Haryana Civil

Service Judicial
Examination, 2018 (Pre.)
Code (A)
The calling of at least one
1.
attesting
to prove a documer under
Indian Evidence Act is not
Section 68witness
of the
4. The
Narco-Analysis
technique involves the
(A) when the ocument essary intravenous administration of
other than a Will
registered under the Indian is Sodium Pentothal
Act, 1908 Registration (B) Potassium Pentothal
CB) when the document )Magnesium Pentothal
including Will is
registered under the Indian
(D) All of the above
Act, 1908 Registration 5. The evidence unearthed by the sniffer dog
falls under
when the document
(A) oral evidence
irrespective of
hether it is a Will, is
the Indian Registrationregistered under
(B) documentary evidence
Act, 1908 hearsay evidence
D)both (A)&(C) are correct (D) scientific evidence
2Which statement is true in relation to a child 6. A
non-testamentary document is one
witness?
A) Which is intended to take effect or be
(A) A child of tender age can be allowed to operative immediately on its execution
testify if he has intellectual capacity to (B) Which is final
understand questions and give rational C) Which is irrevocable
answers thereto, D) All the above
(B) A child witness may be eàsy prey of (E) Which is revocable
tutoring and when it is established that 7. What is the effect of opinion of the experts
he is under the influence of tutoring it is upon the court?
not safe to solely rely on his evidence. (A) Binding on the judge
C)The law recognizes the child as a (B) Only advisory in nature
competent witness but a child of a (C) Thejudge can form an opinion contrary
tender age of six years is not considered to that of expert
by the Court to be a witness whose sole (D) Both (B)&(C)
testimony can be relied without other (E) None of the above
corroborative evidence. 8. Use of violence by a member of unlawful
D) All above statements are true. assembly, in furtherance of their common
3. Under Section 145 of Evidence Act, a witness object will constitute offence of
may be contradicted as to previous (A) Assault
statement in writing (B) Rioting
(A) without proving the same but only after (C) Affray
All of the above
showing the same to the witness (D)
(D) after provingthe same may be before E) None of the above
to the
showing the showing the same 9. Ais arrested by police and accused of murder
of B. During investigation A voluntarily agrees
witness
the to undergo narco analysis and therein he
after proving the same& showing confesses to have murdered B.
same to the witness
without (A) The confession is relevant and can be
(0)without proving the same and sole basis of conviction
witness
showing the same to the
 (B) The confession is irrelevant C) Hearsay evidence
(C)Theconfession is relevant but requires (D) Both (A) & (B)
corroboration 15. Under Sectlon 116 of the Evidence Act, the
tenant is stopped from denying
(D) Only that much of A's statement can be
used as leads to discovery of a fact. (A) This title to the property of the actual
owner
(E) None ofthe above
(B) The title to the property of the landlord
Orthelandlord
10. The general rule is that leading questions
BothBoth(A) (B)
cannot be asked during examination in chief. &
However, there are some exceptions to this D) None of these
rule. Choose the exceptions: 16. The test of ascertaining the burden of proof
(A) any question at the discretion of judge lies on the person who would fall if that part is
(B) as to matters which are introductory or not proved is contained in Section.
of Evidence Act.
undisputed
(A) 202 (B) 203
C) as to matters which have already been
(D) 101
sufficiently proved (C)102
D) Both (B) &(C) 17. Section 124 of the Evidence Act provides for
(E) None of the above privileges in respect of
11. Secondary evidence of a document is (A) Official communication
admissible in evidence as a substitute for (B) Professional communication

C)Communication as tothe information of

(A) Inadmissible primary evidence under commission of offence
certain circumstances (D) None of the above
(B) Admissible primary evidence 18. execution of a decreefor the maintenance,
(C)Both(A) &(B) salary of a person can be attached to the
(D) None of these extent of
12. As per the Evidence Act, admissions (A) one fourth (B) one third
s s C)two third (D) one half

(A) Are conclusive proof of the matters 19. The Commissioner appointed for the
admitted purposes of recording evidence (cross-
Arenot conclusive proof of the matters
examination) is obliged to submit his report
(B) to the court appointing the commission within
admitted but operate as estoppel
(A) 15 days from the date of issue of the
C)Are conclusive proof of the matter and commission
also operate as estoppel
(D) None of the above (B) 30 days from the date of issue of the
commission
13. In criminal trials, the accused has to establish
(C) 60 days from the date of issue of the
his plea for the mitigation or justification of commission
an offence
(D) 90 days from the date of issue of the
(A) Substantially
commission
(B) Beyond reasonable doubt decree for
C) Prima facie 20. Where a mortgagee obtains a

D) None ofthese payment of a money in satisfaction of claim

14. All statements which the court permits or
requires to be made before it by witness in
relation to matters of fact under inquiry is/
are. anussnne
arising under the morigage
(A) he is entitled to bring the mortgage
a
property to sale without instituting
suit for sale in enforcement of the

CPC.
(A) Primary evidence mortgage under Order 34 Rule 14
(B) he is entitled to bring the mortgage
(B) Oral evidence a suit
property to sale only by instituting
 enforcement of t e mortgage 25.
i ne Order XVII, Rule 2 and Order XVIl, Rule 3ot
rder 34 Rule 14 CPC.
" s a l e

for
underOrder CPC are
Htled to bring the mortgage
e n t i t l e (A) in conflict with each other
is
he to sale in execution
g proper (8) independent& mutually exclusive
proceedings.
(C) Order XVII, Rule 3 of CPC is dependent
Either
(A)o r(C). on Order XVIL, Rule 2 of CPC
D)
Rule 16, CPC empowers the court, (D) Order XVII, Rule 3of CPC controls Order
6,
order6,
etade of the pleadings to strike out XVII, Rule 2 of CPC
contained init: 26. Arrest & detention of a person in civil
matter
Gy unnecessary, scandalous, imprisonment in execution of the decree
it is
If
(A)trivolous o r vexatious
(A) absolves him from liability under the
to prejudice, embarrass or decree but can be re-arrested
If it tends does not absolve him and the person can
fair trial of suit (B)
delay the be re-arrested
fitis an
abuse of the process of the court
(C) does not absolve him but the person
of the above
D) All cannot be re-arrested
correct statement:
the Absolves him from the liability
(D)
2. Mark court-tee is payable by the re-arrested
(A) In set-off, altogether and cannot be
defendant suit by the plaintiff,
27. In cases of withdrawal of
(B) Order 8,
Rule 6, CPC deals with legal under Order XXIll, Rule 1A of CPC
as
defendants cannot be transposed
set-off (A)
can be claimed as
of right, plaintiffs
)Legal set-off on the be transposed
as
the equitable set-off is dependent defendants can
(B) circumstances
court's discretion plaintiffs under all
defendants can be transposed as
D) All of the above (C) substantial question is to
be
entered into or compromise, plaintiff if the other
23. An agreement leave of the decided against any of
on behalf of a
minor without the
Rule 7 of CPC is defendants
court, under Order 32,
(A) Voidable
the
against all
other
parties D) either (A) or (B)
the beneficialenjoyment of which
than the minor 28. The land for
the easementary right exists is called
(B) Valid
(A) Profit-a-pendre
C)Void (B) Servient heritage
(D) Voidable (C) Dominant heritage
24. On dismissal of the suit for
non-compliance
under Order Xl,
(D) Customary heritage
with an order for discovery
of the CPC, 1908, where
Rule 21 of CPC 29. Under section 34(2)
a decree is
silent with respect to the payment
A the plaintiff can bring a
fresh the suit on
on the principal sum
from
of right of further interest
same cause of action as a matter decree to the date of the
the the date of the
fresh suit on earlier date.
() the plaintiff can bring a leave payment or other
with the
further interest shall
be paid at the
same cause of action only (A) decree.
of the court. contractual rate up to the date of
deemed to have
C)the plaintiff is precludedsame bringing
from
(B) the court shall be
cause or
suit the refused such interest.
any fresh on
shall be paid at the
action.
suit on the C)further. interest
D) the plaintiff can bring a esh contractual rate of 6% per
annum.

the court
action only if n o n e of the
above
ame cause of iberty (D)
aismissing the suit has granted
to file a fresh suit
 37. In wnich of the following writs, the doctrine of
proceedings, if a
30. During the
execution res judicata is not applicable?
whether any person is
question arises as to Habeas corpus (5) Certiorari
a party, such question
a representative of
shall be determined by
(C) Mandamus (D) Quowarranto
the decree 38. If the election of the President of India ls
(A) The court which passed declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts
the decree
(B) The court executing performed by the Presldent incumbent
(C) The appellate court before the date of such decision of court are
(D) A separate suit valid but subject to judicial review
(A)
31. Private alienation
of property, by the
(B) invalid
attachment under
judgment debtor after (C)valid
section 64(1) of CPC is
(A) Valid (B) Voidable (D) valid but subject to the approval of the
(D) None Parliament
(C)Void
39. Which of the following sentence(s) is/are
32. Under Order 32, Rule 2A, CPC a person guilty
be penalized correct?
of disobedience of breach can
T h e President can commute death
by sentence to the life imprisonment
(A) Attachment of property
cannot commute death
(B) Detention in civil imprisonment () The Governor
sentence to the life imprisonment
(C) Either (A) or (B) or both
to pardon
(D) Either (A) or (B) (I) The President's power
Procedure Code extends to the punishment or sentence
33. Under the provision of Civil by court material.
is a defence
plea of adverse possession
available (A) ,(1)and (I) (B) ()
(A) Only to plaintiff against
defendant
()()&() (D) 0
that right to
(B) Only to defendant against plaintiff 40. In 2017, the Supreme Court held
under Article 21 of the
defendant protected
(C) Both plaintiff and privacy is
(D) Only to movable property Constitution of India in the contextof

(E) Only immovableproperty (A) State Surveillance

be passed in a suit
34. Preliminary decree can

(A) For partition (B) Power of search & seizure

(B) Of partnership
(C) Homosexuality
Scheme
(C) For possession and
mesne profits (D) Indian Biometric Identification
41. The Constitution of India empowers the
(D) All of above
Supreme Court of India to adjudicate disputes
(E) None of the above between the Centre and the States through:
not a decree?
35. Which of the following is (A) Appellate Jurisdiction
(A) Dismissal in default
(B) Original Jurisdiction
(B) Rejection of a plaint
(C) Advisory Jurisdiction
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Writ Jurisdiction
(D) Neither (A) nor (5) (E) None of the above
(E) Only (A) Which of the following is not true
about the
of mortgage 42.
36. Under . redemption
Attorney General of lIndia?
. . .

can be sought by any one

of the legal
officer of the
representatives after death of mortgagor.
H e is the highest legal
union government of India
(A) Order 34 Rule 1 CPC of audience in al
the
I1) He has the right
(B) Order 33 Rule 1 CPC courts in India
(C) Order 32 Rule 1 CPC
(D) Order 31 Rule 1 CPC (LI) He has the votingright inthe proceeding
of the parliament
(E) Order 35 Rule 1 CPC
 term of the office and
n
(V)E
) His remuneratior (a) (c) (d) (e)
is decided by the president (b)
(A) (v) (ii) (v) (i) )
ne of the eligibility criteria for (ii)
) (B) iv) ()
(ii) ()
ppointment as the attorney general of ii)
India is that the candidate must be
(C) (iv) (v)
(D) (ii) (iv) (v) ii) G)
qualified to be appointed as a judge of 45. Doctrine of legitimate expectation and
Supreme Court of India Wednesbury principles were read by

(A) Only (1)) (B) Only (1 Supreme Court into

D) None of the above (A) Article 12 (B) Article 14
(1)&(1)
(D) Article 25
(E) Only (V) (C)Article13 under
are true about the 46. Reference by the President of India
Which the folloWing
Article 143(1) of the Constitution (Keshav
fundamental duties for Indian citizens? relates to
They require us to safe guard public Singh's case, AIR 1965 SC 745)
(A) Ayodhya issue
property
(B) Delhi laws
They require us to protectand improve
the natural environment C) Privileges
(D) Judges appointment
(L)They are contained in Article 51A ofthe are true
Constitution of India 47. Which of the following statements
declaration?
Amendment of regarding a decree of
IV) They are added by 42nd ( It creates no new rights.
the Constitution of India
It cannot be prayed as a matter right.
of
the scientific (4)
( They require us to develop () If all the parties are not joined,
temper and spirit of enquiry declaration cannot be granted.
fundamental
(VI) There were originally 11 between the
(V) Such a decree is conclusive
duties parties to it and persons litigating
writs as
(VII) They can be enforced through
constitutional
through them.
well as promoted through (A) (D,(), (1I), aV)
methods.
are true
(B) (),(I), (AV)
(A) ), (11), (II), (TV), (V), (VI) ) (O,(M),(I)
are true
(B) (), (I), (11), (IV)- (V) (D) ()&()
All are true institution of
(C) 48. Extended period of limitation for
are true
(D) (), (1), (11), (TV), (V), (VI) a suit for specific performance
of a contract
.... from the
None of them are true cannot stretch beyond
(E) cessation of the disability.
44. Match the following:
List I (A) 1 year (B) 2years
(C) 3 years D) 6 years
of India
(a) Indrasawhney Union v.
of the Specific Relief Act,
49. Under Section 6
of
Bharathis v. State
(b) Keshvananda
the suit can be brought by
Kerala (A) A servant
CAruna Ramachandra Shanbaug v.
(B) Amanager
Union of India
A tenancy by holding
over

Selvi v. State of Karnataka

(C)
(d) D) A trespasser
ListII
of Section 6 of the Specific Relief
Expectation 50. By virtue
Doctrine oflegitimate Act, a suit for
possession of an immovable
(i) Validity of Narco Analysis can be filed
within a period of
property
of dispossession.
(ii) Doctrine of Basic Structure (B) 3 months
(iv) Mandal commission case (A) 3 years
(D) 1 year
C) 6 months
(v) Passive Euthanasia
 actionable (C) Ubijus ibi remedium
that transfer of an
51. It is mandatory instrument D) None of the above
claim can be effected only by
an

but it does not have effect on 57. Void agreements include

in writing
(A) negotiable instrument (A) Agreements in restraint of marriage
in restraint of
(B) of rent
arrears (B) Agreements ga
an amount due
under a letter of credit proceedings
(C)
(D) none of the above (C) Agreements with minors
statements are true? (D) All the above
52. Which of the
following
on
be ratified 58. A minor is
( Minor's contract
can

attaining majority. (A) not liable either personally or through

ratified on
(I) Minor's contract cannot be his estate
attaining majority. (B) capable of ratifying agreements
(I1) Minor's contract can be ratified jointly (C) liable for necessaries supplied out o
by both the parties to the contract. property
(IV) Minor is not liable under minor's (D) not permitted to plead minority as
contract. defence
Minor's contract is an enforceable
(V) 59. Which is the first country to allow voting
contract.
through mobile phones?
(A) ()& () B) (V)&(1) (B) Finland
(A) Estonia
C)(I)& (TV) (D) (I)&(I)
(C) France (D) Germany
(E) (II)& (V)
60. Who said that "The people have a right, an
53. In case of specific performance of part of inalienable, indisputable, indefeasible, divine
contract the purchaser
right to that most dreaded and envied kind of
(A) May not relinquish claim to further knowledge-I mean, of the character and
of the remaining part of the
performance conduct of their rulers."?
contract and has no right to
(A) Abraham Lincoin
compensation (B) Mahatama Gandhi
(B) May relinquish claim to further
( Martin Luther
performance of the remaining part of (D) John Adams
contract and has right to compensation
61. Match the following persons in List-l with their
Specific performance of part of contract achievements in List-ll
not possible
(D) All the above List-I
(E) None of the above (a) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
54. Contract in restraint of trade is (b) Leila Seth
(A) void ()SuchetaKriplani
(B) voidable (d) C.B. Muthamma
(C)opposed to public policy List-II
(D) none of the above G) First woman Chief Minister
55. Novation amounts to (i) First woman High Court Judge
(A) discharge of contract (ii) First woman Ambassador
(B) formation of consideration iv) First woman Central Minister
(C) remission a) (b) (d)
(D) waiver (A) (ii) (i) (i) (iv)
56. Law of contract creates (B) (iv) i) (ii) )
(A) Jus in rem (C) (i) (iv) i) (i)
(B) Jus in pesonum (D) (i) (iv) ii)
 ***
won the
W o n the "first
justice prize" from
68. who authored the award-winning book Fauit
62. ia who is also name as the "Living Legend
of Law" by the International Bar Association?
nes:How
the World?
Hidden Fractures Still Threaten
(A) rishna Iyer, retired Judge of Supreme
Court of India (A) Raghuram Rajan
S. Nariman, Senior Advocate (B) Urjit Patel
(B) Fali. (C) Aravind Subrahmanyanm
Sibal,. Senior Advocate
C) Kapil (D) Gita Gopinath
None of the above
(D) 69. The voting age for elections to House of
Which one of the following decided to set up a
63
website, which will
Peoples and to the Legislative Assemblies
compare the World's Was lowered from 21 years to 18 years by
Constitutions by themes online "t
armn
drafters with a bette tool for Constitution (A) The Constitution (Sixty-first
design and writing"2 Amendment) Act, 1988
(B) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment)
(A) UN (B) Microsoft
Act, 1956
(C) Google D) Amnesty The Constitution (Forty-Fourth
A deciding the question of negligence by
In Amendment) Act, 1978
0nrofessionals, the classical statement of law
(D) None of the above
which has been widely accepted both by
professionals generally and by medical 70. The liability by holding out, in case of retiring
Dractitioners in particular is popularly called partner, continues up to
(A) Stephen test (A) date of retirement
(B) Friedman test (B) date of public notice about such
C) Bolam test retirement
(C) date of notice to other partners about
(D) Hyde test
such retirement
65. Which one of the following disputes cannot
(D) whichever is either out of (A), (B) & (C).
be raised before the Consumer Forum?
71.
(A) A dispute relating to services by a Ifdissolving
a
partner withdraws
it, then
from a firm by
governnment servant
(A) It is a dissolution and not retirement of
(B) A dispute relating to services provided a partner
by the medical professional (B) It is a novation and not retirement of a
(C) Adispute relating to banking services partner
(D) A dispute relating to insurance services (C) It is a retirement of a partner
66. Which of the following won the 2018 UNESCO (D) None of the above
Asia-Pacific award for Cultural Heritage 72. According to Section 44 of the Indian
conservation? Partnership Act, 1932, the Court may
(A) Ladakh Restoration Project dissolvea firm on the suit of a partner on any
(B) Restoration of Phumdis of the following grounds:
( Revival of Sunderbans Mangrove Forests (A) Insanity
(D) Renovation of Namgyal Monastery (B) Permanent incapacity
(C) Breach of agreement
(E) None of the above
O.
D) All of the above
Which among the following is not a
73. The age of consent for sexual intercourse
Constitutional body in India?
between husband and wife has been
(A) Goods and Services Tax Council made
. from... years by the Supreme
(6) Finance Commission Court of India.
)Planning Commission (A) 18, 16 (B) 16, 15
National Commission for Scheduled (C)21,18 (D) 18, 155
Castes
74. Which one of the following statements is NOT 78. Punjab State Reorganisation
enacted in the year . Act was
correct?
(A) Where a court is not competent to frame
(A) 1947 (B) 1950
charge in an offence it shall not be C) 1951 (D) 1956
(E) 1966
competent to permit, withdrawing from
prosecution. 79. Achild who doesn'tu understand
or
(B) The Public Prosecutor is bound to receive between the right and the wrong is distinguist
calledas
instructions from the government and doli incapax. This is defined under
such instructions would not amount to section of the IPC 1860. which
an extraneous influence. (A) Section 86 (6) Section 87
C) An order granting permission to (C)Section 84 (D) Section 83
withdraw the prosecution solely on the (E) Section 82
ground that where about of the accused 80. Section 396 of IPC deals with
was not available, is permissible. (A) Only dacoity
D) The Magistrate has discretion to grant (B) Dacoity and murder
or refuse permission to withdraw the
(C)Only culpable homicide not amounting
prosecution. tomurder
75. The maximum period of solitary confinement
D) Attempt to cause dacoity or robbery by
provided under Section 73 of I.P.C. is
(A) one month
using deadly weapon
(E) Both (A) & (D)
(B) twomonths
81. Which of the following statements is true
C) three months about malice-in-law and malice-in-fact?
(D) six months
(A) The former is a wrongful act done
76. If the act is a lawful one and not a criminal act
intentionally without just cause
and if in the course of such act any one of the
whereas the latter is a wrongful act done
person's jointly doing that act commits an
offence, then
intentionally with evil motive.
(B) The former is a wrongful act done
(A) All the persons shall be liable under
Section 34 of I.P.C. intentionally with evil motive whereas
the latter is a wrongful act done
B) only the doer of the act shall be liable for
it and not others and Section 34 of I.P.C. intentionally without a just cause.
shall not aPply. (C) The former is a wrongful act done
(C) Nobody shall be liable for it and not intentionally whereas the latter i5 a
others and Section 34 of I.P.C. shall not wrongful act done intentionally.

apply. (D) Both have same consequences.

(D) No other person except the real doer of 82. The term 'pari-passu' means
the act shall be liable for it and Section (A) Equal right of another creditor with that
34 of I.P.C. shall apply. of the secured creditor.
77. Right to private defence is: (B) Unequal right of another creditor with
(A) Available where there is no time to have that of the secured creditor
recourse to the protection of public (C) Share in the remaining, after due
authorities. appropriation
(B) Available under all circumstances. (D) None of the above.
(C) Available where there is time to have the 83. In 2016, the Supreme Court has clarified that
recourse to the the "Third Gender" willinclude(s).
protection of public
authorities. (A) Bisexuals
(D) Available under no circumstances. (B) Gays & Lesbians
(E) None of the above C)Transgender
(D) All of these
 facit per se means
alium, 09. Find out the correct statement(s) from t e
facitper
aul Quwelfare of the State is the supreme
( 4 )The we,
following: a
until
law
Hewho acts through another acts
A void marriage remains valid
9 He
decree annulling it has been passed by
h i m s e l f

a competent Court.
can be judge in his own case ( A void marriage is never a valid
Nobody
The law mustnot be violated even by marriage and there is no necessary
of a
(D) decree annulling it.
the king
ight to partition under Hindu (U) A voidable marriage is regarded as a
Whoh a s n o .

decree
Law?
valid subsisting marriage until a
a
(A) mother
annulling it has been passed by
grandson competent Court.
B)son, grandsOn,atgreat
nceived the time ofpartition (A) ()& (I) are correct
gson
None of the
above (B) (11) & (I) are correct
) C) Only (I) is correct
Hindu female propositus died leaving
A
sister, two Sons, one daughter, (D) Only (I) is correct
hehind a

moth
other and fathe Find the share of the B) All (1), () & (II) are correct
daughter. 90. Under Hindu law, after passing of a decree
(A) 1/2 for judicial separation, if one of the spouse

(B) 1/3 dies intestate, the other spouse:

(A) can inherit the property of the decreased
g 1/4 spouse
(D) 1/5
(B) cannot inherit the property of deceased
) 1/6
spouse
the custody, guardianship or
ol. In the debate on (C) can inherit the property of the spouse
adoption of the child, the courts in India is
governed by which of the following principle: only with the consent of the children
(A) Best of the child (D) is decided by the Court on case to case
interest basis
B) Right of parenthood
Claims of the biological parents (E) can inherit the property of the deceased
spouse if the judicial separation was on
D) Consanguirity grounds other than mutual consent
(E) Religious affiliation
91. A married B and subsequently married CC
88. Order of permanent alimony under Section during the life time of B.One Mr. D petitions
25 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 can be varied, to the court for declaring A's marriage with C
modified or rescinded as void. Examine the maintainability
if the party in whose favour the order (A) Only either party to the marriage can get
hasbeen passed, re-marries. the relief of nullity of the marriage
i f has party in whose favour the order (B) Only state can makeit.
has been passed is the wife, and she has
(C) Any public spirited person can initiate
not remaned chaste. and get the decree of nullity
) if the party in whose favour the order D succeed
(D) can

has been is the husband, and he

passed 92. Adoption does not deprive the adoptive father
nas had sexual intercourse with any or mother of the power to dispose of his or
other woman. her property by transfer inter vivos or by will.
(A) Only ( is correct Which Section of the Hindu Adoptions and
(B) Only (I) is correct Maintenance Act provides for the same.

Both (1) and (II) are correct

(A) Section 12 (B) Section 11
0) All of the above are correct (C)Section 13 (D) Section 9
) None of the above are correct
 100. Who among the following is not entitled.o
claim maintenance under Section 1
93. Agnates are the heirs
females
(A) Wholly related through Cr.P.C.
males (A) Divorced wife so long as she does not
(B) Wholly related through ot
(C) Strangers marry
(B) Unmarried sister
(D) None of the above
a female Hindu
94. Any property possessed by
after the
(C)Adoptivemother
whether acquired before or minor child
commencement of the Hindu
Succession Act (D) Illegitimate
(E) Concubine
shall be held by her
Cr.P.C. dealing with Plan
(A) As a limited owner 101. Chapter XXl-A of
Bargaining has been inserted by
(B) Asa life estate
(A) The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act.
(C)Asa full owner 2005
(D) As a co owner
Hindu (B) The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act,.
95. Sapinda relationship for the purpose of
Marriage act includes 1993
Five degrees of ascent through mother C) The Code of Criminal Procedure
(A)
and five degrees of ascent through father (Amendment) Act, 2001

(B) Three degrees of ascent through mother D) The Code of Criminal Procedure
and three degrees of ascent through (Amendment) Act, 1993
father 102. Section 167 of the Cr.P.C. provides that, the
(C) Three degrees of ascent through mother nature of custody can be altered from judicial
and five degrees of ascent through father
custody to police custody and vice versa. This
alteration can be done during the period of
(D) Five degrees of ascent through mother
and seven degrees of ascent through first
father (A) 15 days (B) 16 days
96. A partition of joint family property has to be (C) 14 days D) 12 days
done 103. The maximum number offences of the same
(A) Only by registration kind that can be tried together is
(B) Only in writing (A) 5 (B) 6
(C) Can be oral or in writing (C) 2 (D) 3
(D) None of the above 104. As per the provisions of the Cr.P.C. as
97. Under section 173 of the Cr.P.C. as amended amended in 2005, a surety has to declare the
in 2018, the investigation into the offence of number of accused for whom he is surety
rape shall be completed within a span of: under Section....
(A) Six months (B) Fourmonths (A) 441 (B) 441-A
(C) Onemonth (D) Twomonths
C) 144 (D) None of above
98. A person can be arrested without warrant:
105. Evidence shall be taken down by the
(A) Aspreventive or precautionary measure Magistrate either himself or by dictation in
(B) For obtaining correct name and address open court. Which amended provision of the
(C) For securing attendance of accused Cr.P.C.permits audio-video electronic means
(D) All the above in the presence of Advocate of the accused
99. A warrant of arrest is a command and should (A) Section 274
be:
(B) Proviso to Section 275(1)
(A) Must be in writing
(C) Section 276
(B) Must be signed, sealed and issued by a
(D) Section 473
Magistrate victim
(C) Addressed to a police officer 106. Rehabilitation scheme for
on the
compensation is prepared
(D) All the above
 Act
omendatlon of the court.. . shall Section 14 of Limitation
12. Section 3 and
declde the quantum of compensation are
and not mutually
bervices Authority
(A) District Legal (A) Both independent
R)State Legal Services Authority exclusive
exclusive of each
other
C)Either(A) or(B) (B) Mutually mutually
nor
None of these independent
(D) C) Neither
of the Cr.P.C., offencess
the p r o v i s i exclusive
As per
107. under Section 320 by None of the above
can be compounded (D)
guardian of a person (E) Onlymutually exclusive
the legal
Under the age of 18 years statement
(A) 113. ldentify the correct Limitation
Who is an Idiot Indian
B) (A) The Section 10 the
of
Who is Lunatic only to the
(C) Act, 1963 is applicable is already
situation where the appeal
above
D) All the
of Section 315 of the
408, As per the provislons filed. Limitation
Cr.P.C. an accused Indian
(B) The Section 5 of the to the
(A) Can be compelled
to give his own
1963 is applicable only
Act, is
appeal
evidence generally situation where the suit or

be a witness for disposal.

(B) Cannot already filed and pending Limitation
C)Can be called as a
witness only on his C)The Section 5 of
the Indian
own request in writing
Act, 1963 is applicable
only to the
None of these situation where suit is
to be filed.
(D)
provisions of Section 437 of the
109. As per the D) None of the above
cancel the bail vests
Cr.P.C. the jurisdiction to in filling a suit
114. Limitation period prescribed
with possession of
to try and by a mortgagor to recover
(A) The Magistrate competent immovable property mortgaged
entertain the offence
(B) 12 years
has (A) 20 years
B) The Magistrate where the Magistrate (D) 30 years
not ordered the release on bail 10 years residential
where the can landlord convert
a
C)The Magistrate only 115. When
building under
release on bail building into a non-residential
Magistrate has ordered
section 11 of theHaryana Urban (Control of
(D) None of the above
Cr.P.C. surety Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973:
110. As per the provisions of the
imprisonment in (A)At his/her own will
can be sentenced to civil
Controller
default of payment of penalty
under the surety (B) With the permission of the
bond for a maximum period of (C)After making an application to the High
(A) 2 months Court
B) 6 months (D) After evicting the previous tenant in a
C)5months lawful manner
(D) 9months (E) All of the above
111. Delay in filing the suit . 1(3) of the Haryana Urban
116. Under section
(A) Can be condoned under Order VIL, (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, an
Rule 6. C.P.C. exemption for a period of . . . from
B) Cannotbe condoned the operation of the Act is allowed to
C)Can be condoned under Section 3, buildings, the construction of which
Limitation Act commenced or was completed on or after
the date of commencement of the Act
(D) Can be condoned under. Section 6,
Limitation Act (A) 11 years (B) 10 years
(E) Can be condoned under Section 5, (C) 20 years (D) 15 years
Limitation Act
 .... it was held that lottery
of....

122. In the case and not acticctionable clalms

good
of Rights
on tickets
are
tickets is sale of goods
(Protection sale oflottery
Muslim
Women
2018 provides
for: Thus, rnment of Tamil Nadu
Vadu
117. The v.
Ordinance
and H.Anraj
Marrlages) illegal (A) 1986 SC 63)
instant triple talaq (AIR
It
declares
criminalizes it.
Cane Unions
Cooperative
of talaq a non-
(B) U.P. v. West U.P. Sugar
Mills
declaration Federation
It makes 2004 SC 3697
() bailable offence. Association (AIR
be
talaq
can
Commissioner
of Sales Tax v. Madhva
declaring
husband
years along C) Board (AIR 1970SC
(l) A for up to
two Electricity
Pradesh
imprisoned
with a fine. whom 732)
Muslim w o m a n
against None of
the above
(IV) It entitles declared to seek (D) horse from
B. A wanted to enter
has been brought a
triple talaq from her 123. A Turns out the horse was
allowance
horse in a race.
subsistence
her the race on account of
and for running a
of
husband for herself
not capable
A did not
inform B of bis
lame. But
not be responsible for the
dependent children. being
will
(B) (),(1) &(V) intention. So Bhorse.
(A) ()&(1V) defects of the
the above
(IV) D) All of of Caveat Emptor willapply
C)(), () & (A) The
Doctrine
is ofCaveatEmptorwillnotapply
A Muslim gift Doctrine
118.
(A) Compulsorily registrable (B) The Emptor may apply
Doctrine Caveat of
C)The
compulsorily registrable
Not None of the
above
(B) (D) registration is optional
(C) Optionally registrable Documents of which
124.
(D) Only (B) & (C)
(E) Notnecessary to register sexual
(A) Will
the
will not have not acknowledging
s w e a r s that he
Instruments

119. If husband four months or (B) of any consideration

intercourse with his wife for receipt o r payment
divorce known as declaration
more it
amounts to a form
of
on account
of the creation,
B) Zihar limitation or
extinction of
(A) Ila assignment,
(D) Mubaraat title or interest;
(C) Tafweez
Goods any such right, for any
under Sale of property
immovable
120. Payment and
delivery Leases of
(C) team exceeding one year
Act, 1930 is
(A) Implied Condition
(D) All the above proposition:
(B) Express Condition
125. Identity the correct from
not exempted
(A) A decree is
(C) Concurrent Condition
section 17(2) of the
(D) May be implied
Condition or Express registration under
Registration Act, 1908.
Condition
create a
above A consent decree purporting to
(E) None of the in course of transit
(B) under
121. Goods are
deemed to be gift does not require registration from
are delivered to a
from the time when they section 17(1)(a) and is not exempt
for the purpose of of the
carrier or other bailee registration under section 17(2)
transmission to the buyer, Registration Act, 1908.
until the buyer or his agent
in that behalf to create a
(A) carrier (C)A consent decree purporting
takes delivery of them from such under
or other bailee.
gift does not require registration from
section 17(1)(a) and is not exempt
until the buyer himself takes delivery
of of the
(B) bailee. registration under section 15(2)
them from such carrier or other Registration Act, 1908.
C) until the buyer or his agent personally (D)A consent decree purporting create
to a

communicates to the carrier or bailee that under

the delivery is taken git is exempted from registration Act,
section 17(2) of the Registration
(D) None of the above
1908.