STUDENTS DREAM BOX ACADEMY

GUDUVANCHERY / TAMBARAM / CHROMPET / SPKOIL

BIO
Class 12 - Biology
Time Allowed: 1 hour Maximum Marks: 50

Question No. 1 to 6 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Cross-pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of a
genetically different flower. It is performed with the help of an external agency which may be abiotic
(e.g., wind, water) or biotic (e.g., insects, birds, bats, snails). The diagram shows the carpel of an insect-
pollinated flower.

1. What is the most likely reason for the non-germination of pollen grain Z? [1]

a) Pollen grain Z comes from a flower b) Pollen grain Z lacks protrusions that
of an incompatible species. allow it to adhere properly onto the
stigma surface.

c) Pollen grains X and Y were brought d) Pollen grain Z was brought to the
to the stigma earlier, therefore, their flower by wind, while pollen grains
germination inhibited the X and Y were brought to the flower
germination of pollen grain Z. by the insect.
2. Which of the following best describes the function of the pollen tube? [1]

a) It digests the tissues of the stigma, b) It acts as a conduit to transport male

style and ovary. gametes from the anther to the
ovule.

c) It acts as a conduit to transport male d) It contains key nutrients that serve

gametes from the stigma to the to nourish the newly-formed zygote.
ovule.
3. Pollination of a flower in which the pollen is carried by an insect is called [1]

a) anemophily b) malacophily

c) ornithophily d) entomophily
4. Refer to the given characteristics of some flowers. [1]

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 A. The stamens hang out of the flower, exposing the anthers to the wind.
B. The pollen grains are tiny and light.
C. The flower has a sweet scent.
D. The flower petals are brightly coloured.
How many of the above characteristics are of insect-pollinated flower?

a) One b) Two

c) Three d) Four
5. Pollenkitt is generally found in [1]

a) ornithophilous flowers b) malacophilous flowers

c) anemophilous flowers d) entomophilous flowers

6. Pollination does not guarantee the transfer of the right type of pollen which among the [1]
following statement justify this statement?
i. Pollen of the wrong type, either from other species or from the same plant, also land on the
stigma.
ii. If the pollen is the right type, the pistil accepts the pollen and promotes post-pollination
events.
iii. If the pollen is of the wrong type, the pistil rejects the pollen by preventing pollen
germination on the stigma or the pollen tube growth in the style.

a) All of these b) Only ii

c) Only i d) Only iii

Question No. 7 to 12 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
The anther is a four-sided structure consisting of four microsporangia located at the corners two in
each lobe. The microsporangia develop further and become pollen sacs. In a transverse section, a
typical microsporangium appears near circular in outline. It is generally surrounded by four wall
layers-the epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and the tapetum.

7. The function of labelled part X is [1]

a) dehiscence b) protection

c) nutrition d) mechanical
8. Select the incorrect statement. [1]
a. Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers-epidermis, endothecium,
middle layers and tapetum.
b. Outer three layers perform functions of protection and dehiscence of anthers.
c. Cells of tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
d. Cells of tapetum undergo meiosis and produce microspore tetrads.

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 a) Option (d) b) Option (b)

c) Option (c) d) Option (a)

9. Which function of tapetum is correct? [1]

a) Helps in pollen wall formation. b) All of these

c) Synthesis of callase enzyme for d) Transportation of nutrients to inner

separation of microspore tetrads. side of anther.
10. A dithecous anther consists of ____(A)____ microsporangia, ____(B)____ in each lobe. Select the [1]
option that correctly fills the blanks.

a) A - four, B - one b) A - two, B - two

c) A - four, B - two d) A - two, B - one

11. The given diagram shows microsporangium of a mature anther. Identify A, B and C. [1]

a) A-Endothecium, B-Tapetum, C- b) A-Tapetum, B-Middle layer, C-

Middle layer Endothecium

c) A-Endothecium, B-Middle layer, C- d) A-Middle layer, B-Endothecium, C-

Tapetum Tapetum
12. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell (PMC) through meiosis is [1]
called:

a) microspore tetrad b) microsporogenesis

c) megasporangia d) megasporogenesis

Question No. 13 to 17 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the
questions:
The first menstruation is called menarche, which usually occurs between 12 and 15 years. In human
females, menstruation is repeated at an average interval of about 28/29 days and is called menstrual
cycle. It is regulated by certain hormones, as the pituitary gland is stimulated by releasing factors
produced in the hypothalamus. The hormones produced by pituitary gland influence the ovaries. The
hormones secreted by the ovaries affect the walls of the uterus.

13. The breakdown of the endometrium is characteristic of [1]

a) proliferative phase b) ovulatory phase

c) luteal phase d) menstrual phase.

14. Which days of the menstrual cycle marks the proliferative phase? [1]

a) 15-28 b) 6-13

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 c) 1-5 d) 10-14
15. Which of the following occurs during secretory phase? [1]

a) Primary follicle changes into b) Empty Graafian follicle changes into

Graafian follicle. corpus luteum.

c) LH surge inducing release of an d) Endometrium rebuilds and estrogen

ovum. secretion increases.
16. Identify the hormones that attain peak level during ovulatory phase. [1]

a) LH b) Progesterone

c) Both and FSH and LH d) FSH

17. Withdrawal of which hormone causes degeneration of corpus luteum? [1]

a) Progesterone b) Estrogen

c) LH d) FSH

Question No. 18 to 22 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the
questions:
Cleavage is the series of rapid mitotic divisions in zygote and forms blastula. The 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter
cells are called blastomeres. Embryo with 64 blastomeres is known as blastocyst and has blastocoel
cavity. Blastocyst gets implanted in uterine wall and leads to pregnancy.

18. Solid mass of cells with 16 blastomeres is called [1]

a) zygote b) morula

c) blastula d) gastrula
19. At which stage of embryonic development trophoectoderm develops? [1]

a) Blastula b) Gastrula

c) Morula d) Zygote
20. Site of implantation is [1]

a) infundibulum of oviduct b) endometrium of uterus

c) uterine fundus d) cervix

21. Correct sequence of various structures formed during embryonic development is [1]

a) Blastula → Morula → Gastrula → b) Zygote → Morula → Blastula →

Embryo Gastrula.

c) Zygote → Embryo → Morula → d) Morula → Embryo → Gastrula →

Blastula Blastula
22. Assertion (A): Side of blastocyst with inner cell mass is called animal pole. [1]
Reason (R): Inner cell mass gives rise to embryo.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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23. The thalamus is convex or conical; ovary develops at its tops while stamens, petals, and sepals [1]
are borne successively below. This kind of floral arrangement is called:

a) Perigamous and ovary superior b) Perigamous and ovary inferior

c) Hypergamous and ovary inferior d) Hypogynous and ovary superior

24. Inside the ovary, the ovule is attached to the placenta by means of: [1]

a) Funicle b) Micropyle

c) Hilum d) Chalaza
25. How many meiotic divisions are required to form 64 pollen grains: [1]

a) 80 b) 32

c) 16 d) 64
26. In the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass, true homologous structures are: [1]

a) Coleorhiza and coleoptile b) Cotyledons and scutellum

c) Coleoptile and scutellum d) Hypocotyl and radicle

27. Within the embryo sac, three cells at the chalazal end are called: [1]

a) Antipodal cells b) Central cells

c) Egg apparatus d) Synergids

28. From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the [1]
gynoecium.

a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta b) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum

c) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule d) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac

29. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an ovule are: [1]

a) egg, integument, embryo sac, b) egg, embryo sac, nucellus,

nucellus. integument

c) embryo sac, nucellus, integument, d) egg, nucellus, embryo sac,

egg integument
30. Which part of pollen grain produces pollen tube: [1]

a) Stigma b) Exine

c) Intine d) Male nuclei

31. The flower is the site of: [1]

a) Vegetative reproduction b) Sexual reproduction

c) Artificial reproduction d) Asexual reproduction

32. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in: [1]

a) Microspore tetrads b) Endothecium

c) Microspore mother cells d) Pollen grains.

33. Menstrual cycle, in the human female, is completed in: [1]

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 a) 30 days b) 31 days

c) 28 days d) 27 days
34. The shortest phase of the menstrual cycle is: [1]

a) Menses b) Luteal phase

c) Ovulatory phase d) Follicular phase

35. Which one of the following is not a male accessory gland? [1]

a) Prostate b) Bulbourethral gland

c) Ampulla d) Seminal vesicle

36. Which of the following statements are correct? [1]
Statement I: Milk synthesis is under the control of prolactin.
Statement II: the release of milk is controlled by oxytocin of pituitary glands.

a) Both statements are correct b) Both statements are incorrect

c) Statement II is correct but statement d) Statement I is correct but statement

I is correct II is incorrect
37. Beginning of menstrual cycle is called ________. [1]

a) Menopause b) Oogenesis

c) Menarche d) Ovulation
38. Parturition is induced by complex: [1]

a) Biochemical mechanisms b) Neuroendocrine mechanisms

c) Reflex action d) Mechanical actions

39. The process of delivery of the foetus is called ________. [1]

a) Implantation b) Ovulation

c) Gestation d) Parturition
40. The process of formation of primary organ rudiment is called [1]

a) Notogenesis b) Neurogenesis

c) Mesogenesis d) Tubulation
41. The assumption of shape, size, and other morphological features by the embryo is called [1]
________.

a) Organogenesis b) Gastrulation

c) Morphogenesis d) Formulation
42. Which of the following is formed first out of the following in growing foetus: [1]

a) Limbs and digits b) Heart

c) Hairs on head d) Eye lids

43. Assertion (A): Pollen grains of many insect-pollinated species are sticky. [1]
Reason (R): In the anemophilous flower, the pollen grains are powdery and non-sticky.

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 a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

44. Assertion (A): Pollen wall is made up of two walls the intine and the exine. [1]
Reason (R): Both the walls have depositions of sporopollenin.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

45. Assertion (A): Anemophily is non-directional. [1]
Reason (R): Entomophily is highly specific and directional.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

46. Assertion (A): An angiospermous flower represents the modified condensed shoot which [1]
performs the function of sexual reproduction.
Reason (R): The fertile leaves of the shoot become modified into microsporophylls and
megasporophylls which bear ovules and anthers respectively.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

47. Assertion (A): Gynoecium consists of pistil. [1]
Reason (R): It represents the male reproductive part in flowering plants.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

48. Assertion (A): In human males, testis are extra-abdominal and lie in scrotal sacs. [1]
Reason (R): Scrotum acts as a thermoregulator and keeps the testicular temperature lower by
2°C for normal spermatogenesis.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

49. Assertion (A): At puberty human male develops secondary sexual characters. [1]
Reason (R): At puberty there is decreased secretion of testosterone in male.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

50. Assertion (A): The foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal [1]
pituitary.

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Reason (R): Oxytocin cause endometrial contractions.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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