ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
CA: AUGUST 2020
GS Paper-I: (TS20E1074)
1. Answer: (a)
The Constitution (Fifty-second
Amendment) Act, 1985, added the Tenth
Schedule to the Indian Constitution,
which provides for Anti-Defection law.
The Tenth Schedule refers to the decision
on the questions as to disqualification on
ground of defection. If any question arises
as to whether a member of a House has
become a subject to disqualification
under this Schedule, the question shall
be referred for the decision of the
Chairman or the Speaker of such House
and his decision shall be final. The
Supreme Court, in the Kihota Hollohon
v/s Zachilhu and others case, upheld
the constitutional validity of the Tenth
Schedule. The Court also held that the
decision of the Speaker of the Lok
Sabha or the State Assembly on the
matters of disqualification will be open
to judicial review.
The Tenth Schedule - Exemption:
A special provision has been included in
the 52nd Constitution Amendment Act to
enable a person, who has been elected as
the Presiding Officer of a House, to sever
his connections with his political party.
A person, who has been elected to the
office of the Speaker or the Deputy
Speaker of the House of the People, or the
Deputy Chairman of the Council of
States, or the Chairman or the Deputy
Chairman of the Legislative Council of a
state, or the Speaker or the Deputy
Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a
state, shall not be disqualified under this
Schedule –
(a) if he, by reason of his election to such
office, voluntarily gives up the
membership of the political party to
which he belonged, immediately
before such election and does not, so
long as he continues to hold such
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
office thereafter, rejoin that political
party or become a member of another
political party; or
(b) if he, having given up by reason of his
election to such office his membership
of the political party to which he
belonged, immediately before such
election, re-joins such political party
after he ceases to hold such office.
2. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Discretionary Powers of the
Governor are –
 Reserve any Bill for the consideration
of the President under Article 200.
 To appoint the Chief Minister of the
state, under Article 164(1), including
inviting the leader of the single largest
party, in case of a hung verdict to
prove majority on the floor of the
House.
 To dismiss the Ministry, as the Chief
Minister and other Ministers shall
hold office during the pleasure of the
Governor under Article 164(1).
 The Governor‘s report, under Article
356, in case of failure of the
Constitutional machinery in the state.
 The Governor‘s responsibility for
certain regions, such as the tribal
areas in Assam and responsibilities
placed on the Governor under Articles
371A (Nagaland), 371C (Manipur) and
371H (Arunachal Pradesh).
Under Article 371H, the Governor of
Arunachal Pradesh shall have special
responsibility with respect to the law and
order in the state, and in the discharge of
his functions, the Governor shall, after
consulting the Council of Ministers,
exercise his individual judgment as to
the action to be taken. Regarding the
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 decision of the Governor in his individual (v) Sensors, transducers, actuators and
judgment, the decision of the Governor crystals for electronic applications;
in his discretion shall be final and the (vi) System in Package (SIP);
validity of anything done by the Governor (vii) Micro/Nano-electronic components,
shall not be called in question on the such as Micro Electro-mechanical
ground that he ought or ought not to Systems (MEMS) and Nano Electro-
have acted in the exercise of his mechanical Systems (NEMS); and
individual judgment.
(viii) Assembly, Testing, Marking and
Packaging (ATMP) units.
3. Answer: (a)
Explanation: 4. Answer: (d)
The Production Linked Incentive Scheme Explanation:
(PLI) for Large Scale Electronics
The Indian Sundarbans is a UNESCO
Manufacturing proposes a financial
World Heritage Site and the Indian part of
incentive to boost the domestic
the Sundarbans has been accorded the
manufacturing and attract large
status of the ‗Wetland of International
investments in the electronics value
Importance‘, under the Ramsar
chain, including electronic components
Convention.
and semi-conductor packaging.
The mangroves of the Sundarbans –
The Quantum of Incentive – The
shared between Bangladesh and India –
Scheme shall extend an incentive of 4% to
are the only mangrove forests where
6% on the incremental sales (over the
tigers are found.
base year) of the goods manufactured in
India and covered under the target
segments, to the eligible companies, for a 5. Answer: (d)
period of 5 years, subsequent to the base Explanation:
year. Group A. Sites containing
Target Segments – The Scheme shall be representative, rare or unique wetland
applicable only for the target segments, types.
namely mobile phones and specified Criterion 1: A wetland should be
electronic components. considered internationally important, if it
The incentives are available under three contains a representative, rare or unique
heads: example of a natural or near-natural
1. Mobile phones; wetland type found within the appropriate
bio-geographic region.
2. Mobile phones (domestic companies);
and Group B. Sites of international
importance for conserving biological
3. Specified electronic components,
diversity.
which include:
Criteria based on species and
(i) SMT (surface mount technology)
ecological communities.
components;
Criterion 2: A wetland should be
(ii) Discrete semi-conductor devices,
considered internationally important, if it
including transistors, diodes,
supports vulnerable, endangered or
thyristors, etc.;
critically endangered species, or
(iii) Passive components, including
threatened ecological communities.
resistors, capacitors, etc., for
Criterion 3: A wetland should be
electronic applications;
considered internationally important, if it
(iv) Printed Circuit Boards (PCBs), PCB
supports the population of plant and/or
laminates, prepregs, photo-polymer
animal species important for maintaining
films and PCB printing inks;

RAUSIAS-TS20E1074 2
 the biological diversity of a particular bio-
geographic region.
Criterion 4: A wetland should be
considered internationally important, if it
supports plant and/or animal species at
a critical stage in their life cycles, or
provides refuge during adverse
conditions.
Specific criteria based on water-birds.
Criterion 5: A wetland should be
considered internationally important, if it
regularly supports 20,000 or more water-
birds.
Criterion 6: A wetland should be
considered internationally important, if it
regularly supports 1% of the individuals
in a population of one species or sub-
species of water-birds.
Specific criteria based on fish.
Criterion 7: A wetland should be
considered internationally important, if it
supports a significant proportion of
indigenous fish sub-species, species or
families, life-history stages, species
interactions and/or population that is
representative of wetland benefits and/or
values and thereby contributes to the
global biological diversity.
Criterion 8: A wetland should be
considered internationally important, if it
is an important source of food for the fish,
spawning ground, nursery and/or
migration path on which the fish stocks,
either within the wetland or elsewhere,
depend.
Specific criterion based on other taxa.
Criterion 9: A wetland should be
considered internationally important, if it
regularly supports 1% of the individuals
in a population of one species or sub-
species of wetland-dependent non-avian
animal species.
6. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released
its quarterly House Price Index (HPI) for
the fourth quarter of 2019-20. The HPI is
calculated on the base year 2010-11.
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The Index is based on transaction level
data received from the housing
registration authorities in ten major
cities, viz., Ahmedabad, Bengaluru,
Chennai, Delhi, Jaipur, Kanpur, Kochi,
Kolkata, Lucknow and Mumbai.
The All-India HPI contracted by (-) 0.2%
on a sequential basis (q-o-q), largely due
to decline in the house prices in Delhi,
Bengaluru, Ahmedabad and Jaipur.
Mumbai recorded the highest
sequential rise.
The HPI varied widely across the cities
and ranged from 22.6% (in Jaipur) to
(–) 13.8% (in Kochi).
7. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A Himalayan butterfly, named the
Golden Birdwing, is now India‟s largest
butterfly, overthrowing the Southern
Birdwing, which held the claim for being
the largest for the last 88 years.
Its IUCN status is Least Concern.
8. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The Red Sander is endemic to several
districts in Andhra Pradesh, and
some parts of Tamil Nadu and
Karnataka. It occurs in the tropical
dry deciduous forests.
 It is known for its rich hue and
therapeutic properties.
 It is high in demand across Asia,
particularly in China and Japan, for
use in cosmetics and medicinal
products, as well as for making
furniture, woodcraft and musical
instruments.
 The species was listed in Appendix II
of CITES in 1995, which says that,
―trade must be controlled in order to
avoid utilization incompatible with
their survival‖.
 Its export was prohibited in 2004.
 In 2010, the government submitted a
Non-Detriment Finding (NDF) Report,
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 saying that it must be allowed to 11. Answer: (d)
export from the cultivated sources.
 In 2012, India got an export quota on
the Red Sanders from CITES.
 In 2019, the Directorate General of
Foreign Trade (DGFT), an agency of
the Ministry of Commerce and
Industry, has revised its export policy
to permit the export of all the Red
Sanders, if it is obtained from the
cultivated land.
9. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 There are five species of turtles in
the Indian waters, viz., Olive
Ridley; the Green Turtle; Loggerhead;
Hawksbill; and Leatherback.
 The Olive Ridley; Leatherback; and 12. Answer: (b)
Loggerhead are listed as
'Vulnerable' on the IUCN Red List of
Threatened Species.
 The Hawksbill Turtle is listed
as 'Critically Endangered' and the
Green Turtle is listed
as 'Endangered' on the IUCN Red List
of Threatened Species.
 They are protected in the Indian
Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972,
under Schedule I.
10. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Central Ground Water Authority
(CGWA) has been constituted under
Section 3 (3) of the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986, to regulate and
13. Answer: (c)
control the development and management
of the ground water resources in the
country.
The NGT directed the Ministry of Jal
Shakti and the Central Ground Water
Authority (CGWA) to ensure that no
general permission is given without an
environmental assessment.
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Explanation:
 The Globba Andersonii is commonly
known as the „dancing lady‟ or the
„swan flower‟.
 The earliest records of the collection of
this plant were dated between the
period 1862-70, when it was collected
by the Scottish botanist, Thomas
Anderson, from Sikkim and
Darjeeling.
 It is classified as “Critically
Endangered” and “Narrowly
Endemic”.
 The species is restricted mainly to the
Teesta River Valley Region, which
includes the Sikkim Himalayas and
the Darjeeling hill ranges.
Explanation:
The Ministy of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoEFCC) has
reconstituted the Central Zoo Authority
(CZA), to include an expert from the
School of Planning & Architecture, Delhi
and a molecular biologist.
It has been constituted under the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972. Thus, it is a
statutory body, established in 1992,
under then Ministry of Environment and
Forest.
Chairperson – The Minister of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Every zoo in the country is required to
obtain recognition from the Central Zoo
Authority for its operation.
Explanation:
The Namami Gange Programme is under
the ambit of the newly constituted Jal
Shakti Ministry.
Overall, the initiatives to clean the Ganga
began with the Ganga Action Plan I in
1986.
The Namami Gange Programme is being
implemented by the National Mission for
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 Clean Ganga (NMCG) and its state
counterparts, the State Programme
Management Groups.
The National Ganga Council (NGC) was
created and to give it utmost importance,
the Prime Minister was made the head of
the NGC.
14. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change is the nodal Ministry for
notifying the Environment Impact
Assessment (EIA) Notification, under the
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Section 3 of the Environment (Protection)
Act 1986 (EPA), gives power to the central
government to take all measures that it
deems necessary or expedient for the
purpose of protecting and improving the
quality of the environment, and
preventing and controlling abating
environmental pollution.
The Draft EIA Notification seeks to reduce
or even remove public participation, and
by extension independent expert opinion,
from the process of granting
environmental clearances to various
projects. The public reporting of the
environmental violations may also not
be taken cognizance of by the
authorities.
Exemption from public consultation in
certain projects - Section 14 of the Draft
provides for exemption from public
consultation, thereby limiting the scope of
public involvement in districts. All the off-
shore projects, located beyond 12
nautical miles are exempted.
15. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
CAATSA - Countering America‟s
Adversaries through Sanctions Act.
Targets Russia, North Korea and Iran,
and under its Section 231 imposes
sanctions on the countries which have
significant defence deals with America‘s
adversaries.
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Sanctions imposed include stopping of
export of defence goods and banning
American companies from investing in the
defence sector.
16. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between
the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. It
provides the only sea passage from the
Persian Gulf to the open ocean and is one
of the world's most strategically
important choke points.
17. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
• There is an increasing consensus at
the official level that Australia should
join the naval war games.
• The final decision is likely before the
exercise, which could take place
towards the end of this year.
• The Malabar exercises were
first established in 1992 between
India and the United States, but due
to the tensions arising from India‘s
nuclearization in 1998, it became an
annual feature only in 2002.
• In 2007, the scope of the Malabar
exercises was enhanced and a five-
nation multilateral naval exercise,
taking on board three other nations,
Japan, Australia and Singapore, was
organized.
• However, this display of multilateral
naval co-operation heightened China‘s
anxiety. Both India and the US sought
to allay Chinese concerns and the
Malabar exercise was made bilateral.
• After 2007, Australia ceased to
participate. Japan joined the Malabar
exercises as a permanent member in
2015.
• With China‘s growing military
strength and its increasing presence
in the Indian Ocean, the Malabar
exercise has assumed greater
importance.
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 • The Malabar exercise enhances India‘s
credibility in the maritime domain and
prioritizes collective effort to secure
the first of the three global commons
(oceans, space and cyberspace).
18. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG),
originally known as the ―London Club,‖
convened a series of meetings to facilitate
a consistent interpretation of the
obligations arising from that Article
among major suppliers in and outside of
the NPT, following the explosion in 1974
of a nuclear device by a non-nuclear-
weapon state, India.
The NSG is a voluntary, non-legally
binding association of major supplier
governments. It was not created by a
treaty. The NSG Guidelines set forth the
conditions of supply to establish a
baseline of responsible and safe supply
behaviour among the suppliers in nuclear
and nuclear-related transfers. The NSG
participants commit to implement the
Guidelines on a national basis. Taking a
supply side approach, the NSG supports
international nuclear non-proliferation
efforts and, in particular, Article III.2 of
the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of
Nuclear Weapons (NPT).
19. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Afghanistan-Pakistan Transit Trade
Agreement (APTTA) is a bilateral trade
agreement, signed in 2010, by Pakistan
and Afghanistan. Afghanistan is a
landlocked country and hence, it is
critically dependent on Pakistan for trade.
Hence, this Agreement was meant to
provide greater trade integration among
these two nations.
• It allows for both countries to use
each other‘s airports, railways, roads
and ports for transit trade along the
designated transit corridors.
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• The Agreement does not cover road
transport vehicles from any third
country, be it from India or any
Central Asian country.
• The signed Agreement permits
Afghanistan trucks access to the
Wagah border with India, where
Afghan goods will be offloaded onto
Indian trucks.
• This Agreement does not permit
Indian goods to be loaded onto trucks
for transit back to Afghanistan.
20. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
During the sixth BRICS Summit in
Fortaleza (Brazil) (2014), the leaders
signed an agreement establishing the New
Development Bank (NDB).
The Bank shall have an initial authorized
capital of US$ 100 billion. The initial
subscribed capital shall be US$ 50
billion, shared equally among the
founding members. The headquarter of
the Bank shall be located in Shanghai.
The Bank‘s Articles of Agreement specify
that all the members of the United
Nations could be the members of the
Bank, however, the share of the BRICS
nations can never be less than 55% of the
voting power.
21. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The International Panel on Fissile
Materials (IPFM) was founded in 2006,
and is an independent group of arms-
control and non-proliferation experts from
both the nuclear weapon and the non-
nuclear weapon states.
The mission of the IPFM is to analyze the
technical basis for practical and
achievable policy initiatives to secure,
consolidate and reduce the stockpiles of
highly enriched uranium and plutonium.
These fissile materials are the key
ingredients in the nuclear weapons and
their control is critical to nuclear
weapons disarmament, to halting the
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 proliferation of the nuclear weapons and
to ensuring that the terrorists do not
acquire the nuclear weapons.
Its members include the nuclear experts
from seventeen countries: Brazil, Canada,
China, France, Germany, India, Iran,
Japan, Mexico, Norway, Pakistan, South
Korea, Russia, South Africa, Sweden, the
United Kingdom and the United States.
This group of countries includes seven
nuclear-weapon states and ten non-
weapon states.
22. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In line with its agenda in its 8th term, as
the non-permanent member of the UNSC,
India has re-affirmed its commitment
to the New Orientation for a Reformed
Multilateral System or NORMS at the
UN Economic and Social Council meeting.
Let us understand the need for reforming
the present paradigm of ―multilateralism‖.
NORMS: In the backdrop of India‘s entry
into the UNSC as the non-permanent
member, the slated objective is to push
for a reformed multilateralism under the
NORMS Framework. The 5-fold objective
of NORMS includes:
1. Finding new opportunities for
progress;
2. Effective response to international
terrorism;
3. Reforming multilateral systems;
4. Comprehensive approach to
international peace and security; and
5. Technology with a human touch.
23. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Asian Infrastructure Investment
Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development
bank with a mission to improve social
and economic outcomes in Asia. Presently
it has 82 members and 21 prospective
members.
Voting depends upon the share capital
provided. Regional members‘
shareholding should always be above
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75%. The countries with the highest
voting rights: China: 26.64%; India: 7.6%;
Russia: 6%.
The membership in the AIIB shall be open
to the members of the International Bank
for Reconstruction and Development, or
the Asian Development Bank.
24. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Offshore Derivative Instruments
(ODIs), also known as the Participatory
Notes (P-Notes), are the instruments used
by the foreign investors to invest in
India‘s securities markets, without getting
registered with the SEBI. The
Participatory Notes are issued by the
FPIs registered with the SEBI to the
overseas/foreign investors. These FPIs
make investments on behalf of the
overseas investors.
25. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
A Fiscal Council is an independent and
non-partisan agency, which is set up to
publicly assess the government‘s fiscal
performances against its stated
objectives. The Fiscal Council can serve
both ex ante and ex post functions.
Some of the functions that can be
performed by the Fiscal Council include:
• Producing independent forecasts
related to the GDP growth, tax
buoyancy and inflation rate.
• Review the government‘s forecasts and
assumptions related to tax collections,
fiscal deficit, GDP growth etc. (an ex
ante function).
• Monitoring government‘s fiscal
performance, including adherence to
the fiscal rules (an ex post function).
• Analysing long-term sustainability of
the public finances.
Keeping in view the best international
practices, the FRBM Review Committee,
headed by N.K, Singh; and the D.K.
Srivastava Committee on Fiscal Statistics
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 have proposed to set up an independent
Fiscal Council in India.
The N.K. Singh Review Committee
recommended that the Fiscal Council
should be an autonomous body, under
the aegis of the Ministry of Finance (The
Department of Economic Affairs).
26. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha
evem Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM KUSUM)
Scheme was launched by the Ministry of
New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), to
support the installation of off-grid solar
pumps in the rural areas and reduce
dependence on the grid, in the grid-
connected areas. The Cabinet Committee
on Economic Affairs (CCEA) had, in
February 2019, approved the launch of
the Scheme, with the objective of
providing financial and water security.
27. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The National Pension System is a
Pension-cum-Investment Scheme to
provide old age security to the citizens of
India. It is regulated by the Pension Fund
Regulatory and Development Authority
(PFRDA). Any individual citizen of India
(both resident and non-resident), in the
age group of 18-65 years, can join the
Scheme.
The Atal Pension Yojana is a guaranteed
pension of Rs. 1,000 to Rs. 5,000 per
month (depending upon the contribution)
receivable at the age of 60 years. It is
primarily focussed on the unorganized
workers.
The Atal Pension Yojana can be availed by
any Indian citizen in the age-group of 18
to 40 years, who can join through his/her
savings bank account or post office
savings bank account.
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28. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Ministry of Power has recently
launched the ―Retrofit of Air-conditioning
to improve Indoor Air Quality for Safety
and Efficiency‖ (RAISE) National
Programme, with the twin objectives of
enhancing energy efficiency and
improving the indoor air quality.
It is launched in partnership with
USAID's (United States Agency for
International Development) MAITREE
Programme.
29. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
As a part of the Aatma Nirbhar Bharat
Package, the Finance Minister had
announced 11 measures, specific to the
Indian agriculture. One of the most
important measures was related to the
setting up of the Agriculture Marketing
Infrastructure Fund, to improve the
overall marketing infrastructure. In this
regard, the Union Cabinet has recently
given its approval for the new Central
Sector Scheme - the Agriculture
Infrastructure Fund, to provide a medium
- long term debt financing facility.
The duration of the Scheme shall be from
Financial Year 2020 to Financial Year
2029 (10 years).
30. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The United Nations Population Fund
(UNFPA) has released the State of World
Population 2020 Report, titled ‗against my
will: defying the practices that harm
women and girls and undermine equality‘.
India Specific Data –
 One in three girls missing globally due
to sex selection, both pre- and post-
natal, is from India, i.e., 46 million out
of the total 142 million.
 India has the highest rate of excess
female deaths at 13.5 per 1,000
female births or one in nine deaths of
8
 females below the age of 5, due to 31. Answer: (b)
post-natal sex selection. Explanation:
 In India, around 4,60,000 girls went The Global Multidimensional Poverty
missing at birth, which means that Index (MPI) is released by the United
they were not born due to sex- Nations Development Programme and
selection biases, each year between the Oxford Poverty & Human
2013 and 2017. Development Initiative.
 India (40%), along with China (50%), The MPI examines each person's
accounts for around 90% of the deprivations across 10 indicators in three
estimated 1.2 million girls lost equally weighted dimensions: health,
annually to female foeticide. education and standard of living.
Key Highlights – Note:
As per the Global Multidimensional
 Harmful practices: The Report
Poverty Index, 2020, COVID-19 affected
identifies 19 harmful practices against
two indicators of the MPI severely:
women, out of which 3 are most
nutrition and children's school
widespread and persistent: female
attendance. Progress in tackling
genital mutilation (FGM), child
multidimensional poverty is at risk.
marriage and son preference.
Note: The United Nations Population
32. Answer: (a)
Fund
Explanation:
 It is a subsidiary organ of the UN
The World Bank recently approved a $500
General Assembly, and it works as
million Strengthening Teaching-
a sexual and reproductive health
Learning and Results for States
agency. Programme (STARS) to improve the
 It was established as a Trust Fund quality and governance of school
in 1967 and began its operations education in six Indian states.
in 1969.  The states include Himachal Pradesh,
 In 1987, it was officially renamed the Kerala, Madhya Pradesh,
United Nations Population Fund, but Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan.
the original abbreviation, ‗UNFPA‘ for  The STARS Programme builds on the
the United Nations Fund for long partnership between India and
Population Activities, was retained. the World Bank (since 1994), for
 The UN Economic and Social strengthening public school
Council (ECOSOC) establishes its education.
mandate.  STARS will support the Government of
 The UNFPA is not supported by the India‘s vision to provide greater
UN budget; instead, it is flexibility to the states for school
entirely supported by voluntary education planning and budgeting.
contributions of the donor
governments, intergovernmental 33. Answer: (b)
organizations, the private sector, Explanation:
foundations and individuals. The Transgender Persons (Protection of
 The UNFPA works directly to tackle Rights) Act, 2019
the Sustainable Development Goals  A person, recognised as a
on Health (SDG 3); Education (SDG transgender, under the Section of the
4); and Gender Equality (SDG 5). Act, shall have a right to self-perceived
gender identity.

RAUSIAS-TS20E1074 9
  No establishment shall discriminate  The government is required to take
against any transgender person in any adequate steps to "prohibit
matter relating to employment discrimination in any government or
including, but not limited to, private organization or establishment,
recruitment, promotion and other including in the areas of education,
related issues. employment, etc.
 Every establishment shall ensure  Educational institutions to have a
compliance with the provisions of this Committee, which the transgender
Act and provide such facilities to the persons can approach.
transgender persons as may be  Make states responsible for "timely
prescribed. prosecution of the individuals"
 Every establishment shall designate a charged under Section 18 of the Act
person to be a complaint officer to (dealing with offences against the
deal with the complaints relating to transgender community).
the violation of the provisions of this  The state governments have to set up
Act. a Transgender Protection Cell to
 The Act envisages a National Council monitor the cases of offences against
for Transgender Persons. the transgender persons.
The NCT will consist of: Provide for the review of all existing

(i) The Union Minister for Social Justice educational, social security, health
(Chairperson); schemes, welfare measures etc., to
(ii) The Minister of State for Social Justice include the transgender persons.
(Vice- Chairperson);  Mandatory for all the establishments,
(iii) The Secretary of the Ministry of Social public and private, to have equal
Justice; opportunity policies to include the
(iv) One representative from the transgender persons.
Ministries, including Health; Home
Affairs; and Human Resource 34. Answer: (a)
Development.
Explanation:
Other members include the
The Sustainable Development Report,
representatives of the NITI Aayog and the
2020 – This annual Report tracks the
National Human Rights Commission. The
performances of all the UN member states
state governments will also be
on the 17 Sustainable Development Goals
represented. The Council will also consist (SDGs), measuring the distance
of five members from the transgender remaining to achieve each target. The
community and five experts from the non- 2020 Report is focusing on the SDGs and
governmental organizations. COVID-19, and includes the SDG Index
Note: Recently, Draft Rules were that presents progress towards each SDG
published under the Transgender Persons since 2015.
(Protection of Rights) Act, 2019.
Key Highlights –
Key points of the Draft Rules –
 The world had seen the most rapid
 The District Magistrate would issue a progress towards SDG 1 (No Poverty);
transgender identity certificate and SDG 9 (Industry, Innovation and
card, based on an affidavit by the Infrastructure); and SDG 11
applicant, but without any medical (Sustainable Cities and Communities).
examination.
 COVID-19 had negatively affected
 Removed the previous Draft's several goals: SDG 1; SDG 2 (Zero
provision to penalize false declaration Hunger); SDG 3 (Good Health and
to obtain the certificate of identity. Well-being); SDG 8 (Decent Work and

RAUSIAS-TS20E1074 10
 Economic Growth); and SDG 1O
(Reduced Inequalities).
 Immediate relief to the goals due to
COVID 19: SDG 12 (Responsible
Consumption and Production); SDG
13 (Climate Action); SDG 14 (Life
below Water); and SDG 15 (Life on
Land). However, these gains will be
short-termed.
 India is ranked at 117 (of 166)
ranking, below Pakistan and
Afghanistan. Sweden has topped the
rankings.
 India faces major challenges in 10 of
the 17 SDGs, which include - SDG 2;
SDG 3; and SDG 5 (Gender Inequality)
etc.
Note:
 The Report was prepared by the teams
of independent experts at the
Sustainable Development Solutions
Network (SDSN) and the Bertelsmann
Stiftung.
 The Bertelsmann Stiftung is one of the
largest foundations in Germany.
 The Sustainable Development
Solutions Network (SDSN) has been
operating since 2012, under the
auspices of the UN Secretary-General.
The SDSN mobilizes global scientific
and technological expertise to promote
practical solutions for sustainable
development, including the
implementation of the Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) and the
Paris Climate Agreement.
35. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 The Madhubani paintings are
produced by the village women, who
make three dimensional images.
These pictures tell stories, especially
about Sita‘s exile, Ram-Laxman‘s
forest life, or depict the images of
Lakshmi. The women also paint
celestial subjects, like the Sun and
the Moon.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
 There is no pretence to describe the
figures accurately.
 The paintings are largely made
using powdered rice, colours
derived from turmeric, pollen,
pigments, indigo, various flowers,
sandalwood, and the leaves of various
plants and trees, etc.
 If the artists come across empty
spaces even after completing the
painting, they usually fill up those
empty spaces with the motifs of
flowers, animals, birds and
geometrical patterns.
 A double line is usually drawn as the
border.
 The Madhubani painting has a
Geographical Indication (GI) status.
36. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 "Burra" is referred to as Tambura, a
musical instrument. "Katha" means
story.
 It started as devotional songs of the
nomadic people and became a popular
art form.
 It is a narrative entertainment that
consists of prayers, solo drama,
dance, songs, poems and jokes.
 It is performed in the villages of
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
 A Burra Katha group consists of three
artistes, one being at the centre and
the other two act as assistants under
him, known as ‗Vantalu’.
 It played an effective role in conveying
message to the people and awakening
them during the Indian Independence
Movement.
 Harikatha is a form of Hindu religious
discourse, in which the story-teller
explores a religious theme.
 It may be the life of a saint or a story
from an Indian epic.
 It is a composite art form, composed
of story-telling, poetry, music, drama,
11
 dance and philosophy, most prevalent
in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
37. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Fundamental Duties were added in
the Constitution on the recommendations
of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee. This
insertion brought the Constitution of
India in line with Article 29(1) of the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(UDHR). The recommendations of Sardar
Swaran Singh Committee were added by
the Constitution (Forty-second
Amendment) Act, 1976. Accordingly,
Part IV-A was added into the
Constitution, which inserted Article 51A
in the Indian Constitution. Initially,
Article 51A provided for 10 Fundamental
Duties of every citizen of India, from
Articles 51A (a) to (j).
Article 51A (c) - To uphold and protect the
sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
Some Fundamental Duties are Legally
Enforceable – Accordingly, we find that
some of our Fundamental Duties are
legally enforceable and their disregard is
punishable. For example, let us see the
provision of Article 51A (a).
Article 51A(a) - It shall be the duty of
every citizen of India – (a) to abide by the
Constitution and respect its ideals and
institutions, the National Flag and the
National Anthem.
 Now, this Fundamental Duty is legally
enforceable, as the Union Government
has legislated the Prevention of
Insults to National Honour Act,
1971. Its provision highlights that any
insult to the National Flag or the
Constitution of India is punishable
with imprisonment for a term,
which may extend to three years,
along with fine, or both.
 Further, whoever intentionally
prevents the singing of the Indian
National Anthem or causes
disturbances to any assembly engaged
in such singing, shall be punished
with imprisonment for a term, which
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
may extend to three years, or with
fine, or with both.
Article 51(A)(g) - To protect and improve
the natural environment, including
forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to
have compassion for the living creatures.
 The government has enacted the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
38. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The terms “Independent” and
“Freedom” cannot be found in the
Preamble.
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having
solemnly resolved to constitute India into
a [SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR
DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC] and to secure
to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social,
economic and political; LIBERTY of
thought, expression, belief, faith and
worship; EQUALITY of status and of
opportunity; and to promote among them
all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of
the individual and the [unity and integrity
of the Nation]; IN OUR CONSTITUENT
ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of
November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT,
ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS
CONSTITUTION.
39. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court, in the case of
Anuradha Bhasin v/s the Union of
India, recognized that expression
through internet has gained
contemporary relevance and is one of the
major means of information diffusion.
Therefore, the freedom of speech and
expression through the medium of
internet is an integral part of Article
19(1)(a) and accordingly, any restrictions
on the same must be in accordance with
Article 19(2) of the Constitution.
Article 19(1)(a) - All citizens shall have
the right to freedom of speech and
expression.
12
 However, as per Article 19(2), with
respect to the freedom of speech and
expression, the state can impose
reasonable restrictions on the grounds of
- sovereignty and integrity of India, the
security of the state, friendly relations
with foreign states, public order,
decency or morality, or in relation to
contempt of court, defamation or
incitement to an offence.
40. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Object and Reason of the
Constitution 26th Amendment Act,
1971: The concept of rulership, with the
privy purses and special privileges
unrelated to any current functions and
social purposes, is incompatible with an
egalitarian social order. The government
has, therefore, decided to terminate the
Privy Purses and the privileges of the
rulers of the former Indian states. It
was necessary for this purpose, apart
from amending the relevant provisions of
the Constitution, to insert a new Article
therein, so as to terminate expressly the
recognition already granted to such rulers
and to abolish the Privy Purses and to
extinguish all rights, liabilities and
obligations in respect of the Privy Purses.
Mrs. Indira Gandhi, as the Prime
Minister, first in 1970, tried to bring a
Constitutional Amendment to abolish the
Privy Purse, but the move was shot down
in the Rajya Sabha. It was then issued as
an Ordinance, which was struck down by
the Supreme Court. So, during the
election campaign of 1971, after the
nationalization of the banks, Mrs. Gandhi
made abolition of the Privy Purse as a
major election issue and convinced the
public that the move was for the public
welfare and against the wealthy and the
rich. This move paid her rich political
dividend, as she won the 1971 election by
a thumping majority, winning 352 seats
in the Lok Sabha. Thus, the Prime
Minister, Mrs. Indira Gandhi, moved the
Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment)
Act, 1971, which eventually abolished the
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
Privy Purse in India by omitting Articles
291 and 362 in the Indian Constitution.
The Constitution Twenty-sixth
Amendment further added Article 363A
in the Constitution, which not only
ceased recognition granted to the rulers of
the Indian states, but also abolished the
Privy Purse in India.
41. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The National Commission for Protection
of Child Rights (NCPCR) was set up in
2007, under the Commissions for
Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act,
2005. Thus, the NCPCR is a statutory
body under the Commissions for
Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act,
2005, under the administrative control of
the Ministry of Women and Child
Development.
The NCPCR has the power to summon,
discovery and production of any
document and receiving evidence on
affidavits.
42. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (CPA-
2019), which has replaced the Consumer
Protection Act, 1986, aims to be more
holistic and stringent in protecting the
interest of the consumers and to establish
authorities for timely and effective
administration and settlement of the
consumers' disputes. To achieve the
aforesaid purpose, the CPA-2019
establishes the following:
 The Central Consumer Protection
Authority (CCPA), referred to as the
Central Authority.
 The Central Consumer Protection
Council, at the national, state and
district levels, referred to as the
National, State and District
Commissions.
 The Consumer Disputes Redressal
Commission, at the national, state
and district levels.
13
 The Consumer Mediation Cell, to be
attached to each of the District
Commissions and the State Commissions.
43. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The Chirala textile is made by using a
large quantity of oil, which is used in
preparing the yarn for weaving. After
the fabric is ready, it is wrapped with
wax and clay before being dyed in
selected colours.
 Chirala is a coastal town, situated in
the Prakasam district in the state of
Andhra Pradesh. It was also known
as 'Kshirapuri'. Chirala town is
renowned for handlooms.
 The handloom fabrics of Chirala are
soft and most comfortable to wear,
which suite all types of climates.
 „Puttapaka Telia Rumal‟ has been
given the Geographical Indication (GI)
tag. It originally belongs to Chirala.
44. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 Bathukamma is a floral festival
celebrated predominantly by the
Hindu women of Telangana.
 It is the festival for feminine
felicitation. On this special occasion,
the women dress up in the traditional
sari, combining it with jewels and
other accessories.
 In Telugu, ‗Bathukamma' means
„Mother Goddess come Alive‟ and in
this respect Goddess Maha Gauri (Life
Giver) is worshipped in the form of
Bathukamma, the patron Goddess of
womanhood.
 Every year this festival is celebrated
as per the Saka calendar for nine
days, starting usually in September–
October of the Gregorian calendar.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
45. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Gatka is a weapon-based Indian
martial art, basically created by the
Sikhs of Punjab.
 It is displayed during different
celebrations or at fairs in Punjab.
 There are many weapons used in
Gatka, like the stick, talwar, kirpan
and kataar.
 Silambam is a weapon-based Indian
martial art, originating in modern-day
Tamil Nadu in the Indian sub-
continent.
46. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 The graphic story on Purulia‘s famous
Chhau dance is called ―Experiencing
Chhau (Dekhe Elam Chhau)‖.
 Chhau dance is a tradition from
eastern India, popular dance in
Odisha, Jharkhand and Bengal.
 It enacts the episodes from the epics,
including the Mahabharata and the
Ramayana, local folklore and abstract
themes.
 Theyyam is a ritualistic dance
performance belonging to the state of
Kerala.
 In this art form, pantheistic deities are
summoned to the body of the
performing man, the one who is
almost always from a subaltern
community.
 This performing man himself is known
as Theyyam and it is believed that
while performing, the deities possess
his body.
 These performances are carried in the
ancient sacred groves of Kerala,
called kavu, which is a small
rainforest.
47. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The Thanjavur painting is a classical
style of South Indian painting that
14
 developed in the region of Thanjavur
in Tamil Nadu.
 Its origin is considered to be in the
reign of the Marathas.
 Owing to certain influences, it is also
considered to be an offshoot of the
Nayaka paintings, which were
prevalent in the Vijayanagar Empire.
 The Thanjavur paintings also bear
influences from the Deccani and the
European styles.
 The time period ascribed for the
development of this tradition is from
1676-1855 AD.
48. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 The Thanjavur doll is a type of an
Indian bobble head or roly-poly
toy, made of the terracotta material.
 The doll is known as
Chettiar bommai, which is used
for golu during Navratri.
 The Thanjavur dolls have been
recognized as a Geographical
Indication by the Government of
India as of 2008-09.
 The publication on the little-known
puppetry from Nadia is titled ‗The tale
of a lost leg (Harano Payer Kissa)‘.
 The traditional rod puppet form of
West Bengal is known as Putul
Nautch. They are carved from wood
and follow various artistic styles of a
particular region.
 In the Nadia district of West Bengal
particularly, rod-puppets used to be of
human size, like the Bunraku puppets
of Japan. However, this form is now
almost extinct.
49. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Gandhi saw the Communal Award
(Ramsay MacDonald) as an attack on the
Indian unity and nationalism. To press
his demands, he went on an indefinite
fast in 1932. Now, the leaders of various
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
persuasions, including B.R. Ambedkar,
M.C. Rajah and Madan Mohan
Malaviya, got together to hammer out a
compromise contained in the Poona Pact.
The Poona Pact was signed by B.R.
Ambedkar, on behalf of the depressed
classes, on September 24, 1932. The
Poona Pact abandoned the idea of
separate electorates for the depressed
classes. But, the seats reserved for the
depressed classes were increased from 71
to 147 in the Provincial Legislatures and
to 18% of the total in the Central
Legislature. The Poona Pact was accepted
by the government as an amendment to
the Communal Award.
50. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 Manipuri, one of the main styles of
Indian Art or Classical Dances,
originated in the picturesque and
secluded state of Manipur, in the
north-eastern corner of India.
 The dance in Manipur is associated
with rituals and traditional festivals.
There are legendary references to the
dances of Shiva and Parvati, and
other gods and goddesses, who
created the Universe. Manipuri dance
has a large repertoire. However, the
most popular forms are the Ras,
the Sankirtana and the Thang-Ta.
There are five principal Ras dances, of
which four are linked to specific
seasons, while the fifth can be
presented at any time of the year.
 In Manipuri Ras, the main characters
are Radha, Krishna and the Gopis.
The Kirtan form of congregational
singing accompanies the dance, which
is known as Sankirtana in Manipur.
The male dancers play the Pung and
the Kartal while dancing. The
masculine aspect of dance, the
Choloms, are a part of the Sankirtana
tradition. The Pung and the Kartal
Choloms are performed at all social
and religious festivals.
15
 Note: Sankirtana, ritual singing,
drumming and dancing of Manipur -
Inscribed on the Representative List of
the Intangible Cultural Heritage of
Humanity (UNESCO).
51. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The annual ―Gotmar‖ festival is a
stone-pelting festival and is
considered as a 300-year-old festival.
It is celebrated at Pandhurna in
Madhya Pradesh‟s Chhindwara
district.
 The Bagwal festival is a popular
attraction of Raksha Bandhan day in
Uttarakhand. The festival is famous
53. Answer: (d)
for its annual ritual of ‗stone-pelting.‘
 However, after the intervention of the
Uttarakhand High Court in 2013, the
stones were replaced with the flowers.
 The Budhamal festival is celebrated
in Dhupguri village on the outskirts of
Guwahati.
 This festival is held once in five years.
 During this festival, the people pray
for well-being and a good harvest.
52. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Salinity gradient power is the energy
created from the difference in the salt
concentration between two fluids,
commonly fresh and salt water, e.g.,
when a river flows into the sea. There are
two technologies for which the
demonstration projects are running and
both use membranes.
Pressure Retarded Osmosis (PRO) uses a
membrane to separate a concentrated salt
solution (like the sea water) from the
fresh water. The fresh water flows
through a semi-permeable membrane
towards the sea water, which increases
the pressure within the sea water
chamber. A turbine is spun as the
pressure is compensated and electricity is
generated.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
Reverse Electro Dialysis (RED) uses the
transport of (salt) ions through the
membranes. The RED consists of a stack
of alternating cathode and anode
exchanging permselective membranes.
The compartments between the
membranes are alternately filled with the
sea water and the fresh water. The
salinity gradient difference is the driving
force in transporting the ions, that results
in an electric potential, which is then
converted to electricity.
A possible third application is the salinity
gradient technology, applied to the land-
based salt water lakes or other types of
salt water reserves.
Explanation:
In the broadest sense, the term, the
―Internet of Things (IoT)‖ encompasses
everything connected to the internet, but
it is increasingly being used to define the
objects that "talk" to each other. "Simply,
the Internet of Things is made up of
devices – from simple sensors to smart-
phones and wearables – connected
together".
By combining these connected devices
with automated systems, it is possible to
"gather information, analyse it and create
an action", to help someone with a
particular task, or learn from a process.
In reality, this ranges from the smart
mirrors to the beacons in the shops and
beyond.
The IoT allows the devices on the closed
private internet connections to
communicate with others and "the
Internet of Things brings those networks
together. It gives the opportunity for the
devices to communicate, not only within
close silos, but across different
networking types and it creates a much
more connected world."
The most important applications of the
Internet of Things: Wearables; Health;
Traffic monitoring; Fleet management;
Agriculture; Hospitality; Smart grid
and energy saving; and Water supply.
16
54. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Serosurveillance provides estimates of
anti-body levels against infectious
diseases and is considered the gold
standard for measuring the population
immunity due to past infection or
vaccination.
It can help ascertain if there has been a
community transmission of the
respiratory disease.
While a vaccine or a definite treatment
plan is not available to us, the experts
believe that the only way to prevent
further spikes in infections or find out the
actual data about exposure levels is to
test the presence of the anti-bodies in
people.
Serosurveillance is a globally used and
trusted standard, which measures the
levels of the anti-bodies against a certain
infection and decodes the percentage of
the population, which has been
previously exposed to the virus. A recent
survey from Delhi showed that at least
15%-20% of the population had already
been exposed, or are immune to the
deadly SARS-COV-2 virus.
The tool is also used as a measure for the
officials to check on mass inoculation and
see the level of immunity the people have.
Even before COVID-19, it was used as an
extensive tool to see how far an infection
has breached in a community. The
National Serosurveillance Programmes
are well established in many countries
worldwide.
55. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Kawasaki disease (KD), also known
as the Kawasaki syndrome, is an acute
febrile illness of unknown etiology, that
primarily affects the children younger
than 5 years of age.
It is an illness that causes the blood
vessels to become inflamed, almost
always in the young children. It is one of
the leading causes of heart disease in the
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
kids. But, the doctors can treat it if they
find it early. Most children recover
without any problems.
The Kawasaki Disease Causes and Risk
Factors – The inflammation of the
Kawasaki disease can damage a child‘s
coronary arteries, which carry the blood
to his heart.
It can also cause problems with the
lymph nodes, skin and the lining of a
child‘s mouth, nose and throat.
The scientists have not found an exact
cause for the Kawasaki disease. It might
be linked to the genes, viruses, bacteria
and other things in the world around a
child, such as chemicals and irritants.
The disease probably is not contagious,
but it sometimes happens in the clusters
in a community. Kids are more likely to
get it in the winters and in spring.
56. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The choanoflagellates are a group of free-
living unicellular and colonial flagellate
eukaryotes, considered to be the closest
living relatives of the animals. The
choanoflagellates are collared flagellates,
having a funnel shaped collar of inter-
connected microvilli at the base of a
flagellum.
57. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Solar Orbiter Mission will address big
questions in the Solar System science to
help us understand how our star creates
and controls the giant bubble of plasma
that surrounds the whole Solar System
and influences the planets within it. It is
an ESA (European Space Agency) mission
with strong NASA participation, launched
in February, 2020.
The Solar Orbiter's primary mission of
examining the Sun's Polar Regions will
help the researchers understand the
origin of the solar wind, charged particles
that blast through our Solar System, and
17
 affect the satellites and the electronics on
the Earth.
It aims to study the Sun, up close, take
high-resolution images of the Sun's poles
for the first time and understand the
Sun-Earth connection.
The spacecraft will use Venus‘s and the
Earth‘s gravity to swing itself out of the
ecliptic plane – the swath of space,
roughly aligned with the Sun‘s Equator,
where all the planets orbit. Up until the
Solar Orbiter, all the solar imaging
instruments have been within the ecliptic
plane or very close to it.
58. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Based upon the recommendations of the
Narasimham Committee and the P.J.
Nayak Committee, the government has
focussed on the consolidation/merger of
the Public Sector Banks (PSBs).
The Narasimham Committee, the
Raghuram Rajan Committee and the P.J.
Nayak Committee are the Committees
related to the Banking Reforms.
The Fundamental Duties were added in
the Constitution on the recommendations
of Sardar Swaran Singh Committee.
The Dinesh Goswami Committee is
related to the Electoral Reforms.
59. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Bharat Bond ETF (Exchange Traded
Fund) is a basket of bonds issued by the
Central Public Sector Enterprises
(CPSE)/CPSU (Community and Public
Sector Union) or any other government
organization. These Bonds are tradable
on the secondary market. The unit size
of the Bharat Bond ETF has been kept at
a smaller value of Rs. 1,000 to attract the
retail investors.
ETF is a fund that is created by pooling
together the assets and then dividing this
accumulated asset into individual units
that are traded on the stock exchange.
The value of the ETF comes from the
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
value of the underlying assets (shares of
stock, bonds, foreign currency, etc.).
60. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Prevention of Money Laundering Act
(PMLA), 2002, was enacted in January,
2003. The Act, along with the Rules
framed thereunder, has come into force
with effect from 2005.
Special Courts have been set-up in a
number of states / UTs by the central
government to conduct the trial of the
offences of money laundering. The
authorities under the Act, like the
Director, Adjudicating Authority and the
Appellate Tribunal, have been constituted
to carry out the proceedings related to
attachment and confiscation of any
property derived from money laundering.
In order to enlarge the scope of this Act
and to achieve the desired objectives, the
Act provides for bilateral agreements
between the countries to co-operate with
each other and to curb the menace of
money laundering. These agreements
shall be for the purpose of either
enforcing the provisions of this Act or for
the exchange of information, which shall
help in the prevention in the commission
of an offence under this Act or the
corresponding laws in that foreign state.
The Act prescribes an obligation of the
banking companies, financial institutions
and intermediaries for verification and
maintenance of records of the identity of
all their clients and also of all
transactions, and for furnishing
information of such transactions in
prescribed form to the Financial
Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND).
61. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The changes made by the Finance Act,
2016 –
 The Finance Act, 2016 amended the
Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act
18
 (FCRA) 2010, having retrospective
effect from September, 2010.
 Under the FCRA 2010, a foreign
company or an Indian company, in
which more than 50% share was
held by a foreign entity, was
prohibited from making any
contribution to the political parties.
 Any contribution from such entity
would have automatically come under
“foreign source” and would have
amounted to foreign contribution,
which was prohibited under the
FCRA, 2010.
 The amendment effectively exempted
such foreign companies or Indian
companies, in which more than
50% share was held by a foreign
company, from being categorized as
a foreign source.
 Thus, effectively the 2016 amendment
provided a retrospective cover to all
contributions given to various political
parties by different companies from
26th September 2010. However, the
retrospective amendment in 2016 did
not apply to the donations prior to the
year 2010.
The changes made by the Finance Act,
2018 –
 The Finance Act, 2018 amended the
Finance Act, 2016 and extended the
retrospective cover provided to the
Indian companies having more than
50% foreign holding from the earlier
date of 26th September, 2010 to 5th
August, 1976.
 Thus, any contribution made by such
Indian companies, having more than
50% foreign holding, were exempted
from the FCRA scrutiny from 5th
August, 1976.
62. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Constitution of India provides for
Temporary; Transitional; and Special
Provisions, whereby special provisions
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
have been accorded to some states, from
Article 371 to Article 371J.
The term ―Federal Council of India‖ does
not exist.
63. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Bru-Reangs have been categorized as
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group of
Tripura and not Mizoram. The Brus, that
are spread across Tripura, Mizoram and
parts of southern Assam, are the most
populous tribe in Tripura. Also known as
the Reangs in the state, they are
ethnically different from the Mizos, with
their own distinct language and dialect,
and form one of the 21 Scheduled Tribes
of Tripura. In Mizoram, they are largely
restricted to Mamit and Kolasib districts.
64. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
India is a full member of the INTOSAI.
The International Organization of
Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI)
operates as an umbrella organization for
the external government audit
community. It is a non-governmental
organization with special consultative
status with the Economic and Social
Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations.
The INTOSAI is an autonomous,
independent, professional and non-
political organization established as a
permanent institution. Its purposes are
to:
 provide mutual support to the SAIs
(Supreme Audit Institutions);
 foster the exchange of ideas,
knowledge and experiences;
 act as a recognized global public voice
of the SAIs within the international
community;
 set standards for public sector
auditing;
 promote good national governance;
and
19
  support SAI capacity development, co-
operation and continuous
performance improvement.
65. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The CAG (The Comptroller and Auditor
General of India) as the SAI (The
Supreme Audit Institution of India) –
The Comptroller and Auditor General of
India (CAG) is the Supreme Audit
Institution of India (SAI). As a
constitutional body, the CAG has been
entrusted with the responsibility to audit
the accounts and related activities of the
government and its institutions.
The Duties and Powers of the CAG –
Article 149 – The Comptroller and
Auditor General shall perform such
duties and exercise such powers in
relation to the accounts of the Union and
of the states, and of any other authority
or body, as may be prescribed by or
under any law made by Parliament.
Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted
the CAG‟s (Duties, Powers and
Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. It
specifies the CAG‘s duties and powers
pertaining to government accounts, audit
of receipts and expenditures of the three
tiers of the governments at the union,
states and urban and rural local bodies.
The duties of the CAG include the audit of
public companies, autonomous bodies,
regulatory bodies and other public
entities, where there is a specific
legislative provision to make the CAG
audit mandatory in the Acts by which
these bodies were created.
Audit Reports - As per Article 151, the
reports of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India, relating to the accounts
of the Union, shall be submitted to the
President, who shall cause them to be
laid before each House of the Parliament.
The reports of the CAG of India,
relating to the accounts of a state,
shall be submitted to the Governor of
that state, who shall cause them to be
laid before the Legislature of the state.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
66. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The new National Education Policy (NEP)
has proposed to establish the Higher
Education Commission of India
(HECI), as a single overarching umbrella
body for the entire higher education,
excluding medical and legal education.
The HECI to have four independent
verticals - the National Higher Education
Regulatory Council (NHERC) for regulation;
the General Education Council (GEC ) for
standard setting; the Higher Education
Grants Council (HEGC) for funding; and
the National Accreditation Council ( NAC)
for accreditation.
 The new NEP has been built on the
foundational pillars of Access,
Equity, Quality, Affordability and
Accountability.
 This Policy is aligned to the 2030
Agenda for Sustainable
Development (SDG-4 – Quality
Education) and aims to transform
India into a vibrant knowledge society
and global knowledge superpower by
making both school and college
education more holistic, flexible,
multi-disciplinary, suited to the
21st century needs and aimed at
bringing out the unique capabilities of
each student.
 The new NEP aims to include the
children during their most
foundational years from 3-6 years
for their care and education. It will
help to bring back 2 crore out-of-
schools and drop-out children into
the formal educational fold and help
India in achieving the universalization
of school education. Thus, the new
NEP stays true to its commitment and
philosophy of 'no one to be left
behind' by including the children in
the age group of 3-6 years.
20
67. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Constitution (One Hundred and
Third Amendment) Act, 2019 – The
reservation of 10% will be over and above
the existing 50% reservation enjoyed by
the members of the Scheduled Castes, the
Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward
Classes. This will take the total
reservation to 60%.
The reservations intend to include such
members who do not avail the benefits of
reservation. This includes the members in
the general category, as well as the
members of the minority communities,
including Muslims, Sikhs, Buddhists,
Christian and other communities who do
not enjoy any kind of reservation.
68. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Cabinet Committee on Economic
Affairs (CCEA), in 2005, had approved the
constitution of a National Investment
71. Answer: (d)
Fund (NIF).
The purpose of the Fund was to receive
disinvestment proceeds of the Central
Public Sector Enterprises and to invest
the same to generate earnings without
depleting the corpus.
The earnings of the Fund were to be used
for selected Central Social Welfare
Schemes. This Fund was kept outside the
Consolidated Fund of India.
69. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Vision Zero is a strategy to eliminate all
traffic fatalities and severe injuries, while
increasing safe, healthy and equitable
mobility for all.
First implemented in Sweden in the
1990s, Vision Zero has proved successful
across Europe – and now it is gaining
momentum in major American cities.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
70. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The National Financial Reporting
Authority (NFRA) was constituted in 2018
by the Government of India, under the
Companies Act, 2013.
The duties of the NFRA are to:
 Recommend the accounting and
auditing policies and standards to be
adopted by the companies for
approval by the Central Government;
 Monitor and enforce compliance with
the accounting standards and the
auditing standards;
 Oversee the quality of service of the
professions associated with ensuring
compliance with such standards and
suggest measures for improvement in
the quality of service; and
 Perform such other functions and
duties, as may be necessary or
incidental to the aforesaid functions
and duties.
Explanation:
The 2020 edition of the Global Report on
Food Crises describes the scale of acute
hunger in the world. It provides an
analysis of the drivers that are
contributing to the food crises across the
globe and examines how the COVID-19
pandemic might contribute to their
perpetuation or deterioration. The Report
is produced by the Global Network
against Food Crises, an international
alliance, working to address the root
causes of extreme hunger.
The Global Network against Food Crises
was established to combat the food crises
from humanitarian and development
perspectives, and tackle their root causes.
This partnership aims to promote an
enhanced co-ordination among the
stakeholders through consensus on
analyses and coherent projects
implementation.
21
72. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Vidyasagar cited the Vedic texts to prove
that the Hindu religion sanctioned widow
remarriage.
Jagannath Shankar Seth and Bhau Daji
were among the active promoters of girls‘
schools in Maharashtra. Vishnu Shastri
Pandit founded the Widow Remarriage
Association in the 1850s.
Another prominent worker in this field
was Karsondas Mulji, who started the
Satya Prakash in Gujarati in 1852 to
advocate widow remarriage. Similar
efforts were made by Professor D.K. Karve
in western India and by Veerasalingam
Pantulu in Madras.
Karve himself married a widow in 1893.
He dedicated his life to the upliftment of
the Hindu widows and became the
secretary of the Widow Remarriage
Association. He opened a widows‘ home in
Poona to give the high caste widows an
interest in life by providing them with the
facilities for vocational training.
The right of the widows to remarriage was
also advocated by B.M. Malabari, Justice
Govind Mahadeo Ranade and K.
Natarajan, among others.
73. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
During the Non-Cooperation Movement,
thousands of students left government
schools and colleges, and joined around
800 national schools and colleges which
cropped up during this time. These
educational institutions were organized
under the leadership of Acharya Narendra
Dev, C.R. Das, Lala Lajpat Rai, Zakir
Hussain and Subhash Bose (who became
the Principal of the National College at
Calcutta), and included Jamia Millia at
Aligarh, Kashi Vidyapeeth, Gujarat
Vidyapeeth and Bihar Vidyapeeth.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
74. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Raja Rammohan Roy set up the Atmiya
Sabha to propagate the monotheistic
ideals of the Vedanta and to campaign
against idolatry, caste rigidities,
meaningless rituals and other social ills.
He said that the principles of rationalism
applied to other sects also, particularly to
the elements of blind faith in them.
In his Precepts of Jesus, he tried to
separate the moral and philosophical
message of the New Testament, which he
praised from its miracle stories. He
earned the wrath of the missionaries over
his advocacy to incorporate the message
of Christ into Hinduism.
75. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The rapid acceleration of digital
transformation has had profound
implications for the services trade, but
the benefits of digitalization risk being
derailed by the existing and emerging
trade barriers. The Digital Services Trade
Restrictiveness Index (DSTRI) is released
by the Organization for Economic Co-
operation and Development (OECD).
The OECD Digital Services Trade
Restrictiveness Index (Digital STRI) is a
new tool that identifies, catalogues and
quantifies cross-cutting barriers that
affect the services traded digitally. It
consists of two components, the
regulatory database and the indices,
which bring together comparable
information from 44 countries.
76. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Municipal Performance Index (MPI) is
a framework to assess and analyse the
performance of the Indian Municipalities,
based on their defined set of functions.
Municipal responsibilities range from
provisioning basic public services to more
complex domains, such as urban
planning. This Index assesses the
22
 performance of 114 cities across 5 pillars, REITs/InvITs allow the investors to invest
20 categories and 99 indicators. in these assets without owning them.
The Infrastructure Investment Trusts
(InvITs)/ Real Estate Investment Trusts
(or REITs) are Mutual Fund like
institutions, that enable investments into
the infrastructure sector/real estate
sector by pooling small sums of money
from multitude of individual investors for
directly investing in infrastructure, so as
to return a portion of the income (after
deducting expenditures) to the unit
holders of the InvITs, who pooled in the
money.
The InvITs/REITS are regulated by the
securities market regulator in India- The
Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI).
77. Answer: (d)
Explanation: 79. Answer: (a)
1. The Green Supports the grid Explanation:
Energy integration of The Rajya Sabha elections are different
Corridor Project large-scale
from those of the Lok Sabha. Unlike the
renewable energy
Lok Sabha or the Lower House of the
capacity addition.
Parliament, the members of the Rajya
2. The Central Only domestically
Sabha or the Upper House of Parliament
Public Sector manufactured
are not elected directly by the public. The
Undertaking cells and modules
members of the Rajya Sabha are elected
(CPSU) Scheme would be used for
the project. by the elected representatives of the
states and the Union Territories.
3. The Rooftop Achieving
Solar (Phase II) cumulative As per the Constitution, since the Rajya
Programme capacity of 40,000 Sabha is the Council of States, the
MW through the allocation of seats for the Rajya Sabha is
solar rooftop made on the basis of the population of
projects by 2022. each state. The Rajya Sabha has a
maximum membership of 245 seats. Of
78. Answer: (d) the 245, 233 are elected by the
Explanation: legislatures of the states and the UTs,
using single transferable votes through
The REITs and the Infrastructure
―open ballot‖.
Investment Trusts (InvITs) are the
innovative vehicles that enable the Each member is elected for a term of six
developers to monetize their revenue- years. One third of the members retire
generating real estate/infrastructure every second year and fresh elections are
assets and release capital for funding new held to elect the new members.
infrastructure/real estate projects. The

RAUSIAS-TS20E1074 23
80. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The World Justice Project Rule of Law
Index is the world‘s leading source for
original and independent data on the
Rule of Law. Covering 128 countries and
jurisdictions, the Index relies on the
national surveys of more than 1,30,000
households, and 4,000 legal practitioners
and experts to measure as to how the
Rule of Law is experienced and perceived
worldwide.
It is released annually by the World
Justice Project.
India has never been ranked even among
top 50 in the Index.
Note: The Supreme Court of India has
recently refused to entertain a plea
seeking a direction to the centre, the
states and the UTs to set up expert
committees to improve India's "pathetic"
69th global ranking on the Rule of Law
Index (RLI).
81. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Recently, the State Department of
Archaeology, Chennai has identified 250
cairn-circles from the Kodumanal
excavation site in Erode district of
Tamil Nadu. These excavations at
Kodumanal reveal megalithic belief in
after-life.
Megaliths refer to the large stone
structures that were constructed either as
burial sites or as commemorative sites.
They are spread across the peninsular
India, in Maharashtra and in the
southern states of Karnataka, Tamil
Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and
Telangana.
The megalithic culture finds mention in
the ancient Tamil Sangam literature.
82. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The TrueNat Machine – The big
difference is that the TrueNat machine is
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
portable and tests with it cost much less
than the traditional RT-PCR tests.
TrueNat is a chip-based, battery-operated
RT-PCR kit. The machine, designed by
Goa-based Molbio Diagnostics Private
Limited, was originally developed for the
diagnosis of tuberculosis.
The heart of the machine is designed to
detect different kinds of infections. It is
the chip that is specific to every infection.
The company took 15 days to design the
chip which had all the viral load diagnosis
for detecting Coronavirus.
The SARS-CoV-2 virus, which causes
COVID-19, does not have a DNA, but an
RNA molecule. The reverse transcription
process (the RT in RT-PCR) converts the
RNA into the DNA molecule, before the
gene can be captured in the test.
83. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
A new kitchen scheme, named after
former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, has
been launched by the Rajasthan
Government, for providing nutritious food
to the poor and the needy, twice a day on
concessional rates.
Under the scheme, full meals will be
provided to the poor and the needy for Rs.
8.
84. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Registering a comfortable victory, India
got elected as a non-permanent member
of the 15-member United Nations
Security Council (UNSC) from the Asia-
Pacific category for 2021-22 term.
The UNSC has 5 permanent and 10 non-
permanent members.
The distribution of the 10 non-
permanent seats are based on the
regional basis: Two for the Latin
American and Caribbean states; two for
the western European and other states;
five for African and Asian states; and one
for the eastern European states.
24
 To be elected to the Security Council, the  The Seshachalam BR covers, among
candidate countries need a two-thirds other areas, Sri Venkateswara
majority of ballots of the member states National Park; Sri Venkateswara
that are present and voting in the Wildlife Sanctuary; Tirupati, a major
Assembly. Hindu pilgrimage town.
 The tributaries of the Penneru
85. Answer: (d) river drain the region.
Explanation:  It is home to a number of endemic
The central government has laid out the species, including the famous Red
modalities for contributions and grants Sanders and the Slender Loris.
from any person or institution to the
 The native population of the Reserve
National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF),
includes the tribes of Yanadis.
for the first time after 15 years of its
Note: From the ecological point of view,
establishment.
the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
The contributions to the NDRF have been
assumes importance in being a good link
allowed through any of the modes, like
between the Eastern Ghats and the
physical instruments; Real-Time Gross
Western Ghats. The Sathyamangalam
Settlement (RTGS) /National Electronic
Forest Range is a significant wildlife
Funds Transfer (NEFT) / Unified
corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve,
Payments Interface (UPI); and
between the Western Ghats and the rest
https://bharatkosh.gov.in.
of the Eastern Ghats. Located in the
These contributions have been allowed as Erode district of Tamil Nadu, the
per Section 46(1) (b) of the Disaster Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is the
Management (DM) Act, 2005. largest Wildlife Sanctuary in the state.
The NDRF, constituted under Section 46
of the Disaster Management Act, 2005,
87. Answer: (b)
supplements the State Disaster Response
Explanation
Fund of the states, in case of natural
calamities, like cyclone, drought,
earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami,
hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloud
burst and pest attack considered to be of
severe nature by the government.
Note: The central government issued
guidelines to allow any person or
institution to contribute directly to the
National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF),
set up under the Disaster Management
Act, 2005.

86. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
 The Seshachalam Hills, that form part
The West Bank is located on the west
of the Eastern Ghats and are located
bank of the Jordan river and is bounded
in the Kadapa and Chittoor districts,
by Israel on the north, west and south.
have been declared the first ever Bio-
On the east of this river lies Jordan. Since
Diversity Reserve (BR) in Andhra
the Six-Day War (1967), also known as
Pradesh (2010).
the Third Arab-Israeli War, the West

RAUSIAS-TS20E1074 25
 Bank has been occupied by Israel. Both
the Israelis and the Palestinians assert
their rights to the territory of the West
Bank, and its disputed status and the
conflict has not been resolved as yet.
88. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Pangong Tso is a long narrow, deep,
endorheic (land-locked) lake situated at a
height of more than 14,000 ft in the
Ladakh Himalayas.
The brackish water lake freezes over in
winters, and becomes ideal for ice skating
and polo. The legendary 19th century
Dogra General, Zorawar Singh, is said to
have trained his soldiers and horses on
the frozen Pangong Lake before invading
Tibet.
Important fresh water lakes, such as the
Dal and the Wular; and salt water lakes,
such as the Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri,
are in the Northern Himalayas.
Note: It lies in the path of the Chushul
approach, one of the main approaches
that China can use for an offensive into
the Indian-held territory. During the 1962
war, this was where China launched its
main offensive — the Indian Army fought
heroically at Rezang La, the mountain
pass on the south-eastern approach to
the Chushul valley.
89. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
 The Kalesar National Park is situated
in the foot hills of the Shivalik ranges
of the mighty Himalayas. It falls under
Yamunanagar district of Haryana,
sharing its boundary with three
states, viz., Himachal Pradesh,
Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh. The
Yamuna river forms the eastern
boundary with Uttar Pradesh. The
main Shivalik ridge separates the
state boundary among Haryana,
Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand
in the north.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
 The Simbalbara National Park is
situated in the Paonta Valley in
Sirmour district of Himachal Pradesh.
 The Simbalbara Wildlife
Sanctuary lies in the Shivalik Hills
and is located close to Haryana‘s
Kalesar National Park.
 Karimpuzha to be Kerala‘s 18th
Wildlife Sanctuary. The declaration of
the new Wildlife Sanctuary is all the
more significant, as it will create a
contiguous protective area stretch
linking two National Parks, the
Mukurthi National Park in Tamil
Nadu and the Silent Valley National
Park in Kerala.
90. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Shivalik Hill Ranges are a part of the
Sub-Himalayan mountain system,
extending from the UT of Jammu and
Kashmir on the west, to Uttarakhand in
the east, covering Himachal Pradesh, and
parts of Punjab and Haryana. A large part
of the Shivaliks lies in Himachal Pradesh,
the upper catchment of Shivalik region of
Haryana.
91. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Malabar Rebellion broke out in the
southern Taluks of Malabar in August,
1921. It largely took the shape of
guerrilla-type attacks on the Janmis
(feudal landlords, who were mostly upper
caste Hindus), and the police and the
troops.
Kudiyaan (tenant Moplahs) had been
among the victims of oppressive agrarian
relations protected by the British.
But, the political mobilization of the
Muslims in the region, in the aftermath of
the launch of the Khilafat Agitation and
Gandhi‘s Non-Cooperation struggle,
served as an opportunity for an extremist
section to invoke a religious idiom to
express their suffering, while working for
26
 a change in the oppressive system of the
administration.
There were excesses on both sides –
rebels and government troops. Incidents
of murder, looting and forced conversion
led many to discredit the Uprising as a
manifestation of religious bigotry.
Moderate Khilafat leaders lamented that
the Rebellion had alienated the Hindu
sympathy.
Kunhamid Haji, who was one of the three
most important rebel leaders, was the
face of the Rebellion. Born in 1866 in a
family with relatives involved in one of the
Mappila ―outbreaks‖ or ―outrages‖ in the
19th century, he was familiar with the
commemoration of the Shaheeds
(martyrs), who fought against the tyranny
of the landlords and their helpers, mostly
upper caste Hindus in the region. There
were several such outbreaks in the region
during the 19th and early 20th centuries.
The main actors of the outbreaks were
individuals on suicide missions.
The Khilafat Movement, launched in
1919, provided a fresh stimulus to the
grievances of the Moplah/Mappilas. Now
their sense of local injustice was sought
to be linked with the Pan-Islamic
sentiments created in the aftermath of the
collapse of the Ottoman Empire, that
rendered the Ottoman Caliphate
irrelevant. Haji was among those in the
Malabar region inspired by the zeal of the
agitation. During the Rebellion, he led
many attacks on individuals, including
the Muslims, who had been loyal to the
British. Some contemporary accounts,
however, deny that he favoured the
conversion of the Hindus.
Hike in revenue demand and reduction of
field size, coupled with the oppression of
the officials, resulted in widespread
peasant unrest among the Moplahs of
Malabar. Twenty-two rebellions took place
between 1836 and 1854. None, however,
proved successful.
The second Moplah Uprising occurred
after the Moplahs came to be organized
by the Congress and the Khilafat
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
supporters during the Non-Cooperation
Movement. But, Hindu- Muslim
differences distanced the Congress and
the Moplahs from each other.
By 1921, the Moplahs had been subdued.
Lord Reading (1921-1926) was the
Viceroy of India during the Moplah
Rebellion in Kerala.
Note:
 Vinayak Damodar Savarkar was one
of the first ones to describe the
Moplah Rebellion as an anti-Hindu
genocide, through his semi-fictional
novel Moplah, which became hugely
popular when it was published in
1924.
 Even Dr. B.R. Ambedkar has provided
a detailed account on the rebellion in
Pakistan or ‗The Partition of
India‘. ―Beginning with the year 1920,
there occurred in that year in
Malabar, what is known as the
Moplah Rebellion. It was the result of
the agitation carried out by two
Muslim organizations, the Khuddam-
i-Kaba (The Servants of the Mecca
Shrine) and the Central Khilafat
Committee,‖ Ambedkar wrote.
 K.P. Keshav Menon praised the
Moplahs for their enthusiasm to join
the Khilafat Movement and the
Congress Committees during the pre-
rebellion days. He also provided a
critical account of the forced
conversion of a Thiyya woman of
Nilambur in the note, ‗Forced
Conversion,‘ ‗the Calicut Case,‘
published in 1922.
92. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Stars, as per the known mechanisms of
evolution, actually destroy lithium, as
they evolve into Red Giants. The planets
were known to have more lithium than
their stars – as is the case with the Earth-
Sun pair.
However, leading to a contradiction, some
stars were found that were lithium-rich. A
27
 new study, that has been published in
the journal Nature Astronomy, shows
that, in fact, when stars grow beyond
their Red Giant stage, into what is known
as the Red Clump stage, they produce
lithium in what is known as a Helium
Flash and this is what enriches them with
lithium.
Lithium, a light element, commonly used
today in the communication device
technology, has an interesting story. It
was first produced in the Big Bang,
around 13.7 billion years ago, when the
Universe came into being, along with
other elements.
While the abundance of other elements
grew millions of times, the present
abundance of lithium in the Universe is
only four times the original (Big Bang)
value. It is actually destroyed in the stars.
The Sun, for instance, has about a factor
of 100 lower amount of lithium than the
Earth. About 40 years ago, a few large
stars were spotted that were lithium-rich.
This was followed by further discoveries
of lithium-rich stars, and that posed a
puzzle – if stars do not produce lithium,
how do some stars develop to become
lithium-rich? This is the first study to
demonstrate that lithium abundance
enhancement among the Low Mass Giant
Stars is common. Until now, it was
believed that only about 1% of the Giants
are lithium rich.
Secondly, the team has shown that as the
star evolves beyond the Red Giant stage,
and before it reaches the Red Clump
stage, there is a helium flash which
produces an abundance of lithium. The
study challenges the present
understanding of nucleosynthesis in the
stars.
93. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Saros Cylces – The periodicity and
recurrence of eclipses is governed by
the Saros Cycle, a period of approximately
6,585.3 days (18 years 11 days 8 hours).
It was known to the Chaldeans
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
(Chaldeans are a Catholic ethno-religious
community that hails from northern Iraq)
as a period when the lunar eclipses seem
to repeat themselves, but the cycle is
applicable to the solar eclipses as well.
Any two eclipses separated by one Saros
Cycle share very similar geometries. They
occur at the same node with the Moon at
nearly the same distance from the Earth
and at the same time of the year. Because
the Saros period is not equal to a whole
number of days, its biggest drawback is
that subsequent eclipses are visible from
different parts of the globe. The extra
1/3-day displacement means that the
Earth must rotate an additional ~8 hours
or ~120º with each Cycle. For solar
eclipses, this results in the shifting of
each successive eclipse path by ~120º
westward. Thus, a Saros series returns to
about the same geographic region every 3
Saroses (54 years and 34 days).
94. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The National Digital Health Mission –
The scheme will be implemented by the
National Health Authority. The National
Health Authority also implements the
Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
(PMJAY).
Under this scheme, ‗Health IDs‘ will be
issued. This health account will contain
the details of every test, every disease, the
doctors visited, the medicines taken and
the diagnosis. This information will be
very useful, as it is portable and easily
accessible even if the patient shifts to new
place and visits a new doctor.
The National Digital Health Mission is a
holistic, voluntary healthcare
programme, which will integrate the
doctors, hospitals, pharmacies, insurance
companies and make a digital health
infrastructure. The Health ID card is
created with the details like Aadhaar and
mobile number, and generate unique ID
for each individual. The National Digital
Health Mission includes the Health ID,
digidoctor, telemedicine, pharmacy,
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 healthcare registry and personal health
records digitally stored.
DigiDoctor: It is a comprehensive of all
doctors that has the details pertaining to
their qualification, specialization and
work experience.
Health Facility Registry: It is a
searchable, centrally managed,
comprehensive repository of all health
facilities, public and private, available in
the country.
Personalized Health Records: A The compensation is to be paid out of the
managed record of patients‘ information
in electronic format, that is manageable
and interoperable with various sub-
systems. It also provides a consolidated
view of information from multiple sources
and conforms to the industry standards.
Electronic Medical Records: An
electronic version of the patient‘s medical
history, generated at a particular medical
facility.
Privacy Features –
 It is a purely voluntary scheme with
the citizens and their rights at the
core.
 Privacy and data security by design
architecture.
 Digital identity will be shared only
after the patient's informed consent
96. Answer: (b)
and only with the certified doctors.
 The patients can determine time and
duration of consent and revoke it
anytime.
 No personalized information will be
shared.
 No sharing for commercial use.
95. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
GST Compensation: According to the
101st Constitutional Amendment Act,
2016 – The Parliament shall, by law, on
the recommendation of the Goods and
Services Tax Council, provide for
compensation to the states for the loss of
revenue arising on account of
implementation of the Goods and Services
Tax (GST) for a period of five years.
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
The Parliament enacted the Goods and
Services Tax (Compensation to States)
Act, 2017. The Preamble to the Act reads
as follows:
The Parliament shall, by law, on the
recommendation of the Goods and
Services Tax Council, provide for
compensation to the states for the loss of
revenue arising on account of
implementation of the Goods and Services
Tax (GST) for a period of five years.
non-lapsable GST Compensation Fund.
As per Section 10(1), the inflows to the
Fund are from the GST Compensation
Cess, levied under Section 8 of the Act
and ―such other amounts as may be
recommended by the Council‖. There is
no provision for any amount other than
Cess to be credited, except based on the
recommendations of the Council. Section
10(2) provides that all compensation
payable under Section 7 ―shall be paid
out of the Fund‖. Thus, the centre is not
obligated to provide compensation from
the Consolidated Fund of India.
The compensation is provided assuming
14% compound growth rate on the
revenue of 2015-16 to the states.
Explanation:
Impact of Aerosol on Climate Change –
Atmospheric aerosols are tiny
solid/liquid/mixed particles suspended in
the air, originating from natural or
anthropogenic sources. With a typical
lifetime of days to weeks in the
troposphere and about a year in the
stratosphere, aerosol size ranges from a
few nanometres to several tens of
micrometres.
Fundamentally, the aerosol particles
absorb and scatter the incoming solar
radiation, modifying the global and
regional radiative budget.
Non-absorbing aerosols, like sulphate,
nitrate and sea spray scatter shortwave
radiation back to the space, leading to a
net cooling of the climate system, while
29
 absorbing aerosols produce the opposite
effect.
Carbonaceous aerosols (black carbon,
organic carbon) and mineral dust can
absorb and scatter the Sunlight,
producing either warming or cooling
effects determined by the aerosol
properties and environmental conditions.
Absorbing aerosols also affect the climate
when present in the surface snow, by
lowering the surface albedo, yielding a
positive radiative forcing, directly
changing the melting of snow and ice.
Although depending on the local
emissions and transport processes,
regionally, the anthropogenic aerosol
radiative forcing can be either negative or
positive. It is well established that
globally the radiative effect of
anthropogenic aerosols produces cooling
of the planet.
Additionally, the aerosol particles act as
cloud condensation nuclei (CCN) and ice
nuclei (IN), and therefore, have a
significant impact on cloud properties
and precipitation. An increase in CCN
forming aerosols in a cloudy region
produces more, but smaller, cloud
droplets, reflecting more solar radiation to
the space, leading to the cooling of the
Earth‘s surface, known as the first
indirect effect (cloud-albedo effect). Also,
smaller droplets suppress collision
coalescence requiring longer growth time
to reach raindrop size, increasing the
cloud albedo and enhancing the cooling
effect, known as the cloud-lifetime effect
or the second indirect effect. In contrast,
in a saturated and buoyant environment,
an increase in the CCN forming aerosols
can invigorate the cloud through micro-
physical processes. However, there is
significant uncertainty in such impacts.
Furthermore, absorbing aerosols alter the
air temperature, causing an increase in
the lower level static stability, inhibiting
convection leading to a decrease in the
cloud cover, known as the semi-direct
effect. However, the net effect of the
absorbing aerosols on precipitation
RAUSIAS-TS20E1074
depends on the vertical variation of the
particles and background conditions.
97. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The Yemen crisis has its roots in the
Arab Spring of 2011, when an
uprising forced the country‘s long-
time authoritarian President, Ali
Abdullah Saleh, to hand over power to
his deputy, Abdrabbuh Mansour Hadi.
The political transition was supposed
to bring stability to Yemen, one of the
Middle East‘s poorest nations, but
President Hadi struggled to deal with
various problems, including militant
attacks, corruption, food insecurity
and continuing loyalty of many
military officers to Saleh. Fighting
began in 2014 when the Houthi Shia
Muslim rebel movement took
advantage of the new President‘s
weakness and seized control
of the northern Saada province and
neighbouring areas.
 The Xinjiang Autonomous Region in
China's far west has had a long
history of discord between the
authorities and the indigenous ethnic
Uighur population. The largest of
China's administrative regions,
Xinjiang borders eight countries -
Mongolia, Russia, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Afghanistan,
Pakistan and India - and until
recently, its population was mostly
Uighur.
 The Madhesis of Nepal have castes
and ethnicity similar to Bihar and
eastern Uttar Pradesh, with frequent
inter-marriages between the families
on either side of the India-Nepal
border. The Madhes has historically
been part of the larger Mithila region.
 At least 701 people have been killed
and 168 injured during inter-ethnic
violence between the Hema and the
Lendu communities in Djugu and
Mahagi territories (The Democratic
30
 Republic of the Congo) from Nagarahole National Park and the
December, 2017 to September, 2019. Bandipur National Park.
The Kabini Reservoir separates
98. Answer: (b) the Bandipur and Nagarahole Tiger
Explanation: Reserve.
The Assam Keelback Snake has been Note: Project Tiger is a ‗Tiger
sighted for the first time since 1869. This Conservation Programme‘, launched in
snake was spotted in 2018, while 1973 by the Government of India, during
retracing the Abor expedition – an iconic Prime Minister Indira Gandhi's tenure.
expedition that took place from 1911-
1912, that had yielded a rich list of flora 100. Answer: (b)
and fauna of the Assam region. Explanation:
First known as Hebius pealii, this snake  The Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan
was named after Edward Peal, a British will be implemented in six states, viz.,
tea planter, who first collected two Uttar Pradesh; Madhya Pradesh;
specimens of this snake from Upper Jharkhand; Odisha; Rajasthan; and
Assam, 129 years ago. Bihar. These states saw the maximum
The Assam Keelback is so far known only number of migrant workers returning
to inhabit Sivasagar in Upper Assam and over the last three months.
Poba in Assam-Arunachal border. So, as  The government has identified 25
far as the present knowledge goes, it is an work areas for employment in the
endemic snake of Upper Assam. Through villages, for the development of
a molecular study, the team has shown various works.
that this snake belongs to the genus
 The villages will join this programme
Herpetoreas, which has only three other
through the common service centres
known members and not Hebius.
and the Krishi Vigyan Kendras.
When the British had discovered the
 The Ministry of Rural Development is
snake, they had classified it as belonging
the nodal Ministry for this scheme. It
to the larger Keelback species. But,
will be implemented in close co-
through DNA studies, it was found that
ordination with the state
this particular Keelback does not belong
governments.
to the generalized Keelback Snake of
India, but is rather a unique genus
(Herpetoreas) belonging to a smaller
group of four species, found in the
eastern and the western Himalayas,
South China and north-east India.

99. Answer: (d)

Explanation:
The Nagarhole National Park was
declared as a Tiger Reserve under Project
Tiger.
It lies in the Western Ghats and is a part
of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
The Nagarahole river flows through the
Park, which joins the Kabini river, which
also is a boundary between the

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