ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF

CA: February-March 2020

GS Paper-I: (TS21E101)

1. Answer: (d) 2. Answer: (d)

Explanation: Explanation:
The Constitution of India does not provide Detention orders under the Jammu and
for the creation of Law Commission of Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978, can be
India, hence, it is not a constitutional passed by the Divisional Commissioners
body. The constitution of the Law or the District Magistrate, if they are
Commission is not carried through any satisfied that any person
fixed legislation, hence, it is non-  may hamper or obstruct the security
statutory. It is constituted through a of the state;
government order; hence, it is created  disturb the maintenance of the public
through an executive order. order;
The Charter Act of 1833, which was  to prevent the instances of smuggling
enacted by the British Parliament, or helping to smuggle timber or liquor
provided for the establishment of a Law in the state;
Commission for consolidation and  is a foreigner within the meaning of
codification of the Indian Laws. The said the Foreigners Act.
Act provided for the addition of a fourth
ordinary member to the Governor General 3. Answer: (c)
in Council for India, who was to be a legal Explanation:
expert in the making of laws. Lord The Kuno National Park is a protected
Macaulay was appointed as the fourth area in Madhya Pradesh that received the
ordinary member and was entitled to status of a National Park in 2018. The
participate in the meetings of the protected area was established in 1981 as
Governor General in Council for making a Wildlife Sanctuary.
of laws. In 1835, Lord Macaulay was In 2018, the state government changed
appointed as the Chairman of the First the status of the Wildlife Sanctuary to the
Law Commission. Sir James Stephen was Kuno National Park and enlarged the
appointed as a Law Member, in place of protected area.
Lord Macaulay. Differences between a Wildlife
The reports of the Law Commission are Sanctuary and a National Park :
advisory in nature. However, the reports Wildlife Sanctuary National Park
of the Law Commission are considered by
Human activities No human activities
the Ministry of Law, in consultation with
are allowed. are allowed.
the concerned administrative ministries
Main aim is to Can include flora,
and are submitted to the Parliament from
protect a particular fauna or any other
time to time. The reports of the Law
flora or fauna. objects of historical
Commission are also cited in the courts,
significance.
in academic and public discourses, and
are acted upon by the concerned There are no fixed Boundaries are
government departments, depending on boundaries. fixed and defined.
the government's recommendations. It is open to the Not usually open to

RAUSIAS-TS21E101 1
 general public the public. 4. Answer: (c)
Sanctuaries are National Parks are Explanation:
usually formed by formed by the State These statements form part of the
the order of Central or Central judgment of the Supreme Court on
or the State Legislature. reservations in public services.
Government. Articles 16 (4) and 16 (4A) empower the
A Sanctuary can be A National Park state to make reservations in the matters
upgraded to a cannot be of appointment and promotion in favour
National Park. downgraded to a of the Scheduled Castes and the
Sanctuary. Scheduled Tribes, 'if in the opinion of the
state, they are not adequately represented
In the 1990s, it was selected as a possible
in the services of the state'.
site to implement the Asiatic Lion
1. Articles 16 (4) and 16 (4A) are in the
Reintroduction Project, which aimed at
nature of enabling provisions and
establishing a second lion population in
accordingly, the state has discretion
India.
either to provide reservations in public
In 2009, the Kuno Wildlife Sanctuary was
services under Article 16(4) or
also proposed as a possible site for
reservation in promotions under
Cheetah Reintroduction in India.
Article 16(4A) or not to provide such
The Supreme Court has lifted the seven reservations.
year stay on a proposal to introduce the
2. If the states wish to provide
African Cheetahs from Namibia into the
reservations in promotion, then the
Indian habitat on an experimental basis.
states have to collect quantifiable
Note - Cheetah is the only mammal to data showing inadequacy of
become extinct in India in the last representation of that class in
1,000 years. public services.
In May 2012, the Supreme Court stalled 3. Even if under-representation of the
the plan to initiate the African Cheetahs Scheduled Castes and the Schedules
into the Kuno-Palpur Sanctuary. Tribes in public services is brought to
Currently, the Nauradehi Wildlife the notice of the Court, the state
Sanctuary, Madhya Pradesh, is being cannot be directed to provide such
considered for Cheetah reintroduction. reservations under the writ of
There were various reasons behind the Mandamus.
judgement:
4. The Supreme Court effectively held
• The Cheetah may come into conflict that the state government is not
with a parallel project to reintroduce bound to make reservations and the
the lions into the same sanctuary. citizens cannot claim reservations in
• Priority has to be given for the public services under Article 16(4) and
preservation of our own species. reservations in promotion under
• Favourable climate and abundance of Article 16(4A) as a Fundamental
prey for the African Cheetahs was Right.
under question.
• Concern over man-animal conflict. 5. Answer: (b)
ABOUT THE CHEETAH – Explanation:
• A keystone and flagship species of the The said technology will enable two-way
dry forests, scrub forests and the electronic voting under a controlled
savannahs. environment by using the Blockchain
• It is also the world’s fastest land technology. The two-way electronic
mammal. transmission of vote envisages that a

RAUSIAS-TS21E101 2
 registered voter from any location in
India, once his identity is proved, will be
able to cast his vote electronically
through a secure encrypted system and
the same will reach the designated
returning officer for counting.
6. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The postal ballot, after casting of the
vote, is sent by normal postal service
and not through e-mail.
The Electronically Transmitted Postal
Ballot System (ETPBS) is a one-way
electronic transmission of the postal
ballots to the service voters. The service
voters then cast their vote and send it to
the respective Returning Officer via post.
The complete process is secured by way
of multiple checks and transmission
protocol to ensure safe transmission.
Upon receipt of the postal ballot at the
counting centres, the Returning Officer
validates the receipt by a series of QR
codes with that of the transmitted
system.
7. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Convention on Migratory Species
or the Bonn Convention and CMS COP
is known as the Global Wildlife
Conference. It aims to conserve
terrestrial, marine and avian migratory
species throughout their range.
• It is an international treaty, concluded
under the aegis of the United Nations
Environment Programme, concerned
with the conservation of wildlife and
habitats on a global scale.
• The Convention was signed in 1979.
• Appendix I – Threatened migratory
species.
• Appendix II – Migratory species
requiring international co-operation.
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8. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The scientists at the Agharkar Research
Institute (ARI), Pune, an autonomous
institute under the Department of Science
and Technology, have isolated 45 different
strains of methanotrophic bacteria, which
have been found to be capable of reducing
methane emissions from the rice plants.
Methanotrophs metabolize and convert
methane into carbon-dioxide. They can
effectively reduce the emission of
methane, which is the second most
important greenhouse gas (GHG). In rice
fields, methanotrophs are active near the
roots or the soil-water interfaces.
Rice fields are human-made wetlands and
are waterlogged for a considerable period.
Anaerobic degradation of the organic
matter results in the generation of
methane. Rice fields contribute to nearly
10% of the global methane emissions.
Very few studies in the world have
focused on methanotrophs from the
tropical wetlands or the tropical rice
fields.
Native and relevant methanotrophs,
isolated from the rice fields, can be
excellent models to understand the effects
of various factors on methane mitigation.
9. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Bengal Florican –
• It lives in open tall grassland habitats
with scattered bushes.
• The Bengal Florican is very well
known for its mating dance.
• It is called the Bengal Bustard. It is
a bustard species native to the Indian
sub-continent, Cambodia and
Vietnam.
• In India, it occurs from Uttar Pradesh,
through the Terai of Nepal to Assam
and Arunachal Pradesh in India, and
historically to Bangladesh.
• It is listed as Critically Endangered on
the IUCN Red List.
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10. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The International Maritime Organization
(IMO) is a specialized agency of the United
Nations, responsible for regulating
shipping.
The IMO is a global standard-setting
authority for the safety, security and
environmental performance of
international shipping. It bears the
responsibility for the prevention of marine
and atmospheric pollution by the ships.
It currently has 174 member states and
three associate members. There are also
scores of non-governmental and inter-
governmental organizations.
The binding instruments are brought in
through the conventions – to which the
member states sign on to for compliance –
as well as amendments to the same and
related codes.
To curb the emissions from shipping, the
IMO has agreed on an ambition to reduce
GHG emissions from shipping by at least
50% by 2050.
The IMO has set the target of de-
carbonization with the development and
deployment of commercially viable deep-
sea zero emission vessels by 2030.
11. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Pointing to the lack of efficient overland
connectivity between India and the
Central Asian countries, the External
Affairs Minister said that the two regions
should examine the viability of
establishing air corridors between them to
boost trade and economic engagement.
The air corridors – similar to what India
established with Afghanistan in 2018 –
would include regular cargo flights with
special clearing and customs facilities to
expedite the movement of goods,
especially fresh fruits and other
agricultural produce.
Air corridors with Central Asia are not the
first of its kind. India and Afghanistan
have already announced a plan to create
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a joint air corridor to enhance bilateral
trade, following Pakistan’s reluctance to
allow transit rights through its territory.
12. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The first India-Africa Defence Ministers’
Conclave (IADMC), held in Lucknow,
coinciding with the Defence Expo-2020,
adopted the Lucknow Declaration.
Important highlights are:
 Co-operation in Defence Preparedness
- It appreciated the initiation of the
Africa-India Field Training Exercise
with the first ever AFINDEX (Africa -
India Field Training Exercise) in
March, 2019 and agrees that it will
further strengthen co-operation in
defence preparedness and security.
 Achieve conflict-free Africa.
 Enhancing Peacekeeping Efforts -
Further strengthen co-operation in
enhancing peacekeeping capacity and
peace- building efforts, including
support to the African Standby Force
(ASF) and through courses, such as
those at the Centre for UN
Peacekeeping (CUNPK) in New Delhi
and by other Peacekeeping Training
Centres in Africa.
 Exchange of experts.
 Greater co-operation in the defence
sector.
13. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
“Operation Vanilla” has been launched by
the Indian Navy to help the cyclone-hit
Madagascar. INS Airavat is a large
amphibious ship that was on a mission-
based deployment near Seychelles. It has
been immediately diverted to Madagascar
to provide assistance to the flood affected
people.
The assistance of India to Madagascar is
in consonance with the Indian Navy's
Foreign Co-operation Initiatives, in line
with the Prime Minister's vision of
'Security and Growth for all in the Region
(SAGAR)'.
4
14. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The West Asia Peace Plan is unveiled by
the U.S. President Donald Trump. It
seeks to give the Israelis an expansive
state with Jerusalem as its “undivided
capital” and a tight security control over a
future Palestinian state. The Plan will
revive the stalled two-state talks between
the Israelis and the Palestinians.
Highlights of the Plan –
The Plan proposes some land swap for the
Israeli annexation of the West Bank
Jewish settlements. It seeks to enlarge
Gaza and connect the strip with the West
Bank through a tunnel.
It proposes an independent Palestinian
state and the recognition of Israeli
sovereignty over the West Bank
settlements. The Plan says that
Jerusalem will not be divided and it will
remain “the sovereign capital of the State
of Israel”.
The capital of Palestine can occupy far-
flung eastern neighbourhoods lying
beyond “the existing security barrier”,
which can be renamed Al Quds, the
Arabic name for Jerusalem.
According to the Plan, “Jerusalem’s holy
sites should be subject to the same
governance regimes that exist today” and
“should remain open and available for the
peaceful worshippers and tourists of all
faiths”.
The Palestinian refugees, who were forced
out from their homes during the 1948
Arab-Israeli war, that followed the
declaration of the state of Israel in the
historic Palestine, would not be allowed to
return. They could move to the future
Palestinian state, be integrated into the
host countries or settled in other regional
countries.
The Jordan Valley, “which is critical for
Israel’s national security, will be under
Israeli sovereignty”. It also says that the
Israelis will observe a four-year “land
freeze”, during which time the
Palestinians can reconsider whether to
engage in negotiations.
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15. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
India, in partnership with Australia and
Indonesia, organized the fourth East Asia
Summit (EAS) Conference on Maritime
Security Co-operation in Chennai in
February, 2020.
The first Conference was organized in
New Delhi in November, 2015, the second
in Goa in November, 2016 and the third
in Bhubaneswar in June, 2018.
The EAS is a regional forum held
annually by the leaders of, initially, 16
countries in the East Asian, South-east
Asian and South Asian regions, based on
the ASEAN Plus Six mechanism.
Its membership has expanded to 18
countries, including Russia and the
United States at the Sixth EAS in 2011.
16. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The landmark Bangladesh, Bhutan, India
and Nepal on the Motor Vehicles
Agreement (BBIN MVA) was signed by the
Transport Ministers of the BBIN countries
in Thimphu, Bhutan in 2015.
Trial runs for cargo vehicles under the
MVA were conducted along the Kolkata-
Dhaka-Agartala and the Delhi-Kolkata-
Dhaka routes in the past. The trials were
successful in establishing the
Agreement’s economic benefits.
Only Bangladesh, India and Nepal have
already ratified the MVA.
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has
been providing technical, advisory and
financial support to the BBIN MVA
initiative, as part of its assistance to the
South Asia Sub-Regional Economic Co-
operation (SASEC) Programme.
17. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Refugee Convention, 1951 defines
refugees as persons fleeing persecution
on grounds of race, religion, nationality,
social group or political opinion. Refugees
5
 get legal rights – to education, work and
property.
The Convention also applies the principle
of ‘Non-refoulement’, which prevents the
states from sending back the refugees to
persecution in their home countries.
India is not a party to the 1951 Refugee
Convention or its 1967 Protocol.
18. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A bat-borne virus is any virus whose
primary reservoir is any species of bat.
The viruses include coronaviruses, such
as severe acute respiratory syndrome
coronavirus (SARS-CoV) and severe acute
respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2
(SARS-CoV-2); Hantaviruses; rabies virus;
Ebola virus and nipah virus.
Bats host more zoonotic viruses per
species – on average, each species of bat
hosts 1.8 zoonotic viruses, while rodents
host 1.48 viruses per species.
What makes the bats source of virus?
 Bats are especially tolerant of
viruses compared to the terrestrial
mammals. Viral infection in these bats
leads to a swift response that walls
the virus out of the cells. While this
may protect the bats from getting
infected with high viral loads, it
encourages these viruses to reproduce
more quickly within a host before a
defence can be mounted. This makes
bats a unique reservoir of rapidly
reproducing and highly transmissible
viruses. While the bats can tolerate
viruses like these, when these bat
viruses move into the animals that
lack a fast-response immune system,
the viruses quickly overwhelm their
new hosts, leading to high fatality
rates.
 Humans have started creeping into
the areas where bats naturally live,
especially in the tropics, which has led
to an increased risk of contact with
these animals. As people continue to
move into jungles on the planet, they
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
will see more and more outbreaks of
zoonotic viruses.
 Bats prefer to live close to one
another (like the humans spreading
respiratory viruses, like flu during
winter), giving plenty of opportunities
for the pathogens to spread between
the bats.
 Heightened environmental threats
to the bats may add to the threat of
zoonosis. Disrupting bat habitat
appears to stress the animals and
makes them shed even more virus in
their saliva, urine and faeces, that can
infect other animals.
But why are these lethal viruses not
deadly for the bats?
 Their ability to fly. Bats are the only
mammals that are naturally capable
of sustained flight. It takes a lot of
energy to fly and when a lot of energy
is being utilized, a lot of waste is
produced. To prevent this from
damaging the DNA of the bats, they
have, over time, evolved a
sophisticated defence mechanism that
also helps prevent them from
succumbing to diseases. In bats, an
anti-viral immune pathway, called the
STING-interferon pathway, is
dampened and the bats can maintain
just enough defences against illness,
without triggering the immune
systems from going into over-drive. In
humans and other mammals, an
immune-based over-response to one of
these and other pathogenic viruses
can trigger severe illness. For
example, in humans, an activated
STING pathway is linked with severe
auto-immune diseases.
 Their ability to generate large
repertoires of naïve anti-bodies, or
the fact that when bats fly, their
internal temperatures are increased
to around 40 degrees C (104 degrees
F), which is not ideal for many
viruses. Only the viruses that have
evolved tolerance mechanisms survive
in the bats. These hardy viruses can,
6
 therefore, tolerate human fever. What
is a good thing for the bats is a bad
thing for the humans.
19. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The atmosphere of the Sun is composed
of several layers, mainly the photosphere,
the chromosphere and the corona. It is in
these outer layers that the Sun's energy,
which has bubbled up from
the Sun's interior layers, is detected as
Sunlight. The lowest layer of the Sun's
atmosphere is the photosphere.
THE PARKER SOLAR PROBE (NASA) –
• It is the 1st ever visit to the star. It
will be 6.2 million kms to the Sun at
the closest approach. It is also the
closest. A human-made object has
ever gone to the Sun.
• It will fly through the Sun’s inner
atmosphere to trace how energy flows
through the corona.
• It is a robotic spacecraft to probe the
outer corona of the Sun.
THE PUNCH MISSION –
• It is also a NASA mission, which aims
to understand the transition of
particles from the Sun’s outer
corona to the solar wind that fills
the interplanetary space.
• It will have a constellation of four
suitcase sized microsats, that will
orbit the Earth.
• It will image and track the solar wind
and the coronal mass ejections.
• It will be launched in 2022.
ADITYA-1 and ADITYA-L1 (ISRO) –
• India’s 1st first mission to study the
Sun, to be launched in early 2020.
• Its main objective is to study the
solar corona.
• Initially, Aditya-1 was meant to
observe the solar corona only.
• Now additional payloads under
Aditya-L1 will observe corona,
chromosphere and photosphere.
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• It is called L1, because it is placed in
the L1 orbit (Lagrange Point), which is
outside the Earth’s magnetic field to
study the solar winds.
20. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Recently, the scientists carrying out
excavation in the Kutch region of Gujarat,
stumbled upon a premolar tooth, which
belonged to an extinct ancient elephant,
called Deinotheriumindicum.
21. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous
District Council (TTAADC) has moved
resolutions to codify the customary laws
of the three tribal clans. The Council
introduced separate Bills to adopt the law
of the Mizo, the Kaipeng and the Malsom
communities to redress their long-
standing demands.
Even after the codification, the
customary law has limited jurisdiction
and can only deal with the elected civil
law matters. Most of the customary laws
of the numerous tribal groups in the
north-east India are not in written
structure.
About the Sixth Schedule:
1. The Sixth Schedule to the
Constitution deals with the
administration of the tribal areas in
the four north-eastern states of
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram, as per Article 244. The
Sixth Schedule to the Constitution
provides for 10 Autonomous
District Councils in 4 states. But,
they do not fall outside the executive
authority of the state concerned.
2. The Governor is empowered to
organize and re-organize the
Autonomous Districts. Thus, he can
increase or decrease their areas or
change their names or define their
boundaries, and so on.
7
 3. If there are different tribes in an
Autonomous District, the Governor
can divide the district into several
autonomous regions.
4. Each Autonomous District has a
District Council, consisting of 30
members, of whom four are
nominated by the Governor and the
remaining 26 are elected on the basis
of adult franchise. The elected
members hold office for a term of five
years (unless the Council is dissolved
earlier) and the nominated members
hold office during the pleasure of the
Governor. Each Autonomous Region
also has a separate Regional Council.
5. The District and the Regional Councils
administer the areas under their
jurisdiction. They can make laws on
certain specified matters, like land,
forests, canal water, shifting
cultivation, village administration,
inheritance of property, marriage and
divorce, social customs, and so on.
But all such laws require the assent of
the Governor.
6. The District and Regional Councils,
within their territorial jurisdictions,
can constitute Village Councils or
courts for the trial of suits and cases
among the tribes. They hear appeals
from them. The jurisdiction of the
High Court over these suits and cases
is specified by the Governor.
7. The District Council can establish,
construct or manage primary schools,
dispensaries, markets, ferries,
fisheries, roads and so on in the
district. It can also make regulations
for the control of money lending and
trading by non-tribals. But, such
regulations require the assent of the
Governor.
8. The District and Regional Councils are
empowered to assess and collect land
revenue, and to impose certain
specified taxes.
9. The Acts of the Parliament or the
State Legislature do not apply to the
Autonomous Districts and the
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Autonomous Regions, or apply with
specified modifications and
exceptions.
10. The Governor can appoint a
Commission to examine and report on
any matter relating to the
administration of the Autonomous
Districts or Autonomous Regions. He
may dissolve a District or a Regional
Council on the recommendation of the
Commission.
22. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Deposit Insurance and Credit
Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a
wholly owned subsidiary of the Reserve
Bank of India. It was established for
the purpose of providing insurance of
deposits and guaranteeing of credit
facilities. The DICGC insures all bank
deposits, such as saving, fixed, current,
recurring deposit for up to the limit of Rs.
5,00,000 of each deposit in a bank.
Which banks are insured by the
DICGC?
Commercial Banks: All commercial
banks, including the branches of the
foreign banks functioning in India, the
local area banks and the regional rural
banks are insured by the DICGC.
Co-operative Banks : All State, Central
and Primary Co-operative banks, also
called the Urban Co-operative banks,
functioning in the states / Union
Territories, which have amended the local
Co-operative Societies Act, empowering
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to order
the Registrar of Co-operative Societies of
the state / Union Territory to wind up a
Co-operative Bank or to supersede its
committee of management and requiring
the Registrar not to take any action
regarding winding up, amalgamation or
reconstruction of a Co-operative Bank,
without prior sanction in writing from the
RBI, are covered under the Deposit
Insurance Scheme. At present, all Co-
operative Banks are covered by the
DICGC.
Primary Co-operative Societies are not
insured by the DICGC.
8
23. Answer: (c) 26. Answer: (b)
Explanation: Explanation:
The Mahadayi River (The Mandovi River) The archaeological remains of the
originates in the Bhimgad Wildlife Harappan port-town of Lothal are located
Sanctuary in the Western Ghats, along the Bhogava River, a tributary of
Belagavi district of Karnataka. (Therefore, Sabarmati, in the Gulf of Khambat.
it passes through this Sanctuary). The excavated site of Lothal is the only
It flows in a westerly direction. port-town of the Indus Valley Civilization.
The Mandovi joins with the Zuari at a The availability of antiquities, whose
common creek at Cabo Aguada, forming origin is traceable to the Persian Gulf and
the Mormugao harbour. Mesopotamia, and the presence of what is
Panaji, the state capital and Old Goa, the identified as a bead making industry,
former capital of Goa, are both situated further attributes Lothal as an industrial
on the left bank of this river. port-town of the Harappan culture.
A joint burial discovered at Lothal (in
24. Answer: (a) Gujarat) is regarded as a probable
instance of a widow’s self-sacrifice,
Explanation:
demonstrative of the grief over her
SAARC (The South Asian Association
husband’s death.
for Regional Co-operation):
A joint burial of a couple was also found
SAARC was established with the signing
at Rakhigarhi in Haryana.
of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8th
Note: The Government has announced
December, 1985.
allocation to the Ministry of Culture for
SAARC comprises eight Member States: the maritime museum at Lothal in
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Gujarat. The project is being implemented
India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and by the Ministry of Shipping through its
Sri Lanka. Sagarmala Programme, with the
The headquarter of the SAARC Secretariat involvement of the Archaeological Survey
is at Kathmandu, Nepal. of India (ASI).
BIMSTEC (The Bay of Bengal Initiative
for Multi-Sectoral Technical and 27. Answer: (d)
Economic Co-operation):
Explanation:
The members of BIMSTEC are India,
Archaeological evidences from the Indus
Nepal, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and
Valley sites (c. 3,300 BC to 1,300 BC), in
Bhutan from South Asia; with
present-day India and Pakistan, suggest
Myanmar and Thailand from South
that a purely vegetarian meal would not
East Asia.
provide a complete picture of what the
BIMSTEC Secretariat is located in Dhaka, Harappan people ate.
Bangladesh.
• Judging from the quantity of bones
left behind, animal foods were
25. Answer: (a) consumed in abundance: beef,
Explanation: buffalo, mutton, turtles, tortoises,
Sun Temple Associated River gharials, and river and sea fish.
• Apart from meat, the people of the
1. Modhera Pushpavati
Indus Valley Civilization cultivated
2. Konark Chandrabhaga and ate a variety of cereals and
3. Dakshinaarka Falgu pulses.
• There is archaeological evidence for
the cultivation of pea (matar),

RAUSIAS-TS21E101 9
 chickpea (chana), pigeon pea
(tur/arhar), horse gram (chana dal)
and green gram (moong).
• Several varieties of wheat have been
found at the Harappan sites. Barley of
two-rowed and six-rowed kinds has
also been found.
• There is evidence that the Harappans
cultivated the Italian millet, ragi and
amaranth, as well as sorghum and
rice.
• Oilseeds, such as sesame, linseed and
mustard, were also grown.
28. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Sikandar Lodhi, in whose reign Vasco da
Gama landed in India, was the most
powerful of the Lodhi rulers. He made
conquests in Bihar and Bengal,
subjugated Gwalior and founded the city
of Agra in 1504.
In the First Battle of Panipat, Babur
defeated his son Ibrahim Lodhi.
Note: The Portuguese nobleman, Vasco
da Gama, sailed from Lisbon in 1497 on a
mission to reach India and open a sea
route from Europe to the East. After
sailing down the western coast of Africa
and rounding the Cape of Good Hope, his
expedition made numerous stops in
Africa before reaching the trading post of
Calicut, India, in 1498.
29. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
As a defence against subsequent attacks
by the Mongols, Allauddin Khalji built a
new circular fortified city at Siri, near the
Qutb Minar, that was designated as the
Khaljī capital.
Muhammad bin Tughluq’s successor,
Fīrūz Shah Tughluq, abandoned the
Daulatabad site and in 1354, moved his
capital farther north, near the ancient site
of Indraprastha.
• The capital he founded, Firuzabad,
was situated in what is now the Firoz
Shah Kotla area of contemporary
Delhi.
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
30. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Currently, India has 22 operating
nuclear power reactors, with an
installed capacity of 6,780 Mega Watt
electric (MWe). Among these, eighteen
reactors are Pressurized Heavy
Water Reactors (PHWRs) and four
are Light Water Reactors (LWRs).
 India is not a member of the Nuclear
Suppliers Group (NSG). Recently, the
U.S.A has reaffirmed its strong
support to India’s early membership
in the 48-member NSG. Notably,
China has blocked India’s pending
membership to the elite grouping,
that seeks to prevent proliferation of
the nuclear weapons.
31. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is a
National Standard Body of India,
established under the BIS Act, 1986, for
the harmonious development of the
activities of standardization, marking and
quality certification of goods, and for
matters connected therewith or incidental
there to.
 The BIS Act allows multiple types
of simplified conformity assessment
schemes, including self-declaration of
conformity.
 The BIS Act provides enabling
provisions for
making hallmarking of precious metal
articles mandatory.
 The Act enables the Central
Government to appoint
any authority/agency, in addition to
the BIS, to verify the conformity of the
products and the services with the
established standard
and issue certificate of conformity.
 There is a provision for repair or
recall of the products (bearing
Standard Mark), that do not conform
to the relevant Indian Standard.
10
32. Answer: (a) angiotensin II type-I receptor blockers
Explanation: (ARBs).
 ‘Mini Moon’ is an asteroid, which  Hypertension is also treated with ACE
has entered into an orbit around the inhibitors and ARBs, which result in
Earth, acting as the ‘Second Moon’. an increased expression of ACE2.
 The asteroid is called 2020 CD3 and  Consequently, the increased
has a diameter of about 1.9 m to expression of ACE2 would facilitate
3.5m. It is about the size of a car and infection with COVID-19. The
was discovered in February, 2020. scientists, therefore, hypothesise
 The ‘Mini Moon’ is a temporarily that diabetes and hypertension
captured object (TCO). This means treatment with ACE2-stimulating
that it will escape the Earth’s orbit in drugs increases the risk of
a few years. Its orbit is unstable and it developing severe and fatal COVID-
has to contend with the gravitational 19.
influence of the Sun and the
permanent Moon. 34. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
33. Answer: (b)  Recently, the National Green Tribunal
Explanation: (NGT) has directed the constitution of
 The ACE2 receptor on our cells is the a joint committee to take samples of
binding site for SARS-CoV-2, the virus water from Bengaluru’s Ulsoor
that causes COVID-19. Lake and the neighbouring areas.

 Like other coronaviruses, SARS-CoV-2  Biochemical Oxygen Demand: BOD

virus particles are spherical and have
mushroom-shaped proteins, called
spikes protruding from their surface,
giving the particles a crown-like
appearance. The spike binds and
fuses to the human cells, allowing the
virus to gain entry.
 The researchers also found that like in
the case of the SARS coronavirus, the
spike protein of the novel coronavirus
(SARS-CoV-2), that causes COVID-19
disease, binds to the cellular receptor
called angiotensin-converting
enzyme 2 (ACE2), which serves as
the entry point into the human
cells.
 But, unlike in the case of SARS, the
spike protein of the novel
coronavirus binds to the cell
receptor with much higher affinity
— 10 to 20-fold higher.
 The expression of ACE2 is
substantially increased in the patients
with type 1 or type 2 diabetes, who
are treated with ACE inhibitors and
is the amount of dissolved oxygen
used by micro-organisms in the
biological process of metabolizing
organic matter in water. The more
organic matter there is (e.g., in sewage
and polluted bodies of water), the
greater the BOD; and the greater the
BOD, the lower the amount of
dissolved oxygen available for higher
animals, such as fish.
 Chemical Oxygen Demand: COD is a
method of estimating how much
oxygen would be depleted from a body
of receiving water as a result of the
bacterial action.
35. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Warehousing Development and
Regulatory Authority (WDRA) was
established under the Warehousing
(Development and Regulation) Act, 2007.
It functions under the Department of
Food and Public Distribution, under the
Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and
Public Distribution.

RAUSIAS-TS21E101 11
 No person shall commence or carry on  The Global Competitiveness Report:
the business of warehousing, issuing the The World Economic Forum
Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWRs),
unless he has obtained a registration 37. Answer: (d)
certificate after fulfilling the prescribed
Explanation:
norms in respect of the concerned
The Solar Risk Mitigation Initiative
warehouse or warehouses granted by the
(SRMI) :
Authority under this Act.
It is an initiative of the World Bank;
Benefits of the Negotiable Warehouse
Agence Francaise de Development (AFD);
Receipts:
the International Solar Alliance (ISA);
The Negotiable Warehouse Receipts
and the International Renewable Energy
(NWRs), issued by the WDRA, will help
Agency (IRENA).
the farmers to seek loans from the banks
The SRMI aims to support countries in
against the NWRs to avoid distress sales
developing sustainable solar programmes,
of agricultural produce during the peak
that will attract private investments and
marketing season and to avoid the post-
so, reduce reliance on public finances.
harvest storage loss.
The SRMI helps the countries develop and
The warehouses, which intend to issue e-
implement their grid-connected and off-
NWRs, are required to be registered with
grid solar targets, by mitigating risks
the WDRA.
inherent to (i) solar deployment and (ii)
The WDRA has decided that from August,
attracting private capital.
2019 onwards, no warehouseman shall
The SRMI’s unique approach offers
issue any Negotiable Warehouse Receipt
development and climate financing for the
in physical form and shall get on-boarded
following:
with one or more repositories registered
with the WDRA and shall issue Negotiable 1. Technical assistance to help the
Warehouse Receipts only in the electronic countries develop evidence-based
form. solar targets, implement a sustainable
solar programme and maintain robust
Presently two repositories are there:
procurement processes (with
1. The National E-Repository Limited;
transaction advisors).
and
2. Critical public investments to enable
2. The CDSL Commodity Repository
integration of variable renewable
Limited.
energy (VRE), finance solar park
infrastructure (if applicable) and
36. Answer: (b) increase access to electricity.
Explanation: 3. Risk mitigation instruments to cover
The International IP (Intellectual Property) residual risks perceived by the private
Index is published by the US Chamber of investors.
Commerce’s Global Innovation Policy
Centre. The International IP Index 38. Answer: (a)
evaluates the IP infrastructure in each
Explanation:
economy, based on 50 unique indicators,
Gharial –
which are critical to the growth of
effective IP systems. IUCN status: Critically endangered.
Other International Indices related to The snout of the gharial is uniquely the
Innovation: thinnest and the most elongated among
all the crocodilians. In addition, the adult
 The Global Innovation Index (GII):
males sport a large bulb at the tip of their
WIPO
snout, called the 'ghara'. The gharial is

RAUSIAS-TS21E101 12
 also the most aquatic of all crocodilians,
for it never moves far from the water.
Females lay their eggs in steep, sandy
river banks.
The species is largely piscivorous of all
extant crocodilians. Possession of a
strongly attenuated snout and rows of
uniform sharp teeth, supported by a
relatively long, well-muscled neck, makes
it the most efficient fish catcher.
They are found in:
1. Nepal: The Chitwan National Park
(The Narayani Rapti river system) and
the Bardia National Park (The Karnali-
Babai river system).
2. The Corbett National Park (The
Ramganga river)
3. The Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary
(Upper Ganga)
4. The Katerniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary
(River Girwa)
5. The Valmiki Tiger Reserve (The
Gandak River)
6. The National Chambal Sanctuary (The
Chambal River)
7. The Mahanadi river (The Satkosia
Gorge Sanctuary)
8. The Son river (Madhya Pradesh)
39. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The East Asian Observatory (EAO) was
formed by the East Asian Core
Observatories Association (EACOA),
for the purpose of pursuing joint
projects in astronomy within the East
Asian region. In the era of very large
scale astronomical instruments, East
Asia will be competitive internationally
by combining their funding resources,
their technical expertise and their
manpower. The intention of the EAO
is to build and operate facilities,
which will enhance and leverage
existing and planned regional
facilities.
 Further, the intention of the EAO is to
raise funding and to build an
observatory staff, separate from that
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
of the EACOA institutions. As
partners of the EAO, the EACOA
institutes will help to establish the
funding and to oversee the governance
of the EAO. The communities
represented by the partners in the
EAO would have full access to all EAO
facilities.
40. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Solar Orbiter Mission – It aims to
study the Sun, up close and from high
latitudes, providing first images of the
Sun's poles and investigating the
heliosphere.
It is an ESA (The European Space Agency)
mission with strong partnership from
NASA.
Multiple gravity assists with Venus will
increase Solar Orbiter's inclination out of
the plane of the solar system.
41. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Commonwealth is a voluntary association
of 54 independent and equal countries.
The Commonwealth's roots go back to the
British Empire. But, today any country
can join the modern Commonwealth. The
last country to join the Commonwealth
was Rwanda in 2009.
Recently, the Maldives re-joined the
Commonwealth in 2020. It had left the
Commonwealth in 2016.
42. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Bodo language had been added to the 8th
Schedule to the Constitution in 2003.
The traditional dance of the Bodos is
Bagurumba.
The Bwisagu Festival – The festival
begins with the worship of the cow on
the first day and continues with the
worship of their supreme God, Bathou
(identified with Lord Shiva), and
community feast and dancing on the
13
 second day, before it is concluded with a bring about national legislative and
prayer at a designated place, regulatory reforms. The Plenary meets
called Garjasal. three times per year.
Jurisdictions under the 'Grey List' face
43. Answer: (d) increased monitoring. When the FATF
Explanation: places a jurisdiction under increased
monitoring, the country has to resolve
No law of the State Legislature can cast
swiftly the identified strategic deficiencies
any duties or confer any powers upon the
within the agreed time-frames and is
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
subject to increased monitoring.
(CAG) or his representatives. Likewise,
Currently, there are 18 jurisdictions
the duties and powers of the CAG,
identified as having strategic deficiencies,
prescribed by law made by the
including Mauritius and Pakistan, as per
Parliament, cannot be superseded or
the FATF.
abridged by or under any law made by
the State Legislature. Mauritius has been a tax haven for the
foreign investors for the past three
The reports of the CAG are submitted to
decades to bet on the Indian stocks. For
the President in case of the Union and to
several years, there have been
the Governor in case of the state, who, in
apprehensions about Mauritius being a
turn, cause them to be tabled before the
money-laundering route for the FPIs, due
House.
to its limited regulatory oversight. But,
Article 148 of the Constitution bars the
the Indian Ocean island nation has been
CAG from further employment under the
taking several steps in the recent years to
Union or the state governments, after he
address the concerns. The country will
ceases to hold the office of the CAG.
work actively with the FATF to address
strategic deficiencies in the regime to
44. Answer: (a) counter money laundering, terrorist
Explanation: financing and proliferation financing.
As the Financial Action Task Force FATF’s Black List - North Korea and
(FATF), the inter-governmental body that Iran.
sets anti-money laundering standards,
has put Mauritius on the “Grey List”, 45. Answer: (d)
alongside the likes of Pakistan, it has
Explanation:
dealt a body blow to the foreign
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy
institutional investors (FIIs) domiciled or
(Amendment) Bill 2020 –
registered there. There have been jitters
in the Indian equity markets ever since, Termination of Pregnancy: Under the
as these FIIs have significant exposure to Bill, a pregnancy may be terminated
the Indian markets. within 12 weeks, if a registered medical
practitioner is of the opinion that: (i)
The FATF was established in 1989 by the
continuation of the pregnancy may risk
Group of Seven (G-7) Summit in Paris.
the life of the mother, or cause grave
The FATF is an inter-governmental body,
injury to her health, or (ii) there is a
which sets standards and promotes
substantial risk that the child, if born,
effective implementation of legal,
would suffer physical or mental
regulatory and operational measures for
abnormalities.
combating money laundering, terrorist
For the termination of a pregnancy
financing and other related threats to the
between 12 to 20 weeks, two medical
integrity of the international financial
practitioners are required to give their
system. It works with the countries to
opinion.
generate the necessary political will to

RAUSIAS-TS21E101 14
 The Bill amends this provision to state
that a pregnancy may be terminated
within 20 weeks, with the opinion of a
registered medical practitioner. Approval
of two registered medical practitioners
will be required for the termination of
pregnancies between 20 to 24 weeks. The
termination of pregnancies up to 24
weeks will only apply to specific
categories of women, as may be
prescribed by the central government.
Further, the central government will
notify the norms for the medical
practitioner whose opinion is required for
the termination of pregnancy.
Under the Act, if any pregnancy occurs as
a result of the failure of any device or
method used by a married woman or her
husband to limit the number of children,
such an unwanted pregnancy may
constitute a grave injury to the mental
health of the pregnant woman. The Bill
amends this provision to replace ‘married
woman or her husband’ with ‘woman or
her partner’.
Constitution of a Medical Board: The
Bill states that the upper limit of the
termination of pregnancy will not apply in
cases where such termination is
necessary due to the diagnosis of
substantial foetal abnormalities. These
abnormalities will be diagnosed by a
Medical Board.
Under the Bill, every state government is
required to constitute a Medical Board.
These Medical Boards will consist of the
following members: (i) a gynaecologist; (ii)
a paediatrician; (iii) a radiologist or
sonologist; and (iv) any other number of
members, as may be notified by the state
government. Note that the central
government will notify the powers and
functions of these Medical Boards.
Protection of the privacy of a woman:
The Bill states that no registered medical
practitioner will be allowed to reveal the
name and other particulars of the
woman, whose pregnancy has been
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
terminated, except to a person authorized
by any law. Anyone who contravenes this
provision will be punishable with
imprisonment of upto one year, or with a
fine, or both.
46. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Constitution of India does not allow
simultaneous holding of Indian
citizenship and the citizenship of a foreign
country. The Persons of Indian Origin
(PIO), satisfying certain criteria, are
conferred the Overseas Citizenship of
India (OCI) under the Citizenship Act,
1955.
Persons registered as the OCI (The
Overseas Citizens of India) cardholder
have not been given any voting rights,
election to the Lok Sabha, the Rajya
Sabha / Legislative Assembly / Council,
holding Constitutional posts, such as the
President, the Vice President, Judge of
the Supreme Court/High Court etc.
Registered OCI cardholders enjoy the
following benefits:
1. Multiple entry life-long visa for visiting
India for any purpose.
2. Exemption from registration with the
Foreigners Regional Registration
Officer or the Foreigners Registration
Officer for any length of stay in India.
3. Parity with the NRIs, in respect of all
facilities available to them in
economic, financial and educational
fields, except in matters relating to the
acquisition of agricultural or
plantation properties.
However, the OCI cardholders are still not
the citizens of India. They are foreign
nationals who enjoy a life-long visa. The
OCI cardholders must have a passport of
a foreign country with them. They cannot
have Indian passports. Also, they are not
eligible to enjoy the Fundamental Rights
in the Constitution, which have been
conferred upon the citizens of India.
15
47. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Authorized Economic Operator (AEO):
It is a programme under the aegis of the
World Customs Organization (WCO) SAFE
Framework of Standards, to secure and
facilitate global trade. It aims to enhance
the international supply chain security
and facilitate the movement of goods.
48. Answer: (b)
Salient Features:
• Under this programme, an entity
engaged in international trade is
approved by the Customs as
compliant with the supply chain
security standards and granted the
AEO status. An entity with an 'AEO
status' is considered a 'secure' trader
and a reliable trading partner.
• It is a voluntary programme. It
enables the Indian Customs to
enhance and streamline cargo
security through close co-operation
with the principle stakeholders of the
international supply chain -
importers, exporters, logistics
providers, custodians or terminal
operators, custom brokers and
warehouse operators, who benefit
from preferential treatment from the
Customs authorities.
• There are three tiers of certification in
the new AEO programme for the
importers and the exporters:
• AEO T1 - Verified on the basis of
documents submission only.
• AEO T2 - In addition to document
verification, onsite verification is also
done.
• AEO T3 - AEO T2 holders, who have
enjoyed the status for two years, only
on the basis of document verification
and for AEO T2 holders, who have not
enjoyed the status continuously or
have introduced changes to business,
the applicants are subjected to
physical verification.
• The Customs Department, under the
Central Board of Indirect Taxes and
Customs, has issued a circular in
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
2016 to provide statutory framework
for the AEO programme.
• Benefits:
o Expedited clearance times.
o Fewer examinations.
o Improved security and communication
between the supply chain partners.
Explanation:
The Empowered Technology Group – It
is a 12-member Technology Group with
the Principal Scientific Advisor to the
Government of India as its Chair.
The Technology Group intends to
ensure
1. that India has appropriate policies
and strategies for effective, secure and
context-sensitive exploitation of the
latest technologies for economic
growth and sustainable development
of the Indian industry, in all the
sectors;
2. to advise the Government on priorities
and strategies for the research on
emerging technologies across the
sectors;
3. to maintain an updated map of
technology and technology products
available, and being developed, across
India;
4. to develop indigenization roadmap for
selected key technologies;
5. to advise the Government on its
technology supplier and procurement
strategy;
6. to encourage all Ministries and
Departments, as well as the state
governments to develop in-house
expertise in policy and use aspects of
emerging technologies, such as data
science and artificial intelligence, and
to this end, develop an approach to
training and capacity building;
7. to formulate policies for the
sustainability of the public sector
technology at the PSUs/labs, while
encouraging cross-sector
collaborations and research alliances
16
 with the Universities and the private
companies;
8. to formulate standards and common
vocabulary to apply in vetting of the
proposals for R & D; and
9. commercialization of dual use
technologies developed in the national
laboratories and the government R &
D organizations.
49. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Kancharla Gopanna (1620 – 1680),
popularly known as Bhakta Ramadasu or
Bhadrachala Ramadasu, was a
17 century devotee of Lord Rama and a
th
composer of the Carnatic music.
• He was a famous Vaggeyakara
(classical composer) from the Telugu
classical era.
• His devotional lyrics to Rama are
famous in the South Indian classical
music as Ramadasu Keertanalu.
• He also wrote Dasarathi Satakam, a
collection of nearly 108 poems,
dedicated to the son of Dasaratha
(Lord Rama).
50. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 The Gonds are a group of aboriginal
people (now officially designated as
Scheduled Tribes) of the central and
the south-central India, about two
million in number.
• They live in the states of Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana,
Andhra Pradesh, Bihar and Odisha.
• The majority speak various and, in
part, mutually unintelligible dialects
of Gondi, an unwritten language of the
Dravidian family.
51. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Indian states, that share their
borders with Nepal, are Uttarakhand,
Uttar Pradesh, Sikkim, West Bengal and
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
Bihar. Out of these, Uttar Pradesh shares
the longest international border with
Nepal.
52. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Nagoba Jatara is a tribal festival held
in Keslapur village, Indervelly mandal,
Adilabad district, Telangana. It is the
second biggest tribal carnival and
celebrated by the Mesram clan of the
Gond tribes for 10 days.
53. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Mooknayak (The Leader of the Mute), the
first journalistic venture of B.R.
Ambedkar, was a fortnightly newspaper.
B.R. Ambedkar was popularly known as
Baba Saheb. He was the Chairman of the
Drafting Committee of the Constituent
Assembly and is called the ‘Father of the
Indian Constitution’.
• He earned doctoral degrees in
Economics from the Columbia
University and the London School of
Economics.
• He established the Bahishkrit
Hitakarini Sabha, to promote
education and socio-economic
improvement among the Dalits.
• He started various magazines, like
Mooknayak, Samta (Equality) Janta
and Bahishkrit Bharat.
• Ambedkar founded the Independent
Labour Party (later transformed into
the Scheduled Castes Federation)
in1936.
• He also worked as the Minister of
Labour in the Viceroy’s Executive
Council.
• After independence, Ambedkar
became the first Law Minister of India,
in 1947. Later, he resigned due to
differences with Jawaharlal Nehru on
the Hindu Code Bill.
17
54. Answer: (a) after obtaining the recommendations
Explanation: of a Selection Committee, consisting of
The impacts of criminalization of –
politics:  the Prime Minister – Chairperson;
 As per the National Commission to  the Speaker of the House of the People
Review the Working of the – Member;
Constitution, when a law breaker  the Leader of Opposition in the
becomes a law maker, it impacts the House of the People – Member;
overall quality of law making and  the Chief Justice of India or a Judge
halts important reforms towards of the Supreme Court nominated by
cleansing of politics from him – Member; and
criminalization.  one eminent jurist, as recommended
 Such people control the law by the Chairperson and the members.
enforcement agencies, and they can  The expenses of the Lokpal are to
influence and interfere with their own be charged on the Consolidated
criminal cases, where they are Fund of India - The administrative
implicated. expenses of the Lokpal, including all
 It increases money and muscle power salaries, allowances and pensions
during the elections and this payable to or in respect of the
increases the bargaining capacity of Chairperson, Members or Secretary,
such candidates to the extent of or other officers or staff of the Lokpal,
buying votes. shall be charged upon the
 It increases caste-based politics; as Consolidated Fund of India and any
such people can mobilize the voters fees or other moneys taken by the
from their specific community to vote Lokpal shall form part of that Fund.
for them. Supervisory Powers – The Lokpal enjoys
 The criminalization of politics erodes supervision over the Delhi Police
the trust of the people in the Establishment and the CVC (The Central
democratic process in India. Vigilance Commission).
 The Lokpal to have the powers of
55. Answer: (d) civil court in certain cases -The
Inquiry Wing of the Lokpal shall have
Explanation:
all the powers of a civil court, under
The Chairperson of the Lokpal shall be
the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
appointed by the President of India, after
obtaining the recommendations of a
Selection Committee, headed by the 56. Answer: (b)
Prime Minister. Explanation:
The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013: The decision on anti-defection
 The Lokpal shall consist of a operates independently - The decision of
Chairperson, who is or has been a the Speaker, under Paragraph 6 (1) of the
Chief Justice of India or is or has been Tenth Schedule, is not the decision of the
a Judge of the Supreme Court or an House, nor is it subject to the approval by
eminent person. the House and the decision operates
independently from the functioning of the
 It shall have a maximum of eight
House.
members, of which half shall be
judicial members. Decision on the questions as to
disqualification on the ground of
 The Chairperson and the members
defection – If any question arises as to
shall be appointed by the President,
whether a member of a House has

RAUSIAS-TS21E101 18
 become subject to disqualification under
this Schedule, the question shall be
referred for the decision of the Chairman
or, as the case may be, the Speaker of
such House and his decision shall be
final.
Speaker/Chairman Quasi-Judicial
Authority - The Speaker or the
Chairman, acting under Paragraph 6(1) of
the Tenth Schedule, is a Tribunal. The
Speaker is a quasi-judicial authority, who
is required to take a decision within a
reasonable time.
No Blanket Ban of the Judicial Review
on the Speaker’s Decision for
Disqualification under the Tenth
Schedule – Judicial Review to the High
Court and the Supreme Court is allowed
on the Speaker’s decision of
disqualification under the Tenth Schedule
on the grounds of infirmities based on
the violations of the constitutional
mandates, mala fides, non-compliance
with the Rules of Natural Justice and
perversity.
57. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The natural rate of unemployment is a
combination of structural and frictional
unemployment. Structural unemployment
refers to unemployment which is caused
due to mismatch between the skill set of
the workers and the demand of the job,
wherein the skill set of the workers may
not be sufficient enough to fulfil their job
requirements. Such form
unemployment is caused by rapid
technological advances. Frictional
unemployment refers to temporary
unemployment which is caused when
people switch from one job to another.
58. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Traditionally, the nature of relationship
between inflation and unemployment was
explained through the Phillips Curve.
According to this conventional view, there
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
is an inverse relationship between
inflation and unemployment, i.e., as the
rate of inflation increases, the rate of
unemployment decreases and vice-versa.
59. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Stagflation is a combination of two
economic terms "stagnation" and
"inflation". It implies an economic
scenario which denotes simultaneous
existence of low GDP growth rates, high
rate of inflation and high rate of
unemployment within an economy
60. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
India has the world's third largest coal
reserves. According to the Geological
Survey of India, the total estimated coal
resources in India are around 315 billion
tonnes. India is also the third largest coal
producer in the world. The annual coal
production in India is around 730 MT.
However, due to the growing needs of the
rapidly expanding economy, the annual
demand for coal has increased to around
900 MT. Hence, the shortage of coal in
India is met through imports. Thus, in
spite of having world's third largest coal
reserves, India imports about 25% of its
domestic coal needs.
61. Answer: (c)
of Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana
Yojana (PMVVY) aims to provide social
security during old age and to protect the
elderly persons aged 60 years and above
against a future fall in their interest
income due to uncertain market
conditions. The scheme enables old age
income security for the senior citizens
through provision of assured
pension/return linked to the subscription
amount. The scheme is operated by the
Life Insurance Corporation.
19
62. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The State Energy Efficiency Index 2019
tracks the progress of Energy Efficiency
(EE) initiatives in 36 states and Union
Territories, based on 97 significant
indicators. It incorporates qualitative,
quantitative and outcome-based
indicators to assess energy efficiency
initiatives, programmes and outcomes in
five distinct sectors – buildings, industry,
municipalities, transport and agriculture,
and DISCOMs. It has been developed by
the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
63. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Act protects the constitutional right
to equality of the married Muslim women,
who are divorced through the
pronouncement of Triple Talaq.
The Act provides for imprisonment, which
may extend to three years, to the married
Muslim husband who divorces through
Triple Talaq.
A married Muslim woman shall be
entitled to the custody of her minor
children, in the event of the
pronouncement of Talaq by her husband.
64. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Initiatives of the Energy Efficiency
Services Limited (EESL) include:
UJALA SCHEME: UNNAT JYOTI BY
AFFORDABLE LEDS FOR ALL: It
involves distribution of the energy
efficient LED bulbs to the consumers.
Street Lighting National Programme
(SLNP): Under this programme, EESL
replaces the conventional streetlights with
LEDs at its own cost.
Atal Jyoti Yojana (AJAY): To illuminate
dark regions through establishment of
solar street lights.
Both GRIHA and Energy Conservation
Building Code (ECBC) are the initiatives
of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
65. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The "Global Investment Trend Monitor"
Report is published by the United Nations
Conference on Trade and Development
(UNCTAD). This Report focuses on the
trends in foreign direct investment (FDI)
worldwide, at the regional and country
levels, and measures to improve its
contribution to development.
66. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A Task Force has been constituted to
draw up the National Infrastructure
Pipeline (NIP) for each of the years from
Financial Year 2019-20 to Financial Year
2024-25, with the approval of the Finance
Minister. The Task force has now outlined
the expenditure of around Rs. 102 lakh
crore over the next 5 years in order to
realise $ 5 trillion economy. The funding
of the National Infrastructure Pipeline will
be jointly made by the centre, the states
and the private sector in the proportion
of 39:39:22 (39 % each by the centre
and the states, and 22% by the private
sector).
Sectorwise break-up of project capital expenditure
worth Rs 102 lakh crore during FY20-25
Source: Ministries/departments/state governments
67. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
GI Cloud (MeghRaj): MeghRaj initiative is
intended to deliver ICT services over cloud
to all the departments/Ministries at the
centre and states/UTs. The vision of this
initiative is to accelerate delivery of e-
services in the country, while optimizing
ICT spending of the government.
20
 Electronic Transaction Aggregation
and Analysis Layer (eTaal): It acts as an
electronic dashboard for providing a real
time aggregated view of e-services being
delivered across different states and levels
of government.
PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance and
Timely Implementation): It is a multi-
purpose and multi-modal platform that is
aimed at addressing the common man’s
grievances, and simultaneously
monitoring and reviewing important
programmes and projects of the
Government of India, as well as the
projects flagged by the state governments.
DARPAN (Dashboard for Analytical
Review of Projects across Nation): It is
an online tool that can be used to monitor
and analyze the implementation of critical
and high priority projects of the state.
68. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Sustainable Action for Transforming
Human Capital (SATH): SATH is aimed
at initiating transformation in two key
social sectors — education and health, by
hand-holding the states towards
improving their social sector indicators
and providing technical support over
three years. It was launched with the
selection of the states through a unique
challenge method.
Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat: It was
conceptualized to make our country
united, strong and promote excellence in
all walks of life by means of long-term
inter-state engagements through cultural
exchanges and education.
‘SAMAVESH’: A major initiative, aimed at
networking and partnership with
knowledge and research institutions,
using a hub and spoke model, was
launched. Thirty-four such institutions
have entered into a Memorandum of
Understanding with the NITI Aayog with
the aim to share knowledge and link
policy with practice.
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
69. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Paris Convention for the Protection of
Industrial Property, signed in 1883, was
one of the first intellectual property
treaties. It established a Union for the
protection of industrial property. It
applies to industrial property in the
widest sense, including patents,
trademarks, industrial designs, utility
models (a kind of "small-scale patent"
provided for by the laws of some
countries), service marks, trade names
(designations under which an industrial
or commercial activity is carried out),
geographical indications etc. It is
administered by the World Intellectual
Property Organization (WIPO). The
purpose of Article 6ter under the Paris
Convention is to protect armorial
bearings, flags and other state emblems
of the state’s party to the Paris
Convention, as well as official signs and
hallmarks indicating control and
warranty adopted by them.
70. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
T×2 was launched by the World Wildlife
Foundation at the 2010 St. Petersburg
Tiger Summit held in Russia. Under it, 13
Tiger Range Countries had agreed to
double the world tiger population by
2022. These 13 countries are
Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, China,
India, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia,
Myanmar, Nepal, Russia, Thailand and
Vietnam.
It aims at driving political momentum to
ensure that tigers remain top priority for
the world leaders, professionalize wildlife
protection by training rangers, developing
conservation standards (CA|TS –
Conservation Assured/Tiger Standards)
and technology (SMART - Spatial,
Monitoring and Reporting Tool) to achieve
zero poaching, tackle illegal wildlife trade
through partnership with TRAFFIC (Trade
Record Analysis of Flora and Fauna in
Commerce), focus efforts in key tiger
21
 landscapes and ensure that there is
space for both tigers and people in future.
71. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Kelkar Committee dealt with the
Reforms in the Public Private Partnership
(PPP).
72. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Off-Budget Financing refers to the
expenditure undertaken by the Public
Sector Undertakings (PSUs) through
market borrowings based upon guarantee
of repayment of the loans given by the
government. For example, let us say the
government needs to invest in the
Railways. It may ask the Indian Railway
Finance Corporation (IRFC) to borrow
money from the market and finance
railway projects. However, the
government guarantees the repayment of
the principal amount and the interest for
the money borrowed by the Indian
Railway Finance Corporation.
Mechanism of Off-Budget Financing –
The Accelerated Irrigation Benefit
Programme (AIBP) was launched during
1996-97 to give assistance to the states to
help them complete irrigation projects.
Earlier, expenditure for AIBP was
provided directly through the Budget.
However, a dedicated Long Term
Irrigation Fund (LTIF) was created in
2016 under the National Bank for
Agriculture and Rural Development
(NABARD) for funding and fast tracking
the implementation of the irrigation
projects. The money to be spent under
Long Term Irrigation Fund (LTIF) was
raised through the issuance of bonds by
NABARD, but guaranteed by the
Government of India. Further, the
Government of India has infused around
Rs. 80,000 crore into the Public Sector
Banks (PSBs) through the issuance of the
Recapitalization Bonds. Ideally, these
Recapitalization Bonds should be
accounted as government's borrowings.
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
However, the fiscal deficit has failed to
take into account these Bonds.
The government needs to pay the subsidy
bill to the Food Corporation of India (FCI)
for undertaking procurement and
distribution of food grains under the
Public Distribution System (PDS).
However, instead of paying this subsidy
bill, the government has been asking the
FCI to borrow money from the market
through the issuance of bonds based on
government guarantee. The government
has also resorted to giving loans to the
FCI from the National Small Savings
Fund (NSSF) maintained by it.
73. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
IOD measures the differences in the sea
surface temperatures between the
western and the eastern parts of the
Indian Ocean. Sustained changes in the
difference between the sea surface
temperatures of the tropical western and
eastern Indian Ocean are known as the
Indian Ocean Dipole or IOD.
A negative IOD typically results in above-
average winter–spring rainfall over parts
of Australia, as the warmer waters off
north-west Australia provide more
available moisture to the weather systems
crossing the country.
74. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The right to protest peacefully is
enshrined in the Indian Constitution –
Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the
freedom of speech and
expression; Article 19(1)(b) assures
the citizens the right to assemble
peaceably and without arms.
 Article 19(2) imposes reasonable
restrictions on the right to assemble
peaceably and without arms.
 These reasonable restrictions are
imposed in the interests of the
sovereignty and integrity of India, the
security of the state, friendly relations
22
 with foreign states, public order,  AGR is the usage and licensing fee
decency or morality or in relation to that the telecom operators are
contempt of court, defamation or charged by the Department of
incitement to an offence. Telecommunications (DoT).
 In the Ramlila Maidan Incident v/s  It is divided into spectrum usage
Home Secretary, Union of India & charges and licensing fees, pegged
Ors. Case (2012), the Supreme Court between 3%-5% and 8%,
had stated, “Citizens have respectively.
a fundamental right to assembly and
peaceful protest which cannot be 77. Answer: (c)
taken away by an arbitrary executive
Explanation:
or legislative action.”
 The international environmental think
tank ‘Germanwatch’ has recently
75. Answer: (b)
released the Global Climate Risk
Explanation: Index 2019.
Organization Name of the Report  The Index analyzes the extent to
The World Economic The Global which the countries and the regions
Forum (WEF) Competitiveness have been affected by the impacts of
Report (GCR) weather-related loss events (storms,
floods, heat waves etc.).
The World Economic The Travel and
Forum (WEF) Tourism  India, which suffered water shortages,
Competitiveness crop failures and worst flooding, holds
Report the 5th position. It has fallen from its
14th rank of countries hit most by the
The World Economic The Global climate change-induced weather
Forum (WEF) Information phenomena in 2017.
Technology Report
 India has also recorded the highest
The International World Energy number of fatalities due to climate
Energy Agency Outlook (WEO) change and the second-highest
The International Southeast Asia monetary losses from its impact in
Energy Agency Energy Outlook 2018.
The International The Global Financial
Monetary Fund (IMF) Stability Report 78. Answer: (b)
The International World Economic Explanation:
Monetary Fund (IMF) Outlook  Considering the increasing instances
of global financial crisis, the BRICS
IBRD (World Bank) Ease of Doing
nations signed the BRICS Contingent
Business
Reserve Arrangement (CRA) in 2014
IBRD (World Bank) The World as a part of the Fortaleza Declaration
Development Report at the Sixth BRICS Summit.
 The BRICS CRA aims to provide short-
76. Answer: (c) term liquidity support to the members
Explanation: through currency swaps to help
 Recently, the Supreme Court has mitigating the BoP crisis situation and
upheld the definition of Adjusted further strengthen financial stability.
Gross Revenue (AGR) calculation, as  The initial total committed resources
stipulated by the Department of of the CRA shall be one hundred
Telecommunications.

RAUSIAS-TS21E101 23
 billion dollars of the United States of
America (USD 100 billion).
 It would also contribute to
strengthening the global financial
safety net and complement the
existing international arrangements
from the IMF.
79. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Global Economic Prospects is a World
Bank Group flagship report that
examines the global economic
developments and prospects, with a
special focus on emerging markets
and developing economies.
 The World Bank’s World Development
Report, published annually since
1978, is an invaluable guide to the
economic, social and environmental
state of the world today. Each Report
provides in-depth analysis and policy
recommendations on a specific and
important aspect of development—
from agriculture, the role of the state,
transition economies and labour, to
infrastructure, health, the
environment and poverty.
 Ease of Doing Business 2020, a World
Bank Group flagship publication, is
the 17th in a series of annual studies
measuring the regulations that
enhance business activity and those
that constrain it. The Ease of Doing
Business presents quantitative
indicators on business regulations
and the protection of property rights
that can be compared across 190
economies — from Afghanistan to
Zimbabwe — and over time.
 It covers 12 areas of business
regulation. Ten of these areas—
starting a business, dealing with
construction permits, getting
electricity, registering property, getting
credit, protecting minority investors,
paying taxes, trading across borders,
enforcing contracts and resolving
insolvency—are included in the Ease
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of Doing Business score and the Ease
of Doing Business ranking.
 World Economic Outlook Report: A
survey by the IMF staff, usually
published twice a year. It presents
IMF staff economists' analyses of
global economic developments during
the near and medium term.
80. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The Indian Skimmer, Rynchops
albicollis, (Vulnerable), clearly draws
its name from its feeding habits, when
it gets hungry. The bird flies low over
water, its bill wide open. Its
specialized lower mandible, much
longer than its upper counterpart,
skims the surface of the water. This
way, this tern-like bird is able to
forage for fish, crustaceans and insect
larvae.
 More widespread in winter, the Indian
Skimmer is found in the coastal
estuaries of western and eastern
India. It occurs primarily on larger,
sandy, lowland rivers, around lakes
and adjacent marshes and, in the
non-breeding season, in estuaries and
coasts.
 Presently, the species is distributed
across northern South Asia,
principally in India and Bangladesh,
with additional populations in
Myanmar, Pakistan and even as far
south as Thailand. Thus, it is
indigenous to the Indian sub-
continent.
 The National Chambal Sanctuary in
India is one of the few places where a
significant Indian Skimmer population
breeds. Elsewhere, it is limited to a
handful of nesting colonies on the
rivers Mahanadi, Ganga and Son. This
species breeds on sand bars and
islands that are exposed during low
water levels in summer – a habitat
that is not without risk.
24
  The damming of the Chambal River, in
upstream Rajasthan, has adversely
affected its population at the National
Chambal Sanctuary (Uttar Pradesh),
due to the dropping water levels
allowing the predators and livestock
access to the breeding islands.
 In India, an innovative community
conservation experiment is helping to
safeguard the globally threatened
Indian Skimmer’s nesting colonies
from free-ranging dogs and trampling
cattle.
81. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) occurs
when micro-organisms, such as
bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites,
change in ways that render the
medications used to cure the
infections they cause ineffective. When
the micro-organisms become resistant
to most antimicrobials, they are often
referred to as “superbugs”. This is a
major concern because a resistant
infection may kill, can spread to
others and imposes huge costs to the
individuals and the society.
 Antimicrobial resistance is a broader
term for resistance in different types
of micro-organisms and encompasses
resistance to antibacterial, antiviral,
antiparasitic and antifungal drugs.
While antibiotic resistance occurs
when bacteria change in response to
the use of antibiotics used to treat
bacterial infections (such as urinary
tract infections, pneumonia,
bloodstream infections), making them
ineffective.
 AMR occurs naturally over time,
usually through genetic changes.
However, the misuse and overuse of
antimicrobials is accelerating this
process. In many places, antibiotics
are overused and misused for the
people and the animals, and are often
given without professional oversight.
Examples of such misuse include
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
taking antimicrobials for viral
infections, such as colds and
influenza, and giving antimicrobials to
the animals and the fish as growth
promoters.
 Antimicrobial resistant microbes are
found in the people, animals, food and
the environment (in water, soil and
air). They can spread between the
people and the animals, and from
person to person. Poor infection
control, inadequate sanitary
conditions and inappropriate food
handling encourage the spread of
AMR.
 Lack of government commitment to
address these issues, poor
surveillance and a diminishing
arsenal of tools to diagnose, treat and
prevent also hinder the control of
antimicrobial drug resistance.
 In 2017, the World Health
Organization, in an effort to address
these challenges, classified antibiotics
into three groups and issued guidance
for how each class of drugs should be
used to treat most common infections.
For example, the first of these groups
consists of medicines that should
always be available to patients,
preferably by prescription.
Amoxicillin, the preferred medicine for
respiratory-tract infections in
children, is in this group. The second
tier includes carbapenems, which, as
many patients last year discovered,
are increasingly ineffective. And the
third group, including colistin and
other “last resort” antibiotics are
drugs that must be used sparingly
and only for medical emergencies.
 The Global Action Plan on
Antimicrobial Resistance: At the
Sixty-eighth World Health Assembly in
2015, the World Health Assembly
endorsed a global action plan to tackle
antimicrobial resistance, including
antibiotic resistance, the most urgent
drug resistance trend. The goal of the
draft global action plan is to ensure,
25
 for as long as possible, continuity of
successful treatment and prevention
of infectious diseases with effective
and safe medicines that are quality-
assured, used in a responsible way
and accessible to all who need them.
 The Global Antimicrobial
Resistance Surveillance System
(GLASS) is being developed to support
the global action plan on antimicrobial
resistance. The aim is to support
global surveillance and research, in
order to strengthen the evidence base
on antimicrobial resistance (AMR) and
help informing decision-making and
drive national, regional and global
actions.
 India has developed a National Action
Plan to combat antimicrobial
resistance.
 India’s Red Line Campaign – which
demands that prescription-only
antibiotics be marked with a red line,
to discourage the over-the-counter
sale of antibiotics – is a step forward.
82. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) is
an international economic union that
comprises countries located in northern
Eurasia.
The Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU or
EEU) turned three in 2018. With four
founding members — Russia,
Kazakhstan, Belarus and Armenia — the
Union was formally established in 2015.
Kyrgyzstan joined officially in August
2015, but since, no other states in
Eurasia have made efforts to join.
The key objectives of the EAEU include
increasing co-operation and economic
competitiveness for the member states
and the promotion of stable development,
in order to raise the standard of living in
the member states.
The EAEU ensures free movement of
goods, services, labour and capital
between the states and provides for
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
common policies in macro-economic
sphere, transport, industry and
agriculture, energy, foreign trade and
investment, customs, technical
regulation, competition and anti-trust
regulation. Unlike the treaty forming the
Eurozone, the treaty forming the EAEU
has not, to date, established a single
currency.
Russia has pushed for India’s entry into
the EAEU that will open up opportunities
of the third country partnerships in the
Central Asia-Eurasian region.
83. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 India’s telecommunication satellite
GSAT-30 was successfully launched
into a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit
(GTO) in January, 2020, from the
Kourou launch base, French Guiana,
by Ariane-5 VA-251.
 The 3,357-kg satellite, which was
deployed from the lower passenger
position of Ariane-5 launch vehicle
(VA-251) into the geostationary
transfer orbit (GTO), is configured on
ISRO's enhanced I-3K Bus structure
to provide communication services
from the geostationary orbit in the C
and the Ku bands.
 GSAT-30 has a unique configuration
of providing flexible frequency
segments and flexible coverage. The
satellite will provide communication
services to the Indian mainland and
islands through the Ku-band and wide
coverage covering the Gulf countries,
a large number of Asian countries and
Australia through the C-band.
26
  GSAT-30 is to serve as a replacement
to INSAT-4A spacecraft services with
enhanced coverage.
 The designed in-orbit operational life
of GSAT-30 is more than 15 years.
84. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The National Electric Mobility Mission
Plan (NEMMP) 2020 is a National
Mission document providing the vision
and the roadmap for faster adoption of
85. Answer: (c)
electric vehicles and their
manufacturing in the country. This
plan has been designed to enhance
national fuel security, to provide
affordable and environmentally
friendly transportation and to enable
the Indian automotive industry to
achieve global manufacturing
leadership.
 Under NEMMP 2020, there is an
ambitious target to achieve 6-7 million
sales of hybrid and electric vehicles by
the year 2020.
 As part of NEMMP 2020, the
Department of Heavy Industry
formulated a scheme, viz., Faster
Adoption and Manufacturing of
(Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India
(FAME India) Scheme, in the year
2015, to promote the manufacturing
of electric and hybrid vehicle
technology and to ensure sustainable
growth of the same.
 Phase-I of this Scheme was initially
launched for a period of 2 years,
commencing from 1st April, 2015,
which was subsequently extended
from time to time and the last
extension was allowed up to 31st
March, 2019. The 1st Phase of FAME
India Scheme was implemented
through four focus areas, namely: (i)
Demand Creation; (ii) Technology
Platform; (iii) Pilot Project; and (iv)
Charging Infrastructure.
 Market creation through demand
incentives was aimed at incentivizing
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
all vehicle segments, i.e., 2-Wheelers;
3-Wheelers Auto; Passenger 4-Wheeler
Vehicles; Light Commercial Vehicles;
and Buses.
 The main objective of the scheme is to
encourage faster adoption of electric
and hybrid vehicle by way of offering
upfront incentive on purchase of the
electric vehicles and also by
establishing the necessary charging
infrastructure for the electric vehicles.
Explanation:
Large bushfires have been ravaging
Australia, affecting more than 10.3
million hectares of land. Although the fire
season began way back in late July,
2019, it has extended for longer duration
as a result of positive Indian Ocean
Dipole experienced this year.
Bushfires –
• They are basically grassfires (similar
to the forest fires in India).
• Since Australian continent is semi-
arid, it has large expanse of
grasslands, which provide readymade
material for large fires.
• Although 2019 bushfire has been
exceptional in its devastation, it is a
common phenomenon in Australia
since thousands of years.
• The bushfires have burnt down one
lakh square kilometre land in
Australia in 2019.
Causes of Bushfires –
 The basic cause for massive bushfires
is the presence of hot and dry
conditions over a long time scale.
 The main factor which leads to the
creation of such condition is the
Indian Ocean Dipole, which creates
exceptionally dry conditions (low
rainfall and high aridity) and
abnormally high temperatures
(positive temperature anomaly).
 The actual trigger is provided by arson
or lightning strike.
27
86. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Mahayana School –
 It was started by Nagarjuna, with its
prime centre in Andhra Pradesh.
 Its scriptures are written in Pali.
 They see Buddha as an incarnation of
the God and started his idol worship.
 Mahayana attaches importance to the
role of the Bodhisattvas, who delay
their own salvation in order to help
others to its path.
 They believed in the concept
transmigration of soul and rebirth.
 It was later divided into two sects, viz.,
Shunyavaad and Vigyanvaad.
87. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The Elephanta caves are located in the
Elephanta Island.
 The Elephanta Island is also known as
the Gharapuri Island.
 The Elephanta Island was the capital
of the Konkan Mauryas.
 The Elephanta caves are celebrated
for the colossal image of Mahesamurti
with three heads, each representing a
different form.
 The cave temple, dedicated to Lord
Shiva, was excavated sometime in the
8th century by the Rashtrakuta kings,
who ruled the area between A.D. 757-
973.
 The Elephanta caves are a 89. Answer: (d)
conglomeration of seven caves, out of
which the most important is the
Mahesamurti cave.
 The gigantic figures of the
'Dvarapalas' or the door-keepers are
very impressive.
 There are sculptured compartments in
this cave with remarkable images of
Ardhanarisvara, Kalyana-sundara
Shiva, Ravana lifting Kailasa,
Andhakari-Murti (slaying of Andhaka
demon) and Nataraja Shiva.
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
 There are also ancient Buddhist stupa
mounds on the same island.
 The cave complex has been given the
status of World Heritage by UNESCO
in 1987.
88. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Recently, after a sustained campaign,
heritage lovers and officials have been
successful in almost stopping the stone-
pelting ritual at Bojjannakonda and
Lingalametta, located at Sankaram
of
(Andhra Pradesh).
Bojjannakonda and Lingalametta are the
twin Buddhist monasteries dating back to
the 3rd century BC.
These sites have seen three forms of
Buddhism – the Theravada period, when
Lord Buddha was considered a teacher,
the Mahayana, where Buddhism was
more devotional and the Vajrayana,
where Buddhist tradition was more
practised as Tantra and esoteric form.
The name Sankaram is derived from the
term, ‘Sangharama’. It is famous for the
whole lot of votive stupas, rock-cut caves,
brick-built structural edifices, early
historic pottery and Satavahana coins,
that date back to the 1st century AD.
Note: Visakhapatnam (The nearest city to
Bojjannakonda and Lingalametta sites) is
famous for Buddhist sites at
Thotlakonda, Appikonda and Bavikonda.
Explanation:
Theravada School –
 Theravada saw Buddha as a great
soul, but not God.
 They were orthodox in nature.
 Their followers believed in helping
themselves over others in order to
attain salvation.
 They did not believe in Bhakti and idol
worship.
It was later divided into two sects, viz.,
Vaibhashika and Sautrantika.
28
90. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Kalaripayattu –
 It is one of the oldest existing martial
arts in the world, which dates back to
the 3rd century.
 The disciples start learning the art of
Payattu (fight) at the age of seven in
the Kalaries, i.e., the gymnasium for
martial exercises. Years of discipline
and hard work are required to train
the body, mind and oneself.
 The heroic ballads of Kerala are the
legendary sagas of the heroes of
Payattu.
 Kalaripayattu reached its pinnacle of
glory during wars between the Cholas,
Cheras and Pandyas in the early part
of the first millennium. The warring
states refined the fighting skills and
techniques prevalent in the area into a
martial art form.
 The inherent beauty of this art form
lies in the harmonious synergy of art,
science and medicine.
91. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
India’s 1st Transit-oriented Development
(TOD) project was started in Delhi. The
project is called as the East Delhi Hub
Project.
Transit-Oriented Development –
 Transit-oriented Development (TOD) is
a sustainable solution to urban
sprawl under which land-use
planning and infrastructure
development is integrated with
transport planning to avoid long
distance travel in cities.
 TOD basically refers to the
development in and around transit
corridors to promote living close to
these transit corridors.
 TOD is particularly important to
reduce the distance travelled by
creating high-density mixed land use
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
development in and around the transit
stations as shown in the figure.
 Accordingly, the influential zone of
transit stations (red nodes) will have
residential complexes, shopping malls,
recreation zones, work places, etc.
Besides, the transit stations will also
include pedestrian and non-motorized
transport friendly infrastructure.
 A new World Bank study recommends
looking simultaneously at the “three
values” (3V) of a neighbourhood—
transit connectivity, quality of the
urban environment and market
potential—to identify which stations
are good candidates for TOD and what
kind of development makes sense in
each neighbourhood.
The benefits of Transit-oriented
Development –
 Promoting higher densities and the
concentration of jobs within relatively
small areas, TOD creates
agglomeration effects proven to boost
a city’s competitiveness. Studies have
shown that doubling job density, for
instance, increases economic
productivity by 5% to 10%.
 This concentration creates vibrant
communities with high-quality public
areas and shorter commuting
distances – making cities more
liveable.
 Proximity to mass transit improves
access to TOD neighbourhoods,
boosting their attractiveness
and increasing real estate value.
In 2017, the Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs launched the National TOD
Policy as a guideline document for the
states to implement TOD in urban
planning.
29
92. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The International Labour Organization
adopted a significant convention, C190 or
Convention 190, related to the
elimination of violence and harassment in
the ‘world of work’.
Convention 190 –
 C190 is the first legally binding
international standard for the workers
to deal with violence and harassment
in the ‘world of work’.
 According to C190, everyone has the
right to a ‘world of work’ free from
violence and harassment, including
gender-based violence and
harassment.
 It is the 1st ever Convention adopted
after the Domestic Workers
Convention in 2011.
Key highlights of C190 –
 Defines violence and harassment:
While there is no clear demarcation
line between violence and harassment,
C190 recognizes harassment and
violence as a continuum.
 It defines violence and harassment as
“a range of unacceptable behaviours
and practices” that “aim at, result in,
or are likely to result in physical,
psychological, sexual or economic
harm”.
 Inclusivity: C190 protects every
worker in the world, regardless of age,
disability status, race, ethnicity,
indigenous status, sexual orientation,
gender identity or any social marker.
Accordingly, it extends protection to the
contract workers, jobseekers, trainees,
interns, apprentices, volunteers etc.
Convention190 and India – India is not
a signatory to the Convention.
 India is a founding member of the
International Labour Organization and
has been a permanent member since
1922.
 India has also ratified the Convention
on the Elimination of All Forms of
Discrimination Against Women
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
(CEDAW) in 1993, which addresses
gender-based discrimination.
 Accordingly, India has enacted the
Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition
and Redressal) Act, 2013, in line with
the Vishaka Guidelines.
93. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
In a significant step to end violence, a
tripartite agreement has been signed by
the Bodos, led by National Democratic
Front of Bodoland (NDFB), the Central
Government and the State Government.
The agreement will pave way for re-
organization of the Bodoland Territorial
Administrative District into wider
Bodoland Territorial Region.
 Assam is a hot-bed of regionalism and
sub-regionalism, as a result of the
pluralistic nature of the society,
comprising various ethnicities.
 Notwithstanding the pluralistic nature
of the society, Assam consists of the
Brahmaputra valley, dominated by
Assamese speaking populace and the
Cachar region, dominated by Bengali-
speaking people.
 As a result, ethnicity-based
imbalances in a plural, but
fragmented, society have led to
assertion of sub-regional identities
hinging on issues like control over
land, exploitation of resources from
outsiders, unemployment and lack of
development, etc.
 Bodoland represents one such
ethnicity-based regionalistic
undercurrent in the Assam society.
The Bodoland Movement – The Bodo is
the largest ethno-linguistic group in the
Assam state of India. The Bodo people are
recognized as a ‘plains’ tribe in the Sixth
Schedule to the Indian Constitution.
The Bodo people are the largest tribe of
Assam, settled in the northern part of the
Brahmaputra river valley. These tribes
claimed themselves as the natives of
30
 Assam . According to an estimate , the • There are two core technologies
Bodo tribe is about 28% of Assam ’s behind these virtual humans.
population . The Bodo tribe has been 1 . First , there is the proprietary CORE
complaining that their land in Assam was R3 technology that drives the “ reality ,
occupied by other cultures and real time and responsiveness ” behind
communities with different identities . In NEONs . The CORE R3 focuses on the
1966 , the Bodo tribals formed the Plain domains of Behavioural Neural
Tribals’ Council of Assam ( PTCA ) and Networks ; Evolutionary Generative
demanded a separate union territory Intelligence ; and Computational
TJdayachal’. The Bodo movement started Reality ” , and is “extensively trained ”
witnessing violence post- 1980 s . on how the humans look , behave and
interact .
2 . The next stage will be SPECTRA ,
Chif afwj Ud .i ’ i) uri which will complement CORE R3 with
Kokrajtor I
the “ spectrum of intelligence , learning ,
emotions and memory”.
A S S A M
• These virtual humans can interface
Bangladesh Bodoland Territorial for technologies and services .
Autonomous Oistrkts

ro
• Virtual assistance would be more
effective while teaching languages , as
NEONs will be capable of
The Bodo Peace Accord 2020 - understanding and sympathizing.
• The current Peace Accord will re - Difference between NEONs and Virtual
organize the present Bodoland Assistants -
Territorial Area District ( BTAD ) into a
wider Bodoland Territorial Region .
• Virtual Assistants now learn from all
the data they are plugged into.
• The Bodoland Territorial Region will • NEONs will be limited to what they
include Bodo-dominated villages , know and learn . Their learning could
presently outside the BTAD and will potentially be limited to the person
exclude the areas dominated by the they are catering to , but not the entire
non - Bodo population . internet . They will not be an interface ,
• Amnesty to the NDFB. so as to request a song , rather they
• A sports university and job -oriented will be a friend to speak to and share
higher -education institution experiences with .
• Besides , Bodos living in the hills
would be granted the Scheduled Hill 95 . Answer: ( d )
Tribe status. Explanation:
Smog is often caused by heavy traffic ,
94 . Answer: ( c ) high temperatures , sunshine and calm
Explanation: winds . These are a few of the factors
NEONs are being called the world ’s first behind an increasing level of air pollution
artificial humans . They look and behave in the atmosphere.
like real humans , and could one day During the winter months , when the wind
develop memories and emotions. speeds are low , it helps the smoke and
About NEONs - fog to become stagnate at a place forming
smog and increasing pollution levels near
• These are computationally created
the ground closer to where people are
virtual humans the word derives
respiring . It hampers visibility and
from NEO ( new ) + human .
disturbs the environment .

R AUSIAS-TS21El 01 31
 Temperature inversions are the situations being offered for the purchase of the
when warm air does not rise , instead Happy Seeders .
stays near the ground . During situations
of temperature inversions , if the wind is 97 . Answer: ( d )
calm , smog may get trapped and remain
Explanation:
over a place for days .
Since pollution is generally produced at • The Irrawaddy Dolphin is a variety of
Oceanic Dolphin .
ground level , temperature inversions can
trap the pollution to form smog at the • Habitat: Shallow oceans , rivers and
ground level. estuaries.
Smog Towers - A smog tower is a large • Since they inhabit the shallow regions
vertical structure designed as a large - of the oceans , they go through
scale air purifier to reduce air pollution maximum confrontation with the
particles . humans.
It has been fitted with exhaust fans that • Threats: Fishing nets , dam
will help in sucking polluted air . ,
construction and gold mining leads to
Anti -Smog Guns In India , water toxic effluent discharge into the ocean .
cannons have been used recently in an • IUCN Status: Endangered .
attempt to wash out particles . • The Chilika Lake in Odisha has
The anti-smog gun is a cannon shaped emerged as the “single largest habitat
device that sprays atomized water of the Irrawaddy Dolphins in the
droplets in the air . The gun is attached to world ” , according to a fresh
a water tank built on a movable vehicle , monitoring survey that pegs the
which can be taken to various parts of the number of individuals of the
city . endangered species at 155.
• Chilika is Asia’s largest brackish -
96 . Answer: (b ) water lagoon with an estuarine
Explanation: character and one of India’s first
Ramsar Convention Sites (The
• The Happy Seeder is a tractor -
Wetlands of International Importance ) .
mounted machine that cuts and lifts
rice straw sows wheat into the bare • Distribution: As shown in the map .
soil and deposits the straw over the
sown area as mulch . Thus , it removes /\
the need to burn rice stubble before
planting wheat , therefore reducing air
pollution .
• Direct sowing also reduces soil
disturbance, enabling it to retain more
nutrients and organic content . It
improves the soil health .
• Crop residue helps in moisture and
temperature conservation .
• It is , thus , an environment friendly
technology to check air pollution .
98 . Answer: ( b )
• Despite the benefits of the Happy
Seeder , there are some barriers to its Explanation:
adoption . These barriers include cost , • Project Tiger: Project Tiger is an
risk aversion and existing subsidies ongoing Centrally Sponsored Scheme
for using herbicides and electricity . To of the Ministry of Environment , Forest
overcome these barriers , subsidies are and Climate Change , providing central

RAUSIAS-TS21E101 32
 assistance to the tiger states for tiger
conservation in the designated Tiger
Reserves.
• It was launched in 1973.
• There are 50 Tiger Reserves under
Project Tiger, spread out in 18 of the
Tiger Range States.
• The National Tiger Conservation
Authority: The National Tiger
Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a
statutory body of the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate
Change under the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972.
• M-STrIPES: M-STrIPES (Monitoring
System for Tigers-Intensive Protection
and Ecological Status) is a patrolling
app installed in every Tiger Reserve.
100. Answer: (a)
• The system's objective is to strengthen
patrolling and surveillance of the
tigers.
99. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Extinction Rebellion (XR for short)
describes itself as an international "non-
violent civil disobedience activist
movement".
It wants the governments to declare a
"climate and ecological emergency", and
take immediate action to address climate
change.
RAUSIAS-TS21E101
Extinction Rebellion was launched in
2018 and the organizers say it now has
groups willing to take action in dozens of
countries.
The group uses an hourglass inside a
circle as its logo, to represent time
running out for many species.
In the UK, Extinction Rebellion has three
main demands:
1. The government must declare a
climate "emergency".
2. The UK must legally commit to
reducing carbon emissions to net zero
by 2025.
3. A citizens' assembly must be formed
to "oversee the changes".
Explanation:
The first-ever comprehensive National
Nutrition Survey has been conducted by
the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
and the United Nations Children Fund
(UNICEF) to assess the malnutrition
burden amongst the children and the
adolescents in India.
It recorded not only micronutrient
deficiencies, but also the details of non-
communicable diseases, such as
diabetes, hypertension, cholesterol and
kidney function in the children and the
adolescents.
33