Answers &

Explanations
of

TEST CODE: TS21E103

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER – I)

CA: June-July 2020

 ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
CA: June-July 2020
GS Paper-I: (TS21E103)
1. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
THAAD is an acronym for “Terminal High
Altitude Area Defence”, a transportable,
ground-based missile defence system. In
the book, Theater Missile Defense (TMD) in
East Asia: Implications for Beijing and
Tokyo, Lars Assmann writes: “THAAD is
coupled with space-based and ground-
based surveillance stations, which
transfer data about the incoming missile
and inform the THAAD interceptor missile
of the threat type classification. THAAD is
alarmed about the incoming missiles by
the space-based satellites with infrared
sensors.”
This anti-ballistic missile defence system
has been designed and manufactured by
the US Company Lockheed Martin. South
Korea is not the only country with the
THAAD missile defence system. It has
been previously deployed in the UAE,
Guam, Israel and Romania.
2. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The decrease in the overall number of
nuclear weapons in the world is mainly
due to Russia and the USA – which
together still account for over 90% of all
nuclear weapons – further reducing their
strategic nuclear forces, pursuant to the
implementation of the 2010 Treaty on
Measures for the Further Reduction and
Limitation of Strategic Offensive Arms
(The New START Treaty), while also
making unilateral reductions.
The New START (Strategic Arms
Reduction Treaty) Treaty will expire in
2021, unless both the parties agree to
extend it.
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
3. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Guru Nanak emphasized on the
equality of the women, rejected the
path of renunciation and he rejected
the authority of the Vedas.
 His approach aimed at bridging the
distinctions between the Hindus and
the Muslims.
 Janam-Sakhis are the hagiographic
narratives of his life.
 He was the contemporary of the
Mughal emperor - Babur.
4. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Proposed G 11 Grouping –
 It will include the members of the
present G7, along with India, Russia,
South Korea and Australia.
 The American President has
deliberately avoided the inclusion of
China in this expanded Group.
This is mainly because of the on-going
trade war between the two countries,
along with the accusation by the USA
that China influenced the WHO in
delaying the reporting of the COVID-19
pandemic outbreak.
5. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Project Ahana is Plan India’s national
programme, working towards an AIDS
free generation. Plan India is an NGO.
Partners: The National AIDS Control
Organization and the Global Fund to
Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria
(GFATM).
Its focus is on preventing parent-to-child
transmission among the women in the
1
 most vulnerable and marginalized Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and
communities. Jammu & Kashmir). The annual central
contribution is released in two equal
6. Answer: (d) instalments, as per the recommendation
of the Finance Commission. The SDRF
Explanation:
shall be used only for meeting the
 Bhagat Singh is accredited with
expenditure for providing immediate relief
popularizing the catchphrase “Inquilab
to the victims.
Zindabad” (Long live the revolutions).
Disasters covered under the
 1924: The Hindustan Republican SDRF: Cyclone, drought, earthquake,
Association was founded, which was fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide,
later renamed as the Hindustan avalanche, cloudburst, pest attack, frost
Socialist Republican Association and cold waves.
(HSRA).
The Local Disasters: A state government
 1926: Bhagat Singh founded the may use up to 10% of the funds available
Indian socialist youth under the SDRF, for providing immediate
organization, the Naujawan Bharat relief to the victims of the natural
Sabha. disasters, that they consider to be
 1928: HSRA was joined by Bhagat ‘disasters’ within the local context in the
Singh. state and which are not included in the
 In 1931, Bhagat Singh wrote a Notified List of Disasters of the Ministry of
pamphlet, “Why am I an Atheist”, Home Affairs, subject to the condition
while in jail. that the state government has listed the
 From Bhagat Singh’s letters and state specific natural disasters, and
writings, it is evident that he was notified clear and transparent norms and
influenced by Karl Marx, Mazzini, guidelines for such disasters, with the
Garibaldi, Tolstoy, Rousseau, Voltaire approval of the State Authority, i.e., the
and Gorky. State Executive Authority.
 He strongly critiqued the practice of
untouchability and communalism, 8. Answer: (d)
and advocated the idea of a plural and Explanation:
inclusive India. The Treasury Bills, or the T-Bills, have a
 Bhagat Singh expressed his maximum maturity period of 364 days.
disenchantment with the politics of So, they are categorized as money market
Lala Lajpat Rai, whom he and other instruments (money market deals with
youth otherwise venerated. the funds with a maturity of less than one
year). At present, The Treasury Bills are
7. Answer: (d) issued in three maturities – 91-day, 182-
day and 364-day. In 1997, the
Explanation:
government also issued 14-day immediate
The State Disaster Response Fund Treasury Bills.
(SDRF), constituted under Section 48 (1)
The Treasury Bills were first issued in
(a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005,
India in 1917. They are issued via
is the primary fund available with the
auctions, conducted by the Reserve Bank
state governments for responses to the
of India (RBI) at regular intervals.
notified disasters. The central government
Individuals, trusts, institutions and
contributes 75% of the SDRF allocation
banks can purchase the T-Bills. But, they
for the general category states/UTs and
are usually held by the financial
90% for the special category states/UTs
institutions. They have a very important
(The north-east states, Sikkim,
role in the financial market, beyond the

RAUSIAS-TS21E103 2
 investment instruments. The banks give
Treasury Bills to the RBI to get money
under ‘Repo’. Similarly, they can also
keep it to fulfil their Statutory Liquid
Ratio (SLR) requirements.
The Treasury Bills are issued at a
discount to the original value and the
buyer gets the original value upon
maturity. For example, a Rs. 100
Treasury Bill can be availed of at Rs. 95,
but the buyer is paid Rs. 100 on the
maturity date. The return on the Treasury
Bill depends on the liquidity position in
the economy. When there is a liquidity
crisis, the returns are higher, and vice
versa.
The Treasury Bills have an advantage
over other market instruments, because
of the zero-risk weightage associated with
them. The secondary market of T-Bills is
very active and they have a higher degree
of tradability.
9. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Co-operative Banking in India is
divided into two distinct segments: Rural
and Urban.
The Rural Co-operative Structure
10. Answer: (b)
comprises: The Short-Term Co-operative
Credit Structure; and the Long-Term Co-
operative Credit Structure.
The Short-Term Co-operative Credit
Structure operates with a three-tier
system: (i) The Primary Agricultural
Credit Societies (PACSs) at the village
level; (ii) The Central Co-operative Banks
(CCBs) at the district level; and (iii) The
State Co-operative Banks (StCBs) at the
state level.
The Long-Term Co-operative Credit
Structure comprises: (i) The State Co-
operative Agriculture and Rural
Development Banks (SCARDBs); and The
Primary Co-operative Agriculture and
Rural Development Banks (PCARDBs).
Non-Applicability: The PACSs and the
Long-Term Credit Co-operatives are
outside the purview of the Banking
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
Regulation Act, 1949, and are, hence, not
regulated by the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI). The NABARD conducts voluntary
inspections of the State Co-operative
Agriculture and Rural Development
Banks (SCARDBs).
Regulation of the StCBs and the
DCCBs: The StCBs/DCCBs are registered
under the provisions of the State Co-
operative Societies Act of the state
concerned. There is dual regulation of
such banks by the RBI and the Registrar
of Co-operative Societies. The banking
related functions are regulated by the
RBI, while the management related
functions are regulated by the Registrar
of Co-operative Societies. Here, the RBI
has delegated its powers to the NABARD,
under Section 35A of the Banking
Regulation Act, to conduct the inspection
of the State and the Central Co-operative
Banks.
The Regulation of the Urban Co-
operative Banks: There is duality of
control over such banks by the RBI and
the Registrar of Co-operative Societies of
the concerned state/Central Registrar of
Co-operative Societies.
Explanation:
The “net financial assets of the
households” are calculated as: ‘Financial
Assets’ minus ‘Financial Liabilities’ of the
households. The financial assets include
currency, bank deposits, debt securities,
mutual funds, insurance, pension funds
and small savings. The financial liabilities
are primarily held in the form of loans
and borrowings from the banks, non-
banking financial companies (NBFCs) and
housing finance companies (HFCs).
Several studies show that the households
tend to save more during a slowdown and
income uncertainty. The present
economic slowdown has led to higher
uncertainty for the households. Hence,
the households have refrained from
borrowings loans from the banks, leading
to a contraction in the household
3
 financial liabilities. This decrease in the
household financial liabilities has led to
an increase in the net financial savings of
the households.
11. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Presently, there is huge political
interference in the working of the Public
Sector Banks (PSBs), leading to
inefficiency and higher NPAs (Non-
Performing Assets). In some of the cases,
the appointment of the top-level
executives of the PSBs has been made on
the political considerations, rather than
based on merit. Hence, the P. J. Nayak
Committee recommended for the setting
up of the Banks Board Bureau (BBB), to
improve the governance of the PSBs.
Accordingly, the Banks Board Bureau
was set up in 2016, as a non-statutory
body to advise the government on the
appointments of the chiefs of the PSBs.
The role of the BBB is limited to the
recommendation of the names. The
appointment is finally approved by the
Cabinet Committee on Appointments.
12. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In Tirunelveli (Tamil Nadu), V.O.
Chidambaram Pillai, Subramania Siva
and some lawyers formed the Swadeshi
Sangam, which inspired the local masses.
V.O. Chidambaram Pillai’s venture into a
national shipbuilding enterprise – The
Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company – at
Tuticorin, however, gave a challenge to
the British Indian Steam Navigation
Company.
Subramania Siva and Chidambaram Pillai
led strikes in Tuticorin and Tirunelveli in
a foreign-owned cotton mill.
13. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The Model Code of Conduct was
agreed to by all the political parties in
1968. The Election Commission first
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
effectively put to use the Model Code
of Conduct in the year 1991, to
ensure fair elections and a level
playing field.
 The Model Code of Conduct is
enforced from the date of the
announcement of the election
schedule by the Election Commission
and is operational until the process of
elections is completed.
 The electoral roll is a list of all the
people in the constituency, who are
registered to vote in the Indian
elections. Only those people, with
their names on the electoral roll, are
allowed to vote. The electoral roll is
normally revised every year to add the
names of those who are to turn 18 on
1st January of that year, or have
moved into a constituency and to
remove the names of those who have
died or moved out of a constituency.
14. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Balance of Payments (BoP) shows the
transactions between the residents and
the non-residents of an economy for a
period of one year. These economic
transactions may lead to two results:
1. The residents from India owning
assets in other countries (such as
foreign investments, equities, debt,
deposits, etc., in other countries) 
Assets for the Indian economy.
2. The residents from other countries
owning assets in India (such as FDI,
FPI, deposits, etc.)  Liabilities for the
Indian economy.
Due to these transactions recorded on the
BoP, a particular economy builds up the
stock of the external financial assets and
liabilities. Thus, the Net International
Investment Position (NIIP) has been
introduced, in order to measure the total
stock of the external financial assets and
liabilities. It is calculated as: “The assets
owned by the residents in other
4
 countries” minus “The assets owned by
the non-residents within India”.
A positive NIIP indicates that the
residents own more assets abroad, as
compared to the assets owned by the
non-residents within a country (Net
Creditor). While a negative NIIP indicates
that a country's residents own less assets
abroad, than the assets of the non-
residents (Net Debtor).
2017 and held its meeting a day before
the ASEAN Summit.
Soon after the meeting, India, Australia
and Japan issued separate statements
listing the Indo-Pacific as the major area
of the deliberations and resolved to
expand the co-operation to uphold a
rules-based order and respect for the
international law in the strategically
important region.

15. Answer: (d)

Explanation: 18. Answer: (c)
India is currently the sixth largest Explanation:
producer and second largest consumer of The International Atomic Energy Agency
natural rubber in the world. The (IAEA) –
traditional rubber-growing states,
1. It was set up as the world’s “Atoms
comprising Kerala and Tamil Nadu,
for Peace” organization in 1957,
account for 81% of the production. The
within the United Nations family.
major non-traditional rubber growing
regions are the north-eastern states of 2. It reports to both the United Nations
Tripura, Assam & Meghalaya, Odisha, General Assembly and the UN
Karnataka, Maharashtra and West Security Council.
Bengal. 3. India is a founding member of the
IAEA.
16. Answer: (c) 4. The IAEA is an autonomous
Explanation: organization within the United
The Location of the Galwan Valley – Nations system.
 It lies along the course of river 5. It is considered to be a ‘related
Galwan. organization’ by the United Nations.
Source –
6. It is not a specialized agency, because
 Aksai Chin, on China’s side of the LA. of the political nature of the work
• It flows east into Ladakh, where it done by it.
meets the Shyok River on India’s side
7. It seeks to promote the peaceful use of
of the LAC.
the nuclear energy and to inhibit its
use for any military purpose,
17. Answer: (c)
including the nuclear weapons.
Explanation:
8. It works with its member states and
The grouping of four democracies : India,
multiple partners worldwide to
Australia, the US and Japan, known as
promote the safe, secure and peaceful
the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue or
“Quad”, was first mooted by the Japanese use of the nuclear technologies.
Prime Minister, Shinzo Abe, in 2007. It aims at applying mandatory
However, the idea could not move ahead comprehensive safeguards in the non-
with Australia pulling out of it, apparently nuclear weapon states (NNWS), under
due to the Chinese pressure. the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
India, Australia, the US and Japan (NPT) and other international treaties.
formed the “Quadrilateral” coalition in

RAUSIAS-TS21E103 5
19. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The external debt includes the total
money owed by the government, the
corporations, or the Indian citizens to the
foreign creditors. Major heads under
external debt include:
 Multilateral Debt: Debt from the
multilateral institutions, such as the
World Bank, IMF, ADB, etc.
 Bilateral Debt: Debt from the
sovereign countries, such as Japan,
Germany, etc.
 Trade credits/export credits: Loans
and credits extended for imports
directly by the overseas suppliers,
banks and financial institutions.
 External Commercial Borrowings:
Loans from the commercial banks and
other commercial financial
institutions.
 Non-resident deposits in the banks
and financial institutions.
 External Commercial Borrowings
(ECBs), accounting for 40% of the
external debt, remain the largest
source of external debt, followed by
the non-resident deposits.
20. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
About the Financial Action Task Force
(FATF) –
 The Financial Action Task Force
(FATF) is the global money
laundering and terrorist financing
watchdog.
 The inter-governmental body sets
international standards that aim to
prevent these illegal activities and the
harm they cause to the society.
 As a policy-making body, the FATF
works to generate the necessary
political will to bring about the
national legislative and the regulatory
reforms in these areas.
 The FATF has developed the
FATF Recommendations, or the
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
FATF Standards, which ensure a co-
ordinated global response to prevent
organized crime, corruption and
terrorism.
 It helps the authorities go after the
money of the criminals dealing in
illegal drugs, human trafficking and
other crimes.
 The FATF also works to stop funding
for the weapons of mass
destruction.
 The FATF reviews money laundering
and terrorist financing techniques,
and continuously strengthens its
standards to address new risks, such
as the regulation of the virtual assets,
which have spread as the crypto-
currencies gain popularity.
 The FATF monitors the countries to
ensure that they implement the FATF
Standards fully and effectively, and it
also holds the countries to account
that do not comply.
21. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
During the First World War, the Jugantar
Party arranged to import German arms
and ammunition through the
sympathizers and the revolutionaries
abroad. Jatin (a revolutionary) asked
Rashbehari Bose to take charge of the
Upper India, aiming to bring about an all-
India insurrection in what has come to be
called the ‘German Plot’ or the
‘Zimmerman Plan’. The Jugantar Party
raised funds through a series of dacoities,
which came to be known as the “taxicab
dacoities” and the “boat dacoities”, so as
to work out the Indo-German conspiracy.
It was planned that a guerrilla force
would be organized to start an uprising in
the country, with the seizure of Fort
William and a mutiny by the armed
forces. Unfortunately for the
revolutionaries, the plot was leaked out
by a traitor.
6
22. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In line with the government policy,
contained in Montagu’s statement of
August 1917, the government announced
further Constitutional reforms in 1918,
known as the Montagu-Chelmsford or the
Montford Reforms. Based on these, the
Government of India Act, 1919 was
enacted.
Salient Features –
1. The women were given the right to
vote.
2. On the home government (in Britain)
front, the Government of India Act,
1919, made an important change—the
Secretary of the State for India was
henceforth to be paid out of the
British Exchequer.
3. The Provincial Legislative Councils
were further expanded and 70 per
cent of the members were to be
elected. A bicameral arrangement was
introduced. The Lower House or the
Central Legislative Assembly would
consist of 145 members (41
nominated and 104 elected— 52
General, 30 Muslims, 2 Sikhs and 20
Special) and the Upper House or the
Council of State would have 60
members, of which 26 were to be
nominated and 34 elected—20
General, 10 Muslims, 3 Europeans
and 1 Sikh.
23. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The massacre at the Jallianwalla Bagh
shocked the Indians and many British as
well. The Secretary of the State for India,
Edwin Montagu, ordered that
Committee of Inquiry be formed to
investigate the matter. So, in 1919, the
Government of India announced the
formation of the Disorders Inquiry
Committee, which came to be more widely
and variously known as the Hunter
Committee/Commission, after the name
of the Chairman, Lord William Hunter,
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
the former Solicitor-General for Scotland
and the Senator of the College of Justice
in Scotland.
There were three Indians among the
members, namely, Sir Chimanlal Harilal
Setalvad (The Vice-Chancellor of the
Bombay University and an advocate of
the Bombay High Court); Pandit Jagat
Narayan (A lawyer and a member of the
Legislative Council of the United
Provinces); and Sardar Sahibzada Sultan
Ahmad Khan (A lawyer from Gwalior
state).
Though Dyer’s statement caused racial
tensions among the members of the
Committee, the final Report, released in
1920, unanimously condemned Dyer’s
actions. The Report stated that the lack of
notice to disperse from the Bagh in the
beginning was an error; the length of
firing showed a grave error; Dyer’s motive
of producing a sufficient moral effect was
to be condemned; Dyer had overstepped
the bounds of his authority; and there
had been no conspiracy to overthrow the
British rule in the Punjab.
The minority report of the Indian
members further added that the
proclamations banning public meetings
were insufficiently publicized; there were
innocent people in the crowd and there
had not been any violence in the Bagh
beforehand; Dyer should have either
ordered his troops to help the wounded or
instructed the civil authorities to do so;
Dyer’s actions had been “inhuman and
un-British”; and had greatly injured the
image of the British rule in India.
The Hunter Committee did not impose
any penal or disciplinary action, because
Dyer’s actions were condoned by various
a superiors (later upheld by the Army
Council).
24. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
What is the Dark Net?
 The Dark Net is a network of
computers on the internet, that are:
7
 (a) not accessible through the normal
search engines; and
(b) provide anonymity to the source of
the web content.
 In order to access the contents of the
Dark Net, we need special software to
get into this network of computers.
 In simple words, the web content on
the Dark Net is intentionally hidden,
in order to provide anonymity to the
service provider.
26. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
About the Arms Trade Treaty (ATT) –
 The ATT was adopted by the UN
General Assembly in 2013.
 It entered into force in 2014.
 It is a multilateral Treaty, that
regulates the trade in the conventional
weapons.
 It comes under the UN Office for
Disarmament Affairs.

Features  India has abstained from joining the

Treaty.
 While it is hidden from a search
engine, the web pages on the Dark Net
27. Answer: (b)
can be accessed and downloaded by
Explanation:
anyone, who has the exact address of
the webpage. Various disputed islands in the South
China Sea –
 The Dark Net does not provide any
protection against the malware, virus Disputed Claimant Country
Islands
attack, etc.
 Since the data is routed through a Senkaku Island China & Japan
number of relay computers, between Spartly Island China & Philippines;
the source and the destination, the Malaysia, Indonesia
communication is slower in the Dark and Brunei too claim
Net. parts of the island
Chain

25. Answer: (c) Scarborough China & Philippines

Shoal
Explanation:
About the 5G Club – Parcel Island China and Vietnam

 Also called the D10, it includes the

democracies of the G7 countries,
including the UK, the US, Italy,
Germany, France, Japan and Canada,
as well as Australia, South Korea and
India.
 It is basically mooted in order to
develop the alternate supply chain of
the 5G technology.
 The main aim is to cut out Huawei out
of the 5G supply chain network by
2023.
 It is aimed at channelling the
investments into the existing
telecommunication companies, within
the 10 member states.
28. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Maritime choke points, or the oil choke
points, are the congestive pathways in
some of the world’s famous shipping
routes. There are many such choke points
around the world. However, a few of them
are extremely famous for the ships and
thus, face high international security
conflicts and cross-border terrorism
threats.
Some of the famous maritime choke
points around the world are:
 The Strait of Malacca in the Indian
Ocean.

RAUSIAS-TS21E103 8
  The Strait of Hormuz in the Persian
Gulf.
 The Suez Canal, linking the
Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.
 The Panama Canal, linking the
Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean.
 The Strait of Bosporus (The Turkish
Strait), linking the Mediterranean Sea
to the Black Sea.
 The three Danish Straits, linking the
Baltic Sea with the North Sea.
 The Strait of Bab el-Mandeb, forming
a gateway for the vessels to pass
through the Suez Canal, through the
east coast of Africa in the Red Sea.
29. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 Bioremediation is the cleaning of the
polluted sites, through the
naturally occurring or introduced
micro-organisms for breaking down
the environmental pollutants.
 Bioremediation deals with the use of
the living organisms, such as micro-
organisms, like bacteria and fungi, to
remove the contaminants, pollutants
and toxins from the soil and water. It
can be used to clean up the
environmental problems, like an oil
spill or contaminated groundwater.
 The most important principle of
bioremediation is that the micro-
organisms can be used to destroy
the hazardous contaminants or
transform them into less harmful
forms.
 Bioremediation relies on stimulating
the growth of certain microbes, that
use the contaminants, like oil,
solvents and pesticides, as a source of
food and energy.
30. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
1. The Lonar Lake is located in the
world's only high velocity impact
formed in the basaltic rock. As per the
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
scientists, the crater was formed after
a comet or an asteroid hit the area at
a speed of 90,000 km per hour.
2. The Lonar Lake is the best preserved
and the youngest crater formed in the
basalt rock.
3. The crater on which the lake sits is
oval in shape, indicating that the
comet or the asteroid hit the spot at
an angle of 35 to 40 degrees.
4. The most prominent reptiles found in
the Lonar Lake are the monitor
lizards.
5. It is located in Maharashtra.
31. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Epicentre is the point on the surface of
the Earth, that is directly above the
underground point (called the focus),
where the fault rupture commences,
producing an earthquake. The effects of
the earthquake may not be most severe in
the vicinity of the epicentre.
The epicentre can be located by
computing arcs from each of the three or
more seismic observatories, with the arcs’
radii proportional to the time of travel
of the seismic waves from the focus to
each station. The point of intersection of
the arcs marks the epicentre.
The second type of body wave is the S
wave or the secondary wave, which is the
second wave we feel in an earthquake. An
S wave is slower than a P wave and can
only move through solid rock, not
through any liquid medium. It is this
property of the S waves that led the
seismologists to conclude that the Earth's
outer core is a liquid.
32. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Nagar Van Scheme
The Nagar Van or Urban Forests aims at
developing 200 Urban Forests pan India
in the coming five years.
Under this Scheme, a minimum of 20
hectares of forests will be created in the
9
 city. These city forests will provide the 34. Answer: (a)
city dwellers a wholesome natural Explanation:
environment for recreation and will Committees –
contribute to the improvement of the
1. V. L. Kantha Rao Committee:
city's environment by pollution
Corporatization of the Ordnance
mitigation, cleaner air, noise reduction,
Factory Boards.
water harvesting and the reduction of the
heat island effect. The city authorities are 2. Bimal Julka Committee:
encouraged to have a city forest, Rationalization of the Film Media
comprising an area up to 100 ha in the Units.
forest area within their jurisdiction, for 3. Sumit Bose Committee: Expert
deriving the maximum ecological and Committee on the Cantonment
environmental benefits. Boards.
This is also linked to the School Nursery
Yojana, that aims to build lasting bond 35. Answer: (d)
between the students and the nature.
Explanation:
Assistance under the CAMPA
The Attorney General for India –
(Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act)
According to Article 76 of the
Fund will be provided for this initiative. It
is a programme of the Ministry of Constitution –
Environment, Forest and Climate Change. 1. The President shall appoint a person
who is qualified to be appointed a
33. Answer: (a) Judge of the Supreme Court to be the
Attorney General for India.
Explanation:
2. It shall be the duty of the Attorney
Events during Prime Minister
Narasimha Rao's regime – General to give advice to the
Government of India upon such legal
1. Implementation of the LPG
matters, and to perform such other
(Liberalisation, Privatisation and
duties of a legal character, as may
Globalisation) reforms.
from time to time be referred or
2. The enactment of the 73rd and the 74th
assigned to him by the President, and
Constitutional Amendment Acts,
to discharge the functions conferred
giving constitutional status to the
local governments and the on him by or under this Constitution
Panchayats. or any other law for the time being in
force.
3. Statutory status to the SEBI was
given by the SEBI Act of 1992. 3. In the performance of his duties the
4. Establishment of diplomatic relations Attorney General shall have the right
with Israel-1992 of audience in all courts in the
territory of India.
5. The Mandal Commission Report was
implemented during the regime of 4. The Attorney General shall hold office
Prime Minister V. P. Singh. It led to during the pleasure of the President,
the creation of a separate category of and shall receive such remuneration
OBC, who were given 27% reservation as the President may determine.
in the government jobs. 5. The law officers, including the
The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Attorney General, are not considered
Practices Act, 1969, was repealed and to be government servants and are not
replaced by the Competition Act, 2002. debarred from the private practice.

RAUSIAS-TS21E103 10
36. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The National Productivity Council is an
autonomous body, under the Department
for Promotion of Industry and Internal
Trade, Ministry of Commerce and
Industry, Government of India.
The Governing Council of the National
Productivity Council is headed by the
Union Minister for Commerce and
Industry.
37. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
39. Answer: (a)
According to the Livestock Census
2019 – The total cattle population in the
country is 192.49 million, during 2019.
The total cattle have increased by 0.8%
over the previous Livestock Census
(2012).
The female cattle population has
increased by 18.0%, whereas the male
cattle have decreased by 30.2% over the
previous census.
40. Answer: (a)
38. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Maareech is an Anti-Torpedo Decoy
System, inducted recently in the Indian
Navy.
The System offers a complete solution to
detect and locate an incoming torpedo,
and to apply counter-measures to protect
the naval platform against the torpedo
attack.
Pinaka: The Pinaka Weapon System
consists of rocket, multi-barrel rocket
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
launcher, battery command post, loader-
cum-replenishment vehicle,
replenishment vehicle and Digicora MET
radar.
Astra: Astra is an all-weather, beyond
visual range air-to-air missile, developed
by the Defence Research and
Development Organization (DRDO). It is
the first air-to-air missile developed by
India.
Nirbhay: It is a long-range, sub-sonic
cruise missile, developed by the DRDO. It
has a range of 1,000 kms.
Explanation:
Raja Parba is a festival celebrated in the
state of Odisha. This is a three-day-long
festival, dedicated to Mother Earth and
womanhood at large. The festivities begin
a day before the Mithuna Sankranti and
conclude two days after that.
Ashadhi Bij is a festival celebrated in the
Kutch area of Gujarat. It is related to the
Kutchi New Year.
The Jyestha Ashtami Festival is
celebrated by the Kashmiri Pandits
community. Devotees flock to the Mata
Kheer Bhawani Temple or the Tulmula
Mandir in Kashmir in huge numbers. The
temple premises turn home to thousands
of Kashmiri Pandits and other devotees,
who travel all the way to pay obeisance to
Goddess Ragnya Bhawani residing in the
temple.
Explanation:
Presently, the government borrows money
from the market by issuing various
financial instruments, such as the T-Bills
and Dated Securities. Similarly, in recent
times, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
has been carrying out the Open Market
Operations (OMOs) in order to indirectly
lend money to the government. However,
in the case of ‘Direct Monetization’, the
government borrows money directly from
11
 the RBI by using the T-Bills and Dated
Securities.
41. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Open Data Charter – In 2013, the
G8 leaders signed the G8 Open Data
Charter, which outlined a set of five core
open data principles. Many nations and
open government advocates welcomed the
G8 Charter, but there was a general
sense that the principles could be refined
and improved to support the broader
global adoption of the open data
principles.
Building on these efforts, and through an
open, inclusive and representative
process, a number of open data
champions from the governments,
multilateral organizations, civil society
and private sector developed the
International Open Data Charter. (It is
independent of the United Nations).
The Charter has 6 principles, which were
developed in 2015 by the governments,
civil society and experts around the world
to represent a globally agreed set of
aspirational norms for how to publish the
data.
The Six Principles are:
1. Open by default;
2. Timely and comprehensive;
3. Accessible and usable;
4. Comparable and interoperable;
5. For improved governance and citizen
engagement; and
6. For inclusive development and
innovation.
The Government of India has not adopted
the Open Data Charter.
42. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• The Protection of Human Rights Act,
1993, was enacted to provide for the
constitution of a National Human
Rights Commission (NHRC), the State
Human Rights Commissions (SHRCs)
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and the Human Rights Courts for the
protection of the human rights.
The Protection of Human Rights
(Amendment) Act, 2019, provides for
the following changes –
• A person, who has been a Judge of the
Supreme Court, is also made eligible
to be appointed as the Chairperson of
the Commission (The NHRC), in
addition to the person, who has been
the Chief Justice of India.
• To increase the members of the
Commission from two to three, of
which, one shall be a woman.
• To include the Chairperson of the
National Commission for Backward
Classes; the Chairperson of the
National Commission for Protection of
Child Rights; and the Chief
Commissioner for Persons with
Disabilities as the deemed members of
the Commission.
• To reduce the term of the Chairperson
and the members of the Commission
and the State Commissions from five
to three years, and the fact that they
shall be eligible for re-appointment.
• To provide that a person, who has
been a Judge of a High Court, is also
made eligible to be appointed as the
Chairperson of the State Commission,
in addition to the person, who has
been the Chief Justice of the High
Court.
• The Central Government may, by
order, confer upon the State
Commissions the functions relating to
the human rights being discharged by
the Union Territories, other than the
Union Territory of Delhi.
• The functions relating to the human
rights, in case of the Union Territory
of Delhi, shall be dealt with by the
Commission.
12
43. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
• The National Human Rights
Commission (NHRC) of India was
established in 1993, under the
Protection of Human Rights Act
(PHRA), 1993. The Act has been
amended in 2006 and very recently in
2019.
• The NHRC has been established in
conformity with the Paris Principles,
adopted at the first international
workshop on national institutions, for
the promotion and protection of the
human rights, held in Paris in 1991
and endorsed by the General
Assembly of the United Nations, by its
Resolutions 48/134 of in 1993.
44. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Convention against Torture and
Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading
Treatment or Punishment –
Article 2
1. Each state party shall take effective
legislative, administrative, judicial or
other measures to prevent the acts of
torture in any territory under its
jurisdiction.
2. No exceptional circumstances
whatsoever, whether a state of war or
a threat of war, internal political
instability, or any other public
emergency, may be invoked as a
justification of torture.
3. An order from a superior officer or a
public authority may not be invoked
as a justification of torture.
Article 3
1. No state party shall expel, return
(refouler) or extradite a person to
another state, where there are
substantial grounds for believing that
he would be in danger of being
subjected to torture.
2. For the purpose of determining
whether there are such grounds, the
competent authorities shall take into
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
account all relevant considerations,
including, where applicable, the
existence in the state concerned of a
consistent pattern of gross, flagrant or
mass violations of the human rights.
India is a signatory to the UN Convention
Against Torture. However, India has not
ratified the Convention.
45. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Free education for the children with
benchmark disabilities –
(1) Notwithstanding anything contained
in the Right of Children to Free and
Compulsory Education Act, 2009,
every child with benchmark disability,
between the age of six to eighteen
years, shall have the right to free
education in a neighbourhood school,
or in a special school of his choice.
(2) The appropriate government and local
authorities shall ensure that every
child with benchmark disability has
access to free education in an
appropriate environment, till he
attains the age of eighteen years.
Reservation in the higher educational
institutions –
(1) All government institutions of higher
education and other higher education
institutions, receiving aid from the
government, shall reserve not less
than 5% seats for the persons with
benchmark disabilities.
(2) The persons with benchmark
disabilities shall be given an upper
age relaxation of five years for
admission in the institutions of higher
education.
46. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
In pursuance to the recently announced
Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyan stimulus
package, the Cabinet has approved the
setting up of the Animal Husbandry
Infrastructure Development Fund
(AHIDF), amounting to Rs. 15,000 crore.
13
 The government had earlier approved the
Dairy Processing and Infrastructure
Development Fund (DIDF) worth Rs.
10,000 crore for incentivizing investment
by the co-operative sector, for the
development of the dairy infrastructure.
However, the MSMEs and private
companies also need to be promoted and
incentivized for their participation in
processing and value addition
infrastructure in the animal husbandry
sector.
The eligible beneficiaries under the
Scheme would be the Farmer Producer
Organizations (FPOs), MSMEs, Section 8
Companies, private companies and
individual entrepreneurs, with only 10%
margin money contribution by them. The
balance 90% would be the loan
component to be made available to them
by the scheduled banks.
The Government of India will provide 3%
interest subvention to the eligible
beneficiaries.
47. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The National Coal Index (NCI) – It has
been developed on the recommendation of
the Pratyush Sinha Committee. It will be
used for the purpose of the auction of the
coal mines for commercial mining on
revenue sharing basis.
NCI is the weighted average of the change
in the price level of coal, based on the
price level of Financial Year 2017-18. The
Index is compiled and presented at 5 sub-
sectors level, which are the groups of the
grades of coal. These sub-sector indices
are averaged to compile the Index of the
non-coking coal and the coking coal, and
finally for the whole of the Indian coal
sector.
The Index will use three price channels:
 Notified prices of Coal India; WCL; and
SCCL.
 Auction prices of Coal India.
 Import prices of coal.
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
It would be brought out once in two
months. It would be published on the last
date of every second month.
The Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)
would be responsible for collecting all
data pertaining to the coal prices, from all
the price channels on a bi-monthly basis.
The CCO will compile the National Coal
Index.
48. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR)
– The LFPR is defined as the percentage of
the persons in the labour force (i.e.,
working or seeking, or available for work)
in the population.
Worker Population Ratio (WPR) – The
WPR is defined as the percentage of the
employed persons in the population.
Unemployment Rate (UR) – The UR is
defined as the percentage of the persons
unemployed among the persons in the
labour force.
49. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar’s most
enduring contributions were as an
educationist and a reformer of the
traditional upper caste Hindu society.
 The focus of his reform was the
women.
 He spent his life’s energies trying to
ensure an end to the practice of the
child marriage and to initiate the
widow marriage.
 Vidyasagar and Akshay Kumar Dutt
were agnostics, who refused to
discuss the supernatural.
 Alongside the campaign for the widow
remarriage, Vidyasagar campaigned
against polygamy.
50. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Under the Special Liquidity Window for
the NBFCs, SBICAP, which is a
14
 subsidiary of the State Bank of India, has
set up a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV),
known as the Special Liquidity Scheme
(SLS) Trust, to manage this operation.
The SLS Trust would raise money by
issuing government guaranteed special
securities to the RBI. The total amount of
the value of such securities would be Rs.
30,000 crore. Under this Scheme, certain
eligible NBFCs and HFCs would be
issuing commercial papers to borrow
money from the SLS Trust. These
commercial papers should have maturity
period of less than 3 months. The
borrowed money should be used by the
NBFCs and the HFCs only for the purpose
of repaying their borrowed money. The
money cannot be used by the NBFCs and
the HFCs for any other purpose.
51. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Government Final Consumption
Expenditure (GFCE) accounts for around
12% of India's GDP. As highlighted by the
Economic Survey 2019-20, the present
economic slowdown is on account of
decline in investment, accompanied by
decline in consumption expenditure. Even
though the contribution of the GFCE is
only around 12% of India's GDP, the
increase in the rate of the GFCE has
enabled the Indian economy to register
the GDP growth rate of 4.2% in 2019-20.
Had the government not increased its
expenditure, the GDP growth rate would
have been still lower in 2019-20.
52. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 Bahlol’s son, Nizam Khan Sikandar
Lodhi, who succeeded him, became
the most powerful ruler of the Lodhi
dynasty.
 Under Sikandar Lodhi’ s reign, Vasco
da Gama landed in India.
 Sikandar Lodhi made conquests in
Bihar and Bengal, subjugated Gwalior
and founded the city of Agra in 1504.
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
 In the First Battle of Panipat, Babur
defeated his son, Ibrahim Lodhi.
53. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The International Comparison Programme
(ICP) is the largest world-wide data
collection initiative with the goal of
producing Purchasing Power Parities
(PPPs). It is managed by the World Bank
and carried out under the guidance of the
UN Statistical Commission (UNSC). The
World Bank has released the new
Purchasing Power Parities (PPPs) for
reference year 2017. India has retained
its global position as the third
largest economy (in terms of PPP). Top
two countries are China and the USA.
54. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Aksai Chin is important for China, as it
connects two backward provinces of
China, viz., Tibet and Xinjiang.
The territories of India, Bhutan and
China intersect in an area, called the
Doklam Plateau, adjacent to the Chumbi
Valley.
55. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Article 159 - Oath or affirmation by the
Governor – Every Governor and every
person discharging the functions of the
Governor shall, before entering upon his
office, make and subscribe in the
presence of the Chief Justice of the
High Court exercising jurisdiction in
relation to the state, or, in his absence,
the senior most Judge of that Court
available, an oath or affirmation.
Schedule V – The Governor, by public
notification, can direct the following:
 That any particular Act of the
Parliament or of the State Legislature
shall not apply to a Scheduled Area
or any part of the Scheduled Area in
the state; or
15
  That any particular Act of the constitutional recognition to the
Parliament or of the State Legislature Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
shall apply to a Scheduled Area or Whereas the Constitution (Seventy-fourth
any part of the Scheduled Area in the Amendment) Act, 1992, gives
state and the Governor can specify constitutional recognition to the
any modification or exception
Municipalities and the Urban Local
regarding the implementation of any
Bodies (ULBs).
law made by the Parliament or the
State Legislature. Organizing the Village Panchayats and
endowing them with the powers and
 The Governor is empowered to issue
notification, giving it a retrospective authority necessary to enable them to
effect. function as the units of self-government
Article 166 – The Conduct of the is a part of the Directive Principles of
business of the Government of a State - State Policy, under Article 40 and not
All executive actions of the government of the Fundamental Duties.
a state shall be expressed to be taken in Article 40 – The Organization of the
the name of the Governor. Village Panchayats - The State shall take
Article 166 – The Conduct of the steps to organize the Village Panchayats
business of the Government of a State- and endow them with such powers and
The Governor shall make rules for the authority, as may be necessary to enable
more convenient transaction of the
them to function as the units of self-
business of the government of the state
government.
and for the allocation among the
Ministers of the said business, in so far Article 243K – The Elections to the
as it is not business with respect to which Panchayats - The superintendence,
the Governor is by, or under this direction and control of the preparation of
Constitution, required to act in his the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of
discretion. all elections to the Panchayats, shall be
vested in a State Election Commission,
56. Answer: (a) consisting of a State Election
Explanation: Commissioner, to be appointed by the
Vande Bharat Mission aims at bringing Governor.
home stranded Indians in many countries
due to Covid-19 pandemic. 58. Answer: (a)
Under the Mission, the people evacuated
Explanation:
are to compulsorily download the
“Aarogya Setu” application. After The National Crisis Management
returning to India, these people are to be Committee (NCMC) is headed by the
kept under quarantine for 14 days. Cabinet Secretary. It comprises high level
The flights are being operated, based on officials of the Government of India. It
the standard operating procedure (SOP), deals with the crises, which have national
issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs. ramifications. It is supported by the
The cost of travel will be borne by such Crisis Management Groups of the Central
travelers. Nodal Ministries and assisted by the
National Executive Council, as may be
57. Answer: (b) necessary.
Explanation: Whereas, such other emergencies,
The Constitution (Seventy-third including those requiring close
Amendment) Act, 1992, gives involvement of the security forces and/or

RAUSIAS-TS21E103 16
 the intelligence agencies, such as
terrorism (counter-insurgency), law and
order situations, serial bomb blasts,
hijacking, air accidents, CBRN weapon
systems, mine disasters, port and
harbour emergencies, forest fires, oilfield
fires and oil spills will continue to be
handled by the extant mechanism, i.e.,
the National Crisis Management
Committee (NCMC). The NCMC plays an
important role in the handling of the
multi-state disasters.
It is a statutory body under the Disaster
Management Act, 2005.
The Role of the NCMC –
(i) To oversee the command, control and
co-ordination of the disaster
response;
(ii) To give directions to the Crisis
Management Groups, as deemed
necessary; and
(iii) To give directions for specific actions
to face the crisis situations.
59. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Sarkaria Commission – With a view
to reviewing the working of the existing
arrangements between the Union and the
States in the changed socio-economic
scenario, the government, vide a
notification of the Ministry of Home
Affairs, dated June 9, 1983, constituted a
Commission under the Chairmanship of
Justice R.S. Sarkaria, with Shri B.
Sivaraman and Dr. S.R. Sen as its
members. The terms of the reference of
the Commission, as enunciated in this
notification, were as under:
"The Commission will examine and review
the working of the existing arrangements
between the Union and the States in
regard to powers, functions and
responsibilities in all spheres and
recommend such changes or other
measures as may be appropriate." "In
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
examining and reviewing the working of
the existing arrangements between the
Union and the States, and making
recommendations as to the changes and
measures needed, the Commission will
keep in view the social and economic
developments that have taken place over
the years and have due regard to the
scheme and framework of the
Constitution, which the founding fathers
have so sedulously designed to protect
the independence and to ensure the unity
and integrity of the country which is of
paramount importance for promoting the
welfare of the people."
These are the separate topics which have
been discussed in the Report of the
Sarkaria Commission:
 Legislative Relations
 Administrative Relations
 The Role of the Governors
 The Reservation of the Bills by the
Governors for the President’s
consideration and the Promulgation of
the Ordinances
 The Emergency Provisions
 Deployment of Union Armed Forces in
the states for public order duties
 All India Services
 Inter-Governmental Council
 Financial Relations
 Economic and Social Planning
 Industries
 Mines and Minerals
 Agriculture
 Forests
 Food and Civil Supplies
 Inter-State River Water Disputes
 Trade, Commerce and Inter-course
within the territory of India
 Mass Media
17
60. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
62. Answer: (a)
61. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Article 88 – The Rights of the Ministers
and the Attorney-General as respects
the Houses – Every Minister and the
Attorney-General of India shall have the
right to speak in, and otherwise to take
part in the proceedings of, either House,
any joint sitting of the Houses, and any
Committee of the Parliament, of which he
may be named a member, but shall not
by virtue of this Article be entitled to vote.
So, the Attorney General can attend
the Joint Sitting of both the Houses.
63. Answer: (c)
Two Bills cannot be referred for the Joint
Sitting are the Money Bill and the
Constitution Amendment Bill. Proviso
Clause to Article 108(1) - Provided that
nothing in this Clause shall apply to a
Money Bill.
According to Article 368, the
Constitution Amendment Bill needs to be
introduced and passed separately by each
House of the Parliament.
Article 368(2) - An amendment of this
Constitution may be initiated only by the
introduction of a Bill for the purpose in
either House of the Parliament, and
when the Bill is passed in each House
by a majority of the total membership
of that House and by a majority of not
less than two-thirds of the members of
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
that House, present and voting, it shall
be presented to the President, who shall
give his assent to the Bill and thereupon
the Constitution shall stand amended in
accordance with the terms of the Bill.
Article 108 (4) – If, at the Joint Sitting of
the two Houses, the Bill, with such
amendments, if any, as are agreed to in
the Joint Sitting, is passed by a majority
of the total number of the members of
both the Houses, present and voting, it
shall be deemed for the purposes of this
Constitution to have been passed by both
the Houses.
Explanation:
The Konark Sun Temple – On the
shores of the Bay of Bengal, bathed in the
rays of the rising Sun, the temple at
Konark is a monumental representation
of the Sun God Surya's chariot. Its 24
wheels are decorated with the symbolic
designs and it is led by a team of six
horses. Built in the 13th century, it is one
of India's most famous Brahman
sanctuaries.
It was built during the reign of the Ganga
dynasty.
It is called Black Pagoda. White Pagoda is
the name of the Jagannath temple, Puri.
Explanation:
“One Belt One Road (OBOR)”, the
brainchild of the Chinese President, Xi
Jinping, is an ambitious economic
development and commercial project, that
focuses on improving the connectivity and
co-operation among multiple countries,
spread across the continents of Asia,
Africa and Europe. It was dubbed as the
“Project of the Century” by the Chinese
authorities. OBOR spans about 78
countries.
The project covers two parts:
 The first is called the “Silk Road
Economic Belt,” which is primarily
land-based and is expected to connect
18
 China with Central Asia, Eastern
Europe and Western Europe.
 The second is called the “21st Century
Maritime Silk Road” which is sea-
based and is expected to connect
China's southern coast to the
Mediterranean, Africa, South-East
Asia and Central Asia.
 The names are confusing, as the ‘Belt’
is actually a network of roads and the
‘Road’ is a sea route.
64. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Somasila Hydro Power Project is
located in Andhra Pradesh. It is a dam
built on the Pennar River.
The Chutak Hydro Power Project is a “run
of the river project”, located in the Union
Territory of Ladakh. It is located on the
Suru River.
The Nimoo Bazgo Hydro Power Project is a
“run of the river” hydro power project,
also located in the Union Territory of
Ladakh. It is located on the Indus River.
65. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Responsible AI for Youth Programme
is open to the students of classes 8 – 12,
from the central and the state
government run schools (including KVS,
NVS, JNV), from across the country, in all
the 28 states and 8 Union Territories. It
aims to bring about a change in the
thought process and create a bridge for
the digital divide. The Programme will be
implemented in a phase-wise manner and
in its first phase, each of the State
Education Department will nominate 10
teachers, as per the eligibility criteria. The
teachers may also self-nominate
themselves by fulfilling the eligibility
criteria. These teachers will be provided
orientation sessions, aimed to help them
understand the premise and identify 25-
50 potential students for the Programme.
The identified students will attend online
training sessions on AI (Artificial
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
Intelligence) and understand how to
identify the social impact ideas/projects,
that may be created using AI and submit
their ideas through a 60 seconds video,
explaining a proposed AI enabled
solution.
From the submitted ideas, in the form of
the videos, top 100 ideas will be
shortlisted and these students will be
invited to attend the residential boot-
camps or online sessions (subject to
COVID-19 situation), to take them
through a deep dive AI journey. Post the
boot-camps/ online sessions, these
students will be asked to create real time
projects and submit their final project in
a video format on the website.
Adequate handholding will be provided by
the Intel certified AI coaches and mentors
throughout, to ensure that the ideas
mature as prototypes. The experts will
shortlist top 50 project ideas and the
students will be invited to showcase their
projects, either face to face or in an online
format. Further, top 20 innovative
projects will be selected by an
independent committee of experts and
provided opportunities to showcase at
relevant platform.
The Programme has been created and
launched by the National e-Governance
Division, Ministry of Electronics and IT,
in collaboration with Intel India, with
support from the Department of School
Education and Literacy, Ministry of
Human Resource Development.
66. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Dzukou valley is situated between
Manipur and Nagaland, which is the
crater base of an extinct volcano and the
most famous Dzukou Lily (a flower) is
found only in this region.
The Gumti River flows from Tripura into
Bangladesh.
The Bharatapuzha River is not a tributary
of the Cauvery River. It flows into the
Indian Ocean. It is the longest river in
Kerala.
19
67. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Dekho Apna Desh Initiative is a
programme by the Ministry of Tourism,
under which webinars are conducted,
which make people learn about the
important tourist destinations of the
country. These videos are later uploaded
on YouTube.
68. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In 2019, the Delhi District Courts, under
the aegis of the e-Committee, Supreme
Court of India; and the I.T. Committee,
High Court of Delhi, had established the
first Virtual Court in the country. The
Virtual Court dealt digitally with the “on-
spot traffic challans”, generated by the
Delhi Traffic Police, via the e-Challan
application developed by the NIC
(National Informatics Centre).
70. Answer: (b)
The Supreme Court uses the Vidyo App,
developed by the NIC for conducting the
court sessions digitally.
The Chief Justice of India is the
Chairperson of the e-Committee of the
Supreme Court of India.
69. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Western Ghats are older than the
Himalayas.
Madhav Gadgil recommended a much
larger area to be protected as the “Eco-
Sensitive Zones” in the Western Ghat, as
compared to the Kasturirangan
Committee. Madhav Gadgil recommended
to turn the entire Western Ghats region
into an Ecologically Sensitive Area, which
is divided into two parts: (i) The protected
areas (National Parks and Wildlife
Sanctuaries); and (ii) Three Eco-Sensitive
Zones (ESZ-1, ESZ-2 and ESZ-3).
The Kasturirangan Panel recommended
the identification of 60,000 km²
Ecologically Sensitive Area, spread over
six states. Thus, it diluted the protection
of 1,37,000 km² area, as stipulated in the
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
Gadgil Report. This implies that according
to the Kasturirangan Committee, around
37.5 % of the total area of the Western
Ghats is Ecologically Sensitive.
A beel or a bheel is a term for a pond
with static water, in the Ganges -
Brahmaputra flood plains of the Eastern
Indian states of West Bengal and Assam,
and in Bangladesh. They are not located
in the Western Ghats.
Myristica Swamps – The freshwater low-
lying valleys of the evergreen tropical
forests of the Western Ghats harbour a
rare, ancient ecosystem: the Myristica
Swamps. Comprised mainly of evergreen
trees of the Myristicaceae family, one of
the most primitive families of the
flowering plants, renowned for the
nutmeg tree species, the swamps are rich
in biodiversity and the scientists have
been discovering new species to this day.
Explanation:
“Delimitation” literally means the act or
process of fixing limits or boundaries of
the territorial constituencies in a country
or a province, having a legislative body.
The job of delimitation is assigned to a
high-power body. Such a body is known
as the Delimitation Commission or the
Boundary Commission.
In India, such Delimitation Commissions
have been constituted 4 times – in 1952
under the Delimitation Commission Act,
1952, in 1963 under Delimitation
Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under
Delimitation Commission Act, 1972 and
in 2002 under Delimitation Commission
Act, 2002.
The Delimitation Commission in India is a
high-power body, whose orders have the
force of law and cannot be called in
question before any court. These orders
come into force on a date to be specified
by the President of India, in this behalf.
The copies of its orders are laid before the
House of the People and the State
Legislative Assembly concerned, but no
20
 modifications are permissible therein by
them.
So, delimitation is not done after every
census.
The Central Government shall constitute
a Commission, to be called the
Delimitation Commission, which shall
consist of three members, as follows:— (a)
one member, who shall be a person, who
is or has been a Judge of the Supreme
Court, to be appointed by the Central
Government, who shall be the
Chairperson of the Commission; (b) the
Chief Election Commissioner or an
Election Commissioner nominated by the
Chief Election Commissioner, ex officio:
Provided that after the nomination of an
Election Commissioner as a member
under this clause, no further nomination
under this clause shall be made, except
to fill the casual vacancy of such member
under Section 6; and (c) the State
Election Commissioner of the concerned
state, ex officio.
The newly created Union Territory of
Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) will be the
only one in the country to undergo a
delimitation exercise, based upon the
population figures recorded in the 2011
Census. The latest re-adjustment of the
boundaries of the constituencies in other
states and UTs has been done on the
basis of the 2001 Census and in future, it
will be carried out according to the 2021
Census.
71. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The present grid-scale energy-storage
sector is dominated by the lithium-ion (Li-
ion) batteries, because of their higher
energy density and specific power, and
long cycle life. However, there are some
serious concerns regarding the Li-ion
batteries, such as safety risk, limited
resource supply, high cost and lack of
recycling infrastructure. This necessitates
the development of an alternative battery
system with lower environmental
concerns, economic and higher energy
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
density. As a result, the lead-acid
batteries are still one of the most reliable,
economical and environmentally friendly
options. However, electrodes in the lead-
acid batteries suffer from the problem of
heavyweight, corrosion, poor thermal
stability and diffusion of electrolytes in
one dimension, which ultimately affects
the output power.
The scientists from the CSIR have
developed a ‘carbon foam’, which is less
in density, has high porosity and good
mechanical strength. The foam is highly
resistive to corrosion, has good electrical
and thermal conductivity with high
surface area, and have recently attracted
a lot of attention owing to their potential
applications in various field. Carbon
foams, in future, can replace the Li-ion
batteries.
The carbon foams are cost-effective for
the removal of arsenic, oil, and other
metals from the contaminated water.
These carbon foams are non-toxic, easy to
fabricate, affordable and insoluble in
water. The raw material for the
fabrication of carbon foams is easily
available everywhere and there is no
requirement of any costly equipment for
the fabrication of the carbon foams and
filtration. Such materials can be safely
used in the remote areas where power
supply is scarce.
72. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
• The Open Skies Treaty (OST) was first
proposed in 1955 by the former US
President, Dwight Eisenhower, as a
means to de-escalate tensions during
the Cold War.
• The landmark Treaty was eventually
signed after the demise of the Soviet
Union in 1992, between the NATO
members and the former Warsaw Pact
countries.
• The Treaty entered into force on
January 1, 2002, and currently 34
states are party to the Treaty, while a
21
 35th, Kyrgyzstan, has signed, but not
ratified it.
• The OST aims at building confidence
among the members through mutual
openness, thus reducing the chances
of an accidental war.
• Under the Treaty, a member state can
“spy” on any part of the host nation,
with the latter’s consent. A country
can undertake aerial imaging over the
host state after giving a notice 72
hours before and sharing its exact
flight path 24 hours before. The Treaty
permits each state-party to conduct
short-notice, unarmed,
reconnaissance flights over the others'
entire territories, to collect data on
military forces and activities.
• The information gathered, such as on
troop movements, military exercises
and missile deployments, has to be
shared with all the member states.
• All of a state-party's territory can be
overflown. No territory can be declared
off-limits by the host nation. Even the
Treaty allows for multiple states-
parties to take part in an overflight.
• India is not a member country.
73. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Background –
 Under “Make in India”, the
government has accorded high priority
to the development of the
manufacturing base of the Defence
and the Aerospace sectors in the
country, to reduce dependence on
imports. Towards this, the
government has announced
establishment of the Defence
Industrial Corridors (DICs) in Uttar
Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
 One of the main impediments for
domestic defence production is the
lack of easily accessible state-of-the-
art testing infrastructure. The Defence
Testing Infrastructure is often capital
intensive, requiring continuous
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
upgradation and it is not economically
viable for the individual defence
industrial units to set up in-house
testing facilities.
 The Scheme aims at setting up of the
Greenfield Defence Testing
Infrastructure (required for the
Defence and the Aerospace related
production), as a common facility
under the private sector, with
government assistance, mainly in the
DICs.
Objective: The objective of the proposed
Scheme is to promote the indigenous
defence production, with special focus on
the participation of the MSMEs and the
Start Ups, by bridging gaps in the
Defence Testing Infrastructure in the
country. Setting up of the Defence Testing
Infrastructure will provide easy access
and thus, meet the testing needs of the
domestic defence industry.
About the Defence Testing
Infrastructure Scheme –
 The Scheme would run for duration of
five years and it envisages to set up
six to eight new test facilities in
partnership with the private industry.
 This will facilitate the indigenous
defence production and consequently
reduce the imports of the military
equipment, and help make the
country self-reliant.
 The projects under the Scheme will be
provided with up to 75% government
funding, in the form of ‘Grant-in-Aid’.
The remaining 25% of the project cost
will have to be borne by the Special
Purpose Vehicle (SPV), whose
constituents will be the Indian private
entities and the state governments.
 The SPVs, under the Scheme, will be
registered under the Companies Act,
2013, and shall also operate and
maintain all the assets under the
Scheme, in a self-sustainable manner
by collecting the user charges.
 The equipments/systems tested will
be certified as per the appropriate
accreditation.
22
  While majority of the test facilities are
expected to come up in the two
Defence Industrial Corridors (DICs),
the Scheme is not limited to setting up
the test facilities in the DICs only.
74. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), which is
widely accepted as a crude indicator of
the overall health scenario of a country or
a region, is defined as the infant deaths
(less than one year of age) per thousand
live births in a given time period and for a
given region.
The current national average of infant
mortality rate stands at 32. Among the
states/Union Territories, the IMR ranges
from 4 in Nagaland to 48 in Madhya
Pradesh for 2018. Thus, Nagaland has
the lowest IMR among all the states.
The IMR for the rural areas is 36, while
for the urban areas the IMR stands at 23.
For many states, female IMR is less
76. Answer: (b)
than male IMR. They are:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Delhi
4. Gujarat
5. Haryana
"peaceful nuclear explosion," on 18th
May, 1974.
This year (2020), India has observed the
46th anniversary of its first nuclear test
in Rajasthan's Pokhran. The peaceful test
was code-named 'Smiling Buddha'. The
test was named 'Smiling Buddha',
because it was conducted on Buddha
Purnima that year. "The Buddha has
smiled," Dr. Ramanna is learnt to have
told the then Prime Minister Indira
Gandhi, after the test.
The test was conducted under the
supervision of Dr. Raja Ramanna, who
was then the director of India's premier
nuclear research institute, the Bhabha
Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
With this feat, India became the first
country, outside the five permanent
United Nations Security Council (UNSC)
members, to conduct the test.
Explanation:
Australia has informed India that their
premier multilateral air combat training
exercise, Pitch Black 2020 has been
cancelled due to the COVID-19 situation.

6. Kerala Exercise Pitch Black is a biennial

7. Madhya Pradesh warfare exercise hosted by the Royal
Australian Air Force (RAAF). The exercise
8. Odisha
is normally held in Northern Australia,
9. Punjab
primarily at the RAAF Bases, Darwin and
10. Tamil Nadu
Tindal. The aim of the exercise is to
11. Telangana
practice Offensive Counter Air (OCA) and
12. Uttarakhand
Defensive Counter Air (DCA) combat, in a
13. Goa
simulated war environment. It
14. Meghalaya traditionally consists of a 'Red Team' and
15. Tripura a 'Blue Team', based at separate
16. Lakshadweep locations, with one attacking the other.
The Indian Air Force has participated in
75. Answer: (d) two multilateral air combat exercises over
Explanation: the last three years: The Red Flag
India conducted its first nuclear Exercise, held in the United States in
detonation, described by India as a 2016; and the Blue Flag Air Combat
Drill in Israel in 2017.

RAUSIAS-TS21E103 23
77. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The global military expenditure rose to
$1,917 billion in 2019, with India and
China emerging among the top three
spenders, according to a report by the
Swedish think-tank, the Stockholm
International Peace Research Institute
(SIPRI).
“In 2019, China and India were,
respectively, the second and the third
largest military spenders in the world.
China’s military expenditure reached
$261 billion in 2019, a 5.1% increase
compared with 2018, while India’s grew
by 6.8% to $71.1 billion,” the report said.
In 2019, the top five largest spenders –
U.S. ($732 billion), China, India, Russia
($65.1 billion) and Saudi Arabia ($61.9
billion) – accounted for 62% of the global
expenditure. The annual report ‘Trends in
World Military Expenditure, 2019’ was
released by the SIPRI, recently.
The SIPRI is an international institute
based in Sweden, dedicated to research
into conflict, armaments, arms control
and disarmament. Established in 1966,
the SIPRI provides data, analysis and
recommendations, based on the open
sources, to the policymakers, researchers,
media and the interested public. The
SIPRI is based in Stockholm.
78. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Sample Registration System (SRS)
Survey is a large-scale demographic
survey for providing reliable annual
estimates of IMR (Infant Mortality Rate),
birth rate, death rate, and other fertility
and mortality indicators at the national
and the sub-national levels.
It is conducted by the office of the
Registrar General and Census
Commissioner of India.
80. Answer: (b)
79. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Birth Rate – Birth rate is a crude
measure of fertility of a population and is
a crucial determinant of the population
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
growth. It gives the number of live births
per thousand population in a given region
and year.
The birth rate of India stands at 20 in
2018, according to the Sample
Registration Survey. The birth rate at the
all-India level has declined drastically
over the last four decades, from 36.9 in
1971 to 20.0 in 2018. The rural-urban
differential has also narrowed over these
years. However, the birth rate has
continued to be higher in the rural areas,
as compared to the urban areas in the
last four decades.
In 2018, the birth rate for India varies
from 16.7 in the urban regions to 21.6 in
the rural regions. The highest birth rate
has been recorded in Bihar (26.2), while
the lowest in the Andaman and Nicobar
Islands (11.2).
Death Rate – Mortality is one of the basic
components of population change and the
related data is essential for the
demographic studies and public health
administration. Death rate is one of the
simplest measures of mortality and is
defined as the number of deaths per
thousand population in a given region
and time period. The death rate of India
has witnessed a significant decline over
the last four decades, from 14.9 in 1971
to 6.2 in 2018. The decline has been
steeper in the rural areas, as compared to
the urban areas.
For the year 2018, the death rate for
India varies from 5.1 in the urban areas
to 6.7 in the rural areas. The death rate
for the states/Union Territories ranges
from 3.3 in Delhi to 8.0 in Chhattisgarh
for 2018.
Note: Death rate for males is higher than
that for females
Explanation:
The ILO Convention 144 has been in the
news, after some state governments
passed amendments to the labour laws,
diluting the protection of labour in the
country.
24
 These ordinances were passed by the
state governments without consultations
with the labour organizations, such as
the trade unions.
India is a signatory to the ILO Convention
144. According to the ILO Convention
144, each signatory to the Convention
should create procedures for ensuring
effective consultations between the
governments, the employers and the
employees. The employers and the
workers shall be represented on an equal
footing on anybody/bodies, through
which the consultations are undertaken.
81. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Reverse Repo is the rate at which the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) absorbs the
liquidity from the economy. Under this
route, the banks can park their surplus
funds with the RBI and earn an interest
which is equal to the Reverse Repo.
However, when the banks park their
funds under this route, the RBI would be
required to give the G-Secs as collateral to
the banks.
The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF)
works similar to the Reverse Repo.
However, the SDF would be different from
the Reverse Repo in the following ways:
1. Under the SDF route, the RBI would
not be required to provide the G-Secs
as collateral to the banks. Hence, it
would enable the RBI to absorb huge
amount of liquidity from the economy,
without the G-Secs acting as
collateral.
2. The SDF would be lower than the
Reverse Repo.
The Reverse Repo exercise is carried out
as per the discretion of the RBI,
depending upon the market conditions.
However, the SDF would enable the
banks to keep their surplus funds with
the RBI at their own discretion.
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
82. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In March 2019, the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) had introduced a separate channel,
called the ‘Voluntary Retention Route’
(VRR). Such a route enables the FPIs (The
Foreign Portfolio Investments) to invest in
the debt markets in India. Broadly, the
investments through the VRR are free
from the macro-prudential and other
regulatory norms applicable to the FPI
investments in the debt markets.
However, for availing such a benefit, the
FPIs should voluntarily commit to retain
a required minimum percentage of their
investments in India for a certain period.
The RBI's Regulations on the VRR –
 Any FPI registered with the SEBI (The
Securities and Exchange Board of
India) is eligible to participate through
this Route. Participation through this
Route shall be voluntary.
 The FPIs are eligible to invest in any
Government Securities i.e., the
Central Government dated Securities
(G-Secs); the Treasury Bills (T-Bills);
as well as the State Development
Loans (SDLs). They can also invest in
the corporate bonds.
 The RBI imposes a limit on the
investments under this Route.
Presently, it is Rs. 1.5 lakh crore.
 The minimum retention period for the
investment is 3 years.
 The minimum percentage of
investment, which has to be retained,
is 75%.
 The allocation of investment amount
to the FPIs under this Route shall be
made on tap or through auctions.
The FPIs that wish to liquidate their
investments under the Route, prior to the
end of the retention period, may do so by
selling their investments to another FPI.
However, the FPI buying such investment
shall abide by all the terms and
conditions applicable under the Route.
25
83. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Sinking Fund is a separate dedicated
fund that may be set up in order to meet
the debt repayment obligations on the
bonds. Just like how the companies
borrow money from the market, even the
state governments also borrow money.
So, even the state governments may set
up the Consolidated Sinking Fund to
efficiently manage their debts. In this
regard, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
had introduced the Consolidated Sinking
Fund (CSF) as a scheme for the states.
The Fund is maintained outside the
Consolidated Fund of the States and the
Public Account, and is used only for the
redemption of the loans.
Presently, around 23 states in India have
parked around Rs. 1.3 lakh crore with the
RBI, in the form of the Consolidated
Sinking Fund.
84. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Both the central and the state
governments shall provide certain social
security benefits to the workers of the
unorganized sector. The central
government may formulate suitable
welfare schemes for life and disability
cover, health & maternity benefits and
old age protection, whereas the state
government can formulate schemes for
provident fund, employment injury
benefit, housing, educational schemes
for the children, skill upgradation of
the workers, funeral assistance and old
age homes for the unorganized workers.
Eligibility for registration and social
security benefits - Every unorganized
worker shall be eligible for registration, if
he has completed fourteen years of age
and must self-declare in the application
that he is an unorganized worker. The
district administration, upon the
registration of such unorganized worker,
shall issue an identity card, which shall
be a smart card carrying a unique
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
identification number and shall be
portable.
The Workers’ Facilitation Centre – The
state government may set up such centre
to disseminate the information on the
available social security schemes for the
unorganized workers, facilitate the filling,
processing and forwarding of the
application forms for registration of the
unorganized workers, assist the
unorganized worker to obtain registration
from the District Administration and
facilitate the enrollment of the registered
unorganized workers in the social
security schemes.
85. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Factories Act, 1948, regulates the
working conditions in the factories and
industries of India, and also provides for
the working hours of the adults, including
women, adolescents and children,
employment of young persons and
children in the factories, and also certain
penalties. The Act defines a child as
someone who has not completed 15 years
of age, whereas an adolescent means a
person who has completed his/her 15
years, but has not completed 18 years of
age.
86. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Central Bank Digital Currency
(CBDC) is a digital currency backed by
the Central Bank of a country. Just like
the currency notes issued by the Central
Bank, the CDBC is a legal tender and
accepted for the payment of various
transactions within a country.
Secondly, unlike the crypto-currencies,
the CBDC is backed by the Central Bank
and hence, enjoys more amount of
stability and less volatility.
Thirdly, it is considered as a
"programmable money”. The Central
Bank can enable the usage of the CBDC
26
 for certain selected users - either the
people or only the Financial Institutions.
Further, the CBDC is also referred as a
programmable money, because it can be
programmed only for certain selected
transactions or they may be enabled in
certain specific regions of the country
only.
Lastly, just like the crypto-currencies, the
CBDC works on the ‘Blockchain
Technology’ and hence, the details of
every transaction- amount, accounts
involved, purpose etc., are recorded.
Tunisia became one of the first countries
in the world to issue a ‘Blockchain based
National Currency’, called eDinar, also
known as Digicash and BitDinar.
87. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Maharashtra Governor has modified
the Scheduled Tribes and Other
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, allowing the
rightful claimants of the forest rights to
appeal against the decisions of the
District Level Committee (DLC), by
amending Section 6 of the Act. The right
to appeal against the decision of the DLCs
was not available prior to the
amendment. This amendment has been
proposed under Sub-paragraph (1) of
Paragraph 5 of the Fifth Schedule to the
Constitution of India.
 The Fifth Schedule finds reference in
Article 244 of the Constitution, which
deals with the administration of the
Scheduled Areas and the Tribal
Areas.
 Article 244 - The provisions of the
Fifth Schedule shall apply to the
administration and control of the
Scheduled Areas and the Scheduled
Tribes in any state, other than the
states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
and Mizoram.
 The purpose of Para 5 of Schedule V
is to establish an egalitarian society
and to ensure socio-economic
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
empowerment of the Scheduled
Tribes.
 Para 5 of Schedule V – The
Governor, by public notification,
can direct the following:
 That any particular Act of the
Parliament or of the State Legislature
shall not apply to a Scheduled Area
or any part of the Scheduled Area in
the state; or
 That any particular Act of the
Parliament or of the State Legislature
shall apply to a Scheduled Area or
any part of the Scheduled Area in the
state and the Governor can specify
any modification or exception
regarding the implementation of any
law made by the Parliament or the
State Legislature.
The Governor is empowered to issue
notification, giving it a retrospective
effect.
88. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 A binary system is one that consists of
two stars that are gravitationally
bound. The two stars obey the
Kepler’s Laws of planetary motion and
orbit their common centre of mass
in elliptical or circular orbits.
 Actually, most stars are in the binary
systems. Perhaps up to 85% of the
stars are in the binary systems, with
some in triple or even higher-multiple
systems.
 The brighter star is officially classified
as the primary star, while the dimmer
of the two is the secondary star. In
cases where the stars are of equal
brightness, the designation given by
the discoverer is respected.
 The Binary Star Systems provide the
best means for the scientists to
determine the mass of a star. As the
pair pulls on each other, the
astronomers can calculate the size
and from there determine the
characteristics, such as the
27
 temperature and the radius. These
factors help characterize single main
sequence stars in the universe.
 The closest star system to the Earth –
Alpha Centauri – includes a binary
pair of stars.
 Luhman 16A is a part of a binary
system (Luhman 16), containing a
second brown dwarf, Luhman 16B.
This pair of brown dwarfs Luhman
16A and Luhman 16B orbit each
other. Despite the fact that Luhman
16A and 16B have similar masses and
temperatures, and presumably formed
at the same time, they show markedly
different weather.
89. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Minor Forest Produce (MFP) include
tamarind seeds, honey, Sal seeds, Mohua
seeds, Neem seeds etc. Around 100
million forest dwellers depend on the MFP
for food, shelter, medicines, income etc.
Declaration of the MSP: It is declared by
the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. It is done
based upon the recommendations of the
Pricing Cell set up within TRIFED.
Coverage: Initially, the scheme included
10 MFPs in 9 Panchayats (Extension to
Scheduled Areas) states. Subsequently, it
has been expanded to cover all the states
and 50 MFPs.
Nodal Agency: TRIFED.
Procurement by: State-level designated
agencies.
90. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
‘Energy Transition’ refers to the shift in
the energy system from the fossil-based
fuels towards renewable energy. The
Energy Transition Index (ETI) measures
the extent of energy transition taking
place across 115 countries, including
India. It is published by the World
Economic Forum (WEF).
RAUSIAS-TS21E103
91. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Recently, over 2,900 pigs have died in
India due to the African Swine Fever
(ASF), which does not affect the
humans, but can be catastrophic for
pigs. This is the first time that an ASF
outbreak has been reported in India.
 The African Swine Fever (ASF) is a
severe viral disease, affecting the
domestic and wild pigs, and is
responsible for serious production and
economic losses.
 This transboundary animal disease
(TAD) can be spread by live or dead
pigs, domestic or wild, and pork
products.
 Furthermore, transmission can occur
via direct contact with the infected
domestic or wild pigs; indirect contact,
through ingestion of contaminated
material (e.g. food waste, feed, or
garbage); and even contaminated
fomites, or biological vectors, as the
environmental resistance of ASF virus
is very high.
 There is no approved vaccine against
ASF [unlike the Classical Swine Fever
(Hog Cholera)], which is caused by a
different virus.
 It is important that the determination
of the ASF is made through laboratory
testing and it is differentiated from the
Classical Swine Fever (CSF), whose
signs may be similar to the ASF, but
is caused by a different virus for
which a vaccine exists.
 Swine flu viruses do not typically
infect the humans, cases have been
reported in the past (for instance
during the 2009 H1N1 pandemic),
most commonly when the humans
have contact with the infected pigs.
92. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Tropical cyclones originate and intensify
over the warm tropical oceans. The
conditions favourable for the formation
28
 and intensification of the tropical storms
are:
 Large sea surface with temperature
higher than 27° C;
 Presence of the Coriolis Force;
 Small variations in the vertical wind
speed;
 A pre-existing weak low-pressure area
or low-level-cyclonic circulation; and
 Upper divergence above the sea level
system.
 They are associated with the Inter- 94. Answer: (d)
Tropical Convergence Zone during the Explanation:
summer season. The following four species of locusts are
There should be a presence of anti- found in India –
cyclonic circulation in the upper 1. Desert locust
troposphere. It sucks the air from the 2. Migratory locust
ocean surface above, due to which the 3. Bombay locust
upper movement of the air is accelerated
4. Tree locust
and the low pressure centre at the
surface is intensified.  The desert locust is regarded as the
most important in India, as well as
internationally.
93. Answer: (b)
 The attack of 2019-2020 has been
Explanation: caused mainly due to the desert
The favourable conditions for the locusts (Schistocerca gregaria).
occurrence of the heat waves include:
 Transportation / prevalence of hot dry 95. Answer: (d)
air over a region. There should be a
Explanation:
region of warm dry air and
Recently, Styrene gas was released in the
appropriate flow pattern for
Vishakhapatnam Plant of LG Chemicals.
transporting hot air over the region.
Many people lost their life and a lot of
 Absence of moisture in the upper
people were hospitalized.
atmosphere, as the presence of
 It is a flammable liquid that is used in
moisture restricts the temperature
rise. the manufacturing of polystyrene
plastics, fibreglass, rubber and latex.
 The sky should be practically
 Styrene is also found in vehicle
cloudless, to allow maximum
exhaust, cigarette smoke and in
insolation over the region.
natural foods like fruits and
 Large amplitude anti-cyclonic flow
vegetables.
over the area.
 Heat waves generally develop over
96. Answer: (b)
north-west India, and spread
gradually eastwards and southwards, Explanation:
but not westwards (since the  The International Day of Light (IDL) is
prevailing winds during the season celebrated on 16th May each year,
are westerly to north westerly). the anniversary of the first successful
operation of the laser in 1960 by
physicist and engineer, Theodore
Maiman.

RAUSIAS-TS21E103 29
 • It is an initiative by the UNESCO .
• In 2015, to raise global awareness of
the achievements of light science
and its applications the UN
observed the International Year of
Light and Light - based Technologies
2015 (IYL 2015) .
• Following the success of the IYL 2015,
Ghana , Mexico , New Zealand and
Russia placed a resolution before the
UNESCO Executive Board supporting
the idea of an International Day of
Light . It was adopted on September
19 , 2016 at the Board’s 200th
session at the UNESCO
headquarters in Paris , France .
Some of the major objectives of the IDL is
to improve the public understanding of
the light and light -based technologies ,
highlight and explain the intimate link
between light , and art and culture ,
enhancing the role of optical technology
to preserve cultural heritage , emphasise
the importance of basic research and
promote the importance of lighting
technology.
97 . Answer: ( d )
Explanation:
• The Brown Dwarfs are the types of the
substellar objects , whose mass is
greater than the planets , but lighter
than the stars . It is for this reason
they are also called the “failed stars ” ,
because due to their small masses ,
they are unable to sustain fusion of
their hydrogen to produce energy and
light unlike normal stars .
• Unlike the stars , the Brown Dwarfs do
not glow from the heat of the nuclear
fires raging in their hearts . Instead ,
their light and heat are simply
leftovers from their initial formation .
The objects were birthed from the
collapsing clouds of gas and dust ( just
like the stars , only less of it ) , and that
gravitational collapse released a
tremendous amount of energy . But ,
the energy got trapped in the infalling
material , locked inside for tens of
R AUSIAS-TS21El 03
millions of years , though the heat
slowly radiates away into the space in
the form of the lukewarm light .
• They are neither categorized as
planets or as stars , as they have the
features of both the planets and the
stars. Some Brown Dwarfs are cool
enough to maintain atmospheres ,
much like the planets . The Brown
Dwarfs can host planets like stars and
can have moons in their orbit , as well .
• It is believed that some of the more
massive Brown Dwarfs fuse deuterium
or lithium and glow faintly .
• The International Astronomical
Union considers any object with
enough mass to fuse deuterium to be
a Brown Dwarf , while objects with less
than that - approximately 13 Jupiter
masses - are considered planets .
98 . Answer: (a )
Explanation:
Recently , the NITI Aayog has launched a
behaviour change campaign , ' Navigating
the New Normal ' and its website to help
people follow the norms to contain the
spread of Covid - 19 .
Focusing on the Covid - safe behaviour ,
especially wearing the masks , during the
' Unlock ' phase of the Covid - 19 pandemic ,
the campaign has been developed under
the guidance of the Empowered Group 6,
chaired by the NITI Aayog CEO Amitabh
Kant .
The campaign has two parts . The first is
a web portal containing resources
informed by behavioural science , and the
use of nudge and social norms theory ,
related to Covid -safe behavioural norms
during the ongoing ‘Unlock ’ phase and
the second is a media campaign focused
on the wearing of the masks .
99 . Answer: (a )
Explanation:
In order to facilitate and support the
development of the polymer industry in
Odisha and the eastern part of the
30
 country , a Product Application and • Visits and long- term stay of top
Development Centre ( PADC) has been set international faculty / researchers in
up by the Indian Oil Corporation Ltd . the Indian institutions to pursue
( IOCL) at Paradip . teaching and research ;
The technical centre , the sixth of its kind • Visits by the Indian students for
in the country and second such technical training and experimentation in
establishment in the east , is a recognised premier laboratories worldwide ;
laboratory of the Department of Scientific
• Joint development of niche courses ,
and Industrial Research ( DSIR ) , under world -class books and monographs ,
the Ministry of Science and Technology . translatable patents , demonstrable
In line with the 'Atmanirbhar Bharat ' technologies or action research
scheme of the Union Government , the outcomes and products;
PADC will be working on the development
• Consolidation of bilateral co -operation
of newer grades from Paradip and curtail through academic and research
polymer imports through substitution . partnerships through Indo-X
Workshops in India ; and
100 . Answer: ( c ) • Publication , dissemination and
Explanation: visibility through a high profile annual
The Scheme for Promotion of Academic international conference in India .
and Research Collaboration ( SPARC) aims
at improving the research ecosystem of
India’s Higher Educational Institutions ,
by facilitating academic and research
collaborations between the Indian
institutions and the best institutions in
the world from 28 selected nations to
jointly solve problems of national and / or
international relevance .
It is implemented by the Ministry of
Human Resource Development .
The Scheme proposes to enable
productive academic co-operation by
supporting the following critical
components that can catalyze impact
making research , namely:

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