DLP Module Physical Security - Solution Part

Exercise-1.
The following questions has been designed based on POA, Physical Security, 2012, Chapter-1,
Problem Definition
1. How system approach can be defined?
Ans: System approach can be defined as a logical method for problem solving in which a
comprehensive solution is developed in relation to a problem having several dimensions.
(POA, Physical Security, 2012,Ch1, p6)
2. Once the vulnerability assessment team is assembled, the first phase of the design and
evaluation process can begin— (a) determining system goals and objectives. The output of
this stage should be (b) a design basis threat or threat spectrum, as well as an understanding
of all assets at the facility and their associated consequence of loss.
(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 1, P 21)
3. What is vulnerability? What are the differences between vulnerability assessment and
vulnerability analysis?
Ans: Vulnerability assessment is the process of identifying and quantifying vulnerabilities. The
term vulnerability analysis, which is a method of identifying the weak points of a facility, entity,
venue, or person (ASIS, 2012), has also been used to describe this process. Vulnerability has
been defined as “intrinsic properties of something that create susceptibility to a source of
risk…that can lead to a consequence” (ISO/IEC, 2009). Garcia (2008, p. 341).Vulnerability is a
weakness that can be exploited by an adversary. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 1, P 20)
4. How residual risk is calculated?
Ans: For now, it is sufficient to note that risk captures the relationship among threats, asset
value, and system effectiveness, and is often shown in this form:
R=TxAxV
R = residual risk
T = threat, a combination of threat definition and likelihood of attack
A = asset to be protected
V = vulnerability, represented by system effectiveness
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5. What are the goals of a vulnerability assessment?
Ans: The goal of a VA is to identify PPS components in the functional areas of detection, delay,
and response and gather data to estimate their performance against particular threats. (POA
2012, Physical Security, Ch 1, P 22)
6. What is the principle of probability theory?
Ans: It is a principle of probability theory that the larger the number of actual cases or events of
the kind that includes the predicted event, the greater the agreement between the predicted
pattern and the actual pattern of occurrence. (POA, Physical Security, 2012, Ch1, p14).
7. The security manager should engineer the PPS by using the building blocks of (a) peoplel (b)
procedures & (c) technology
(POA, Physical Security,2012,Ch1, p5)
8. What are the key concepts must be understood before it is possible to design a system that
meets the identified goals and objectives?
Ans: These concepts are: 1- system, 2- integration, 3-system approach, and 4- risk management.
(POA, Physical Security, 2012,Ch1, p5)
9. What is the basis of risk management?
Ans: Informed decision making is the basis of risk management.

(POA, Physical Security, 2012, Ch1, p9).
10. As a security professional, when you say that the risk is conditional?
Ans: Where there is no data to support an estimate, another approach is to assume that there
will be an attack and then evaluate risk on this basis. In this case, the risk is conditional, i.e., the
condition is that there will be an attack. (POA, Physical Security, 2012, Ch1, p12).
11. Like threat definition, (a) asset identification is critical to an estimate of risk at a site.
12. While conducting vulnerability assessment what security systems engineer needs to
understand?
Ans: Security systems engineer needs to understand detection, delay, and response
technologies and security system integration.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 1, P 21)
13. What are the key measures of effectiveness for the detection function?
Ans: Key measures of effectiveness for the detection function are (1) the probability of sensing
adversary action and (2) the time required for reporting and assessing the alarm.(POA 2012,
Physical Security, Ch 1, P 23)
14. What is the primary job of a vulnerability assessment team?
Ans: The VA team’s primary job is to determine security system effectiveness (Garcia,
Vulnerability, 2006, p.1).(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 1, P 24)
15. What is the difference between a system and integration?
Ans: A system is a collection of products, processes, or both, combined to provide a solution to a

problem or goal. Integration is the combination of a variety of components (such as people,
procedures, and technology) to form a system. (POA, Physical Security, 2012,Ch1, p5)
16. Write down the differences between compliance based VA and performance based VA?
Ans: Compliance-based approaches depend on conformance to specified policies or regulations;

the metric for this analysis is the presence of the specified equipment and procedures.
Performance-based approaches, on the other hand, actually evaluate how each element of the
PPS operates and what it contributes to overall system effectiveness. (POA 2012, Physical
Security, Ch 1, P 25)
17. What are the key to the vulnerability assessment?
Ans: The key to the vulnerability assessment is to thoroughly evaluate the site PPS so that all
paths to the assets are equally protected, and to consider what vulnerabilities exist given the
defined threats, considering their motivation, tools, competence, and knowledge (Garcia,
Vulnerability, 2006, p. 1).(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 1, P 21)
18. Any use of delay before detection serves primarily as a (a)
deterrent. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 1, P 23)
19. After the residual risk is calculated and then start the process for establishing PPS goals and
objectives. The objective includes what are the elements?
Ans: This section described the process for establishing PPS goals and objectives. These
objectives include threat definition, asset identification, and establishing acceptable risk levels
to facilitate system design or before equipment is purchased. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 1,
P 26)
20. What do you mean by “annualized loss expectancy “?
Ans: Annualized loss expectancy, is the product of the potential loss from an event and the
likelihood of the event. (POA, Physical Security, 2012, Ch1, p6)
21. What do you mean by risk?
Ans: In general, risk refers to all the adverse outcomes that an organization wishes to avoid and
is a function of the probability that such consequences will occur, their magnitude, and their
imminence. (POA, Physical Security, 2012,Ch1, p6)
22. In risk assessment, the analyst attempts to answer what are the three questions?
Ans: 1- what can go wrong?, 2- what is the likelihood that it would go wrong, 3- what are the
consequences?
23. Security professionals often have difficulty achieving sufficient credibility or acceptance with
enterprise management to develop an adequate program. A chief reason is is the absence of
quantitative evaluations of the security effort.
(POA, 2012, Physical Security, Page-16)
24. What is the difference between false acceptance and false rejection?
Ans: The false acceptance rate is the rate at which false identities or credentials are allowed
entry, while the false rejection rate is the frequency of denying access to authorized personnel.
25. Using probabilistic risk assessment is more formal, scientific, technical, quantitative, and
objective than risk management, which is based on value judgment and heuristics and is more
subjective, qualitative, societal, and political
26. A type of systems approach follows three general steps, what are these steps?
Ans: assessment of vulnerability, implementation of countermeasures, and evaluation of
effectiveness. (POA, Physical Security, 2012, Ch1, p6)
27. When a site is likely to be more vulnerable?
Ans: If a site’s PPS deviates from the functional integration of detection, delay, and response,
the site is likely to be more vulnerable.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 1, P 23)
28. A qualitative approach, which requires measurable data, may make it easier to correlate security
(a) system performance and (b) cost.
29. Prevention requires (a) intelligence gathering and (b) deterence.
30. What are the elements a risk management program should include? What are the
approaches of risk management?
Ans: Risk management programs should include both risk financing (insurance) and risk control
tools. Approaches include avoidance, reduction, spreading, transfer, and acceptance. (POA,
Physical Security, 2012, Ch1, p9).
31. What do you mean by system effectiveness?
Ans: System effectiveness is the ability of the PPS to prevent a successful attack once it has been
initiated. Vulnerabilities are PPS weaknesses that can be exploited by adversaries. (POA, Physical
Security, 2012, Ch1, p9).
32. By studying (a) the entire threat spectrum, one can design a PPS that is effective against all
threats and the full range of adversary tools, weapons, and capabilities.
33. What can be the most useful information kept by an enterprise to determine probability of
occurrence?
Ans: Accurate historical information about losses or loss events can be among the most useful
information kept by an enterprise. (POA, Physical Security, 2012, Ch1, p13).
34. A distribution curve based on what elements?
Ans: A distribution curve based on the number of times various kinds of events have occurred
among other similar events indicates which events have a high probability of occurring again.
35. What are the ways loss impact can be measured? What is the most way to measure loss
impact?
Ans: Loss impact can be measures in a variety of ways. One measure is the effect on employee
morale; another is the effect on community relations. The most important measure overall is in
dollars. (POA, Physical Security, 2012, Ch1, p15).
36. Security professionals often have difficulty achieving sufficient credibility or acceptance with
enterprise management to develop an adequate program. A chief reason is the absence of
quantitative evaluations of the security effort
37. Who are generally included in vulnerability assessment team?
Ans: The team should also include a security systems engineer, response expert, data analyst,
operations representatives, and subject matter experts (such as technical writers, locksmiths,
explosives personnel, and legal and information systems experts). (POA 2012, Physical Security,
Ch 1, P 20)
38. What is the biggest mistake made when conducting a vulnerability assessment?
Ans: The biggest mistake made when conducting a vulnerability assessment is to concentrate on
individual PPS components and address upgrades only at that level, not at the level of the
overall system.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 1, P 21)
39. What is the foundation for a true analysis of the PPS’s ability to meet its defined objectives?
Ans: Data collection is essential, as accurate data are the foundation for a true analysis of the
PPS’s ability to meet its defined objectives.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 1, P 22)
40. How effectiveness of deployment is measured?
Ans: Deployment’s effectiveness is measured in terms of the probability of deployment to the

correct location (the adversary’s location) and the time required doing so. (POA 2012, Physical
Exercise-1.2
Design Principles & Concepts
1. What are the factors can be considered in designing deterrence?
Ans: Certain factors in deterrence which are: 1-the perceived likelihood of detection, 2-the
expected severity of punishment, 3-deterrence may same as a first line of defense. (POA,
Physical Security, ch-2, p-36)
2. The design criteria based on performance criteria and (a) feature criteria.
(POA, Physical Security, ch-2, p-33)
3. What is the primary function of PPS?

Ans: The primary function of physical protection system (PPS) as : 1- detection, 2- delay, 3-
response.
(POA ,Physical Security, ch-2, p-31)
4. How to measure detection performance?
Ans: Detection performance measures includes: 1-Probability of detection (PD), 2-time for
communication and assessment,3-frequency of nuisance alarms.
(POA, Physical Security, ch-2, p-34).
5. What are the considerations are to be undertaken in designing balanced protection?
Ans: Consideration to design balanced protection : 1-minimum time to penetrate each barrier
would be equal,2-minimum probability of detecting penetration should be equal,3-features
design need to provide adequate protection against all threats on all possible paths,4-features
also need to maintain balance with other consideration, such as costs, safety and structural
integrity. (POA, Physical Security, ch-2, p-32, 33)
6. How the factors of vulnerabilities are exacerbated in a PPS?
Ans: The factors of vulnerabilities in a PPS design is exacerbated by: 1-improper or limited
training of operations or maintenance personnel, 2-Ineffective or non-existent procedures (POA,
Physical Security, ch-2, p-29)
7. What are the difference between protection-in-depth and balanced protection?
Ans: In protection-in-depth an adversary should be required to avoid or defeat a number of

protective devices in sequence and an adversary will require a separate and distinct act for
moving along the path. Balanced protection means that no matter how an adversary attempts
to accomplish the goal, effective elements of the PPS will be encountered. (POA, Physical
Security, ch-2, p-32)
12. How system effectiveness of PPS can be ensured?
Ans: The importance of system effectiveness are : 1-hardware elements of the system must be
installed, maintained, and operated properly,2-training of personnel in policies, procedures and
operation of equipment,3-security, safety and operational objectives must be accomplished at
all times. (POA, Physical Security, ch-2,p-31)
13. What are the design principles and concepts are used in physical protection system?
Ans: The design principles and concepts in physical protection system are: 1-deterrence
(CPTED), 2-ditection (sensors, Video sub-systems and alarm assessment, lighting, alarm
Communication and Display, entry Control), 3-Delay (Barriers), 4-Response (POA, Physical
Security, ch-2, p-29).
15. What are the elements need to be considered in designing PPS based on performance criteria?
Ans: Considerations on performance criteria which are :1-select elements and procedures
according to the contribution they make to overall system performance,2-values may be
compared for existing (baseline) system and upgraded systems,3-cost-benefit analysis.(POA,
Physical Security, ch-2, p-33).
Exercise-1.3
Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design
1. CPTED is a crime prevention theory grounded in environmental

criminology. (POA, Physical security, Ch3, p38)
2. How defensible space can be designed?
Ans: Defensible space design link territoriality and surveillance by creating design that leads
people: 1- to consider the area as being within their sphere of influence, 2-A place where they
have a responsibility to prevent crime.
(POA, Physical Security, Ch – 3, P – 50)
3. According to the CPTED approach, when a design can be considered proper?
Ans: In the CPTED approach, a design is proper if :1-It recognizes the designated use of the
space,2-Defines the crime problem incidental,3-Defines the solution to problem compatible with
the designated use,4-Incorporates the crime prevention strategies that enhance the effective
use of the space. (POA, Physical Security, Ch – 3, P – 51)
4. What do you understand by Capacity Threshold Theory?
Ans: Capacity Threshold Theory. This theory also known as tipping point theory: this strategy
balances land uses and urban features. For example: 1-For example, too many abandoned
properties can tip an area into crime, 2-Whereas balance of legitimate commercial properties
can enhance livability (POA, Physical Security, Ch3,p52).
5. What is the most vulnerable asset to be protected?
Ans: People are the most vulnerable asset to be protected.
(POA, Physical Security, Ch3, p 61).
6. In the coming years, (a) street crime and workplace violence will continue as major
threats.(POA, Physical Security, ch3, p80).
7. What are the approaches are adopted in situational crime prevention?
Ans: Approaches to situational crime prevention are: 1- Increasing the effort,2-Increasing

the risks,3-Reducing anticipated rewards,4-Removing excuses.
(POA, Physical Security, Ch3,p48/49).
10. Define natural access control, natural surveillance, and natural territorial reinforcement.
Ans: Natural Access Control means the idea is to employ both real and symbolic barriers
including doors, fences and bushes – to define and limit access to a building or other space.
Natural surveillance means increasing visibility by occupants and casual observers increases the
detection of trespassers or misconduct at a facility. Natural Territorial reinforcement means this
is the process of establishing a sense of ownership, responsibility and accountability in property
owners, managers or occupants to increase vigilance in identifying trespassers. (POA, Physical
Security, Ch – 3, P, 39).
11. Basing on what categories architects and engineers are called to implement security
measures?
Ans: The standards call on architects and engineers to implement security measures in four
different categories which are 1- perimeter and exterior security, 2- entry security,3- interior
security, 4- security planning.(POA, Physical Security, Ch3, p79)
12. Act of terrorism usually starts with trespassing and unauthorized access as the property is
scoped for vulnerabilities. (POA, Physical Security, ch3, p80).
13. What do you understand by crime prevention assumptions?
Ans: According the crime prevention assumptions emphasis must be given to the environment
of the potential victim rather than that of the potential criminal, crime prevention is practical,
not moralistic, reducing criminal motivation by reducing opportunities to commit crime and
crime prevention strategies should focus on the act, not the perpetrator.
(POA, Physical Security, Ch3, p44).
14. According to the CPTED theory, what do you mean by natural measures?
Ans: Natural measures include such as :1-Good space planning,2-Well – defined building
entrance,3-Arranging courtyards, patios, and porches for unobstructed lines of sight,4-Provide
specific guidance for the use of space,5-Provide architectural landscaping,6-Enhance visibility
actions. (POA, Physical Security, Ch – 3, P – 38).
15. What are the strategies are included in situational crime prevention approaches?
Ans: Situational Crime prevention includes strategies: 1-To reduce crime motives and
opportunities, 2-Stimulating the conscience of potential offenders
(POA, Physical Security, Ch3, p48).
16. Write down the components of Newman’s study?
Ans: The four components of Newman’s study were to: 1-define perceived zones of territorial
influence, 2-provide surveillance opportunities for residents and their guests, 3-place residential
structures close to safe areas, 4-design sites and buildings so these occupants are not perceived
as stigmatized or vulnerable. (POA, Physical Security, Ch – 3, P – 50)
17. According to the exploration of Newman, by implementing what are the elements crimes can
be reduced?
Ans: Newman explored human territoriality, natural surveillance, and the modification of
existing structures to reduce crime. (POA, Physical Security, Ch3, p42-43).
18. The rising importance of CPTED in the design and planning process is based on the belief that
preventing crime and losses is inherent in many areas which are human functions, (a)behaviors,
activities, and is not just something that police or security professionals do.
19. What is the ultimate purpose of CPTED?
Ans: To reduce crime opportunity and fear of crime
Exercise-1.4
Sensor
1. What are the factors that affect the probability of detection of intrusion detection system?
Ans: The factors affect the probability of detection which are :1-target to be detected,2-sensor
hardware design,3-installation conditions,4-sensitivity adjustment,5-weather conditions,6-condition
of the equipment.( POA, Physical Security, 2012, ch4, p92).
3. How the probability of sensor fence is affected?
Ans: The probability of detection of sensor fence is affected by: 1-tension of the wires,2-wire
friction,3-wire spacing.(POA,2012, Ch 4, p100).
4. In the case of freestanding infrared sensors, even with the flatness between the antenna and
receiver is maintained, crawlers may not be detected if the distance between antennas is much
greater than (a) 120 yards (109.7m). (POA, 2012, ch4, p102/103).
5. Video assessment tied to sensor activation greatly (a) reduces the amount of time required to
determine the alarm source and thereby maximizing the use of any remaining delay and increasing
the chance of successful interruption of the adversary. (POA, 2012, ch4, p111)
6. An effective security system represents the successful integration of (a) people (b) procedures (c)
equipment. (POA,2012,ch4,p112)
7. Interior sensor is highly effective against insider threats because of (a) administrative
procedures, access controls, (b) material monitoring. (POA, 2012, ch4, p11)
8. Who has the greatest opportunity to compromise sensors or the system?
Ans: Insider among maintenance personnel has the greatest opportunity to compromise sensors or
the system. (POA, 2012, ch4, p114).
9. What is the limitation of line detection sensor?
Ans: Line detection sensors only detect an intruder if he or she violates a particular entry point of a
detection zone. (POA, 2012, ch4, p116).
10. What are the common sources of nuisance alarms of microwave sensors?
Ans: Common Sources of nuisance alarms of microwave sensors are: 1-movement of objects (non
human) within and outside the detection zone,2-movement of small animals or birds,3-vibration
allowed by poor sensors installation and mounting,4-ionized gas in fluorescent lights (60 Hz rate of the
ionization) (POA, 2012, ch4, p121).
11. What do you understand by maturity model?
Ans: Maturity model is an approach for the decision makers and designers of security systems to
select appropriate security technologies which will provide enhanced security within a finite
budget.(POA, Physical Security, 2012,ch4, p105).
12. How electromechanical sensors can be defeated? Where generally this type of sensor installed?
Ans: Electromechanical sensors are Passive, visible. The most common type is a simple switch and
generally installed on doors and windows. These units can be defeated easily by placing a strong
magnet near the switch unit. (POA, 2012, ch4, p118).
13. Write the defeat methods of fence disturbance sensor?
Ans: Defeat Methods of fence disturbance sensor are: 1-tunneling under the fence, 2-crossing above
the fence without touching it. (POA, 2012, Physical security, ch4, p100).
14. PIR sensor generally requires that the source of radiation move (a) within the field of view of
the sensor (POA, 2012, ch4, p122).
15. Dual-technology sensors offer low nuisance rate and probability of detection (a) is less than the
detection of the individual detectors (POA, 2012, ch4, p123/124).
20. Passive sensors is likely safer to use in which environment? Why active sensors create fewer
nuisance alarms?
Ans: Passive or active sensors: 1- may detect vibration, heat, sound or capacitance,2-active sensor
include microwave, infrared and other radio frequency (RF) devices,3-passive sensors is likely safer to
use in environment containing explosive vapors or materials,4-active sensors have the advantages of
creating fewer nuisance alarms because of their stronger signals. ( POA,2012, Physical Security, ch4, p
98).
22. What should be the installation procedures of infrared sensor?
Ans: The installation procedures of infrared sensor are: 1-it should be installed away from heat source,
2-an infrared detector should not be mounted over or near radiators, heater, hot pipes or other
heating elements, 3-radiant energy from those can produce thermal gradients and could cause
nuisance alarms. (POA, 2012, ch4, p123).
24. What are the determining factors for the performance of buried seismic sensor?
Ans: For buried seismic sensors the conductivity of the medium is the determining factor. Wet soil
generally has good seismic conduction, a characteristics that can lead to nuisance alarms from distant
sources of seismic activity. Highly conductive soil reduces the detection volume of the
sensor.(POA,2012,ch4,p111).
25. Write down the characteristics of intrusion sensor performance?
Ans: The characteristics of Intrusion Sensor Performance are: 1-probability of detection (PD), 2-
nuisance alarm rate, 3-vulnerability to defeat. (POA, Physical Security, 2012, ch4, p92).
26. What is the difference between bi-static and mono-static active intrusion sensor?
Ans: Bi-static active intrusion sensor is an active sensor installation, when transmitter and the receiver
are installed separately. Mono-static active intrusion sensor is an active sensor installation, when
transmitter and the receiver are installed together. (POA, 2012, ch4, p115).
28. What is recommended to achieve a high probability of detection at all times and under all
expected weather conditions?
Ans: To achieve a high probability of detection (PD) at all times and under all expected weather
conditions, it is recommended to use of multiple sensors and to make contingency plan and
procedures are needed. (POA, Physical Security, 2012, ch4, p93).
29. What are the causes of nuisance alarms of freestanding infrared sensors?
Ans: While using freestanding infrared sensors, causes of nuisance alarms are: 1-vegetation is higher
than 1.2 in (2.5 – 5.0 cm), 2-nearby parallel chain link fence with loose mesh that flexes in the wind, 3-
heavy blowing snow, and 4-snow accumulation. (POA, 2012, ch4, p102/103).
30. Describe working principles of passive infrared sensor?
Ans: The principles of passive infrared sensors are: 1-intruder must through the field of view of
detector; 2-sensors can detect changes in the background thermal energy by someone moving through
the detector field of view and hiding in the energy emanating from objects in the background. (POA,
2012, ch4, p121).
31. The entire volume or a portion of the volume of a room or building can be protected by which
type of intrusion detection system?
Ans: Volumetric intrusion detection sensor can protect the entire volume or a portion of the volume
of a room or building. (POA, 2012, ch4, p116).
32. How electric field or capacitance sensors detect an intruder?
Ans: Electric field or capacitance sensor :1-active, visible and terrain following,2-detect a change in
capacitive coupling among a set of wire attached to,3-may be triggered by lightening, rain, fence
motion and small animals, 4-Difficult to defeat because the detection volume extends beyond the
fence plane.(POA,2012 Ch4,p101).
33. What do you mean by sensor access mode?
Ans: An access mode means the sensor alarms are temporarily masked so that alarms are not
displayed at the alarm monitoring station. (POA, 2012, ch4, p114).
34. As we know exterior sensors are exposed to electrical storms at most site, as a security
practitioner what types of precautions needed to be undertaken to reduce lightening damage?
Ans: Exterior sensors are exposed to electrical storms at most site. The precautions to lightening
damage can be: 1-signal cables should be shielded, whether by their internal cable construction or by
using metal conduit,2-a good ground system is needed which requires elimination of ground loops and
use of grounds at a single point,3-at the ends of the cables, passive transient suppression devices can
be installed.(POA,2012,ch4,p111).
35. To detect what freestanding infrared sensor often installed?
Ans: Freestanding infrared sensor often installed to detect a human crawling and rolling on the ground
across the microwave beam, keeping the body parallel to the beam. .(POA,2012,ch4, p102/103).
36. Vibration intrusion detection sensor include Jiggle switches, (a) complex inertial switches,
piezoelectric sensors.
Ans: (POA, 2012, ch4, p117).
37. Where generally glass break sensors are mounted?
Ans: Glass break sensors are mounted directly on the glass they are protecting and generate alarm
when detect the frequencies associated with breaking glass (normally above 20 KHz) (POA, 2012, ch4,
p117).
38. Balanced magnetic sensors provide greater protection for doors, and windows than either
magnetically or mechanically activated contacts or tilt switches. These sensors only activate (a) if
intruder open the door or window for entry.
(POA, 2012, ch4, p119).
39. Describe the working principles of Hall Effect switch function?
Ans: Relying on the Hall Effect, devices in the switch unit measure and monitor the magnetic field
strength of the magnetic unit. In a Hall Effect switch, if the Hall Effect devices measure enough
magnetic field change, an alarm is generated. A Hall Effect switch is harder to tamper and defeat than
a BMS. (POA, 2012, ch4, p119).
40. How continuity or breaking sensor can be defeated?
Ans: Continuity or breaking sensor can be defeated through: 1-the use of a jumper around a cut; or, 2-
by movement of the wire to allow penetration. (POA, 2012, ch4, p119).
41. When detection level of microwave sensor is optimum and maximum?
Ans: The detection level of microwave sensor is: 1- optimum (when target is moving toward or away
from the sensor), 2-Maximum (when across the detection zone). (POA, 2012, ch4, p120).
42. How microwave sensors can be defeated?
Ans: The vulnerabilities of microwave sensor include: 1-slow moving targets, 2-absorption or reflection of
microwave energy,3-blockage of the field of view (such as by stacking boxes or moving furniture around in
room),4-motion along the circumstances of the detection pattern. (POA, 2012, ch4, p121).
43. When PIR sensors are more effective?
Ans: A PIR is most effective if: 1-if the target is forced to cross the detection pattern, 2-entering and
exiting multiple detection segments. (POA, 2012, ch4, p122).
Exercise-1.5
Video Subsystem & Alarm Assessment
1. For proper security viewing, one should not depend on the camera to view more than (a) two
objectives (one major and one minor), and the camera should not (b) auto-pan (move side to
side) more than 45 degrees left or right from (c) the centre of its major focus.
(POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 147)
2. What we can refer a camera is megapixel?

Ans: an imager that is made up of millions of pixel points,
3. Based on which ability a lens should be chosen?

Ans: For its ability to produce the desired identification information.
1. What are the revolutions took place at the advent of digital video technology in relation to
analog system?
Ans: 2:1 interlace was dropped, the real-time video is no more 30 frames by secund and it no
longer held to NSTC or PAL standards
2. For high-security area, it may be worthwhile to interface the CCTV system (a) with an alarm device
and in a low-security area alarm interfacing may not be necessary and recording the video signal
as a backup reference may be the best option. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 142)
3. What lens formats would be suitable for a camera with a chip size of ¼ inch?
Ans: ¼ inch or larger. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 148)
4. Define sensitivity, resolution and camera’s feature?
Ans:
Sensitivity: minimum amount of light required by the camera to produce an image
Resolution: measure of the camera quality, specifically number of horizontal scan lines or digital
pixel arrays
Camera’s feature: AGC, electronic shuttering, backlight compensation
5. What is the function of electronic iris?

Ans: It de-amplifies the super-brights and amplifies the sub-blacks, creating an equal 1Vpp video
image. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 145)
6. It is common to use different models within the same system. However, what is important to
verify when using cameras that were produced by different manufacturers within the same
system?
Ans: Need to verify compatibility of language and format. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 135)
7. What are the factors should be considered while determining the lens for a camera?
Ans: Camera format, distance from the camera to the scene, and field of view. (POA, 2012,
Chapter-5, Page 148)
8. When auto-iris lens installed properly what it ensures?
Ans: The video image remains at an average of one volt peak-to-peak(vpp) under optimal
lighting conditions and as the video signal increases or decreases, the auto-iris lens closes or
opens in direct proportion. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 145)
9. What is the difference between NTSC and PAL?

Ans: NSTC is 60 fields per second and 525 vertical lines, PAL 50 and 625
10. One should choice the camera first on (a) the camera’s sensitivity second on its resolution, and
third on its features. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 135)
11. In NTC, the viewer sees 30 complete frames each second and all analog CCTV monitors and
cameras employ a 2:1 interlace pattern. How many complete frames each person can see
while viewing PAL?
Ans: Usually 25 frames per second. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 134)
12. When most often phasing and sequencing problems arise?

Ans: When cameras from different manufacturers are used in one system. (POA, 2012,
13. Why good video system is often waylaid?

Ans: By expecting too much from a single unit or installing fewer cameras than are actually
needed (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 147)
14. What basically determine the amount and type of image will ultimately appear on the
monitor? Ans: Lenses. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 135)
15. Camera format refers to the size of the imager area onto which the lens focuses light. That size
is measured diagonally (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 148)
16. If a camera will be mounted on the side of a building, 40 ft. from the ground, and the centre of
the scene is 30 ft. from the building, what is the distance from the camera to the scene?
Ans: Explain using the Pythagorean formula. Using the Pythagorean theorem which states that:
A2 = B2 + C2, Where B = 40ft and C = 30ft, A2 = [40 x 40] + [30 x 30], = 1600 + 900, =
2500 ft, A = 50 ft. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 148)
17. In your own words, explain the differences between AC/EC (video) or DC/LC lenses. (You may
have to cross reference with other sources as the POA is a little confusing in this area).
Ans: AC/EC: uses the antiquated auto-iris lens design, auto-iris increase cost of lens, used for
older cameras. DC/LC Lens: Has no electronics into it for auto-iris control but rather depends on
the camera to supply it with the necessary positive or negative motor voltages to operate the
iris, absence of auto-iris reduces cost and enhance efficiency, currently in vogue. (POA, 2012,
18. For what reason you might use a varifocal lens?
Ans: Sometimes it is difficult to determine the exact field of view that a camera/lens match will
produce. Other times, there may be no standard fixed focal length lens available to get the
desired field of view. A varifocal lens is a smaller version of a manual zoom lens that allows the
installer to make fine adjustments on site to get the exact field of view. It also means that the
installer has to carry around a smaller selection of lenses. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 152)
19. It is important to note, that the more area the camera views, the less details it picks up. In
that case, by using which type of technology larger area of view may be obtained without
losing the required detail of image?
Ans: Working with megapixel technology. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 148)
20. How varifocal lenses differ from zoom lenses?
Ans: They do not cover a full range from wide angle to telephoto but only a slight range on
either side of a fixed local-length standard lens. They do not have a tracking mechanism and
must be refocused each time their range is changed. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 152)
21. An auto-iris lens uses a motor to open or close the iris. The need for more or less light is
determined automatically by what?
Ans: By the video sampling circuit in the lens or camera. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 152)
22. The selection of lens depends on what?
Ans: The selection mainly depends on the size of the scene and the degree of visual
identification required. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 151)
23. Regardless of the type of camera for transmitting the video signal from the camera to the
monitor at distance of 1000 ft(305m) or more, which type of cable best to use?
Ans: Fiber optic cable. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 149)
24. The field of view is the final size of the viewing area as measured in width and height. Analog
systems create rectangular images that are four parts wide by three parts high (4*3).If the
image is 12 ft and then what must be the height of the image?
Ans: 9 ft. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 155)
25. How IP cameras measure their resolution?
Ans: As a multiple of the Common Intermediate Format (CIF), which is a resolution of

352*240.This means 352 pixels on a horizontal basis with 240 pixels on a vertical. (POA, 2012,
26. The resolution of image can be determined by what?
Ans: By the camera, by the transmission method, by the weakest link in the video system
interface, by the reproduction capability of the image storage system. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5,
Page 155)
27. What is basically IP camera?
Ans: An IP Camera is an IP-addressable internet protocol digital camera, in effect a true digital
camera that leverages the advantages of building a CCTV system around IT architecture. It can
typically transmit also in analog format. It is a smart camera that performs multi functions such
as digital video motion detection, facial recognition, privacy blocking and more. (POA, 2012,
28. If the video information is to be used in the courtroom, its admissibility may be determined
by what?
Ans: Quality of the recorded information, the way it was obtained, proof of originality, number
of images per second/per camera that are best for the situation. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page
158)
29. What are the parameters determine the effectiveness of a video assessment
subsystem?
Ans:
 o Minimum time between sensor alarm and video display 
 o complete video coverage of the detection zone 
 o ability to classify a 1 ft. target at the far edge of the assessment zone 
o vertical field of view at the far edge of exterior detection zone to account for the height of
a fence and a person climbing on top of it 
 o continuous operation, 24/7 
 o minimal sensitivity to environmental conditions 
 o minimal obscuration of the assessment zone 
o camera field of view and video recording system integration that displays the alarm source
to an operator 
30. What is the important consideration in the camera selection process?
Ans: Camera format. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 162)
31. To support testing of the video subsystem, test targets can be used to verify video image
quality. What should be geometric shapes of the target?
Ans: That includes a 1 ft (0.3m) diameter circle, a 1 ft, square, and a 1 ft-high triangle. (POA,
2012, Chapter-5, Page 166)
32. What is the simple method of checking for camera resolution?
Ans: To use appropriately sized targets in the assessment zones and verify that they can be
classified. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 163)
33. What should be the field of view which is sufficient to classify a crawling intruder under
appropriate lighting?
Ans: A horizontal field of view of six horizontal television lines (HTVL) per foot as the required
resolution. (POA, 2012, Chapter-5, Page 166)
Exercise-1.6
Lighting
1. Glare hurts the eye and affects its eye’s efficiency; it creates (a) excessive contrast with other
objects makes people turn their eyes away, and generally makes it difficult to see clearly. Glare
can be used effectively (b) to deter unauthorized activity at a site perimeter However, it has an
equally negative effect on patrols and response forces. Additionally, it may cause light trespass
(c) onto adjoining properties, including sidewalks and roadways
(POA 2012, PHYSICAL SECURITY, CH 6, P 174)
3. Restart times of high intensity lamps are often lengthy up to 20 minutes.

4. Standard color camera may perform at a minimum illumination of (a) 0.25 fc with an (b) f/1.2
lens.
5. How to define lamp’s efficiency?
Ans: The energy efficiency of the lighting is known as a lamp’s efficacy and is measured by the
lamp’s output in lumens divided by the lamp’s power draw in watts. (POA 2012, PHYSICAL
SECURITY, CH 6, P 176)
6. What are component make a lamp?
Ans: The lamp (also known as a light bulb) is the manufactured light source that includes the
filament or an arc tube, its glass casing, and its electrical connectors. (POA 2012, PHYSICAL
SECURITY, CH 6, P 175)
7. Where CCTV cameras are used to augment security, some additional lighting considerations
apply which are Color rendering index (CRI) for accurate reproduction and identification of
colors, (a) Reflectance of materials, Directionality of the reflected lighting,
8. NRC regulations specify 0.2 fc of illumination (a) at the perimeter and in the clear area (b)
between the two fences.
9. What types of lights fall under the group of high-intensity discharge lamps?
Ans: In particular the high-intensity discharge (HID) family of lamps (metal halide, mercury
vapor, and high-pressure sodium).(POA 2012, PHYSICAL SECURITY, CH 6, P 175)
10. With an f/2.0 lens, the minimum illumination increases to (a) 0.68 fc, an increase of 2.7 times
the lighting level. (POA 2012, PHYSICAL SECURITY, CH 6, P 183)
11. What is color rendition?
Ans: The ability of a lamp to faithfully reproduce the colors seen in an object is known as color
rendition and is measured as a color rendition index (CRI) on a scale of 0 to 100. (POA 2012,
PHYSICAL SECURITY, CH 6, P 173)
12. Typical uniformity ratios of lights would be 1:0.7 for working environments, (a) 4:1 on a
pedestrian walkway, and (b) 10:1 on a roadway.
13. Typical lighting levels are 1-4 fc for walkways, 0.5-2 fc (a) for road ways, 10 fc for (b) for
entrances and 2 fc for open yards. (POA 2012, PHYSICAL SECURITY, CH 6, P 179)
14. Typical lighting levels for security are 0.5-2 fc. (POA 2012, PHYSICAL SECURITY, CH 6, P 179)
15. The two most important parameters of a lighting system for CCTV are its minimum intensity and
(a) its evenness of illumination. (POA 2012, PHYSICAL SECURITY, CH 6, P 171)
16. What do you understand by luminaire?
Ans: The luminaire (also known as the fixture) is the complete lighting unit, consisting of the
lamp, its holder, and the reflectors and diffusers used to distribute and focus the light.(POA
2012, PHYSICAL SECURITY, CH 6, P 175)
Exercise-1.7
Alarm Communication & Display
1. Communications transmitted over copper wire in the telephone network can be intercepted at
any point in the circuit. What type of tool can be used for disguising information?
Ans: Communications transmitted over copper wire in the telephone network can be intercepted at
any point in the circuit. A scrambler is a tool for disguising information so that it is unintelligible to
those who are eavesdropping. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 7, P 207)
2. An assessment system associates (a) immediate image capture with a sensor alarm to determine
the response.
(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 7, 215)
3. It is also important to examine how the operator will be alerted to the fact that action is
required—specifically considering the type of display equipment, the format, and (a) other visual
features of the information that is to be displayed, as well as the design of the input equipment.
4. In every communication, security professionals should be concerned with what are the
elements?
Ans: In every communication, security professionals are concerned with the following:1-integrity of
the communications medium (availability of the message path),2-integrity of the message (complete
and errorless transmission of the data),3-timeliness of the transmission (data communication within
an appropriate time frame),4-message security (accessibility of the communication to authorized
persons only).
5. Individual signals in the multiplexing process share a common transmission path but must be
separated so they do not interfere with each other. What types of methods can be used?
Ans: The two methods generally used are (1) time separation or time division multiplexing (TDM), and
(2) frequency separation or frequency division multiplexing (FDM). (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 7,
P 194)
6. What are the characteristics of alarm communication systems that drive the design?
Ans: Alarm communication systems have several characteristics that drive the design. These
characteristics include the quantity of alarm data, high reliability needed for the system, and speed at
which data must be delivered.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 7, P 189)
7. An attacker attempting to disable the hard-ware installation system would have to define each
wire controlling each sensor in the area to be penetrated, and each alarm line would have to be
disabled. With the loop system, all the detectors in an area could be disabled by interrupting
the loop at the proper location.
8. What are the factors should be considered while designing work area for console operator?
Ans: Thus, the work area design must consider these factors:1-What the operator needs to see:
people, equipment, displays, and controls,2-What the operator needs to hear: other operators,
communications equipment, and warning indicators,3-What the operator needs to reach and
manipulate: hand or foot controls and communications equipment.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 7,
P 211)
9. What is the overriding design philosophy for AC&D console? What are the rules a designer
should follow while designing a console?
Ans: The overriding design philosophy is “operator first.” Designers should follow these rules:1-The
number of actions required to perform a command should be minimized. For a major command, an
operator should only have to click the mouse once or depress a single key,2 Only operations that are
valid in the current context should be available,3- The system should guide the operator through
complex operations,4- Annunciator systems should not override operations in progress,5-Systems
should not be annoying and should avoid loud, continuous alarms or bright, flashing displays,6-A given
command should be performable in several ways. Making commands available, 7-As menu items,
buttons, and keystrokes creates a friendlier system, enabling users to select their preferred
methods.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 7, P 213, 214)
10. To ensure that messages reach the operators in the highest-security or most complex systems, (a)
redundant hardware is required to handle cases of hardware failure, and the system must be able
to automatically route messages through the redundant hardware as required. (POA 2012,
11. Human factors require alarms to be reported with (a) no perceptible delay. For an operator,
no perceptible delay is a few tenths of a second.
12. What is the major advantage of private automatic board exchange (PABX)?
Ans: A wireless private automatic board exchange (PABX) uses a low-power transmitter to
communicate with handheld telephones within a limited range. The major advantage is that two-way
communication can be established with an employee whose duties require roaming throughout the
facility.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 7, P 201)
13. How the range of the microwave system can be extended? When microwave can be cost-effect in
electronic protection system?
Ans: A repeater also can be used to extend the range of the microwave system. Where short distances
are involved, microwave can be cost-effective in electronic protection systems.(POA 2012, Physical
14. The security of a communication can be enhanced by the (a) use of scramblers. This technique is
applicable to a cellular conversation. Normally, a scrambler is required at both the originating and
(b) terminating locations.
15. How a measure of security can be added in digital cellular systems?
Ans: As in digital cellular systems, the signal can be intercepted using a receiver tuned to the
transmission frequency. The use of transmission compression technology, such as TDMA, adds a
measure of security to the system.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 7, P 201)
16. The capability of optical fiber to transmit (a) extremely large volumes of information at the
speed of light has revolutionized the communications industry.
17. Alarm signals may be transmitted on an (a) unshielded pair of direct current (DC) conductors.
The size of the wire and its resistance must be considered because resistance varies directly with the
length of the line and inversely with the diameter of the wire. The effective length of a line is limited
by (b) the wire resistance.
18. The simplest line supervision is an (a) end-of-line resistor installed to introduce a constant,
measurable electrical current. A variance from the normal level beyond a determined threshold will be
detected and generate an alarm. This simple type of line supervision normally detects an open circuit
(broken connection), a ground, or a wire-to-wire short.
19. What are the methods of line security may be taken to ensure where the value of the assets
being protected or the information being transmitted is high?
Ans: Where the value of the assets being protected or the information being transmitted is high, other
methods of line security may be required, such as these: 1-minimizing the permissible variance in
circuit value,2-using quasi-random pulses, which must be recognized by the control equipment,3-using
shifts in the transmission frequency. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 7, P 206)
20. What is difference between frequency modulator scramblers and pulse modulator scramblers?
Ans: Frequency modulator scramblers cause the voice spectrum to be inverted and continuously
changed in frequency in accordance with a predetermined pattern. Phase modulators operate in a
similar manner, but it is the phase rather than the frequency of the voice wave that is changed. These
devices are similar to a rolling band splitter but usually have a higher level of security since the pattern
can be changed more frequently.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 7, P 208)
20. How it is possible to create an environment suitable for console operator to work effectively
and reduces frustration and fatigue?
Ans: Ensuring normal temperature, humidity, noise, and general comfort factors creates an
environment suitable for operator effectiveness and reduces frustration and fatigue.(POA 2012,
21. Displays in the primary interface area should not require much eye or head movement from
the operator’s line of sight, so they should be within a 30-degree viewing cone. (POA 2012, Physical
22. An on-screen display window may present text, graphics, or controls. It can be any size, and up
to (a) three windows can be displayed at once.
23. What is the difference between time division multiplexing and frequency division multiplexing?
Ans: With TDM, each sensor or data source is assigned a time segment and each may transmit only
during its assigned segment. In FDM, signals from a number of sensors on a common transmission line
occupy different portions of the frequency spectrum. Even though transmitted simultaneously, their
different frequencies keep them individually identifiable at the receiver.(POA 2012, Physical Security,
Ch 7, P 195, 196)
Exercise-1.8
Entry Control
1. What is the difference between entry control and access control?
Ans: Entry control refers to the physical equipment used to control the movement of people or
material into an area. Access control refers to the process of managing databases or other records
and determining the parameters of authorized entry, such as who or what will be granted access,
when they may enter, and where access will occur.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P 217)
2. What is the difference between coercivity and oersted?
Ans: Coercivity: The coercivity is defined as the magnetic intensity of an applied field required to
change the information. The unit of magnetic intensity used to describe the coercivity is the
oersted.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P 221)
3. What are the elements on which the verification of an entry control system are based on?
Ans: This verification decision is usually based on determining whether the person (1) is carrying a
valid credential, (2) knows a valid personal identification number, or (3) possesses the proper unique
physical characteristic that matches the person’s characteristic recorded at enrollment (biometrics,
such as fingerprint, hand geometry, etc.)(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P 218)
4. What is the name of common credential used for personnel entry control?
Ans: The photo identification badge is a common credential used for personnel entry control, but it
is not always effective.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P 219)
5. Credential forgery is relatively easy since data from the magnetic strip can be decoded or
duplicate badges encoded by the use of commercially available equipment. This vulnerability can be
mitigated to a great degree through the use of proprietary, nonstandard encoding and reading
techniques. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P 221)
6. Personnel identity verification using the hand geometry system is based on characterizing the
shape of the hand. The underlying technique measures three-dimensional features of the hand,
such as the widths and lengths of fingers and the thickness of the hand.
7. What are the objectives of entry control system?
Ans: The objectives of an entry control system used for physical protection are as follows:1-to
permit only authorized persons to enter and exit,2-to detect and prevent the entry or exit of
contraband material (weapons, explosives,), 3-unauthorized tools, or critical assets),4-to provide
information to security personnel to facilitate assessment and response.(POA 2012, Physical
8. What is the main advantage of smart card?
Ans: The main advantages of the smart card are its large memory and its high degree of resistance
to forgery or compromise. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P 222)
9. In which places, face recognition technology could be used?
Ans: Face technology does have the appeal of noncontact, and the potential to provide face-in-the
crowd identifications for identifying known or wanted criminals. This latter application could be
useful in casinos, shopping malls, or other places where large crowds gather.(POA 2012, Physical
10. What are the types of token is used in personnel entry control?
Ans: Many types of tokens (also called credentials) are used in personnel entry control. They include
the following:1-photo identification badge,2-exchange badge,3-stored-image badge,4-coded
credential (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P 219)
11. Most fingerprint verification systems use minutia points, (a) the fingerprint ridge endings and
bifurcations, as the identifying features of the fingerprint, although some systems use the whole
image for comparison purposes. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P 225)
12. Coded credential systems, also called key-card systems. Many techniques are available for
coding a badge. What are the common techniques exist for coding a badge?
Ans: The most common techniques include magnetic stripe, wiegand wire, bar codes, proximity, and
smart cards.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P 221)
13. While doing explosive detection why bulk techniques should not be used on people?
Ans: Usually, the bulk techniques use ionizing radiation that is not suitable for use on people due to
safety considerations.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P332)
14. Why making routine duplication of keys of a high security cylinder lock is quite difficult?
Ans: In both types of high-security locks, the keys are specially cut at specific angles, making routine
duplication of keys quite difficult, except on special equipment used by the manufacturer.(POA
2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P441)
15. While doing package search, which method of search is not safe for use on personnel?
Ans: In general, active interrogation methods are not safe for use on
personnel. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P331)
16. Which technology is most commonly used for package search?

Ans: Using backscatter technologies, people can be safely imaged, although X-ray technologies are
most commonly used for package searches.
(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P332)
17. Computed tomography (CT) is an automated technology for explosives detection that provides
detection of small threat masses.
18. Write down the functional assemblies of components of a mechanical lock?
Ans: In such a lock the functional assemblies of components are:

o The bolt or latch that actually holds the movable part (door, window, etc.) to the
immovable part (jamb, frame, etc.);
o The keeper or strike into which the bolt or latch fits. The keeper is not an integral part of
the lock mechanism but provides a secure housing for the bolt when in a locked
position;
o The tumbler array that constitutes the barrier or labyrinth that must be passed to move
the bolt; and
o The key or unlocking device, which is specifically designed to pass the barrier and
operate the bolt.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P440)
19. Why technologies for standoff detection of explosives are in great demand?
Ans: Technologies for standoff detection of explosives are in great demand because of the need to
detect explosive devices from a safe distance.
20. Where wafer tumbler lock can be used?
Ans: Electronic combination locks have been developed as replacements for dial combination locks
on safes and secure document cabinets.
21. A valuable feature of regular electromagnetic locks is that they involve (a) No moving parts and
are less maintenance sensitive than mechanical or electromechanical devices.
22. Methods of personnel entry authorization include credentials, (a) personal identification
numbers, and automated personal identity verification.
23. During the process of entry authorization, the credential (a) rather than the person is verified.
24. What are the elements the locking policy should contain?
Ans: The locking policy should do the following:
o Require that a systematic approach be taken to the use of locks for security purposes;
o Assign specific responsibility for the development of the lock program.
o Make all persons who will use or have access to keys, locks or access devices, or
combination information, responsible for compliance with the program requirements. (POA
25. What are differences between a failsafe lock and a fail secure lock?
Ans: A fail safe locking mechanism is one that will unlock under any failure condition. The failure
mode most commonly considered is loss of power, but failure of the mechanism itself and any
connected control device need to be considered also. A fail secure lock is one that will remain locked
when power is lost or another failure occurs. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P445)
26. Why system testing under normal, abnormal, and malevolent conditions should be performed
to verify system performance when selecting a fully integrated locking system?
Ans: Care must be taken when selecting a fully integrated system to ensure that system AC&D
performance is not degraded by the entry control function. This is why system testing under normal,
abnormal, and malevolent conditions should be performed to verify system performance.(POA
27. Which type of locks are claimed to be immune from all the typical defeat modes of a regular
mechanical combination lock as well as from electrical and magnetic attacks?
Ans: Wafer tumbler lock claimed to be immune from all the typical defeat modes of a regular
mechanical combination lock as well as from electrical and magnetic attacks.(POA 2012, Physical
Security, Ch 8, P442)
28. What are the major security difficulties are presented by the master keying technique?
Ans: Three major security difficulties are presented by the master keying technique:1-First, very
effective master key accountability must be maintained,2-Second, in any manipulation of the lock,
additional positions or possibilities are presented for surreptitious unlocking by the creation of
multiple shear lines or gate openings,3-Third, for cylinder locks the additional parts required in the
lock core create the need for additional maintenance.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P443)
29. Where the electric deadbolt lock typically mounted?
Ans: The electric deadbolt is the oldest and simplest of all electrical locking devices. A solenoid
(electro-magnet) moves a deadbolt, typically mounted on a door frame, either into or out of a strike
plate on a door. The mechanism can be either fail safe, automatically unlocking on the removal of
power, or fail secure, remaining locked on the removal of power.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8,
P445)
30. Locking systems are coordinated arrays of mutually supportive and complementary locking
elements. They are based upon design plans which consider what are the elements?
Ans:
o The need for different, concurrent levels of security control for locked spaces;
o The likelihood that such levels will change with time;
o The probability that some (or many) users will require common access in some spaces
and exclusive access in others;
o The possibility that access devices (keys, cards or tokens) may be lost, compromised or
damaged; and
o The requirement that there be effective means for adapting the system to planned, as
o Well as unanticipated changes.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P449)
31. What is the typical application of the electric strike lock?

Ans: In apartment houses, business offices, commercial installations and occupancies, what type of
lock is used? A typical application of the electric strike is to control passage in one or both
directions. Such devices have been used for many years in apartment houses, business offices,
commercial installations and occupancies in general.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 8, P446)
32. Electrified locking mechanisms allow doors to be locked and unlocked by a remote device. The
device may be a simple (a) electric push button or a motion sensor or may be a sophisticated
automated access control device such as (b) a card reader or digital keypad. In addition, many
access control systems allow the use of (c) boolean logic to augment the control of electrified
devices.
33. The electromagnetic lock is usually mounted (a) at the head of the door &, it can be mounted
(b) on the side .
34. An expensive lock on a hollow wooden door may deter the amateur but, other than leaving
evidence of a break-in, (a) will not stop a professional.
Exercise-1.9
Delay Barriers
1. To be effective, a physical protection system (PPS) must first (a) be able to detect malevolent acts
so a response force (such as security officers or law enforcement officers) can intervene.

2. The penetration time depend on what? What types of attack tool can be used to penetrate a
barrier?
Ans: Barrier penetration time depends in part on the method of attack, including the necessary
equipment. Attack tools considered in this chapter are as follows:1-Hand tools,2-Powered hand
tools,3-Abrasive water jets,4-Thermal cutting tools,5-Vehicles(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P
261)
3. What is the first step in upgrading a facility’s resistance to penetration?
Ans: Eliminating unnecessary doors is the first step in upgrading a facility’s resistance to
penetration.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P 269)
4. The principle of balanced design requires that doors and their associated frames, hinges, bolts, and
locks be strengthened to provide the same delay as that provided by the doors, walls, and ceilings
of the parent structure.
5. How the tasks of adversary can be made complicated?

Ans: Delay-in-depth is analogous to protection-in-depth for detection systems. Placing several layers
of varying barrier types along all possible paths the adversary could take complicates the adversary’s
task.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P 260)
6. Why Light-gauge vertical reinforcement channels are sometimes used inside hollow core doors?
Ans: Light-gauge vertical reinforcement channels are sometimes used inside hollow core doors to
add strength and rigidity. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P 267)
7. What is the average picking time for a skilled locksmith to pick a lock?
Ans: The picking time depends on the type and condition of the lock but averages about one minute
for a skilled locksmith.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P 268)
8. Louvers, windows, and mesh on doors can be penetrated with hand tools, which can also create a
crawl-through hole in plate, tempered, or wired glass (a) in 15 seconds . It takes only (b) 30 seconds
to force apart louvers or mesh.
9. What can be the best path for an adversary to achieve forcible entry?
Ans: In fact, a wall may be an adversary’s best path for forcible entry. (POA 2012, Physical Security,
Ch 9, P 266)
10. Doors, however, tend to be (a) a weak link in a structure because of their functional requirements
and associated hardware.
11. According to the principle of balanced design, each aspect of a barrier configuration should provide
(a) equal delay —that is, there should be no weak links.
12. That the penetration effort begins 2 ft. (.6 m) in front of the barrier and (a) ends 2 ft. (.6 m) beyond
it.
13. Upgraded hinges with a stud-in-hole feature can (a) extend penetration time. Another way to
prevent hinge-side door removal is to (b) bolt or weld a steel Zstrip to the rear face of the door.
14. UL standards require that a safe weighing less than (a) 750 lb. (34 kg) be anchored.
(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch9, P276)
15. Hinges can be compromised in about (a) one minute either by removing the pins or (b) cutting the
hinge knuckles
16. Where dispensable barriers are usually deployed/?

Ans: Dispensable barriers are usually deployed very near the assets being protected.(POA 2012,
17. What is the optimum distance between the roof and the secondary barrier?
Ans: The optimum distance between the roof and the secondary barrier is 10 to 12 in. (254 mm to
305 mm).(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P 273)
18. Safety glass that is ¼ in. (6 mm) thick can be penetrated in (a) 30 seconds., while 9/16 in. (14 mm)
security glass requires (b) with hand tools to (c) produce a crawl-through hole .
19. Glass/polycarbonate composite glazing contains a tough core of polycarbonate between two
layers of glass. Where glazing can be used?
Ans: Glass/polycarbonate composite glazing contains a tough core of polycarbonate between two
layers of glass. The glazing was developed for use in prisons. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P
271)
20. What is the time to penetrate most unenhanced windows with hand tools?
Ans: Most unenhanced windows can be penetrated with hand tools in less than 30 seconds. (POA
21. Glazing materials include standard, (a) tempered wire, and (b) laminated glass. These barriers
defend against (c) the elements but not against intruders.
22. A fire-resistant safe keeps its rated value for about (a) 20 to 30 years, depending on climate.
23. The designation “350°—4 Hours,” on the safe indicates the safe contents will endure a
temperature of 350°F (177°C) for four hours Paper could be expected to be protected (b) for four
hours in this class of container.
(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P 276, P277)
24. Traditionally what types of standard vault construction should meet?
Ans: Traditionally vault construction meets these standards:1-Reinforced concrete with steel rods at
least 0.5 in. (13 mm) in diameter, spaced 6 in. (152 mm) on center and running at right angles in
both directions. Rods are wired securely at intersections not over 12 in. (305 mm) apart in both
directions and installed centrally in the wall or panel,2-A structural steel frame protected with at
least 4 in. (102 mm) of concrete, brickwork, or its equivalent tied with steel ties or wire mesh
equivalent to No. 8 ASW gauge wire on an 8 in. (203 mm) pitch. Any brick protection used is filled
solidly to the steel with concrete,3-Fire resistance determined by wall thickness. The minimum
thickness of a 4- hour vault wall is 12 in. (305 mm) for brick and 8 in. (204 mm) for reinforced
concrete. The minimum thickness for a 6-hour vault wall is 12 in. (305 mm) for brick and 10 in. (254
mm) for reinforced concrete. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P281, P282)
25. How the fire and impact endurance test is carried out for the “safe within a safe”?
Ans: In the fire-endurance test, the container is loaded with recorded tapes, discs, and microfilm.
Two temperature limits are employed: 150° F (66° C) for magnetic tape and microfilm, and 125° F
(52° C) for diskettes. The container is placed in a test furnace that starts with an interior
temperature of 70° F (21°C). During the cooling cycle, the interior temperature and relative humidity
are recorded until a temperature of 120° F (49° C) is reached. A second unit is also subjected to the
fire impact test—a 30 ft. (9 m) drop after heating.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P278)
26. What can downfall the best-designed vaults?
Ans: Inadequate policies and procedures for opening and closing vaults are often the downfall of
even the best-designed vaults.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P284)
27. During the fire endurance test of safe, the inside temperature of a safe is recorded and cannot
exceed (a) 350°F (177°C). At the end of the tests all papers inside the safe must be (b) entirely
legible and (c) entirely legible or fall apart during removal and examination.
(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 9, P 276, P277)
28. Consolidating assets into a single room or vault is one of the most effective ways to reduce
response time and the cost of delay upgrades.
29. Containers designed for burglary protection are classified in accordance with test data and
specifications that conform to requirements of the (a) Insurance Services Office and UL.
30. Magnetic media begin to deteriorate at (a) 150° F (66° C) (lower at humidity levels of more than
80%)
31. When deciding which standards to follow for a vault (those for fire or security), the owner must
consider (a) the asset being protected and its vulnerability. Another consideration is the (b) legal
responsibility and liability of the custodian to meet any special regulatory requirements or
standards established by (c) an insurance carrier or government agency.
32. “Safe within a safe” container has been designed to protect electronic records against (a) 125° F
(52° C) or 150° F (66° C) and 80 percent humidity for (b) four-, three-, two-, or one-hour
periods.
Exercise-1.10
Respons
1. Based on what a facility should decide in advance which type of response will be used?
Ans: Depending on the needs and objectives of a facility, it is prudent to decide in advance which
type of response will be used at the site under various conditions. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch
10, P 289)
2. Various measures can be used to evaluate an immediate response to a security event. One
measure is the (a) time it takes for guards to arrive at the correct location. Another is the (b)
probability of communication which includes transmission of an alarm to a monitoring location,
assessment of the alarm, and contact among guards or other responders as they deploy to their
assigned locations.
3. Procedures should be determined in advance with facility safety personnel, (a) management ,
legal counsel, (b) local law enforcement, and other public safety agencies. These procedures should be
documented and (c) included in guard training.
4. What is a critical part of the design and analysis process of a PPS?

Ans: A critical part of the design and analysis process of a PPS is the identification of
assets, addressed in Chapter 1, Problem Definition.
5. Depending on what factors the response force of a particular facility decide either prevents
adversaries from accomplishing their objectives or work to recover the asset?
Ans: Depending on the threat, consequence of loss of the asset, and the particular facility, the
response force must either prevent adversaries from accomplishing their objective or work to
recover the asset. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 10, P 290)
6. What helps a facility manager identify potential targets, respond to different threats, interact
with outside agencies, and determine what level of force guards can use in various situations?
Ans: Prior planning helps a facility manager identify potential targets, respond to different threats,
interact with outside agencies, and determine what level of force guards can use in various
situations.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 10, P 291)
7. Timely response requires better detection and delay than a response strategy that focuses on
recovery of the asset.
8. Proprietary guard forces are those in which the members are direct employees of the facility.
Contract services also exist for facilities that prefer to contract this service out to others. There is
considerable debate as to which of these two options is best at a facility (Fisher & Green, 1998). It is
likely that the answer will depend on the (a) goals and objectives of each corporation and facility.
Facility size, (b) assets, location, cost and other factors may favor use of one system over the other.
9. What may reveal weaknesses in the security protection at a facility and provide an opportunity
to improve asset protection?
Ans: Abnormal conditions may reveal weaknesses in the security protection at a facility and provide
an opportunity to improve asset protection.
10. What is the key to effective guard regardless of which type of guard force?
Ans: Regardless of which type of guard force is used at a facility, the key to effective guard use
is training. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 10, P 290)
11. Hiring contract forces may (a) reduce costs, but it does not absolve the hiring facility from (b)
responsibility for its actions. For this reason, it is important to provide training at the facility or
(c) to incorporate training expectations into the terms of the contract with the vendor.
12. Recovery efforts may include (a) investigation of the incident to find the culprit, (b) filing insurance
claims or pursuit of the adversary immediately after the incident.
13. Neutralization elements include response tactics, (a) procedures on issues such as use of force
and post-detainment actions, training, the number of personnel who respond to the alarm, and
a. the equipment they carry.
14. The response force must be at least (a) equal to the adversary in terms of equipment, weapons,
and number if it is to successfully neutralize the adversary.
15. On what elements interruption depends?
Ans: Interruption depends on reliable, accurate, fast alarm reporting and assessment, along with
reliable communication and effective deployment to the proper location. (POA 2012, Physical
16. Based on the adversary goal and the consequence of loss of the asset, different response force
strategies will be used. Name the types of strategies are used?
Ans: Based on the adversary goal and the consequence of loss of the asset, different response force
strategies will be used. These strategies include containment, denial, and occasionally assault. (POA
17. The facility may ask security personnel to help in the event of a natural disaster, bad weather, or
accident. These services are reasonable but should not be allowed to compromise the protection
of assets at the facility.
Exercise-1.11
Analysis of Physical Protection System
1. The primary functions of a PPS are (a) detection, (b) delay & (c) response; deterrence is a
secondary function. Deterrence is the (d) first layer of defenseof a PPS and can be effective
against some threats.
2. What are the differences between compliance based vulnerability assessment and
performance- based vulnerability assessment?
Ans: Compliance-based approaches depend on conformance to specified policies or regulations;

the metric for this analysis is the presence of specified equipment and procedures.
Performance-based approaches, on the other hand, evaluate how each element of the PPS
operates and what it contributes to overall system effectiveness. The use of compliance-based
(or feature-based) systems is only effective against low threats, when assets have a low
consequence of loss, or when cost-benefit analyses show that physical protection measures are
not the most cost-effective risk management alternative. A compliance-based analysis is easier
to perform because the measure of system effectiveness is the presence of prescribed PPS
equipment, procedures, and people.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 302,303)
3. System effectiveness is a result of proper implementation of principles of physical security.

What are these principles?
Ans: System effectiveness is a result of proper implementation of these principles:1-Detect an

adversary attack while there is still enough time to respond as desired (timely detection).,2-
Provide a timely and accurate assessment of alarms to separate valid intrusions from nuisance
alarms.,3-Communicate alarm information to a response force in a timely manner, or record all
required information for after-the-event response,4- Establish performance measures for each
PPS function—detection, delay, and response—for each defined threat category or level.,5-
Ensure detection occurs before delay.,6- Delay the adversary long enough for alarm recording
and storage or for immediate response to interrupt the adversary,7-Use protection-in-depth
(multiple layers),8-Ensure balanced protection.,9-Engage and neutralize the adversaries, using
force if appropriate,10-Conduct path and scenario analyses, and use analysis tools to predict
system effectiveness, using interruption alone, or in combination with neutralization, as the
overall performance measure. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 303,304)
4. What is the difference between video surveillance and video assessment?
Ans: The difference between video surveillance and video assessment was also described, the
major difference being the use of sensors to trigger an event and the immediate presentation of
pre-and post-alarm video to a human operator for immediate action. (POA 2012, Physical
5. What is the best technique to objectively assess security elements and systems?
Ans: However, characterizing technology by testing to statistical standards is still the best
technique to objectively assess security elements and systems. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch
11, P 304)
6. What is required to make the alarm monitoring system as effective as possible?
Ans: The alarm monitoring system must communicate sensor activation to a central monitoring
point, and then appropriate data is displayed to the operator. Tight integration of technology,
human factors, procedures, and training is required to make the alarm monitoring system as
effective as possible. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 297)
7. When conducting either a qualitative or quantitative performance-based analysis, the same

six- step process is used. What are these steps?
Ans: The steps are these When conducting either a qualitative or quantitative performance-
based analysis, the same six-step process is used. The steps are these:1-Create an adversary
sequence diagram (ASD) for all asset locations,2-Conduct a path analysis,3-Perform a scenario
analysis,4-Complete a neutralization analysis, if appropriate,5-Determine system
effectiveness,6-If system effectiveness (or risk) is not acceptable, develop and analyze
upgrades.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 306)
9. After completion of PPS design, what is the next step?
Ans: After a PPS is designed, the next step is to evaluate the design for its effectiveness in
meeting protection goals and objectives. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 297)
10. The unique aspect of quantitative analysis is the use of (a) numerical measures for PPS
components.
11. What are the components of detection subsystem which provide notification of a potential
security event?
Ans: The components of each detection subsystem combine people, procedures, and
technology to provide notification of a potential security event. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch
11, P 297)
12. A qualitative analysis applies in evaluations of (a) lower-security applications. Such facilities
have lower consequence loss assets and can better withstand loss of or damage to an asset.
13. After detection, the next function of the PPS is delay, where adversary progress is slowed down
in order to allow more time for the appropriate response after detection.
14. What could be response strategies?

Ans: Response strategies including containment, denial, and occasionally, assault (or force) were
described. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 297)
15. When quantitative analysis of risk assessment is essential?

Ans: For assets with unacceptably high consequence of loss, it is necessary to conduct a rigorous
quantitative analysis, even if the probability of attack is low. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11,
P 301)
16. What is the key principle of PPS analysis?

Ans: A key principle of analysis is that an initial baseline must first be established; upgrades are
then considered if the baseline shows that the PPS does not meet goals and objectives.(POA
17. (a) Contingency planning is a major aspect of response and must be carefully considered by the
security manager to be sure that the response plan provides (b) the desired performance.
18. How to define interruption?

Ans: Interruption is defined as arrival of responders at a deployed location to halt adversary
progress. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 306)
19. What do you understand by a response storyboard?

Ans: Creation of a response storyboard allows the analyst and tactical experts to get a sense of
how long it will take for the response force to fully engage with the adversary and what tactics
are appropriate at different stages of the attack and response. Often, the response storyboard is
used for neutralization analysis and scenario development. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11,
P 313)
20. What is adversary path?

Ans: An adversary path is an ordered series of actions against a facility, which, if completed,
results in successful theft, sabotage, or other malevolent outcome.(POA 2012, Physical Security,
Ch 11, P 307)
21. When both interruption and neutralization are used, system effectiveness is the product of PI
and PN.
22. Why an adversary sequence diagram is used?

Ans: An adversary sequence diagram (ASD) is a functional representation of the PPS at a facility
that is used to describe the specific protection elements present. (POA 2012, Physical
23. Looking across the (a) product of PI and PN and (b) delay values can quickly show weak
elements that will be preferred in adversary paths.
24. When neutralization analysis can be performed?
Ans: After weak paths and suitable attack scenarios have been determined, a neutralization
analysis can be performed.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 312)
25. What are the steps to be followed to conduct a scenario analysis?
Ans: The steps to conduct a scenario analysis as follows:1-Develop attacks and tactics designed
to exploit weak paths. Consider attacks during different facility states using the defined threat
and capability,2-Modify performance estimates for path elements using these tactics or under
these states,3-Document the assumptions used and the results of the scenario analysis.(POA
26. What are the features should be considered while upgrading options in PPS?
Ans: The upgrade options generally consider the interaction of detection, delay, and response
features, as well as operational effects, life-cycle performance-cost trade-offs, single-point
failures, reliability, quality, and maintenance of the security system.(POA 2012, Physical Security,
Ch 11, P 314)
27. Why path analysis is carried out?
Ans: A path analysis determines whether a system has sufficient detection and delay to result in
interruption, it is conducted first.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 307)
28. During path analysis, the assumption is that interruption and neutralization will occur in time to
protect the asset, although the actual response strategy depends on the asset.
29. Neutralization analysis provides information about how effective the response will be under
different attack scenarios and is a measure of response force capability, (a) proficiency, training,
and (b) tactics.
30. What are the three basic steps need to be followed in creating an Adversary Sequence
Diagram (ASD)?
Ans: There are three basic steps in creating an ASD for a specific site:1-Describing the facility by
separating it into adjacent physical areas,2-Defining protection layers and path elements
between the adjacent areas,3-Recording detection and delay values for each path element(POA
31. Why scenario analysis is required to be conducted?
Ans: A scenario analysis is conducted to determine whether the system has vulnerabilities that
could be exploited by adversaries using varying tactics, resulting in lower effectiveness of the
PPS.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 310)
32. The ASD represents adjacent areas of a facility using (a) concentric rectangles and it models a
PPS by identifying protection layers between adjacent areas. The first layer is always off-site
(i.e., off facility grounds), and the last layer is always (b) the asset. Each protection layer consists
of a number of path elements (PEs), which are the (c) basic building blocks of a PPS.
33. What is the key point in developing ASDs?
Ans: A key point in developing ASDs is that one ASD must be created for each asset (target
location), unless the assets are co-located.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 308)
34. What is the formula to calculate physical protection system effectiveness?
Ans: In this case, physical protection system effectiveness (PE) is calculated by this formula: PE =
PI x PN(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 306)
35. What is the key objective of path analysis?
Ans: The key objective of path analysis is to evaluate the PPS at a facility at a high level and
determine how well protected all assets are at all times.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P
309)
36. What is the important aspect of scenario analysis?
Ans: As in path analysis, an important aspect of scenario analysis is consideration of different

operating states at the facility or near the asset. There are usually at least two facility states—
open and closed.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 11, P 312)
Exercise-1.12
Implementation of Physical Protection System
1. What are the basic tasks of security systems implementation?
Ans: The basic tasks of security systems implementation are as follows:1-planning and
assessment to determine security requirements,2-developing conceptual solutions for resolving
vulnerabilities,3-preparing security systems design and construction documentation,4-soliciting
bids and conducting pricing and vendor negotiations,5-installing, testing (which is most likely to
be overlooked), and commissioning the security systems.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12,
Page 319)
2. What is the second task of the planning and assessment phase while designing a protective
system?
Ans: The second task of the planning and assessment phase is to analyze security requirements
and formulate solutions or countermeasures concepts to reduce or eliminate vulnerabilities and
mitigate risks. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 321)
3. What is the means of a designer’s to obtain consensus from the design team on the goals and
objectives of the project, what will constitute the project, and how the project will secure the
assets?
Ans: The basis of design becomes the designer’s means to obtain consensus from the design
team on the goals and objectives of the project, what will constitute the project, and how the
project will secure the assets. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 325)
4. What are those key ingredients in the planning phase determines its eventual success ?
Ans: Three key ingredients in the planning phase determine its eventual success: 1- First, a
multidisciplinary and committed approach from either a single individual or project team is
needed,2- Second, spending the necessary time and effort in the planning phase results in a
more accurate and responsive design solution, reduced risks, reduced overall costs of potential
losses, and increased longevity and effectiveness of the installed systems.3- Third, decisions
made during the planning and assessment phase must be made on the basis of sound and
relevant risk and asset environmental information. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page
322)
5. The requirement analysis and definition process is designed to do what?
Ans: Thus, the requirements analysis and definition process is designed to do the following:
1-Ensure that the selected solutions will mitigate real and specific vulnerabilities,2-Provide a
cost/benefit justification for each solution,3-Identify all elements (technology, staffing, and
procedures) and resources required for each solution,4-Provide a basis for the accurate and
complete system specification that will be used to procure and implement the solutions. (POA
2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 324)
6. What is the last task of the planning and assessment process?
Ans: The conceptual design, also called a design concept, is the last task of the planning and
assessment process and is initially developed as a product of the VA. (POA 2012, Physical
Security, Ch 12, Page 325)
7. What is the first and most important output of the design process?
Ans: Planning and assessment efforts always culminate in a security “basis of design,” the first
and most important output of the design process. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 322)
8. Another important outcome of the planning phase is the development of the business case for
the new or upgraded security systems.
(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 323)
9. What is the Laplace’s formula?

Ans: According to Laplace’s formula, when events are independent of each other, the
probability of their simultaneous occurrence is the product of their separate probabilities. Thus
the probability that one detection system in the security system might be circumvented is high,
but the probability that all the detectors and barriers in an in-depth or redundant security
scheme would be compromised is very low. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 326)
10. What is the significant factor in the design and implementation of security systems and
programs?
Ans: Corporate culture is a significant factor in the design and implementation of security
systems and programs. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 330)
11. Most security designers identify four principal security strategies—prevention, detection,(a)
control & (b) intervention as the most important functional requirements of security design.
12. When the needs for business continuity increases, what become more important to do?
Ans: The design of a central monitoring facility is becoming more important as the need for
business continuity increases. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 330)
13. What are the components of procurement document?

Ans: The complete set of procurement documents, known as contract (or bid) documents, will
consist of three sections: contractual details, construction specifications, and construction
drawings.
14. A good design always strikes a balance between quality components and overall cost.
15. What types of testing should be conducted in order to ensure the integrity of the system over
time?
Ans: Included in the specification should be functional testing to ensure the system will do what
it is designed to do as well as a continual periodic programmed testing to ensure the integrity of
the system over time. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 336)
16. A good system design allows (a) for timing of system activations while also providing for a
central location where alarms, video surveillance and assessment, and communications can
monitored. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 330)
17. When the ideal time to seek management approval since the project team has reached
consensus on the project’s scope and sufficient detail has been developed to create an initial
budget?
Ans: The concept level is the ideal time to seek management approval since the project team
has reached consensus on the project’s scope and sufficient detail has been developed to create
an initial budget. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 326)
18. An essential component in any security system and program is the design of a centrally located
security operations center and the assignment of security staff to monitor alarm systems and
respond to alarm conditions.
19. What is the corner stone of any construction project?
Ans: Along with specifications, drawings are the cornerstone of any construction project. (POA
20. If one proposal’s system costs are much lower than those of the other proposals, how the low
proposal should be scrutinized?
Ans: If one proposal’s system costs are much lower than those of the other proposals, the low
proposal should be scrutinized carefully for the following:1-mathematical errors,2-quality of
equipment being proposed,3-experience of the contractor on projects of this size and
complexity,4-contractor’s understanding of the project,5-financial stability of the
contractor.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 350)
21. Components within the system should be configured with appropriate service points to pinpoint
system trouble in less than 20 minutes. The minimum conduit size should be ½ in (1.3 cm). (POA
22. When sole source of procurement is appropriate?

Ans: If an owner already has a vendor on board, sole source procurement is appropriate and the
level of detail of the design should complement the knowledge already held by the vendor. (POA
23. Where the control panels should be ideally located?
Ans: Ideally, the control panels should be located close to the main entry and exit point. They
should be positioned so that they cannot be reached without a ladder, should be close to a main
electricity supply, and should not be attached to combustible material. (POA 2012, Physical
Security, Ch 12, Page 353)
24. When a request for proposal (RFP) procurement process is appropriate to undertake?
Ans: If, however, a vendor is to be chosen competitively on a wide variety of factors, such as
cost, schedule, technical ability, etc., then a request for proposal is the appropriate procurement
form. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 347)
25. Explain invitations for bid procurement process?

Ans: Invitations for bid typically require sufficiently detailed design information for the
responding vendors to offer a firm fixed price to install and commission the systems specified.
26. What are the components a Security system drawing consists?
Ans: Security system drawings usually consist of plans, elevations, details, risers, and hardware
schedules.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 338)
27. When the completed forms of configuration data should be delivered to the customer for
review and approval?
Ans: The completed forms of configuration data should be delivered to the customer for review
and approval at least 30 days before database testing. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page
357)
28. By whom incident response policies should be reviewed periodically?

Ans: Incident response policies should be reviewed periodically by legal counsel. (POA 2012,
Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 361)
29. When approval of the planned training content and schedule should be obtained from the
customer?
Ans: Approval of the planned training content and schedule should be obtained from the
customer at least 30 days before the training. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 363)
30. If CCTV systems are included in the PPS, the administrators will learn the architecture and
configuration of the CCTV system, (a) CCTV hardware specifications, and fault diagnostics and
correction.
31. What are the types of test can be conducted after implementation of security system?
Ans: Several tests can be conducted after implementation, such as these:1-operational tests,2-
performance tests, 3- post-maintenance tests, 4- subsystem tests,5-limited scope tests,6-
evaluation tests. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 371,372)
32. What are the requirements of personnel performance tests?
Ans: Personnel performance tests are intended to determine whether procedures are effective,
whether personnel know and follow procedures, and whether personnel and equipment
interact effectively. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 366)
33. Testing and warranty section describes four types of tests which are 1-Pre-delivery or factory
acceptance tests, 2- site acceptance tests, 3-Reliability or availability tests, 4 after-acceptance
tests.
34. The reliability test should be conducted 24 hours per day for 15 consecutive calendar days,
including holidays, and the system should operate as specified.
35. While ensuring physical protection system maintenance, what should be structured to resolve
noncritical problems?
Ans: A maintenance agreement should structured to resolve noncritical problems as well as

issues that could cause major disruption to the organization and its business processes. Often
the best solution is to select a single contractor to take responsibility for the maintenance
requirements of the system.(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 374)
36. What do you mean by a surety bond?
Ans: A surety bond is a three-party instrument between a surety (or insurance company), the
contractor, and the project owner or customer. The agreement binds the contractor to comply
with the terms and conditions of a contract. If the contractor is unable to successfully perform
the contract, the surety assumes the contractor's responsibilities and ensures that the project is
completed.
37. What is the major goal of system maintenance agreements?

Ans: The major goal of system maintenance agreements is to ensure that the security system
operates at its optimum capability with minimum downtime. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch
12, Page 376)
38. What should be developed to ensure that preventive maintenance tasks are performed
adequately, and the checklists should incorporate any guidelines from equipment manufacturers?
Ans: Checklists should be developed to ensure that preventive maintenance tasks are performed
adequately, and the checklists should incorporate any guidelines from equipment
manufacturers. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 379)
39. To justify the replacement cost, what are the factors a security manager should consider?
Ans: At some point, the system will complete its useful life and the process of replacement will
begin. To justify the replacement cost, the security manager should consider such factors such
as the cost of maintenance, lack of spare parts, obsoleteness of hardware and software,
operating costs, and unreliability. (POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 12, Page 381)
40. What are the types of cost estimates are used in the implementation of physical protection
systems?
Ans: Several types of cost estimates are used in the implementation of physical protection
systems: budgetary estimates, preliminary design estimates, and final design estimates. (POA
Exercise-1.13
The following questions has been designed based on ASIS Guidelines (2009)
Facilities Physical Security Measures
1. CPTED relies on what?

Ans: Crime prevention design solutions should be integrated into the design and function of
the buildings, or at least the location where they are being implemented. CPTED relies on an
awareness of how people use space for legitimate and illegitimate purpose. (Source: ASIS
GDL FPSM-2009, Page 5)
2. What is building envelope and what it serve?
Ans: Building envelope: The separation between the interior and the exterior environments of
a building. It serves as the outer shell to protect the indoor environment as well as to
facilitate its climate control. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 2)
3. What routine activity theory suggests?
Ans: Routinely activity theory suggests that a suitable guardian will prevent criminal activity
from occurring. Criminals will generally avoid targets or victims when police, security, door
staff, neighbors or others are in position to observe and react. (Source: ASIS GDL
FPSM-2009, Page 6)
4. What is stand-off distance or set back?
Ans: Stand-off distance/ set back: The distance between the asset and the threat, typically
regarding an explosive threat. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 4)
5. What is tailgating?
Ans: Tailgating: To follow closely. In access control, the attempt by more than one individual to
enter a controlled area by immediately follows an individual with proper access. Also called
piggybacking. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 4)
6. When a space will naturally have less opportunity for criminal activity?
Ans: Natural or Architectural measures Designing of space to ensure the overall environment
works more effectively for the intended users; while at the same time deterring crime. A
space will naturally have less opportunity for criminal activity when it is effectively used.
Poor layout reduces the ability of intended users to apply appropriate measures.
(Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 6)
7. Explain progressive collapse?
Ans: Progressive collapse: Occurs when the failure of a primary structural element results in
the failure of adjoining structural elements, which in turn causes further structural failure.
The resulting damage progresses to other parts of the structure, resulting in a partial or total
collapse of the building.
8. Based on CPTED, explain organizational measures?
Ans: Organizational measures: Focus on policies activities that encourage observation,
reporting and where appropriate intervention. This would include education for individuals
and groups of strategies they can take to protect themselves and the space they
occupy. It would also entail routine patrol and enforcement by security, law
enforcement or others. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 6)
9. Explain natural territorial reinforcement boundary definition?
Ans: Natural territorial reinforcement boundary definition: Establishing a sense of ownership
by facility owners or building occupants to define territory to potential aggressors and to
assist legitimate occupants or users to increase vigilance in identifying who belongs on the
property and who does not. The theory holds that people will pay more attention to and
defend a particular space or territory from trespass if they feel a form of
"psychological ownership" in the area. Thus, it is possible-through real or symbolic
markers-to encourage tenants or employees to defend property from incursion.
(Source: ASIS GDL FPSM- 2009, Page 7)
10. Wooden fences are used for (a) .............................. Wooden fence's effectiveness can be
enhanced by adding (b) ........................ When utilizing a wooden fence to delay entry, the
vertical picket sections must be (c) . .............................. and the horizontal sections
should be (d) ......................., located on the (e) .....................
Ans: (a) low-security applications, (b) barbed wire, razor wire, or metal spikes, (c) no wider
than 1-3/4 inches, (d) 50 inches apart (e) protected side of the building (Source: ASIS GDL
FPSM-2009, Page 13)
11. The width of the clear zone depends on what? When exception can be made in relation to
the clear zone?
Ans: Wherever possible and practical, a clear zone should separate a perimeter barrier from
structures inside the protected area. The width of the clear zone will depend upon the
threat that is being protected against. An exception can be made when a building wall
constitutes part of the perimeter barrier.
12. Explain four design features of chain-link fence.
Ans: The following are some design features that enhance security (Chain Link Fence
Manufactures Institute, 1997):1-Height: The higher the barrier, the more difficult and time-
consuming it is to breach. For low security requirements, a 5-6 ft. (1.5-1.8 meter) fence
may be sufficient; for medium security, a 7 ft. (2.1meter) fence may be appropriate; and for
high security (such as a prison), an 18-20 ft. (5.4-6.0 meter) fence may be required,2-
Barbed wire: Barbed wires vary in gauge, coating weight, number of barbs, and spacing of
barbs. If chain link or expanded metal fences are intended to discourage human trespassing,
barbed wire should be installed atop the fence on an outward facing top guard at a 45 degree
angle,3- Bottom rail: Properly anchored, this prevents an intruder from forcing the
mesh up to crawl under it,4- Top rail: A horizontal member of a fence top to which
fabric is attached with ties or clips at intervals not exceeding two feet. A top rail
generally improves the appearance of a fence, but it also offers a handhold to those
attempting to climb over. A top tension wire should be provided if a top rail is not
installed (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 11)
13. In relation to chain-link fence what prevents an intruder from forcing the mesh up ?
Ans: Burying / Mow strip: Burying or installing a mow strip (concrete), in addition to a chain-
link fabric 1 ft. (0.3 meters) or more, prevents an intruder from forcing the mesh up.
(Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 12 )
14. What fence or wall can do?
Ans: Fence or wall can do the following: 1-Give notice of the legal boundary of the premises,2-
Help channel entry through a secured area by deterring entry elsewhere along the
boundary,3-Provide a zone for installing intrusion detection equipment and video surveillance
system,4-Deter casual intruders from penetrating a secured area,5-'Force an intruder to
demonstrate his or her intent to enter the property,6- Cause a delay in access, thereby
increasing the possibility of detection,7-Create a psychological deterrent,8- Reduce the
number of security officers required,9-Demonstrate a facility's concern for
security(Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 10,11)
15. Explain the concept of compartmentalization?
Ans: Compartmentalization: One of the basic CPTED strategies is to design multiple or
concentric layers of security measures so that highly protected assets are behind multiple
barriers. Layers of security strategies or elements start from the outer perimeter and
move inward to the area of the building with the greatest need for protection. Each
layer is designed to delay an attacker as much as possible. This strategy is also known as
protection-in-depth (Fay, 1993, p672). If properly planned, the delay should either
discourage a penetration or assist in controlling it by providing time for an adequate
response.(Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 7)
16. Where welded wire fabric is generally used?
Ans: Welded wire fabric, which is cheaper than expanded metal, is generally used for lower risk
applications. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 12)
17. Which strategy should be used while selecting physical barriers and the barriers designed to
address the specific threats?
Ans: A threat basis design strategy should be used when selecting physical barriers and the
barriers designed to address the specific threats. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page
10).
18. What types of protection window film can provide?
Ans: Window film can be designed, tested, and applied to: 1-Provide varying degrees of
protection from intrusion or "smash and grab". It can generally be defeated with
repeated attacks, 2-Reduce injury from projectile shards of glass in case of an explosion or
blast force,3-Reduce injury form projectile penetration in case of extreme weather (i.e.,
hurricane or tornado) (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 16)
19. Electric security fences consist of (a) .................. supported by posts fitted with insulators.
These fences can be (b) .................. for wall top security, or (c) .............. for high security
sites. Most industrial applications are 8 ft (2.4m) high with (d) .........
Ans: (a) a close wire grid, (b) simple 5 wire systems, (c) multi-zoned systems with up to 50
wires, (d) 20 wires and are fitted to the inside of the chain link perimeter fence. (Source:
ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 13)
20. What is the difference between deterrent fence and monitored fence?
Ans: Electric security fences come in two forms: 1) the all live wire "deterrent" fence that relies
on the human fear of electric shock; or more commonly 2) the "monitored" fence, where in
addition to the fear factor, the fence will detect cutting or climbing of the wires and
trigger an alarm. Monitored fences are usually integrated with intruder alarm or access
control systems and-increasingly-with surveillance cameras.
21. Annealed or plate glass has been manufactured to control (a) ................ such that it can be
subjected to fabrication. Regular plate, float, sheet, rolled, and some patterned surface
glasses are examples of (b) ........................ Annealed glass breaks into large shards that
can cause (c)....................... and building codes may restrict its use in places where
(d) .............................................. such as door panels and fire exits.
Ans: (a) residual stresses (b) annealed glass. (c) serious injury, (d) there is a high risk of
breakage and injury (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 15)
22. Personnel doors – in both outer and inner building walls – may be single, double, revolving,
sliding or folding. In normal security settings, their function is to provide a barrier (a)
......................... In high security setting, a door must offer (b) .....................................
i.e. by the use of cutting tools, hand carried tools and some explosives.
Ans: (a) at a point of entry or exit., (b) the maximum delay time before penetration by
extraordinary means (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 14)
23. What types of measures can be taken to strengthen the doors?
Ans: Measures can be taken to strengthen the doors by adding steel plate for reinforcement,
anchoring frames, and adding kick plates, using set screws in hinges or spot
welding hinges.
24. (a) ................is composed of two sheets of ordinary glass bonded to a middle layer or layers
of plastic sheeting material. When laminated glass is stressed or struck, it may crack
and break but the pieces of glass tend to adhere to the plastic materials. It is also the
preferred glass type (b) ............................... It will aid in the protection of building
occupants from (c) ........................................ in the event of an explosion.
Ans: (a) Laminated glass, (b) for mitigating blast forces, (c) glass shattering
25. (a) ........................ or burglar resistant provides stronger resistance to attack. It is laminated
and consists of multiple plies of glass, polycarbonate, and other plastic films to
provide (b) ........................
Ans: (a) Bullet-resistant, (b) many levels of ballistic resistance.( Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009,
Page 15)
26. The number of pedestrian and vehicular gates should be kept to the minimum, (a)
...................................
Ans: consistent with efficient operation and safety.(Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 14)
27. Tempered glass is treated to (a) .................. Building codes require tempered glass for (b)
.......................... because when the glass breaks, it fragments into small pieces rather
than shared.
Ans: (a) resist breakage, (b) safety reasons (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 15)
28. Describe working principle of credential-operated locks?
Ans: Credential-operated locks rely on a unique card or other device being presented to a card
reader at a location where the access is being controlled. The system electronically checks
the information (including the identification of the cardholder and the time period
when access is permitted) on the card and compares it with the information already
stored in the system, and either activates the lock to permit entry or denies
access.(Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 20)
29. (a) ............................, a single key operates a series of mechanical locks, and each of those
locks is also operated with another key specific to that lock. Since the compromise of a
master key can compromise an entire facility, the use of any master key must be
strictly controlled.
Ans: (a) In a master key system (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 20)
30. The time required to defeat the lock should (a) .......................... of the rest of the secured
barrier.
Ans: approximate the penetration delay time (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 20)
31. What type of curtains provides protection from flying materials in an explosion?
Ans: Blast curtains are made of reinforced fabrics that provide protection from flying materials
in an explosion. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 16)
32. What are the measures needed to consider to decide whom to let into a facility and whom to
keep out, it is necessary to?
Ans: To decide whom to let into a facility and whom to keep out, it is necessary to consider
measures such as: 1-Tokens or other items in the person’s possession (such as a metal
key; a proximity, insertion, or swipe card or a photo identification card),2-Private
information known by the individual (such as a password or personal identification
number,3- Biometric features of the person (such as fingerprint, hand geometry, iris
and retinal patterns, signatures or speech patterns) (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page
19)
33. What types of attack an adversary might adopt to defeat an access control point?
Ans: An adversary may use several types of attacks to defeat an access control point: 1-Deceit:
The adversary employs false pretenses in an attempt to convince security personnel or an
employee to permit entry, 2- Direct physical attack: The adversary uses tools to force entry
into an area, 3-Technical attack: The adversary forges a credential, guesses a personal
identification number, or obtains another person's credential. (Source: ASIS GDL
FPSM-2009, Page 18)
34. Typically what are the purposes of security lighting?
Ans: Typically, the purposes of security lighting-discouraging unauthorized entry, protecting
employees and visitors on site, and detecting intruders-are served both outdoor and indoor.
35. Electronic access control systems validate (a) ............................. which can be in the form of
something you know, (b) ............................ or something you carry. Components of
a full featured system can include a credential reader, (c) .............................,
central database, software, supplementary interfaces to external systems, and (d)
.............................................
Ans: (a) one or more credentials (b) something that is inherent to you, (c) communication
cabling distributed processor, (d) applications for request-to-exit devices for applicable
doors.
36. How progressive collapse can be prevented?
Ans: Prevention of progressive collapse, accomplished by structural design that prevents the
loss a primary structural member from causing the further failure of primary structural
members beyond the local damage zone.
(Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 16, 17)
37. Mechanical locks – such as door locks, cabinet locks and padlock use an arrangement of
physical parts to prevent the opening of the bolt or latch. The two major components
in most mechanical locks are the ..............................................
Ans: (a) coded mechanism and the fastening device. ( Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 19)
38. An electromagnetic lock consists of an electromagnet (attached to the door frame) and an
armature plate (attached to the door). A current passing through the electromagnet
attracts the armature plate thereby holds the door shut. Electromagnetic locks are useful
on doors that are (a) ........................... and where (b) ..................... could not be
achieved. Electromagnetic locks should be coordinated with (c) ......................
Ans: (a) architecturally significant (b) mechanical latching otherwise (c) with safety codes.
39. The quality of IDS and its components greatly affects its usefulness. How deficiencies in IDS
can harm a security program?
Ans: The quality of IDS and its components greatly affects its usefulness. Deficiencies can harm
a security program by causing the system to:1-Fail to detect an intruder,2-Falsely report
breaches (nuisance and unintentional) which generate costly and repeated deployment of
security or law enforcement and maintenance personnel,3-Create excessive false
activations so that alarms are ignored or security and law enforcement officers are
called unnecessarily. (Many jurisdictions levy fines for excessive numbers of false alarm
calls to police,4-Provide a false sense of security(Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 25)
40. Which light projects a downward circular pattern illumination?
Ans: Streetlight: This projects a downward circular pattern illumination
41. Where generally floodlights are used?
Ans: Floodlight: This projects a medium to wide beam on a larger area. It is used in a variety of
setting including the perimeters of commercial, industrial, and residential areas
42. Which type of lamps are energy efficient and have a long life span, but poor color rendition
for video surveillance system. They are often applied on streets and parking lots, and
their particular quality of light enables people to see more detail at greater distances in fog?
Ans: High-pressure sodium: These lamps are energy efficient and have a long life span, but
poor color rendition for video surveillance system. They are often applied on streets and
parking lots, and their particular quality of light enables people to see more detail at greater
distances in fog.
43. LED (light emitting diodes): These lamps are one of the newest lighting sources and have the
potential of furnishing (a) ............................. that lasts longer without sacrificing
illumination.
Ans: (a) a cost effective alternative (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 24)
44. Fresnel: This lighting typically projects a narrow, horizontal beam. Unlike a floodlight, which
illuminates a large area, the Fresnel can be used to (a) ................. while leaving security
personnel concealed. It is often used (b).................................
Ans: (a) illuminate potential intruders (b) at the perimeters of industrial sites. (Source: ASIS
45. Which type of lamps are more efficient than incandescent lamps but are not used
extensively outdoors, except for underpasses, tunnels, and signs?
Ans: Fluorescent: Fluorescent lamps are more efficient than incandescent lamps but are not
used extensively outdoors, except for underpasses, tunnels, and signs. (Source: ASIS
46. Which type of type of lamps take several minutes to produce full light output and have poor
color rendition for video surveillance, but they have a long life?
Ans: Mercury vapor: The lamps take several minutes to produce full light output and have poor
color rendition for video surveillance, but they have a long life(Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009,
Page 24)
47. Which type of lamp used at sport stadium, work well with video surveillance and can provide
accurate color rendition?
Ans: Metal halide: They are often used at sports stadium because they imitate daylight; for the
same reason they work well with video surveillance system by providing accurate color
rendition.
48. Which types of lamps have a long life and, similar to fluorescent lamps, are utilized mainly
indoors, except for parking structures underpasses, and tunnels?
Ans: Induction: Induction lamps have a long life and, similar to fluorescent lamps, are utilized
mainly indoors, except for parking structures underpasses, and tunnels(Source: ASIS GDL
FPSM-2009, Page 24)
49. Name the different types of duress/panic alarms? When these alarms should be used?
Ans: Duress/Panic alarms: Wired switches, person-down devices, wireless pushbutton
transmitters, “Lack of Motion" devices, emergency notification call boxes, etc., are some of
the device types which are employed to protect personnel by transmitting assistance
alarms. These alarms should be of the highest priority level. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009,
Page 27)
50. When security mangers are employees of an organization, it is preferable that they be (a)
...................................... Such placement helps demonstrate that the organization consider
security an important function by involving the security manager in the
Ans: (a) part of senior management (b) planning and the decision making process.
51. Define time-lapse(analog) recorder?
Ans: Time-lapse (analog) recorder: These recorders are designed to make a two-hour cassette
record up to 900 hours by allowing-time to lapse between recorded images. Instead of a full
25 frames (FAL) or 30 frames (NTSC) of video information being recorded each second, a
time-lapse recorder may capture only a fraction as many frames. The strongest market
for the time-lapse machine is retail, industrial, and long term surveillance. (Source: ASIS GDL
FPSM-2009, Page 32)
52. What is the potential drawback to PTZ camera applications?
Ans: A potential drawback to PTZ camera applications is that the camera is out of position,
unable to capture an event as it is happening. Most PTZ camera applications are used for
assessment or video patrol purpose. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 29)
53. Coaxial cable is generally sufficient (a) ................ , but it does not work for IP-based systems
(b) ......................
Ans: (a) for analog cameras (b) without media transformer (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page
32)
54. In determining which structure (contract security or proprietary security) is appropriate,
organizations should identify their programmatic goals (based on a needs assessment), (a)
..................... financial and management capabilities, (b) ............., cultural, and other
factors. Where contract services are considered, (b) ...............should review all
contractual agreements prior being signed.
Ans: (a) regulatory requirements, (b) performance expectations (c) legal counsel (Source: ASIS
GDL FPSM- 2009, Page 35)
55. When selecting video surveillance system equipment, it is important to use a systems
approach as opposed to a components approach. What do you mean by system
approach?
Ans: When selecting video surveillance system equipment, it is important to use a systems
approach as opposed to a components approach. A systems approach examines
how equipment will work with other elements of the video surveillance system, with other
workplace systems, and with the environment in which it is needed. This approach
results in a video surveillance system that operates effectively and satisfies a
facility's needs. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 30)
56. What are the elements affect the image quality?
Ans: Image quality is also affected by excessive shadows (light to dark ratio), lens glare and
backlighting. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 30)
57. What is the fundamental tool to most security officer positions?
Ans: Keys: A fundamental tool to most security officer positions. Care should be taken to
ensure that all keys are accounted for at the beginning and end of shift. Additionally,
proper care should be taken so that damage to keys does not occur. (Source: ASIS GDL
FPSM-2009, Page 37)
58. What do you mean by frames per seconds?
Ans: Frames per Seconds (FPS): Recorders may discard image frames to save storage space. If
too many are discarded – that is, if the system records only one or two frames per second –
then fast moving action may not be captured or items in the scene may seem
simply to appear or disappear.
59. Explain focal length of a lens?
Ans: The focal length of the lens determines the size (width and height) of the scene viewed.
The longer the focal length, the smaller the scene captured. Lens focal lengths are typically
measured in millimeters and are characterized as telephoto standard or wide angle.
Variofocal lenses are often used in applications that require a zoom capability. The lens’s
iris, which opens and close to controls the quantity of light that reaches the camera’s sensing
element, may be manual or automatic.
60. Name the major types of video surveillance cameras?
Ans: The major types of video surveillance cameras are : 1- analog, 2- IP(Internet protocol), 3-
Infrared, 4- thermal. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 31)
61. What do you mean by security convergence?
Ans: Security Convergence: However, it is recognized that many security systems are
increasingly being equipped with network connectivity to enable them to share a
facility's network infrastructure. Planning for, implementation, and management of
converged security solutions often requires partnerships between physical
security, IT security, IT, and other corporate or organizational stakeholders.
62. A concerted effort to address security issues on policy level shows (a) ................ and that
management was aware of such issues and attempted to address them.
Ans: due-diligence (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 38)
63. Organizations may chose to develop policies that address general issues, ............ ..................
& .................
Ans: people, property and information. (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 38)
64. In a broad sense, (a) ................... should be considered part of the security program. Through
a (b) ........................, employees should be taught to understand the relationship
between security and the organization’s success, learn their obligations under the
security program, understand how various security measures support security program
objectives, and become familiar with available resources to help with security concerns.
Ans: (a) every employee (b) security awareness program (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page
37)
65. What form the basis for corrective action in the event of inappropriate behavior or
underperformance?
Ans: Policies and procedures can also form the basis for corrective action in the event of
inappropriate behavior or underperformance.(Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009, Page 37)
66. Policies are generally reviewed, approved, and issued (a) ......................... of an organization.
Once established, they tend to remain in place for an extended period. Therefore they
should be aligned with the (b) ...................... of the organization.
Ans: (a) at the executive level (b) overall business objectives (Source: ASIS GDL FPSM-2009,
Page 38)

DLP Module Physical Security - Solution Part

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Exercise-1.

1. How system approach can be defined?

(POA 2012, Physical Security, Ch 1, P 21)

4. How residual risk is calculated?

6. What is the principle of probability theory?

9. What is the basis of risk management?

Ans: Informed decision making is the basis of risk management.

(POA, Physical Security, 2012, Ch1, p15).

14. What is the primary job of a vulnerability assessment team?

15. What is the difference between a system and integration?

Ans: A system is a collection of products, processes, or both, combined to provide a solution to a

Ans: Compliance-based approaches depend on conformance to specified policies or regulations;

17. What are the key to the vulnerability assessment?

20. What do you mean by “annualized loss expectancy “?

21. What do you mean by risk?

27. When a site is likely to be more vulnerable?

29. Prevention requires (a) intelligence gathering and (b) deterence.

(POA, Physical Security, 2012, Ch1, p8).

31. What do you mean by system effectiveness?

34. A distribution curve based on what elements?

37. Who are generally included in vulnerability assessment team?

40. How effectiveness of deployment is measured?

Ans: Deployment’s effectiveness is measured in terms of the probability of deployment to the

1. What are the factors can be considered in designing deterrence?

3. What is the primary function of PPS?

4. How to measure detection performance?

5. What are the considerations are to be undertaken in designing balanced protection?

7. What are the difference between protection-in-depth and balanced protection?

Ans: In protection-in-depth an adversary should be required to avoid or defeat a number of

12. How system effectiveness of PPS can be ensured?

1. CPTED is a crime prevention theory grounded in environmental

2. How defensible space can be designed?

3. According to the CPTED approach, when a design can be considered proper?

4. What do you understand by Capacity Threshold Theory?

5. What is the most vulnerable asset to be protected?

Ans: People are the most vulnerable asset to be protected.

(POA, Physical Security, Ch3, p 61).

7. What are the approaches are adopted in situational crime prevention?

Ans: Approaches to situational crime prevention are: 1- Increasing the effort,2-Increasing

13. What do you understand by crime prevention assumptions?

(POA, Physical Security, Ch3, p44).

(POA, Physical Security, Ch3, p48).

Ans: To reduce crime opportunity and fear of crime

(POA, 2012, Physical Security, Page-37)

3. How the probability of sensor fence is affected?

8. Who has the greatest opportunity to compromise sensors or the system?

9. What is the limitation of line detection sensor?

11. What do you understand by maturity model?

22. What should be the installation procedures of infrared sensor?

25. Write down the characteristics of intrusion sensor performance?

30. Describe working principles of passive infrared sensor?

32. How electric field or capacitance sensors detect an intruder?

33. What do you mean by sensor access mode?

35. To detect what freestanding infrared sensor often installed?

Ans: (POA, 2012, ch4, p117).

37. Where generally glass break sensors are mounted?

(POA, 2012, ch4, p119).

39. Describe the working principles of Hall Effect switch function?

40. How continuity or breaking sensor can be defeated?

42. How microwave sensors can be defeated?

43. When PIR sensors are more effective?

2. What we can refer a camera is megapixel?

3. Based on which ability a lens should be chosen?