Preparing World Worthy Individuals

JUNIOR_NEET – 05.09.2021
Max.Marks: 720 Time: 3 Hrs

PHYSICS
1. A Body moves 6 m north. 8 m east and 10m vertically upwards, what is its resultant displacement from
initial position
10
1) 10 2 m 2) 10 m 3) m 4) 10  2 m
2
2. A person moves 30 m north and then 20 m towards east and finally 30 2 m in south-west direction. The
displacement of the person from the origin will be
1) 10 m along north 2) 10 m long south 3) 10 m along west 4) Zero
3. An aeroplane flies 400 m north and 300 m south and then flies 1200 m upwards then net displacement is
1) 1200 m 2) 1300 m 3) 1400 m 4) 1500 m
4. A person travels along a straight road for half the distance with velocity v 1 and the remaining half
distance with velocity v2. The average velocity is given by
v 22 v1  v 2 2v1v 2
1) v1v2 2) 3) 4)
v12 2 v1  v 2

5. The displacement-time graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 300 and
600 with the time axis. The ratio of velocities of VA : VB is
1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 3 3) 3 : 1 4) 1 : 3
6. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km with constant speed of 2.5 km/hour and walks back with
a constant speed of 4 km/hr. His average speed for round trip expressed in km/hour, is
1) 24/13 2) 40/13 3) 3 4) ½
7. A car travels the first half of a distance between two places at a speed of 30 km/hr and the second half
of the distance at 50 km/hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is
1) 42.5 km/hr 2) 40.0 km/hr 3) 37.5 km/hr 4) 35.0 km/hr
8. Which of the following is a one dimensional motion
1) Landing of an aircraft 2) Earth revolving around the sun
3) Motion of wheels of a moving trains 4) Train running on a straight track
9. A 150 m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of 45 km/h. The time taken by the train to cross a
bridge of length 850 meters is
1) 56 sec 2) 68 sec 3) 80 sec 4) 92 sec
10. A particle is constrained to move on a straight line path. It returns to the starting point after 10 sec. The
total distance covered by the particle during this time is 30 m. Which of the following statements about
the motion of the particle is false
1) Displacement of the particle is zero 2) Average speed of the particle is 3 m/s
3) Displacement of the particle is 30 m 4) Both 1 and 2
11. The ratio of the numerical values of the average velocity and average speed of a body is always
1) Unity 2) Unity or less 3) Unity or more 4) Less than unity
12. A person travels along a straight road for the first half time with a velocity v 1 and the next half time with
a velocity v2. The mean velocity V of the man is
2 1 1 v1  v 2 v1
1)   2) V 3) V  v1v 2 4) V
V v1 v 2 2 v2

13. If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then average speed is
1) 1
v1v 2 2) v1  v 2
3) 2v1v 2 4) 5v1v 2
2 2 v1  v 2 3v1  2v 2

14. The correct statement from the following is

1) A body having zero velocity will not necessarily have zero acceleration
2) A body having zero velocity will necessarily have zero acceleration
3) A body having uniform speed can have only uniform acceleration
4) A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero acceleration
15. A bullet fired into a fixed target loses half of its velocity after penetrating 3 cm. How much further it will
penetrate before coming to rest assuming that it faces constant resistance to motion?
1) 1.5 cm 2) 1.0 cm 3) 3.0 cm 4) 2.0 cm
16. A particle experiences a constant acceleration for 20 sec after starting from rest. If it travels a distance
S1 in the first 10 sec and a distance S2 in the next 10 sec, then
1) S1  S 2 2) S1  S 2 / 3 3) S1  S 2 / 2 4) S1  S 2 / 4
17. The displacement x of a particle along a straight line at time t is given by x  a 0  a1 t  a 2 t 2 . The
acceleration of the particle is
1) a0 2) a1 3) 2a2 4) a2
18. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time are given by x  at 2 and y  bt 2 . The speed of the particle
at any moment is
1) 2t(a  b) 2) 2 t (a 2  b 2 ) 3) t a2  b 2 4) 2 t (a 2  b 2 )

19. The velocity acquired by a body moving with uniform acceleration is 20 meter/second in first 2 seconds
and 40 m/sec in first 4 sec. The initial velocity will be
1) 0 m/sec 2) 40 m/sec 3) 20 m/sec 4) None
20. A body moves along the sides AB, BC and CD of a square of side 10 meter with velocity of constant
magnitude 3 meter/sec. Its average velocity will be
1) 3 m/sec 2) 0.87 m/sec 3) 1.33 m/sec 4) None
21. A body covers half the distance with a velocity 10 m/s and remaining half with a velocity
15 m/s along a straight line. The average velocity will be
1) 12 m/s 2) 10 m/s 3) 5 m/s 4) 12.5 m/s
22. A point travelling along a straight line traverse one third the distance with a velocity v 0. The remaining
part of the distance was covered with velocity v 1 for half the time and with velocity v2 for the other half
of the time. The mean velocity of the point averaged over the whole time of motion will be-
v 0 ( v1  v 2 ) 3v 0 ( v1  v 2 )
1) 2)
3( v1  v 2  v 3 ) v1  v 2  v 3
v 0 ( v1  v 2 ) 3v 0 ( v1  v 2 )
3) 4)
v1  v 2  4v 3 v1  v 2  4v 0
23. The position of a body with respect to time is given by x = 4t3 – 6t2 + 20 t + 12. Acceleration at t = 0 will
be
1) –12 units 2) 12 units 3) 24 units 4) –24 units
24. A body travels 200 cm in the first two seconds and 220 cm in the next four second. The velocity at the
end of the seventh second from the start will be-
1) 10 cm/s 2) 5 cm/s 3) 15 cm/s 4) 20 cm/s
25. An  particle travels along the inside of straight hollow tube, 2.0 metre long, of a particle accelerator.
Under uniform acceleration, how long is the particle in the tube if it enters at a speed of 1000 m/s and
leaves at 9000 m/s
1) 4 × 10–4 sec 2) 2 × 10–7 sec 3) 40 × 10–4 sec 4) 20 × 10–7 sec
26. 540 g of ice at 00C is mixed with 540 g of water at 800C. The final temperature of the mixture is
1) 00C 2) 400C 3) 800C 4) Less than 00C
27. Water is used to cool radiators of engines, because
1) Of its lower density 2) It is easily available
3) It is cheap 4) It has high specific heat
28. How much heat energy is gained when 5 kg of water at 20°C is brought to its boiling point (Specific heat
of water = 4.2 kJ kg–1c–1)
1) 1680 kJ 2) 1700 kJ 3) 1720 kJ 4) 1740 kJ
29. Melting point of ice
1) Increases with increasing pressure 2) Decreases with increasing pressure
3) Is independent of pressure 4) Is proportional to pressure
30. Heat required to convert one gram of ice at 0 C into steam at 1000C is (given Lsteam = 536 cal/gm)
0

1) 100 calorie 2) 0.01 kilocalorie 3) 716 calorie 4) 1 kilocalorie

31. 80 gm of water at 30 C are poured on a large block of ice at 0 C. The mass of ice that melts is
0 0

1) 30 gm 2) 80 gm 3) 1600 gm 4) 150 gm
32. Two spheres made of same substance have diameters in the ratio 1 : 2. Their thermal capacities are in
the ratio of
1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 8 3) 1 : 4 4) 2 : 1
33. Work done in converting one gram of ice at –10 C into steam at 100 C is
0 0

1) 3045 J 2) 6056 J 3) 721 J 4) 616 J

34. If mass energy equivalence is taken into account, when water is cooled to form ice, the mass of water
should
1) Increase 2) Remain unchanged
3) Decrease 4) First increase then decrease
35. Compared to a burn due to water at 100 C, a burn due to steam at 1000C is
0

1) More dangerous 2) Less dangerous 3) Equally dangerous 4) None of these

36. 50 gm of copper is heated to increase its temperature by 100C. If the same quantity of heat is given to 10
gm of water, the rise in its temperature is (Specific heat of copper = 420 Joule-kg–10C–1)
1) 50C 2) 60C 3) 70C 4) 80C
37. Two liquids A and B are at 320C and 240C. When mixed in equal masses the temperature of the mixture
is found to be 28°C. Their specific heats are in the ratio of
1) 3 : 2 2) 2 : 3 3) 1 : 1 4) 4 : 3
38. A beaker contains 200 gm of water. The heat capacity of the beaker is equal to that of 20 gm of water.
The initial temperature of water in the beaker is 20 0C. If 440 gm of hot water at 920C is poured in it, the
final temperature (neglecting radiation loss) will be nearest to
1) 580C 2) 680C 3) 730C 4) 780C
39. Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a body through 1K is called its
1) Water equivalent 2) Thermal capacity 3) Entropy 4) Specific heat
40. A liquid of mass m and specific heat c is heated to a temperature 2T. Another liquid of mass m/2 and
specific heat 2c is heated to a temperature T. If these two liquids are mixed, the resulting temperature of
the mixture is
1) (2/3)T 2) (8/5)T 3) (3/5)T 4) (3/2)T
41. Calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to raise temperature of 1g of water by 1°C and it is
defined under which of the following conditions
1) From 14.50C to 15.50C at 760 mm of Hg 2) From 98.50C to 99.50C at 760 mm of Hg
3) From 13.50C to 14.50C at 76 mm of Hg 4) From 3.50C to 4.50C at 76 mm of Hg
42. 100 gm of ice at 00C is mixed with 100 g of water at 1000C. What will be the final temperature of the
mixture
1) 100C 2) 200C 3) 300C 4) 400C
43. The thermal capacity of 40 gm of aluminium (specific heat = 0.2 cal/gm/0C) is
1) 40 cal/0C 2) 160 cal/0C 3) 200 cal/0C 4) 8 cal/0C
44. A water fall is 84 metres high. If half of the potential energy of the falling water gets converted to heat,
the rise in temperature of water will be
1) 0.0980C 2) 0.980C 3) 9.80C 4) 0.00980C
45. A body of mass 5 kg falls from a height of 30 metre. If its all mechanical energy is changed into heat,
then heat produced will be
1) 350 cal 2) 150 cal 3) 60 cal 4) 6 cal
CHEMISTRY
46. Anomalous pair among the following is
1) Boron – Silicon 2) Beryllium – indium
3) Aluminium – Gallium 4) Cobalt – Nickel
47. The general electronic configuration of f – block elements is
1) ns2np6(n-1)d0-1(n-2)f1-14 2) ns2(n-1)d0-1(n-2)f1-14
3) ns2nd0-1 nf1-14 4) ns2(n-1)d0-1(n-1)f1-14
48. Rare earths are generally
1) Noble gas 2) d – block elements
3) Transition elements 4) Lanthanides
49. Lanthanum belongs to
1) s – block 2) p – block 3) d – block 4) f – block
50. The element which belong to 3rd period and IV-A group is
1) Silicon 2) Carbon 3) Germanium 4) Tin
51. Zinc is not considered as a transition metal because
1) It is diamagnetic
2) It is not known to form alloys
3) It is no unpaired electrons 4) It has white shade
52. The following ion is colourless in aqueous solution
1) Ca2+ 2) Sc3+ 3) Zn2+ 4) All the above
53. The covalent and Vander waal’s radii of chlorine respectively are
1) 1.80 A & 0.99 A 2) 0.99 A & 1.80 A 3) 1.80 A & 1.8 A 4) 0.99 A & 0.99 A
54. In a period of representative elements, the decrease in ionic radius when compared with the
corresponding decrease in atomic radius is
1) Equal 2) Less 3) More 4) Cannot predict
55. The element with highest lP1 is
1) Na 2) He 3) Ca 4) Si
56. Energy is released in the process of
1) Na(g)  Na+(g) +e 2) O-(g) + e  O-2(g)
3) N-2(g) +e  N-3(g) 4) O(g) + e  O-(g)
57. The element with highest electron affinity is
1) Fluorine 2) Cesium 3) Helium 4) Chlorine
58. If l and E are ionization energy and electron affinity of an element in KJ mole -1 electronegativity is
given as
1 E 1 E 1 E 1 E
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 5.6 129 544
59. The stable oxidation state of thallium a III – A group element is
1) +1 2) +3 3) -3 4) +5
60. The diagonal relationship phenomenon is not observed after
1) I Group 2) II Group 3) III Group 4) IV group
61. Set of continuous atomic numbers of the elements present in the same group as well as same period
1) 3, 11, 19 2) 60, 61, 62
3) 30, 31, 32 4) 88, 89, 90
62. An element with atomic number 19 is likely to combine with an element with atomic number
1) 8 2) 17 3) 16 4) All the above
63. First four ionization energy values of an element are 191,578, 872 and 5972 K.Cals the number of
valence electrons in the element is
1) 4 2)3 3) 1 4) 2
64. The first four ionization energy values of an element M are 270, 560, 890 and 6072 K cal.
The formula of its oxide
1) MO2 2) MO 3) M2O3 4) M3O2
65. Increasing order of second ionization energies of Na, Ne, Mg and AI is
1) Na < AI < Mg < Ne 2) AI < Mg < Na < Ne
3) Mg < AI < Ne < Na 4) AI < Mg < Ne < Na
66. A metal forms a chloride with the formula MCl2 formula of phosphoric acid is H3PO4 formula of
the phosphate of the metal is
1) M3PO4 2) MPO4
3) M3(PO4)2 4) M2PO4
67. Chloride of an element A gave a neutral solution in water. In the periodic table the element A belongs
to
1) First group 2) Third group
3) Fifth group 4) Fourth group
68. The type of overlap present in the bonds of hydrogen sulphide molecule is
1)  s-p 2)  s-s 3)  p-p 4)  sp3-s
69. Which of the following overlap is the strongest?
1) 2P-2P 2) 3P-3P
3) 5P-5P 4)  (5P-5P)
70. Which one of the following is not correct?
1) Number of unshared electrons on the atom is also considered for calculation of formal charge
2) Formal charges help in the selection of the lowest energy structure of molecule
3) Formal charges indicate real charge separation within the molecule
4) Formal charge of each atom of polyatomic ion can be calculated
71. LIST – I LIST – II
A) NaCI i) Covalent bond
B) CH4 ii) Ionic bond
C) NH4+ iii) Metallic bond
D) Cu metal iv) Covalent and dative bond
The correct match is
1) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii
2) A – ii, B – iv, c – i, D – iii
3) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv 4) A – i, B – ii, c – iii, D - iv
72. Dative bond is present in the molecule of
1) NH3 2) CO2 3) CO 4) PCl5
73. Molecule Hybridization
A) XeF4 i) sp3
B) IF7 ii) sp3d2
C) NH4+ iii) sp3d3
D) CO2 iv) sp
The correct match is
1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv 2) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv
3) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv 4) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
74. Molecule Shape
A) CO32- i) Pyramidal
B) SO42- ii) Tetrahedral
C) CIO2- iii) Angular
D) CIO3- iv) Trigonal planar
1) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii 2) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv
3) A – i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii 4) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i
75. Ratio of hybrid and unhybrid orbitals taking part in bond formation in ethylene molecule
1) 1:1 2) 2:3 3) 3:4 4) 1:2
76. The state of hybridization of S in SO2 is similar to that of C in
1) C2H2 2) C2H4 3) CH4 4) CO2
77. Structure of ICI2–
1) Trigonal 2) Octahedral 3) Square planar 4) Distorted trigonal pyramidal
78. LIST – I LIST – II
A) Diamond i) sp2 hybridization
B) Graphite ii) sp3 hybridization
C) PCl5 iii) sp3d hybridization
D) CO2 gas iv) sp3d2 hybridization
The correct match is
1) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii
2) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv
3) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv 4) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – ii
79. Bond energy is maximum in
1) F2 2) N2 3) O2 4) Br2
80. What is true about CN– and N2?
1) Both are isoelectronic 2) Both are chemically inert
3) Both are highly reactive 4) Both have same polarity of bonds
81. Molecule with zero dipole moment is
1) BCI3 2) BeCI2 3) CCI4 4) All of these
82. Among the following the species having square planar geometry for central atom are
1) XeF4 2) SF4 3) [NiCI4]-2 4) [PtCI4]-2
83. The order of bond length of (O – O) in O2, O3, H2O2 is
1) O2 > H2O2 > O3 2) O3 > H2O2 > O2
3) H2O2 > O3 > O2 4) O2 > H2O2 > O3
84. In the reaction 2PCI5  PCI4+ + PC6- the change in hybridization is from
1) sp3d to sp3 and sp3d2 2) sp3d to sp2 and sp3
3) sp3d to sp3 d2 and sp3d3 4) sp3 d2 to sp3 and sp3d2
85. Regarding hybridization which is incorrect?
1) BF3, C2H4, C6H6 involve sp2 hybridization
2) BeF2, C2H2, CO2 involve sp hybridization
3) NH3, H2O, CCI4 involve sp3 hybridization
4) CH4, C2H4, C2H2 involve sp2 hybridization
86. LIST – I LIST – II
A) NH4+ i) sp3 hybridization, two lone pair
B) H3O+ ii) sp2 hybridization, one lone pair
C) XeO3 iii) sp3 hybridization, zero lone pair
D) SO3 iv) sp3 hybridization, one lone pair
v) sp2 hybridization, no lone pair
The correct match is
1) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – v
2) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – v
3) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – v 4) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i
87. Dipole moment of H2X is 1.0 D. If the bond angle is 900, the approximate bond moment of H – X
bond is (Cos 450 = 0.7)
1) 0.4 D 2) 0.5 D
3) 0.7 D 4) 06 D
88. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC 2 are

1) One sigma    and one pi    bonds

2) One sigma    and two pi    bonds

3) One sigma    and a half pi    bonds 4) One sigma    bond only

89. The decreasing order of bond dissociation energies of C – C, C – H and H – H bonds is

1) H – H > – C –H > – C – C 2) – C – C – > – C – H > H – H
3) – C – H – > – C – C – > H – H 4) – C – C – > H – H > – C – H
90. In which of the following pairs bond angle is 109 0281?
1) [NH4+], [BF4-] 2) [NH4+], BF3 3) NH3, [BF4-] 4) NH3, BF3

BOTANY
91. Systematics deals with
1) Classification 2) Nomenclature 3) Identification 4) All of these
92. Scientific name of Mango plant is Mangifera indica Linn. In the above name Linn. Refers to
1) Variety of Mango
2) A taxonomist who proposed the present nomenclature in honour of Linnaeus
3) A scientist who for the first time described Mango plant
4) A scientist who changed the name proposed by Linnaeus and proposed present name
93. Most of the botanical names are derived from the following language
1) German 2) Greek 3) Latin 4) Spanish
94. Evolutionary classification is called
1) Artificial system 2) Natural system 3) Phylogenetic system 4) None of the above
95. Embryophyta includes
1) Angiosperms only 2) Only pteridophytes
3) Bryophyta & Pteridophyta 4) All plants except thallophyta
96. According to Whittaker kingdom Protista includes
1) Prokaryotes 2) Unicellular eukaryotes
3) Slime moulds & protozoa 4) Both 2 & 3
97. Photosynthesis of Blue Green algae is
1) Oxygenic
2) Non-oxygenic
3) Both oxygenic and non-oxygenic 4) None
98. Link between prokaryotes and multicellular eukaryotes
1) Cyanobacteria 2) Protista 3) Fungi 4) Plants
99. Decomposer protists are
1) Diatoms 2) Dinoflagellates 3) Slime moulds 4) Euglenoid
100. The dead remains of diatoms are known as
1) Coenobium 2) Sporangia 3) Keiselgurh/diatomite 4) Sporocarp
101. Which of the following characters indicate similarity between fungi and animals?
1) Heterotrophic nutrition 2) Type of stored food
3) Presence of chitin 4) All the above
102. Neurospora, which is popularly known as Drosophila of plant kingdom, belongs to
1) Phycomycetes 2) Ascomycetes 3) Basidiomycetes 4) Dueteromycetes
103. The basidiomycetes includes
1) Rusts 2) Smuts 3) Mushrooms 4) All the above
104. Which of the following causes wheat rust disease?
1) A red Alga 2) A green Alga 3) A fungus 4) Mycoplasma
105. Sexual cycle is absent in
1) Phycomycetes 2) Deuteromycetes 3) Ascomycetes 4) Basidiomycetes
106. All fungi are
1) With chlorophyll 2) Without chlorophyll 3) With carotene
4) Wall less
107. In class phycomycetes the mycelium is
1) Coenocytic and aseptate 2) Coenocytic and septate
3) Uninucleate and aseptate 4) Multinucleate and septate
108. Cell wall of Chitin is found in
1) Fungi 2) Bryophyta 3) Bacteria 4) Angiosperms
109. The fungus without mycelium is
1) Phytophthora 2) Rhizopus 3) Saccharomyces 4) Microsporum
110. Sexual reproduction in Thallophyta takes place by
1) Isogamy 2) Anisogamy 3) Oogamy 4) Any of the above
111. “Agar-agar” is obtained from
1) Green Algae 2) Red Algae
3) Brown Algae 4) Yellow green Algae
112. Motile stages are found in life cycle of
1) Red Algae & Green Algae 2) Red Algae & Brown Algae
3) Red Algae & Blue green Algae 4) Green Algae & Brown Algae
113. Embryo is not formed in thallophyta due to
1) Zygotic meiosis 2) Zygotic mitosis 3) Sporangial meiosis 4) Gametic meiosis
114. Which bryophyte is known as Peat moss?
1) Riccia 2) Funaria 3) Sphagnum 4) Marchantia
115. Leafy gametophyte occurs in
1) Liver worts 2) Horn worts 3) Moss 4) Fern
116. Bryophyta are not tall plants due to
1) Absence of meristem 2) Absence of vascular tissues
3) Presence of root system 4) All the above
117. The first cell of sporophytic generation in bryophyte is
1) Spore 2) Spore mother cell 3) Zygote 4) Protonema
118. In ferns, the permanent roots are
1) Tap root 2) Adventitious roots 3) Tuberous roots 4) None
119. Independent alternation of generation is found in
1) Pteridophyta 2) Spermatophyta 3) Thallophyta 4) Bryophyta
120. Heterospory occurs in
1) Selaginella 2) Pteridium 3) Funaria 4) Riccia
121. In pteridophytes the spores germinate to form
1) Protonema 2) Prothallus 3) Sporophyte 4) Archegonium
122. Most gymnosperms have
1) Both archegonia and antheridia 2) Antheridia but no archegonia
3) Archegonia but no antheridia 4) No antheridia or archegonia
123. The ‘endosperm’ of a gymnosperm represent
1) Gametophytic tissue 2) Sporophytic tissue
3) Tissue formed by double fertilization 4) Polyploid tissue
124. Ovule is morphologically equivalent to
1) Megaspore 2) Megasporangium 3) Microspore 4) Megasporophyll
125. Double fertilization and triple fusion are characteristic of
1) Spermatophyta 2) Gymnosperms 3) Pterdiophyta 4) Angiosperms
126. Arrange the different regions of root in sequential order from tip to the base of root
A) Region of maturation B) Region of elongation
C) Region of meristematic activity D) Region of root cap
1) A  B  C  D 2) D  C  B  A
3) C  D  A  B 4) A  D  C  B
127. Match the following with suitable answers
Column – I Column – II
A) Region of root cap I) Repeated cell division
B) Region of maturation II) Protection
C) Region of elongation III) Absorption of water
D) Region of meristematic activity IV) Cell enlargement
1) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I 2) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
3) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV 4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
128. Which of the following is an example of tap root storage root
1) Carrot 2) Turnip 3) Beet root 4) All the above
129. Which of the following is an adventitious storage root
1) Carrot 2) Turnip 3) Sweet potato 4) None
130. The hanging structures support a banyan tree are
1) Prop roots 2) Stilt roots 3) Storage roots 4) None
131. Supporting roots coming out of the lower nodes of the stem in some monocots are called
1) Prop roots 2) Stilt roots 3) Storage roots 4) None
132. Which of the following are examples of stilt root
1) Maize 2) Sugar cane 3) Both 1 and 2 4) None
133. Example for fibrous storage root is
1) Asparagus 2) Carrot 3) Sweet potato 4) Turnip
134. Some plants growing in swanpy areas, many roots come out of the ground and grow vertically upwards
such roots are called
1) Pneumatophores 2) Prop roots
3) Stilt root 4) All the above
135. Which of the following is an example of pneumatophores
1) Maize 2) Sugar cane
3) Carrot 4) Rhizophora
 ZOOLOGY
136. Read the following and find the correct option
1) Intercalated discs are gap junctions and are found in cardiac muscle
2) Smooth muscles are found in visceral organs and are involved in voluntary functions
3) Skeletal muscles are striated, with peripheral nucleus
4) None
137. Microvilli of epithelium
1) Protect the cells 2) Engulf the foreign matter
3) Increase the surface area 4) Give movement to cells
138. Which of the following gland do not have duct?
1) Salivary gland 2) Mammary gland
3) Thyroid gland 4) Intestinal gland
139. Group of tall slender cells which possess their nuclei at base and microvilli at their free surface found
in the lining of
1) Fallopian tube 2) Intestine
3) Tubular parts of nephrons 4) Inner linings of blood vessels
140. If goblet cells become non-functional, this will adversely affect
1) Production of renin 2) Secretion of cerumen
3) Maturation of sperms 4) Smooth movement of food down the intestine
141. Statement 1: Areolar tissue is loose connective tissue
Statement 2: Blubber of the whale is Areolar tissue
1) Statement 1 & 2 are true 2) Statement 1 & 2 are false
3) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
4) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true
142. Identify the following

A B C
1) A-RBC,B-Platelets,C-Eosinophil
2) A-RBC,B-Platelets,C- neutrophil
3) A-RBC,B-Platelets,C-Monocyte 4) A-RBC,B-Platelets,C-Basophil
143. In which one of the following are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?
1) Cartilage 2) Ciliated epithelium
3) Thrombocytes 4) Tendon
144. Match the following

1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V

3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-V
145. Statement 1: In epithelial tissue, the cells are compactly arranged without intercellular matrix
Statement 2: epithelial tissues provides covering or lining for some parts of the body
1) Statement 1 & 2 are true
2) Statement 1 & 2 are false
3) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
4) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true
146. Which of the following is set of connective tissue only?
1) Blood, bone, skin 2) Blood, bone, muscle
3) Bone, tendon, muscle 4) Cartilage, bone, blood
147. Match the following

1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
148. Goblet cells are
1) Unicellular glands 2) Multicellular glands
3) Dead keratinized cells 4) Stratified
149. Choose the correctly matched pair:
1) Epithelium-specialized connective tissue
2) Tendon-dense irregular connective tissue
3) Adipose tissue-dense connective tissue
4) Ligament-dense regular connective tissue
150. Match the following

1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
151. __________________ integrate sensory input as well as command muscular responses of the body in
earthworm
1) Cerebral ganglia
2) Nerves of nerve ring
3) Both 1 & 2
4) None
152. Sense organs in earthworm are located in
1) Anterior region
2) Posterior region
3) Clitellar region
4) First, last and clitellar segments
153. Typhlosole
1) Internal median fold of dorsal body wall
2) Increases the effective area for absorption
3) Both 1 & 2
4) None
154. Identify the parts

1) A- Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia, B- Integumentary nephridia, C-Septal nephridia, D- pharynx

2) A- Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia, B- pharynx, C- Integumentary nephridia, D-Septal nephridia
3) A- Integumentary nephridia, B- Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia, C-Septal nephridia, D- pharynx
4) A- Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia, B- pharynx, C-Septal nephridi, D- Integumentary nephridia
155. Blood of earthworm is
1) Red in color, due to dissolved hemoglobin in corpuscle
2) Red in color, due to dissolved hemoglobin in plasma
3) Blue in color, due to dissolved hemoglobin in plasma
4) Blue in color, due to dissolved hemoglobin in corpuscle
156. Numbers of metamers having typhlosole in earthworm
1) 26 to last except 23 metamers 2) After 26 th metamer to last
3) 26 th to last except 23rd - 25th segments 4) After 26th metamer to last except 23rd - 25th segments
157. Blood in earthworm is confined to
1) Heat and haemocoel 2) Heart and blood glands
3) Heart and blood vessels 4) Heart, blood vessels and blood glands
158. Blood glands are present in
1) 3rd, 4th and 6th segments 2) 4th, 5th and 7th segments
3) 4th -6th segments 4) 4th and 5th segments
159. The principal locomotory structures in earthworm are absent in
1) First and last segments
2) First, last and clitellum
3) Buccal segment, 14-16 segments and last segment
4) Both 2 & 3
160. Epidermis of earthworm
1) is present below the cuticle 2) is made of single columnar epithelial cells
3) Contains secretory gland cells 4) All
161. In the circulatory system of pheretima A, B, C, D represents

1) A-Lateral hearts, B-Commissural vessels, C-Subneural vessel, D-Lateral oesophgeal vessel

2) A- Subneural vessel, B-Commissural vessels, C- Lateral hearts, D-Lateral oesophgeal vessel
3) A-Lateral hearts, B-Commissural vessels, C- Lateral oesophgeal vessel, D-Subneural vessel
4) A-Lateral hearts, B- Lateral oesophgeal vessel, C- Commissural vessels, D-Subneural vessel
162. Accessory glands in earthworm
1) Two pairs and present one pair in each 17 th and 19th segments
2) One pair and present one in each 17th and 19th segments
3) Two pairs and present in 17th to 19th segment
4) One pair present in 18th segment
163. One very special feature in earthworm is
1) Fertilization of eggs occurs inside the body
2) Typhlosole greatly influences the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine
3) S- shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used against enemies
4) It has long dorsal tubular heart
164. Mutual exchange of sperm in earthworm occurs between two worms during mating and they mate
__________________
1) Juxtaposing opposite male genital openings
2) Juxtaposing opposite gonadal openings
3) Juxtaposing opposite female genital openings
4) Juxtaposing opposite each other with no specificity
165. Development in earthworm
1) Indirect 2) direct
3) 3 weeks 4) Both 2 & 3
166. Similarities between nymph and adult cockroach
1) Both have wings 2) Both have jointed legs
3) Both have 10 abdominal segments 4) Both 2 & 3
167. Spermatophores in cochroach are formed in
1) Testes 2) Seminal vesicles 3) Spermathecae 4) All
168. Number of segmental ganglia present in cockroach
1) 3 2) 6 3) 9 4) 10
169. Development of cockroach
1) Paurometabolous 2) Includes nymphal stages
3) Both 1 &2 4) Indirect with nymphal stages
170. The brood pouch of female cockroach is formed by
1) 9th sternum 2) 7th, 8th and 9thterga 3) 8th and 9th sterna 4) 7th, 8th and 9th sterna
171. Mouth parts of cockroach are
1) Cutting and chewing type 2) Biting and chewing type
3) Present at the anterior end of the head 4) Both 2 & 3
172. Choose the incorrectly matched pair regarding the positions of different structures in cockroach
1) Anus—10th segment 2) Wings— 2nd and 3rd thoracic segments
3) Ovaries— 2-4 abdominal segments 4) Spermathecae— 6 th segment
173. Abdomen in male and female cockroaches consists of
1) 10 segments 2) 10 in male and 9 in female
3) 9 segments
4) 9 in male and 10 in female
174. Male cockroach possess
1) a pair of anal styles 2) a pair of anal cerci
3) A pair of antennae 4) All
175. Gizzard in cockroach
1) Proventriculus 2) has 6 highly chitinous teeth
3) acts as grinding mill 4) All
176. Blood of cockroach is called ___________ and is present in ______________
1) Haemolymph; Heamocoel
2) Haemocoel; Haemolymph
3) Haemocoel; Body cavity 4) All
177. Statement 1: Periplanata Americana is Uricotelic animal
Statement 2: The excretory product is urea
1) Statement 1 & 2 are true
2) Statement 1 & 2 are false
3) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
4) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true
178. The structures associated with excretion in cockroach
1) Malpighian tubules 2) Fat bodies 3) Uricose glands 4) All
179. Number of ommatidia present in cockroach
1)1000 2) 2000 3) 3000 4) 4000
180. Ootheca
1) Capsule that encase fertilized eggs
2) 8 mm long
3) Dark reddish to blackish brown capsule 4) All