GEN PATH/ ORAL PATH / MICROBIO 6.

Which of the ffconnective tissue tumors

is noted for the property of inducing
1. Acute leukemia may be characterized
pseudocarcinomatous change in
by which of the following
adjacent epithelium?
a. Anemia
a. Fibroma
b. Thrombocytopenia
b. Neurilemomma
c. Prolonged bleeding time
c. Fibrosarcoma
d. Elevated leukocyte count
d. Granular cell myoblastoma
e. All of the above
e. None of the above
2. Radiographs of a young adult show that
7. Which of the following is most
all permanent teeth have small roots
characteristic of
and obliterated pulp chambers. These
cervicofacialactinomycosis
findings are indicative of:
a. Single or multiple ulcers
a. Osteomalacia
b. Enlarged cervical lymph nodes
b. amelogenesisimperfecta
c. Multiple abscesses with sinuses
c. cleidocranialdysostosis
d. Indurated nodules in the skin of the
d. dentinogenesis imperfect
neck
e. none of the above
e. Incrustation of the skin of the cheek
3. which of the ff diseases is characterized
and neck
by normal serum calcium and
8. Fordyce’s granules appear
phosphorus and elevated serum
microscopically to be
alkaline phosphatase
a. Sweat glands
a. psteomalacia
b. Sebaceous glands
b. renal rickets
c. Actinomycotic lesions
c. hypoparathyroidism
d. Mucuos salivary glands
d. hyperparathyroidism
e. Serous salivary glands
4. aspiration of blood or fragments of
9. Of the following, the one NOT an
tissue during operative procedures in
odontogenic lesion, histogenetically, is
the mouth MOST frequently results in
the
a. fatal laryngeal spasms
a. Ameloblastoma
b. lobar pneumonia
b. Radicular cyst
c. laryngitis
c. Complex odontoma
d. lung abscess
d. Median palatal cyst
e. actinomycoses of the lung
e. Adenomatoidodontogenic tumor
5. Of the following, which is a MAJOR
10. Which of the ff statements about
neuralgia that may be characterized as
syphilis is CORRECT?
a paroxysmal disturbances of the fifth
A. The Serological test for syphilis is
cranial nerve and the presence of a
strongly positive during the early
trigger zone?
primary stage
a. Trigeminal neuralgia
B. The mucocutaneouslesionsof
b. Orolingual paresthesia
secondary spirochetes contain
c. Sphenopalatine neuralgia
many spirochetes
d. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
C. The typical lesion of secondary
e. None of the above
syphilis is called the gumma
 D. The chancre is not contagious
E. All of the above
11. All of the ff may have similar
radiographic findings EXCEPT
a. Ameloblastoma
b. Radicular cyst
c. Complex odontoma
d. Eosinophilic granuloma
e. Lateral periodontal cyst
12. The FIRST cell to arrive from the
vascular bed to an injured area is the
a. Eosinophil
b. Lymphocyte
c. Neutrophil
d. Plasma cell
e. None of the above
13. The oral mucosal lesions of lichen
planus, leukoplakia, and discoid lupus
erythematosus have at least one
common feature. They are all
A. keratotic lesions
B. Premalignant lesions
C. Consequences of vitamin A
deficiency
D. Characterized by granulomatous
proliferation
E. Associated with local chronic
irritation
14. The pathologic basis for mongolism is
a. Excessive ingestion of fluorides
b. Trisomy 21
c. Disomy 21
d. Congenital syphilis
e. Nutritional deficiencies
15. The characteristic oral manifestation of
agranulocytosis (malignant neutropenia
consists of
a. Acute stomatitis
b. Gingival hyperplasia
c. Multiple palatal petechiae
d. Ulceration of oral mucosa and
gingiva
e. None of the above
16. 16. A two-year old baby fractures his
femur while crawling. He has pale blue
sclera, porosity of the long bones, is
extremely fragile and is deaf. He suffers
from
a. Craniofacial dysostosis
b. Osteogenesis imperfect
c. Cleidocranialdysostosis
d. Albers-Schonberg syndrome
e. Mandibulo-facial dysostosis
17. A one-year old child who has bilateral
facial swelling, fever, leukocytosis, and
hyperostosis of the facial bones with
negative blood cultures MOST likely has
a. Caffey-Smith syndrome
b. Infectious parotitis
c. Osteogenic sarcoma
d. Osteomyelitis
e. Cherubism
18. The primary sources of the pathogenic
microorganism in the dental infirmary is
a. Light handles
b. Dust particles
c. Patient’s charts
d. Mouths of the patients
e. Hands of clinicians
19. A disease of childhood characterized by
mental retardation, delayed growth,
and delayed tooth eruption
a. Oxytocin
b. Growth hormone
c. Thyroid hormone
d. Testicular hormone
e. Mineralocorticoids
20. During delayed hypersensitivity
reactions, sensitized small lymphocytes
produce
a. Antibodies
b. Histamine
c. Lymphokines
d. None of the above
21. The class of antibodies first detected in
serum after primary immunization is
actually
 a. IgA 26. Which of the ff microorganisms is most
b. IgD likely to be cultured from chronic,
c. IgE bilateral ulcerations at the corners of
d. IgG the mouth?
e. IgM a. Candida
22. The rickettsial disease that may have b. Brucella
oral manifestations c. Treponema
a. Rickettsial pox d. Aspergillus
b. Brill’s disease e. Histoplasma
c. Epidemic typhus 27. The most likely source of bacteria found
d. None of the above in diseased periodontal tissue
23. The ability of certain oral a. Serum
microorganisms to function as etiologic b. Saliva
agents of dental caries appears to be c. Subgingival plaque
correlated with the capacity of these d. Supragingival plaque
organisms to produce e. None of the above
a. Proteolytic enzymes capable of 28. Keloids are composed predominantly of
hydrolyzing salivary proteins a. Adipose tissue
b. Capsules that inhibit the activity b. Collagen fibers
of phagocytic cells present in c. Granulation tissue
saliva d. Caseous necrotic debris
c. Carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme e. Serum
active in decreasing the CO2 29. Which of the following diseases is
content of saliva caused by an agent that produces
d. An extracellular polysaccharide neither exotoxins nor endotoxins?
dextran-like substance in the a. Cholera
formation of dental plaque b. Gonorrhea
e. None of the above c. Brucellosis
24. Which of the ff is formed in large d. Gas gangrene
quantities during the degradation of e. Tuberculosis
glucose by homofermentative strep. 30. The oral vesicular lesions of herpangina
Mutans? and hand-foot and mouth diseases are
a. Mannitol caused by
b. Lactic acid a. Coxsackie virus
c. Acetic acid b. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Proprionic acid c. Herpes simplex type 1
25. Adenocarcinomas of the large intestine d. Varicella-zoster virus
are most common in which segment of e. Respiratory syncytial virus
the colon 31. An embolus originating as a thrombus
a. Ascending in the femoral vein usually occludes a
b. Transverse blood vessel in the
c. Descending a. Lung
d. Rectosigmoid b. Brain
e. Ascending and transverse c. Liver
 d. Kidney
e. Heart
32. In skin graft rejection, the MAJOR host
response is
a. An Arthus reaction
b. A cell-mediated reaction
c. Passive cutaneous anaphylaxis
d. None of the above
33. Lecithinase are produced by
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Salmonella schottmulleir
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
e. Corynebacteriumdiptheriae
34. If a susceptible person were given
tetanus antitoxin, what kind of
immunity would result?
a. Innate
b. Natural active
c. Natural passive
d. Artificial active
e. Artificial passive
35. Aspiration of material from carious
teeth may cause
a. Lung abscess
b. Tuberculosis
c. Lobar pneumonia
d. Bronchopneumonia
e. Interstitial pneumonia
36. Sterilization refers to which of the
following?
a. Absence of all living forms
b. Inhibition of bacterial growth
c. Removal of pathogenic bacteria
only
d. Removal of pathogenic
bacteria, viruses and fungi
e. Generation of bacteria
37. For the majority of individuals, the
initial infection with herpes simplex
virus results in
a. Genital herpes
b. Subclinical disease
c. Herpes labialis in puberty
d. A dermal rash in childhood
e. Encephalitis as a young adult
38. Which of the ff diseases exhibit a
normal prothrombin time with a
prolonged partial thromboplastin time?
a. Leukemia
b. Afibrinoginemia
c. Chronic liver disease
d. Athrombocytopeniapurpura
e. Factor VIII deficiency
(hemophilia)
39. Cytopathogenic effect in tissue culture
cells is used specifically for
identification of certain
a. Fungi
b. Viruses
c. Anaerobes
d. Spirochetes
e. Spore-formers
40. Which of the following is demyelinating
disease of the CNS?
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Hodgkin’s disease
41. Bacterial capsules usually consist of
a. Chitins
b. Cellulose
c. Polypeptide polysaccharides
d. Lipids
42. Esophageal varices are a common
complication of
a. Portal hypertension
b. Primary hypertension
c. Mesenteric thrombosis
d. Carcinoma of the esophagus
e. Metastatic disease of the breast
43. On the basis of histogenesis and
transition observed in clinical cases,
there appears to be a relationship
between lymphocytic lymphoma and
a. Lymphadenitis
b. Lymphoepithelioma
c. Lymphocytic leukemia
 d. Lymphocytic leukocytosis
e. None of the above
44. The bacterial population in the gingival
sulcus or the pocket that influences the
courses of periodontal disease involves
a. Mostly aerobic bacteria
b. Essentially a pure culture
c. Bacteria not indigenous to the
oral cavity
d. Essentially the same organisms
found in the healthy sulcus
e. Organisms that are not usually
found in the healthy sulcus
45. Classic hemophilia I due to a deficiency
of normal Factor VIII which in turn is
due to a genetic deficiency that is
a. Partially dominant
b. Autosomal dominant
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Sex-linked dominant
e. Sex-linked recessive
46. A rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant
neoplasm derived from
a. The nerve tissue
b. The blood vessels
c. Smooth muscle tissue
d. Striated muscle tissue
47. Which of the following drugs is likely to
aid in treating or preventing influenza in
high risk subjects during epidemics?
a. Acyclovir
b. Amantadine
c. Griseofulvin
d. Stilbamide
e. Amphotericin B
48. A reduction in acid secretion by the
stomach, an increased tendency toward
gastric carcinoma, atrophic glossitis,
and myelin degeneration in the spinal
cord are characteristics of:
a. Thalassemia
b. Agranulocytosis
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Pernicious anemia
e. Polycythemia vera
49. Histamine release from mast cells
requires
a. Antibodies (IgE) attached to
mast cells and reacting with
antigen
b. Antigen attached to mast cells
and reacting with antibody
c. Antibody (IgE) attached to mast
cells but no reaction with
antigen
d. Antigen attached to mast cells
but no reaction with antibody
e. Antibodies (IgE) not attached to
mast cells and not reacting with
antigen
50. Squamous epithelium exhibiting
acanthosis, disorganization of pattern
and atypical cells without invasion is
diagnostic of ___plasia
a. Dys
b. Neo
c. Meta
d. Hypo
e. Proso
51. Antiseptics differ from disinfectants in
that antiseptics
a. Sterilize
b. Kills pathogens
c. Are bactericidal only
d. Are bacteriostatic only
e. Are applied to living tissues
52. As opposed to loabr pneumonia,
bronchopneumonia is characterized
grossly and microscopically by
a. Inflammation of a bronchus
b. Organization of alveolar
exudates
c. A patchy, inflammatory
distribution
d. A diffuse, inflammatory
distribution
e. NOTA
53. The disease char. By radiolucent bone
lesions, anemia
hypergammaglobulinemia, and one or
more bone marrow tumors containing
predominantly plasma cells is
a. Leukemia
b. Thalassemia
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Hodgkin’s ds.
e. Pernicious anemia
54. Multinucleated giant cells of the foreign
body type originate from
a. Nuclear division of granulocytes
b. Atypical regeneration of
epithelium
c. Bone marrow with migration
into the area
d. Multiplication of nuclei in
surrounding fibrocytes
e. Fusion or nuclear division of
mononuclear cells
55. Which of the ff lab results is diagnostic
of acute pancreatitis?
a. Decreased albumin
b. Decreased serum amylase
c. Elevated serum lipase
d. Elevated serum amylase
e. Elevated alkaline phosphatase
56. Infection of the kidney is usually caused
by?
a. Septic emboli
b. Bacteria in the bloodstream
c. Traumatic introduction of
bacteria
d. Bacteria ascending from the
lower urinary tract
e. Bacteria from the large bowel
migrating to the kidney through
retroperitoneal lymphatics
57. Which of the following forms of oral
ulcerations involves oral, ocular and
genital lesions?
a. Bahcets
b. Herperiform
c. Recurrent aphthous
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
58. Striated muscles, smooth muscle, and
cardiac muscle have in common the fact
that
a. Hyperplasia of these elements
is common
b. Hypertrophy is a common
response to injury
c. They have a limited capacity to
regenerate
d. They need a constant high O2
concentration to function
e. They have an unlimited capacity
to regenerate
59. Which of the following is the most
numerous group of microorganisms in
the oral cavity
a. Enterococci
b. Anaerobic streptococci
c. Facultative streptococci
d. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
e. Aerobic streptococci
60. In which of the following mycotic
infections are the organisms
characteristically found within the
reticuloendothelial cells?
a. Candidiasis
b. Aspergillosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Histoplasmosis
e. None of the above
61. Which of the following genera most
frequently develops resistance to
penicillin?
a. Neisseria
b. Treponema
c. Actinomuces
d. Streptococcus
e. Staphylococcus
62. The earlieast changes in rheumatoid
arthtitis occur in the
a. Synovia
 b. Epiphysis b. Oat cell carcinoma
c. Attached ligament c. Pheochromocytoma
d. Attached cartilage d. Medullary carcinoma
e. Attached tendons e. Squamous cell carcinoma
63. The etiologic agent of actinomycosis in 68. Of the ff the most common site of a
man is basal cell carcinoma is the
a. Exogenous and is found in a. Tongue
infected meat b. Gingiva
b. Exogenous and requires contact c. Lower lip
with a vector d. Upper face
c. Exogenous and requires e. Oral mucosa
inhalation of spores 69. MOST viral antigens of diagnostic
d. Endogenous and is found in importance are
healthy mouths a. Lipids
e. Endogenous and is carried in b. Proteins
the lower GIT c. Nucleic acid
64. Actinomycosis is characterized by a d. Polysaccharides
____ exudates e. Lipopolysaccharides
a. Serous 70. The most common cause for
b. Purulent megaloblastic anemia is
c. Hemorrhagic a. Gastric bleeding
d. Pseudomembranous b. Lack of dietary iron
e. Fibrinous, nonpurulent c. Lack of dietary folic acid
65. A lysogenic bacterium is one that d. Lack of dietary pyroxidine
a. Lyses red cells e. Lack of absorption of vit B12
b. Produces properdin 71. Vit A functions to
c. Harbors a temperate a. Prevent pellagra
bacteriophage b. Promote absorption of calcium
d. Produces recithinase when c. Promote differentiation of
incubated anaerobically epithelial cells
e. Produces spherolpiasts when d. Maintain the integrity of
incubated anaerobically connective tissues
66. A complete blood cell count in a patient e. Maintain skin hue
with severe emphysema is most likely 72. Which of the ff cell types is associated
to show with antibody formation?
a. Anemia a. Basophil
b. Leucopenia b. Monocyte
c. Polycythemia c. Eosinophil
d. Leukocytosis d. Neutrophil
e. Macocythemia e. Plasma cell
67. The pulmonary neoplasm to which the 73. Which of the ff ds., in which
endocrine effect of gastroenteritis is the principal feature,
hyperparathyroidism is attributed is has an incubation period of 2-4 hours?
a. Adenocarcinoma a. Cholera
 b. Botulism 79. What type of epithelium lines the
c. Salmonellosis trachea?
d. Summer diarrhea a. Simple squamous ep.
e. Staphylococcal food poisoning b. Simple cuboidal ep.
74. In which of the ff mycotic infections are c. Simple columnar ep.
the organism characteristically found d. Stratified squamous ep.
microscopically within e. Pseudostratified ep.
reticuloendothelial cells? 80. What type of tissue lines blood vessels?
a. Candidiasis a. Simple squamous ep.
b. Aspergillosis b. Simple cuboidal ep.
c. Blastomycosis c. Simple columnar ep.
d. Histoplasmosis d. Stratified squamous ep.
e. Sclerosis e. Transitional ep.
75. Which of the ff conditions is suggested 81. What type of epithelium is more than
in a patient with nausea and vomiting, one layer thick?
pigmentation of the oral mucosa and a. Simple
skin, hypotension, and asthenia? b. Stratified
a. Myxedema c. Squamous
b. Pineal tumor d. Cuboidal
c. Grave’s ds. e. Columnar
d. Addison’s ds. 82. What do you call a tissue composed of a
e. Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome conglomeration of cells which are
76. Which of the ff has been shown to have tightly packed together, yet which does
a relationship to carcinoma of the not have a free surface? An example of
cervix? such a tissue would be the parenchyma
a. Papovavirus of the adrenal gland.
b. Varicella-zoster virus a. Epithelioid tissue
c. Herpesvirus hominis type I b. Mesothelium
d. Herpesvirus hominis type II c. Endothelium
e. NOTA d. Transitional
77. A pt with which of the ff diseases is pre- e. Pseudostratified
disposed to develop osteosarcoma? 83. What type of epithelium appears
a. Osteomalacia stratified but is not?
b. Osteopetrosis a. Epithelioid ts.
c. Paget’s ds of the bone b. Mesothelium
d. Osteogenesis imperfect c. Endothelium
e. Osteomyelitis d. Transitional
78. Organisms belonging to which of the ff e. Pseudostratified
genera can tolerate the lowest pH? 84. Which of the ff is lined by a mucosa?
a. Veillonella a. Peritoneal cavity
b. Bacteroides b. Pericardial cavity
c. Streptococcus c. Pleural cavity
d. Lactobacillus d. Alimentary canal
e. Staphylococcus e. AOTA
85. What type of gland secretes its product a. Microvilli
directly into the bloodstream? b. Stereocilia
a. Endocrine gland c. Cilia
b. Multicellular gland d. Keratinization
c. Exocrine gland e. Both A & B
d. AOTA 92. Wht is another term for an acinar
e. NOTA gland?
86. What is a gland called if it has an a. Simple gland
unbranched duct? b. Compound gland
a. Simple gland c. Tubular
b. Compound gland d. Alveolar
c. Tubular e. Tubuloalveolar
d. Alveolar 93. What is a characteristic of the cells in
e. Tubuloalveolar the epidermis of the skin?
87. What is a gland called if the secretory a. Microvilli
portion is tube shaped ending in a flask b. Stereocilia
shaped area at the terminus? c. Cilia
a. Simple gland d. Keratinization
b. Compound gland e. Both A & B
c. Tubular 94. Which of the ff is a unicellular gland?
d. Alveolar a. Squamous cell
e. Tubuloalveolar b. Goblet cell
88. What is the surface modification seen c. Basal cell
on the cells of the epididymis? d. Basket cell
a. Microvilli e. Sertoli cell
b. Stereocilia 95. Which of the ff is NOT lined by a
c. Cilia serosa?
d. Keratinization a. Peritoneal cavity
e. Both A & B b. Pericardial cavity
89. What type of epithelium forms the c. Pleural cavity
epidermis? d. Respiratory tract
a. Simple squamous ep. e. AOTA
b. Simple cuboidal ep. 96. What type of epithelium has dome
c. Simple columnar ep. shaped cells on the apical surface?
d. Stratified squamous ep. a. Epithelioid ts.
e. Pseudostratified ep. b. Mesothelium
90. What type of tissue composes the c. Endothelium
kidney tubules? d. Transitional
a. Simple squamous ep. e. Pseudostratified
b. Simple cuboidal ep. 97. What type of epithelial cells are taller
c. Simple columnar ep. than they are wide?
d. Stratified squamous ep. a. Simple
e. Transitional ep. b. Stratified
91. What forms the striated border? c. Squamous
 d. Cuboidal
e. Columnar
98. What type of epithelium is one cell
layer thick?
a. Simple
b. Stratified
c. Squamous
d. Cuboidal
e. Columnar

99. What type of tissue lines the

esophagus?
a. Simple squamous ep.
b. Simple cuboidal ep.
c. Simple columnar ep.
d. Stratified squamous ep.
e. Transitional ep.

100. Cementoblastoma:
a. True cementoma
b. Very common to male
c. Mandibular post. Region
d. A&B
e. A&C