patient died. As a result, most D. Collapse
likely, death occurred? E. Bronchospasm
28. The patient went to the doctor with complaints A. Celecoxib

of pain and restriction of movement in the knee B. Diclofenac sodium
joints. Which of the nonsteroidal anti- C. Promedol
inflammatory drugs is better to prescribe, given D. Acetylsalicylic acid
the presence of a history of chronic E. Butadione
gastroduodenitis?
100
29. A patient diagnosed with angina pectoris A. Acetylsalicylic acid
receiving isosorbide mononitrate was B. Nitroglycerin
additionally prescribed a drug with a C. Anaprilin
disaggregating effect. Identify a preparation D. Nifedipine
E. Validol
30. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis was A. Peptic ulcer

prescribed a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory B. Ischemic heart disease
drug diclofenac sodium. After some time of its C. Diabetes mellitus
use, the patient had an exacerbation of D. Hypertensive disease
comorbidities, which forced to cancel the drug. E. Bronchial asthma
What concomitant disease could lead to drug
withdrawal?
31. Patient with rheumatoid arthritis has taken A. Leukopenia

diclofenac sodium. After another blood test, the B. Leukemia
doctor cancelled this drug. What blood C. Increased hemocoagulation
complication did diclofenac sodium cause? D. Decreased hemocoagulation
E. Eosinophilia
32. A patient who has suffered a myocardial A. Decreased platelet aggregation

infarction is prescribed acetylsalicylic acid 75 B. Reducing inflammation
mg daily. What is the purpose of the drug? C. Pain reduction
D. Lowering the temperature
E. Dilation of coronary vessels
33. A 55-year-old patient on the 4th day of treatment A. Reduction of prostaglandin E1

with diclofenac sodium developed gastric formation
bleeding as a result of gastric mucosal ulcer. B. Reduction of prostacyclin formation
What is the ulcerogenic effect of the drug C. Reduction of leukotriene formation
related to? D. Reducing the formation of cyclic
endoperoxides
E. Reduction of thromboxane formation
34. The patient after long-term use of the drug A. Acetylsalicylic acid
prescribed for acute respiratory disease had the B. Vitamin C
following symptoms: headache, dizziness, C. Naphthyzin
tinnitus, nausea, epigastric pain. What drug D. Bromhexine
could cause such a clinical picture? E. Midantan
101
Topic 9. Neuroleptics, tranquilizers, hypnotics and sedatives
1. Psychotropic drugs: classification, general characteristics.

2. Neuroleptics:
2.1. Classification of neuroleptics by chemical structure.
2.2. General characteristics.
2.3. The mechanism of antipsychotic action of neuroleptics.
2.4. Pharmacological effects of Chlorpromazine (Aminazine).
2.5. Indications for use, comparative characteristics of neuroleptics.
2.6. Side effects of neuroleptics.
2.7. Combined use with drugs of other pharmacological groups. The concept of
neuroleptanalgesia.
3. Pharmacology of tranquilizers:
3.1. Classification.
3.2. The mechanism of tranquilizing action, the concept of benzodiazepine receptors.
3.3. Pharmacology of Diazepam (Sibazon), Phenazepam, Gidazepam and Chlozepide.
Comparison. The concept of atypical tranquilizers. Daytime tranquilizers.
3.4. Indications and contraindications to the use of tranquilizers, side effects. Drug
dependence.
3.5. Combined use with drugs of other pharmacological groups. The concept of
tranquilloangesia.
4. Pharmacology of Lithium salts:
4.1. Pharmacodynamics and indications for the use of Lithium carbonate.
4.2. Side effects, acute poisoning with lithium salts. Help with poisoning.
5. Sedatives:
5.1. Classification of sedatives.
5.2. Indications for use and side effects.
5.3. Pharmacology of Bromine salts. Bromism – clinical signs, treatment and prevention.
5.4. Sedatives of plant origin (Valerian’s tincture, Corvaldin).
6. Hypnotics. Modern ideas about the nature of sleep. The main types of insomnia.
Classification of hypnotics by chemical structure and their general characteristics.
6.1. Mechanism of action (Phenobarbital, Nitrazepam, Zopiclone and Zolpidem).
6.2. Comparative characteristics of hypnotics of different groups.
6.3. Indications for use.
6.4. Side effects (recoil syndrome, aftereffects, drug dependence).
6.5. Acute barbiturate poisoning, remedies.

I. Neuroleptics (antipsychotic drugs)
1. Phenothiazine derivatives: 3. Butyrophenone derivatives:
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
102
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ 4. Benzamide derivatives:
2. Thioxanthene derivatives: - ___________________________
- ___________________________ 5. Benzodiazepine derivatives:
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
II. Tranquilizers (anxiolytic or antianxiety drugs)

1. Benzodiazepine derivatives: 2. Tranquilizers of another structure:
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________
III. Sedatives drugs:

1. Bromine salts: 3. Combined drugs:
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
2. Plant extracts: - ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
IV. Lithium salts: V. Hypnotic drugs:

- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
Neuroleptics
1. Chlorpromazine injection: 25 mg IM 0.1 g
(Chlorpromazinum) (hydrochloride)/ml (2.5%) of 2 IV 0.025-0.05 g
– Aminazine ml in ampoules
(Aminazinum) solution for oral administration: PO 0.025-0.1 g 2-3 times a day
25 mg (hydrochloride) / 5 ml after meals
tablets: 10 mg; 25 mg; 50 mg;
100 mg (hydrochloride)
2. Fluphenazine injection: 25 mg (decanoate IM 0.5-2 ml 1 time in 1-3 weeks
(Fluphenazinum) – or enanthate) 1 ml (2.5%) in
Phtorphenazine ampoules
(Phtorphenazinum)
3. Haloperidol injection: 5 mg (0.05%) in 1 ml IM 0.002-0.005 g
(Haloperidolum) ampoules PO 0.0015-0.005 g 2-3 times a
tablets: 1.5 mg; 2 mg; 5 mg day
4. Clozapine solid oral drug form (coated): PO 0.05 g 2-3 times a day
(Clozapinum) 25-200 mg
5. Risperidone solid oral drug form (coated): PO 2 mg 1-2 times a day
(Risperidonum) 0.25-6 mg
103
oral solution: 1 mg/ml
6. Olanzapine tablets: 5 mg; 10 mg PO 10 mg once a day
(Olanzapinum)
7. Sulpiride tablets: 50 mg; 100 mg; 200 mg 0.2-1.2 g per day for 2-3 times
(Sulpiridum) capsules: 50 mg; 100 mg
injection: 5% 2 ml in ampoules IM 200-800 mg per day
8. *Droperidol injection: 0,25% 5 ml; 10 ml IM or IV 1-2 – 5-10 ml
(Droperidolum)
Tranquilizers
9. Gidazepam tablets: 20 mg; 50 mg PO 0.02-0.05 g 2-3 times a day
(Gidazepamum)
10. Phenazepam tablets: 0.5 mg; 1 mg PO 0.00025-0.0005 g 2-3 times a
(Phenazepamum) day
11. Diazepam gel or rectal solution: 5 mg/ml
(Diazepamum) in tubes of 0.5 ml; 2 ml; 4 ml
solution for injection: 5 mg/ml IM 10-20 mg
2 ml IV 10-30 mg
tablets: 5 mg; 10 mg PO 5-15 mg 1-2 times a day
12. *Nitrazepam tablets: 5 mg; 10 mg PO 0.005-0.01 g 1-2 times a day
(Nitrazepamum)
13. Clonazepam tablets: 5 mg; 10 mg; 20 mg 4-8 mg per day for 3-4 times a
(Clonazepamum) day.
Drugs used to treat mania (normotimics)
14. Lithium carbonate solid oral drug form (coated): PO 0.3-0.6 g after meals
(Lithii carbonas) 300 mg
Sedatives
15. Valerian’s tincture vials 30 ml PO 20-30 drops 2-3 times a day
(Tinctura
Valerianae)
16. Motherwort’s vials 25 ml PO 30-50 drops 3-4 times a day
tincture
(Tinctura Leonuri)
17. Peony tincture vials 100 ml PO 15-20 drops 2-3 times a day
(Tinctura
paeoniae)
18. Sodium bromide powder PO 0.1-1 g 3-4 times a day
(Natrii bromidi) solution for oral administration:
3%
Hypnotic drugs
19. Zopiclone tablets: 7.5 mg PO 1 tablet 15-30 minutes before
(Zopiclonum) bedtime
* registration in Ukraine is absent as of January 2018
Chlorpromazine hydrochloride
Sulpiride
104
Droperidol
Risperidone
Diazepam
Phenazepam
Gidazepam
Nitrazepam
Valerian’s tincture
5. Fill in the table 1

Preparation Indications for use Side effects
Chlorpromazine
105
Sulpiride
Droperidol
Risperidone
Olanzapine
Diazepam
Phenazepam
Gidazepam
Nitrazepam
Fill in the table

Preparation Mechanism of action
Chlorpromazine
Sulpiride
106
Droperidol
Risperidone
Olanzapine
Diazepam
Phenazepam
Gidazepam
Nitrazepam
1. A drug for the elimination of psychomotor arousal in psychosis, which is a derivative of
butyrophenone.
2. The drug is used in combination with fentanyl for neuroleptanalgesia.
3. A neuroleptic from the group of phenothiazine, which has a pronounced antipsychotic effect.
4. Benzodiazepine series drug for the treatment of neurosis.
5. A tranquilizer with a pronounced muscle relaxant effect, which is used in status epilepticus.
6. A sedative that has a pronounced antispasmodic effect.
7. A drug used to prevent mania.

1. A woman complained of a sleep disorder A. Nitrazepam

107
associated with increased psycho-emotional B. Etaminal sodium
stress. Which remedy should be prescribed? C. Chloral hydrate
D. Sodium oxybutyrate
E. Diphenhydramine
2. The woman complains that after a nervous A. Nitrazepam

breakdown she sleeps poorly. Which of the B. Phenobarbital
following remedies should be preferred for C. Etaminal sodium
the treatment of insomnia in this case? D. Barbamyl
E. Barbital
3. The patient came to the reception with A. Nitrazepam

complaints of insomnia caused by emotional B. Phenobarbital
disorders. The doctor found that insomnia C. Chloral hydrate
was associated with a neurotic condition. D. Etaminal sodium
Make a rational choice of sleeping pills: E. Livodopa
4. The patient complains of insomnia, which A. Nitrazepam.

manifests itself in a violation of the process B. Etaminal sodium.
of falling asleep. The doctor prescribed a C. Chloral hydrate.
sleeping pill with a tranquilizing effect. D. Sodium oxybutyrate.
Identify this drug. E. Diphenhydramine
5. An 18-year-old patient went to the doctor A. Nitrazepam

with complaints of insomnia, which is B. Sodium valproate
manifested in difficult falling asleep. The C. Chloral hydrate
doctor prescribed a drug that causes sleep due D. Phenobarbital
to its tranquilizing effect. What sleeping pill E. Etaminal sodium
was prescribed?
6. The patient complains of insomnia, which A. Nitrazepam.

manifests itself in a violation of the process B. Etaminal sodium.
of falling asleep. The doctor prescribed a C. Chloral hydrate.
drug that causes sleep due to its tranquilizing D. Sodium oxybutyrate.
effect. Identify this drug. E. Diphenhydramine
7. A patient with neurosis and impaired sleep A. Nitrazepam

fell to the doctor. An agent that activates B. Aminazine
benzodiazepine receptors is prescribed. C. Sodium bromide
Identify this drug. D. Sodium valproate
E. Phenobarbital
8. The patient turned to the doctor with A. Donormil

complaints of disturbed sleep. A modern B. Nitrazepam
sleeping pill is prescribed, which blocks C. Sodium bromide
histamine and M-choline receptors and D. Sodium valproate
practically does not disrupt the structure of E. Phenobarbital
sleep. Identify this drug.
9. A patient who complained to a doctor about A. Zopiclone.

sleep disorders was prescribed an effective, B. Phenobarbital.
modern sleeping pill that has virtually no C. Thiopental sodium.
108
effect on the "fast sleep" phase. Identify a D. Diphenhydramine.
preparation. E. Aminazine
10. The patient prescribed nitrazepam to a patient A. Stimulation of benzodiazepine

complaining of insomnia. What is the receptors
mechanism of soporific action of this tool? B. Blockade of benzodiazepine
receptors
C. Blockade of GABA receptors
D. Blockade of histamine receptors
E. Stimulation of serotonin receptors
11. The patient prescribed nitrazepam to a patient A. Benzodiazepine receptors

complaining of insomnia. Influence on which B. Adrenoreceptors
structures of the central nervous system C. Cholinoreceptors
explains the hypnotic effect of the drug? D. Histamine receptors
E. Serotonin receptors
12. The patient prescribed nitrazepam to a patient A. Stimulates benzodiazepine

complaining of insomnia. How does the drug receptors
affect the receptors of the central nervous B. Stimulates GABA receptors
system? C. Stimulates histamine receptors
D. Stimulates D2-dopamine receptors
E. Stimulates serotonin receptors
13. The patient prescribed nitrazepam to a patient A. Addictive

suffering from insomnia. Insomnia B. Sensitization
disappeared for a while, but then it C. Cumulation
reappeared, despite the use of the tool. What D. Passion
phenomenon is associated with a decrease in E. Idiosyncrasy
the effect of nitrazepam?
14. A patient suffering from insomnia was taking A. Addictive

a sleeping pill. Insomnia disappeared for a B. Sensitization
while, but then it reappeared, despite the use C. Cumulation
of the drug. What phenomenon is associated D. Passion
with a decrease in the effect of the drug? E. Idiosyncrasy
15. For 3 months, a woman suffering from A. Physical and mental dependence
insomnia took barbiturates. After drug B. Tachyphylaxis
withdrawal at the woman insomnia resumed, C. Sensitization
appetite considerably decreased, there was an D. Addiction to drugs
aggression, a tremor of extremities. What E. Functional cumulation
complication of pharmacotherapy with
barbiturates occurred in the patient?
16. A woman who had been taking barbiturates A. Drug addiction

for insomnia for a long time went to the B. Tachyphylaxis
doctor. The patient complains of malaise that C. Sensitization
occurred after discontinuation of the drug – D. Addiction to drugs
insomnia, loss of appetite, irritability, tremor E. Functional cumulation
of the extremities. What complication of
pharmacotherapy with barbiturates indicates
109
such symptoms?
17. A patient who has been taking a sleeping pill A. Drug dependence
from the group of barbituric acid derivatives B. Tachyphylaxis
for a long time complains of feeling unwell C. Sensitization
after the drug has been discontinued – D. Addiction to drugs
insomnia, loss of appetite, aggression, and E. Functional cumulation
muscle weakness. What complication of
pharmacotherapy do such symptoms
indicate?
18. The patient has recurrent seizures with lack A. Diazepam

of consciousness between them (status B. Lamotrigine
epilepticus). What remedy in this case should C. Sodium valproate
be used in the first place to eliminate the D. Sodium bromide
court? E. Livodopa
19. The patient has recurrent seizures, with A. Tranquilizers

unconsciousness between them. Diagnosed B. Neuroleptics
status epilepticus. Which of the following C. Muscle relaxants
groups should be used in the first place to D. Sedatives
eliminate the court in this case? E. Analeptics
20. The woman sleeps badly after suffering a A. Nitrazepam

nervous breakdown. Which of the following B. Phenobarbital
sleeping pills should be preferred for the C. Etaminal sodium
treatment of insomnia? D. Barbamyl
E. Barbital
21. To a patient with insomnia caused by A. Nitrazepam

emotional disorders, the doctor prescribed a B. Phenobarbital
drug that causes sleep due to its tranquilizing C. Chloral hydrate
effect. What sleeping pill was prescribed to D. Etaminal sodium
the patient? E. Bromisoval
22. A 37-year-old patient suffering from A. Phenobarbital induction of

obliterative endarteritis of the vessels of the microsomal oxidation enzymes in the
lower extremities receives phenylin at a daily liver
dose of 60 mg / kg. Due to the manifestations B. Aliphatic hydroxylation of
of convulsive syndrome (history of TBI), phenobarbital
phenobarbital is prescribed, after the C. Conjugation of phenylin with
cancellation of which the patient developed glucuronic acid
nosebleeds. This complication is related to: D. Oxidative deamination of
phenylene
E. Inhibition by phenobarbital of
microsomal oxidation in the liver
23. A 17-year-old girl took a large dose of A. To increase renal excretion of

phenobarbital to commit suicide. Upon phenobarbital
arrival at the scene, the ambulance doctor B. To stimulate breathing
quickly rinsed the stomach, administered C. To normalize blood pressure
bemegrid and sodium bicarbonate solution D. To inactivate phenobarbital
110
intravenously. For what purpose did the E. For the awakening effect
doctor administer sodium bicarbonate?
111
Topic 10. Anticonvulsants. Drugs for the treatment of neurodegenerative diseases
1. Seizures as symptoms of various pathological conditions. The use of drugs of different

pharmacological groups to eliminate seizures (tranquilizers, muscle relaxants, hypnotics, narcotic
drugs, myotropic antispasmodics).
2. Antiepileptic drugs (Phenobarbital, phenytoin, Carbamazepine, Clonazepam,Ttopiramate,
Sodium valproate, Lamotrigine, Levetiracetam, Gabapentin).
2.1. Classification of antiepileptic drugs according to the indication.
2.2. Comparative characteristics, side effects of antiepileptic drugs.
3. Antiparkinsonian drugs (Livodopa/Carbidopa, Selegeline, Amantadine, Ropinerol,
Pramipexole, Pyribedil, Trihexyphenidyl).
3.1. Classification, basic mechanisms of action.
3.2. Use in clinical practice.
3.3. Drugs for the treatment of muscle spasticity (Baclofen, Midokalm, Benzodiazepines,
GABA-ergic drugs). General characteristics.
4. Agents that can be used in Alzheimer's disease, multiple sclerosis and amyotrophic lateral
sclerosis.
4.1. Central cholinesterase blockers (Donepezil, Rivastigmine, Galantamine), central M, N-
cholinomimetics (Choline alfoscerate)
4.2. NMDA receptor inhibitors (Memantine hydrochloride)
4.3. Metabolitotropic drugs (Glycine, L-lysine escinate, Cerebrolysin).

I. Antiepileptic drugs:
According to clinical indications
1. For the treatment of generalized forms of epilepsy:
a. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures (Grand c. Myoclonic
mail) - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ d. Febrile seizures
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
b. Absence (Petit mal) - ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________ e. Status epilepticus
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
2. For the treatment of non-generalized (partial) forms of epilepsy:
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
II. Antiparkinsonian rugs:

112
1. Activating dopaminergic influences:
a. Precursor of dopamine c. MAO-B inhibitors
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________
b. D-receptor agonist
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
2. Inhibiting glutamatergic influences:

- ___________________________
3. Inhibiting cholinergic influences:

- ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
Antiepileptic drugs
1. Phenobarbital injection: 200 mg/ml (sodium) PO 0.05-0.2 g a day
(Phenobarbitalum) solution
for oral use: 15 mg/5 ml
tablets: 5 mg-100 mg
2. Phenytoin injections: 50 mg/ml 5 ml in IV 0.25 g 2-3 times a day
(Phenytoinum) – vials (sodium salt) PO 0.117 g
Diphenin solution for oral administration
(Dipheninum) application: 25 mg-30 mg/5 ml
solid oral dosage form:
25 mg; 50 mg; 100 mg (sodium
salt)
tablets: 117 mg
chewable tablets: 50 mg
3. Carbamazepine suspension for oral application: PO 0.1-0.4 g 2-3 times a day
(Carbamazepinum) 100 mg/5 ml
tablets (chewable, divided):
100 mg; 200 mg
4. Lamotrigine tablets: 25 mg; 50 mg; 100 mg; PO 25-200 mg (to 700 mg per
(Lamotriginum) 200 mg day)
dispersible chewable tablets:
2 mg; 5 mg; 25 mg; 50 mg; 100
mg; 200 mg
5. Valproic acid solution/syrup for oral Syrup – PO, daily dose of syrup
(Acidum application: 57.64 mg/ml of 20-30 mg/kg for 2-3 doses per
valproicum) / 150 ml; 50 mg/ml per 100 ml; day
Sodium valproate 200 mg/5 ml
(Natrii valproas) tablets: 100 mg Tablets – PO 1.6-2.4 g per day
enteric-coated tablets: 200 mg; with meals for 1-2 intakes
113
300 mg; 500 mg (sodium
valproate)
injections: 100 mg/ml 4 ml, IV drop. Dissolve the ampoule
5 ml and 10 ml or vial in water for injections
lyophilisate for solution for
injections: 400 mg
6. Levetiracetam coated tablets: 250 mg; 500 mg; PO. Daily dose 0.5-1.5 for 2
(Levetiracetamum) 750 mg; 1,000 mg intakes (tablets, oral solution).
solution for oral application:
100 mg/ml 300 ml
injections: 100 mg/ml 5 ml IV. Dilute the concentrate for
infusion in 100 ml of saline,
administered drip 2 times a day
in doses equivalent to oral.
7. Gabapentin tablets: 100 mg; 300 mg; PO 0.3 g 3 times a day
400 mg
Antiparkinsonian rugs
8. Levodopa tablets: 250 mg; 500 mg PO 0.25 g 2-3 times a day
(Levodopum)
9. Levodopa + tablets: 100 mg + 10 mg; PO 0.25 g 3-4 times a day
Carbidopa 100 mg + 25 mg;
(Levodopum + 250 mg + 25 mg
Carbidopum)
10. *Amantadine tablets: 100 mg PO. Start with a dose of 0.1 one
(Amantadinum) g per day, gradually increasing
to 0.1 g twice a day
11. *Selegiline tablets: 5mg; 10 mg PO 5-10 mg once a day after
(Selegilinum) breakfest
12. Ropinirole tablets: 0.25 mg; 1 mg; 2 mg; PO. Start with 0.00025 g 3 times
(Ropinirolum) 3 mg; 4 mg; 8 mg a day with meals, if necessary,
increase to a daily dose of
0.024 g in three doses
13. Pramipexole prolonged-release tablets: 0.375 PO. Start with 0.000375 g once a
(Pramipexolum) mg; 0.75 mg; 1.5 mg; 2.25 mg; day, gradually increasing by
3 mg; 3.75 mg; 4.5 mg 0.00075 g per week. Maximum –
0.0045 g once a day
* registration in Ukraine is absent as of January 2018
Phenobarbital
Diphenin
Carbamazepine
114
Sodium valproate
Levodopa
Trihexyphenidyl
Cyclodol
Lamotrigine
Levetiracetam
5. Fill in the table 1
Preparation Pharmacological group Indications for use

Phenobarbital
Diphenin
Carbamazepine
115
Sodium valproate
Levodopa
Trihexyphenidyl
Cyclodol
Fill in the table 2
INDICATION
Agents Generalized Partial seizures Status Parkinson’s
seizures epilepticus disease
Phenobarbital
Diphenin
Carbamazepine
Trihexyphenidyl
Sodium
valproate
Diazepam
Levodopa +
Carbidopa
1. Derivative of barbituric acid, used to prevent generalized seizures.
2. Derivative of succinic acid, used to prevent partial seizures.
3. Benzodiazepine derivative used in status epilepticus.
116
4. Antiparkinsonian drug that inhibits the function of the cholinergic system.
5. Antiparkinsonian agent, which is a left-handed isomer of dioxyphenylalanine.
6. Antiepileptic drug with pronounced antiarrhythmic properties.
7. A drug to prevent most types of seizures.
8. A drug for the treatment of Parkinsonism from the group of central cholinergic blockers.

1. In the neurological clinic there is a patient A. Sodium valproate

suffering from generalized seizures (grand mal) B. Diazepam
with loss of consciousness, involuntary urination C. Aminazine
and subsequent amnesia. Which of the following D. Ethosuximide
should be used to treat grand mal? E. Amitriptyline
2. A 56-year-old woman is registered at a A. Ethosuximide

psychoneurological dispensary due to epilepsy, B. Phenobarbital
or rather petit mal seizures. Which drug is most C. Cyclodol
effective in this case? D. Livodopa
E. Diphenin
3. The doctor discussed with colleagues the use of A. Inhibition of GABA transferase
an antiepileptic drug – Sodium valproate. What enzyme activity
is the possible mechanism of action of the drug? B. Stimulation of the activity of the
enzyme GABA-transferase
C. Inhibition of Ca2+-dependent
ATPase activity
D. Stimulation of Ca2+-dependent
ATPase activity
E. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase
4. A man who developed focal epilepsy as a result A. Carbamazepine

of a traumatic brain injury was prescribed an B. Nitrazepam
antiepileptic drug, the therapeutic effect of C. Nootropil
which is the blockade of sodium channels. The D. Livodopa
drug is also widely used in neurological practice E. Zolpidem
for the treatment of trigeminal neuritis. Identify
the tool.
5. At the patient after an injury the generalized A. Antiepileptic

tonic-clonic spasms with loss of consciousness B. Antiparkinsonian
which then are replaced by the general C. Tranquilizers
depression of the central nervous system are D. Neuroleptics
117
periodically noted. What drugs should be E. Antidepressants
prescribed to the patient?
6. The patient has recurrent seizures with lack of A. Diazepam

consciousness between them (status epilepticus). B. Lamotrigine
What remedy in this case should be used in the C. Sodium valproate
first place to eliminate the court? D. Sodium bromide
E. Livodopa
7. Based on the patient's complaints of malaise and A. Parkinsonism

the results of the examination, the doctor B. Epilepsy
prescribed pathogenetic treatment: the drug C. Alcoholism
Livodopa. Which of these diseases was D. Schizophrenia
diagnosed in a patient? E. Depression
8. The doctor was approached by a woman (62 A. Livodopa

years old), who recently developed stiffness, B. Diphenin
constant tremor of the hands, muscle rigidity. C. Phenobarbital
Parkinson's disease was diagnosed and D. Sibazon
pathogenetic treatment was prescribed. Which E. Ethosuximide
of the following drugs was prescribed?
9. A patient went to the doctor about Parkinson's A. Livodopa

disease. It is known that the patient also suffers B. Cyclodol
from glaucoma. Which of the following drugs C. Atropine sulfate
should be preferred? D. Scopolamine hydrobromide
E. Metacin
10. A patient went to the doctor about Parkinson's A. Livodopa

disease. Given the concomitant pathology B. Cyclodol
(glaucoma) of the patient, the doctor chose a C. Atropine sulfate
drug that stimulates the synthesis of dopamine in D. Scopolamine hydrobromide
the CNS. Which of the following drugs has such E. Metacin
a mechanism of action?
11. A patient with parkinsonism was prescribed a A. Stimulation of dopamine synthesis

drug called Livodopa, which quickly improved B. Blockade of M-cholinoreceptors
his condition. What is the mechanism of action C. Stimulation of dopamine receptors
of this drug? D. Anticholinesterase action
E. Stimulation of M-cholinoreceptors
12. A woman suffering from parkinsonism was A. Stimulation of dopamine synthesis

prescribed the drug Livodopa. After some time, B. Blockade of M-cholinoreceptors
the patient's condition improved significantly. C. Stimulation of dopamine receptors
Determine the mechanism of action of the D. Anticholinesterase action
prescribed drug. E. Stimulation of M-cholinoreceptors
13. The patient went to the doctor with complaints A. Livodopa

of muscle rigidity, stiffness, constant tremor of B. Diphenin
the hands. Based on the examination, the doctor C. Phenobarbital
diagnosed Parkinson's disease. Make a rational D. Sibazon
choice of drug: E. Ethosuximide
118
14. A 70-year-old man with Parkinson's disease was A. Activation of the dopamine system
prescribed levodopa. A week later, the patient's B. Inhibition of the cholinergic system
condition improved significantly. What is the C. Inhibition of the histaminergic
mechanism of action of the drug? system
D. Inhibition of the serotonergic
system
E. Activation of the encephalin system
15. To treat Parkinson's disease, the doctor A. Cyclodol

prescribed a central choline blocker. Identify a B. Dithiline
preparation? C. Tubocurarine chloride
D. Cititon
E. Pentamine
119
Topic 11. Antidepressants, nootropic drugs, psychomotor stimulants and analeptics
1. Classification of antidepressants by mechanism of action and chemical structure

(Amitriptyline, Fluoxetine, Venlafaxine, Sertraline, Salbutiamine, Mirtazapine). Pharmacological
characteristics of antidepressants. Side effects of antidepressants.
2. Nootropic drugs. Classification of nootropic drugs. Possible mechanisms of action,
indications for use. Pharmacological characteristics and comparison of drugs of Piracetam, Aminalon,
Vinpocetine, Nicergoline, Pentoxifylline, Aminophenylbutyric acid, Ginkgo Biloba.
3. Adaptogens. Classification and pharmacological characteristics of adaptogens of plant and
animal origin (Ginseng tincture, Lemongrass tincture, liquid Eleutherococcus extract, liquid Levzei
extract).
4. Psychotropic stimulants. General characteristics of the group of psychostimulants.
Pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of Caffeine-sodium benzoate. Indications for use.
5. The concept of psychodysleptics and amphetamines. Formation of dependence, social
significance. Drugs that lead to addiction, drug and substance abuse.
6. Analeptics. Classification of analeptics and pharmacological characteristics of Caffeine
citrate, Sulfocamphocaine. Indications for use.

I. Antidepressants:
a. Non-selective monoamines (norepinephrine, serotonin) reuptake inhibitors (tricyclic
antidepressants)
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
c. Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
d. Dual serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
e. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
f. Atypical antidepressants
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
120
II. Psychostimulants
a. Phenylalkylamines b. Sydnonimines derivatives
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
c. Piperidine derivatives d. Methylxanthines
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
III. Nootropic drugs

a. Pyrolidone derivatives (Racetams) b. GABA derivatives
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
c. Derivatives of other amino acids d. Cerebral vasodilators
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
e. Antioxidants (direct- and indirect-acting) f. Neuropeptides and their analogues
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________
g. Ca2+-antagonists h. Drugs of different groups
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
IV. Actoprotectors V. Adaptogens

- ___________________________ a. Drugs of plant origin
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ b. Drugs of animal origin
- ___________________________
- ___________________________
1. Caffeine tablets: 200 mg PO 1 tablet 2-3 times a day
(Coffeinum) – injection: 100 mg/ml; IM or IV 100-200 mg
Caffeine-sodium 200 mg/ml 1 ml in ampoules
benzoate
(Caffeinum-natrii
benzoas)
2. Amitriptyline tablets: 10 mg; 25 mg; 75 mg PO 0.025-0.05 g tablets 3 times
(Amitriptylinum) (hydrochloride) a day
3. Venlafaxine tablets: 25 mg; 50 mg PO 25-50 mg
(Venlafaxinum)
4. Fluoxetine capsules: 20 mg PO 0.02 g
(Fluoxetinum)
5. Sertraline tablets: 50 mg; 100 mg PO 50-100 mg once a day
(Sertralinum)
6. Mirtazapine tablets: 30 mg PO 30 mg once a day
(Mirtazapinum)
121
7. Piracetam tablets: 200 mg PO 0.4-0.8 3 times a day
(Piracetamum) capsules: 400 mg
injection: 200 mg/ml 5 ml; IM or IV 0.4-1.2 g
10 ml in ampoules
8. Citicoline tablets: 500 mg PO 0.5 g 1-4 times a day
(Citicolinum) injection: 500 mg/4 ml; IM, IV 0.5-1.0 g
1000 mg/ml 4 ml in ampoules
9. Vinpocetine tablets: 15 mg PO 0.015 g 3 times a day
(Vinpocetinum) concentrate for solution for IV (drip); The contents of 2
solution for infusion: 5 mg/ml ampoules are diluted in 500 ml
2 ml in ampoules of isotonic solution
10. Nicergoline tablets: 10 mg PO 0.01 g 3 times a day
(Nicergolinum) lyophilisate for solution for IM 4 mg
injection: 4 mg in vial
11. Phenibut tablets: 250 mg PO 0.25-0.5 g 3 times a day
(Phenibutum) before meal
12. Aminalon tablets: 250 mg PO 0.25-1.0 g 3 times a day
(Aminalonum) before meal
13. Ginkgo biloba tablets, capsules: 40 mg; 80 mg; 1 tablet (capsules) 3 times a day
120 mg of dry extract
14. Ginseng tincture liquid for oral application: 15-25 drops 3 times a day
(Tinctura Ginsengi) 50 ml in vial
15. Eleutherococcus liquid for oral application: 50 20-30 drops 3 times a day
extract (Extractum ml in vial:
Elеuthеrососсі
fluіdum)
Amitriptyline
Fluoxetine
Caffeine-sodium benzoate
Piracetam
Vinpocetine
122
Nicergoline
Phenibut
Ginseng tincture
Eleutherococcus extract
Preparation Pharmacological group Indications for use

Caffeine-sodium
benzoate
Amitriptyline
Venlafaxine
Fluoxetine
Citicoline
123
Piracetam
Pentoxifylline
Vinpocetine
1. Antidepressant that has a pronounced sedative effect.
2. Antidepressant, which mainly blocks the uptake of serotonin by neurons.
3. Antidepressant - monoamine oxidase inhibitor.
4. Phenylalkylamine derivative used for the treatment of asthenic conditions.
5. A pyrrolidone derivative for the treatment of oligophrenia.
6. Nootropic drug that improves blood circulation to the brain.

1. An ambulance took the patient to the hospital, A. Antidepressants

who was trying to commit suicide in a state of B. Sedatives
severe depression. Diagnosis: depressive C. Neuroleptics
psychosis. From which pharmacological group D. Tranquilizers
should the drug be prescribed to the patient? E. Lithium salts
2. The doctor prescribed a drug from the group of A. Amitriptyline

tricyclic antidepressants to a depressed patient. B. Phenazepam
Name the drug. C. Droperidol
D. Aminalon
E. Cordiamine
3. A patient with manic-depressive psychosis A. Amitriptyline

124
with signs of depression complains of anxiety, B. Imizin
fear. What antidepressant with a concomitant C. Nialamide
psychosedative effect should he be prescribed? D. Sidnofen
E. Phenazepam
4. In a patient with manic-depressive psychosis A. Amitriptyline

there is depression of mental and motor B. Sidnocarb
activity, anxiety and depression. What drug C. Caffeine sodium benzoate
should he be prescribed to relieve pathological D. Piracetam
depression? E. Tryptazine
5. A psychiatrist was called to the woman, who A. Amitriptyline

tried to commit suicide, and found a state of B. Sidnocarb
endogenous depression. Which drug should be C. Etimizole
prescribed to the patient for treatment? D. Nootropil
E. Caffeine-sodium benzoate
6. A doctor prescribed a drug to a patient with A. Nialamide

depressive syndrome, emphasizing the need to B. Amitriptyline
exclude from the diet foods containing C. Pyrazidol
tyramine (cheese, beer, smoked products, etc.). D. Sidnocarb
However, after some time the patient began to E. Imizin
break the diet and he had a hypertensive crisis.
What drug was prescribed to the patient?
7. The doctor prescribed Nialamide to a patient A. Without products that contain

with depressive syndrome, emphasizing the tyramine
need to follow a diet. However, after some B. No foods that contain calcium
time the patient began to break the diet and he C. Without products that contain
had a hypertensive crisis. What diet was potassium
prescribed to the patient? D. Without products that contain
magnesium
E. Without products that contain alanine
8. A 32-year-old patient was treated for a long A. Ginseng tincture

time in hospital for chronic hepatitis. He B. Valerian tincture
currently complains of weakness, lethargy, C. Pavlov's potion
fatigue, hypotension and decreased immunity. D. Pyrilene
What drug can be prescribed to a patient to E. Sodium bromide
improve well-being?
9. She consulted a woman with complaints of A. Analeptics

weakness, fatigue, dizziness. Diagnosed with B. Analgesics
vegetative-vascular dystonia of the hypotonic C. Antidepressants
type. Drugs of which pharmacological group D. Antiparkinsonian drugs
should be prescribed to the patient? E. Lithium salts
10. A patient in a colaptoid state was given A. Analeptics

caffeine sodium benzoate to increase blood B. Tranquilizers
pressure. To which pharmacological group C. Sedatives
does this drug belong? D. Neuroleptics
E. Antidepressants
125
11. Under the removal of the patient's tooth there A. Caffeine-sodium benzoate
was a colaptoid state, the patient fainted. What B. Amitriptyline
drug should be used to quickly remove the C. Analgin
patient from this condition? D. Novocaine
E. Papaverine hydrochloride
12. The patient after an infectious disease A. Caffeine-sodium benzoate

complains of frequent headaches (migraine). B. Sidnocarb
The patient was diagnosed with low blood C. Piracetam
pressure. Which drug should be prescribed? D. Amitriptyline
E. Diazepam
13. The patient was prescribed a psychomotor A. Caffeine-sodium benzoate

stimulant – a purine derivative – to stimulate B. Sidnocarb
mental activity, mental and mental C. Amitriptyline
performance. What is this drug? D. Piracetam
E. Tryptazine
14. Weakness, decreased efficiency, drowsiness A. Caffeine-sodium benzoate

and other signs of neurosis in the patient B. Sodium bromide
allowed the doctor to make the right choice of C. Diazepam
an effective drug. D. Aminazine
E. Phenobarbital
15. The parents complained to a neurologist about A. Nootropics

complaints of mental impairment, memory loss B. Antidepressants
in a 9-year-old child. Which group of C. Tranquilizers
psychotropic drugs is justified in this case? D. Neuroleptics
E. Adaptogens
16. An elderly patient complains of headache, A. Nootropic drugs

dizziness, fatigue, memory impairment. B. Hypnotics
History of traumatic brain injury. What group C. Neuroleptics
of drugs should he be prescribed? D. Analgesics
E. Tranquilizers
17. The patient after the traumatic brain injury, the A. Nootropic drugs
doctor prescribed Piracetam. To which B. Non-narcotic analgesics
pharmacological group does this drug belong? C. Tranquilizers
D. Analeptics
E. Neuroleptics
18. After the traumatic brain injury, the patient A. Nootropics

developed disorders of attention, memory, B. Analgesics
speech. Drugs of which pharmacological group C. Antidepressants
should be prescribed to the patient? D. Antiparkinsonian drugs
E. Adaptogens
19. Should a patient be prescribed a drug that A. Piracetam

improves memory and mental performance in B. Nitrazepam
organic brain damage? C. Mesapam
126
D. Diazepam
20. A patient with complaints of memory and A. Piracetam

mental impairment after a head injury was B. Meridil
hospitalized in the neurology department. C. Sidnocarb
What drug can be recommended to improve D. Caffeine sodium benzoate
metabolism in brain tissues? E. Analgin
21. Offer an internally nootropic drug with a A. Piracetam

tranquilizing effect to treat the effects of B. Droperidol
traumatic brain injury. C. Carbamazepine
D. Furosemide
22. A patient with atherosclerosis was admitted to A. Piracetam

the neurology department with complaints of B. Caffeine sodium benzoate
memory and mental impairment. Assign the C. Infusion-shenyu
patient a nootropic drug – a pyrrolidone D. Sidnocarb
derivative to improve brain metabolism E. Meridil
23. The man is 36 years old, with a traumatic brain A. Intravenous

injury breathing is weak, the pulse is filiform, B. Rectal
and there are no reflexes. Which route of C. Subcutaneous
administration of Piracetam is most D. Oral
appropriate in this case? E. Inhalation
24. In a patient with manic-depressive psychosis A. Amitriptyline

there is depression of mental and motor B. Sidnocarb
activity, anxiety and depression. What drug C. Caffeine sodium benzoate
should he prescribe to relieve pathological D. Piracetam
depression? E. Tryptazine
25. A patient was admitted to the neurological A. Piracetam

department with complaints of memory and B. Sidnocarb
mental impairment, sleep disturbances, C. Sodium oxybutyrate
dizziness. The listed symptoms the patient D. Cordiamine
connects with a concussion took place 2 years E. Caffeine
ago as a result of road accident. Choose a drug
that improves brain metabolism, most shown
in this situation:
26. A 63-year-old woman was taking Piracetam to A. Improving metabolism in the CNS
restore CNS function after an ischemic stroke. B. Dopamine hydroxylase blockade
The patient's condition has significantly C. Choline acetylase blockade
improved. What is the mechanism of action of D. Catechol-o-methyltransferase
this drug? blockade
E. Monoamine oxidase blockade
127
Topic 12. Hormonal drugs, their synthetic substitutes and antagonists
1. General characteristics of hormonal drugs, their classification by origin, chemical structure,

clinical application. Types and principles of hormone therapy.
2. Hormonal drugs of polypeptide structure: the effect of hormones of the anterior and posterior
pituitary gland on the activity of the endocrine glands, application.
3. Pharmacological characteristics of gonadotropic hormonal drugs (chorionic and menopausal
gonadotropins (Human menopausal gonadotrophin), Follitropin).
4. Pharmacodynamics of hormonal drugs of the posterior pituitary gland (Adiurecrine,
Pituitrin, Oxytocin, Vasopressin), their synthetic analogues (Demoxytocin, Desmopressin,
Terlipressin). Indications for use.
5. Preparations of thyroid hormones. The effect of thyroxine on metabolism, physiological
significance and practical application of calcitonin. Antithyroid drugs, applications, side effects.
6. Preparations of thyroid hormones. The effect of parathyroidin on the metabolism of
phosphorus and calcium.
7. Hypoglycemic agents. Classification by mechanism of action and method of application.
Insulin preparations, classification by sources of production, generations (degree of purification) and
duration of action. Side effect. Principles of treatment of comatose states in diabetes.
8. Pharmacodynamics and principles of use of synthetic hypoglycemic agents.
9. Hormonal drugs of steroid structure, physiological significance of estrogens and
progestogens, the effect of androgens on the body. Sex hormone preparations and their antagonists for
enteral and parenteral use.
10. Glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. Effects on metabolism. Pharmacodynamic and
pharmacokinetic features, clinical application.
11. Anabolic steroids. Mechanism of action, effects, indications and contraindications to use,
side effects.

I. Hypothalamus hormones
-_______________________
-_______________________
-_______________________
II. Pituitary hormones

1. Anterior pituitary hormones 2. Posrterior pituitary hormones
-_______________________ -_______________________
-_______________________ -_______________________
-_______________________
III. Drugs that affect thyroid function

1. Thyroid hormones
128
-_______________________
-_______________________
2. Antithyroid drugs
a. Drugs that inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormones
-_______________________
-_______________________
-_______________________
-_______________________
b. Drugs that affect the absorption of iodine by the thyroid gland
-_______________________
c. Drugs that destroy thyroid cells
-_______________________
IV. Adrenal cortex hormones

1. Glucocorticoids 2. Mineralocorticoids
a. Natural analogues of hormones -_______________________
-_______________________ -_______________________
-_______________________
b. Synthetic analogues
-_______________________
-_______________________
V. Gonadal hormones
1. Female gonadal hormones 2. Hormones of the male gonads
a. Estrogens a. Androgens
-_______________________ -_______________________
-_______________________ -_______________________
b. Progestins b. Anabolic steroids
-_______________________ -_______________________
-_______________________ -_______________________
c. Hormonal contraceptives
-_______________________
-_______________________
VI. Pancreatic hormones and synthetic antidiabetic drugs

1. Replacement therapy drugs (for the treatment of type I diabetes mellitus)
-_______________________ -_______________________
-_______________________ -_______________________
2. Synthetic antidiabetic drugs (for the treatment of type II diabetes)
a. Sulfonylurea derivatives b. Biguanides
-_______________________ -_______________________
-_______________________ -_______________________
c. Glitazones (Thiazolidinediones) d. Inhibitors of intestinal α-glucosidase

-_______________________ -_______________________
-_______________________
129

1. Corticotropin powder for injection: 10 IU; IM 10-20 IU
(Corticotropinum) 20 IU; 30 IU; 40 IU in vials
2. Oxytocin injections: 5 IU/1 ml; 10 IM 0.2-2 IU
(Oxytocinum) IU/1 ml 1 ml in ampoules IV infusion 5 IU in 500 ml of
5% glucose solution
3. Desmopressin injections: 4 μg/ml (acetate) SC, IV
(Desmopressinum) 1 ml; 15 μg/ml 1 ml in
ampoules
nasal drops: 0.1 mg/ml 2.5 ml; intranasally
5 ml in vials
4. Levothyroxine tablets: 25 μg; 50 μg; 75 μg; PO 25-100 μg per day
sodium 100 μg; 125 μg; 150 μg
(Levothyroxinum
natricum) –
L-Thyroxin
(L-Thyroxinum)
5. Thiamazol tablets: 5 mg PO 0.005-0.01 g 3-4 times a
(Thiamazolum) – day after meals
Mercazolil
(Mercazolilum)
6. Human insulin injections: 40 IU/ml in 10 ml SC, IV
(Insulinum humanum) vials;
Insulin injection (fast- 100 IU/ml 5 ml; 10 ml in a
acting) – Actrapid, bottle
Farmasulin
7. Human insulin injections: 40 IU/ml in 10 ml SC
(Insulinum humanum) vials;
Intermediate-acting 100 IU/ml 5 ml; 10 ml
insulin – Protafan, in a vial (as a suspension of
Mixtard, Insuman insulin zinc or insulin
isophane)
8. Glibenclamide tablets: 5 mg PO 0.0025-0.01 g in 2-3 doses
(Glibenclamidum) 20-30 minutes before eating
9. Metformin tablets: 500 mg-1000 mg PO 0.5-1 g once a day during a
(Metforminum) (hydrochloride) meal
10. Hydrocortisone tablets: 5 mg; 10 mg; 20 mg PO 0.005-0.03 g
(Hydrocortisonum) powder for solution for IV, IM, intra-articularly,
injection: 100 mg in vials (as periarticularly
sodium succinate)
suspension for injection:
25 mg/ml 2 ml in ampoules
cream or ointment: 1% locally
(acetate)
11. Prednisolone tablets: 5 mg; 25 mg PO 0.01-0.05 g per day
(Prednisolonum) solution for oral application: IM depending on the disease
5 mg/ml and the patient's condition 60-
solution for injection: 30 180 mg
130
mg/ml 1 ml or 2 ml
solution (eye drops): 0.5% into the conjunctival sac
(sodium phosphate)
12. Dexamethasone injection: 4 mg/ml 1 ml; 2 ml PO 0.0005-0.001 g 2-3 times a
(Dexamethasonum) in ampoules (in the form of day during or after meals
disodium phosphate salt)
solution for oral
administration: 0.5 mg/5 ml; 2
mg / 5 ml
tablets: 0.5 mg; 0.75 mg; 1.5
mg; 4 mg
13. Desoxycortone oil solution for injection: 0.5% IM, SL 0.005 mg
(Desoxycortonum) – 1 ml in ampoules
Desoxycorticosterone tablets: 5 mg
acetate
(Desoxycorticosteroni
acetas)
14. Estrone (Estronum) oil solution for injection: 0.1% IM 5.000-10.000 IU
1 ml in ampoules (5.000 IU/ml;
10.000 IU/ml)
15. Progesterone oil solution for injection: 1%; IM 0.005-0.015g
(Progesteromun) 2.5% 1 ml in ampoules
16. Hexestrol tablets: 1 mg PO, IM 0.001 g
(Hexestrolum) – oil solution for injection: 0.1%
Synoestrol 1 ml in ampoules
(Synoestrolum)
17. Testosterone injections (oil solution): 200 IM 0.01-0.025 g
(Testosteronum) – mg (enanthate) 1 ml in
Testosterone ampoules; 250 mg/ml in 1 ml,
propionate 4 ml in ampoules
(Testosteroni
propionas)
18. Nandrolone oil solution for injection: 5% 1 IM 0.025-0.05 g once in 1-3
(Nandrolonum) – ml in ampoules weeks
Retabolil
Corticotropin
Levothyroxine sodium (L-Thyroxin)
Thiamazol (Mercazolil)
131
Human insulin
Metformin
Glibenclamide
Desoxycortone
Prednisolone
Hydrocortisone
Dexamethasone
Hexestrol (Synoestrol)
Progesterone
Testosterone
Nandrolone (Retabolil)
132

Pharmacological characteristics of hormonal drugs of protein and peptide structure
Endocrine glands
Pituitary Parathyroid gland Pancreas
Anterior pituitary Posterior Thyroid gland
pituitary
Hormons
Hormone drugs
Pharmacological effects
Indications for use
133
Mechanism of antithyroid action of drugs
Diiodthyrosine Mercazolyl Potassium Radioactive

perchlorate iodine
Destroys cells of thyroid
follicles
Inhibits the synthesis of

thyroid hormones
Disrupts the absorption of

iodine by the thyroid gland
Inhibits the production of

thyroid-stimulating
hormone of the anterior
pituitary gland
Comparative characteristics of insulin drugs
Preparation Rout of The beginning Maximum Duration of

administration of the action action action
Insulin for
injection
Zinc insulin
suspension for
injection
Semilente insulin
Insulin-ultralong
suspension
Suspension-
insulin-ultralent
134
Comparative characteristics of oral hypoglycemic agents
Group Mechanism of action The possibility of
developing
hypoglycemia
Sulfonylurea
derivatives
Biguanides
Thiazolidinediones
Inhibitors of
intestinal α-
glucosidase
1. A drug to stimulate the synthesis of adrenal hormones.
2. A drug for the treatment of thyrotoxicosis.
3. The drug for the treatment of myxedema.
4. Hypoglycemic drug for parenteral use.
5. Hypoglycemic drug – a derivative of sulfonylurea.
6. A drug for the treatment of hyperglycemic coma.
7. Hormonal drug for the treatment of diabetes mellitus.
8. Anabolic drug for the treatment of cachexia.
9. Glucocorticosteroid drug in anaphylactic shock.
10. A drug for the treatment of Addison's disease.
11. The drug in insufficiency of the male gonads, impotence.
135
12. Estrogen for the treatment of sexual infantilism in women.
13. Hormonal drug to accelerate labour with weak contractions.

1. Examination of a 56-year-old obese patient A. Metformin

revealed type 2 diabetes mellitus (non-insulin B. Rosiglitazone
dependent). The doctor prescribed the patient a C. Insulin
hypoglycemic drug derived from Biguanides. D. Glucagon
Specify this drug. E. Butamide
2. A 68-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus A. Glibenclamide

who had been taking Metformin for more than one B. Insulin
year was found to have a significant increase in C. Humalog
glucose levels above 9 mmol/L and a significant D. Glucagon
decrease in blood insulin levels during the annual E. Rosiglitazone
in-depth examination. Choose a sulfonylurea
derivative to replace:
3. A diabetic doctor prescribed Glibenclamide to a A. Stimulates insulin secretion by

patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Indicate the β-cells of the islets of Langerhans
main mechanism of hypoglycemic action of this B. Inhibits gluconeogenesis
drug. C. Inhibits glucose synthesis in the
liver
D. Reduces insulin resistance
E. Reduces the absorption of
glucose in the intestine
4. A child aged 11 years after the flu developed A. Insulin

general weakness, fatigue, loss of appetite, B. Thyroxine
increased thirst. At inspection the smell of acetone C. Pituitrin
from a mouth draws attention; in the blood sharply D. Glucagon
increased sugar content (over 8 mmol/l), in the E. Glibenclamide
urine – glucosuria. Diagnosed with diabetes.
Identify the remedy that should be given to the
child immediately:
5. The patient was taken to the intensive care unit A. Insulin

unconscious. On examination: noisy breathing, B. Glucagon
shallow (Kusmaul), a sharp smell of acetone. C. Diabeton
Laboratory: hyperglycemia (over 20 mmol/l), D. Metformin
hyperketonemia, high glucosuria, a sharply positive E. Glibenclamide
reaction to acetone. He was diagnosed with
hyperglycemic coma. What hypoglycemic drug
should be urgently administered to this patient?
136
6. A patient with type 1 diabetes was prescribed two A. Suspension of insulin ultralent
insulin preparations – a short-acting one, which he B. Humulin
administered before each meal, and a long one - C. Monoinsulin
once a day. Identify a long-acting insulin D. Homorap
preparation E. Swinsulin
7. An ambulance called a patient with type 1 diabetes A. Epinephrine hydrochloride

who developed a hypoglycaemic coma after B. Acetylcholine
another insulin injection. The team doctor C. Noradrenaline hydrotartrate
prescribed intravenous 40% glucose solution, and D. Dopamine
subcutaneously – a drug, a pharmacological insulin E. Atropine sulfate
antagonist. Specify this drug.
8. A 15-year-old patient was admitted to the intensive A. Glucagon

care unit with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes B. Prednisolone
mellitus and signs of hypoglycemic coma, which C. Thyroxine
developed after the next dose of insulin, when the D. Testosterone
patient was unable to eat in time. Prescribe a E. Somatotropin
natural insulin antagonist:
9. A woman went to the endocrinologist with A. Mercazolyl

complaints of hyperexcitability, a feeling of heat in B. Levothyroxine
the body, sweating, trembling hands, palpitations, C. Thyroxine
sudden weight loss. The doctor diagnosed Grave's D. Thyrotropin
disease. Indicate the drug prescribed by the doctor E. Somatotropin
to this patient.
10. According to the referral of a district therapist from A. Levothyroxine

a Carpathian mountain village to the Research B. Mercazolyl
Institute of Endocrinology, a woman complained of C. Calcitonin
weakness, drowsiness, fragility and hair loss. The D. Parathyroidin
patient showed dry and pale skin (with a yellowish E. Somatotropin
tinge), edema on the face and extremities, low body
temperature (up to 35.2ºC), bradycardia, low blood
pressure. Diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which
drug was prescribed to the patient by a consultant
doctor:
11. An endocrinologist prescribed levothyroxine to a A. Strengthening of catabolic

patient with diffuse euthyroid goiter. What processes
processes in the body, first of all, is the action of B. Acceleration of anabolic
this drug. processes
C. Acceleration of plastic processes
D. Acceleration of regenerative
processes
E. Acceleration of detoxification
processes
12. A patient with severe allergic dermatitis developed A. Corticotropin

long-term adrenal insufficiency after long-term B. Hydrocortisone acetate
treatment with prednisolone. The patient was C. Deoxycorticosterone acetate
prescribed a drug of the anterior pituitary gland. D. Vasopressin
137
Specify this drug: E. Cortisone
13. A 52-year-old patient developed numbness of the A. Parathyroidin

extremities and paresthesia shortly after thyroid B. Insulin
surgery. Laboratory tests revealed the presence of C. Mercazolyl
hypocalcemia. Which hormonal drug should be D. Cortisone
prescribed? E. Calcitrin
14. To a patient with eczema, the doctor prescribed a A. Flumethasone pivalate

locally synthetic hormonal glucocorticoid drug, B. Prednisolone
which contains two fluorine atoms in its structure. C. Hydrocortisone acetate
The drug has no resorptive effect, but has a high D. Dexamethasone
local anti-inflammatory, anti-allergic, antipruritic E. Triamcinolone
activity. Name this drug.
15. A patient with rheumatism was prescribed a A. Prednisolone

synthetic dehydrated hydrocortisone analogue with B. Flumethasone pivalate
high anti-inflammatory, anti-allergic and C. Hydrocortisone acetate
immunosuppressive activity. Available as solutions D. Sinaflan
in ampoules, eye drops, as well as tablets and E. Tetracorazide
ointments. Specify this tool?
16. The patient complains of constant thirst, frequent A. Adiuretin

urination. An endocrinologist diagnosed him with B. Cortisone
diabetes insipidus. What drug should be prescribed C. Mercazolyl
in this situation? D. Parathyroidin
E. Calcitrin
17. What syndrome can develop as a complication A. Itsenko-Cushing

during long-term therapy of a patient with W. Addison-Birmer
rheumatoid arthritis with Prednisolone: S. Pasternatsky
D. Reuters
E. Reye
18. A patient with adrenal tuberculosis developed A. Deoxycorticosterone acetate

Addison's disease. Prescribe a hormonal agent that B. Parathyroidin
could improve the patient's condition. C. Prednisolone
D. Estrone
E. Testosterone
19. A 17-year-old girl complains of scanty and A. Estron

irregular periods, which are accompanied by severe B. Cortisone
pain in the lower abdomen. At external inspection C. Hydrocortisone
insufficient development of secondary sexual signs D. Postinor
catches the eye. The doctor diagnosed a delay in E. Retabolil
sexual development and prescribed the drug.
Specify this medicine.
20. The 32-year-old woman developed acute uterine A. Oxytocin

bleeding in the postpartum period. She was B. Vasopressin
immediately injected with a hormonal drip, after C. Calcitonin
which the bleeding stopped. Name the drug. D. Aldosterone
138
E. Testosterone
21. A 15-year-old boy had an accident, as a result of A. Retabolil

which he underwent several operations on his B. Butamide
lower extremities. For a long time the patient is in C. Mercazolyl
bed. There is weight loss, loss of appetite and D. Parathyroidin
general condition. The patient was prescribed a tool E. Calcitrin
that can stimulate protein synthesis, has a positive
effect on calcium and nitrogen metabolism, and
improves appetite and weight gain. What drug was
prescribed by a doctor
22. The young woman has family problems due to the A. Progesterone
inability to conceive. The Centre for Reproductive B. Estron
Medicine found that the wife had insufficient C. Cortisone
corpus luteum function. Which drug should be D. Hydrocortisone
prescribed to the patient? E. Testosterone
23. A 48-year-old woman developed irritability and A. Sinestrol

insomnia, hot flashes and sweating, palpitations, B. Estradiol
frequent nosebleeds, and short periods of elevated C. Tamoxifen
blood pressure after menopause. The patient went D. Estrone
to the doctor to prescribe her an effective and E. Triamcinolone
affordable drug. The doctor prescribed her a
synthetic drug with estrogenic activity for oral use.
Name this drug.
24. A 22-year-old young woman was diagnosed with a A. Alylestrenol

physiological pregnancy, but in the first trimester B. Sinestrol
there was a risk of abortion. The patient was C. Tamoxifen
prescribed a synthetic oral progestogen. Name this D. Postinor
drug. E. Estrone
25. A 21-year-old girl asked a district gynecologist to A. Postinor

recommend a contraceptive to prevent pregnancy B. Tri-regol
due to accidental sexual intercourse that took place C. Marvelon
the day before, but not more than 12 hours ago. D. Diane 35
Name the drug that her doctor recommended: E. Anteovin
26. A 60-year-old patient has been suffering from A. Inhibition of glycogenolysis

diabetes for 9 years and receives Insulin-semilente B. Reduction of glucagon half-life
to correct hyperglycemia. 10 days ago he started C. Increasing the half-life of
treatment of hypertension with Anaprilin. An hour insulin-semilente
after taking the antihypertensive drug, a D. Increased bioavailability of
hypoglycemic coma developed. What is the insulin semilente
mechanism of hypoglycemia with the appointment E. Decreased glucose absorption
of Anaprilin?
27. The patient was diagnosed with diabetic coma. The A. Short-acting insulin
concentration of sugar in the blood is B. Medium-acting insulin
18.44 mmol/L. Which of the antidiabetic drugs C. Long-acting insulin
should be prescribed to this patient? D. A drug from the group of
139
biguanides
E. Preparation from the group of
sulfonylurea derivatives
28. The patient is shown the use of glucocorticoids A. 2/3 in the morning, the rest in
orally. How appropriate to prescribe those taking the afternoon
into account the physiological fluctuations in the B. Full dose in the morning
content of hormones of the adrenal cortex in the C. Full dose in the evening
blood? D. Evenly throughout the day
E. 2/3 in the evening, the rest in the
morning
29. With prolonged use of the drug, the patient may A. Prednisolone
have osteoporosis, erosion of the gastric mucosa, B. Hypothiazide
hypokalemia, sodium and water retention, C. Digoxin
decreased corticotropin levels in the blood. Specify D. Indomethacin
the drug. E. Reserpine
30. Prednisolone was administered to a patient who A. Phospholipase A₂

was in the clinic for pneumonia complicated by B. Phospholipase C
pleurisy as part of complex therapy. The anti- C. Cyclooxygenase
inflammatory effect of this synthetic glucocorticoid D. Peroxidase
is associated with blocking the release of E. Lipoxygenase
arachidonic acid by inhibiting the following
enzyme:
31. A patient with neurodermatitis has been using A. Activation of gluconeogenesis

Prednisolone for a long time. Examination revealed B. Activation of glycogen synthesis
an increase in blood sugar. The effect of C. Increased absorption of glucose
glucocorticosteroids on which link of carbohydrate in the intestine
metabolism leads to this complication? D. Inhibition of glycogen synthesis
E. Activation of insulin breakdown
32. A patient with infectious mononucleosis for 2 A. Immunosuppressive

weeks took glucocorticosteroids. Remission B. Anti-inflammatory
occurred, but he had an exacerbation of chronic C. Antishock
tonsillitis. What effect of glucocorticosteroids is D. Antiallergic
this complication? E. Antitoxic
33. A pregnant woman with poor labour activity was A. Oxytocin

admitted to the maternity ward. Prescribe a drug of B. Progesterone
hormonal nature to enhance labour? C. Methandrostenolone
D. Hydrocortisone
E. ACTH
34. Retabolil and its analogues increase the mass of A. Nuclear receptors
skeletal muscles, which allows them to be used to B. Membrane receptors
treat dystrophies. Which cell substrate interacts C. Ribosomes
with this action? D. Chromatin
E. Transcription activator proteins
140
Topic 13. Anti-inflammatory, anti-allergic and immunotropic drugs
1. Classification of anti-inflammatory drugs. The main focus of the action.

1.1. Pharmacological characteristics of steroid anti-inflammatory drugs (Hydrocortisone
acetate, Prednisolone, Dexamethasone, Triamcinolone, Flumethasone pivalate), mechanism
of action, indications and contraindications for use, side effects.
1.2. Pharmacology of nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs. Comparative pharmacological
characteristics of drugs of different chemical structure (Acetylsalicylic acid, Mefenamic
acid, Butadione, Indomethacin, Diclofenac sodium, Ibuprofen, Naproxen, Piroxicam,
Meloxicam, Celecoxib) depending on the degree of inhibition of cyclooxygenase 1 and 2.
Indications and contraindications to use. Side effects of drugs and their prevention.
2. Classification and general characteristics of anti-allergic drugs.
2.1. Pharmacology of histamine H1-receptor blockers (Diphenhydramine, Tavegyl,
Suprastin, Phencarol, Diazoline, Loratadine). Comparative characteristics, side effects.
2.2. Drugs that inhibit the release and activation of histamine and other mediators of
allergies. Pharmacodynamics, indications for the use of Cromolyn sodium, Ketotifen.
2.3. Drugs used in immediate hypersensitivity reactions (glucocorticoids, antihistamines,
fibrinolysis inhibitors, adrenomimetics, cholinoblockers, antispasmodics, bronchodilators,
drugs that reduce tissue damage: steroids and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs).
Features of use. Principles of care for anaphylactic shock.
2.4. Drugs used in delayed type allergic reactions (immunosuppressive drugs and drugs that
reduce tissue damage: steroids and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs). General
pharmacological characteristics.
3. Classification of drugs that affect immunity.
3.1. Classification of immune stimulants. Pharmacology of thymus preparations (Thymalin,
T-activin), bacterial origin (Prodigiosan, Pyrogenal, Sodium nucleinate), plant origin
(Echinacea tincture), synthetic drugs (Methyluracil, Pentoxyl, Levamisole), interferons and
vaccines.
3.2. Immunosuppressive drugs (antitumor drugs, glucocorticoids). Indications for use, side
effects.

I. Anti-inflammatory drugs d. Oxicams
1. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs - ___________________________
(NSAIDs) - ___________________________
a. Salicylates e. Coxibs
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
b. Indole-acetic acid derivatives 2. Steroid anti-inflammatory drugs (SAIDs)
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
c. Antranilic acid derivatives - ___________________________
141
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________
II. Anti-allergic drugs III. Drugs affecting the immunity

1. Drugs used in immediate-type 1. Immunosuppressants:
hypersensitivity reactions: a. Expressed efficiency (cytostatics)
a. Glucocorticoids - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ b. Medium efficacy (glucocorticoids)
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
b. Antileukotriene drugs - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ c. Low efficiency (NSAIDs)
c. Drugs stabilizing mast cell membrane - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
d. H1-receptor blockers 2. Immunostimulants:
- ___________________________ a. Thymus preparations
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ b. Bacterial origin
2. Drugs used in allergic reactions of the - ___________________________
delayed type: - ___________________________
a. NSAIDs c. Plant origin
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ d. Synthetic agents
b. SAIDs - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________ e. Interferons
c. Immunosuppressants - ___________________________
- ___________________________ - ___________________________
- ___________________________

NSAIDs
1. Acetylsalicylic acid solid oral drug form: 75 mg- PO 0.25-1 g
(Acidum 300 mg
acetylsalicylicum) – tablets: 100 mg-500 mg
Aspirin suppositories: 50 mg-150 mg PR
2. Indomethacin capsules, dragee: 25 mg PO

(Indomethacinum) suppositories: 50 mg PR
ointment: 10% 30 g; 40 g Topically
3. Ibuprofen solution for injection: 5 mg/ml IV (only for new-borns)
(Ibuprofenum) oral solution or suspension PO 0.2-0.4 g
application: 200 mg/5 ml
142
solid dosage forms: 200 mg;
400 mg; 600 mg
4. Diclofenac injection: 25 mg/ml 3 ml in IM 0.075 g
(Diclofenacum) ampoules
tablets: 25 mg PO 0.025-0.05 g
5. Naproxen tablets: 250 mg; 500 mg PO
(Naproxenum)
6. Mephenamic acid tablets: 500 mg PO 0.5 g 3-4 times a day
(Acidum
mephenamicum)
7. Meloxicam tablets: 15 mg PO
(Meloxicamum) suppositories: 15 mg; 75 mg PR
8. Nimesulide tablets: 100 mg PO
(Nimesulidum)
9. Celecoxib capsules: 100 mg; 200 mg PO 0.1-0.2 g
(Celecoxibum)
10. Paracetamol solution for oral administration: PO 0.2-0.5 g
(Paracetamolum) 30 mg/ml; 120 mg/5 ml;
125 mg/5 ml
solid oral drug form: 100 mg-
500 mg
solution for infusion: 10 mg/ml
suppositories: 80 mg; 100 mg; PR 0.1-0.25 g
150 mg
11. Metamizole sodium injections: 500 mg/ml in 1 ml, IM or IV 0.25-1 g
(Metamizolum 2 ml in ampoules
natricum) – Aspirin tablets: 500 mg PO 0.25-0.5 g
(Aspirinum)
12. Phenylbutazone tablets: 150 mg PO
(Phenylbutazonum) – ointment: 5% 20 g topically
Butadion
SAIDs (see Glucocorticoids)
Immunomudilating drugs
13. Thymalin lyophilisate for solution for IM 0.01 g
(Thymalinum) injections: 10 mg in vials
14. Echinacea purpurea – tablets: 80 mg PO
Immunal® solution for oral administration
(liquid extract): 50 ml
15. Levamizole tablets: 50 mg; 150 mg PO 0.15 g once a day at bedtime
(Levamizolum) (in the form of hydrochloride)
Anti-allergic drugs
16. Diphenhydramine tablets: 50 mg PO 0.025-0.05 g
(Diphenhydraminum) injections: 10 mg/ml in IM 0.01-0.04 g
– Dimedrol ampoules IV infusion 0.02-0.04 g
(Dimedrolum)
17. Mebhydrolin tablets: 50 mg; 100 mg PO 0.05-0.2 g
(Mebhydrolinum) –
Diazolin
(Diazolinum)
18. Chloropyramine tablets: 25 mg PO 0.025 g
(Chloropyraminum) injections: 20 mg/ml 2 ml in IM or IV 0.02-0.04 g
143
– Suprastin® ampoules
19. Loratadine tablets: 10 mg PO 0.01 g
(Loratadinum) oral solution or syrup: 1 mg/ml;
5 mg/ml
20. Cetirizine tablets: 10 mg film-coated PO 0.01 g
(Cetirizinum)
21. Cromoglicic acid eye drops: 20 mg/ml 10 ml; 40 Topically
(Acidum mg/ml 5 ml
cromoglycicum) nasal spray: 2% 15 ml
Hydrocortisone
Prednisolone
Triamcinolone
Dexamethasone
Indomethacin
Phenylbutazone (Butadion)
Diclofenac
Mephenamic acid
144
Celecoxib
Cromoglicic acid (Chromolyn sodium)
Diphenhydramine (Dimedrol)
Mebhydrolin (Diazolin)
Chloropyramine (Suprastin)
Loratadine
Thymalin
Levamizole

Arrange the drugs by mechanism of action
Selective COX-1 Nonselective COX Preferential COX-2 Selective COX-2
145
inhibitors inhibitors inhibitors inhibitors
Fill in the table
Preparations Indications for use Side effects

Ibuprofen
Diclofenac sodium
Mephenamic acid
Meloxicam
Celecoxib
146
Paracetamol
Loratadine
Diphenhydramine
Levamizole
Montelukast
1. A drug with a steroidal structure for emergency care in anaphylactic shock.
2. Steroid anti-inflammatory drug for topical use in osteoarthritis.
3. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug with a pronounced antipyretic effect.
4. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug derived pyrazolone for the treatment of rheumatic joint
injuries.
5. A drug that inhibits the release and activation of histamine and other mediators of allergies.
6. Blocker of histamine H1-receptors, which has no sedative effect.
7. Blocker of histamine H1-receptors, which has a soporific effect.
8. Immunostimulant of synthetic origin, which is also used to treat helminthiasis.
147
9. Thymus drug for the treatment of immunodeficiency.

1. A 55-year-old patient developed gastric bleeding A. Decreased COX-1 activity

on the 4th day of indomethacin treatment. What B. Decreased COX-2 activity
is the ulcerogenic effect of the drug related to? C. Decreased lipoxygenase activity
D. Decreased thromboxane synthetase
activity
E. Decreased prostacyclin synthetase
activity
2. A 33-year-old woman who has been treated for A. Prednisolone

rheumatoid arthritis for a long time complains of B. Indomethacin
high blood pressure, changes in adipose tissue C. Butadione
distribution, and menstrual irregularities. What D. Sinaflan
anti-inflammatory drug does the patient take? E. Diclofenac sodium
3. A 60-year-old woman has been taking A. Blockade of phospholipase A2

Dexamethasone for a long time to treat an B. Blockade of cyclooxygenase 1
exacerbation of knee arthritis. What is the C. Blockade of cyclooxygenase 2
biochemical mechanism of anti-inflammatory D. Folate synthetase blockade
action of this drug? E. Folate reductase blockade
4. A patient with arthritis was prescribed a drug A. Meloxicam

from the group of nonsteroidal anti- B. Indomethacin
inflammatory drugs that selectively blocks C. Ketoprofen
COX-2. Identify the drug. D. Ibuprofen
E. Paracetamol
5. In order to prevent ulcerogenic effects, the A. Celecoxib

doctor prescribed a non-steroidal anti- B. Diclofenac sodium
inflammatory drug to a patient with rheumatoid C. Analgin
arthritis, which selectively blocks COX-2. D. Promedol
Identify the drug. E. Paracetamol
6. The pharmacy received a new generation of A. Minimal side effects on the digestive
non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs tract
Meloxicam (Movalis). Indicate the advantages B. Significant myospasmolytic effect
of this drug as a preferred blocker of C. The presence of interferonogenic
cyclooxygenase-2 compared to other properties
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. D. Minimal side effects on
hematopoiesis
E. Significant inhibition of protease
activity
148
7. A 50-year-old patient with complaints of joint A. Ulcerogenic action
pain and morning stiffness has been using a non- B. Hypotension
steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, Acetylsalicylic C. Methemoglobinemia
acid, for a long time. Indicate the most D. Agranulocytosis
characteristic side effect of this drug. E. Acidosis
8. An exacerbation of gastric ulcer was diagnosed A. Indomethacin

in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis. Which of B. Diphenhydramine
the following drugs should be excluded from the C. Ugly
complex therapy? D. Methyluracil
E. Celecoxib
9. A 63-year-old woman has been taking A. Blocks cyclooxygenase

Diclofenac sodium for a long time to treat knee B. Activates the synthesis of
arthritis. What is the biochemical mechanism of phosphodiesterase
anti-inflammatory action of this drug? C. Inhibits cholinesterase
D. Activates adenylate cyclase
E. Inhibits phosphodiesterase
10. The patient was prescribed a steroid anti- A. Glucocorticoids

inflammatory drug, against the background of B. Antihistamines
which there were side effects: the development C. Antibiotics
of steroid diabetes, edema, osteoporosis, and D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
hypertension. To which pharmacological group drugs
does this drug belong? E. Antitumor drugs
11. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been A. Glucocorticosteroids

taking complex anti-inflammatory therapy for a B. Selective COX-2 blockers
long time. With abrupt cessation of treatment, an C. Steroid anabolic drugs
exacerbation of the inflammatory process D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
developed. Determine which group of drugs drugs
caused the patient's withdrawal syndrome E. Immunomodulators
12. A patient with polyarthritis took Indomethacin A. Hydrocortisone

for a long time. The patient's condition did not B. Diclofenac sodium
improve. The doctor additionally prescribed a C. Celecoxib
steroid anti-inflammatory drug in the form of a D. Meloxicam
suspension for injection into the joint cavity. E. Acetylsalicylic acid
Which of these drugs did the doctor prescribe
for the complex therapy of polyarthritis?
13. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis was A. Prednisolone

prescribed a drug with anti-inflammatory action. B. Butadione
After some time, the patient complained of C. Celecoxib
frequent colds, edema, and slow wound healing. D. Acetylsalicylic acid
What drug could cause such phenomena? E. Piroxicam
14. The patient asked the pharmacist to release the A. Acetylsalicylic acid
remedy for headache, which has both anti- B. Codeine phosphate
inflammatory and antipyretic effect. Name this C. Promedol
drug? D. Tramadol
E. Fentanyl
149
15. A 45-year-old patient asked a rheumatologist to A. Celecoxib
prescribe a drug that would eliminate swelling B. Aspirin
and pain in the joints. The woman was found to C. Analgin
have a history of peptic ulcer disease. Determine D. Indomethacin
which anti-inflammatory drug is prescribed by E. Ibuprofen
the patient's doctor.
16. At the patient who for a long time accepted anti- A. The development of adrenal
inflammatory drug Prednisolone, as a result of insufficiency
drug withdrawal there was an exacerbation of a B. Sensitization to the drug
disease, decrease in arterial pressure, weakness. C. Addiction to the drug
What can these manifestations be related to? D. Hyperproduction of ACTH
E. Cumulation of the drug
17. A 55-year-old patient developed gastric bleeding A. Reduction of prostaglandin E1

on the 4th day of treatment with the nonsteroidal formation
anti-inflammatory drug Diclofenac sodium on B. Reduction of prostacyclin formation
the background of gastric ulcer. What is the C. Reduction of leukotriene formation
ulcerogenic effect of the drug related to? D. Reducing the formation of cyclic
endoperoxides
E. Reduction of thromboxane formation
18. The patient has systemic inflammation of the A. Prednisolone

connective tissue. What anti-inflammatory agent B. Diclofenac sodium
causes the suppression of all phases of C. Butadione
inflammation? D. Indomethacin
E. Contrikal
19. In a patient with arthritis and varicose veins, A. Celecoxib

long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory B. Butadione
drugs causes thrombosis of the skin veins. C. Ibuprofen
Which of these drugs caused complications? D. Aspirin
E. Indomethacin
20. A 30-year-old man, a driver by profession, A. Loratadine

suffers from allergic rhinitis and glossitis with B. Diphenhydramine
exacerbation in the spring. The doctor C. Prednisolone
prescribed the patient a second-generation D. Diazoline
antihistamine with a long action (up to 24 E. Cetirizine
hours). What remedy was prescribed?
21. For the treatment of exudative erythema A. Prednisolone

multiforme of the oral cavity with a long course, B. Loratadine
the dentist prescribed a corticosteroid anti- C. Corticotropin
inflammatory drug that suppresses the immune D. Meloxicam
system. Identify the drug. E. Diethylstilbestrol
22. A patient with hay fever was prescribed the anti- A. Blockade of H1-histamine receptors.
allergic drug Loratadine. Determine the Take once a day
mechanism of action and method of application B. Stimulates the synthesis of
of Loratadine. antibodies. Take twice a day
150
C. Blocks serotonin receptors. Take 3
times a day
D. Stimulates the reaction of the
antigen-antibody complex. Take once a
day
E. Activates histaminase. Take 4 times a
day
23. The patient developed drug allergic dermatitis to A. Loratadine

Ambroxol syrup. The doctor prescribed a B. Pyrogenal
modern second-generation antihistamine with a C. Diphenhydramine
long action (used once a day), the drug has no D. Diazoline
M-cholinoblocking and sedative effect. What is E. Tavegil
this drug?
24. To prevent asthma attacks, the doctor prescribed A. Stabilization of mast cell membranes
Cromolyn sodium. Which of the following B. Free histamine binding
mechanisms of action is characteristic of the C. Blockade of histamine receptors
prescribed tool? D. Decreased antibody concentration
E. Inactivation of histamine
25. A patient whose work requires a quick response A. Diazoline

consulted a doctor about allergic conjunctivitis. B. Dexamethasone
Which antihistamine to choose? C. Diphenhydramine
D. Diprazine
E. Suprastin
26. The patient on the background of allergic A. Diphenhydramine

dermatitis with signs of edema, redness of the B. Menthol
skin and a feeling of constant itching developed C. Cromolyn sodium
insomnia. Which drug should be prescribed to D. Levamisole
the patient? E. Prednisolone
27. A patient with allergic dermatitis was prescribed A. H1-histamine receptor blockers
Suprastin. To which group of antiallergic drugs B. Glucocorticosteroids
does this drug belong? C. Inhibitors of mast cell degranulation
D. Leukotriene receptor antagonists
E. H2-histamine receptor blockers
28. Patient K. developed Quincke's edema after bee A. Epinephrine hydrochloride

stings. What drug should be administered B. Sodium chloride
immediately to the patient in order to eliminate C. Platyphylline hydrotartrate
this condition? D. Atropine sulfate
E. Anaprilin
29. A patient is prescribed Loratadine for the A. Inhibition of H1-histamine receptors

treatment of allergic dermatitis after bee stings. B. Inhibition of H2-histamine receptors
The itching and soreness at the site of the bite C. Blockade of D4-leukotriene receptors
disappeared. What is the mechanism of anti- D. Decreased leukotriene release
allergic action of the drug? E. Antiserotonin activity
30. A patient after a severe infectious disease in A. Thymalin

151
order to restore the function of the immune B. Pyrogenal
system is prescribed a specific stimulant of C. Diphenhydramine
central regulation of immunity. What drug is D. Diazoline
prescribed? E. Loratadine
31. A patient with Quincke's edema was A. Epinephrine hydrochloride and

hospitalized. What drugs need to be introduced Prednisolone
B. Loratadine and Diazoline
C. Cromolyn sodium and Ketotifen
D. Levamisole and Adrenaline
hydrochloride
E. Diphenhydramine and Cromolyn
sodium
32. In order to prevent asthma attacks, the doctor A. Stabilization of mast cell membranes
prescribed a desensitizing drug – Ketotifen. and blockade of histamine receptors
Which of the following mechanisms of action is B. Free histamine binding
characteristic of the prescribed tool? C. Stimulation of histamine receptors
D. Stimulation of beta-2-
adrenoreceptors
E. Blockade of beta-2-adrenoceptors
33. A patient with psoriasis was prescribed a steroid A. Flumethasone pivalate

anti-inflammatory drug of topical (local) action. B. Diclofenac sodium
Determine the prescribed drug. C. Triamcinolone
D. Methylprednisolone
E. Celecoxib
34. In order to restore the structure and function of A. Ribomunil

the immune system, the patient is prescribed an B. Triamcinolone
immune stimulant of microbial origin to prevent C. Tavegil
recurrent respiratory infections. What drug was D. Diazoline
prescribed? E. Methyluracil
35. Which of the following drugs is most A. Eleutherococcus liquid extract

appropriate to advise parents to a child 10 years B. Remantadin
after hepatitis for immunostimulation? C. Pyrogenal
D. Acyclovir
E. Prednisolone
36. The patient for the treatment of systemic A. Levamisole

collagenosis was prescribed a non-specific B. Thymalin
immune stimulant, an inducer of interferon, an C. Laferon
imidazole derivative. The drug is widely known D. Piperazine adipinate
as an anthelmintic. What drug was prescribed? E. Methyluracil
37. A child with viral hepatitis is given a A. Interferon

parenterally immunostimulant from the group of B. Tavegil
cytokines-lymphokines, which exhibits antiviral C. Prednisolone
activity. Specify the drug. D. Pyrogenal
E. Levamisole
152
38. The student asked the doctor to prescribe a drug A. Loratadine
for the treatment of allergic rhinitis, which he B. Norepinephrine hydrotartrate
developed during the flowering of linden. What C. Anaprilin
remedy can be used? D. Ambroxol
E. Losartan
153
Topic 14. Water-soluble and fat-soluble vitamin preparations

1. Definition of vitamin preparations.
2. Types of vitamin therapy.
3. Classification of vitamin preparations.
4. Pharmacological characteristics of water-soluble drugs (Thiamine bromide, Riboflavin,
Pyridoxine, Nicotinic acid, Cyanocobalamin, Folic acid, Ascorbic acid, Calcium pangamate, Calcium
pantothenate). Indications for use, side effects.
5. The concept of bioflavonoids (Rutin, Quercetin), coenzyme preparations.
6. Pharmacological characteristics of fat-soluble vitamin preparations (Retinol acetate,
Ergocalciferol, Tocopherol acetate). Indications and contraindications to use. Side effects.
7. Vitamin preparations with antioxidant properties (Tocopherol acetate, Ascorbic acid, Retinol
acetate, Rutin, Quercetin), the mechanism of their antioxidant action. Indications for use and features
of dosage.
8. The feasibility of combining vitamins. Multivitamin preparations. Indications for use.
9. Classification and mechanism of action of enzyme agents, their comparative evaluation,
indications for use, side effects.
10. Pharmacological properties and clinical application of antienzyme drugs.
11. The concept of antivitamins

I. Vitamin preparations:
1. Water-soluble vitamin drugs
Vit B1 Vit C
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________ Vit P
Vit B2 - _____________________
- _____________________ 2. Fat-soluble vitamin drugs
Vit B3 (PP) Vit A
- _____________________ - _____________________
Vit B5 Vit D
- _____________________ - _____________________
Vit B6 - _____________________
- _____________________ Vit E
Vit B12 - _____________________
- _____________________ Vit K
Folic acid (B9) - _____________________
- _____________________
- _____________________
II. Enzyme and anti-enzyme drugs:

1. Enzyme drugs
a. Peptidases g. Combined enzyme preparations
- _____________________ - _____________________
b. Proteases - _____________________
154
- _____________________ 2. Antienzyme drugs
- _____________________ a. Protease inhibitors
c. Nucleases - _____________________
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________ b. Fibrinolysis inhibitors
d. Hyaluronidases - _____________________
- _____________________ c. Other antienzyme drugs
- _____________________ - _____________________
e. Fibrinolytic enzymes - _____________________
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________ - _____________________
- _____________________
f. Oxidoreductases and enzyme preparations
with other mechanism of action
- _____________________
- _____________________
- _____________________

Water-soluble vitamin drugs
1. Ascorbic acid powder: 50 mg PO 0.05-0.1 g
(Acidum tablets: 25 mg; 50mg; 100 mg
ascorbinicum) injections: 50 mg/ml 1ml or IM, IV 0.05-0.15 g
2 ml; 100 mg/ml 2 ml in
ampoules
2. Thiamine injections: 50 mg/ml 1ml in IM 0.05 g
(Thiaminum) – ampoules
Thiamine chloride
(Thiamini chloridum)
3. Cocarboxylase tablets: 50 mg SL
(Cocarboxylazum) injections: 50 mg/2ml 2ml in IM, IV 0.05 -0.1 g
ampoules
lyophilisate for solution for
injections: 50 mg in vals
4. Pyridoxine tablets: 2 mg; 5 mg; 10 mg PO, SC, IM and IV 0.025-0.05 g
hydrochloride injections: 10 mg/ml; 50 mg/ml
(Pyridoxini 1ml in ampoules
hydrochloridum)
5. Riboflavin tablets: 3 mg; 5 mg; 10 mg PO 0.005-0.01 g
(Riboflavinum)
6. Nicotinic acid tablets: 50 mg PO 0.02-0.05 g
(Acidum injections: 1 mg/ml 1ml in IM 0.01 g; IV 0.05 g
nicotinicum) ampoules
7. Calcium tablets: 100 mg PO 0.1-0.3 g
pantothenate (Calcii injections: 100 mg/ml 2ml; 200 IM, IV 0.2-0.4 g
pantothenas) mg/ml 5 ml in ampoules
8. Cyanocobalamine injections: 0.2 mg/ml; SC, IM and IV 0.0001-0.0005 g
(Cyanocobaminum) 0.5 mg/ml 1ml in ampoules
155
9. Folic acid (Acidum powder, tablets: 1 mg; 5 mg PO 0.001 g
folicum)
10. Rutoside tablets: 20 mg PO 0.02-0.05 g 2-3 times a day
(Rutosidum)
11. Ascorutin tablets: Ascorbic acid 50 mg + PO 1 tablet 2-3 times a day

(Ascorutinum) Rutoside 50 mg
Fat-soluble vitamin drugs
12. Tocopherol acetate solution (oil) for oral PO 50-300 mg daily
(Tocopheroli acetas) administration: 50 mg/ml;
100 mg/ml; 300 mg/ml 20 ml
in vials
13. Retinol (Retinolum) oil solution: 34.4 mg/ml PO 10-15 min after meals;
– Retinol acetate (100,000 UI/ml; 5,000 IU in 1 highest single dose is 50,000
(Retinoli acetas) drop) 10 ml in vials IU; highest daily dose is
100,000 IU
Topically with lesions of the
skin surface
14. Ergocalciferol solution (oil) for oral PO 10,000-100,000 IU daily
(Ergocalciferolum) administration: 1.25 mg/ml 10 during eating
ml in vials
15. Menadione sodium injections: 10 mg/ml 1ml in IM 0.01 g a day
bisulfite (Menadioni ampoules
natrii bisulfis) –
Vicasol (Vicasolum)
Multivitamin drug
16. Decamevit ® tablets PO 1 tablet 1-2 times a day
Enzyme drugs
17. Hyaluronidase powder for solution for SC, IM. Dissolve the contents of
(Hyaluronidasum) – injection: 64 IU in ampoules the 64 IU ampoule in 1 ml of
Lidasa-Biolik, 0.9% sodium chloride solution
Lidasa-Biopharma for injection or in 1 ml of 0.5%
novocaine solution
18. Trypsin (Trypsinum) lyophilisate for solution for IM, using electrophoresis,
injections: 10 mg in vials inhalation, in the form of eye
drops, interpleurally, topically
Thiamine
Ergocalciferol
Ascorbic acid
156
Riboflavin
Tocopherol acetate
Nicotinic acid
Pyridoxine hydrochloride
Cyanocobalamine
Ascorutin
Menadione sodium bisulfite
Hyaluronidase
Trypsin
157
Vitamin Sources of vitamin Symptoms of Indications for use Side effects

preparation hypovitaminosis
Ascorbic acid
Thiamine
Pyridoxine
hydrochloride
Riboflavin
Nicotinic acid
Cyanocobala-
mine
Tocopherol
acetate
Retinol
158
Ergocalciferol
Identify the antivitamins of the appropriate vitamins
Vitamins Antivitamins
1. Menadione sodium bisulfite A. Isoniazid
2. Folic acid B. Neodycoumarin
3. Pyridoxine hydrochloride C. Methotrexate
Choose the appropriate vitamin preparations for the treatment of hypovitaminosis

Hypovitaminosis Vitamin preparation
1. Berry-berry A. Cyanocobalamine
2. Microcytic anemia B. Nicotinic acid
3. Pernicious anemia C. Folic acid
4. Pellagra D. Thiamine
1. Vitamin preparation for the treatment of motor and sensory disorders in neurological
practice.
2. Vitamin drug that stimulates immunity.
3. Vitamin preparation for the treatment of hyperchromic anemia.
4. Vitamin preparation that strengthens the vessel wall.
5. Vitamin preparation for the treatment and prevention of rickets.
6. Vitamin drug that helps maintain pregnancy.
7. Vitamin preparation for the treatment of gemeralopia.
8. Antienzyme drug for the treatment of acute pancreatitis.
9. Enzyme preparation for the treatment of chronic pancreatitis.

159
Examples of Krock-1 tests
1. The patient before surgery was A. Vikasol

prescribed a drug (water-soluble B. Heparin
analogue of vitamin K), which C. Sodium citrate
increases blood clotting. What drug D. Fibrinolysin
was prescribed to the patient? E. Aminocaproic acid
2. As a result of uncontrolled intake of the A. Retinol acetate

vitamin drug in gemeralopia, the child B. Nicotinamide
developed anorexia, nausea, vomiting, C. Somatotropin
diarrhoea, and hyperthermia. What D. Routine
drug was the child taking? E. Ergocalciferol
3. The child had subcutaneous A. Prothrombin

haemorrhage. The appointment of a B. Antihemophilic globulin
synthetic analogue of vitamin K – C. Hagemann factor
Vicasol had a positive effect. In the D. Fibrinogen
synthesis of which protein of the blood E. Collagen
coagulation system is involved in this
drug?
4. The patient went to the dentist with A. Retinol acetate

complaints of prolonged non-healing of B. Acetylsalicylic acid
the wound after tooth extraction, which C. Analgin
is associated with a violation of the D. Tannin
stage of epithelialization. Which E. Protamine sulfate
vitamin preparation is rational to use in
complex treatment?
5. A patient with a diagnosis of focal A. Vitamin B6

tuberculosis of the upper lobe of the B. Vitamin A
right lung as part of combination C. Vitamin D
therapy receives isoniazid. After some D. Vitamin B12
time, the patient began to complain of E. Vitamin C
muscle weakness, decreased skin
sensitivity, impaired vision, and
coordination. Which vitamin
preparation should be used to eliminate
these phenomena?
6. A patient who underwent a mastectomy A. Tocopherol acetate

for breast cancer was prescribed B. Ergocalciferol
radiation therapy. Which of the C. Riboflavin
following vitamin preparations has a D. Cyanocobalamin
radioprotective effect due to E. Folic acid
antioxidant activity?
7. A 25-year-old woman was on a diet for A. Ascorbic acid

1.5 months to lose weight, lost 5 kg, but B. Cyanocobalamin
developed severe headaches, constant C. Folic acid
recurrent nosebleeds, bleeding gums, D. Retinol acetate
160
loose teeth, peeling skin. Which E. Vikasol
vitamin preparation is appropriate in
this case?
8. Examination of a 3-year-old child A. Ergocalciferol

revealed deformity of the spine and B. Tocopherol acetate
chest, curvature of the lower C. Thiamine chloride
extremities. Diagnosis of rickets. D. Glucose
Which drug is most effective in this E. Adiurecrine
situation?
9. The patient has dementia, diarrhoea, A. Nicotinic acid

dermatitis. Diagnosed with pellagra. B. Thiamine bromide
What vitamin preparation will you use C. Tocopherol acetate
for treatment? D. Co-carboxylase
E. Riboflavin
10. A woman went to a pediatrician about A. Ergocalciferol

the child's malaise at 8 months: B. Thiamine
sweating, increased size of the C. Cyanocobalamin
umbilicus, lag in teething (only 2 D. Folic acid
teeth), anxiety. Which of the drugs E. Calcium pangamate
should be prescribed in the first place?
11. The patient was prescribed radiation A. Askorutin

therapy. What vitamin preparation with B. Thiamine chloride
antioxidant properties is needed to C. Pyridoxine
reduce the permeability of the vascular D. Cyanocobalamin
wall and prevent bleeding? E. Folic acid
12. A patient with chronic alcoholism was A. Thiamine chloride

diagnosed with symptoms of B. Ergocalciferol
polyneuritis and heart failure. What C. Retinol
vitamin preparation should be D. Routine
prescribed to the patient? E. Phylloquinone
13. A 55-year-old man was diagnosed with A. Calciferol

osteomalacia. The doctor prescribed a B. Cyanocobolamine
fat-soluble vitamin. Name this drug. C. Routine
D. Ascorbic acid
E. Pyridoxine hydrochloride
14. The patient after the flu for a long time A. Hyperglycemia
took large doses of ascorbic acid in B. Hypoglycemia
order to increase the body's resistance C. Hyperlipidemia
and prevent viral infections. What side D. Alkalosis
effects can result from this? E. Miosis
15. Deterioration of twilight vision was A. Stimulates the formation of rhodopsin

detected in the patient, retinol acetate B. Inhibits the formation of rhodopsin
was prescribed. What is the mechanism C. Causes miosis
of action of a vitamin preparation? D. Causes accommodation spasm
161
E. Stimulates the formation of acetylcholine
16. A 50-year-old patient was diagnosed A. Pyridoxine hydrochloride

with trigeminal neuralgia. Name a B. Ascorbic acid
vitamin drug that is used in the C. Retinol acetate
treatment of this disease. D. Tocopherol acetate
E. Vikasol
17. Examination of the patient in the oral A. Ascorbic acid

cavity revealed manifestations of B. Vikasol
scurvy, stomatitis and gingivitis. What C. Retinol acetate
vitamin preparation is used in the D. Tocopherol acetate
complex treatment of this pathology? E. Pyridoxine hydrochloride
18. The patient was diagnosed with beriberi A. Thiamine chloride

and accumulation of pyruvic and lactic B. Pyridoxine hydrochloride
acid. At insufficient receipt in an C. Retinol acetate
organism of what vitamin preparation D. Vikasol
this pathology develops? E. Tocopherol acetate
19. As a result of uncontrolled intake of the A. Retinol acetate

vitamin drug, the child developed B. Somatotropin
anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, C. Nicotinamide
hyperthermia, hemorrhages on the skin D. Routine
and mucous membranes, as well as the E. Tocopherol acetate
phenomenon of meningism. What drug
was the child taking?
20. A pregnant woman who was diagnosed A. Cyanocobalamin

with megaloblastic anemia consulted an B. Pentoxyl
obstetrician-gynecologist. Which of the C. Methyluracil
following tools should be prescribed? D. Glaucine
E. Streptokinase
21. At the woman of 64 years disturbances A. A

of twilight sight (gemeralopia) are B. B2
observed. Which vitamin drug should C. E
she recommend in the first place? D. C
E. B6
22. The patient's doctor diagnosed enamel A. D3

erosion. Which vitamin should be B. PP
prescribed for treatment? C. K
D. B1
E. C
162
FINAL CONTROL OF BLOCK 1
LIST OF DRUGS FOR FINAL CONTROL OF KNOWLEDGE
BLOCK 1. MEDICAL PRESCRIPTION. GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY.

MEDICINES AFFECTING THE NERVOUS SYSTEM AND MOTION
1. Lidocaine 54. Trimeperidine

2. Ultracaine 55. Fentanyl
3. Bismuth subcitrate 56. Codeine phosphate
4. Activated carbon 57. Tramadol
5. Enterosgel 58. Naloxone
6. Pilocarpine hydrochloride 59. Acetyl-salicylic acid
7. Neostigmine methyl sulfate 60. Paracetamol
8. Pyridostigmine bromide 61. Ketoprofen
9. Atropine sulfate 62. Metamizole sodium
10. Tiotropium bromide 63. Diclofenac sodium
11. Pirenzepine 64. Ibuprofen
12. Prifinium bromide 65. Naproxen
13. Suxamethonium 66. Celecoxib
14. Epinephrine hydrochloride 67. Meloxicam
15. Norepinephrine hydrotartrate 68. Diphenhydramine
16. Phenylephrine 69. Chloropyramine
17. Dobutamine 70. Loratadine
18. Salbutamol 71. Levocetirizine
19. Doxazosin 72. Fenspiride
20. Propranolol 73. Ketotifen
21. Metoprolol 74. Interferon α
22. Bisoprolol 75. Methyluracil
23. Carvedilol 76. Montelukast
24. Atenolol 77. Omalizumab
25. Reserpine 78. Adalimumab
26. Methyldopa 79. Azathioprine
27. Ketamine 80. Oxytocin
28. Propofol 81. Carbetocin
29. Ethyl alcohol 82. L-Thyroxine
30. Chlorpromazine 83. Thiamazol
31. Droperidol 84. Insulin
32. Haloperidol 85. Glibenclamide
33. Risperidone 86. Glimepiride
34. Olanzapine 87. Metformin
35. Diazepam 88. Prednisolone
36. Hidazepam 89. Methylprednisolone
37. Nitrazepam 90. Dexamethasone
38. Zopiclone 91. Budesonide
39. Doxylamine 92. Mometasone furoate
40. Phenobarbital 93. Betamethasone
41. Sodium valproate 94. Beclomethasone dipropionate
42. Carbamazepine 95. Levonorgestrel
43. Lamotrigine 96. Dydrogesterone
44. Levodopa / carbidopa 97. Mifepristone
163
45. Caffeine sodium benzoate 98. Retinol acetate
46. Piracetam 99. Ergocalciferol
47. Nicergoline 100. Tocopherol acetate
48. Nimodipine 101. Pyridoxine hydrochloride
49. Amitriptyline 102. Ascorbic acid
50. Fluoxetine 103. Cyanocobalamin
51. Salbutiamine 104. Thiamine chloride
52. Venlafaxine 105. Folic acid
53. Morphine hydrochloride 106. Nicotinic acid
THE LIST OF THEORETICAL QUESTIONS TO THE FINAL CONTROL OF

KNOWLEDGE
BLOCK 1. MEDICAL PRESCRIPTION. GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY.

MEDICINES THAT AFFECT THE NERVOUS SYSTEM AND MOTION
Section I. Medical prescription. General pharmacology
1. The concept of medical prescription. Define the terms: drug substance, drug, dosage form,
drug.
2. Recipe. General rules for prescribing, forms of prescription forms. Rules for prescribing
medicines containing potent, poisonous and narcotic substances.
3. Dosage forms. Types of dosage forms, features of manufacture and prescription.
Requirements for injectable dosage forms.
4. Basic principles and methods of testing new drugs. Preclinical and clinical studies (phases I -
IV). The concept of placebo. Functions of the State Pharmacological Center of the Ministry of Health
of Ukraine. Law of Ukraine “On Medicinal Products”.
5. The concept of pharmacokinetics of drugs. Ways of introduction and removal of drugs from
the body, features of absorption and distribution in the body, the main types of biotransformation.
6. Age features of pharmacokinetics. The concept of basic pharmacokinetic parameters
(absorption rate constant, half-life, steady-state concentration, drug clearance).
7. Pharmacodynamics of drugs. Definition of the concept of dose, types of doses.
8. The concept of receptors (agonists, antagonists). Types, types and methods of action of
drugs.
9. Dependence of pharmacological effect on the properties of drugs (chemical structure,
physicochemical properties, their doses and frequency of application).
10. Dependence of the pharmacological effect on the age and sex of the patient. Features of the
child's body's response to the drug. Principles of drug dosing for children and the elderly.
11. The value of climatic and anthropogenic factors for the pharmacological action of the drug.
Dependence of action of drugs on physiological features of an organism and pathological conditions.
12. Features of action of medicines at their repeated use. The concept of material and functional
accumulation, tolerance or habituation, mental and physical dependence. The concept of withdrawal
and return syndromes. Combined action of drugs (synergism and antagonism).
13. The concept of drug safety. Side effects of drugs. Types of side effects. Intolerance.
Idiosyncrasy. Allergic reactions. Mutagenicity, teratogenicity, embryotoxicity, fetotoxicity,
carcinogenicity.
164
Section 2. Drugs that affect the peripheral nervous system
14. Principles of classification of drugs that affect the autonomic nervous system. Principles of
classification of drugs that affect the cholinergic nervous system. M- and H-cholinomimetic drugs.
15. Principles of classification of anticholinesterase drugs. Mechanism of action,
pharmacological effects, indications for use, side effects. Features of action of organophosphorus
compounds. Acute organic phosphate compounds poisoning and relief. Pharmacology of organic
phosphate compounds reactivators.
16. Principles of classification and pharmacological characteristics of M-cholinomimetics.
Influence on organs and systems. Indications for use. Acute muscarine poisoning. Relief measures,
antidote therapy.
17. Drugs that affect H-cholinoreceptors. Pharmacological effects of nicotine. Smoking as a
medical and social problem. Medicines used to combat smoking.
18. Principles of classification of M-cholinoblocking drugs. Pharmacological characteristics of
atropine sulfate. Indications for use. Acute poisoning by atropine and atropine-containing plants.
Relief measures.
19. General characteristics of H-cholinoblockers. Classification of ganglioblockers. Mechanism
of action. Pharmacological effects, indications for use, side effects. Principles of classification of
muscle relaxants. Pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics of tubacurarine chloride. Indications for use,
side effects.
20. Principles of classification of drugs that affect adrenergic innervation. Pharmacological
characteristics of adrenomimetics. Pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics of adrenaline hydrochloride.
Indications for use. Comparative characteristics of adrenomimetics. Side effect.
21. Principles of classification of antiadrenergic drugs. Features of α-blockers, mechanism of
action and indications for use. Pharmacological effects of β-blockers. Comparative characteristics of
drugs. The concept of internal sympathomimetic activity.
Section 3. Drugs that affect the function of the central nervous system. Psychotropic
drugs.
22. Principles of classification of local anesthetics, mechanism of action, comparative
characteristics of drugs. Indications for use, side effects.
23. Pharmacology of astringent drugs. Mechanism of action, indications for use.
Pharmacological characteristics of drugs.
24. General characteristics of enveloping drugs. Mechanism of action, indications for the use of
drugs. Principles of classification of adsorbents. Mechanism of action. Indications for use. Coal
preparations and synthetic sorbents.
25. Principles of classification of drugs for anesthesia. History of the discovery of drugs for
anesthesia. See anesthesia. Requirements for anesthetics. Theories of anesthesia.
26. Principles of classification of drugs for inhalation anesthesia. Comparative characteristics
of drugs, side effects. Combined use of anesthetics with drugs of other pharmacological groups.
27. Principles of classification of drugs for non-inhalation anesthesia. Comparative
characteristics of drugs. The concept of premedication, introductory, basic, combined anesthesia.
28. Pharmacology and toxicology of ethyl alcohol, use in clinical practice. Acute and chronic
alcohol poisoning, relief measures. The principle of treatment of alcoholism.
165
29. Opiate analgesics. Classification by chemical structure, origin and affinity for opiate
receptors. Mechanism of action. Pharmacology of morphine hydrochloride. Features of the drug on the
CNS. Comparative characteristics of opiate analgesics. Indications for use. Side effects.
30. Acute poisoning by opiate analgesics. Clinical manifestations and measures of care.
31. Drug dependence arising from opiate analgesics, clinical manifestations. The concept of
withdrawal syndrome, methods of treatment.
32. Non-opiate analgesics. Principles of classification, general characteristics of the group.
Mechanisms of action. Pharmacological characteristics of drugs. Comparative characteristics of non-
opiate analgesic drugs, side effects.
33. Principles of classification of psychotropic drugs. General characteristics. Neuroleptics.
Principles of classification. The mechanism of antipsychotic action of neuroleptics.
34. Comparative characteristics of neuroleptics, indications for use, side effects of neuroleptics.
Combined use with drugs of other pharmacological groups. The concept of neuroleptanalgesia.
35. Pharmacology of tranquilizers. Classification. The mechanism of tranquilizing action, the
concept of benzodiazepine receptors. Comparative characteristics of tranquilizer drugs.
36. Indications and contraindications to the use of tranquilizers, side effects. Drug dependence.
Combined use of tranquilizers with drugs of other pharmacological groups. The concept of ataralgesia.
37. Principles of classification of hypnotics. General characteristics of hypnotics, possible
mechanisms of action. Comparative characteristics of hypnotics of different groups. Indications for
use, side effects. Acute barbiturate poisoning, relief measures.
38. Principles of classification of sedatives. Pharmacology of bromides. Indications for use.
Side effects. Bromism - clinical signs, treatment and prevention. Sedative drugs of plant origin.
39. Pharmacology of normothymics. Pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, indications for
use. Side effects. Acute lithium poisoning.
40. Antiepileptic drugs. Principles of classification, comparative characteristics, side effects of
antiepileptic drugs.
41. Antiparkinsonian drugs. Classification. Basic mechanisms of action. Use in clinical
practice.
42. Psychomotor stimulants. General characteristics of the group of psychostimulants. Caffeine
sodium benzoate. Pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, indications for use, side effects.
43. Pharmacology of antidepressants. Classification of antidepressants by mechanism of action
and chemical structure. Comparison. Side effects of antidepressants.
44. Classification of nootropic drugs. Possible mechanisms of action. Indications for use.
Pharmacological characteristics of drugs.
45. Adaptogens and actoprotectors. Indications for use. The main properties of drugs,
comparative characteristics.
Section 4. Drugs that affect metabolism
46. Hormonal drugs of the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. The mechanism of action of
corticotropin, indications for use, side effects. Synthetic analogues of corticotropin.
47. Pharmacological characteristics of gonadotropic hormonal drugs. Pharmacodynamics of
drugs of the posterior pituitary gland. Indications for use.
48. Pharmacology of hormonal drugs of the thyroid gland. Antithyroid drugs. Indications and
contraindications to use, side effects.
166
49. Hypoglycemic drugs. Classification of hypoglycemic agents. Pharmacokinetics,
pharmacodynamics, indications and contraindications to insulin. Side effect. Features of use in
hyperglycemic coma.
50. Insulin overdose, help with hypoglycemic coma. Prolonged-acting insulin preparations.
51. Synthetic antidiabetic drugs. Classification, mechanism of action, indications for use.
Comparative characteristics, side effects.
52. Hormonal preparations of glucocorticoids. Pharmacological effects, indications,
contraindications to use, dosage regimen. Comparison. Side effects of glucocorticoids.
53. Sex hormones. Classification of sex hormones. General characteristics of female sex
hormones.
54. Mechanism of action and indications for the use of estrogens, antiestrogenic drugs,
progestogens, antigestagens.
55. Contraceptive drugs. Classification, principles of combination, indications and
contraindications for use, side effects. Comparative characteristics of contraceptives.
56. Preparations of male sex hormones. Pharmacological characteristics. Indications for use,
side effects. Androgen hormone antagonists.
57. Antiallergic drugs. Classification and general characteristics of antiallergic drugs.
58. Drugs used in immediate-type hypersensitivity. Pharmacology of antihistamines – blockers
of histamine H1-receptors (diphenhydramine, suprastin, fencarol, diazoline, loratadine, diprazine,
desloratidine).
59. Principles of care for anaphylactic shock. Drugs used in delayed-type hypersensitivity.
Indications for the use of cromolyn sodium, ketotifen.
60. Pharmacology of immunosuppressants (cytostatic drugs, glucocorticoids).
61. Drugs that affect immunity. Classification of immune stimulants.
62. Pharmacology of thymus preparations (thymalin), leukopoiesis stimulants (sodium
nucleinate, methyluracil), interferons and vaccines.
63. Immunosuppressive drugs (antimetabolites, alkylating compounds, glucocorticoids, enzyme
preparations). Indications for use, side effects.
64. Pharmacotherapy with vitamin preparations and its types. Classification of vitamin
preparations by solubility and biological role.
65. Characteristics of water-soluble vitamin preparations. Indications for use, side effects. The
concept of bioflavonoids, coenzyme preparations.
66. General characteristics of fat-soluble vitamin preparations. Indications and
contraindications to use. Side effects of fat-soluble vitamin preparations.
67. Multivitamin preparations. The concept of antivitamins.
68. Pharmacological characteristics of enzyme and anti-enzyme drugs. Mechanism of action
and indications for the use of peptidases, proteases, nucleases, hyaluronidase drugs and enzyme
inhibitors.
69. Pharmacological characteristics of macro- and microelement preparations. Sodium
preparations. Pharmacodynamics and indications for use. Potassium preparations. Pharmacodynamics,
indications for use.
70. Pharmacological characteristics of macro- and microelement preparations. Magnesium
preparations. Pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics. Dependence of the effect on the route of
administration. Indications for use. Calcium preparations. Pharmacological effects, indications for use,
routes of administration.
167
RECOMMENDED SOURCES OF INFORMATION
Main
1. Pharmacology : textbook for English-speaking Students of the Higher Medical Education
institutions in Ministry of Health of Ukraine = Фармакологія : підручник для англ. студ.
мед. закладів вищої освіти : [англ. мовою] / I. B. Samura, I. F. Belenichev, A. V. Nerush ;
Zaporizhzhia State Medical University. – Vinnytsia : Nova Knyha, 2020. – 362 p.
Additional
1. Pharmacology – Cito! : Textbook // Edited by S.M. Drogovoz. - Kharkiv, 2016. – 192 p.
2. Pharmacology at your palms: reference book / Drogovoz S.M., Kutsenko T.A. – Kharkiv:
NphaU, 2016. – 80 p.
3. Pharmacology : textbook for students of medical higher educational institutions [of the 4th
level of accreditation with english as the language of instruction] / V. M. Bobyrov, T. O.
Devyatkina, O. M. Vazhnicha, V. M. Khristyuk ; The ministry of public health care of Ukraine,
UMSA. - 3rd. ed.,updat. Vinnytsya : Nova Knyha, 2015. 517 p.
4. Stefanov O., Kucher V. Pharmacology with general prescription: text-book for English-
speaking students, 2nd edition. – K., 2007. – 318 p.
5. Ganziy T.V. Study Guide to Basic Pharmacology. – Kharkiv: Fakt, 2005. –264 p.
6. Firdaus M. Review of Pharmacology, 7th edition. – Karachi:Riaz Medical Publishers, 2007.–
190 p.
7. Katzung B.G. Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, 9th edition. – New-York: Lange, 2004. –
1202 p.
8. Laurence D.R., Bennet P.N., Brown M.G. Clinical Pharmacology, 8th edition. – London:
Churchill Livingstone Elsevier, 1998. –710 p.
9. Lippincott’s Illustrated Reviews: Pharmacology, 4th Edition / Ed.: R.Finkel, M.A. Clark, L.X.
Cubeddu. –Lippincott Wlliams Wilkins, 2008. – 560 p.
10. Lullman H, Albrcht Z., Klaus M, Detlef B. Color Atlas of Pharmacology.– Stuttgart – New-
York: Thieme, 2000. – 386 p.
11. Rang H.P., Dale M.M., Ritter J.M., Moore P.K. Rang’s and Dale’s Pharmacology, 6th edition.
– London: Churchill-Livingstone Elsevier, 2007. – 830 p.
12. Stringer J.L. Basic Concepts in Pharmacology. A students survival guide, 2nd edition. –
McGrowHill International Edition, 2001. – 286 p.
Information resources
http://www.diklz.gov.ua/ - State Service of Ukraine for Medicines
http://www.dec.gov.ua/ - State Export Center of the Ministry of Health of Ukraine
https://compendium.com.ua/ - directiry of medicines №1 in Ukraine
http://www.medinfo.kiev.ua/ - Information retrieval resource in medicine and pharmacology
https://moodle3.chmnu.edu.ua/ - the distance learning system at Petro Mohyla Black Sea
University
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ΜINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND SCIENCE OF UKRAINE

Petro Μohyla Black Sea Νational University

Department of medical biology and chemistry, biochemistry, phisiology, pathophisiology

field of knowledge 22 “Health care”

Developers: PHD Ogloblina M.V.

1. Introduction to medical prescriptions. Solid dosage forms 2

5. Drugs that act on the transmission of excitation in cholinergic synapses 46

6. Drugs that affect the transmission of excitation in adrenergic synapses 60

7. Drugs for general and local anesthesia. Pharmacology of ethyl alcohol 77

14. Water-soluble and fat-soluble vitamin preparations 154

The main questions for studying the topic

RULES FOR PRESCRIBING PRESCRIPTIONS FOR MEDICINES

Table of endings of nouns in the genitive case

Case End of the nominative case Genitive case Note

«а» - feminine as well as words Aloe, With endings on

«o, os, or, is, s, x, ma, l, cl, n, ur»

V «es» - feminine ei Erum

A prescription is a written appeal of a doctor, heads of medical or obstetric points to a

1. Inscriptio – inscription, which includes:

Rp.: Analgini 0.5 Rp.: Dimedroli 0.05

Stamp medical and preventive institution

Surname, name and patronymic and age of the patient:_____________

Rp.: Dibazoli 0.02 Basis Designatio

Doctor's signature and personal seal (legible) Nomen Medici

An officinal prescription is a method of prescribing drugs, the composition of which is

The magisterial prescription is a prescription made by the doctor on the basis of

General characteristics of solid dosage forms

Preparations for prescription.

1. Aminazine (Aminazinum) at 0.025 in dragee.

2. Pancreatin (Pancreatinum) at 0.5 in powder 3 times daily before a meal.

3. Diazepam (Diazepamum) at 0.005 in tablets.

4. Rifampicin (Rifampicinum) at 0.15 in capsules 3 times daily before a meal.

5. Powder containing 10% anesthetic (Anaesthesinum).

6. Prednisolone (Prednisolonum) at 0.005 in tablets.

8. Reduced iron (Ferrum reductum) at 0.5 in capsules.

10. 50.0 collection of choleretic (Species cholagogae).

11. Diphenhydramine (Dimedrolum) at 0.05 and phenobarbitalum (Phenobarbitalum) at 0.03 in

12. Metacyclin (Metacyclinum) at 0.15 in capsules.

13. Furosemide (Furosemidum) at 0.04 in tablets.

14. Barbital (Barbitalum) at 0.05 in powders.

19. Chinioform (Chinioformium) at 0.6 in capsules.

20. Papaverine hydrochloride (Papaverini hydrochloridum) at 0.02 in powder.

The report is checked up ________________________

Examples of Krok-1 tests

1. In what range can the mass of dosed A. 0.05 - 1.0

2. Specify the degrees of grinding of A. Large, medium-sized, medium-sized,

3. In what range can the mass of dosed A. 0.1 - 1.0

4. In what range can the mass of non- A. 5.0 - 100, 0

5. Choose a solid dosage form for internal A. Powders

6. Indicate the medicinal product, A. Poisonous drug

7. Specify the mass of metered powder for A. 0.1 - 1.0

8. To which dosage form are pills? A. Solid

9. To which dosage form is the species? A. Solid

11. To which dosage form is the dusting A. Solid

12. To which dosage form do tablets A. Solid

13. Medicinal substances that have an A. Capsules

14. On the prescription form of which form A. N3

15. Name the filler for metered powders A. Sugar

16. Name the filler for non-dosed powders A. Talc

17. Mark the dosage forms that are A. Magisterial

18. Indicate the mass of dosed powder for A. 0.1 - 1.0

19. Label the solid dosage form obtained A. Tablets

20. The form of release of drugs that best A. Dosage form