1. Who is the second in command in the PNP.

DEPUTY CHIEF OF THE PNP FOR ADMINISTRATION

2. What is the equivalent rank of the chief of the directorial staff of the PNP in the AFP?
A. Colonel
B. Brigadier general
C. Major general
D. Lieutenant general
E. General

3. Patrolman bangyay was promoted to police sergeant on November 13, 2000. Assuming that he was promoted to
police staff sergeant on time and considering the mandatory time-in-grade, when can he be qualified to be
promoted to police master sergeant. ON OR AFTER NOVEMBER 13, 2023

4. Which of the following is not one of the minimum requirements for PNP applicants?
A. None of these
B. Must not have been convicted by final judgment of an offense or crime involving moral turpitude
C. Must be at least 1.62 meters in height for male and 1.57 meters for female
D. Must weight not more or less than five kg (5kg) from the standard weight corresponding to his her height,
age, and sex

5. What is the principle of police organization which requires that levels of authority shall be kept to minimum.
SPAN OF CONTROL

6. All but one are the advantages of a Line type police organization
A. None of these
B. The simplicity of the structure
C. Promotion of division of work to specific police units with one officer in charge having complete control which
makes him responsible or accountable for the results
D. Quick decision can be made because of the direct lines authority, and because these direct lines, each
member in the chain of command knows to whom he is accountable and who is accountable for him

7. All are national offices in the PNP organization, except-

A. 10 staff directorates
B. Inspector general
C. Operational units
D. Administrative support units
E. None of these

8. The municipality of grandia has a total of 32 police officers. The number of police officers in that municipality is
based on 1:750 average police-to-population ratio. What is the approximate population of the municipality. 24,
000
9. Under the provisions of RA 6975, who among the following is qualified for enlistment in the PNP. WYLER

10. In the preceding item, what is the training completed by PCol Pang-et for his Police Brigadier General
promotion? B AND C

11. The following are some of the factors to determine the most qualified and most capable candidates to be
promoted, except. NONE OF THESE
12. The actual police strength by cities and municipalities shall depend on the, except. CAPABILITY OF THE
MUNICIPALITY OR CITY

13. Which of the following statement concerning the promotion policy of the PNP is incorrect. NO MEMBER OF THE
PNP SHALL BE ELIGIBLE FOR PROMOTION UNLESS HE HAS BEEN CLEARED BYTHE PLEBB OF COMPPLAINTS
PROFFERED AGAINST IM, IF ANY.

14. Mr. Manny Pacquiao. A namesake of the Filipino boxing hero, was born in 1985. He took 12 years to finish his BS
Criminology because of poverty. If his application in the PNP will be denied, which would be the possible cause
of rejection. HE IS PAST THE AGE QUALIFICATION

15. the directorate for personnel and records management has the following divisions, except GENERAL DOCTRINE
DEVELOPMENT

16. Who conducts periodic announced, scheduled as well as unannounced, unscheduled or “spot” inspector of all
PNP units, offices, commands and stations to determine defects and irregularities, effect corrections and
recommend to the Chief, PNP and all concerned, the appropriate measures and action on the deficiencies and
irregularities noted?
A. Inspector general’s office
B. NAPOLCOM
C. Internal affairs office
D. PLEB
E. All of these

17. The one having supervisory responsibilities, either temporarily or permanently, over offices of lower rank is
called. SUPERIOR OFFICER

18. The fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty, such as a designated desk or office or an
intersection or cross walk from traffic duty is called –
A. Route
B. Beat
C. Post
D. Sector
E. area
19. What is reffered to as the functional unit within a division that is necessary for specialization. SECTION

20. What is the basic police mission?

A. To protect life and properties
B. To enforce the law
C. To serve the community by enforcing laws of the land
D. To preserve order by enforcing rules of conduct or laws
E. All of these

21. Few years before the lord jesus Christ, augustus formed the “Vigiles” of rome, a group of over 2,000 men, armed
with staves and short swords, whose duty was to. KEEP THE PEACE AND FIGHT FIRES

22. This law introduced the system of watch and ward, a watch was stationed between sunset and sunrise at each
gate of a walled town. It revived the hue and cry. STATUTE OF WINSCHESTER
23. The first watchmen in America were called. RATTLEWATCH

24. Regular license to exercise profession…..REGULAR LICENSE TO OPERATE

25. What is the process of assigning information or material, one of the four security categories after determination
has been made that the information requires the security protection as provided. CLASSIFY

26. What is the act of emphasizing the importace and roleof security in achieving the company goals and objectives
by securing employee cooperation and support. SECURITY PROMOTION

27. What is the act of changing the assigned classification from classified information or matter?
A. None of these
B. Upgrading
C. Reclassifying
D. Declassify
E. Compartmentation

28. What is the badge or coded pass issued to an employee which gives him authorization to enter at specific areas
in the establishment. SINGLE PASS SYSTEM

29. What is the English term used to denote a lock picker. PETERMAN

30. The weakest link in the security chain of an organization refers to. PERSONNEL

31. Which among the following is a not a factor to be considered in background investigation?
a. Loyalty
b. revenge
c. Integrity
d. Moral
e. Ethics

32. What is the basic mission of the guard force?…..PROTECT ALL THE PROPERTY WITHIN THE LIMITS OF THE
FACILITY

33. A planned and organized determination of facts concerning specific loss or damage of assets due to threats,
hazards or unsecured conditions is called. SECURITY INVESTIGATION

34. Compartmentation or decentralization of risk to limit the impact of the potential loss refers to-..RISK SPREADING

35. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent entry into a buding, room, container
or hiding. This refers to LOCKS

36. The exclusive right to patent protection expires after 17 YEARS

37. A type of protective alarm wherein the currency activation devices are placed in the teller’s cash drawer and
connected to the alarm system using a wire connector. This is
A. Foot rail activator
 B. Foot button
C. Bill traps
D. Knee or thigh button

38. Information concerning document, cryptographic devices, developed projects and materials following the
categories of Top Secret, Secret, Confidential and Restricted. This refers to
a. Classified matter
b. Asset
c. Classified information
d. Proprietary information

39. A type of security hazard which can be in the form of rumor mongering, propaganda, undermining morale, and
injecting defeatist attitudes, and other emotional approaches. This refers to SUBVERSION

40. A type of inspection which is usually preceded by an announcement and the unit under inspection prepares for
events, including some extra housekeeping activities that would not otherwise happen at that point in time. This
is called FORMAL INSPECTION

41. A typeof inspection which is on-going and never ending activity. This is called CONTINOUS INSPECTION

42. A type of lock that can be opened by pressing a series of numbered buttons in the proper sequence. CODE-
OPEARATED LOCK

43. What metallic container is used for the safekeeping of documents or small items in an office or installation. SAFE

44. What is the process of inspecting or examining with carefu thoroughness. POSITIVE VETTING
45. Writing a memorandum refers to the process of-
a. Classification
b. Disposition
c. Creation
d. Retention

46. A complete and accurate observation by an individual of his surroundings and encompasses the use of all the
major senses to register and recognized its operational significance is called…OBSERVATION

47. The actual and factual reporting of one’s observation of the reported sensory experience is called. DESCRIPTION

48. Casing assist the intelligence officer instill confidence by

A. Being able to speak knowingly about the area of operation
B. Insuring security measure for the opeartives
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

49. When several men are assigned to a “group” tail, each man maintains
a. Contact with the subject
b. Reason to be there
c. Same conveyance
d. Losing the subject
e. All of these
50. A cover that is general in nature and permanently adopted to explain the presence in any given area is called
a. Cover for action
b. Cover for status
c. Natural cover
d. Artificial cover
e. Official cover
51. Cover which may either be civilian or military must meet the following requiremts except. PROVIDDE ADEQUATE
LEISURE TIME

52. Miss Valerie Tumtumba witnessed a certain crime and that she immediately reported the same to the police
force. What type of informants she is?..NONE OF THESE

53. This refers to all organs of every security system whose task is to prevent intelligence activity in a given area.
This is
a. Friendly forces
b. Escapees and evacuees
c. Active opposition
d. Odex
e. None of these

54. Which of the following is not a method of tailing. OPERATIVE METHOD

55. It is an item of intelligence or information of the characteristics of the area of operation and the enemy which
the commander feels he needs before he can reasonably arrive at a decision. This is …PWET

56. The kind of intelligence which is geared to destroy any plans and possible attacks of the enemy is called
COUNTER INTELLIGENCE

57. This refers to the controlled group of people who work through the direction of the agent handler. This is called
a. Information net
b. Intelligence assets
c. Informant net
d. Intelligence community
e. Information broker

58. In the intelligence jargo, if the surveillant does not know the whereabouts of his subject, thi is termes as NONE
OF THESE

59. The organization of raw data and information into usable form and group this to related items is called -
a. Recording
b. Management
c. Evaluation
d. Deduction
e. Collection

60. What is the reduction of information into writing or some other form of graphical representation and arranging
this into related items?
 a. Interpretation
b. Recording
c. Collection
d. Analysis
e. Integration

61. What is the classifications of an agent who actually leads other agent who actually leadsother agent in the area
of operatio. PRINCIPAL AGENT

62. What is the classification of an agent who is actually the doer of the intelligence operation in the area of
operation?
a. Infiltration
b. Recruitment
c. Penetration
d. Spotting
e. All of these

63. This refers to a person who gives information to the police in consideration of money, price or reward.
INFORMER

64. The accomplice or associate of the subject used to avoid or allude the surveillance is called. CONVOY

65. A person who conducts surveillance which includes but not limited to observation is called SURVEILLANT

66. It is the reconnaissance or surveillance of a building place or area to determine its suitability for intelligence use
or its vulnerability in operations. NONE OF THESE

67. A device in the conduct of elicitation which implies the process of setting people to start talking is called
APPROACH

68. A broad design, method and plan to attain a stated goal or objectives refers to STRATEGY

69. Incremental planning….ADVOCACY PLANNING

70. What principles states that the responsibility for actions cannot be greater than that implied by the authority
delegated nor should it be less. PRINCIPLES OF PARITY AND RESPONSIBILITY

71. A model in planning which relies heavily on the problem identification and analysis of the planning process
refers to…INCREMENTAL
72. A reason for strategic planning wherein organizational divisions require their own strategies but these strategies
must complement one another and support the department’s strategies.
a. Vision
b. Long-range thinking
c. Congruence
d. Strateggic focus
e. None of thes
73. What doctrine includes the principles and rules governing the planning, organization and direction and
employment of the PNP forces in the accomplishmet of basic security operationala mission. OPERATIONAL
DOCTRINE

74. What is the vertical hierarchy of the organization which defines an unbroken chain of scale of units from top to
bottom describing explicity the flow of authority. SCALAR PRINCIPLE

75. A reason for strategic planning which in turn guides those choices that determines the natures and direction of
the organization is STRATEGIC FRAMEWORK

76. A form of selecting preferred alternatives wherein its purpose is that the alternative chosen should maximize the
ratio of benefit to cost.
a. Cost effective analysis
b. Cost-performance analysis
c. All of these
d. Cost benefit analysis
e. Efficiency

77. What type of approach to planning consider problems as too difficult when they grouped together and easier to
solve when they are taken one at a time and broken down into gradual adjustments overtime? ..INCREMENTAL
PLANNING

78. What police doctrine provides guidance for specialized activities of the PNP in the broad field of interest such as
personnel, intelligence, operations, logistics, planning and others…FUNCTIONAL DOCTRINE

79. A principle which states that subordinate should be under the control of only one superior.
a. Delegation of authority
b. Chain of command
c. Span f control
d. Unity of command

80. A product of prudence or wisdom in the management of human affairs. POLICY

81. Establishment of a goal that does not address a specific problem makes sense. FALSE

82. The Rules of Engagement of the PNP is an example of -

a. fundamental doctrine
b. functional doctrine
c. Operational doctrine
d. All of the above

83. Which is the basic police mission that was the same in ancient societies as it is today in sophisticated urban
communities?
a. Apprehension of criminal offenders
b. Detection and investigation of crimes
c. Preserving order by enforcing laws
d. Secure personal and public properties
e. C and D
84. What was the ancient system of apprehending criminal practiced during the Anglo-Saxon period whereby a
complaint goes to the middle of the community and shout for help calling all male residents to assemble and go
after an offender? HUE AND CRY

85. Installing street lights, assigning house numbers and conceiving street signs were significant ideas for better
patrolling. These were contributed by the FRENCH

86. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing
them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
a. Low profile theory
b. High visibility
c. Theory of police omnipresence
d. Team policing
e. None of these

87. In checking occupants of residential buildings, business establishments, and dark alleys, the best method to use
is the……RANDOM FOOT PATROL
88. If foot patrol method requires a large number of personnel, then this serves as an advantage in the management
of police organization. This statement is
a. True
b. False
c. Categorical
d. Absolutely false
e. None of these
89. Among the various patrol methods, which method provides the maximum mobility and stealth to individual
patrol officers. BICYCLE PATROL

90. One significant modern feature of state-of-the-art patrol cars today is the vehicle-mounted TV. This is
actually ...VIDEO CAMERA WITH A WIDE-ANGLE LENS

91. Compared to human’s ability to smell, a dog is capable of recognizing an odor

a. 10 thousand times
b. 10 million times
c. 10 billion times
d. 100, 000 times
92. • In terms of human resource and equipment, which patrol method is more economical?
a. Automobile patrol
b. Bicycle patrol
c. Helicopter patrol
d. Foot patrol
e. A and B
93. The patrol method that can provide the patrol officers with greater safety and physical security and more
available equipment while maintaining average contact to the public is –
a. Bike patrol
b. Horse patrol
c. Helicopter patrol
d. Automobile patrol
e. B and C
94. All but one has the rank of Police Lieutenant General –
 a. Deputy for administration
b. Deputy for operation
c. Chief, directorial staff
d. NCRPO director
e. None of these
95. Are there how many Regional directors under the PNP set-up as stipulated by RA 6975?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
e. 14
96. Which of the following is considered as the backbone of police operations?
a. Both B and C
b. Police patrol
c. Police communications
d. Police planning
e. Police intelligence
97. The ABC’s of police radio communications stands for: A for Accuracy; B for Brevity; and C for –
a. Courtesy
b. Clarity
c. Comprehension
d. All of these
e. Continuity
98. Police offices normally assign codes for relayed information. Code 2 stands for -
a. Urgent
b. Emergeny
c. Routine call
d. None of these
e. Ditress call
99. Among the following, who is an ex-officio member of the NAPOLCOM?
a. Secretary of DILG
b. C/PNP
c. Regular commissioner from the private sector
d. The woman commissioner
e. None of these
100. Any PNP member who shall be dismissed under a waiver program, once he possesses already the
minimum qualifications, shall
a. Be eligible to re-apply for appointment to the PNP
b. Not eligible to re-apply for appointment to the PNP
c. Be eligible for re-appointment but has to undergo again the police basic training course
d. Not be eligible for-reappointment, however, he or she may apply in other government agencies
e. None of these

Criminal Detection and Investigation (CDI) (bs)

1. Solvents, paints and gasoline are sniffed to obtained intoxication and they are called?
a. depressants
b. energizer
c. inhalants
d. tranquilizers

2. What mechanical device employs an explosives break the agent container and disseminate the agent?
a. spraying
b. bursting
c. break
d. vectors

3. The penalty of life imprisonment to death and a fine ranging from P500, 000 to P10, 000.00 shall be
imposed to?
a. any of the employee of a prohibited drug den, dive or resort
b. none of the above
c. any person manufactures any of the dangerous drug
d. any person who shall knowingly visit any prohibited drug den

4. What is the first step for an investigator in bomb threats for the purpose of vehicular security?
a. check the doors for entrances
b. lock at the window for an extra-ordinary objects
c. call the EOD office
d. put head inside half and check

5. An attribute of a good police investigator

a. works for the conviction of the accused
b. dispassionate and cool
c. dedicated and focus
d. sufficient knowledge of a variety of professions

6. Investigating the act which a person unlawfully take the life of a person is called?
a. parricide
b. homicide investigation
c. murder
d. homicide

7. The type of question when the subject only knows the correct?
a. peak of tension test
b. guilt complex test
c. yes or no
d. card test

8. What does CBI means in intelligence work?

a. Comprehensive Background Investigation
b. Complete Background Investigation
c. Criminal Background Investigation
d. Crime Basic Intelligence

9. In disaster management when you learn about typhoons and other weather condition there sign and
warnings in what cycle you enraged?
a. mitigating
b. inside
c. outside
d. outside
e. response

10. Withdrawal syndrome is illegal drugs control

a. abstinence
b. physical reaction
c. dependence
d. addict
11. Which of the following is not a potential terrorist target?
a. insurgency affected areas
b. rebel ridden area
c. communication and power instillation
d. deception

12. Signs off showing the point of origin of the fire is?
a. deeper charring
b. presence of amber
c. alligatoring pattern
d. fire trail

13. What is the proper technique in packing evidence

a. pack and tag
b. pack and mark
c. pack separately
d. pack collectively

14. Which of the following police function is not a tool in investigation but rather pre-empts and its sense
encompasses it?
a. interrogation
b. interview
c. information
d. intelligence
15. Which has a physical symptoms of loss of appetite, anxiety, tremor and most elevation?
a. hallucinogen
b. barbiturates
c. marijuana
d. amphetamine

16. Adverse effects of drugs that can go for an extended period of time is called?
a. gradual effects
b. progressive term
c. long term
d. short term

17. Withdrawal syndrome simply means

a. euphoria
b. epilepsy
c. ecstasy
d. cold turkey

18. A carbon tracing method used in committing forgery

a. placing carbon under genuine instrument
b. slow painstaking movement
c. it is not a writing but slow drawing
d. examination under low power microscope

19. Which of the following can best present a photograph of a bullet hole to be presented as evidence
a. enlarged
b. untouched
c. chalk marked
d. narrowed

20. What age is competent to non-credible information?

a. 12
b. 9
c. 18
d. 16

21. What is the most appreciated intelligence technique enforced by former Pres. Gloria Macapagal Arroyo
in combat in terrorism?
a. incident management
 b. all of the above
c. target hardening
d. intelligence sharing

22. What kind of flood is caused by highly intensity rainfall and collapse of dam?
a. disaster
b. river
c. flashflood
d. coastal flood

23. The technique use in the interrogation depends on

a. mutt and jeff method
b. emotional approach
c. stern approach
d. character of the subject

24. It refers to an event that results to injuries and casualties of people and investments
a. disaster
b. fortuitous event
c. emergency
d. crisis

25. When penalized under Republic Act 6425 with a penalty of Reclusion Perpetua and a fine of P500 000
TO P10 000,000?
a. Drug den owner
b. possession of drug paraphernalia
c. Juan issued unlawful prescription
d. Pedro who maintained chemical laboratories

26. Flashpoint is a ____ in which flammable liquids or vapor air ignites

a. pressure
b. temperature
c. flame
d. heat

27. In homicide cases, which of the following is more open to errors?**

a. protection and preservation of crime scene
b. searching of credible witness
c. victims time of death
d. identification of perpetrator

28. The quantum of evidence in criminal cases is called?

a. all of the above
b. prepondence of evidence
c. proof beyond reasonable doubt
d. burden of proof

29. Which among the following are depressant?

a. cocaine
b. MJ
c. morphine
d. LSD
30. Lahar refers to
a. Shabu
b. Cocaine
c. None of these
d. MJ

31. Final result of the preliminary Investigation done by public prosecutor is

a. resolution
b. judgment
c. none of these
d. decision
32. Meaning of latin word i.e
a. sanie reference
b. for example
c. none of these
d. same biblio

33. Street name of MJ

a. pen
b. heaven
c. Indian hemp
d. crystal

34. What is the method of safe breaking by battering the top, bottom, and sides with the use of metal
cutter?
a. blasting
b. zipping
c. kipping
d. ripping

35. ___
a. Madonna
b. Dragon
c. Bruce
d. Sharon

36. Pen is also known as?

a. pen
b. barbiturates
c. cocaine
d. opium

37. Lahar is known as

a. cocaine
b. poor quality shabu
c. opium
d. marijuana

38. What is the center of crime scene reconstruction?

a. interpretation of physical patterns
b. knowledge of what happened
c. admission of guilt
d. time when it happened

39. Transfer of heat through air motion refers to

a. convection
b. radiation
c. conduction
d. direct contact

40. Solid fine particles

a. fire gases
b. heat
c. smoke
d. flame

41. The best way to identify a vehicle

a. make
b. model
c. plate number
d. year

42. What kind of crime scene sketch is completed and with scale?
 a. draft
b. smooth
c. finish
d. rough

43. Ergot is classified as

a. heroin
b. LSD
c. none of these
d. morphine

44. Phenobarbital seconal, Nembutal are

a. metallic poison
b. use for losing weight
c. derived from opium
d. sleeping pills or sedatives

45. The common problem encountered by law enforcement officers during kidnap for ransom case is
a. no suno sufficient fund raiser for the ransom
b. non-contact with the criminal
c. noncooperation of the victims kin
d. none of the above

46. It is the form of physical evidence that connects the criminal with the offense
a. tracing
b. circumstantial
c. associative
d. Corpus delicti

47. It refers to any person who sells and administers drugs

a. user
b. buyer
c. drug addict
d. pusher

48. Which of the following programs of the government can generate cooperation from complaint and
witnesses?
a. witness protection program
b. enhancing police civilian report
c. strengthening for police and media relation

49. Who is the father of medicine

a. Socrates
b. Aristotle
c. Hypocrites
d. Plato

50. The effectiveness of traffic engineering includes the following except?

a. vehicles and its loads
b. road itself
c. traffic enforcer
d. road users

51. Usual entrance of robbers

a. ceiling
b. open door entry
c. window entry
d. jumping

52. The fire hose is attached to

a. nozzle
b. cylindrical meta
c. hydrant
 d. hose reet

53. It supports fly ladder once its raised

a. rugs
b. staff
c. panish
d. brace

54. if heroin is fit, morphine in the street is known as

a. ice
b. monkey
c. snow
d. staff

55. Slung term of marijuana cigarette is?

a. June
b. butt
c. acid
d. joint

56. Most common and affordable drugs

a. none of these
b. opium
c. cocaine
d. marijuana

57. The basic color of traffic sign

a. red, yellow, brown
b. red, yellow, green
c. red, yellow, orange
d. red, yellow, blue

58. gambling prostitution and drug addiction are classified as

a. serious crimes
b. victimless crime
c. heinous crime
d. economic crime

59. opium was first harvested in

a. Thailand
b. middle east
c. America
d. Asia

60. What is the scientific name of opium

a. ergot
b. papaver sumniferum
c. cannabis saliva lima
d. hashish

61. It refers to the release energy before reaction takes place

a. oxidation
b. solid particles
c. exothermic reaction
d. endothermic reaction

62. It is the contract between people and its government whereby the government is obliged to protect
and provide safety of the people by passing laws and in turn the people will abide it.
a. Social Agreement
b. Social Order
c. Social Theory
d. Social Contract
63. A means of taking out confession by letting the accused swallow a hot iron rod refers to
a. trial by publicity
b. trial by drowning
c. trial by ordeal by hot iron
d. trial by boiling

64. If no type lines appear, there should be

a. no delta
b. core
c. bifurcation
d. delta

65. What must be done first during comparison of handwritings?

a. none of these
b. observe the general appearance or peculiarities
c. observe similarities
d. observe the contrast

66. What should a newly assigned detective develop during the first year of his job?
a. ability on public relations
b. effective methods of interview
c. skill in transportation of evidence
d. rapport with his co-workers

67. Which among the following is the least timid witness?

a. helper
b. farmer
c. professional teacher
d. foreigner

68. In most questioned document cases, they are concerned with

a. the document’s age
b. locating the typewriter
c. proving authorship
d. disproving alibis

69. A personal account about another person or to a controversial issue is a public inquiry. This refers to
a. standard
b. disputed
c. opinion
d. all of the above

70. the person who can attest the cause of death is the
a. priest
b. medico legal
c. officer in charge
d. police officer in charge
71. What is the best way in identifying a suspect
a. questioned document examination
b. fingerprinting
c. autopsy
d. voice analysis

72. Physical evidence that can be lifted at the crime scene or located at another place is called
a. movable evidence
b. destroyed evidence
c. immovable evidence
d. tracing evidence

73. The result of the Preliminary investigation of the prosecutor is known as

a. decision
b. informant
c. judgment
 d. resolution

74. The first action taken by the investigator upon arriving at the crime scene in homicide is
a. interviewing witnesses
b. verification of death
c. searching the crime scene
d. identification of a witness

75. The headquarters of the Bureau of Fire Protection is located at

a. Camp Castaneda
b. Quezon city
c. Canlubang, laguna
d. RSBS Pasig, MM

76. Gray smoke indicated the material being burned is

a. humid materials
b. straw and hay
c. potassium
d. nitrocellulose

77. When will an accuse file a motion to quash an information or complaint

a. none of these
b. before he enter his plea
c. after arraignment
d. after he enter his plea
78. Which of the following is a classification of organized crime?
a. God father
b. corporate crime
c. bureaucratic structured
d. chain of command

79. What was he first thing to be done by the first responder upon arrival at the crime scene
a. save human life
b. secure the scene
c. photograph
d. all of these

80. Marijuana is also termed as

a. snow
b. jutes
c. stuff
d. coke

81. What is the event which causes injury to person or damage to property
a. hazard
b. emergency
c. road accident
d. fortuitous event

82. What kind of driver shows complete disregarding of others, aggressive, important and selfish
a. vociferous
b. egoistic
c. emotional
d. defensive

83. What is the bending of light because of changing of the velocity?

a. be infringe
b. refraction
c. radial fracture
d. none of the above

84. What is “infra”

a. below
 b. bottom
c. above
d. middle

85. What human sense is considered to be objective

a. hear
b. sight
c. touch
d. smell
86. What permanent of oxygen is needed in order to initiate combustion?
a. 30 %
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. 15%

87. Which of the following is not part of the pre-investigation?

a. securing the crime scene
b. documenting the crime scene
c. weighting the evidence
d. arresting person

88. What is the frequent disguise used by bank robbers?

a. sun glasses
b. wigs
c. hats
d. hoods

89. In the RPC, it refers to the breaking and entering to the house or building with felonious intent
a. lacery
b. robbery
c. burglary
d. homicide

90. Lysergic acid (LSD) is an example of

a. solvent
b. hallucinogen
c. stimulant
d. depressant

91. Why Philippines do has the weak response in terrorism in 2001?

a. all of these
b. poor intelligence
c. light sentence
d. lack of utility

92. What kind of photograph is to be gather clockwise after completing four general view of the crime
scene?
a. none of these
b. environment
c. overall
d. close up

93. Which of the following evidence must be gathered in a fatal motor vehicle crush
a. spare tire
b. all of the above
c. the skid marks of a vehicle
d. foot wear of the driver

94. Conduction of the heat is due to

a. air
b. electromagnetic wave
c. smoke
d. solid materials
 95. The term “burn out” as used by firearm means most nearly as?
a. the showing of the flames of the exterior of the building
b. that the interior of the building room or apartment Is completely guttered by fire
c. the whole family was wiped out or burned beyond recognition
d. the fire has fizzled out with complete combustion of available material

96. When an investigator secures sufficient fact to prove upon trial that the building was burned and that
such burning resulted from the intentional criminal act for some person, then the investigator has
establish
a. sufficient facts to close out the case
b. strong case to file in court
c. corpus delicti
d. a prima facie case

97. whether or not a victim was dead before a fire occurred, this question is to be determined by
a. The chief chemist investigator
b. the fire officer-in-charge
c. medico legal officer performing the post-mortem examination
d. arson investigator
98. A killed B in a very dark alley not knowing that B was his son. A should be charged for
a. homicide
b. murder
c. parricide
d. impossible crime
99. A handled his necklace to B for safekeeping while A was engaged his occupational work as carpenter.
Upon completion of A’s work, he asked B of his necklace. But instead of returning the necklace to A, B
pawned it in Cebuano Pawnshop for P200, 000. Upon knowing this, A immediately went to
a. estafa
b. only civility liable
c. qualified theft
d. no criminal liability
100. The generally accepted method of obtaining evidence against established gambling joint is by the use of
a. observation from vintage point
b. police operation
c. citizen’s complaint
d. surprise attack
101. An example of the category of the so-called leisure crime is
a. gambling
b. rape
c. estafa
d. bigamy
102. A dying declaration is admissible
a. by a convict about to be electrocuted where the declaration was made relative to a homicide for
which defendant is how being-
b. in a criminal case punishable by death where declarant later recovered although at time of the
declaration he believed himself about to die
c. only in a case of homicide where circumstances producing attending the death are the subject of
the declaration
d. in a criminal case punishable by death those declarant subsequently dies
103. The admission of guilt of a defendant may be brought out by showing that
a. the accused after having been taken into custody failed to contradict the charges levied against him
b. the defendant was disinterested for the outcome of the case
c. the defendant failed to make a statement in his own behalf
d. a co-conspiring with the defendant
104. A confession of a crime by defendant is not sufficient to warrant his conviction unless
a. it can be shown that the confession was made voluntarily
b. there are some other evidences of the corpus delicti
c. there are other corroborating witness
d. real evidence is shown to prove facts involve
105. The best evidence rule id applied to
a. eyewitness testimony
b. documents
 c. oral testimony
d. judicial notice
106. The word intent to commit a crime is known as
a. no answer text provided
b. specific intent
c. criminal intent
d. general intent
107. The presentation of an object in which the testimony refers for personal observation by the
court is known
a. direct evidence
b. indirect evidence
c. real/demonstrative evidence
d. circumstantial evidence
108. The main objective of due process if law is to
a. provide a standardized method for carrying the laws of the land
b. to guarantee religious freedom and free speech to everyone
c. establish clientele for the law profession
d. protect persons from the arbitrary actions of authorizes that would unlawfully deprived any person
of his guaranteed rights
109. Patrolman Cruz caught A selling shabu to B. He then arrested A and B and confiscated the
shabu. Thereafter Patrolman Cruz sold the shabu to his friend C. The crime committed by Patrolman
Cruz is
a. violation of dangerous drug law
b. theft
c. violation of anti-fencing law
d. robbery
110. Records of previous fines are of interest to a detective investigating an arson case as such data
a. is of little importance
b. may show a possible motive
c. indicates person who are __
d. assist in determining who had the opportunity to set the fire
111. A technique useful in investigation is the instrumental detection if deception is what test
a. ballistic test
b. polygraph testing
c. questioned document test
d. fingerprint test
112. Any event that results in unintended injury or properly damage attributed directly or indirectly
to the action of motor vehicle
a. motor vehicle accident
b. motor transportation way
c. motor vehicle traffic accident
d. non motor vehicle traffic accident
113. Bilious refers to
a. dreary
b. bad tempered
c. puffed out
d. wealthy
114. A standard arrow to designate the north must be indicate to facilitate proper orientation
a. map
b. window
c. compass direction
d. wind mill
115. Drugs that produce perceptual alternation, varying emotion change ego direction and thought
disruption
a. tranquilizers
b. stimulants
c. depressants
d. hallucinogen
116. With respect to the minor traffic violations, the traffic police officers should be guided foremost
by the consideration that
a. the aim is to discourage violators
b. some traffic violation are intended
c. violators must be punished
 d. same traffic violators are caused by negligence
117. The profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition, identification
individualization and evaluation of physical science by application of natural sciences in matters of law
and science
a. criminalistics
b. chemist
c. toxicologist
d. scientist
118. The number of person who handled the evidence from the scene of the crime and between the
time of the commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the case refers to
a. time of disposition
b. time of custody
c. time of disposal
d. chain of custody
119. In dental examination, location of the teeth position and the _______ are the main
considerations in the examination?
a. direction
b. prosthesis
c. root canal
d. prosthesis & indonisis
120. How should an information gathered through an informant source be treated by the
investigator?
a. It should be cross checked and metted to a case worthy for prosecution
b. it should be supported with different investigative technique
c. it should be surveillance
d. it should be supported with affidavits
121. Speed means
a. amphetamine
b. marijuana
c. alcohol
d. LSD
122. Tribadism takes place between
a. woman and woman
b. man
c. man and animal
d. man and woman
123. Indecent exposure of a woman sex organ
a. exhibitionism
b. sodomy
c. nymphomania
d. satyriasis
124. It is the unlawful and deliberate exposure of a woman’s private part
a. exhibitionism
b. sodomy
c. satyriasis
d. coporodelia
125. In disaster management when you learn about typhoons and other weather disturbances their
signs and warnings? In what phase are you engaged in?
a. preparedness
b. recovery
c. mitigation
d. response
126. A ski mask was used by a robber, what kind of aggravation circumstance?
a. disguise
b. treachery
c. craft
d. abuse of suspect strength
127. Constant temperature refers to
a. ignition point
b. flash point
c. boiling point
d. fire point
128. A fire “plant” is
 a. the material places around the ignition devices in arson cases to feed the flames of the initial
fire
b. a red flowering garden plant
c. a fluid fire accelerant
d. the trailer which leads the fire to various portion of the building
129. What is the first and foremost motive to consider in a suspected arson
a. pyromania
b. profit
c. revenge
d. to prove to himself that he can do the job
130. A fire apparatus has a rank with 330,000 gallons of water and pumps water into the fire at a
rate of 200 gallons per minute. About how long will the water supply last?
a. 120 minutes
b. 90 minutes
c. 150 minutes
d. 130 minutes
131. Flammable liquids are generally heavier than air and tend to
a. accumulate at any point
b. seek out low points when spilled
c. decomposes rapidly
d. spread out slowly
132. Homicidal hangings without external marks of violence dare
a. not common
b. rare
c. common
d. impossible
133. The greatest impetus to organized crime is achieved though the
a. strong leadership of criminal gangs
b. bribery of law enforcement officers
c. participation in illegal activities by responsible respectable citizens
d. infiltration of criminals into the ranks of law enforcement
134. A chemical substance which affects a person in such a way as to bring about physiological,
emotional or behavioral change
a. alcohol
b. marijuana
c. coca leaf
d. drug

PLEASE VERIFY LAHAT NG NAKA-HIGHLIGHT AND PROVIDE ANSWERS SA MGA HINDI NALAGYAN NG MGA
ANSWER.

YELLOW – ANSWERS FROM OUR SOURCE

GREEN- OWN ANSWERS

1. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of the skin, it maybe ascertained that it is at near
contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is approximately,
a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches

2. Friction skin on our palms contains our fingerprints. They were called so as friction skin because they
a. assist in our ability to grasp and hold onto objects
b. help moisturize our skin
c. contribute to the softness of our touch
d. control our hand movement

4. Branch of Metallurgy that involves the microstructures of metals and alloys.

a. Metallography
b. alloygraphy
c. macro etching
d. micro etching

5. Three (3) types of poisons.

a. Organic, Inorganic, Biological
b. Hypnotic, Sedatives, Laxatives
c. Emetics, Biological, Inorganic
d. Organic, Sedatives, Biological

6. Designed to fire at night which emits a bright flame at its base.

a. Tracer bullet
b. Zip gun
c. Dum-dum
d. Blank ammunition

7. “Did you ever steal anything?” is what kind of questions.

a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. General question

8. a type of burn produced as a result of the body come in contact with a moving object
a. radiation burn
b. thermal burn
c. friction burn
d. electrical burn

9. How many fingerprint classifications are used internationally?

a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5

10. The Three (3) fingerprint classifications are; Arch, Loops, and ________.
a. Tented Arch
b. Accidental Whorl
c. Whorls
d. Ulnar Loop

11. what are the tiny elevations or hill-like structure containing sweat pores which appear black on inked fingerprint
a. ridge
b. duct
c. furrow
d. pore

12. Accidental whorl patterns are ridge traced using the

a. extreme left and right delta
b. A and C are correct
c. left and the center right delta
d. left and right delta nearest the core

13. in taking the rolled impression of the subject, both thumbs are rolled.
a. away from the body
b. from left to right
c. towards the body
d. from the center to the sides

14. Breaking down of complex proteins into simpler components associated with foul smelling gasses and accompanied by chance in
color of the body.
a. Putrefaction
b. Maceration
c. Mummification
d. Marbolization
15.. In criminal investigation, when we say “bullet”, does it include pellets?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Never

16. The fingerprint of a person appears on fetus between _________ after conception.
a. 100-200 days
b. 100-120 days
c. 100-220 days
d. 100- 150 days

17. It refers to the actual curve path of projectile from the moment it leaves the gun barrel until it hits the target. (2x question)
a. Trajectory
b. Velocity
c. Stability
d. Ricochet

18. if smokeless powder was made from gelatinize nitrocellulose mixed with ether alcohol, does black powder contains
charcoal and sulfur?
a. never
b. maybe
c. no
d. yes

19. These are guns designed to fire only one shot for every loading. (2x question)
a. Single-shot firearm
b. Bolt action type
c. Repeating firearms
d. Slide action type

20. In gunshot wounds, which is always greater in appearance?

a. Entrance
b. Exit
c. Contact
d. Close

21. In photography, when we say tripod, how many stands are there?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
22. The rifling of a firearm is located inside the barrel. It consists of –
a. Raised portion
b. Depressed portion
c. Lands portion
d. Lands and grooves
23. In robbery case. Which is the focus of close up photography?
a. valuable materials
b. forcible entry
c. disarray furniture’s
d. broken glass

24. In post-mortem lividity, the blood cannot be transferred even if the body has been moved to another position when the blood is
defused in the ____________.
a. tissues
b. plasma
c. Outer skin
d. Veins

25. accumulation of blood in the most dependent portions of the body is termed as:
a. suggillation
b. hematoma
c. petechiae
d. ecchymosis

26. Most common form of asphyxia.

a. Strangulation
b. hanging
c. lynching
d. Garroting

27. A condition in which the supply of oxygen to the blood has been reduced below working levels. (5x question)
a. Asphyxia
b. homicide
c.syncope
d. Coma

28. The light from the pinhole camera will form –

a. A halo effect
b. A photographic emulsion
c. An inverted image
d. An emergency ray

29. A wound produced by blunt object/instrument such as log and stone.

a. Punctured
b. Incised
c. Lacerated
d. Stab wound

30. How many percent of alcohol is needed to be considered that a person is intoxicated?
a.0.05%
b. 0.15%
c. 0.15%
d. 1.05%

31. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to a normal light.
a. X-ray
b. Infrared light
c. UV light
d. visible lights

32. A little bit better than idiots.

a. Imbecile
b. Moron
c. Moral defficiency
d. feebleminded

33. What is the purpose of getting the plain impression of the subject?
a. For classification purposes
b. For verification purposes
c. To check the order of the rolled impression
d. For comparison purposes

34. The poisonous gas that smells like a rotten egg.

a. Hydrogen sulfide
b. Sulfur dioxide
c. Hydrogen dioxide
d. Hydrochloride

35. a violent volatile poison producing an almond odor in vomit’s of the victim.
a. cyanide
b. sulfur
c. plasma
d. lead

36. The tumbling of the bullet in its flight and hitting the target sideways as a result of not spinning on its axis.
a. Gyroscopic action
b. Key hole shot
c. Spinning
d. Recoil

37. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the amount of light reaching the film by varying the length of time, and it is consider
as the door of the camera.
a. Lens
b. focusing Ring
c. Shutter
d. Aperture

38. Sequence of sensitivity of the Three (3) emulsion layers of color film.
a. Blue-Green-Red
b. Red- Green-Blue
c. Green-Red-Blue
d. Blue-Red-Green

39. An instrument used to measure the bore diameter of a shotgun.

a. Taper gauge
b. Helixometer
c. Microscope
d. Onoscope

40. Covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg-like formation.
a. Epidermis
b. Sweat pores
c. Dermal papillae
d. Sweat gland

41. the success of taking a legible rolled impression of the subject relies on several factors like the rigt amount and kind of ink , proper
distribution of ink on the slab and the advice of the operator to the subject to
a. stand firm
b. cooperate
c. breathe
d. relax
42. An instrument used to detect alcohol in human body.
a. Alcotest
b. Drunkometer
c. Breath analyzers
d. Intoximeter

43. one of the cardinal rule in chart interpretation

a. specific response must from a deviation from norm
b. chart probing shall be done after each chart
c. any change from normal response requires an explanation
d. chart markings is the keynote to accurate chart interpretation

44. In taking mug shots of a suspect who is standing, the camera should be
positioned –
a. At neck level
b. At chest level
c. At hips level
d. Slightly above the head level

45. It is a sensitized material that has the primary function of recording the image that is focused upon it by the lens of the camera.(2x
question)
a. Photographic paper
b. Film
c. Filter
d. Camera

46. A component of a polygraph machine which is used to record the perspiration and breathing of a subject with the aid of a
convoluted rubber tube.
a. Plethysmograph
b. Pneumograph
c. Galvanograph
d. Kymograph

47. The most typical camera used for police photography.

a. Polaroid still camera
b. Single lens reflex camera
c. Digital camera
d. View camera

48. They are considered as the focal points in fingerprint identification.

a. Appendage and Upthrust
b. Core and Delta
c. Recurving ridge and Coverging ridge
d. Pattern area and Typelines

49. These are firearms that propel projectiles with diameter of more than one (1) inch.
a. Artillery
b. Musket
c. Assault rifle
d. Cannon

50. a yawing bullet upon a hitting a target can create a

a. wobbling flight
b. keyhole shot
c. irregular shape
d. start shape

51. How many days after infliction does a “black-eye” can be observed to be turning Purple?
a.1-4 days
b.4-5 days
c. 6-7 days
d. 8-9 days

52. The distance within which the shooter has control of his shots, meaning he can place his shots at a desires spot is known as
a. marksman range
b. effective range
c. sniping range
d. maximum range

53. it is the study of the effects of projectile to human body. This is called
a. forensic ballistics
b. wound ballistics
c. medical ballistic
d. gunshot wound
54. A principle in fingerprint which states that the ridge patterns on the digits never change during the life of an individual.
a. Principle of Permanency
b. Principle of Individuality
c. Principle of Infallibility
d. Principle of Lividity

55. “Is your mother’s name Pepita?” is what kind of question?

a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. General question

56. Generally, the presence of gunpowder at or near the entrance wound show the gun muzzle when fired is not more than how many
inches?
a. 8
b. 24
c. 10
d. 12
57. The most common bullet jacket material is made up of
a. copper
b. brass
c. bronze
d. lead

58. bullets that have cavity in the nose designed to increase the expansion when they hit their target are called
a. expanding bullets
b. incendiary bullets
c. spitzer bullet
d. hollow-point bullet

59. Regarded as a special form of pen lift disguise in which a perceptible group appears in the writing.
a. Diacritic
b. Hiatus
c. Hesitation
d. Tremor

60. The two types of glass fractures are?

a. Radial and Ulnar fractures
b. Radial and Concentric fractures
c Concentric and emetic fractures
d. Plain and one-way fractures

61. in terminal ballistics, it is the depth of bullet penetrating the target

a. terminal energy
b. terminal velocity
c. terminal accuracy
d. terminal penetration

62. firearms are like people that have general and specific characteristics. What firearm characteristics refers to those that
can be determined only after a gun is already manufactured?
a. class characteristics
b. individual characteristics
c. caliber and model
d. rifling characteristics

63. A typewriter defect that can be corrected by cleaning the machine or replacing the ribbon.
a. Transitory defect
b. Typeface defect
c. Alignment defect
d. Permanent defect

64. It is the ridge count of the first loop pattern appearing on the fingerprint card except the two little fingers.
a. Primary classification
b. Secondary classification
c. Final Classification
d. Key classification

65. It refers to the last stage of toxological examination.

a. Quantification
b. Microscopic examonation
c. Biological
d. None of the following
66. Individual characteristics of firearms can be determined even before a gun is manufactured. This statement is-
a. True
b. False
c. Doubtful
d. Maybe

67. which of the following statements is true about rimmed case?

a. the diameter of the cartridge’s body is wider than the cartridge base
b. the diameter of the cartridge base is the same as the diameter of the body
c. the diameter of the cartridge base is wider than the diameter of the body
d. the diameter of the cartridge base is narrower than the diameter of the body

68. Human hair has medullary index of less than ________, and animal hair has a medullary index of greater than _________.
a. 0.1, 0.2
b. 0.2, 0.3
c. 0.3, 0.5
d. 0.5, 0.7

69. This will serve as authority of polygraph examiner to examine the subject as evidence that subject voluntary submits to undergo
the test.
a. Willingness of the subject to undergo Pre-test in interview
b. Willingness of the subject to take the test to prove his innocence
c. Willingness of the subject to give his personal data during the pre-test interview
d. None of the foregoing

70. it is the chemical wear and tear inside a gun barrel due to rust formation or chemical reactions by the products of combustion after
firing.
a. chemical reaction
b. erosion
c. mechanical reaction
d. corrosion

71. for conclusiveness of findings, how many test should be compare?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 5

72. f the same digits of both hands are missing, the impressions are held to be __________.
a. Dependent on the classification of the print of the other finger
b. Dependent on the ridge tracing
c. Loops
d. Plain whorl, Meeting

73. In the investigation of a rape case, use of ultra violent light is a useful method because-
a. Only to establish whether certain stains, after they have been located by some other method.
b. To locate stains, but not to establish whether they are semen stains
c. Both to locate stains and to establish whether they are semen stains
d. Neither for finding nor for determining their nature

74. The retouching of a defective portion of a written stroke is known in questions document examination as –
a. Feathering
b. Shading
c. Retracing
d. Patching

75. a document maybe questioned due to the following reasons, unless:

a. it is objectionable to someone
b. the document raises skepticism
c. the document is irrefutable
d. the circumstances regarding its production arouse suspicion

76. A drop of blood which falls from the moving object or person is elongated and the splashes are found to be concentrated around
one end of the stain. As a general rule, the splashes and the extension of the drop of blood indicates –
 a. Fresh blood
b. Dried stain
c. Direction of movement
d. Dead person

77. The identity of two impressions is established primarily through _______.

a. Dimensions of pattern
b. Similarity of traces
c. Unexplained similarity of patterns
d. Ridge characteristics and the relative position of these ridge characteristics

78. A characteristic of post-mortem symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is a –

a. Vary texture and appearance of the skin
b. Contorted position of the body
c. Pinkish lividity of all part of the body
d. Marked protuberance of the eyeballs

79. The English person who coined the term “Photography” in English language.
a. William Abney
b. William Talbot
c. Louis Daguerre
d. John F. Herschel

80. This condition mimics rigor when the dead body is exposed to very low temperature.
a. Cold stiffening
b. Heat stiffening
c. Cadaveric spasm
d. Instantaneous rigor

81. Evidence which change quickly such as skid marks, the wounds and bruises will heal and disappear before the case comes to trial.
Such evidence can be preserved by –
a. Pickling method and introduced in court as evidence
b. Photographed introduced in court as evidence
c. Casting and mould and introduced in court as evidence
d. All of the foregoing

82. The type of special kind of death is done by making convict face a firing squad and is put to death by a volley of fire.
a. Musketry
b. Euthanasia
c. Judicial death
d. Hanging

83. To be able to make a positive identification of a person, document examiner must be able to observe the –
a. Characteristics of his handwriting
b. Writing position of the writer
c. Manner on how the writer moves the pain
d. Distinguishing individual features of his handwriting

84. questioned document examination often involves comparing questioned handwriting with known handwriting to determine:
a. any sign of forgery
b. the falsification committed
c. the writer’s identity
d. authentic document

85. Writing characterized by too much freedom of movement and lack of regulation which is usually tall letters.
a. Loss writing
b. Restrained writing
c. Genuine writing
d. Regulated writing

86. what device can be used to show a tri-dimensional enlargement of writings found in a document under scrutiny?
a. ultra-violet lamp
b. shadowgraph
c. infra-red lamp
d. stereoscopic microscope

87. Upon beginning the test, how many seconds should the examiner wait before asking the first question?
a. 10-15
b. 15-20
c. 5-10
d. 20-25
88. A form of sexual perversion where a male individual derives pleasure from wearing the female apparels.
a. Homosexuality
b. Transexualism
c. Tranvestism
d. Intersexuality

89. onset of rigor mortis means the setting of body changes due to:
a. death
b. putrefaction
c. obesity
d. poisoning

90. Portrait parle is correctly defined by which of the following?

a. The verbal, accurate, and picturesque description of the person identified
b. It is the file of pictures of missing or wanted persons
c. The use of anthropometrical measurement of human body as the basis for identification
d. It is the used of several evidences to eliminate or include in choice for identification

91. DNA is a chemical substance found in all cells and individuals has a unique DNA and only ________ share the same DNA
pattern.
a. Mother and child
b. Father and child
c. Mother and father
d. Identical twins

92. The restoration of tampered serial numbers can be done by the use of –
a. Benzidine solution
b. Saline solution
c. Etching solution
d. Sulfuric acid

93. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the opposite site of application of force.
a. Extensive injury
b. Coup injury
c. Contre coup injury
d. Coup and contre coup injury

94. upon conduct of initial examination on the dead body found in water, weeds are firmly grasped in the hands. This
indicates that the victim is
a. already dead before disposal
b. defending himself from his assallant
c. not knowledgeable in swimming
d. still alive before disposal

95. if in drowning cases where a prober found “live flies” in the clothing of the victim; it indicates that the drowning did
exceed how many hours?
a. 12
b. 16
c. 15
d. 18

96. contemporary handwriting standards means that the age of the standard should be with-
a. 12 years prior to the date of the questioned document
b. 8 years prior to the date of the questioned document
c. 10 years prior to the date of the questioned document
d. 5 years prior to the date of the questioned document

97. the identification of handwriting is based on the proposition that-

a. people are all different
b. all of the foregoing
c. people are all alike
d. people are with different handwriting

98. what feature of the document can be used to indicate the source or origin of paper?
a. wire mark
b. postmark
c. watermark
d. compression mark

99. which of these refers to the act of the author in intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surface with increasing
pressure while writing?
a. pen hold
b. pen lift
c. pen emphasis
d. pen pressure

100. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable muscular change?

a. Cold stiffening
b. Heat stiffening
c. Instantaneous rigor
d. Putrefaction

1. It is a branch od division of law which defines crimes treats of their nature, and provides for their punishment.
CRIMINAL LAW

a. criminal evidence b. criminal jurisprudence

c. criminal law d. criminal procedure

2. These are the characteristics of criminal law, Except:

a. generality b. territoriality

c. constitutionality d. prosprective

3. These are the expectations to generality

a. public international law b. treaty stipulations

c. preferential application d. ex-post facto law

4. These are the elements of felony, EXCEPT:

a. acts or omission b. punished by RPC

c. punished by laws d. deceit or fault

5. These are the requisites of mistake of fact as a defense, Except:

a. act done would have been lawful b. intention of the accused

c. resulting injury is due to the act of victim d. mistake must be without fault or carelessness

6. The offender perform all acts of execution which would produce a felony as a consequence, but which do not produce
it by reason of causes independent of the will of perpetrator.

a. consummated b. frustrated

c. attempted d. all of the above

7. When two or more persons come to an agreement concerning commission of felony and decide to commit any of the
crimes punishable by the penal code of special laws.

a. treason b. rebellion

c. sedition d. conspiracy

8. Law attaches capital punishment or penalty or any of their periods are afflictive.

a. less grave b. grave

c. less serious d. light

9. Are those which, if presents in the commission of the crime, do not entirely free the actor from criminal liability?

a. justifying circumstance b. exempting circumstances

c. mitigating circumstance d. none of the above

10. Those which, if attendant in the commission of crime served to increase the penalty but without exceeding the
maximum penalty prescribed by the law.

a. aggravating circumstances b. alternative circumstance

c. all of the above d. none of the above

11. These are the elements of self-defense, except:

 a. unlawful aggression b. sufficient provocation

c. reasonable necessity of the means employed d. no sufficient provocation

12. The following are the elements of irresistible force, except:

a. an act is required by the law to be done b. compulsion is by means of physical force

c. physical force is irresistible d. physical force comes from a third person

13. The following are the elements of uncontrollable fear, EXCEPT:

a. Threat which causes fear is of an evil greater or at least equal to that he is required to commit

b. Promise an evil of such gravity and imminence ordinary man would have succumbed

c. All of the above

d. None of the above

14. The following are the elements of insuperable or lawful cause, EXCEPT:

a. An act is required by law to be done

b. Person committed a crime but no penalty

c. Person fails to perform such act

d. Failure to perform due to insuperable cause

15. it is an aggravating circumstances that applies in a particular commission of felony like cruelty in crime against
person.

a. generic b. specific

c. qualifying d. inherent

16. when the offender has committed offenses which are embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code, he is.

a. habitual delinquent b. quasi-recidivist

c. recidivist d.reiteracionist

17. the following elements must be proved by the prosecution in evident premeditation, except

a. time when the offender determined to commit the crime

b. based upon external acts and must be evident

c. act manifestly indicating determination

d. sufficient lapse of time between determination

18. these are the requirements of alternative circumstances, EXCEPT:

a. relationship b. intoxication

c. degree of education d. drug addiction

19. These are the principals in the commission of grave, less grave and light felonies, EXCEPT:

a. take direct part in the commission of crime

b. directly by force or induce others to commit it

c. has intention to procure commission of crime

d. cooperate in the commission of offense

20. these are the effects of pardon made by the chief executive to convicted criminal offenders, except:

a. extinguishes criminal liability b. right to vote and be voted upon

c. does not exempt payment of civil liability d. does not restore right to hold public office

21. the elements of complex crime proper are as follows, except:

a. that at least two offenses are committed

b. that one or some of the offenses must be necessary

 c. both the offenses must be punished by the same statue

d. several light felonies resulting from single act

22. it is a single crime consisting of series of acts arising from one criminal action.

a. complex crimes b. continuing crime

c. compound crime d. impossible crime

23. It is a minor who is over nine (9) years, but is under eighteen (18) years of age at the time of commission of an
offense.

a. juvenile delinquents b. youthful offenders

c. delinquent minors d. no answer text provided

24. it is an act committed or omitted in violation of a public law forbidding or commanding it.

a. crime b. felony c. infractions d. offenses

25. this is otherwise known as the Revised Penal Code of the Philippines.

a. act no. 3815 b. PD 1508 c. administrative order 94 d. act 3851

26. These are the elements of the crime of treason, except:

a. The offender is a Filipino citizen or an alien Residing in the Philippines

b. there is a war in which the Philippines is involved

c. The offender is either levies against the government or adhere to the enemies, giving them aid or comfort
d. Breach of allegiance to a government committed by a person who owes allegiance to the government

27. It is forcible depredation on the high seas, without lawful authority and done with animo flurandi and in the spirit
and intention of universal hostility.

a. mutiny b. piracy on the high sea c. robbery d. qualified piracy

28. These are the elements of the crime of arbitrary detention, EXCEPT:
a. the offender is a public officer or employee

b. that he detains a person

c. the detention is without legal grounds

d. a person is detained in confinement

29. These are the crimes known as the violation of domicile, EXCEPT

a. opening of tables and drawers by the police officer

b. entering a dwelling against the will of the owner

c. search warrant maliciously and abusively served

d. searching domicile without witnesses

30. It is committed by rising publicly and taking arms against the government, depriving the Chief Executives and the
Legislature in the exercise of its powers and prerogatives.

a. rebellion b. sedition c. coup d’etat d. treason

31. It is a swift attack, accompanied by violence, intimidation, threat, strategy or stealth, directed against duly
constituted authorities.

a. rebellion b. sedition c. coup d’etat d. disloyalty

32. It is otherwise known as the Violence Against Women and Their Children Act.

a. RA 8553 b. RA 7659 c. RA 9262 d. RA 7610

33. It is orders in writing issued by the judge commanding any peace officer to search the premises and seized the
property described therein and bring it before the court.

a. warrant of arrest b. subpoena duces tecum c. search warrant d. seizure order

34. These are the elements of direct assault as crime against public order, EXCEPT:

a. The offender employs force or intimidation

b. The aim of the offender is to attain rebellion

c. That there is no public uprising

d. Without uprising on the occasion of such performance

35. These are the elements of direct assault as crime against persons, EXCEPT

a. the offender makes an attack

b. the person assaulted is a person in authority

c. there is no public uprising

d. the over-Act performed is against public order

36. These are the elements of the crimes of indirect assault, EXCEPT:

a. That a person is in authority is the victim

b. That a person comes to the aid of such authority

c. That the offender makes use of force or intimidation

d. The offended party is a private person

37. These are the crimes classified under public disorders, EXCEPT:

a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order

b. Unlawful use of means of publication and utterances

c. Alarms and scandals & delivering prisoners from jails

d. Resistance to persons in authority and serious disobedience

38. It is improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done.

a. misfeasance b. malfeasance

c. nonfeasance d. dereliction of duty

39. These are the elements of the crime of indirect bribery, EXCEPT:

a. The offender is a public officer

b. The public office accepts gifts

c. Agree to perform an act constituting a crime

d. The said gifts are offered by reason of his office

40. These are the elements of the crime of parricide, EXCEPT:

a. a person is killed b. the deceased is killed by the accused

c. The deceased is father, mother, or child d. The relationship must be real and legitimate

41. It is the unlawful killing of nay person which is not parricide or infanticide, provided that any of the following
circumstances are present, i.e., treachery, in consideration of price, with evident premeditation, cruelty, etc.

a. homicide b. murder c. manslaughter d. abortion

42. These are the elements of the crime of homicide, EXCEPT:

a. The person was killed without any justifying circumstances

b. The accuses had the intention to kill, which is presumed

c. The killing was not attended by any qualifying circumstances

 d. Treachery, evident premeditation, with cruelty, and by means of fire, poison, and explosion, etc.

43. It exists when there are there at least four persons who are armed took part in disturbance or are provided with
means of violence.

a. Tumultuous affray b. Public disorders

c. Physical injuries d. Prison riots

44. It is the act constituting of shooting to another with any firearm, without intent to kill.

a. Discharge of firearms b. Illegal firing

c. Indiscriminate firing d. accidental direarm

45. it is defined as the killing of any child less than three days of age, whether the killer is the parent or grandparent, any
other relative of the child, or stranger.

a. abortion b. homicide

c. infanticide d. parricide

46. It is the willful killing of the fetus in the uterus, or its violent expulsion from the maternal womb.

a. abortion b. homicide

c. infanticide d. parricide

47. It is a formal or regular combat previously concerted between two parties in the presence of two or more seconds.

a. duel b. challenger

c. dual d. instigator

48. it is means lopping or the clipping off of some part of the body.

a. injuries b. mutilation

c. castration d. decapitation

49. These are the ways and means how the crime of serious physical injuries committed, except:

a. by wounding b. by assaulting as provided by art 263

c. by administering injurious substance d. intentionally mutilating others

50. it is a crime committed by any person, either male or female who shall commit an act of sexual assault.

a. adultery b. concubinage

c. rape d. lasciviousness

51. It is the essential element or act which makes the offense of kidnapping.

a. deprivation of an offended party’s liberty

b. ransom money in-exchange of the victims

c. With the use of force, violence and intimidation

d. That the offender is a private individual

52. these are the elements of the crime of unlawful arrest, expect:

a. The offender arrests or detains another persons

b. The purpose is to deliver to proper authorities

c. The arrest or detention is not authorized by law

d. Without warrant of arrest issued by the court

53. it is the taking of property of another with intent to gain, by means of violence, or intimidation of any person.
ROBBERY

a. theft b. robbery c. coercion d. grave threats

54. It is when more than three armed malefactors take part in the commission of robbery.

a. robbery in band b. brigandage

c. carnappers d. theft
55. It is committed by more than three armed persons or the purpose of robbery or kidnapping for extortion.

a. robbery in band b. carnappers

c. theft d. brigandage

56. it is with intent to gain, without violence or intimidation of persons, force upon things, and without the latter’s
consent

a. robbery b. theft

c. brigandage d. qualified theft

57. These are the elements of the crime of qualified theft, EXCEPT

a. It is committed by domestic violence

b. Committed with grave abuse of confidence

c. Stolen were motor vehicle, mail matter and large cattle

d. Theft committed by a laborer in construction

58. it is meant the taking away of woman from her house or the place where she may be for the purpose of carrying her
to another place with intent to marry or corrupt her.

a. seduction b. abduction

c. adultery d. concubinage

59. It is consists in voluntary, but without malice, doing or failing to do an act from which material damage results by
reason of inexcusable lack of precaution.

a. simple imprudence b. reckless imprudence

c. criminal imprudence d. criminal negligence

60. These are the elements of the crime of qualified bribery, EXCEPT:

a. The offender is entrusted with law enforcement

b. Offender is liable to direct & indirect bribery

c. Consideration of any promise, gift or present

d. The offender refrains from arresting offenders

61. This is an act amending the provision of PD 1866, otherwise known as illegal possession of firearms, ammunitions
and explosive laws.

a. RA 8294 b. GO No. 6

c. RA 7438 d. RA 8353

62. It prescribes stiffer penalties in illegal gambling and for other purposes.

a. PD 1866 b. PD 1602

c. PD 1185 d. PD 1508

63. This is otherwise known as the anti-graft and corrupt practices act.

a. RA 3019 b. RA 3047

b. PD 77 d. BP 195

64. This is an act prescribing, enumerating and defining and penalizing heinous crimes.

a. RA 7659 b. RA 8711

c. RA 9165 d. RA 9269

65. It is otherwise known as the anti-subversion act.

a. RA 1700 b. ACT NO. 3815

c. PD 1185 d. RA 7659
66. It is an order in writing commanding a peace officer to search the property described in the order, and bring before
the court.

a. warrant of arrest b. search warrant

c. repletion d. attachment

67. it means that the unlawful search taints not only the evidence obtained thereat, but also the facts discovered by
reason on unlawful acts.

a. silver platter doctrine b. poisonous tree doctrine

c. illegal search actions d. search abusively served

68. These are the instances where a police offer may break the door or wndows to effects a search, EXCEPT:

a. announced his authority and purpose

b. the purpose of search and seizure

c. police officer was refused assistance

d. elements of plain view doctrine

69. these are the things to be search, EXCEPT:

a. property subject of the offense

b. property stolen of fruits of the crime

c. intended to be used for committing an offense

d. personal property of the subject person

70. These are the elements of warrantless search except:

a. Possession of contraband or illicit articles

b. When there is consent or waiver

c. When evidence to be seized is in “plain view”

d. Search incidental to lawful arrest

71. It is the method provided for by the Revised rules of court not only for the apprehension and prosecution of persons
who commit crimes, but also for the imposition of the penalty.

a. criminal law b. criminal evidence

c. rules of court d. criminal procedure

72. It is a sworn statement charging a person with an offense subscribed by the offended party, and peace officer, or
other pubic officer charges with the enforcement of the law violated.

a. information b. complaint

c. pleadings d. accusation

73. These are the officers authorized to conduct preliminary investigation, except:

a. provincial or city fiscal and their assistants

b. private prosecutors

c. judges of the regional trial courts

d. national and regional state prosecutors

74. It is the taking of person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of offenses,
EXCEPT:

a. Arrest b. Apprehend

c. Detained d. Search

75. A peace officer or a private person, without warrant, may arrest a person lawfully.

a. Committing, attempting and committed an offense

b. Personal knowledge of the fact of the offense

 c. Arrest of escapee from prisons and jails

d. Fugitive from justice and the rule of law

76. It is the security given for the release of a person in custody of the law.

a. bail bond b. property bond

c. bail d. cash bond

77. Trial in absentia can be conducted in the following manner, except:

a. before or after conviction of the lower court

b. the accused has been properly arraigned

c. the accused had been duly notified of the trial

d. failure of the accused

78. It is an offense which, under the law existing at the time of its commission and at the time of the application to be
admitted to bail, may be punished by life to death sentence.

a. Heinous crime b. Capital offense

c. Grave offense c. Serious over-acts

79. It is one of the rights granted to a defendant in a criminal case is that he shall be exempted from being

a. Presumed innocent b. Witness against himself

c. Self-incriminated d. Confronted by accuser

80. The presence of the accused during trial in court is indispensable and mandatory in the following instances, EXCEPT:

a. Arraignment and plea b. Promulgation of judgment

c. Identification purpose d. Presentation of evidence

81. Arraignment consists of the following, EXCEPT:

a. Opportunity for the accused to know the charge

b. Reading of complaint or information

c. Asking the accused whether guilty or not guilty

d. Furnishing of a copy of complaint or information

82. It is any definite statement of any matter with is not averted with sufficient definiteness or particularly to enable a
party to prepare properly his pleading and to prepare for trial.

a. Motion to quash b. Bill of particular

c. Petition for review d. Petition for certiorari

83. It is means that when a person is charged with an offense and the case is terminated either by an acquittal or
conviction or any other manner without the consent of the accused.

a. Complaint padding b. Bed sheeting

c. Multiple filing of case d. Double jeopardy

84. It is motion to dismiss a criminal case after that prosecution has rested its case on the ground of insufficiency of
evidence.

a. Motion to quash b. Re-investigation

c. Demurrer to evidence d. None of the above

85. It is means the adjudication of the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charge against the
latter.

a. judgment b. prosecution

c. verdict d. promulgation

86. For the secondary evidence to be admissible, the following requisites must be proved by satisfactory evidence,
EXCEPT:
 a. Execution and existence or original

b. Loss and destruction of the original

c. Existed as to the proof of the fact in question

d. Unavailability of original is not due bad faith

87. Witnesses are qualified to testify if:

a. They are capable of perceiving b. Can make perception known to others

c. All of them d. None of them

88. It is any evidence, whether oral or documentary, the probative value of which is not bases on the personal
knowledge of the witness, but on the knowledge of some other person non on the witness stand.

a. Confession b. Acknowledgement

c. Admission d. Hearsay evidence

89. These are the requisites for the admissibility of the declaration against interest.

a. Declarant must not be available to testity

b. The actor or declarant is dead and unable to testify

c. The declaration must have related a fact against interest and cognizable by declarant

d. Circumstances must render it improbable that a motive to falsify existed

90. It is means “things done”, and it includes the circumstances and declarations incidental to the main facts of the
prosecution.

a. Dying declaration b. Res gestae

c. Pedigree d. Against interest

91. It is the means sanctioned by the rules of court of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding, the truth respecting the
matters of fact.

a. Evidence b. Proof

c. Factum probans d. Factum probandum

92. It is the ultimate fact to be established in the criminal or even civil litigations.

a. Evidence b. Proof

c. Factum probans d. Factum probandum

93. It is the establishment of the fact, or the conviction or satisfaction that indeed the fact exists.

a. Evidence b. Proof

c. Factum probans d. Factum probandum

94. That which has some connection or relation to what is sought to be proved; that which has a tendency to prove or
disprove the matter in dispute.

a. Admissible evidence b. Direct evidence

c. Relevant evidence d. Material evidence

95. Those are evidences that are addressed to the senses of the court.

a. Expert evidence b. Real evidence

c. Prima facie evidence d. Primary evidence

96. These are the evidence which was inadmissible under the constitutions, except:

a. Those who are obtained in violation of the privacy of communications and correspondence

b. Those obtained thru torture, force violence, threat, intimidation, or any other means

c. Those which are not excluded by the law and which is relevant to the issue

d. Those obtained by compelling a person to be a witness against himself

97. when is evidence admissible in any court proceedings, either criminal or civil?
 a. Relevant to the issue b. When it is competent

c. Not excluded by the law d. All of the above

98. It is consist of statements made by parties in the course of judicial proceedings.

a. Judicial notice b. Judicial admissions

c. Judicial proceedings d. None of the above

99. It is that which affords the greatest of the fact in question, and in itself, does not indicate the existence of other and
better proof.

a. Best evidence rule b. Secondary evidence

c. Parole evidence rule d. Testimonial evidence

100. is meant the legal fitness or ability of a witness to be heard on the trial of the case.

a.Witnes b. Competency of witness c. Testimonial evidence d. Parole evidence rule

109. financial support to sustain habit: economic compulsive behavior
110. anxiety phobia: psychopathy
111. hostage taker: paranoid
112. delusion and hallucination: psychosis
113. pleasure: ID
114. first instance: local
115. killing brother: siblicide
116. mental process and behavior: psychology
117. equality and fairness: due process
118. upright in char: gentleness
119. judgment rendered: jurisprudence
120. medical juris: Isaac ray
121. basic rules of engagement: trade weapons
122. sacrificing limbs: valor
123. shaping society: role of society: sociology of law
124. written code: criminal law
125. urbanization: social class theory
126. mode of production: Marxist theory
127. paranoid schizo: weird
128. less willing to commit: rational
129. a little bit better: imbecile
130. upper class of society: white collar crime
131. criminal career: occasional
132. discrimination on both: due process
133. purpose of arraignment: inform the accused
134. juvenile justice: ra 9244
135. urban social life: cultural deviance
136. political and economic power: social class
137. inadequate opp: strain
138. disintegration: cultural deviance
139. not part of the juvenile: ra 7659
140. pd 603: child and youth
141. under 8: pd 603
142. stall time: delay
143. custom on courtesy: anniversary
144. prosecuted twice: double je
145. criminologists measure criminal behavior: social correlates
146. mass media: statement 1 and 4 are correct
147. painful memories: social process
148. weak or broken: social control
149. Edwin Sutherland: differential association
1. A PNP member must be committed to police interest rather than personal interest. This is called
a. Police responsibility b. Commitment to public interest
c. Service d. Commitment to democracy
2. As a Criminalist, the saddest part of our profession in receiving a favor is
a. alteration of evidence b. intentionally altering the facts
c. None of these d. Receiving bribe
3. Eustress means
a. bad stress b. Negative stress c. positive stress d. good stress
4. These are the persons who are described as physically thin and are most likely to commit forgery
a. Mesomorph b. Endomorph c. all of these d. ectomorph
5. What agency is responsible in handling cases of Children in Conflict with the law?
a. DOJ b. DILG c. DSWD d. BPP
6. In report making, there are certain parts to consider. Which of the following is generally considered the last portion of the report?
a. Recommendation b. Synopsis c. Conclusion d. none of these
7. The study of physical aspect of psychological disorders refers to
a. Physio psychology b. Psychology c. Bio criminology d. psychoanalysis
8. This is a type of victim which is weak by virtue of age and immaturity
a. Old b. Mentally defective c. Female d. Young
9. The form of intervention under the Lupong Tagapamayapa is called
a. Arbitration b. Conciliation c. Mediation d. Amicable settlement
10. The following are characteristics of schizophrenic and psychotic behavior except
a. Bizarre motor activity b. Hallucination c. catatonic d. Attention deficits
11. Binding spirit that enhance teamwork to all PNP members refers to
a. All of these b. cooperation c. camaraderie d. Unity
12. A part of the human psyche which follows the pleasure principle: I know what I want when I want it
a. Super ego b. Libido c. Ego d. ID
13. This pertains to the unconscious personality of a human developed thru early interaction
a. Ego b. ID c. Libido d. Superego
14. The following are characteristics of a psychopath except
a. Lack of interest to live b. Lack of capacity to love
c. Failure to form affectionate relationship d. Failure to learn from experience
15. The body physique known to be prone of committing crimes
a. Monomorph b. Mesomorph c. Endomorph d. Ectomorph
16, An individual who assumes and pretends that he is a king, prince, millionaire and etc. suffers from
a. hallucination b. delusion c. illusion d. psychopathic
17. The word closely associated with the term “accompanied by”?
a. Escort b. Guide c. With d. Together
18. The word closely associated with the term “assistance”?
a. help b. accompany c. Support d. give
19. Another term for correspondence
a. letter b. summon c. response d. answer
20. It is a situation wherein an individual reacts to a certain emotional disturbance
a. reaction b. conflict c. response d. stimulus
21. The exact location of events in a hostage situation is known as
a. physical perimeter b. Scene c. Outer perimeter d. inner perimeter
22. What theory is usually endowed with the effect of social interaction that affects the lifestyle of people
a. segregation b. Environment c. Biological d. social
23. The theory which explains that people usually commit crime for their own welfare
a. Hedonism b. Choice c. Freewill d. Social theory
24. In human behavior those events that takes place inside the body refers to
a. cognitive b. Neurological c. Behavioral d. Empirical
25. It is the action of the offended party that initiates the confrontation causing his injury or death
a. confrontation b. victimization c. Enunciation d. provocation
26. The classical school of criminology stresses on
a. all of these b. freewill c. hedonism d. utilitarianism
27. Placing offenders behind bars after the commission of a crime should lessen their lifestyle opportunity to commit crime. This s
known as the theory of
a. rehabilitation b. incapacitation c. incarceration d. social
28. If an individual rejects the goal but accepted the means, the form of behavior will be deviant and
a. ritualistic b. rebelling c. retreatist d. innovative
29. The total process of maintenance of order, protection of life and property and all other activities of law enforcement measures
police
a. productivity b. outpost c. efficiency d. outcome
30. The psyche of the mind that contains instinct wishes and desires that direct the individuals
a. pre-conscious b. fore conscious c. conscious d, unconscious
31. The following are reasons of joining gangs except
a. status b. power c. prestige d. family harmony
32. The brain has the function of processing information including interpreting it. What do you call this?
a. holistic b. cognitive c. neurological d. behavioral
33. Which of the following is an attribute of classical theory
a. Criminals are like sick people who requires rehabilitation than the imposition of punishment
b. Maintains that children and lunatics cannot calculate pain and pleasure therefore they must be exempted from
criminal liability
c. Men are possessed by either good or evil
d. Men are rational beings who possess the freewill between right from wrong
34. Which of the following is not a purpose of crisis management?***
a. contain and terminate b. all of these c. resolve without further incident c. Insure safety
35. The physician who studied that insecurity is linked with criminality is
a. Sheldon b. Durkheim c. Lombroso d. Mausley
36. Person who is authorized to prosecute anti-graft and corruption cases
a. Ombudsman b. Congressman c. Assistant prosecutors d. State prosecutors
37. The science or study that deals with human behavior
a. Psychology b. Physiology c. Psychiatry d. Human Science
38. What is the effect of solving a crime, which in turn affects other crimes?
a. Psychological b. Domino effect c. deterrence d. Physiological
39. Who is the father of modern Criminology
a. Cesare Lombroso b. Robert King Merton c. Edwin Sutherland d. Cesare Beccaria
40. Who pioneered the Anomie Theory?
a. Cesare Lombroso b. Edwin Sutherland c. Cesare Beccaria d. Emile Durkheim
41. Excessive desire for children refers to
a. necrophilia b. nymphomania c. bestiality d. pedophilia
42. A person who returned to commit a crime after having been released from prison
a. serial criminal b. spree offender c, recidivist d. habitual offender
43. A child who acts as a criminal and is absorbed until his adulthood. The theory most likely to explain this is
a. low IQ b. differential c. Social conflict d. psychoanalytical
44. What is the branch of science that deals with the study of making laws, breaking the laws and the behavior of criminals
a. criminal psychology b. Penal sanctionsc. Criminology d. Criminal anthropology
45. Opposing the means and goals
a. Confirmatory b. Innovation c. Ritualistic d. Retreatist
46. People who are engaged in the act of prostitution, shoplifting and drugs are known a
a. anti-social b. criminaloids c. psychotic d. syndicate
47. The police should practice high standard of decency and set a good example for others to follow. They should not be involved as
operators of any illegal establishments and should be faithful to their wives. This is a manifestation of
a. discretion b. dignity c. morality d. integrity
48. Which of the following does not belong to the classification of the somatotyping theory?
a. mesomorph b. Pyknic c. Ectomorph d. Endomorph
49. He contradicted Lombroso’s idea on atavism that criminals can be seen through features alone
 a. Edwin Sutherland b. Jeremy Bentham c. Charles Goring d. Emile Durkheim
50. The part of the personality that compensates the wishes or demands of the ID by guiding our action to remain within the
boundaries of accepted norms and behaviors.
a. ID b. Superego c. Libido d. Ego
51. Which of the following school of criminology applied scientific means in determining the causes of criminal behavior?
a. neo-classical b. classical c. demonological d. positivist
52. How many days should a second marriage be conducted so that it will not be considered as premature?
a. 301 b. 101 c. 501 d. 201
53. PNP members should maintain their lifestyle according to the practice of good conduct and behavior to promote PNP
a. theory b. confidence c. image d. responsibility
54. A PNP member is faithful to the constitution and the police service manifested by his loyalty to his suoeriors, peers and
organization practices.
a. loyalty b. Nobility c. Integrity d. Virtue
55. What type of crime is committed by a person who commits such crime on occasion of service?
a. Service crime b. Professional c. Occasional d. Occupational
56. Unpleasant feelings refer to
a. Arousal b. Sexual Arousalc. positive arousal d. negative arousal
57. The age of emancipation
a. 16 b. 21 c. 20 d. 18
58. Total or complete absence of communication between parents and their children
a. neglect b. Abusec. Abandonment d. none of these
59. These are elements of the Social Bond Theory except
a. control b. Attachment c. Disassociation d. detachment
60. What is the minimum days that can be imposed by the mayor to erring police officers?
a. 30 b. 15 c. 16 d. 31
61. The big 3 in Criminology
a. Lombroso, Beccaria, Ferri b. Sutherland, Lombroso, Ferri
c. Sutherland, Garofalo, Ferri d. Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri
62. In here, a person uses obscene language in order to satisfy his sexual desire
a. voyeurism b. Urolagnia c. Coprolalia d. Coprolagnia
63. The set of crime and the type of criminal activity
a. Criminal Sociology b. Typology of crime c. Criminal behavior d. all of these
64. Aside form the psychoanalysis, what do you call the study of human behavior in forensic?
a. Psychology b. Psychiatry c. Anthropology d. Odontology
65. What do you call the criminologist who focuses in the study of crime victims
a. Victimologist b. Psychologist c. Physiologist d. Criminologist
66. People Commit crime because they choose to do so is advocated under
a. neo-classical theory b. Social theory c. free-will theoryd. classical theory
67. People who dedicate themselves in promoting what they know is good and conducting wage campaign against immoral conduct
a. adjusters b. moral entrepreneurs c. crusaders d. legalist
68. The ability of a person to distinguish right from wrong and its consequences
a. discretion b. Judgment c. Morality d. Discernment
69. The statement, “The PNP is committed to a professional, dynamic and highly motivated personnel” is embodied in the PNPs
a. Mission b. Creed c. Vision d. Motto
70. If a sentence is composed of 8 words, it is recognized as
a. Difficult b. Very easy c. easy d. fairly easy
71. The agencies that arrest, prosecute, try and rehabilitate the offender
a. Correction b. Law enforcement c. Justice Process d. criminal Justice System
72. Judicious and equitable distribution of opportunity in the police service is manifested under
a. moral integrity b. delicadeza c. morally uprightd. equality in the service
73. The removal of as many as possible convicted offenders from confinement and treating them in the community
a. deinstitutionalization b. Decriminalization c. Rehabilitation d. Depenalization
74. Obtaining thrill on what he does is a proposed theory as
a. liberal b. arousal c. excitement d. stimulant
75. Who advocated victim precipitation
a. Sutherland b. Maudsley c. Durkheim d. Wolfgang
76. The study that deals with the establishment of the relationship between particular stimuli and people response
a. Behaviorism b. Atavism c. Biorism d. Determinism
77. What is the primitive value that is present at a person’s mental capacity at birth
a. Ego b. ID C. Superego d. Conscious
78. An act of reducing the penalty of a criminal act
a. Penalty reduction b. Depolization c. Depenalization d. Decriminalization
79. Strategy prevent the offender from committing a crime
a. Prevention b. Deterrence c. Institutionalization d. Incapacitation
80. Gratification or frustration thru sexual sublimation
a. Displacement b. Denial of reality c. Introjection d. Fantasy
81. The scientific study of crime in relation to human behavior.
a. Psychiatry b. Criminology c. Psychology d. Penology
82. In the community, the crimes are investigated and the suspects therefore are prosecuted and pushed if found guilty. The process is
called
a. Public safety defense system b. Internal defense system
c. Social defense system d. Criminal Justice system
83. The criminology student who challenged Lombroso that the facial form of an individual is not a sign of criminal behavior
a. Goring b. Beccaria c. Ferri d. Garofalo
84. In the Juvenile Justice System, what program helps youths for re-adjustments
a. Correction treatment b. Intervention c. Correction d. Rehabilitation
85. A set of expected behavior and conduct which regulate a group/ profession
a. Good behavior b. Ethical standard c. Professional conduct d, Code of ethics
86. In the PNP, police officers are expected to possess the following except
a. integrity b. humility c. honor d. pride
87. In hostage taking situations, one of the techniques of the negotiator in crisis management to get the attention of the hostage taker
while he is being bothered or he is thinking something is
a. Interaction b. modeling c. attraction d. distraction
88. Offenders who pursue their criminal activities with vigor attempting to learn from older experienced criminal techniques that will
yield them maximum profit with least risk.
a. Professional b. Seasoned c. Skilled d. White collar
89. The following are factors in juvenile delinquency except
a. Family cohesion b. Presence of family problem c. Family disintegration d. family conflict
90. The purpose why a person is placed in a correctional facility after the proceeding conducted by the court is for
a. Put to jail b. Retribution c. Rehabilitation d. Community
91. A child doe not have the instinct to act violently; instead, they learn it thru life experiences. This is explained in the theory
a. developmental b. Modeling c. Social contract d. Social learning
92. It covers the cranial features which affect human behavior
a. phrenology b. none of these c. Anthropology d. physiognomy
93. Who advocated the theory stating that criminality has relationship to hereditary inferiority?
a. Ernest Hooton b. Enrico Ferri c. Rafael Garofalo d. Adolph Quetelet
94. The theory which view that law is a tool by the ruling class ad is used to control the lower class
a. Interactionist b. Conflict c. Control d. Capitalism
95. He advocated the cartographic school of criminology
a. Garofalo b. Lombroso c. Quetelet d. Ferri
96. Who advocated the formula of crime
a. Galton b. Mary c. Durkheim d. Abrahamsen
97. Who stated that crime is normal in the society?
a. Wolfgang b. Mendelson c. Emile Durkheim d. Hooton
98. Who advocated the Somatotyping Theory
a. Beccaria b. Pershing c. Krestchmer d. Sheldon
99. Crime is explained as a product of the environment which provide cultural values and definition which governs the behavior of
those who live within.
 a. Sociology b. Biology c. Determinant d. Dominant
100. Which characteristic in criminology attributes progress, advanced science and science applies to it?
a. Dynamic b. Translation c. Innovative d. Applied Science
101. Decriminalization and legalization of victimless crimes is a perspective of
a. Crime Control b. Rehabilitation c. Intervention d. Non-intervention
102. Who among the following is a professional criminal
a. Peeping tom b. Shoplifter c. Thief d. Assassin
103. The CJS in the United States is composed of
a. LEA, Court, Correction b. LEA, Court, Community
c. LEA, Prosecution, Court d. LEA, Prosecution, Correction
104. What term is used to describe youths that have sub-culture behavior especially minor?
a. Gangs b. Criminal c. Delinquents d. Deviant
105. As defined under RA 9344 a person under the age of 18 is a
a. Juvenile b. Underage c. Child d. Minor
106. Above 15 and not more than 18 who acted with discernment is
a. Not liable b. Exempted c. Liabled. Not exempted
107. Under RA 9344, a child who committed an offense at exactly 15 years old is _________ from criminal liability
a. Punished b. not exempted c. liable d. exempted
108. Personal disorder by anti-social behavior, indifference to morality and abnormal changes in mood and activities are the limits of a
person. This termed as
a. Manipulator b. Psychopath c. Oppressor d. Neurotic

Corrections
1. In 1868, Spanish authority established a prison
for the confinement of the
 a. maximum security prisoners
b. political prisoners
c. convicted prisoners
d. female prisoners
2. A prisoner who shoes good behavior in prison and exercise good conduct and is discharge after
serving 1/3 of his term is called?
a. reprieve
b. pardonee
c. parolee
d. suspended sentence
3. what is furlough
a. boot camp
b. workhouse for prisoners
c. camp
d. prison
4. Which agency exercise supervision and direction over jail management training institute?
a. PPSC
b. PNP
c. BJMP
d. NAPOLCOM
5. What model is used in correction security
a. rehabilitative model
b. retaliatory
c. punitive model
d. corrective model
6. What office administers adult probation system
a. Bureau of Correction
b. BJMP
c. Board of Pardon and Parole
d. Parole and Probation and Administration
7. What is the period of probation of drug offenders
a. 6 months-2 years
b. none of these
c. 1-2 years
d. 1 day-2 years
8. Who will conduct the “post sentence investigation” as a basis of granting probation?
a. prosecutor
b. court
c. probation officer
d. parole officer
9. Who has the power to appoint the director of BJMP?
a. DILG Secretary
b. DOJ Secretary
c. President
 d. None of these
10. What is the difference between insular and provincial prisoners
a. both are prisoners
b. both are under Bureau of Correction
c. The sentence of insular prisoner is more than 3 years while provincial prisoners is 6 months
and 1 day to 3 years
d. Insular is more dangerous than provincial prisoner
11. Who prepares the report upon which the judge based the grant of denial of probation?
a. prosecutor
b. social worker
c. probation officer
d. probationer
12. After meals, what is done with the utensils of the prisoners
a. utensils will be collected by the jail guard personnel
b. let the prisoners leave their own utensils
c. none of these
d. let the prisoners keep their own utensils
13. What is the distinction between absolute and conditional pardon?
a. absolute pardon, granted by government, conditional pardon, granted by the president
b. both granted by the president
c. absolute-no condition, conditional pardon- with condition
d. no distinction
14. What is the first prison to impose electrocution?
a. Maryland
b. None of these
c. Pennsylvania
d. Auburn
15. Who may not be allowed to hard work
a. Juvenile
b. 60 years old and above
c. All of these
d. Woman
16. This refers to the adaptation of the prisoner to prison life
a. adaptation
b. incarceration
c. interrogation
d. prisonization
17. Work hours of prisoners
a. early morning
b. mid hours
c. before sleep
d. after and before recreational
18. What is the probational period for drug users
a. none of these
 b. 1 year -18 months
c. 1 year-2 years
d. 3 months- 6 months
19. Who said that the prisones are “….Nasty serwers of disease” ?
a. Vaux
b. None of these
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. John Howard
20. How do you consider the disposition of cases in the barangay
a. pre-trial release
b. reprieve
c. probation
d. diversion
21. What should be done before the release of a prisoner?
a. give his properties deposited to the custodian
b. make despidida
c. check identity
d. give food
22. What plan is to be prepared for fire, conflagration, riot and disturbances?
a. operational
b. procedural
c. emergency
d. tactical
23. What type of jail should a person punished with less than 6 months imprisonment be
incarcerated?
a. police lock-up
b. provincial jail
c. local jail
d. NBP
24. Who assist convicts to apply for probation?
a. BPP
b. DOJ
c. PAO
d. BOC
25. What do you call the release of a person without posting a bail bond?
a. recognizance
b. pardon
c. parole
d. privilege of release
26. What is the privilege of the visiting husband or wife that the jail will allow for sexual
intercourse?
a. conjugal visit
b. marital visit
c. conjugal incentive
 d. conjugal partnership
27. Provincial jail is under what government agency?
a. Provincial Government
b. BJMP
c. City Government
d. Correction
28. Echegaray was the first person to be punished with?
a. firing squad
b. electrocution
c. lethal injection
d. gas chamber
29. Who manages prison?
a. Director
b. warden
c. jail officers
d. chief security officers
30. It is one of the forerunners of probation which gave the eutesiastical court the power to review
cases committed by the member of the clergy. This refers to
a. benefit of the clergy
b. destierro
c. banishment
d. reprieve
31. What is the office term of probation aid?
a. 4 years
b. 3 years
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
32. When can executive clemency not be processed?
a. after final judgment
b. after conviction
c. during the conduct of trial
d. after arraignment
33. What month is the correction conscious week?
a. first of September
b. first week of October
c. last week of September
d. last week of October
34. Pedro is ____ prisoner since his sentence range from 1 day to 3 years?
a. district
b. municipal
c. regional
35. Flogging is a form of corporal punishment which is done through?
a. beaten with a whip
b. electrocution
 c. mutilation
d. none of these
36. What is the sentence of mang Roger if he is to be committed in insular/ national prison?
a. 6 months above
b. 3 years and above
c. less than 6 months
d. 6 years and above
37. What is the penal colony found in Zamboanga?
a. Iwahig
b. Davao Penal Colony
c. None of these
d. San Ramon Penal Colony
38. Who will approved post sentence investigation?
a. Court
b. Prosecutor
c. Head probation office
d. DOJ
39. This system teaches inmates to value himself and his dealings with others
a. transactional system
b. reality system
c. amilien system
d. behavioral system
40. What is the first prison in the Philippines?
a. Manila City Jail
b. Makati City Jail
c. All of these
d. Old Bilibid Prison
41. Who is the founder of psycho-analytic theory
a. Max Webber
b. Taylor
c. McGregor
d. Sigmund Freud
42. It states that the severity of the punishment must be fit the crime committed?
a. Benefit of the Clergy
b. none of these
c. Retribution
d. Just desert
43. The bureau of Corrections is under
a. DOJ
b. DILG
c. DSWD
d. DOH
44. It is something which will relieve inmate’s feeling of security about his situation and is likewise
essential in affecting new changes which affect the masses or inmate population
 a. all of these
b. good communication
c. conjugal leave
d. food
45. all persons in custody shall before final conviction he entitled to bail as a matter of
a. preference
b. choice
c. right
d. privilege
46. what was the first probation law in the Philippines
a. RA 4221
b. PD 603
c. PD 968
d. none of these
47. Cana probationer pursue a prescribed secular study or vocational training while on probation
a. neither
b. none of these
c. yes
d. no
48. In probation system’s philosophy and concept it is stated that the individual had the ability to
____ to modify his anti-social behavior with the right of help.
a. challenge
b. aggravate his behavior
c. change
d. none of these
49. Aside from the court there are other authorities who can commit a person to jail except.
a. none of these
b. police
c. deportation board
d. the board of indeterminate sentence
50. Upon the assumption of the IPPC’s work the United Nation preferred to identify its activities and
programs under the broader concept of
a. social justice
b. social offense
c. juvenile justice
d. social defense
51. _____ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right
a. probation
b. pardon
c. none of these
d. parole
52. It is an act of clemency which changes heavier sentence to less serious one or a longer term to a
shorten term
a. none of these
 b. reprieve
c. amnesty
d. commutation
53. What Republic act that fully deducts the period of the offender’s preventive detention from the
sentence imposed by the court
a. RA 6036
b. RA 7137
c. BP 85
d. RA 6127
54. A recipient of absolute pardon is ___ from civil liability imposed upon him by the sentence
a. exempted
b. conditionally exempted
c. not exempted
d. partially exempted
55. He opened Bonstal Prisons, considered that best reformatory institutions for young offenders
a. Moconochie
b. ZR Brokway
c. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
d. Sir Walter Crofton
56. Probation proceeds on the theory that the best way to pursue this goal is the orient the criminal
sanction toward the ___
a. either of these
b. community setting
c. none of these
d. individual setting
57. Inmates who commit suicide are considered as in any of the following
a. Liability of the sentencing court
b. no liability because inmates is insane
c. liability of the jail administration
d. liability of the inmates himself
58. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue his normal job during the week and
return to the jail to serve his sentence during the weekend or non-working hours
a. probation
b. good conduct time allowance
c. delayed sentence
d. hours
59. It is a program of graduated release designed to reduce the severity of abrupt release into the
community from institutional life
a. psychodrama program,
b. group counseling
c. conjugal visit
d. re enrty program
60. A person who is sentenced to seized imprisonment for not more than six months is called __
a. insular prisoner
 b. provincial prisoner
c. municipal prisoner
d. city prisoner
61. It is a factor used mostly for the diversification of correctional institution
a. age
b. sex
c. medical and mental conditions
d. degree custody
62. Who grants parole
a. Board of Pardon and parole
b. Director of prison
c. court
d. president
63. This group consists of chronic trouble makers but not dangerous as the super security prisoners.
They are not allowed to work outside the institution.
a. medium security prisoners
b. minimum security prisoners
c. maximum security prisoners
d. super security prisoners
64. It was built in 1704 by Pope Clement XL for incorrigible boys and youths under 20
a. Irish System
b. Auburn System
c. Hospice of San Michelle
d. Maison de Force
65. It is the amendment and penitence model of prison built in 1820’s were communication among
the prisoners was next to impossible, prisoners are individuality isolated
a. mark system
b. Pennsylvania system
c. auburn system
d. reformatory
66. It is the temporary stay of execution of sentence
a. pardon
b. reprieve
c. amnesty
d. commutation
67. It is a procedure by which prisoners are selected for release on the basis of individual response
to the correctional and rehabilitation program within the institution in which they are provided
of their sent once within the free community
a. conditional pardon
b. pardon
c. amnesty
d. parole
68. It is a justification for punishment which claims that certain things can be done after the person
has served his sentence will not want to commit another crime
 a. retribution
b. deterrence
c. incapacitation
d. rehabilitation
69. Under Article VII. Section 10 Paragraph (b) of the Philippine Constitution pardoning power is
vested with the
a. Legislative
b. Judiciary
c. Chief executive
d. DOJ
70. This branch takes charge of the operation of the daily menu makes food stuff purchase prepares
and cooks the food and serves it to the inmates. It maintains a record of daily purchase and
consumption and submits a daily report to the warden.
a. general service branch
b. budget and finance branch
c. mess service branch
d. mittimus computing branch

71. Formerly, pardon was applied to a member of the __ who committed crimes and occasionally to
those convicted of offenses against the royal power
a. royal family
b. rebellious family
c. indigent family
d. mendicant family
72. When shall probation order take effect
a. 3 days prior to issuance
b. 3 days after issuance
c. 72 hours after issuance
d. upon its issuance
73. Article 70 of the RPC provides than in applying its provisions, the duration of service of
sentence of the life termed should be
a. 40 years
b. 30 years
c. 20 years
d. 60 years
74. These are the factors considered in diversification except
a. medical condition
b. sex offenders
c. age of offenders
d. mother of offenders
75. Nobody can assume the suffering for crime committed by others. This refers to
a. certain
b. justice
 c. personal
d. legal
76. In case of conflicting orders, the order one given by the ___ shall be obeyed
a. higher officer
b. immediate superior
c. commanding officer
d. highest in rank
77. The most common problem of the national prison is
a. over crowding
b. excessive number of escapes
c. disagreement about their mess
d. lack of adequate finding
78. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be
a. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender which might be less
probable of he were to serve a prison sentence
b. promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing hum with
individualized treatment
c. prevent the commission of offenders
d. all of these
79. The period of deducted sentence granted to a prisoner who escaped on the occasion of disorder
arising from conflagrations, earthquake or catastrophe where the he voluntarily surrender
within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation announcing the termination such
disorder
a. 1/3 period of sentence
b. 2/5 period of sentence
c. 1/4 period of sentence
d. 1/5 period of sentence
80. purpose of commutation, except
a. to break the rigidity of the law
b. to extend parole in cases where the parole law does not apply
c. none of the above
d. to save the life of a person sentenced to death
81. The type of working detention prisoner who is not entitled to full time service of sentence.
a. lazy prisoner
b. sexual deviated
c. recidivist
d. homosexual
82. ____ of prisoners are aimed to prevent moral or physical contamination of one group by
another and to prevent unnecessary custodial risk
a. imprisonment
b. segregation
c. none of these
d. classification
83. Probationary may not be revoked unless
 a. a hearing is held
b. notice is given
c. all of these
d. violation is alleged
84. Punishing a criminal to serve as example to others is a theory of ___
a. equality
b. social defense
c. exemplarity
d. self-defense
85. In a suffering inflicted to an individual for having been committed an offense
a. sentence
b. punishment
c. penalty
d. retribution
86. the ____ century may be considered as the period of transition from corporal punishment to
imprisonment
a. 16th
b. 18th
c. 17th
d. 15th
87. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted to enter the place designated
in the sentence or within the radius therein specific which shall not be more than 250 and not
less than 25 kilometers from the place designated.
a. fine
b. imprisonment
c. destierro
d. segregation
88. The BJMP is provided by the government with the food allowance of offenders for 3 meals per
day in the amount of ___ for 1998
a. Php 30.00/day
b. Php 26.00/day
c. Php 19.00/day
d. Php 22.00/day
89. It plays a unique role in the moral and spiritual regeneration of man
a. education
b. religion
c. vocation
d. work
90. What is the purpose of the writing period in granting absolute pardon to restore the political
and civil rights of the offender release from prison
a. to give time to the offender to thick
b. none of these
c. to give the offender an opportunity to demonstrate that he has established new patterns of
good conduct
 d. to let the released prisoner suffer for the consequence of his criminal act
91. What law integrated Police force, jail management and penology, and fire fighting force before
PD 7 enacted
a. PD 1184
b. PD 603
c. EO #448
d. RA 4864
92. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty,
reduce the sentence and extinguishment liability.
a. president clemency
b. executive clemency
c. parole
d. pardon
93. The first workhouse in England (1557-1576)
a. singsing prison
b. Alcatraz
c. bridewell
d. walnut street jail
94. What is the legal process that prohibits in the removal of conviction from the official record?
a. mitigation
b. expungement
c. restriction
d. exoneration
95. Which of the following should not be done by a probationer
a. work regularly to support his family
b. stay away from bad associates
c. makes periodic office report
d. go and play in a gambling den
96. Which of the following institutions is included under the corrections sub-systems
a. drug rehabilitation
b. jails
c. police
d. drug enforcement unit
97. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoners’ fitness and qualifications for the grant of
pardon or parole
a. NBI
b. DSWD
c. NAPOLCOM
d. BPP
98. It is a judicial action or legal disposition that allows the offenders to remain in the community
subject to condition imposed by court order
a. parole
b. probation
c. reprieve
 d. commutation
99. Where shall Mario be confined if his sentence is 6 months or less
a. penal farm
b. municipal jail
c. national prison
d. provincial jail
100. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as gambling, prostitution and
drunkenness
a. victimless crimes
b. organized crimes
c. blue-collar crimes
d. complex crimes
101. What penal farm was used as a confinement for political prisoners in late 1870’s
a. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
b. Davao Penal Colony
c. Sablayan Penal Colony
d. Iwahig Penal Colony
102. It was an age of response to the industrialization, urbanization, technological change and
advancement of science that had revolutionized the landscape.
a. age of reform
b. age of reason
c. age of corrections
d. age of enlightenment
103. The parole and probation administration administered a ___ program
a. integrated
b. community based
c. tradition
d. institutional
104. Changing criminals through non-punitive means is referred to as
a. restitution
b. reformation
c. rehabilitation
d. retribution
105. Placido was convicted to prison term of prison correctional. Will he qualify for probation?
a. Yes, his sentence is three (30 years and one (1) day
b. no, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
c. yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years and one (1) day
d. no, his sentence is more than six (6) years and one (1) day
106. What was the system of money compensation in which harm could be atoned for by a money
payment to the injured party
a. wite
b. lex taliones
c. fine
d. wergild
107. It is an arrangement where a prisoner goes out of the institution to attend educational classes
a. guidance counseling
b. work furlough
c. vocational program
d. study release
108. What is the right to be tried in ecclesiastical court during the middle ages
a. inquisition
b. secular prosecution
c. social contract
d. benefit of the clergy
109. Prison work assignments are given to prisons usually ___
a. before sleeping
b. at early morning hours
c. after recreational hours
d. during middle hours of the day
110. Which among the following strategies should be developed in order to enhance corrections
in the country
a. encouragement of private sector to assist corrections
b. develop of clear vision, mission, objectives
c. management of correction efficiency
d. integration of correctional services
111. one of the effects of social stigma maintained by an unforgiving society against criminals is
a. worked out good relations with the community
b. fostered friendship with co-prisoners
c. responded to rehabilitation program
d. difficulties in securing employment
112. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to as
a. determinate sentence
b. capital punishment
c. indeterminate sentence
d. corporal punishment
113. Who advocated the principle that the basis of all social action must be the utilitarian
conception of the greatest happiness for the greatest number
a. John Howard
b. Cesare Beccaria
c. George B. Vold
d. Jeremy Bentham
114. What document is issued to parole when the maximum period of his prison term has
expired
a. certificate of prison term completion
b. certificate of final release
c. certificate of final release of discharge
d. certificate of final discharge
115. who among the following may have his penalty suspended under PD 603
 a. Ronald who is 25 years old
b. Eduardo who is 30 years old
c. Jack who is 20 years old
d. Peter who is 10 years old
116. It is a correctional model wherein criminals are punished because they have
infringement the rights of others and the security of the sanction should fit the seriousness of
the crime
a. Benedict of the Clergy
b. Just desert model
c. custodial model
d. rehabilitation model
117. Juanito is 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime of theft. Can he apply for
probation under the Adult Probation Sytem
a. NO, he is convicted of crime
b. NO, entitled for parole
c. NO, he is 17 years old
d. NO, his crime is theft
118. What is referred to as hustling inside the prison?
a. doing assigned prison assignment
b. selling iillegal commodities
c. befriending a prison guard
d. reporting illegal activities
119. Detention prisonement who are awaiting judgment or trial of their case are under the
supervision and control of
a. BuCor
b. Provincial jail
c. Davao Penal Colony
d. BJMP
120. Robin Padilla served his sentence at the New Bilibid Prison in Muntinlupa. Why washe
photographed at the Reception and Diagnostic Center?
a. Photographing the inmate is part of reception procedures
b. to have a souvenier and a pass of his film
c. it is a rare opportunity to have his photograph
d. he is an actor and is photogenic
121. to whom shall decision making authority be delegated
a. line supervisors
b. all line and staff personnel at the management level
c. staff supervisors
d. subordinates
122. Which of the following organizations donated the half-way house inside the compound
of the Bureau of Corrections
a. office of the president
b. Philippine charity sweepstake
c. united nations security council
 d. asia crime foundation japan
123. Juana was required to provide financial enumeration for the losses incurred by the
victim. What is this type of sentence
a. fines
b. retribution
c. payment
d. restitution
124. What institution conducts training program for uniformed personnel of the Bureau of
Jail Management and Penology
a. PNP Training Center
b. PNP Academy
c. Jail management training institute
d. fire service training institute
125. An ___ program employed prisoners in various product or good producing tasks
a. operational
b. administrative
c. agriculture
d. industrial
126. Which of the following is true?
a. it is not mandatory for the parolee to comply with the terms and conditions appearing in the
release documents
b. a parole cannot transfer to a residence other than that indicated in the release document
without the prior written approval
c. a parole may be authorized by the parole and probation officer to travel outside his
operational jurisdiction for a period of more than thirty (30 days)
d. outside travel for a cumulative duration of more than thirty (30) days within a period of one
(1) year should be considered transfer of residence.

127. Which is the central place of confinement of Filipino?

a. Camp Bukang Liwayway

b. Davao Penal Colony
c. Camp Sampaguita
d. New Bilibid Prison
128. These are group of prisoners who may be allowed to work outside the fence of the
institution under guard escorts. Generally, they are employed as agricultural workers.
a. Medium Security Prisoners
b. Super Security Prisoners
c. Maximum Security Prisoners
d. Minimum Security Prisoners
129. Who grants amnesty
a. Judiciary
b. Commission of Human Right
c. Legislative
d. Chief Executive
130. Parole is just a matter of ___
a. Right
b. Requirement
c. Grace
d. privilege
131. Article 70 of the Revised Penal Code provides than in applying its provisions, the duration
of service of sentence of life termed should be
a. 60 years
b. 20 years
c. 30 years
d. 40 years
132. The presidential Decree tat suspends the sentence of minor offenders whose ages range
from the (9) yrs. To under (18) yrs. And places them in rehabilitation
a. PD 1203
b. PD 923
c. PD 968
d. PD 603
133. No prisoner shall be made to serve more than
a. 5 times
b. 3 times
c. 2 times
d. 4 times
134. The highest official of the Bureau of Corrections
a. Secretary of DND
b. Superintendent
c. Prison Inspector
d. Director
135. It is a model in correctional history which treats criminality as a breakdown of the family
and community
a. Punishment model
b. Auburn Model
c. Penitence Model
d. Family model
136. For amnesty to be granted, there should be
a. Recommendation from U.N.
b. Concurrence of the Congress
c. Application
d. Recommendation from CHR
137. For convicted offender probation is a form of
a. Treatment
b. Incarceration
c. Enjoyment
d. punishment
138. This kind of punishment will be given to the offender by showing to others what would
happen to them if they have committed the heinous crime
a. Lethal injection
b. Stoning
c. Protection
d. Deterrence
139. Which is issued to discover and put into service other resource in the community in order
to supplement the effort of the probation officer?
a. Neighborhood technique
b. leadership officer
c. Executive techniques
d. none of these
140. What law passed by the U.S. Congress which ended the industrial prison movement?
a. None of these
b. A law prohibited the increase of delinquency
c. A law which prohibited the sale of prison-made articles to the public
limited their use to government owned or controlled institutions
d. A law which encouraged
141. What law integrated Police force, Kail management and penology, and fire fighting force
before pd 765 was enacted>
a. E.O. #448
b. R.A 4864
c. PD 603
d. PD 1184
142. Pardon is exercised when the person is
a. Already convicted
b. serving the sentence
c. About to eb convicted
d. not yet convicted
143. Who are those prisoners who cannot be trusted in open conditions and pose less danger to
society if they escape.
a. Medium Security Prisons
b. Maximum security prison
c. Minimum Security prison
d. detention prisoners
144. The following are the justification of punishment, except
a. Happiness
b. Retribution
c. Atonement
d. Deterrence
145. In prison, it is commonly thought of as a procedure to prevent escapes, riots and disorders,
and the punishment of those involved
a. Punishment
b. Control
 c. Preventive discipline
d. Discipline
146. The central goal of the probation administration is to enhance the safety of the community
by reducing the incidence of criminal acts by persons
a. Previously convicted
b. not yet convicted
c. to be convicted’
d. just been convicted
147. This was in the form of group vengeance as distinguishing from retribution, where
punishment is exacted publicity for the purpose of appeasing the social group
a. Protection
b. Retribution
c. expiation
d. deterrence
148. Is that kind of prisoner’s discipline applied after an offense has been committed, in these
that many cases, punishment does not enter
a. Strict discipline
b. Negative discipline
c. Positive discipline
d. leniency
149. This prison was considered more advantageous because it had been observed that
prisoners can finish more articles when they work in groups than working along in their
individual cells.
a. Auburn System
b. Maison de force
c. Pennsylvania systems
d. none of these
150. A person who is sentenced to served imprisonment for not more than three years, or to
pay a fine of not more than one thousand pesos or both fine and imprisonment
a. Insular prisoner
b. city prisoner
c. national prisoner
d. municipal prisoner
151. The features of the prison system were confinement of the prisoners in their cells, day and
night
a. Auburn system
b. pre-classical theories
c. Pennsylvania system
d. Judea Christian theory
152. This is also called the guidance or case conference where the prisoner, after undergoing all
the tests, interviews and examination appears before the center’s staff in conference to pan out
with him his tentative program of activities the prisoners should undergo including institutional
training recreational program, religious program, medical and psychiatry services and social
services
 a. Exit Conference
b. guidance and counseling
c. admission procedure
d. staff procedure
153. Pardon cannot be exercised in which of the following instances
a. before conviction
b. none of these
c. after trial
d. after conviction
154. It is that branch of the administration of criminal justice system charged with the
responsibility for the custody, supervision, and rehabilitation of the convicted offender,
a. Penalty
b. Punishment
c. Conviction
d. Corrections
155. It detains minimum custody offenders serving short sentences with constructed work
programs. It provided full employment of prisoners, remedial services and constructive leisure
time activities
a. ordinary jail
b. Provincial jail
c. Workhouse, jail farm or camp house
d. lock-up
156. Forms of executive clemency, except
a. Probation
b. Commutation
c. Amnesty
d. Reprieve
157. What model in correctional history that had been successfully for young boys and girls in
the earlier house of refuge and raining that was adopted for older model
a. penitence model
b. rehabilitation
c. Reform model
d. Family model
158. Who is responsible for carrying out the treatment program of the prisoners in jails
a. Classification Committee
b. Warden
c. Chaplain
d. Disciplinary Board
159. The only one instance when a prisoner maybe given passes or leaves from jails or places of
confinement, as maybe allowed by law or regulation, upon approval of the appropriate
authority, or the court, if already committed by court order and upon and recommendation of
the warden
a. Very meritorious cases
b. all of these
 c. on recognizance
d. when he puts bail for his temporary liberty
160. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance and has not yet been
convicted is a ___
a. Provincial prisoner
b. City prisoner
c. municipal prisoner
d. Detention prisoner
161. It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed for
another previous offense
a. Quasi- recidivism
b. Recidivism
c. Concurs de delito
d. Delinquency
162. This service provide the most, intensive diagnostic and treatment activities which
generality include the functions of psychiatrists, psychologists, social workers and auxiliary
personnel, particularly to offenders with deep seated emotional problems
a. Clinical
b. Case work
c. Diagnostic services
d. Medical services
163. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances
a. Impeachment
b. rape
c. murder
d. brigandage
164. The first international organization to achieve international cooperation with respect to the
prevention of crime and the treatment of offenders in 1875 is
a. Philippine Correctional Association
b. Correctional Association of the Philippines
c. International Penal and penitentiary
d. American Correctional Association
165. He introduced the progressive or mark system of penal management which granted
privileges and goo-conduct time gradually culminating to the offender’s release and a
improvement of the ticket of leave.
a. Zebulon R. Brockway
b. Alexander Machochie
c. Sir Walter Crafton
d. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brose
166. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe checked at any time. His
beddings, lockers and personal belongings may also be opened at any time, in his presence,
whenever possible. This Practice is known as
a. Operational Greyhound
b. Inventory
 c. Check and balance
d. S.O.P
167. A person can be considered an inmate if
a. Body guard of the jail warden
b. barkada of the barangay
c. has committed a crime
d. lie is the informer of the police
168. This charge of financial matters especially in programming inputting, accounting, and other
activities related to financial services. It consolidates and prepares financial reports and related
statement of subsistence outlays and disbursement in the operational of the jail.
a. General service branch
b. budget and finance a crime
c. most services branch
d. property and supply branch
169. This helps the prisoner/ detainee in the resolution of his problems
a. working
b. mentoring
c. recreation
d. counseling
170. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free will
a. Penology School
b. Neo-classical
c. Classical school
d. Positivist
171. There were three casework techniques applied by the parole officer. Which among the
following is not a casework technique?
a. The manipulative techniques
b. The executive techniques
c. The trick and treat techniques
d. The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques
172. BJMP is under the administration of the
a. Presidential clemency
b. Executive department
c. DILG
d. PNP
173. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend the execution of the
penalty, reduce the sentence and extinguish liability
a. pardon
b. Parole
c. President Clemency
d. Executive Clemency
174. The first workhouse in England (1557-1576).
a. Singsing prison
b. Walnut Street Jail
 c. Bridewell
d. Alcatraz
175. What is the legal process that prohibits in the removal of conviction from the official
records?
a. expungement
b. exoneration
c. mitigation
d. restriction
176. This theory in criminology states that criminals are totally responsible for their behavior
and the stress is more of the effect of their felonious act upon the criminal himself.
a. positivist theory
b. classical theory
c. physiological theory
d. biological theory
177. Which of the following should not be done by a probationer?
a. makes periodic office report
b. stay away from bad associates
c. go and play in a gambling den
d. work regularly to support his family
178. Which of the following are the major goals of corrections?
a. deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
b. punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
c. deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
d. retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
179. The target of behavior-change effort for inmates is not criminality per se but the variety
of problem behavior surrounding criminal lifestyles. Which of the following is not a behavioral
problem?
a. ability to control anger and frustration
b. deficiency in social skills
c. ability to logically and rationally think
d. ability to relate with others
180. Sonny is convicted for a crime that carries a prison sentence of more than eight (8) years
and one day. Can Sonny avail of probation?
a. He will be pardoned
b. Yes
c. He will be served ½ of the sentence in jail
d. No
181. Who among the following may have his penalty suspended under PD 603
a. Pablo who is 25 years old
b. Pedro who is 19 years old
c. Juan who is 10 years old
d. Martin who is 20 years old
182. What organization principle should be adopted since no one person can exercise all the
authority in making decisions
 a. line and staff work
b. delegation of authority
c. span of control
d. unity of command
183. The theory that affords the society or the individual who was wronged the opportunity to
impose upon the offender such suitable punishment as may be enforced?
a. Retribution
b. deterrence
c. reformation
d. expiation
184. Who among the following prisoners shall be considered for commutation of sentence?
1. if the prisoner is legible for parole
2. If the prisoner had been sentence to another prison form within one year from the date
of his last recommitment to the jail or prison from where he escaped
3. If the prisoner had violated any condition of his discharge on parole or conditional
pardon
4. I the prisoner is suffering from a mental illness or disorders as certified by a government
psychiatrist.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3,4 and 1
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. all of those listed
185. Which of the following institutions is included under the correction sub-system?
a. drug enforcement unit
b. jails
c. police
d. drug rehabilitation center
186. Where shall Marito be confined if his sentence is six months or less?
a. national prison
b. penal farm
c. provincial jail
d. municipal jail
187. What is the movement in 1790 which held that offenders were out of touch with God thus,
they were given bibles and placed in isolation?
a. church reform movement
b. quaker reform movement
c. reformatory movement
d. Crime prevention movement
188. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as gambling, prostitution and
drunkenness?
a. victimless crimes
b. organized crimes
c. complex crimes
d. blue-collar crimes
189. Which of the following is considered in granting conditional pardon?
a. length of time spent in prison
b. old age provided that he was not yet 60 years old at the time of his prison
c. discipline of the prisoner
d. good conduct shown
190. When can a drug user or one who is in possession of drugs be placed on probation?
a. second time offender
b. second time offender, and less than 21 years old
c. first time minor offender
d. first time offender, and less than 21 years old
191. The inmates in city/ municipal jails serve sentence of ___
a. not more than three years
b. not more than 6 months
c. not more than 1 year
d. less than 3 years
192. Which model underscores the assumption that criminal behavior is caused by biological or
psychological conditions that require treatment?
a. community model
b. medical model
c. rehabilitation model
d. reform model
193. Alfonso Mata was sentenced to imprisonment on September 10, 2002. On October 5, 2002
the judge promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the judge’s death to the service
of alfonso’s sentence?
a. his sentence will not be binding anymore
b. his sentence will be reduced
c. his sentence will be suspended
d. he will have to serve his sentence
194. With respect to the UN standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners, which of
the following should NOT be done to prisoners?
a. Young offenders shall be kept separate from child prisoners
b. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from convicted prisoners
c. Female prisoners shall be allowed to have her children stay
d. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept away from male prisoners
195. Which of the following is exercised by executives certainly with the concurrence of
congress?
a. probation
b. amnesty
c parole
d. pardon
196. Which of the following is encouraged to give the inmate a respite from the strain of prison
life?
a. report unruly behavior of fellow inmates
b. Writes his autobiography for others to read
 c. perform prison assignments/works diligently
d. maintain wholesome contact with friends and relatives through
correspondence
197. Who was the sheriff of Bedfordshire, England whose writings served to bring about changes
that resulted in the development of the penitentiary?
a. Jeremy Bentham
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. John Howard
d. Cesare Beccaria
198. One of the following criminologists espoused the idea that the certainly of punishment
outweighs its severity as a deterrent against crime?
a. Charles Goring
b. Cesare Beccaria
c. Jeremy Bentham
d. William Sheldon
199. Who among the following prisoners is a national prisoner?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2,3 and 4
c. all of those listed
d. 3, 4 and 1
200. Joan was convicted of the crime of theft at age 10. What law provides that she should b
released to her family?
a. PD 968
B. pd 603
c. PD 448
d. PD 1184
201. Female prison reform during the 19 th century had the following principles except
a. Suspension of sentence
b. provision for differential feminine care
c. Separation of women prisoners from male
d. control of women’s prison by female’s management and staff
202. The correctional principles that “the basis of all social action must be the utilitarian
conception of the greatest happiness for the greater number” were set forth by
a. Voltaire
b. Montesquieu
c. Beccaria
d. Locke
203. Which of the following is an example of residential program?
a. Work release
b. Alcohol treatment program
c. Furlough
d. Home detention
204. Who introduced the Silent System in 1831 at the Auburn Prison?
a. Elam Lynds
 b. John Howard
c. James Wilson
d. Jeremy Bentham
205. How do inmates know they have letters?
a. A jail guard delivers the letters personally
b. A list of mails for inmates is posted
c. An inmate trustee delivers the letters to addressee
d. Inmates with letters are called to the jail Warden’s Office

1. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to

suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and

extinguish criminal liability.

A. Parole

B.Executive clemency

C. Pardon

D.President’s clemency Answer: B

2. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:

A. Executive Department

B. P.N.P.

C. D.I.L.G.

D. D.O.J Answer: C

3. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole

officer, which is not included?

A. The trick and treat techniques

B.The executive techniques

C.The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques

D.The manipulative techniques Answer: A

4. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.

A. Penology School

B. Classical School

C. Neo-classical
D. Positivist Answer: B

5. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the resolution of his problems

A. Meeting

B. Working

C. Recreation

D. Counselling Answer: D

6. Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming,

budgeting, accounting, and other activities related to financial

services. It consolidates and prepares financial reports and

related statements of subsistence outlays and disbursements in

the operational of the jail.

A. Budget and finance branch

B. General services branch

C. Property and supply branch

D. Mess services branch Answer: A

7. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe

checked at any time. His beddings, lockers and personal

belongings may also be opened at anytime, in his presence,

whenever possible. This practice is known as:

A. Check and balance

B. S.O.P.

C. Inventory

D. Operation Greyhound Answer: D

8. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.

A. Murder

B. Brigandage

C. Rape

D. Impeachment Answer: D

9. It refers to commission of another crime during service of

sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense.

A. Recidivism

B. Delinquency

C. Quasi-recidivism

D. City prisoner Answer: C

10. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance

and has not been convicted is a -

A. Detention Prisoner

B. Provincial Prisoner

C. Municipal Prisoner

D. City Prisoner Answer: A

11. The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT

A. Commutation

B. Reform model

C. Amnesty

D. Pardon Answer: B

12. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal Justice

System charged with the responsibility for the custody,

supervision, and rehabilitation of the convicted offender.

A. conviction

B. corrections

C. penalty

D. Punishment Answer: B

13. Which of the following instances Pardon cannot be exercised?

A. before conviction

B. before trial

C. after conviction

D. during service of sentence Answer: B

14. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue

his normal job during the week and return to the jail to serve

his sentence during the weekend or non-working hours.

A. Amnesty

B. good conduct time allowance

C. probation

D. delayed sentence Answer: D

15. The following are the justifications of punishment, EXCEPT

A. Retribution

B. Deterrence

C. Redress

D. Expiration or atonement Answer: C

16. Pardon is exercised when the person is __.

A. already convicted

B. not yet convicted

C. about to be convicted

D. serve the sentence Answer: A

17. The idea that punishment will be give the offender lesson by

showing to others what would happen to them if they have

committed the heinous crime.

A. Protection

B. Deterrence

C. Lethal injection

D.Stoning Answer: B

18. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.

A. Punishment

B. Treatment

C. Enjoyment

D. Incarceration Answer: B

19. For amnesty to be granted, there should be __.

A. Recommendation from U.N.

B. Recommendation from C.H.R.

C. Application from C.H.R

D. Concurrence of the congress Answer: D

20. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the

A. Director

B. Secretary of the DND

C. Chief of Executive

D. Prison Inspector Answer: A

21. Which program plays a unique role in the moral and spiritual

regeneration of the prisoner?

A. None of these

B.Work programs

C.Education programs

D.Religious programs Answer: D

22. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted

to enter the place designated in the sentence or within the radius

therein specified, which shall not be more than 250 and not less

than 25 kilometers from the place designated.

A. Fine

B. None of these

C. P22.00/day

D. P19.00/day Answer: B

23. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to

others is the theory of

A. Self-defense

B. Social defense

C. Exemplary

D. Equality Answer: C
24. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to

A. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a

penitent offender

B. prevent the commission of offenses

C. promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender

by providing him with individualized treatment

D. All of these Answer: D

25. In the Philippines, the most common problem of the

National Prison is

A. Excessive number of escapes

B. Overcrowding

C. Disagreement about their mess

D. Lack of adequate funding Answer: D

26. A justification of penalty which states that nobody can assume

the suffering for a crime committed by others.

A. Justice

B. Personal

C. Legal

D. Certain Answer: B

27. These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT;

A. Age of offenders

B. Mother of offender

C. Sex of offenders

D. Medical condition Answer: B

28. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu,

makes foodstuff purchases, prepares and cooks the food and

serves it to the inmates. It maintains a record of daily purchases

and consumption and submits a daily report to the warden.

A. General Services Branch

B. Mittimus Computing Branch

C. Budget and Finance

D. Mess services Branch Answer: D

29. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (😎 of the Philippines

Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the

A. Department of Justice

B. Judiciary

C. Chief Executive

D. Legislative Answer: C

30. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called

A. Reprieve

B. Pardon

C. Communication

D. Amnesty Answer: A

31. Parole is a matter of ___.

A. Privilege

B. Right

C. Grace

D. Requirement Answer: A

32. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as

dangerous as the super security prisoners. They are not

allowed to work outside the institution.

A. maximum security prisoners

B. super security prisoners

C. minimum security prisoners

D. medium security prisoners Answer: A

33. Among the following, which has the authority to grant parole?

A. President

B. Board of Pardons and Parole

C. Director of Prison

D. Court Answer: B

34. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil

liability imposed upon him by the sentence.

A. partially exempted

B. exempted

C. conditionally exempted

D. not exempted Answer: D

35. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to

a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.

A. Amnesty

B. Commutation

C. Reprieve

D. none of these Answer: B

36. ___ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to

it as a matter of right.

A. Pardon

B. Parole

C. Probation

D. none of these Answer: B

37. In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated

that the individual has the ability to ____ and to modify

his anti-social behavior with the right kind of help.

A. challenge

B. none of these

C. change

D. aggravate his behavior Answer: C

38. The Bureau of Corrections is under the _____.

A. Department of Social Welfare and Development

B. Department of Justice

C. Department of the Interior and Local Government

D. Department of Health Answer: B

39. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three

(3) years is a _________________.

A. Municipal prisoner

B. Detention prisoner

C. National or Insular prisoner

D. City prisoner Answer: D

40. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is also the

A. Chief of the Bureau of Corrections

B. Director of the Bureau of Corrections

C. Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections

D. Warden Answer: B

41. What is the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP?

A. Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails

B. City and Municipal Jails

C. Lock up Jails

D. Insular Jails Answer: B

42. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the

American Regime. At present, who supervises and controls the

said jails?

A. BJMP

B. Provincial Government

C. DOJ

D. Municipal or City Mayor Answer: B

43. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?

A. Rehabilitation and Reformation

B. To stand trial
C. Punishment

D. Socialization Answer: A

44. Which is a place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or

court action and where the convicted offenders serve short

sentences or penalty of imprisonment?

A. Jail

B. Lock-up

C. Penitentiary

D. Detention Cells Answer: A

45. Which is a warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and

signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to

receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or

detention?

A. Mittimus

B. Detention Mittimus

C. Sentence Mittimus

D. Detention Warrant Answer: C

46. The maintenance or care and protection accorded to people who

by authority of law are temporarily incarcerated for violation

of laws and also those who were sentenced by the court to serve

judgment is called –

A. custody

B. safe-keeping

C. classification

D. caring Answer: A

47. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders

according to their sentence, gender, age, nationality, health,

criminal record, etc.?

A. None of these
B. Custody

C. Security

D. Safe-keeping Answer: A

48. The institution for dangerous but not incorrigible prisoners

in the Philippines is the

A. NBP

B. Medium Security Institution

C. Maximum Security Institution

D. Minimum Security Institution Answer: B

49. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the

state which exempts an individual from the punishment which the

law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the President

thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is

called

A. Amnesty

B. Parole

C. Pardon

D. Probation Answer: C

50. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison

uniform for maximum security prison is -

A. Orange

B. Brown

C. Stripe Orange

D. Blue Answer: A

51. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission, it

means:

A. He has taken the process of identification, record,

fingerprint and photograph

B. He has been examined for contraband

C. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk

D. All of these Answer: B

52. An inmate maybe granted parole if he

A. earned good conduct time allowance credit

B. serve minimum sentence

C. earned good behavior while serving prison term

D. all of these Answer: D

53. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its

latest objective, the

A. reformation of offenders

B. deterrence

C. segregation of offender

D. confinement of Offender Answer: A

54. In the New Bilibid Prison, all medium security prisoners are

confined at the

A. NBP Main Prison

B. Camp Bukang Liwayway

C. Camp Sampaguita

D. Medium Security Prison Answer: C

55. Under the prison rules, who is charged for the hearing of

disciplinary cases in prison?

A. Classification Board

B. Parole Board

C. Administrative Board

D. Disciplinary Board Answer: D

56. The form of conditional release that is granted after a

prisoner has served a portion of his sentence in a correctional

A. Conditional pardon

B. Probation
C. Parole

D. Commutation Answer: C

57. In jails or prisons, which of the following is a function of

the Custodial Division?

A. Supervision of prisoners

B. Escort of inmates or prisoners

C. Keeping of records

D. None of the above Answer: B

58. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting

the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring

the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is

referred to as:

A. Imprisonment

B. Trial

C. Conviction

D. Detention Answer: A

59. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in

the Philippines under the BUCOR is located in ____.

A. Palawan

B. Zamboanga

C. Davao

D. Occidental Mindoro Answer: D

60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, this is credited as the oldest

code prescribing savage punishment but in fact ___ is nearly.

100 years older

A. Hammurabic Code

B. Sumerian Code

C. Justinian Code

D. Code of Draco Answer: B

61. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means

that:

A. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.

B. No one must escape its effect

C. It must be equal for all persons

D. The consequence must be in accordance

with law. Answer: B

62. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison,

except:

A. Censor offender’s items

B. Escort inmates

C. Inspect security devices

D. Conduct disciplinary hearing Answer: D

63. As a rule, when a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has

just been perpetuated in the jail, the officer at the control

centers shall immediately:

A. sound the alarm

B. locked prisoners in their respective cells

C. Notify the nearest police precinct

D. call the warden or the director Answer: A

64. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force

shall immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to:

A. plug off the escape routes

B. to shoot the escapees

C. protect the other inmates

D. to give warning shots Answer: A

65. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which

grants probation to prisoner sentenced to term in prison of not

more than six (6) years?

A. PD 603

B. RA 698

C. PD 968

D. PD 869 Answer: C

66. The continuing relationship between probation officer and

probationer is known as –

A. Affiliation Guidance

B. Pre-sentenced Investigation

C. Supervision

D. Probation Guidance Answer: C

67. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation

Law:

A. are qualified to apply for probation

B. are disqualified to apply for probation

C. may be granted for another probation

D. should be confined in prison Answer: B

68. This pillar/component of our criminal justice system has been

regarded the weakest pillar due to its failure to eliminate

recidivism and habitual offenders.

A. law enforcement

B. prosecution

C. court

D. correction Answer: D

69. The traditional goal of penology is

A. Retribution

B. Deterrence

C. Incapacitation

D. Rehabilitation Answer: B

70. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of

punishment.

A. Retribution

B. Deterrence

C. Incapacitation

D. Rehabilitation Answer: B

71. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she

may not commit another crime in the future.

A. Retribution

B. Deterrence

C. Incapacitation

D. Rehabilitation Answer: D

72. The idea that re-entry of an offender should be in the

mainstream of society rather than the usual abrupt re-entry

at the end of a prison sentence.

A. Reintegration

B. Deterrence

C. Incapacitation

D. Rehabilitation Answer: A

73. They were known as Bridewells, which started in 1553 and

served as training schools for delinquent youths, provided

housing and support for older and poorer persons,

and detained vagrants.

A. House of Corrections

B. Workhouses

C. Common jails

D. Penal colonies Answer: B

74. It direct, supervise and control the administration and operation

of all district, city and municipal jails to implement a better

system of jail management nationwide

A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology

B. Department of Justice

C. Bureau of Corrections

D. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: A

75. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.

A. BJMP

B. Bureau of Corrections

C. Provincial Government

D. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: C

76. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with

custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, that is, those

sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three

(3) years

A. BJMP

B. Bureau of Corrections

C. Provincial Government

D. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: B

77. The New Bilibid Prison, the Correctional Institution for Women

(CIW), Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm, and Sablayan Prison and

Penal Farm are all under this agency.

A. BJMP

B. Bureau of Corrections

C. Provincial Government

D. Department of Justice Answer: B

78. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides

a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who are

likely to respond to individualized community based treatment

programs.

A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Corrections

C. Provincial Government

D. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: D

79. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to capital

punishment are considered

A. municipal prisoners

B. provincial prisoners

C. city prisoners

D. insular prisoners Answer: D

80. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months are

A. municipal prisoners

B. provincial prisoners

C. city prisoners

D. insular prisoners Answer: A

81. A prison model which sought penitence (hence the term

penitentiaries) through total individual isolation and silence.

A. Pennsylvania Prison Model

B. Auburn Prison Model

C. Work Release

D. Halfway Houses Answer: A

82. A prison model where incarcerated persons are allowed to work

outside the institution that houses them.

A. Pennsylvania Prison Model

B. Auburn Prison Model

C. Work Release

D. Halfway Houses Answer: B

83. An alternative to incarceration granted after a convicted person

served a part of his sentence and is allowed to complete a

sentence at large, subject to restrictions and supervision.

A. Probation

B. Work release

C. Parole

D. Halfway houses Answer: C

84. An alternative to incarceration that allow convicted persons

to remain at large and under varying degrees of restriction

and supervision and certain conditions imposed by the

granting court.

A. Probation

B. Work release

C. Parole

D. Halfway houses Answer: A

85. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain

persons awaiting trial or adjudication or confine convicted

offenders for a short period of time.

A. Halfway houses

B. Penal colonies

C. Jails

D. All of these Answer: C

86. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain

convicted offenders for longer or extended period of time,

including those who are waiting their death sentence.

A. Halfway house

B. Farm house

C. Jail

D. Prison Answer: D

87. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology.

A. RA 8551

B. RA 9165
C. RA 6975

D. RA 4890 Answer: C

88. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner?

A. A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years

B. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up

C. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one

(1) day to three (3) years

D. A prisoner serving a term of three (3)years and one

(1) day up Answer: C

89. This theory in criminology states that people are totally

responsible for their behaviors and the stress is more on the

effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal.

A. Positivist Theory

B. Psychological Theory

C. Biological Theory

D. Classical Theory Answer: D

90. Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires

the concurrence of congress?

A. Probation

B. Pardon

C. Amnesty

D. Parole Answer: C

91. The Parole and Probation Administration administers the _____

Correctional Program.

A. Institutional

B. Integrated

C. Community – based

D. Traditional Answer: C

92. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is

referred to as

A. a corporal punishment

B. a determinate sentence

C. an indeterminate sentence

D. a capital punishment Answer: C

93. Pedro was required to provide financial remuneration for the

losses incurred by the victim. What is the type of penalty

described?

A. Bond

B. Retribution

C. Restitution

D. Remuneration Answer: C

94. What kind of program employs prisoners in various product or

good producing tasks?

A. Agricultural

B. Operational

C. Industrial

D. Administrative Answer: C

95. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as

gambling, prostitution and drunkenness?

A. Complex Crime

B. Compound Crime

C. Blue Collar crimes

D. Victimless crimes Answer: D

96. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and

qualifications for the grant of pardon or parole?

A. Punishment, confinement retribution, treatment

B. Retribution, Deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation

C. Deterrence, retribution, punishment treatment

D. None of the above Answer: D

97. Which of the following should a probationer avoid?

A. Make periodic report

B. Go and play in the gambling den

C. Work regularly to support family

D. Stay away from bad associates. Answer: B

98. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals

convicted and meted out the penalty of

A. 12 years 6 months and one day

B. Death

C. Life imprisonment

D. 6 years one month and one day Answer: B

99. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal

disorders, chromosomes irregularity and abnormal brain activity.

A. None of these

B. Age Reform

C. Age of Discernment

D. Age of Reason Answer: A

100. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting

trial?

A. Rehabilitation center

C. Halfway house

D. Prison Answer: BeduB

. Jail