DATE : 12/09/2021 Test Booklet Code

O2
AHJAGA

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Questions & Answers Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2021
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (Four options with a
single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to
attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (Candidates are
advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the
question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions
answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.)
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For every
wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will
be given no marks. The maximum marks are 720.
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6. The CODE for this Booklet is O2.
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13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)

PHYSICS

SECTION - A 4. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen
as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the
1. A particle is released from height S from the surface dimensions of energy.
of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is (1) [F][A][T–1] (2) [F][A–1][T]
three times its potential energy. The height from the
surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that (3) [F][A][T] (4) [F][A][T2]
instant are respectively Answer (4)
S 3gS 5. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best
(1) ,
2 2 suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope
S 3gS since
(2) ,
4 2 (1) A large aperture contributes to the quality and
S 3gS visibility of the images.
(3) ,
4 2
(2) A large area of the objective ensures better light
S 3gS gathering power.
(4) ,
4 2
(3) A large aperture provides a better resolution.
Answer (2)
(4) All of the above
2. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current
of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed Answer (4)
of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular 6. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '' is incident
distance between the electron and the conductor is
on a photosensitive surface of negligible work
20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the
function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from
force experienced by the electron at that instant.
the surface has de-Broglie wavelength d , then
5
Electron v = 10 m/s  2mc  2
(1)     d
 h 
20 cm  2h  2
(2)     d
 mc 
P 5A Q  2m  2
(3)     d
(1) 4 × 10–20 N (2) 8 × 10–20 N  hc 
(3) 4 × 10–20 N (4) 8 × 10–20 N  2mc  2
(4) d   
Answer (2)  h 
3. A screw gauge gives the following readings when Answer (1)
used to measure the diameter of a wire
7. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and
Main scale reading : 0 mm R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions charge densities of the spheres (1/2) is
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100  R1  R12
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the (1) R  (2)
 2 R22
wire from the above data is
(1) 0.26 cm (2) 0.052 cm R1 R2
(3) R (4) R
(3) 0.52 cm (4) 0.026 cm 2 1

Answer (2) Answer (4)

2
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)

8. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In 12. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes,
which direction will it move? when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken
by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C
at a room temperature same at 20°C is
10
(1) t
13
5
(2) t
E 13
+q –q
13
(3) t
10
13
(4) t
5
Answer (4)
(1) Towards the left as its potential energy will 13. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a concave
decrease. lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same
(2) Towards the right as its potential energy will axis with a distance 'd' between them. If a parallel
increase. beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a parallel
(3) Towards the left as its potential energy will beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be
increase. (1) 50 (2) 30
(4) Towards the right as its potential energy will (3) 25 (4) 15
decrease. Answer (4)
Answer (4) 14 Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the
9. The number of photons per second on an average correct match from the given choices.
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of Column - I Column - II
3.3 × 10–3 watt will be (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s) 1
(A) Root mean square (P) nmv 2
(1) 1016 (2) 1015 3
speed of gas
(3) 1018 (4) 1017
molecules
Answer (1)
10. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with 3 RT
(B) Pressure exerted (Q)
frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is M
by ideal gas
(1) 3n
5
(2) 4n (C) Average kinetic (R) RT
2
(3) n energy of a
(4) 2n molecule
Answer (4) 3
(D) Total internal (S) kBT
11. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v. The 2
escape velocity from the surface of another planet energy of 1 mole
having a radius, four times that of Earth and same of a diatomic gas
mass density is (1) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
(1) 3v
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)
(2) 4v
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
(3) v
(4) 2v (4) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
Answer (2) Answer (1)
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 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)

15. Polar molecules are the molecules 19. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and
identify the correct answer.
(1) Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field
is absent (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when
used as a voltage regulator.
(2) Having a permanent electric dipole moment
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between
(3) Having zero dipole moment 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
(4) Acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of (1) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
electric field due to displacement of charges (2) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
Answer (2) (3) (A) and (B) both are correct.
A
ZX
16. A radioactive nucleus undergoes spontaneous (4) (A) and (B) both are incorrect
decay in the sequence Answer (1)
A
Z X Z 1 B Z 3 C Z 2 D , where Z is the atomic 20. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown
number of element X. The possible decay particles in in the figure is
the sequence are C
(1) +, , –
C
(2) –, , +
(3) , –, + C
(4) , +, – C 3C
(1) (2)
2 2
Answer (1)
(3) 3C (4) 2C
17. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
Answer (4)
balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell
of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what 21. The electron concentration in an n-type
length of the wire, the balance point occurs? semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in
a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is
(1) 64 cm applied across each of them. Compare the currents
(2) 62 cm in them.

(3) 60 cm (1) Current in n-type > current in p-type.

(4) 21.6 cm (2) No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow
in n-type
Answer (3)
(3) Current in n-type = current in p-type
18. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane,
starting from rest at time t = 0. Let S n be the (4) Current in p-type > current in n-type
distance travelled by the block in the interval Answer (1)
Sn 22. A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across
t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio is
Sn 1 an ac source of voltage V, given by

2n  1 V = V0sint
(1)
2n  1 The displacement current between the plates of the
capacitor, would then be given by
2n
(2) V0
2n  1 (1) Id  sin t
C
2n  1 (2) Id = V0Csint
(3)
2n (3) Id = V0Ccost

2n  1 V0
(4) (4) Id  cos t
2n  1 C

Answer (4) Answer (3)

4
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
23. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries
current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-
section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the
cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the cable
is represented by
27. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
x-direction, which one of the following combination
gives the correct possible directions for electric field
(E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
(1) j  k,  j  k (2)  j  k,  j  k

(3) j  k, j  k (4)  j  k ,  j  k

B B Answer (4)
(1) (2)
28. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with
r r flow of current through a metallic conductor.
Column-II gives some mathematical relations
involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and
Column-II with appropriate relations.
Column-I Column-II
B B
(3) (4) m
(A) Drift Velocity (P)
r r ne 2 
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd
Answer (1)
eE
24. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The (C) Relaxation Period (R) 
time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is m
suspended by it is E
(D) Current Density (S)
(1) 3.14 s (2) 0.628 s J
(3) 0.0628 s (4) 6.28 s (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
Answer (2) (2) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
25. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field (3) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)

' E ' in the space between the plates. If the distance (4) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P)
between the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate is Answer (3)
'A', the energy stored in the capacitor is
29. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
(0 = permittivity of free space)
capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are
1 E 2 Ad connected in series to an ac source of potential
(1) 0 E 2 Ad (2) difference 'V' volts as shown in figure.
2 0
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V
1
(3) 0 E 2 (4) 0EAd and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current
2
flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A . The
Answer (1)
impedance of the circuit is
26. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d,
when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
becomes constant after some time. If the density of
d 40 V 10 V 40 V
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the
2
ball will be ~
V
3
(1) Mg (2) 2Mg (1) 4  (2) 5 
2
5
Mg (3) 4 2  (4) 
(3) (4) Mg 2
2
Answer (3) Answer (2)

5
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
30. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The 35. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
fraction of original activity that will remain after fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
150 hours would be energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV
while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in
2 2
(1) (2) the Binding Energy in the process is
3 3 2
(1) 804 MeV (2) 216 MeV
1 1 (3) 0.9 MeV (4) 9.4 MeV
(3) (4)
2 2 2
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
31. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that SECTION - B
consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of
cross-section and same material is 0.25 . What will 36. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
be the effective resistance if they are connected in balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass
series? of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and
(1) 1  (2) 4  another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the rod
at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value
(3) 0.25  (4) 0.5 
of 'm' such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)
Answer (2)
32. If E and G respectively denote energy and 0 20 cm 40 cm 160 cm
E
gravitational constant, then has the dimensions of
G
(1) [M] [L0] [T0] (2) [M2] [L–2] [T–1]
(3) [M2] [L–1] [T0] (4) [M] [L–1] [T–1]
Answer (3) 2 kg m
33. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of
15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
1 1
frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How (1) kg (2) kg
6 12
much power is generated by the turbine?
(g = 10 m/s2)
1 1
(1) 12.3 kW (2) 7.0 kW (3) kg (4) kg
2 3
(3) 10.2 kW (4) 8.1 kW
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
37. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are
34. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the
i3
prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3. connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio i
1
of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit
is
i 2 r2
r1

A i1 B
i3 r3

60° r1 r2
(1) r  r (2) r  r
1 2 1 3

(1) 45° (2) 90° r1 r2

(3) r  r (4) r  r
(3) 60° (4) 30° 2 3 2 3

Answer (3) Answer (4)

6
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)

38. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are 40. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W
the output at the terminal y? lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what
is the current in the primary circuit?
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
5 (1) 2 A (2) 4 A
A
0 (3) 0.2 A (4) 0.4 A
Answer (3)
5
B 41. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc
0
corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
5 about an axis passing through the centre of the ring
C
0 and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K' times
'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is
A
1 1
(1) (2)
4 8

3 7
B (3) (4)
y 4 8
Answer (3)
42. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
C
uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
revolution. If this particle were projected with the same
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 speed at an angle '' to the horizontal, the maximum
y
(1) height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of
0V projection, , is then given by :
5V
(2) 1
0V 2 R 
1 
2
(1)   sin  2 
(3) 5V  gT 
5V 1
(4)  2gT 2  2
0V (2)   sin1  2 
  R 
Answer (3)
1
39. In the product  gT 2  2
(3)   cos1  2 
    R
F  q v B   1
2 R 
1 
2
 (4)   cos  2 

 qv  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ   gT 
 Answer (2)
For q  1 and v  2iˆ  4 jˆ  6kˆ and
43. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at

F  4iˆ – 20 ˆj  12kˆ 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop.
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.

What will be the complete expression for B ? (1) 1520 V

(1) 8iˆ  8 ˆj  6kˆ (2) 6iˆ  6 ˆj  8kˆ (2) 1980 V

(3) 660 V
(3) –8iˆ – 8 ˆj  6kˆ (4) –6iˆ – 6 jˆ  8kˆ (4) 1320 V
Answer (4) Answer (2)

7
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)

44. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity (1) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
v = kVe (k < 1) from the surface of the earth. (2) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
(Ve = escape velocity)
(3) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
The maximum height above the surface reached by
(4) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
the particle is
Answer (1)
R 2k
(1) 48. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and
1 k resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil
in the shape of,
Rk 2
(2)
1 k 2 (i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'.

(ii) a square of side 'a'.

2
 k 
(3) R   The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each
 1 k 
case respectively are
2 (1) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2 (2) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2
 k 
(4) R  
 1 k 
(3) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 (4) 3 Ia2 and Ia2
Answer (2)
Answer (3)
45. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At
49. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m,
t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person
strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height.
sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration
The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is
of the ball at t = 6 s?
(g = 10 m/s2) nearly
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2.1 kg m/s (2) 1.4 kg m/s
(1) 20 2 m/s, 0
(3) 0 kg m/s (4) 4.2 kg m/s
(2) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2 Answer (4)
(3) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2 50. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a
(4) 20 m/s, 0 convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror
were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens
Answer (2)
and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image
46. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are would be formed at a distance of
placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding.
If R1 > > R2, the mutual inductance M between them
will be directly proportional to

R12 R22
(1) (2)
R2 R1

R1 R2
60 cm 40 cm
(3) R (4) R
2 1
(1) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
Answer (2)
image
47. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 F
(2) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
capacitor and 40  resistor is connected to 230 V image
variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies
(3) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
of the source at which power transferred to the circuit
is half the power at the resonant angular frequency (4) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
are likely to be Answer (2)

8
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)

CHEMISTRY

56. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi

SECTION - A
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
51. Given below are two statements : The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
Statement I : emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light
c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
narcotic analgesics. (1) 2192 m (2) 21.92 cm
Statement II : (3) 219.3 m (4) 219.2 m
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In Answer (3)
the light of the above statements, choose the correct 57. Match List-I with List-II.
answer from the options given below. List-I List-II
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false (a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
true.
(c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Answer (4) below.
52. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
ionic radii because of :
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(1) Lanthanoid contraction
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) Having similar chemical properties
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) Belonging to same group
Answer (3)
(4) Diagonal relationship
58. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane
Answer (1) is :
53. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C—X' bond
(1) 60° (2) 0°
is :
(3) 120° (4) 180°
(1) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl  CH3 – Br > CH3 – I
Answer (2)
(2) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F > CH3 – Br > CH3 –I 59. Which of the following reactions is the metal
(3) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl < CH3 – Br < CH3 –I displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
(1) Fe + 2HCl  FeCl2 + H2
(4) CH3 – F > CH3 – Cl  CH3 – Br > CH3 – I
(2) 2Pb(NO3)2  2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
Answer (4)

(3) 2KClO3 
54. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :  2KCl + 3O2

(4) Cr2O3 + 2Al 
(1) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms  Al2O3 + 2Cr
(2) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms Answer (4)
(3) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" 60. The compound which shows metamerism is :
donor atoms
(1) C3H6O (2) C4H10O
(4) Unidentate ligand
(3) C5H12 (4) C3H8O
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
55. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound.
61. Which one among the following is the correct option
Hybridization and number of electrons around the
for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole
central atom, respectively are :
of ideal gas?
(1) sp2 and 6 (2) sp2 and 8 (1) CP = RCV (2) CV = RCP
(3) sp3 and 4 (4) sp3 and 6 (3) CP + CV = R (4) CP – CV = R
Answer (1) Answer (4)
9
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)

62. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by

addition polymerisation?

Pressure (P)
(1) Novolac

(bar)
(3) 200 K
(2) Dacron
400 K
(3) Teflon 600 K
(4) Nylon-66
Volume (V)
3
Answer (3) (dm )
63. The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is
exhibited by", is :

Pressure (P)
(200 K, 400 K, 600 K)
(1) Starch solution

(bar)
(2) Urea solution (4)

(3) NaCl solution

(4) Glucose solution Volume (V)
3
(dm )
Answer (1) Answer (2)
64. The correct option for the number of body centred 66. Noble gases are named because of their inertness
unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement
is : about them.
(1) 2 (1) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces
(2) 3 (2) Noble gases have large positive values of
electron gain enthalpy
(3) 7
(3) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
(4) 5
(4) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling
Answer (2) points
65. Choose the correct option for graphical representation Answer (4)
of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. 67. Which one of the following methods can be used to
volume of a gas at different temperatures : obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
temperature?
K

(1) Distillation (2) Zone refining

0

K
20

0
40 (3) Electrolysis (4) Chromatography
0K
Pressure (P)

60 Answer (1)
(bar)

(1) 68. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits

which of the following particles?
(1) Gamma () (2) Neutron (n)
Volume (V)
3 (3) Beta (–) (4) Alpha ()
(dm )
Answer (3)
69. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one
which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is :
Pressure (P)

(1) Magnesium chloride

(bar)

600 K (2) Beryllium chloride

(2)
400 K
200 K (3) Calcium chloride
(4) Strontium chloride
Volume (V)
3
(dm ) Answer (2)
10
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
70. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are
3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
solution is :
74. For a reaction A  B, enthalpy of reaction is
–4.2 kJ mol –1 and enthalpy of activation is
9.6 kJ mol–1. The correct potential energy profile for
the reaction is shown in option.

(1) 7.75 (2) 6.25

(3) 8.50 (4) 5.50

Answer (1) (1)

71. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa

at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and
91.0 S cm 2 mol –1 respectively. The molar
conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
B
Choose the right option for your answer. PE A
(2)
(1) 698.28 S cm2 mol–1
Reaction Progress
(2) 540.48 S cm2 mol–1

(3) 201.28 S cm2 mol–1

(4) 390.71 S cm2 mol–1 (3) PE B

A
Answer (4)
Reaction Progress
72. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
formed in the following chemical reaction?
(i) C H MgBr, dry Ether
Acetone 
2 5
  Product
(ii) H2O, H
PE A
(4)
(1) pentan-3-ol B

(2) 2-methylbutan-2-ol Reaction Progress

(3) 2-methylpropan-2-ol Answer (4)
(4) pentan-2-ol 75. The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
Answer (2)
73. The major product of the following chemical reaction
is :
CH 3 (C 6 H 5CO) 2O2 (1)
CH CH CH2 + HBr ?
CH 3

CH 3
CH 3
(1) CH CH CH (2)
3
Br

CH3
(2) CBr CH2 – CH3
CH3
(3)
CH3
(3) CH CH2 CH2 Br
CH3

(4) (4)

Answer (3) Answer (3)

11
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
76. Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order 82. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and
given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI. vapour phase, are :
Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, (1) Dimer and Linear, respectively
I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF,
(2) Chain in both
HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength
increases. (3) Chain and dimer, respectively
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) Linear in both
correct answer from the options given below.
Answer (3)
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
83. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (1) 2, 1 (2) 12, 6
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) 8, 4 (4) 6, 12
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
77. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation
reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This 84. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving
10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1),
product formation is based on?
10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and
(1) Hofmann Rule (2) Huckel's Rule 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3).
The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic
(3) Saytzeff's Rule (4) Hund's Rule
pressure of these solutions is :
Answer (3)
(1) P2 > P3 > P1 (2) P3 > P1 > P2
78. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon
(3) P2 > P1 > P3 (4) P1 > P2 > P3
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right
option for the empirical formula of this compound Answer (3)
is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
85. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's
(1) CH3 (2) CH4 reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
(3) CH (4) CH2 CH2
Answer (1) (1) CH3 NH2

79. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of : CH2 CH2

(1) Vitamin B1 (2) Vitamin B2 CH3 N CH 3
(2)
(3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin B6 CH 3

Answer (3) CH 2
(3) CH NO2
3
80. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in
blast furnace is : CH 2
(4) CH3 NH CH3
(1) Upto 1900 K (2) Upto 5000 K
(3) Upto 1200 K (4) Upto 2200 K Answer (1)
Answer (4) SECTION - B
81. The incorrect statement among the following is : 86. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of
(1) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar
electricity ratio 3 : 2 is :
(2) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially [At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg
when finely divided. and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
(3) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to (1) 336 mm of Hg
element than lanthanoid contraction (2) 350 mm of Hg
(4) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are (3) 160 mm of Hg
colorless in the solid state (4) 168 mm of Hg
Answer (4) Answer (1)
12
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
87. Match List-I with List-II. 91. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM (a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  (i) Acid rain
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM 2SO3(g)
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4– (iii) 4.90 BM (b) HOCl(g) 
h
 (ii) Smog
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM  
OH + Cl
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(c) CaCO3+ H2SO4  (iii) Ozone
below.
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) CaSO4 + H2O+CO2 depletion

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (d) NO2 (g) h

 (iv) Tropospheric
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) NO(g) + O(g) pollution
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
Answer (2)
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
88. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an
iso-electronic pair? (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(1) Mn2+, Fe3+ (2) Fe2+, Mn2+ (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(3) O2–, F– (4) Na+, Mg2+ (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Answer (2) Answer (1)

89. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in  1

92. The slope of Arrhenius plot  ln k v/s  of first
nature?  T 
(1) SbCl5 (2) NO2 order reaction is –5 × 103K. The value of Ea of the
reaction is. Choose the correct option for your answer.
(3) POCl3 (4) CH2O
[Given R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1]
Answer (1)
(1) 166 kJ mol–1 (2) –83 kJ mol–1
90. Match List-I with List-II (3) 41.5 kJ mol–1 (4) 83.0 kJ mol–1
List-I List-II Answer (3)

CO, HCI
93. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under
(a) (i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky isothermal condition, the correct option is:
Anhyd. AlCl3/
CuCl
O reaction (1) U = 0, Stotal  0 (2) U  0, Stotal = 0
(b) R — C — CH 3 + (ii) Gattermann-Koch (3) U = 0, Stotal = 0 (4) U  0, Stotal  0
NaOX reaction
Answer (1)
(c) R — CH2 — OH (iii) Haloform reaction 94. In which one of the following arrangements the
+R COOH
given sequence is not strictly according to the
Conc. H2SO 4
properties indicated against it?

(d) R — CH 2COOH (iv) Esterification (1) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing

(I ) X2/Red P
I

< AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character

(ii) H 2O
(2) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. < SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power

(1) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) (3) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) < HBr < HI strength

(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) (4) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) < H2Se < H2Te values

Answer (2) Answer (4)

13
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
95. The product formed in the following chemical NaOH, +?
98. CH3CH2COO– Na+ Heat
CH3CH3 + Na2CO3.
reaction is:
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing
O O
NaBH4 reagent/chemical.
CH2–C–OCH3 C2H5OH
?
(1) CaO
CH3 (2) DIBAL-H

OH H (3) B2H6
CH 2 –C–CH3 (4) Red Phosphorus
(1) OH Answer (1)
CH 3
99. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20
OH O S cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant of
CH 2 –C–OCH3 acetic acid? Choose the correct option.
(2)
CH 3    +  350 S cm2 mol1 
 H 
  50 S cm 2
mol 1 
OH H  CH3COO


CH 2 –C–OCH3
(3) (1) 1.75  105 mol L1
OH
CH 3
(2) 2.50  105 mol L1
O
CH 2 –CH 2–OH (3) 1.75  104 mol L1
(4)
CH 3
(4) 2.50  104 mol L1
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
96. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in
100. The intermediate compound 'X' in the following
atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in
chemical reaction is:
a total volume of one litre at 0°C is :
O
[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1, T = 273 K]
CH3 C
(1) 25.18 (2) 26.02 CS2 H 3O
+
H
+ CrO 2Cl2 X

(3) 2.518 (4) 2.602

Cl
Answer (1) CH
Cl
97. The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical (1)
reaction is:
––
NH2 N2 Cl – Cl
Br Br Br Br Br Br
CH
NaNO 2, HCl R
H
(2)
0-5°C

Br Br Br
CH(OCrOHCl 2)2
(1) HI (3)
(2) CuCN/KCN
CH(OCOCH 3 )2
(3) H2O (4)
(4) CH3CH2OH
Answer (4) Answer (3)
14
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)

BOTANY

(a) (b) (c) (d)

SECTION - A
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
101. Match List-I with List-II
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
List-I List-II (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato Answer (3)

(c) (iii) Somaclones

105. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
Meristem culture
(1) 7-nucleate and 7-celled
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
(2) 8-nucleate and 8-celled
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
below.
(4) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer (3)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 106. Amensalism can be represented as:
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (1) Species A (–); Species B (–)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) Species A (+); Species B (0)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (3) Species A (–); Species B (0)
Answer (4) (4) Species A (+); Species B (+)
102. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from Answer (3)
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant
which, during pollination, brings genetically different 107. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide
types of pollen grains to stigma, is : when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
(1) Dark red bands
(1) Chasmogamy (2) Cleistogamy
(2) Bright blue bands
(3) Xenogamy (4) Geitonogamy
(3) Yellow bands
Answer (3)
(4) Bright orange bands
103. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a
population is : Answer (4)
(1) Mutation (2) Genetic drift 108. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
division of centromere?
(3) Natural selection (4) Genetic recombination
(1) Anaphase II
Answer (2)
(2) Telophase II
104. Match List-I with List-II.
(3) Metaphase I
(4) Metaphase II
Answer (1)
109. Which of the following plants is monoecious?
(1) Marchantia polymorpha
(2) Cycas circinalis
(3) Carica papaya
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Chara
below.
Answer (4)
15
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
110. The site of perception of light in plants during 115. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
photoperiodism is
(1) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between
(1) Axillary bud the materials present inside the nucleus and that
(2) Leaf of the cytoplasm

(3) Shoot apex (2) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and
RNA molecules in both directions between
(4) Stem nucleus and cytoplasm
Answer (2)
(3) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
111. Which of the following are not secondary conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
metabolites in plants? organelles

(1) Vinblastin, curcumin (4) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal
cells
(2) Rubber, gums

(3) Morphine, codeine Answer (3)

(4) Amino acids, glucose 116. Match List-I with List-II.

Answer (4)

112. In the equation GPP – R = NPP

R represents :

(1) Environmental factor

(2) Respiration losses

(3) Radiant energy

(4) Retardation factor Select the correct answer from the options given
Answer (2) below.

113. Plants follow different pathways in response to (a) (b) (c) (d)
environment or phases of life to form different kinds
of structures. This ability is called (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) Plasticity (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) Maturity (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(3) Elasticity (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) Flexibility Answer (3)
Answer (1)
117. The production of gametes by the parents, formation
114. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood
phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any from a diagram called :
given time, is referred as :
(1) Punnett square
(1) Standing state
(2) Net square
(2) Standing crop
(3) Bullet square
(3) Climax

(4) Climax community (4) Punch square

Answer (1) Answer (1)

16
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
118. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by: 122. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is
(1) Gamma rays
referred as :
(2) Zeatin
(1) Sub-metacentric
(3) Kinetin
(2) Acrocentric
(4) Infrared rays
(3) Metacentric
Answer (1)
(4) Telocentric
119. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is
Answer (3)
(1) Succinic acid
123. Which of the following is not an application of PCR
(2) Phosphoglyceric acid (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(3) Pyruvic acid
(1) Purification of isolated protein
(4) Oxaloacetic acid
(2) Detection of gene mutation
Answer (4)
(3) Molecular diagnosis
120. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) Gene amplification

Answer (1)

124. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two

kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:

(1) Homosporous

(2) Heterosporous

(3) Homosorus

(4) Heterosorus

Answer (2)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. 125. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which
mechanism the competing species might have
(a) (b) (c) (d) evolved for their survival?
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) Mutualism
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (2) Predation
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) Resource partitioning
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) Competitive release
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
121. Which of the following statements is not correct?
126. Gemmae are present in
(1) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(1) Some Gymnosperms
(2) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem
is upright. (2) Some Liverworts

(3) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted. (3) Mosses

(4) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright. (4) Pteridophytes

Answer (4) Answer (2)

17
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
127. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen? 132. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is
attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease,
(1) Red algae
it is known as :
(2) Blue-green algae
(1) Molecular diagnosis
(3) Green algae
(2) Safety testing
(4) Brown algae
(3) Biopiracy
Answer (1)
(4) Gene therapy
128. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
Answer (4)
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing 133. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is

(2) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension (1) 2, 4-D

(3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (2) IBA

(4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (3) IAA

Answer (3) (4) NAA

129. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as Answer (1)

reserve food material? 134. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) Volvox
(2) Ulothrix List-I List-II

(3) Ectocarpus (a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen

(4) Gracilaria (b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition

Answer (3) (c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases

130. Diadelphous stamens are found in (d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm
(1) Pea
(2) China rose and citrus Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(3) China rose
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Citrus
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer (1)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
131. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; Answer (4)

(d)-Protein 135. During the purification process for recombinant DNA
(2) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates
(d)-Protein out :

(3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (1) Histones

(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein (2) Polysaccharides

(4) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (3) RNA

(c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction (4) DNA

Answer (1) Answer (4)

18
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
139. Which of the following statements is correct ?
SECTION - B
136. Match List-I with List-II. (1) Organisms that depend on living plants are
called saprophytes
List-I List-II
(a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds (2) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
(b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester
fatty acid bonds
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds (3) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds (4) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on
Choose the correct answer from the options given non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
below. Answer (4)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
140. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) Single nucleotides
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (2) Polymorphic DNA
Answer (3)
(3) Satellite DNA
137. Match Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II (4) Repetitive DNA

(a) % K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A (9) + 1 G1 (i) Brassicaceae Answer (4)

(b) K (5) C(5)A5 G(2) (ii) Liliaceae 141. Select the correct pair.

(c) P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G(3) (iii) Fabaceae (1) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
that form part of cambium
(d) K2 + 2 C4 A2 – 4 G (2) (iv) Solanaceae
cambial ring
Select the correct answer from the options given
below. (2) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma
(a) (b) (c) (d)
and forming a lens shaped
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) opening in bark
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
cells in the epidermis
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) of grass leaves
Answer (3)
(4) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive
138. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site
bundles are surrounded tissue
within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance.
by large thick-walled cells
If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for
β-galactoside production and the recombinant Answer (1)
plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
(1) It will lead to lysis of host cell 142. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e
represents
(2) It will be able to produce a novel protein with
dual ability (1) The base of natural logarithms
(3) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance
(2) The base of geometric logarithms
to the host cell
(4) The transformed cells will have the ability to (3) The base of number logarithms
resist ampicillin as well as produce
β-galactoside (4) The base of exponential logarithms

Answer (3) Answer (1)

19
 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
143. Which of the following statements is incorrect? Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) ATP is synthesized through complex V below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Oxidation-reducation reactions produce proton
gradient in respiration (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
limited to the terminal stage (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule (4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, Answer (1)
and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules 148. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the
Answer (4) process of transcription in eukaryotes?
144. Identify the correct statement. (1) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
(1) The coding strand in a transcription unit is (2) Transcribes only snRNAs
copied to an mRNA (3) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
(2) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of (4) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
prokaryotes Answer (4)
(3) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is 149. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene
added to the 3' end of hnRNA causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to
hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells,
(4) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
followed by its detection using autoradiography
terminate the process of transcription in bacteria
because :
Answer (4)
(1) Mutated gene does not appear on a
145. In some members of which of the following pairs of photographic film as the probe has no
families, pollen grains retain their viability for months complementarity with it
after release?
(2) Mutated gene does not appear on photographic
(1) Poaceae ; Solanaceae film as the probe has complementarity with it
(2) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae (3) Mutated gene partially appears on a
(3) Poaceae ; Rosaceae photographic film
(4) Mutated gene completely and clearly appears on
(4) Poaceae ; Leguminosae
a photographic film
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
146. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
150. Match Column-I with Column-II.
(1) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
Column-I Column-II
(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I
and PS II (a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification

(3) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized (b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation to nitrite

(4) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP (c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
reductase
(d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of atmospheric
Answer (2) nitrogen to ammonia
147. Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from options given
below.
List-I List-II
Proteins are (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) S phase (i)
synthesized (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) Quiescent (iii) Interval between mitosis
stage and initiation of (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
DNA replication (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
Answer (3)

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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)

ZOOLOGY

Choose the correct answer from the options given

SECTION - A below
151. The centriole undergoes duplication during: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Metaphase (2) G2 phase (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) S-phase (4) Prophase (2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer (3) (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
152. During the process of gene amplification using PCR, (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
if very high temperature is not maintained in the Answer (3)
beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR
157. Succus entericus is referred to as:
will be affected first?
(1) Gastric juice (2) Chyme
(1) Denaturation (2) Ligation
(3) Pancreatic juice (4) Intestinal juice
(3) Annealing (4) Extension
Answer (4)
Answer (1) 158. Match List - I with List - II
153. Which one of the following belongs to the family
Muscidae?
(1) Cockroach
(2) House fly
(3) Fire fly
(4) Grasshopper
Answer (2)
154. Which of the following statements wrongly Choose the correct answer from the options given
represents the nature of smooth muscle? below.
(1) Communication among the cells is performed by (a) (b) (c) (d)
intercalated discs (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) These muscles are present in the wall of blood (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
vessels
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) These muscle have no striations
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) They are involuntary muscles Answer (1)
Answer (1) 159. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present
155. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of: on :
(1) Perivitelline space
(1) Ozone (2) Troposphere
(2) Zona pellucida
(3) CFCs (4) Stratosphere
(3) Corona radiata
Answer (1)
(4) Vitelline membrane
156. Match List-I with List-II
Answer (2)
List-I List-II 160. Which one of the following is an example of
Aspergillus Hormone releasing IUD?
(a) niger (i ) Acetic Acid
(1) Cu 7
(b) Acetobacter (ii) Lactic Acid
aceti (2) Multiload 375
(c) Clostridium (iii) Citric Acid (3) CuT
butylicum
(4) LNG 20
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric A cid
Answer (4)

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161. Veneral diseases can spread through :
(a) Using sterile needles
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
166. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis
and understanding its pathophysiology is very
important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic
techniques is very useful for early detection?
(1) ELISA Technique

(d) Kissing (2) Hybridization Technique

(e) Inheritance (3) Western Blotting Technique

(4) Southern Blotting Technique
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below Answer (1/4*)
(1) (b) and (c) only (2) (a) and (c) only 167. Read the following statements

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (b), (c) and (d) only (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
Answer (1)
animals.
162. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body
and pneumatic long bones?
organization.
(1) Macropus (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
(2) Ornithorhynchus digestion.

(3) Neophron (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of

Echinoderms.
(4) Hemidactylus
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Answer (3) below.
163. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and (1) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) (2) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
are:
(3) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
(1) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
Answer (2)
(3) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40 168. Match List-I with List-II.
(4) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
List-I List-II
Answer (3)
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through
164. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what Cervix is blocked
will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
Cytosine in it? (b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas
(1) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20 deferens

(2) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25 (c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of

sperms within the Uterus
(3) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
(d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube
(4) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
Choose the correct answer from the option given
Answer (1)
below
165. In a cross between a male and female, both (a) (b) (c) (d)
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) 25% (2) 100%
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) 50% (4) 75%
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Answer (1) Answer (4)

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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
169. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as 174. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to
"Universal recipients". This is due to : catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the
(1) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on process of transcription in prokaryotes?
RBCs (1) DNA Ligase
(2) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in (2) DNase
plasma
(3) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of
(4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
RBCs
Answer (4)
(4) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
Answer (2) 175. Select the favourable conditions required for the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
170. With regard to insulin choose correct options.
(1) High pO 2 , high pCO 2 , less H + , higher
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. temperature
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C- (2) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
peptide.
(3) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide
(4) Low pO 2 , high pCO 2 , more H + , higher
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are
temperature
interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Answer (3)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below 176. Match the following:
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only List-I List-II
(2) (a) and (d) only (a) (i )
Physalia Pearl oyster
(3) (b) and (d) only
Limulus Portuguese Man of
(b) (ii)
(4) (b) and (c) only War
Answer (1) (c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
171. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as: Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Myasthenia gravis (2) Gout below.
(3) Arthritis (4) Muscular dystrophy (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer (1) (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
172. The organelles that are included in the (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
endomembrane system are
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(1) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and
Lysosomes (4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(2) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Answer (1)

Mitochondria and Lysosomes 177. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, synthesis of protein?
Ribosomes and Lysosomes (1) rRNA (2) siRNA
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, (3) mRNA (4) tRNA
Lysosomes and Vacuoles
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
178. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
173. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the (1) Epinephrine
number of chromosomes after S phase? (2) Thrombokinase
(1) 4 (2) 32 (3) Thrombin
(3) 8 (4) 16 (4) Renin
Answer (3) Answer (3)

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179. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
formation is produced by:
(1) The cells of bone marrow
(2) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
185. A specific recognition sequence identified by
endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions
within the DNA is:
(1) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences

(3) Alpha cells of pancreas (2) Poly(A) tail sequences

(4) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis (3) Degenerate primer sequence
Answer (2) (4) Okazaki sequences
180. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows
Answer (1)
terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
(1) Diakinesis (2) Pachytene SECTION - B
(3) Leptotene (4) Zygotene
186. Match List-I with List - II
Answer (1)
List - I List - II
181. Sphincter of oddi is present at:
(1) Gastro-oesophageal junction (a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat

(2) Junction of jejunum and duodenum (b) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard
adaptation
(3) Ileo-caecal junction
(c) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish
(4) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and at depth
adaptation
duodenum
Answer (4) (d) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal
adaptation
182. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect
with respect to cockroach? Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital below.
pouch
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a
pair of anal cerci (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
of midgut and hind gut
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by
the mouth parts (4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Answer (3) Answer (1)
183. Which of the following is not an objective of 187. Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for
Biofortification in crops? methionine and phenylalanine.
(1) Improve vitamin content
Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code
(2) Improve micronutrient and mineral content for the amino acid lysine.
(3) Improve protein content In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Improve resistance to diseases correct answer from the options given below.

Answer (4) (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

false
184. Identify the incorrect pair
(1) Lectins – Concanavalin A (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true
(2) Drugs – Ricin
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Alkaloids – Codeine
(4) Toxin – Abrin (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Answer (2) Answer (2)

24
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
188. Match List-I with List-II 191. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
List -I List -II facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells
Cartilaginous via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
(a) Scapula (i)
joints (1) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
respectively.
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
(2) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints respectively
(3) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
Vertebral Triangular flat
(d) (iv) respectively
column bone
(4) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below Answer (4)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 192. Which of these is not an important component of
initiation of parturition in humans ?
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) Release of Oxytocin
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Release of Prolactin
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) Synthesis of prostaglandins
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
189. Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and
experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like 193. Match List - I with List - II
breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. List - I List - II
Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at
high altitude, the body does not get sufficient (a) Adaptive (i) Selection of
oxygen. radiation resistant varieties
due to excessive
In the light of the above statements, choose the
use of herbicides
correct answer from the options given below
and pesticides
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true evolution in Man and Whale
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (c) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly
explanation of (A) evolution and Bird
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches
correct explanation of (A) anthropogenic
action
Answer (3)
190. Following are the statements about prostomium of Choose the correct answer from the options given
earthworm. below.

(a) It serves as a covering for mouth. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
can crawl. (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(c) It is one of the sensory structures. (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) It is the first body segment. (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Choose the correct answer from the options given Answer (3)
below. 194. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct (1) Digestive disorder
(2) (b) and (c) are correct (2) Addison's disease
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (3) Dysfunction of Immune system
(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct (4) Parkinson's disease
Answer (3) Answer (3)
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 NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-O2)
195. Match List-I with List-II (1) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
(2) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
List -I List -II
Haemophilus (3) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
(a) Filariasis (i)
influenzae (4) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton Answer (3)

Wuchereria 198. Following are the statements with reference to

(c) Pneumonia (iii) 'lipids'.
bancrofti
Entamoeba (a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
(d) Ringworm (iv) unsaturated fatty acids
histolytica
Choose the correct answer from the options given (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
below (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) carboxyl carbon.
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) below.

Answer (4) (1) (b) and (c) only

196. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple (2) (b) and (e) only
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)? (3) (a) and (b) only
(1) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination (4) (c) and (d) only
(2) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate Answer (1)
mothers at 8-32 cell stage
199. Which one of the following statements about
(3) Cow is administered hormone having LH like Histones is wrong?
activity for super ovulation
(1) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and
(4) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time Arginine
Answer (3) (2) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
197. During muscular contraction which of the following (3) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
events occur? molecules
(a) 'H' zone disappears (4) The pH of histones is slightly acidic
(b) 'A' band widens Answer (4)
(c) 'I' band reduces in width
200. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
Pi.
(1) Foetus (2) Uterus
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.
(3) Graafian follicle (4) Corpus luteum
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Answer (4)
below:

‰‰‰

26