Professional Documents
Culture Documents
C. June 2009 Nle
C. June 2009 Nle
SITUATION : A Nurse utilizes the nursing process in managing patient care. Knowledge of this
process is essential to deliver high quality care and to focus on the client’s response to their illness.
1. During the planning phase of the nursing process, which of the following is the product
developed?
A. Covert data
B. Inferences
C. Overt data
D. Symptoms
3. Data or information obtained from the assessment of a patient is primarily used by nurse to:
SITUATION : Correct application of the Nursing Process is vital in providing quality care. The nurse
must use her skills and knowledge in proper assessment, planning and evaluating to meet the
patient’s need and address the priority response of the client to his or her illness.
6. Two year old Ben’s mother states “Ben vomited 8 ounces of his formula this morning.” This
statement is an example of:
8. An expected outcome on a patient’s care plan reads: “Patient will state seven warning signs of
cancer by discharge.” When the nurse evaluates the patient progress, the patient is able to state
that a change in wart or mole, a sore that doesn’t heal and a change in bowel or bladder habits are
warning signals of cancer. Which of the following would be an appropriate evaluative statement for
the nurse to place on the patient’s nursing care plan?
9. A quality assurance nurse sends questionnaire to patients after discharge to determine their level
of satisfaction with the nurse care they received in the facility. What type of nursing audit is this?
A. Concurrent
B. Outcome
C. Terminal
D. Retrospective
10. The nurse makes the following entry in the patient’s record: “Goal not met; patient refuses to
attend smoking cessation classes.” Because this goal hasn’t been met, the nurse should:
A. Develop a completely new nursing care plan
B. Assign the patient to a more experienced nurse
C. Critique the steps involved in the development of the goal
D. Transfer the patient to another facility
SITUATION : Health care delivery system affects the health status of every filipino. As a Nurse,
Knowledge of this system is expected to ensure quality of life.
12. What exemplified the preventive and promotive programs in the hospital?
A. Hospitals
B. Community
C. Workplace
D. All of the above
15. This form of Health Insurance provides comprehensive prepaid health services to enrollees for a
fixed periodic payment.
16. The client with history of pulmonary emboli is scheduled for insertion of an inferior vena cava
filter. The nurse checks on the client 1 hour after the physician has explained the procedure and
obtained consent from the client. The client is lying in bed, wringing the hands, and says to the
nurse, “I’m not sure about this. What if it doesn’t work, and I’m just as bad off as before?” The nurse
addresses which of the following primary concerns of the client?
17. A nurse is formulating a plan of care for a client receiving enteral feedings. The nurse identifies
which nursing diagnosis as the highest priority for this client?
18. A home care nurse finds a client in the bedroom, unconscious, with pill bottle in hand. The pill
bottle contained the SSRI Sertraline (Zoloft). The nurse immediately assesses the client’s:
A. Blood pressure
B. Respirations
C. Pulse
D. Urine Output
19. A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital for subclavian line placement. Which
psychosocial area of assessment should the nurse address with the client?
SITUATION: Health Promotion is the priority nursing reponsibility. The nurse should be able to
promote the client’s wellbeing and identify ways on improving the client’s quality of life.
21. The nurse is caring for a 16 year old female client who isn’t sexually active. The client asks if she
needs a Papanicolau test. The nurse should reply:
A. Yes, she should have a Pap test after the onset of menstruation
B. No, because she isn’t sexually active
C. Yes, because she’s 16 years old
D. No, because she is not yet 21 years old
22. The nurse is assessing a client who complains of abdominal pain, nausea and diarrhea. When
examining the client’s abdomen, which sequence should the nurse use?
23. The nurse is speaking to a group of women about early detection of breast cancer. The average
age of the women in the group is 45. Following the Philippine Cancer Society guidelines, the nurse
should recommend that the women:
24. The school nurse is planning a program for a group of teenagers on skin cancer prevention.
Which of the following instruction whould the nurse emphasize in her talk?
25. An employer establishes a physical exercise area in the workplace and encourages all employees
to use it. This is an example of which level of prevention?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Passive prevention
SITUATION : Basic nursing skills are essential for they are vital in many nursing procedures. Such
skills are needed in order to promote health, prevent illness, cure a disease and rehabilitate
infirmities.
26. A nurse has just been told by the physician that an order has been written to administer an iron
injection to a client. The nurse plans to give the medication in the:
27. A client has just been told by the physician that a cerebral angiogram will be obtained. The nurse
then collects data from the client about which of the following pieces of information?
A. Claustrophobia
B. Excessive weight
C. Allergy to eggs
D. Allergy to iodine or shellfish
28. A client has an order for a wound culture to be performed with the next wound irrigation and
dressing change. The nurse would plan to use which of the following solutions for irrigation before
this particular procedure?
A. Providone-iodine (Betadine)
B. One-half-strength hydrogen peroxide
C. Normal saline
D. Acetic acid
29. Which of the following is the best indicator in determining that the client’s airway needs
suctioning?
A. Oxygen saturation measurement
B. Respiratory rate
C. Breath sounds
D. Arterial blood gas results
30. A nurse is planning to assist a diabetic client to perform self-monitoring of blood glucos levels.
The nurse should incorporate which of the following strategies to best help the client obtain an
adequate capillary sample?
SITUATION : Mastery of Intravenous therapy and all aspects that address the response of the client
to complication related to it will help the new nurse in providing quality care.
31. One hour after the IV was inserted, Nurse Net found out that the 1 liter of D5NSS was empty.
Patient was in severe respiratory distress with pinkish frothy sputum. The most probable
complication is:
A. Speed shock
B. Renal failure
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Pulmonary edema
33. The doctor ordered venoclysis of dextrose 5% in water one liter KVO for 24 hours as a vehicle for
IV medications. How many drops per minute should the fluid be regulated?
A. Hypotension
B. Fluid overload
C. Cardiac arrythmias
D. Pulmonary emboli
35. A client with severe inflammatory bowel disease is receiving TPN. When administering TPN, the
nusre must take care to maintain the prescribed flow rate because giving TPN too rapidly may cause:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Air embolism
C. Constipation
D. Dumping syndrome
SITUATION : Teaching and learning is a nursing responsibility. The ability of a nurse to educate and
change the client’s behavior through health teaching is one important goal of nursing.
36. A client’s hypertension has been recently diagnosed. The nurse would plan to do which of the
following as the first step in teaching the client about the disorder?
37. A diabetic client who is performing self-monitoring of blood glucose at home asks a clinic nurse
why a glycosylated hemoglobin level needs to be measured. The nurse should plan to incorporate
which of the following into a response?
A. This laboratory test is done yearly to predict likelihood of long term complication
B. This laboratory test gives an indication of glycemic control over the last 3 months
C. It is done as a method of verifying the accuracy of the meter used at Home
D. It is done to predict risk of hypoglycemia with the current diet and medication regimen
38. In teaching the sister of a diabetic client about the proper use of a glucometer in determining
the blood sugar level of the client, The nurse is focusing in which domain of learning according to
bloom?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor
D. Affiliative
39. Which of the following is the most important condition for diabetic client to learn how to control
their diet?
40. When you prepare your teaching plan for a group of hypertensive clients, you first formulate
your learning objectives. Which of the following steps in the nursing process corresponds to the
writing of learning objectives?
A. Planning
B. Implementing
C. Evaluating
D. Assessing
41. The theorist who believes that adaptation and manipulation of stressors are needed to foster
change is:
A. Betty Neuman
B. Dorothea Orem
C. Martha Rogers
D. Sister Callista Roy
42. The theorist whose theory can be defined as the development of a science of humankind,
incorporating the concepts of energy fields, openness, pattern and organization is:
A. Dorothy Johnson
B. Hildegard Peplau
C. Martha Rogers
D. Myra Levine
43. A theorist whose major theme is the idea of transcultural nursing and caring nursing is:
A. Dorothea Orem
B. Madeleine Leininger
C. Sister Callista Roy
D. Virginia Henderson
45. Smith conceptualizes this health model as a condition of actualization or realization of person’s
potential. Avers that the highest aspiration of people is fulfillment and complete developmental
actualization.
A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model
SITUATION : Oxygen is the most important physiologic requirement of the body. Absence of this
vital element for over 6 minutes leads to irreversible brain damage. Measures that promotes
oxygenation is integral in successfully managing client’s response to illnesses.
47. A nurse suctions a client who has an endotracheal tube in place. Following the procedure, which
of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this
procedure?
A. Hypertension
B. Cardiac Irregularities
C. A reddish coloration in the client’s face
D. Oxygen saturation level of 95%
49. The nurse is correct in performing suctioning when she applies the suction intermittently during:
SITUATION : To deliver a safe and quality care, Knowledge about wound care is necessary. The nurse
will have to deal with different types of wound during practice. It is of outmost important to apply
this knowledge to ensure optimum wound healing.
51. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of surgical wounds, simple surgical incisions heal by:
A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Tertiary intention
D. Quarternary intention
52. The nurse documents that the wound edges are approximated. When the edges of an incision
are said to be approximated, this means edges are:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
54. When assessing the client’s wound for sign of infection, the nurse should look for the presence
of which of the following?
A. Granulation tissue
B. Pink tissue
C. Purulent drainage
D. Well approximated edges
55. The nurse is changing dressing and providing wound care. Which activity should she perform
first?
SITUATION : Physical examination and health assessment are important in rendering care. The nurse
must use assessment knowledge in order to determine and prioritize client’s response to his or her
illness.
56. The component that should receive the highest priority before physical examination is the:
57. When inspecting a client’s skin, the nurse finds a vesicle on the client’s arm. Which description
applies to a vesicle?
58. When assessing a client with abdominal pain, the nurse should assess:
59. To assess the client's dorsalis pedis pulse, the nurse should palpate the:
60. Which of the following assessment would be a priority for a 2 year old after bronchoscopy?
A. Cardiac rate
B. Respiratory quality
C. Sputum color
D. Pulse pressure changes
61. The nurse checks the client's gag reflex. The recommended technique for testing the gag reflex is
to:
62. The nurse is evaluating a client’s lung sounds. Which of the following breath sounds indicate
adequate ventilation when auscultated over the lung fields?
A. Vesicular
B. Bronchial
C. Bronchovesicular
D. Adventitious
63. The night nurse informs the primary nurse that a client receiving intermittent gavage feedings is
not tolerating them. The primary nurse should first:
65. The nurse, aware of a client’s 25 year history of excessive alcohol use, would expect the physical
assessment to reveal a:
A. Liver infection
B. Low blood ammonia
C. Small liver with a rough surface
D. High fever with a generalizedrash
SITUATION : Nursing is a profession. Miss Linda is a newly appointed nurse in a hospital in Manila.
Born May 1985, Her knowledge of nursing’s professional development is required in order to project
the profession in a way that it lifts the standards of nursing.
1. 1922
2. 1926
3. With Mrs. Rosario Delgado as first president
4. With Mrs. Anastacia Tupas as first president
A. 1,3
B. 1,4
C. 2,3
D. 2,4
69. CPE Units per year is needed for license renewal. The number of CPE units per year should be:
A. 20 units
B. 30 units
C. 60 units
D. 100 units
71. In resigning for her job as a staff nurse, she must give advance notice of:
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days
A. Because the law do not clearly state what is right from what is wrong
B. Because morality is subjective and it differs from each individual
C. Because the patient’s right coincide with the nurse’s responsibility
D. Because the nurse lacks ethical knowledge to determine what action is correct and what action is
unethical
73. Who among the following can work as a practicing nurse in the Philippines without taking the
Licensure examination?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 4 years
76. Which of the following persons cannot have free access to a patient’s record?
A. The patient
B. The physical therapist
C. The pharmacist
D. The lawyer
77. Ms. Linda’s license will expire in 2007, She must renew her license when?
A. January 2007
B. December 2007
C. May 2007
D. May 2008
A. RA 9163
B. RA 9173
C. RA 7164
D. RA 7146
79. This quality is being demonstrated by a Nurse who raise the side rails of a confuse and
disoriented patient?
A. Autonomy
B. Responsibility
C. Prudence
D. Resourcefulness
80. Nurse Joel and Ana is helping a 16 year old Nursing Student in a case filed against the student.
The case was frustrated homicide. Nurse Joel and Ana are aware of the different circumstances of
crimes. They are correct in identifying which of the following Circumstances that will be best applied
in this case?
A. Justifying
B. Aggravating
C. Mitigating
D. Exempting
SITUATION : This is the first day of Mark, R.N. to report as a staff nurse in a tertiary hospital. As a
morning duty nurse, she is about to chart her nursing care.
A. NPO
B. PRN
C. OD
D. NON
82. Communication is best undertaken if barriers are first removed. Considering this statement,
which of the following is considered as deterrent factor in communication?
A. Kardex
B. Order sheet
C. Admission notes
D. Nurses notes
SITUATION : Mr. Orlando is assigned to Mang Carlos, A 60 years old, newly diagnosed diabetes
patient. He is beginning to write objectives for his teaching plan.
A. Mang Carlos will know about diabetes related foot care and the techniques and equipment
necessary to carry it out
B. Mang Carlos sister will be able to determine his insulin requirement based on blood glucose
levels obtained from glucometer in two days
C. Mang Carlos daugter should learn about diabetes milletus within the week
D. Mang Carlos wife needs to understand the side effects of insulin
87. Which of the following is the best rationale for written objectives?
88. Mang Carlos has been terminally ill for 5 years. He asked his wife to decide for him when he is no
longer capable to do so. As a Nurse, You know that this is called:
89. Which of the following behavior of Mang Carlos least indicates readiness to learn?
SITUATION : Mrs. Purificacion is now the Chief nurse of a hospital in Manila. She is carefully
reviewing different management styles and theories that will best help her in running the nursing
services in the hospital.
91. Which leadership style best empower the staff towards excellence?
A. Autocratic
B. Situational
C. Democratic
D. Laissez Faire
92. As a Nurse Manager, DSJ enjoys his staff of talented and self motivated individuals. He knew that
the leadership style to suit the needs of this kind of people is called:
A. Autocratic
B. Participative
C. Democratic
D. Laissez Faire
93. A fire has broken in the unit of DSJ R.N. The best leadership style suited in cases of emergencies
like this is:
A. Autocratic
B. Participative
C. Democratic
D. Laissez Faire
94. Mrs. Purificacion is thinking of introducing the Primary Nursing Model Approach. You
understand that this nursing model is:
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Controlling
SITUATION : Nursing research is the term used to describe the evidence used to support nursing
practice. Nursing, as an evidence based area of practice, has been developing since the time of
Florence Nightingale to the present day, where many nurses now work as researchers based in
universities as well as in the health care setting.
96. Mr. DSJ Plans to undertake a research of Community 1 and 2 on how they manage their health
using Primary health care after an organization and training seminars. This type of research is:
A. Experimental
B. Historical
C. Descriptive
D. Basic
1. Independent
2. Organization and training seminars
3. Dependent
4. Management of Primary Health Care
A. 1,2
B. 1,4
C. 2,3
D. 3,4
99. In general, the research process follows the ff. ordered sequence:
1. Determination of design
2. Statement of the problem
3. Definition of variables
4. Collection and analysis of data
5. Review of related literature
A. 2,5,3,1,4
B. 3,5,4,1,2
C. 2,5,3,4,1
D. 2,5,1,3,4
100. Studies done in natural setting such as this one, posses difficulty of controlling which variable?
A. Independent
B. Dependent
C. Extraneous
D. Organismic
NURSING PRACTICE II
Situation : Nurse Macarena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently attends
to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS AND INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions pertain to meeting
the nursing needs of this particular population group.
1. Daphne, 19 years old, asks nurse Macarena how can pregnancy be prevented through tubal
ligation. Which would be the best answer?
A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes will lead to permanent closure of the
vagina.
B. Sperm can not enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked.
C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked
D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is no where for them to go.
2. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when:
3. Another client named Cindy is diagnosed as having endometriosis. This condition interferes with
fertility because:
A. Menstruation will be irregular for few months as an effect of the dye but it is just normal
B. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors present
C. The women may experience some itchiness in the vagina as an after effect.
D. Cramping may be felt when the dye is inserted
5. Cindy’s cousin on the other hand, knowing nurse Macarena’s specialization asks what artificial
insemination by donor entails. Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse Macarena?
Situation . Nurse Dee-Lan was a graduate of Our Lady of Fatima University, he started working as a
nurse just right after he passed and topped the board exam. She was assigned to take care of a
group of patients across the lifespan.
8. Elder clients are often at risk of having impaired skin integrity. One factor is that they often
experience urinary incontinence. The elderly patient is at higher risk for urinary incontinence
because of:
9. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of infection among the elderly?
10. Prioritization is important to test a nurse’s good judgment towards different situations.
Priorities when caring for the elderly trauma patient:
12. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just been diagnosed as having a partial placenta previa.
She is stable and has minimal spotting and is being sent home. Which of these instructions to the
client may indicate a need for further teaching?
13. Ms. Anna, a review assistant of the greatest nursing review center in the Philippines has been
rushed to the hospital with ruptured membrane. Which of the following should the nurse check
first?
14. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing a plastic-coated diaper. If a topical medication were to
be prescribed and it were to go on the stomachs or buttocks, the nurse would teach the caregivers
to:
A. avoid covering the area of the topical medication with the diaper
B.avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper
C.put the diaper on as usual
D. apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside of the diaper
15. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the success of relationships
used in delivering nursing care?
16. Grace sustained a laceration on her leg from automobile accident. Why are lacerations of lower
extremities potentially more serious among pregnant women than other?
A. lacerations can provoke allergic responses due to gonadotropic hormone release
B. a woman is less able to keep the laceration clean because of her fatigue
C. healing is limited during pregnancy so these will not heal until after birth
D. increased bleeding can occur from uterine pressure on leg veins
17. You are the nurse assigned to work with a child with acute glomerulonephritis. By following the
prescribed treatment regimen, the child experiences a remission. You are now checking to make
sure the child does not have a relapse. Which finding would most lead you to the conclusion that a
relapse is happening?
A. Elevated temperature, cough, sore throat, changing complete blood count (CBC) with diiferential
B. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+ proteinuria or more for 3 days, or the child found to have
3-4+ proteinutria plus edema.
C. The urine dipstick showing glucose in the urine for 3 days, extreme thirst, increase in urine
output, and a moon face.
D. A temperature of 37.8 degrees (100 degrees F), flank pain, burning frequency, urgency on
voiding, and cloudy urine.
18. The painful phenomenon known as “back labor” occurs in a client whose fetus in what position?
Situation – With the increasing documented cases of CANCER the best alternative to
treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. The following conditions apply.
19. Which among the following is the primary focus of prevention of cancer?
20. In the prevention and control of cancer, which of the following activities is the most important
function of the community health nurse?
21. Who among the following are recipients of the secondary level of care for cancer cases?
22. Who among the following are recipients of the tertiary level of care for cancer cases?
23. Being a community health nurse, you have the responsibility of participating in protecting the
health of people. Consider this situation: Vendors selling bread with their bare hands. They receive
money with these hands. You do not see them washing their hands. What should you say/do?
A. “Miss, may I get the bread myself because you have not washed your hands”
B. All of these
C. “Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps/ bread tong”
D. “Miss, your hands are dirty. Wash your hands first before getting the bread”
Situation : The following questions refers to common clinical encounters experienced by an entry
level nurse.
24. A female client asks the nurse about the use of a cervical cap. Which statement is correct
regarding the use of the cervical cap?
26. The school nurse notices a child who is wearing old, dirty, poor-fitting clothes; is always hungry;
has no lunch money; and is always tired. When the nurse asks the boy his tiredness, he talks of
playing outside until midnight. The nurse will suspect that this child is:
A. Fungus C. retrovirus
B. Bacteria D. Parasites
29. You are assigned in a private room of Mike. Which procedure should be of outmost
importance;
31. Exercise precaution must be taken to protect health worker dealing with the AIDS patients .
which among these must be done as priority:
32. Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning Red, the rash appears on the skin in invasive stage prior to
eruption behind the ears. As a nurse, your physical examination must determine complication
especially:
33. To render comfort measure is one of the priorities, Which includes care of the skin, eyes, ears,
mouth and nose. To clean the mouth, your antiseptic solution is in some form of which one below?
A. Water C. Alkaline
B. Sulfur D. Salt
34. As a public health nurse, you teach mother and family members the prevention of complication
of measles. Which of the following should be closely watched?
35. Source of infection of measles is secretion of nose and throat of infection person. Filterable virus
of measles is transmitted by:
36. Method of prevention is to avoid exposure to an infection person. Nursing responsibility for
rehabilitation of patient includes the provision of:
SITUATION: Sexually Transmitted Diseases are important to identify during pregnancy because of
their potential effect on the pregnancy, fetus, or newborn. The following questions pertain to STD’s.
37. Ms. Reynaldita is a promiscuous woman in Manila submits herself to the clinic for certain
examinations. She is experiencing vaginal irritation, redness, and a thick cream cheese vaginal
discharge. As a nurse, you will suspect that Ms. Reynaldita is having what disease?
A. Gardnerella Vaginalis
B. Candida Albicans
C. Treponema Pallidum
D. Moniliasis
38. As a knowledgeable nurse, you know that the doctor may prescribe a certain medications for
Ms. Reynaldita. What is the drug of choice for Reynaldita’s infection?
A. haloperidol
B. miconazole
C. benzathine penicillin
D. metronidazole
39. Based on your learnings, you know that the causative agent of Reynaldita’s infection is:
A. Monistat Candida
B. Candida Albicans
C. Albopictus Candidiasis
D. Monakiki
41. Another client in the Maternal Clinic was Ms. Celbong. Her doctor examined Ms. Celbong’s
vaginal secretions and found out that she has a Trichomoniasis infection. Trichomoniasis is
diagnosed through which of the following method?
A. Vaginal secretions are examined on a wet slide that has been treated with potassium
hydroxide.
B. Vaginal speculum is used to obtain secretions from the cervix.
C. A lithmus paper is used to test if the vaginal secretions are infected with trichomoniasis.
D. Vaginal secretions are examined on a wet slide treated with zephiran solution.
42. Daphne who is on her first trimester of pregnancy is also infected with trichomoniasis. You know
that the drug of choice for Daphne is:
A. Flagyl
B. Clotrimazole (topical)
C. Monistat
D. Zovirax
43. Syphilis is another infection that may impose risk during pregnancy. Since we are under the
practice of health science, you know that Syphilis is caused by:
A. Treponema Syphilis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Chlamydia Trachomatis
D. Treponema Pallidum
44. What type of microorganism is the causative agent of syphilis?
A. Spirochete
B. Fungus
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoan
45. Under the second level of prevention, you know that one of the focuses of care is the screening
of diseases. What is the screening test for syphilis?
A. VDRL
B. Western blot
C. PSA
D. ELISA
46. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may be experienced by the client with syphilis after therapy with
benzathine penicillin G. The characteristic manifestations of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction are:
A. Rashes, itchiness, hives and pruritus
B. Confusion, drowsiness and numbness of extremities
C. sudden episode of hypotension, fever, tachycardia, and muscle aches
D. Episodes of nausea and vomiting, with bradypnea and bradycardia
47. A pregnant woman is in the clinic for consultation with regards to STD’s. She inquires about
Venereal warts and asks you about its specific lesion appearance. Which of the following is your
correct response to the client?
A. Why are you asking about it? You might be a prostitute woman.
B. The lesions appear as cauliflower like lesions.
C. It appears as pinpoint vesicles surrounded by erythema.
D. The lesions can possibly obstruct the birth canal.
48. Based on your past learnings in communicable diseases, you know that the causative agent of
venereal warts is:
A. Chlamydia Trachomatis
B. Candida Moniliasis
C. Human Papilloma Virus
D. Staphylococcus Aureus
49. As a nurse in charge for this woman, you anticipate that the doctor will prescribe what
medication for this type of infection?
A. Podophyllum (Podofin)
B. Flagyl
C. Monistat
D. Trichloroacetic acid
50. Cryocautery may also be used to remove large lesions. The healing period after cryocautery may
be completed in 4-6 weeks but may cause some discomforts to the woman. What measures can
alleviate these discomforts?
A. Kegel’s Exercise
B. Cool air
C. Topical steroids
D. Sitz baths and lidocaine cream
51. In order to prevent acquiring sexually transmitted diseases, what is the BEST way to consider?
A. Condom use
B. Withdrawal
C. vasectomy
D. Abstinence
SITUATION: The Gastrointestinal System is responsible for taking in and processing nutrients for all
parts of the body, any problem can quickly affect other body systems and, if not adequately treated,
can affect overall health, growth, and development. The following questions are about
gastrointestinal disorders in a child.
52. Mr. & Mrs. Alcaras brought their son in the hospital for check up. The child has failure to thrive
and was diagnosed with pyloric stenosis. Which among the following statements are the
characteristic manifestations of pyloric stenosis?
A. Vomiting in the early morning
B. Bile containing vomitus immediately after meal
C. sausage shaped mass in the abdomen
D. Projectile vomiting with no bile content
53. The exact cause of pyloric stenosis is unknown, but multifactorial inheritance is the likely cause.
Being knowledgeable about this disease, you know that pyloric stenosis is more common in which
gender?
A. Male
B. Female
C. Incidence is equal for both sexes
D. None of the above
54. To rule out pyloric stenosis, the definitive diagnosis is made by watching the infant drink. After
the infant drinks, what will be the characteristic sign that will describe pyloric stenosis?
A. An olive-size lump can be palpated
B. There is gastric peristalsic waves from left to right across the abdomen
C. A hypertrophied sphincter can be seen on ultrasound.
D. A tingling sensation is felt on the lower extremities
55. Shee Jan Long a 10 months old infant was admitted to the hospital for severe abdominal pain.
The doctor found out that the distal ileal segment of the child’s bowel has invaginated into the
cecum. The nurse will suspect what disease condition?
A. Intussusception
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Hirschprung’s disease
D. Vaginismus
56. In intussusceptions, children suddenly draw up their legs and cry as if they are in severe pain and
possibly vomit. Another manifestation of such disease is the presence of blood in the stool. What is
the characteristic stool of client with intussuscepton?
A. Coffee ground
B. Black and Tarry
C. Currant jelly stool
D. Watery stool
57. A 4-year-old child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. As a nurse, you must monitor
the child closely for:
A. Diarrhea
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
58. A nurse is monitoring for signs of dehydration in a 1-year-old child who has been hospitalized for
diarrhea. The nurse prepares to take the child’s temperature and avoids which method of
measurement?
A. Tympanic
B. Axillary
C. Rectal
D. Electronic
59. A home care nurse provides instructions to the mother of an infant with cleft palate regarding
feeding. Which statement if made by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?
A. “I will use a nipple with a small hole to prevent choking.”
B. “I will stimulate sucking by rubbing the nipple on the lower lip.”
C. “I will allow the infant time to swallow.”
D.” I will allow the infant to rest frequently to provide time for swallowing what has been placed in
the mouth.”
60. An infant has just returned to the nursing unit following a surgical repair of a cleft lip located at
the right side of the lip. The nurse places the infant in which most appropriate position?
A. On the right side
B. On the left side
C. Prone
D. Supine
61. A clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant seen in the clinic. The nurse notes that a diagnosis
of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is suspected. The nurse expects to note
which most likely sign of this condition documented in the record?
A. Severe projectile vomiting
B. Coughing at night time
C. Choking with feedings
D. Incessant crying
SITUATION: Human development is one of the important concepts that a nurse should learn to be
able to deal appropriately with their clients of different developmental stages.
63. A pregnant client asks you about fetal development. At approximately what gestational age does
the fetus’s single chambered heart begin to pump its own blood cells through main blood vessels?
A. 10 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 5 weeks
D. 3 weeks
64. At 17 weeks gestation, a fetus isn’t considered to be ballotable. Ballotment means that:
A. The examiner feels rebound movement of the fetus.
B. The examiner feels fetal movement.
C. The client feels irregular, painless uterine contractions.
D. The client feels fetal movement.
67. An 18 year old woman in her 18th week of pregnancy is being evaluated. Which positive sign of
pregnancy should the nurse expect to be present?
A. Fetal heart tones detectable by Doppler stethoscope
B. Fetal movement detectable by palpation
C. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound examination.
D. Fetal heart tones detectable by a fetoscope.
68. During her prenatal visit, a 28 year old client expresses concern about nutrition during
pregnancy. She wants to know what foods she should be eating to ensure the proper growth and
development of her baby. Which step should the nurse take first?
A. Give the client a sample diet plan for a 2,400 calorie diet.
B. Emphasize the importance of avoiding salty and fatty foods.
C. Instruct the client to continue to eat a normal diet.
D. Assess the client’s current nutritional status by taking a diet history.
69. A nurse is teaching a class about the reproductive system. She explains that fertilization most
often takes place in the:
A. Ovary
B. Fallopian tubes
C. Uterus
D. vagina
70. A large number of neural tube defects may be prevented if a pregnant woman includes which
supplement in her diet?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. E
C. Vit. D
D. Vit. B9
71. A 22 year old client is at 20 weeks gestation. She asks the nurse about the development of her
fetus at this stage. Which of the following developments occurs at 20 weeks gestation?
A. The pancreas starts producing insulin and the kidneys produce urine.
B. The fetus follows a regular schedule of turning, sleeping, sucking, and kicking.
C. Swallowing reflex has been mastered, and the fetus sucks its thumb.
D. Surfactant forms in the lungs.
SITUATION: Developing countries such as the Philippines suffer from high infant and child mortality
rates. Thus, as a management to the existing problem, the WHO and UNICEF launched the IMCI.
72. A 6 month old baby Len was brought to the health center because of fever and cough for 2 days.
She weighs 5 kg. Her temperature is 38.5 taken Axillary. Further examination revealed that she has
general rashes, her eyes are red and she has mouth ulcers non deep and non extensive, There was
no pus draining from her eyes. Most probably Baby Len has:
a. Severe complicated measles d. Measles
b. Fever: No MALARIA e. Measles with eye or mouth complications
c. Very severe febrile disease
73. The dosage of Vit. A supplement given to Baby Len would be:
d. 100,000 IU d. 200,000 IU
e. 10,000 IU e. 20,000 IU
74. Using IMCI Chart, this child can be manage with:
f. Treat the child with paracetamol and follow up in 2 days if the fever persist
g. Give the first dose of antibiotic, give Vit. A, apply Gentian Violet for mouth ulcers and refer
urgently to hospital
h. Give100, 000 international units of Vit. A
i. Give200, 000 international units of Vit. A
e. Give Vit. A, apply Gentian violet for mouth ulcers and follow up in 2 days
75. The following are signs of severe complicated measles:
j. Clouding of the cornea
k. Deep or extensive mouth ulcers
l. Pus draining from the eyes
m. A and b only
n. All of the above
76. If the child is having 2 ½ weeks ear discharges, how would you classify and treat the child:
1. Green 5. Dry the ear by wicking
2. Yellow 6. 5 days antibiotic
3. Pink 7. Urgent referral with first dose of antibiotic
4. Red
78. A child with ear problem should be assessed for the following, except:
a. Ear pain
b. If discharge is present for how long?
c. Ear discharge
d. Is there any fever?
e. None of the above
79. If the child does not have ear problem, using IMCI, what should you do as a nurse?
a. Go to the next question, check for malnutrition
b. Check for ear pain
c. Check for tender swelling behind the ear
d. Check for ear discharge
80. An ear discharge that has been present for more than 14 days can be classified as:
a. Complicated ear infection c. Chronic ear infection
b. Acute ear infection d. Mastoiditis
81. An ear discharge that has been present for less than 14 days can be classified as:
a. Complicated ear infection c. Chronic ear infection
b. Acute ear infection d. Mastoiditis
82. If the child has severe classification because of ear problem, what would be the best thing that
you should do as a nurse?
a. Dry the ear by wicking
b. Give an antibiotic for 5 days
c. Refer urgently
d. Instruct mother when to return immediately
Situation: Primary Health Care (PHC) is defined by the WHO as essential health care made
universally accessible to individuals, families and communities.
83. The WHO held a meeting in this place where Primary health Care was discussed. What is this
place?
A. Alma Ata
B. Russia
C. Vienna
D. Geneva
Situation: The national objective for maintaining the health of all Filipinos is a primary responsibility
of the DOH.
85. The basic principles to achieve improvement in health include all BUT:
a. Universal access to basic health services must be ensured
b. The health and nutrition of vulnerable groups must be prioritized
c. Performance of the health sector must be enhanced
d. Support the frontline workers and the local health system
e. None of the above
86. Which of the following is not a primary strategy to achieve health goals:
89. Local health boards were established at the provincial, city and municipal levels. At the
municipal level,the chairman of the board is the:
91. In asking the mother about her child’s problem the following communication skills should be
used except:
a. Use words that the mother understand
b. Give time for the mother to answer the questions
c. Listen attentively
d. Ask checking questions
e. None of the above
92. Which of the following is the principal focus of the CARI program of the Department of Health?
a. Teach other community health workers how to assess patients
b. Mortality reduction through early detection
c. Teach mothers how to detect signs and where to refer
d. Enhancement of health team capabilities
93. You were able to identify factors that lead to respiratory problems in the community where your
health facility serves. Your primary role therefore in order to reduce morbidity due to pneumonia is
to?
a. Seek assistance and mobilize the BHW’s to have a meeting with mothers
b. Refer cases to hospitals
c. Make home visits to sick children
d. Teach mothers how to recognize early signs and symptoms of pneumonia
94. Which of the following is the most important responsibility of a nurse in the prevention of
unnecessary deaths from pneumonia and other severe disease?
a. Weighing of the child
b. Provision of careful assessment
c. Taking of the temperature of the sick child
d. Giving of antibiotics
95. A 4-month-old child was brought to your clinic because of cough and colds. Which of the
following is your primary action?
a. Teach the mother how to count her child’s breathing?
b. Refer to the doctor
c. Assess the patient using the chart on management of children with cough
d. Give cotrimoxazole tablet or syrup
e. All of the above
96. In responding to the care concerns to children with severe disease, referral to the hospital is of
the essence especially if the child manifests which of the following?
a. Stopped feeding well c. Wheezing
b. Fast breathing d. Difficulty to awaken
Elvira Magalpok is a 26 year old woman you admit to a birthing room. She’s been having
contractions 45 seconds long and 3 minutes apart for the last 6 hours. She tells you she wants to
have her baby “naturally” without any analgesia or anesthesia. Her husband is in the Army and
assigned overseas, so he is not with her. Although her sister lives only two blocks from the hospital,
Elvira doesn’t want her called. She asks if she can talk to her mother on the telephone instead. As
you finish assessing contractions, she screams with pain and shouts, “Ginagawa ko na ang lahat ng
makakaya ko! Kailan ba matatapos ang paghihirap kong ito?”
97. Elvira didn’t recognize for over an hour that she was in labor. A sign of true labor is:
A. Sudden increase energy from epinephrine release
B. “Nagging” but constant pain in the lower back.
C. Urinary urgency from increased bladder pressure.
D. “Show” or release of the cervical mucus plug.
98. Elvira asks you which fetal position and presentation are ideal. Your best answer would be:
A. Right occipitoanterior with full flexion.
B. Left transverse anterior in moderate flexion.
C. Right occipitoposterior with no flexion.
D. Left sacroanterior with full flexion.
99. Elvira is having long and hard uterine contractions. What length of contraction would you report
as abnormal?
A. Any length over 30 seconds.
B. A contraction over 70 seconds in length.
C. A contraction that peaks at 20 seconds.
D. A contraction shorter than 60 seconds.
100. You assess Elvira’s uterine contractions. In relation to the contraction, when does a late
deceleration begin?
A. Forty-five seconds after the contraction is over.
B. Thirty seconds after the start of a contraction.
C. After every tenth or more contraction.
D. After a typical contraction ends.
NURSING PRACTICE III
SITUATION: Mang Roberto was long diagnosed with chronic renal failure. You are his nurse and the
following question assesses your knowledge in the different fluid and electrolyte imbalances that
are associated with chronic renal failure.
1. Disequilibrium syndrome is always a risk in all clients undergoing hemodialysis for chronic renal
failure. The nurse should assess Mang Roberto for which of the following sign and symptom
associated with Disequilibrium syndrome?
2. After Mang Roberto completed his hemodialysis, The nurse should use which indicators to
evaluate the client’s status after dialysis?
A. Potassium level and weight C. Blood Urea Nitrogen and Creatinine level
B. Vital signs and Blood Urea Nitrogen D. Vital signs and weight
3. Mang Roberto’s chronic renal failure was caused by a crush injury to the lower leg right after an
accident. The acute renal failure progresses to chronic renal failure until now, his case is irreversible.
The nurse is correct in determining that the cause of Mang Roberto’s Acute renal failure before was:
4. Mang Roberto misses 2 sessions of hemodialysis. Blood was drawn and is sent for analysis. Which
electrolyte disturbance is expected in a client with chronic renal failure?
8. When caring for Mang Roberto’s AV shunt on his right arm, you should:
9. Mang Roberto Complains of tingling in the finger and twitching of the muscles. This is caused by:
SITUATION: Mang Roberto’s condition continues to worsen and the doctor suggested Kidney
Transplantation.
11. Mang Roberto has just received a renal transplant and has started cyclosporine therapy to
prevent graft rejection. Which of the following condition is a major complication of this drug
therapy?
A. Depression C. Infection
B. Hemorrhage D. Peptic ulcer disease
12. Which of the following is the rationale why Azathioprine (Imuran), Prednisone or Cyclosporine
(SandImmune) is given in a client that has undergone Kidney Transplantation?
14. Steroids, if used following kidney transplantation would cause which of the following side
effects?
15. Mang Roberto was readmitted to the hospital with acute graft rejection. Which of the following
assessment finding would be expected?
SITUATION: Nanette was rushed to the hospital due to burns. Witnesses told the emergency team
that Nanette fell asleep while she is holding her cigarette thus, burning the bed sheets and herself.
2nd and 3rd degree burns are on the face, neck, anterior and posterior trunk as well as the anterior of
the left leg and the whole right arm was burned. First degree burns are located on the anterior
portion of the right leg and the anterior portion of the right and left arm. Nanette is a 110 lbs female
client.
A. Assess airway, breathing and circulation C. Apply ointment over the burned surface
B. Check Nanette’s Vital Signs D. Administer oxygen inhalation
17. Using the rule of nine, the percentage of the burned area on Nanette’s skin is:
21. IV fluid that is commonly used in clients with dehydration, diarrhea and burns is:
22. The doctor uses Parkland/Baxter formula in computing the amount of fluid needed for Nanette’s
resuscitation. You would expect that the doctor will order how many milliliters of IV fluids?
A. 6 liters during the first 8 hours, 3 liters on the next 8 hours and another 3 liters on another 8
hours.
B. 12 liters during the first 8 hours and another 12 liters on the succeeding 16 hours
C. 8 liters during the first 8 hours, 4 liters on the next 8 hours and another 8 liters on another 8
hours
D. 10 liters during the first 8 hours and another 10 liters on the succeeding 16 hours
23. During the emergent phase of burn, which of the following is an expected finding on Nanette?
24. Which electrolyte disturbance is the most lethal in client with burn?
A. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia
25. The priority consideration for Nanette during the early phase of burn is:
SITUATION: Joanna Marie, a 40 year old client was diagnosed with breast cancer.
26. The nurse is instruction Joanna about breast self examination. The nurse instructs Joanna to
perform Breast Self Examination:
A. At the onset of menstruation C. Every month during ovulation
B. 1 week after menstruation begins D. Weekly at the same time each day
27. Joanna is taking Adriamycin together with tamoxifen. You know that Adriamycin works by:
28. Joanna’s tumor is said to be ERP+. You know that Estrogen receptor positive tumor is:
30. All of the following are applicable nursing diagnosis for Joanna except:
31. Rationale for elevating the arm of Joanna post operatively is to:
32. After Modified radical mastectomy, which assessment finding indicates that Joanna is
experiencing a complication related to surgery?
A. Pneumonia C. Atelectasis
B. Bronchitis D. Lymph edema
34. The nurse is teaching the sisters of Joanna about Mammography, The nurse tells the client that:
35. Joanna was brought to the hospice. During your visit, Joanna expresses that “If I can just live a
little longer to see my 3 sons finish college, I will be ready to die.” Which phase of the grieving
process Is Joanna experiencing?
36. In the Philippines, The use of this method is strongly suggested and recommended than any
other methods to decrease death due to breast cancer:
37. The nurse is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse should
explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
38. Anita, Joanna’s sister is performing BSE and she stands in front of the Mirror. The rationale for
standing in front of the mirror is to check for:
39. The nurse puts a folded towel under the Left shoulder of the Client to be examined for clinical
BSE. Why is this so?
A. To make the left shoulder nearer to the hands of the clinician for palpation
B. To make the pectoralis muscle prominent, toning the breast tissue for better palpation
C. To put the breast in a more lateral position to better ease the palpation
D. To balance and spread the breast tissue thus easing palpation
40. 30. A 52-year-old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast
during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this
client's lump is cancerous?
SITUATION: Agnes, a client with Leukemia is in the clinic for her routine check up.
43. What should you encourage her to use in order to maintain her oral hygiene?
44. Which of the following complications are the three main consequence of leukemia?
45. You noticed that Agnes’ nose is bleeding, You would instruct Agnes to:
A. lie supine with his neck extended. C. blow his nose and then put lateral pressure on his
nose.
B. sit upright, leaning slightly forward. D. hold his nose while bending forward at the waist.
SITUATION: Mr. Ramos is a 60 year old male client admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of
pneumonia. He complains of pain when coughing.
46. What action should the nurse take in assisting Mr. Ramos in doing deep breathing and coughing
exercise?
47. A sputum specimen was collected from Mr. Ramos for culture and sensitivity. This study is to
ascertain which of the following facts?
48. Laboratory reports shows RBC : 2,000,000, WBC: 5,000 and Platelets : 300,000. Considering the
above findings which of the following clinical manifestation is the most likely manifestation Mr.
Ramos is to exhibit?
A. Decrease respiration and increase pulse C. Increase respiration and normal pulse
B. Normal Respiration and increase pulse D. Increase pulse and increase respiration
49. Because of these laboratory findings, the nurse is aware that her most appropriate action is to
prevent which of the following?
50. Upon discharge, the health teaching of the nurse to Mr. Ramos should include which of the
following except:
SITUATION: Blood transfusion was ordered for Andre after an episode of severe bleeding.
51. Before blood transfusion, The nurse priority is to assess Andre for which of the following?
52. Before administering the transfusion, The nurse must start an IV infusion of which of the
following?
54. Which of the following is not expected to be done by the nurse in case of a whole blood
transfusion?
55. Which of the following is the recommended flow rate for the first 20 minutes of blood
transfusion?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 60
56. Solutions that are said to be compatible with the osmolarity of the body are called:
A. Isotonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Normosol
D. Hypertonic
57. Which of the following are signs of hemolytic reaction during blood transfusion?
A. Slow the infusion, Call the physician and assess the patient
B. Stop the infusion, Assess the client, Send the remaining blood to the laboratory and call the
physician
C. Stop the infusion, Call the physician and assess the client
D. Slow the confusion and keep a patent IV line open for administration of medication
59. The nurse knows that after receiving the blood from the blood bank, it should be administered
within:
60. During blood administration, the nurse should carefully monitor adverse reaction. To monitor
this, it is essential for the nurse to:
A. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes of blood administration
B. Stay with the client for the entire period of blood administration
C. Run the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes
D. Tell the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction
SITUATION : John Mark is a 21 year old male client who was rushed following an automobile
accident. He is very anxious, dyspneic and in severe pain.
61. The nurse notices that John’s chest tube was dislodged from the chest. The most appropriate
nursing intervention is to:
62. To ensure that the system is functioning effectively, the nurse should:
63. JM’s chest tube is said to be functioning correctly when which of the following is observed?
A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
B. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber
C. Suction tubing attached to the wall unit
D. Vesicular breath sounds heard in all lung fields
64. He is intubated with an endotracheal tube and is placed on a mechanical ventilator. Which
findings alerts the nurse to an additional problem with regards to the respiratory function?
65. The right chest wall of peter moves in during inspiration and balloons out when he exhales. He is
very dyspneic. The nurse understands that this symptom is indicative of:
SITUATION : Rene is a 3 y/o boy brought to the health center for fever and cough. You noted grayish
pinpoint dots located at the buccal mucosa. A maculopapular rash was noted on his face. Questions
20-25 refer to this.
A. Rubeola C. Rubella
B. Diptheria D. Pneumonia
69. The nurse knows that the most common complication of Measles is:
71. All of the following are necessary household management in preventing the spread of Measles
at home except:
72. A client suspected of having tetanus asks the nurse about immunizations against tetanus. The
nurse explains that the major benefit in using tetanus antitoxin is that it:
73. Miss Kate is a bread vendor and you are buying a bread from her. You noticed that she receives
and changes money and then hold the bread without washing her hand. As a nurse, What will you
say to Miss Kate?
A. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
B. Hansen’s Bacilli
C. Bacillus Anthraces
D. Group A Beta Hemolytic Streptococcus
75. A client who was exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity
which:
76. They are the proteins in the body that are produced in response to the invasion to pathogens
and microorganisms.
A. Antigen
B. Amino Acids
C. Agglutinogen
D. Antibody
77. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe human immunoglobulin. The student
correctly states that these types of vaccine are:
A. Vaccine that have their virulence diminished so as to not produce a full blown clinical illness
B. Vaccine that contains pathogens made inactive by either chemicals or heat
C. Bacterial toxins that have been made inactive by either chemicals or heat
D. Vaccines collected from pooled blood of people and provide antibodies to variety of diseases
79. Which of the following is not a late sign and symptoms of leprosy?
A. Paralysis C. Madarosis
B. Contractures D. Gynecomastia
81. The nurse is documenting her care for a client with iron deficiency anemia. Which of the
following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate?
83. A 92-year-old client with prostate cancer and multiple metastases is in respiratory distress and is
admitted to a medical unit from a skilled nursing facility. His advance directive states that he doesn't
want to be placed on a ventilator or receive cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Based on the client's
advance directive, the nursing plan of care should include which intervention?
85. During a late stage of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), a client demonstrates signs
of AIDS-related dementia. The nurse should give the highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
86. When assessing a client with partial thickness burns over 60% of the body, which of the
following should the nurse report immediately?
87. A client with a solar burn of the chest, back, face, and arms is seen in urgent care. The nurse's
primary concern should be:
89. A client with end-stage liver cancer tells the nurse he doesn't want extraordinary measures used
to prolong his life. He asks what he must do to make these wishes known and legally binding. How
should the nurse respond to the client?
A. Tell him that it's a legal question beyond the scope of nursing practice.
B. Give him a copy of the client's bill of rights.
C. Provide information on active euthanasia.
D. Discuss documenting his wishes in an advance directive.
90. A client is admitted to the hospital with an exacerbation of her chronic systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE). She gets angry when her call bell isn't answered immediately. The most
appropriate response to her would be:
SITUATION: Consider the following hypothesis: “The Job turnover rate and job dissatisfaction levels
of graduate nurses who have worked less than 2 years is higher than for those graduate nurses who
have worked for more than 2 years”
91. A systematic, objective, process of analyzing phenomena importance to nursing is termed as:
96. The problem that a researcher would like to give emphasis “Is there a relationship between
timing of the administration of psychological support and feelings of wellbeing among terminally ill
patients”. The appropriate null hypothesis for this problem is:
A. Feelings of wellbeing of terminally ill patients who received psychological support is similar to the
feelings of wellbeing of those terminally ill patients who did receive said psychological support.
B. There is no relationship between the timing of administration of psychological support and
feelings of well-being among terminally ill patients
C. Factors are not appropriate to determine any desired results
D. There is no relationship between the timing of the administration of psychological support and
feelings of adequacy among terminally ill patients
98. In the recent technological innovations, which of the following describe researches that are
made to improve and make human life easier?
99. After the researcher has determined and read relevant literature, she has to:
1. Among the following population group, who has a higher risk in the development of prostate
cancer?
A. African-American C. Asian
B. Caucasian D. Hispanics
2. Which among the following is NOT a risk factor for prostate cancer?
A. A family member with prostate cancer C. High fat and diet high in red meats
B. Advancing age D. Smoking
3. Mr. Juan Jose Rodrigo has been diagnosed with prostate cancer just a few hours ago. Which of the
following sign would alert the nurse that the cancer is already advanced?
4. At the initial sign and symptoms of prostate cancer, before diagnosis, the physician can perform a
screening test to detect a characteristic “STONY HARD” prostate and nodules at the prostate area
using:
A. Cytoscopy C. DRE
B. PSA D. MRI
6. After the removal of the prostate tissue, The physician soaked the solution in formaldehyde in a
sterile specimen container and asked you to send the specimen immediately. Which of the following
is a correct nursing action?
A. “Dr. Ruiz, I don’t think this specimen is acceptable. Please redo the procedure and do not soak the
specimen in any medium.”
B. “Dr. Ruiz, I just want you to know that you soaked the specimen in formaldehyde wherein, it
should not be soaked in any medium at all.”
C. Accept the specimen because there is nothing wrong with the physician’s action
D. “Dr. Ruiz, it should be soaked in NSS not formaldehyde. I am going to report you to the board of
medicine for this could lead to a false result.”
8. PSA is used not for the detection but to know if the cancer is responding to treatment or
advancing. The nurse knows that the abbreviation PSA stands for:
9. In testing for the PSA, the nurse will collect which specimen?
10. Mr. Rodrigo said that he has difficulty voiding. Which of the following is the best nursing action
to encourage voiding in any clients with voiding difficulties?
Situation : Care of clients with tracheotosmy is often a challenge to a beginning nurse. The following
questions will test your knowledge on Tracheostomy and its related care.
11. You know that when rendering tracheotosmy care, the priority consideration is always to keep
the airway patent and also to prevent infection at the site. The nurse knows the technique used in
rendering Tracheostomy care is:
13. In cleaning the inner cannula or other parts of the tracheotosmy tube, The best cleansing
mediums are:
14. In contrary with Tracheostomy tubes, sizes of chest tubes are expressed in terms of:
15. Which of the following is NOT true with regards to securing the Tracheostomy?
16. The nurse knows that in Tracheostomy creation, 1% Lidocaine and 1:100,000 Epinephrine is
injected at the incision site. The purpose of Lidocaine is mainly to provide anesthetic effect while the
Epinephrine is needed to:
A. Relax the bronchus and dilate the airway for easier insertion
B. To promote faster healing
C. To prevent the Vasovagal reflex that might cause bradycardia
D. For Hemostasis
17. Which of the following is not considered as a regular part of a Tracheostomy tube?
18. Which of the following is the reason why will a surgeon select a cuffed tube over a non cuffed
Tracheostomy tube?
A. Cuffed tube offers efficient securing C. Cuff tube offers excellent attachment
B. Cuffed tube is mainly used to prevent coughing D. For mechanical ventilation
A. French C. Units
B. Gauge D. Size / mmID
A. To direct the outer cannula to traverse the curvature of the trachea for easier insertion
B. In cases of emergency, when outer cannula accidentally dislodges
C. To facilitate dilation of the stoma for the insertion of the outer cannula
D. To prevent too much pressure on the jugular vein after the tie has been placed
Situation : Organ donation is a new form of treatment that provides multiple complication such as
rejection.
21. Organ donation to save life was initially with the first transplant done by:
22. In 1983, The FDA approved the first anti-rejection drug by the name of:
23. You would expect that in cases of organ donation, you would expect that the
immunosuppressant medications such as Cyclosporine, Prednisone and Imuran are taken:
24. Which of the following is a sign that the transplanted kidney is being rejected?
25. Among children candidates for organ transplant, when all selected children have appropriate
tissue matches for the same donated organ, the basis for the decision as to which child gets the
organ is given to the child who:
A. will receive the most benefit from the new organ
B. is most likely to die without the transplant
C. is selected by the lottery system for available organs
D. is at the top of the list and has waited the longest time
Situation: In a client with widespread colon cancer, A colectomy is the surgical procedure of choice
instead of an Abdominal perineal resection.
26. Ileostomy is performed after a colectomy. The nurse will expect that the stool of the client will
be:
28. Which of the following indicates a need for further teaching in client’s with ileostomy?
29. For the client’s stool to be more “formed” which of the following food are added to the client’s
diet?
A. Boiled rice
B. Spaghetti and macaroni
C. Cheese
D. Bran
30. An expert nurse in the field of colostomy and ileostomy is called as a/an:
Situation: During surgical operation, it is inevitable to utilize sutures. The nurse should know the
basic principles in suturing as well as knowledge in selecting sutures and caring for clients with
sutures.
31. Steel has the highest tensile strength among sutures in the non absorbable category. When you
say tensile strength, it refers to:
A. The amount of weight or force necessary to break the suture
B. The cross sectional size of the suture
C. The ability of the suture to absorb fluid
D. The force necessary to cause the knot to slip
32. In suturing the internal organs such as kidneys, liver, spleen, pancreas and stomach, the nurse
knows that the type of suture material that the physician will most likely use is:
33. If the suture is removed to soon, the nurse knows that it could lead to failed healing of the
wound as well as infection. If the suture is removed too late, which of the following can occur?
34. The nurse noticed that there are yellow and brown crustings around the area of the suture.
Which of the following is the best cleansing medium to remove such crusting?
35. If the suture is performed on the client’s face. The nurse will reinforce the teaching that the
client should return when for suture removal?
36. Sizes of sutures denotes the diameter. The physician will perform a corneal transplant and will
suture the eye. The nurse will prepare which of the following suture size?
A. 7 B. 5 C. 3 D. 9-0
37. Who holds the packet flaps of sutures to open it and place it in the sterile table for use?
38. Non absorbable suture material such as cotton, nylon and silk are best used in suturing which of
the following abdominal layer?
39. When least amount of trauma is desired, or when the client is prone to keloid formation, the
nurse should prepare which type of the needle?
40. Another alternative “suture” for skin closure is the use of ____________
A. Staple
B. Therapeutic glue
C. Absorbent dressing
D. Invisible suture
Situation: The following are questions with regards to the OPERATING ROOM.
41. The operating room is divided into three areas, The unrestricted, the semi restricted and the
restricted areas. Where is the operating room?
44. One of the hidden dangers in the OR is missing instruments. What is the appropriate approach to
this happening?
A. correct labeling
B. “a place for everything and everything in its place”
C. install a flush sterilizer in the OR
D. increase instrument inventory
46. Mr. T.O. has undergone surgery for lyses of adhesions. He is transferred from Post Anesthesia
Care Unit (PACU) to the Surgical floor, the nurse should obtain blood pressure, pulse and respiration
every:
A. 3 minutes C. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes D. 20 minutes
47. Another worthy study is the compliance to the principles of aseptic technique among the sterile
OR team. Who does NOT belong to the sterile OR team?
48. The patient demonstrates knowledge of the psychological response to the operation and other
invasive procedure when she asks about:
49. Endoscopic minimally invasive surgery has evolved from diagnostic modality to a widespread
surgical technique. What department should the nurse collaborate which is unusual in conventional
surgery?
50. When the client is discharged from the hospital and is not capable of doing the needed care
services, the following can assume the role, EXCEPT:
Situation: Anesthesia is used even during the Ancient times. In its evolution, modern marvels in the
use of anesthesia enables the nurses to develop a more competitive approach in patient care.
A. Epidural C. General
B. Intrathecal D. Local
52. After spinal anesthesia, 30% of the patient develops spinal headache. This is due to:
54. After spinal anesthesia, to prevent spinal headache, the client is placed on which of the following
position?
55. Another way to prevent spinal headache is by the use of the correct needle gauge. If the client is
an adult client, the anaesthesiologist might order a pink spinal set. The nurse knows that the pink
spinal set has a gauge of:
A. 12 B. 16 C. 22 D. 26
Situation: The nurse utilizes the theoretical foundation basic to perioperative nursing in the various
nursing scenarios:
57. The OR team collaborates from the first to the last surgical procedure. Who monitors the
activities of each OR suite?
58. In patients with acute pancreatitis, the administration of the analgesic morphine may cause:
59. Who is responsible in daily monitoring the standards of safe, nursing practice in the operating
suite?
61. The patient has a right to information regarding the operation or other invasive procedure and
potential effects. This right is achieved through:
A. it assists in the control of feelings, thoughts and emotions in the face of difficulty
B. it reflects the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal behavior and actions
C. it encourages the constructive use of the pleasure of the senses
D. it refers to the quality of being righteous, correct, fair and impartial
63. You continuously evaluate the client’s adaptation to pain. Which of the following behaviors
indicate appropriate adaptation?
64. Pain in ortho cases may not be mainly due to the surgery. There might be other factors such as
cultural or psychological that influence pain. How can you alter these factors as the nurse?
A. Explain all the possible interventions that may cause the client to worry
B. Establish trusting relationship by giving his medication on time
C. Stay with the client during pain episodes
D. Promote client’s sense of control and participation in control by listening to his concerns
65. In some hip surgeries, Fentanyl analgesia is given. What is your nursing priority care in such a
case?
66. The person legally responsible for taking the informed consent is:
67. Mr. Diaz has to remember the following with regard to the IC:
A. Because the patient is a minor, the parents should be asked to sign the consent.
B. The informed consent should be signed either by the patient or her 20 year old husband if
patient is unconscious
C. Nurses has the responsibility to obtain the informed consent prior to surgery
D. Legal guardian should sign the consent since the client is 15 year old
68. The medical intern who assisted in the operation gave post operative orders. In this case,
Mrs.Diaz should:
A. Validate the order from the surgeon and request him to counter sign
B. Follow the order as long as they are within the scope of nursing practice
C. Clarify from the medical intern those that are ambiguous
D. Refuse to follow the order because it is not legal
69. After one year, Mrs. Diaz was rotated to the delivery room. As a DR Nurse, the Obstetrician
ordered her to administer spinal anesthesia because the anaesthesiologist did not arrive at the
scene. The nurse would:
70. Which of the following should the nurse remember when a doctor requests them to administer
anesthesia?
A. The nurse has the right to refuse it, if the doctor’s order is unlawful
B. Doctor’s order should always be written
C. The nurse may render medical procedure if the doctor supervises him
D. The staff nurse can be accused of insubordination if she does not follow the doctor’s order
Situation: Miss Matias, found out that Mang Carding, newly admitted patient, has terminal cancer
and that his nurse has not yet informed him of the diagnosis.
71. Initially, Miss Matias should:
A. Tell the doctor the Mang Carding hinted that he feels he has Cancer
B. Be available to listen when the patient decides to discuss his illness
C. Call in the family and the team to prepare Mang Carding about his impending death
D. Inform Mang Carding about his Diagnosis
72. On the second day, the wife of Mang Carding shows signs of grieving, The stages of Grieving
identified by Elizabeth Kubler-Ross Are:
73. Which of the following will be the most helpful therapy for the Grieving family?
A. Watching the video of the dying client over and over to encourage moving on
B. A course on death and dying
C. Psychotherapy
D. Group meeting with other grieving families
74. the nurse, when dealing with the relatives of a dying patients must be sensitive to their
emotional reactions. A family member who blames herself for the condition of the dying patient
indicates that she:
75. In caring of a dying client during post mortem, the most important thing that the nurse should
remember is:
Situation : The patients chart is a legal documentation the is admissible in the court. In working with
the client, The protection of the information on the chart and patient’s privacy is one of the priority.
You are caring for Ana, a 12 year old grade 6 pupil from manila and is one of the daughters of Maria,
A 38 year old mother of 12.
78. If the court issues an investigation necessitating the utilization of Ana’s chart, you know that the
chart will not be admissible IF:
79. The research teams from other countries are interested in investigating Ana’s case. They want to
read and gather information about Ana and the manifestation of her condition. For the sake of
improving knowledge and the development of a cure, the nurse knows that research is very
important. Permission in this case will be taken from:
80. If Ana reaches the age of majority, 18 years of age, and Maria asks for her chart, which of the
following is the best nursing action?
Situation 6 – Infection can cause debilitating consequences when host resistance is compromised
and virulence of microorganisms and environmental factors are favorable. Infection control is one
important responsibility of the nurse to ensure quality of care.
81. Honrad, who has been complaining of anorexia and feeling tired, develops jaundice, after a
workup he is diagnosed of having Hepatitis A. his wife asks you about gamma globulin for herself
and her household help. Your most appropriate response would be:
82. Voltaire develops a nosocomial respiratory tract infection. He ask you what that means? Your
best response would be:
A. “You acquired the infection after you have been admitted to the hospital.”
B. “This is a highly contagious infection requiring complete isolation.”
C. “The infection you had prior to hospitalization flared up.”
D. “As a result of medical treatment, you have acquired a secondary infection.’
83. As a nurse you know that one of the complications that you have to watch out for when caring
for Omar who is receiving total parenteral nutrition is:
A. stomatitis
B. hepatitis
C. dysrhythmia
D. infection
A. Dakin’s solution
B. Half-strength hydrogen peroxide
C. Acetic acid
D. Betadine
85. Which of the following is the most reliable in diagnosing a wound infection?
Situation : Respiration is one of the most important vital sign. This is usually the first Vital sign to be
assessed more than anything for it is easily altered by the patient’s consciousness. The nurse should
be aware of the different changes and alteration in respiration.
87. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis, Kussmauls respiration is exhibited. This is evidence that
there is the presence of:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
88. If the nurse will auscultate the base of the lungs, it is expected that she will hear:
90. Initially in asthma, you are expecting that the client’s acid base disturbance is:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Situation: Carbon Monoxide poisoning is said to be the 2nd leading cause of poison death. It is said to
be the leading cause of inhalation poisoning. Mang edgardo was rushed to the hospital after being
unconscious inside an enclosed parking lot. Carbon monoxide poisoning is suspected.
91. The pulse oximetry reading of Mang edgardo is 100%. This suggests that:
92. Which of the following is a sign the nurse will expect to see on Mang edgardo?
A. Cherry-red skin
B. Pale skin
C. Cyanotic
D. Restlessness
93. Initially, in patient with suspected inhalation poisoning, the most important intervention at the
scene of poisoning is:
94. Which of the following laboratory result is constantly checked in clients undergoing treatment
for carbon monoxide poisoning?
95. If a client demonstrates psychoses, visual disturbance, ataxia, amnesia and confusion even after
completion of resuscitation and the return of normal oxygenation, this will indicate that:
Situation: The physician has ordered 3 units of whole blood to be transfused to WQ following a
repair of a dissecting aneurysm of the aorta.
96. You are preparing the first unit of whole blood for transfusion. From the time you obtain it from
the blood bank, how long should you infuse it?
A. 6 hours C. 4 hours
B. 1 hour D. 2 hours
97. What should you do FIRST before you administer blood transfusion?
A. verify client identity and blood product, serial number, blood type, cross matching results,
expiration date
B. verify client identity and blood product serial number, blood type, cross matching results,
expiration date with another nurse
C. check IV site and use appropriate BT set and needle
D. verify physician’s order
98. As WQ’s nurse, what will you do AFTER the transfusion has started?
A. add the total amount of blood to be transfused to the intake and output
B. discontinue the primary IV of Dextrose 5% Water
C. check the vital signs every 15 minutes
D. stay with WQ for 15 minutes to note for any possible BT reactions
99. WQ is undergoing blood transfusions of the first unit. The EARLIEST signs of transfusion reactions
are:
A. immediately stop the blood transfusion, infuse Dextrose 5% in Water and call the physician
B. stop the blood transfusion and monitor the patient closely
C. immediately stop the BT, infuse NSS, call the physician, notify the blood bank
D. immediately stop the BT, notify the blood bank and administer antihistamines
NURSING PRACTICE V
Situation : Mrs. Andres brought his son, Juanito, age 3 to the Pediatric clinic. She noticed that her
son is not speaking and tend to repeat everything she says. The mother also told the nurse that
Juanito prefers to be alone, will cry when someone will come near him and tend to rock himself
from morning till he will fell asleep.
4. Typically, if there is a change in the environment, the child will manifest which of the following?
5. The best treatment approach for autistic children is encouraging their desired behavior through
positive reinforcement. This is:
6. There is no definite cause identified for autism, but a strong link has been found on:
8. The mother of Juanito asked the nurse, When is autism diagnose? The nurse will respond:
9. If a child with autism develops destructive behavior, The drug of choice that the nurse will expect
that the physician will give to control self injury is:
10. Chlorpromazine was given to the child. Which is true with regards to this medication?
A. Expect that the child will be unusually alert and hyperactive during the therapeutic period
B. The mother should decrease the fluid intake of the child as this drug causes fluid retention
C. That the drug is given in order to decrease the child’s hyperactivity
D. The mother should avoid overexposing the child to sunlight for the child might develop rashes
due to photosensitivity
Situation : Mastery of Psychotropic medications is necessary for the therapeutic improvement in the
health of the psychiatric clients.
A. P.O B. IM C. IV D. SQ
12. The nurse should expect that a client who cheeks the medication is a non-complaint patient.
Knowing the non compliance is the single most important factor for exacerbation and
rehospitalisation, the doctor ordered Prolixin [Fluphenazine Decanoate]. The nurse knows that is it
given:
A. Orally B. Sublingually C. IV D. IM
14. The nurse knows that the relationship between sodium and lithium is that:
Situation : Mang Cardo, Age 72, is a widower with moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Was brought to
the home for the Aged by his married daughter. On admission, she says to the nurse, “I never
thought this would happen to us. I really feel guilty about bringing him here, I can’t bear to part with
him.”
A. “You have indeed made a sound decision, Your father needs professional care which you cannot
provide at home.”
B. “Why are you feeling guilty bringing him here?”
C. “I know that his has been a difficult time for you. You seemed troubled about bringing him
here.”
D. “You have done well everything for your father, Do not be upset. We will take care of him.”
18. To guide the nurse in planning activities for Mang Carlos, The nurse should prioritize soliciting
which information?
19. Cardo appears to be awake and restless throughout the night, Which of the following is the
medication you are expecting to be given?
21. Which of the following is the cause of Dementia of the Alzheimer’s type?
A. Aphasia C. Confusion
B. Forgetfullness D. Restlessness
23. Mang Cardo has been talking about how he got his scratch on his left arm, he told you that it
was caused by a shard of glass that touches his skin accidentally. The next day, he told you that the
scratch was caused by a knife he did not see that it fell from the table towards his arms. The next
day, he said it was bitten by an ant and he scratched it because it was itchy. This is a symptom seen
in Dementia known as:
24. Tacrine was given to the client and the nurse knows that which of the following enzyme is
periodically checked?
25. A client with Alzheimer's disease mumbles incoherently and rambles in a confused manner. To
help redirect the client's attention, the nurse should encourage the client to:
28. Mrs. Dizon was visiting her son at the Psychiatry Ward. Which of the following items will the
nurse not allow to be brought inside the ward?
29. Which of the following will probably be most therapeutic for a patient on a behavioral
modification ward?
30. Which of the following must be considered while planning activities for the depressed patient?
31. To maintain a therapeutic eye contact and body posture while interacting with angry and
aggressive individual, the nurse should:
32. A patient in the ward suddenly slapped you in the face and spitted on your face and is obviously
agitated and violent. Which of the following is the best nursing action?
A. Tell the client: “Because of that, you are not going to eat your lunch, dinner and breakfast
anymore.”
B. Slap the client back and say “I am your nurse, you are a patient and you have no right to hurt me.”
C. Prepare a 5 member team to restraint the client
D. Respond by saying “You are losing control of yourself, you slapped me and you spitted on me and
you are way out of control”
33. Which of the following is an accurate way of reporting and recording an incident?
A. “When asked about his relationship with his father, client became anxious.”
B. “When asked about his relationship with his father, client clenched his jaw/teeth,
made a fist and turned away from the nurse.”
C. “When asked about his relationship with his father, client was resistant to respond”
D. “When asked about his relationship with his father, his anger was suppressed”
35. A patient grabs and about to throw it. The nurse best responds saying.
A. Compliance to treatment
B. Positive response to illness
C. Gratitude to your services
D. Some sense of trust in you
40. The client said “I am troubled that my Son is starting to use drugs.” The nurse replied, “It’s
troubling and painful for you, I feel sorry about this.” The nurse’s reply is an example of:
41. Preparation for termination of the nurse-patient relationship begins during the:
42. The client’s past reactions to ending relationships is withdrawal. The nurse assists her to
practice better ways of coping termination by providing opportunities to:
9. A male nurse reminds the client that is already time for group activities, The client responded by
yelling to the nurse “You are always telling me what to do! Just like my father!” This is an example
of:
A. Symbolization C.Reaction Formation
B. Transference D. Counter Transference
44. The longest and the most productive phase of the NPR is:
45. The objection of the nurse-patient relationship is to provide an opportunity of the patient to:
Situation: Mental Retardation is an increasingly common childhood disorder that impairs learning.
47. An important principle for the nurse to follow in interacting with retarded children is:
A. seen that if the child appears contented, his needs are being met
B. provide an environment appropriate to their development task as scheduled
C. treat the child according to his chronological age
D. treat the child according to his developmental level
48. The child was classified as having an IQ of 55. This is said to be:
49. Which of the following is true with regards to Mild Mental Retardation?
A. Trainable, Can reach up to 2nd grade and can reach the maturity of a 7 year old
B. Custodial and barely trainable
C. Requires total care throughout life, Mental age of a young infant
D. Educable, can reach up to grade 6 and has a maturity of a 12 year old
52. The onset of mental retardation is before the child reaches what particular age?
A. 17 B. 16 C. 15 D. 18
53. The possible nursing diagnosis for a mentally retarded child who is hyperactive is:
55. This form of psychotherapy allows the child to experience and express intense or troubling
emotion in a safe environment with a caring individual:
Situation : Margie has been diagnosed with Bipolar I disorder. The client demonstrates extreme
psychomotor agitation, flight of ideas, loud talking and elated mood.
57. Nursing care plan for a client with Mania like Margie should give priority to:
58. During a nurse patient interaction, Margie jumps rapidly from one topic to another, This is
known as:
59. Which of the following is a suitable activity that a nurse should assign for a Manic client?
60. The doctor ordered lithium. You know that this is indicated in patients with:
A. Depression C. Schizophrenia
B. Mania D. Anxiety disorders
63. What specimen is taken from a client when checking the lithium level of the body?
64. Which of the following is NOT a drug use to augment lithium toxicity?
65. The nurse has a standing order of Lithium for Margie. If the lithium level is 1.5 mEq/L, the nurse
knows that she should:
Situation : Nursing informatics is a way of using information technology, computers and the internet
in the improvement of nursing care. The first nursing informatics conference was held during 1977.
66. The ANA recognized nursing informatics heralding its establishment as a new field in nursing
during what year?
69. A textbook publisher wants to store large amount of data in a computer format that cannot be
changed by other people. Which of the following would best serve this purpose?
70. The challenge most associated with the utilization of an electronic record system is which of the
following?
71. A client insists that the practitioner use a treatment method discovered on an internet data
base. Which of the following response is most appropriate?
72. This is a type of a computerized recording system that enables hospitals to organize various data
such as admission, records, clinical laboratory, pharmacy, inventory and finance.
73. A nurse, who is proficient in computers and information technology that uses these advantages
to promote effective and secured use of computerized record is referred to as:
75. You are to research the different types of oxygen delivery system. From the nasal cannula up to
the venturi mask. Using nursing informatics, you found out different sources of information. One of
the question that needs to be answered in your research is “What type of oxygen delivery system is
the most comfortable?” you will answer:
Situation: Celina age 25, a ramp model, suddenly became blind after her boyfriend broke off with
her. A thorough work up did not reveal any pathological findings.
76. The loss or alteration of physical functioning without organize cause bit is an expression of a
psychological needs is known as:
A. Somatization C. Hypochondriasis
B. Depersonalization D. Conversion
77. Initially, the relevant nursing diagnosis the nurse includes in her care plan is:
A. Projection C. Repression
B. Rationalization D. Sublimation
A. Milieu therapy
B. Systematic desensitisation
C. Cognitive-Behavioral therapy
D. Psychopharmacology
Situation : Records and Records management is one of the core of professional nursing
practice.
81. The National Archives of the Phils. (NAP) is mandated by R.A. 9470 of 2007 to plan, formulate
and implement records management and archival administration program for the efficient action,
utilization, maintenance, retention, preservation, conservation and disposal of public records
including the adoption of security measures and vital records protection program for the
government and give technical assistance to all branches of government. Hospitals should safe keep
their record and coordinate with which of the following agency for its disposal?
82. If The research team finished the research about Ana’s case and they are done disseminating
data and after the report has been completed and written, Pre-processed data about Ana should be:
85. Charting should be legible and include only standard abbreviations. Which of the
following is NOT a standard abbreviation?
A. PRN C. NNO
B. OD D. NPO
Situation: A nurse should be aware that some problems in the emergency setting are not always
physiologic. Sometimes, Crisis can affect the patient in an emergency setting.
86. Which of the following statements best describes acquaintance rape?
A. Sexual intercourse when one person engaging in the activity is unsure about wanting to do so
B. When two people don’t love each other and engage in sexual activities
C. When someone on a date tricks the other person into having sexual intercourse
D. Sexual intercourse committed with force or the threat of force without a person’s consent
87. Male to male rape is also another problem that a nurse can encounter. The nurse knows that in
male to male rape, The perpetrator is usually:
88. An 18 year old male client was rushed to the hospital due to burns, bruises and cuts on the face
and body. The teenager confessed that he was raped by 4 of his classmates, all of which are also
male. Male to male rape also occurs and the nurse must know that:
A. If there is an erection, the male victim also consents to the rape itself.
B. That all male to male rape cases occurs at home, which is statutory most of the time.
C. That male rape victims are usually homosexuals. Which are very much deserving to be raped.
D. Most victims of male to male rapes never dare to report the incident.
89. One of four factors describing the experience of sexually abused children and the effect it has on
their growth and development is stigmatization. Stigma will occur when:
A. A child blames him or herself for the sexual abuse and begins to withdraw and Isolate
B. Newspapers and the media don’t keep sexual abuse private and accidentally or on purpose reveal
the name of the victim
C. The child has been blamed by the abuser for his or her sexual behaviors, saying that the child
asked to be touched or did not make the abuser to stop
D. The child’s agony is shared by other members of the family or friends when the
sexual abuse becomes public knowledge
90. Which of the following is an example of hostile environment in terms of sexual harassment?
A. the boss assures you of a big promotion if you go out on a couple of dates with him
B. your supervisor makes masturbatory gestures every time you walk pass him
C. the personnel manager hints that the job will be yours if you cooperate sexually with him
D. your boss suggests that your “raise” is dependent upon having sex with him
91. Mr. E.O. age 52 had a laryngectomy due to cancer of the larynx. Discharge instructions are given to
Mr.F.O. and his family. Which response by written communication from Mr. F.O. or verbal response
from the family, will be a signal to the nurse that the instructions need to be reclarified?
a. it is acceptable to take over-the-counter medications now that condition is stable
b. the suctioning at home must be a clean procedure, not sterile.
c. report swelling, pain or excessive drainage
d. cleans skin around stoma BID, use hydrogen peroxide and rinse with water, pat dry.
92. Dr. Tuazon scheduled Mrs. Poe for a right breast mass incision with frozen section and possible
mastectomy on Monday, first case. As the nurse in-charge for scheduling you will collaborate with
the following departments EXCEPT:
a. pathology c. anesthesia
b. dietary d. surgery
93. A mother who is pregnant and has ovarian cancer has to undergo surgery to treat the cancer. In
the process the fetus died. The doctrine that justifies the death of the fetus is:
94. A nurse is waiting for a report to be sent by fax. The machine activates but instead of the report,
the nurse received a sexually oriented photograph. The MOST appropriate nursing action is to:
95. Ms. F.X.. has been admitted with right upper quadrant pain and has been placed on a low fat diet.
Which of the following trays would be acceptable for her?
Situation : Some equipments and materials in our hospital are color coded, this is to increase the
safety and proficiency of rendering patients care.
96. If a nurse has been ordered to prepare a spinal set gauge 16, the nurse knew that the color for that
spinal set is coded at:
98. For pediatric patients, the spinal set is coded with color:
99. An anesthesiologist is preparing to do a spinal anesthesia to a 220 lb, 30 year old athlete she
request the circulating nurse to prepare a pink spinal set with another blue set as stand by. What
gauge spinal sets will make available in the OR suite?
A. Gauge 16 and 22
B.Gauge 18 and 16
C.Gauge 16 and 20
D. Gauge 5 and 22
100. Medical gases are used a lot in the OR. Some gases are used to operate equipment and some are
used to administer general anesthesia through inhalation. What is the identifying color of the tank
which contains ‘laughing gas’?