Reviwer Purposes

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CORAD

1. In case of death of a relative within the second degree of consanguinity or affinity,


what document is necessary before an inmate is allowed to view the remains of the
deceased?

a. Written request of the inmate b. Marriage contract


c. Birth certificate of the deceased d. Clearance from the court
(Second degree- grandchild, grandfather, nephews,uncle, etc.)

2. Johnny Taverna was sentenced in 2005 to a minimum prison term of three (3) years
and one (1) day. He applied for probation and he was granted probation. In 2011, he
was included in a fraternity rumble and was charged of serious physical injuries to which
he was sentenced to a prison term of less than three (3) years. He applied for probation.
Is he qualified?

a. Yes, his prison term is less than six (6) years.


b. No, his prison term is less than three (3) years
c. Yes, there is a five (5) year gap between his second offense and the first offense
d. No, he is a second time offender
(kaisa lg pwede mka avail og probation)

3. Joey was convicted to a prison term of prision correctional. Will he qualify for
probation?

a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1)


b. No, his sentence is more than six (6) ears and one (1) day 
c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years in one (1) day
d. Yes, his sentence is three years and one day

4. In the New Bilibid Prison, the medium security prisoners are confined at -

a. NBP Main Prison b. Medium Security Prison


c. Camp Bukang Liwayway d. Camp Sampaguita

5. The Jail Warden shall disapprove the request of an inmate to view the remains of a
deceased relative or not favorably endorse a similar request of offender to the
appropriate court of government agency in any of the following cases, except:

a. The detainee has a record of escape


b. The deceased relative is lying in state in a place that is beyond a thirty-kilometer
radius from the place of confinement of the prisoner, or in any case, where prisoner
cannot return to said place during the daylight hours 
c. The detainee has two or more pending criminal cases
d.  None
6. What is the minimum quarantine day of any inmate in the RDC?

 a. 90 days b. 15 days


c. 60 days d. 5 days

7. Not all cases reported to the criminal justice system reach the courts. What is the
system of screening out cases for dropping or carried through the next pillar of the
criminal justice system?

a. release on recognizance b. filtering process


c. plea bargaining d. case evaluation

8. The San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm was established on August 13, 1870 as -
a. Colonia Penal de San Ramon b. Ramon Blanco Colonia de Penal
c. Correctional de San Ramon d. Espanyol colonia  de Penal

9.Not all cases reported to the criminal justice system reach the courts. What is the
system of screening out cases for dropping or carried through the next pillar of the
criminal justice system?
a. plea bargaining b. release on recognizance
C. case evaluation d. filtering process

10. Immediately after apprehension and booking, what is done with the youthful
offender?
a. He is committed to the care of the Department of the Interior and Local Government
b. He undergoes thorough physical and mental examination
c. He is assigned a prison cell
d. He is interrogated by police officers

11. The following are considered minor offense of an inmate, except:


a. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and orderliness in his quarters and/or
surroundings
b. Rendering service to fellow inmate
с. Willful waste of food.
d. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect when confronted by or
reporting to any officer or member at the custodial force

12. Which model underscores the assumption that criminal behavior is caused by
biological or psychological conditions that require treatment?
a. medical model
b. Reform model
c. community model
d. rehabilitation model
13. The Jail Warden shall disapprove the request of an inmate to view the remains of a
deceased relative or not favorably endorse a similar request of offender to the
appropriate court of government agency in any of the following cases, except:
a. The detainee has a record of escape
b. The detainee has two or more pending criminal cases
c. The deceased relative is lying in state in a place that is beyond a thirty-kilometer
radius from the place of confinement of the prisoner, or in any case, where prisoner
cannot return to said place during the daylight hours
d. none

14. What should be done to Edgar who got sick with severe colds and influenza while
confined at Camp Bukang Liwayway?
a. Ask the prison guard to help get NGO help
b. Write his wife to ask for medicine from the prison clinic
c. Help him secure his right for medical attention from prison
d. Just keep quiet and pray for his health

15. What is the process by which prisoners are assigned to types of custody and
treatment appropriate to their individual needs?

a. Classification b. Diversion
c. Segregation d.Incarceration

16. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to as


a. a determinate sentence b. a corporal punishment
c. capital punishment d. an indeterminate sentence

17. Which of the following models of correctional institutions emphasizes security,


discipline
and order?
a. Medicine model b.  Rehabilitation model
c. Custodial model d. Reintegration model

18. What should be done to Edgar who got sick with severe colds and influenza while
confined at Camp Bukang Liwayway?
a. Write his wife to ask for medicine from the prison clinic
b. Ask the prison guard to help get NGO help
c. Help him secure his right for medical attention from prison
d. Just keep quiet and pray for his health

19. What concept is referred to when a prison completely encapsulates the lives of the
people who work and live there?
a. total institution b. voluntary institution
c. half-way house d. therapeutic community

20. Which of the following is absolutely prohibited in prison/jail?


a. disciplinary punishment b. work detail
c. smoking cigarette d. corporal punishment

21. Force can only be used by officers in correctional institutions while

a. only in performing assignments b. exacting respect


c. enforcing discipline d. cases of attempted escape of prisoners

22. What is the core of a treatment program in the form of group therapy provided by
professional staff called?
a. Sports programs b. Educational services
c. Counseling services d. Livelihood programs

23. What is the security classification of inmates with one record of escape but have
served five years since recommitment?
a. Maximum security b. Optimum security
c. Medium security d. Minimum security

24. Which of the following is considered a less grave offense of jail inmates
a. Littering in his quarters and/or surroundings
b. Exchanging uniform or wearing clothes other than those issued to him for
purpose of circumventing jail rules
c. Inflicting harm upon himself or other inmates
d. Flagrant disregard and of discipline and instructions

25. Larry Bantog was granted probation but he did not report for interview within the
prescribed period. How is he classified?
a. Transferred probationer b. Absconding probationer
c. Major probationer d. Transient probationer

26. Jail security includes the following. EXCEPT:


a. Maintain 24-hour supervision of inmates b.Censor inmate mails – custodial
force
c. Maintain strict control of firearms d. Conduct frequent inspection of jail
facilities

27. The open institution usually a penal farm or camp is known as the
a. Maximum Security Institution b. NBP
c. Medium Security Institution d. minimum Security Institution

28. What should the court do if it finds that probation will depreciate the seriousness of
the offense committed?
a. Reduce the penalty b. Dismiss the case
c. Dismiss the case Approve the application d. Deny the application
29. When is a post-sentence investigation report and recommendation prepared by a
Probation Officer submitted to the court?

a. within 120 days from receipt of order b. within 30 days from receipt of order
c. within 60 days from receipt of order d. within 150 days from receipt of order

30. When is a post-sentence investigation report and recommendation prepared by a


Probation Officer submitted to the court?
a. within 120 days from receipt of order b. within 30 days from receipt of order
c. within 60 days from receipt of order d. within 150 days from receipt of
order

31. The following are considered minor offense of an inmate, except:

a. Rendering service to fellow inmate


b. willful waste of food.
c. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect when confronted by or
reporting to any officer or member of the custodial force
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and orderliness in his quarters and/ or
surroundings

32. One of the most important ways to help an inmate reform is through individual coins,
who is in a best position to perform this function? 
a. psychologist b. trustee
c. prison guard d. prison administrator

33. Which of the following punishments IS NOT imposable by jail Disciplinary Boards?
a. Extra-fatigue duty b. solitary confinement for ten (10) days
c. reprimand, cancellation of visiting privileges d. forfeiture of good conduct time
allowance

34. Lagardo Tabataha was sentenced by Judge Roberto Mandirigma on June 5. 2004.
On July 25, 2004, Judge Mandirigma died. What is the effect of the judge's death to the
service of Edgardo's sentence?
a. Edgardo continues to serve his sentence b. Edgardo's sentence will be
suspended.
c. Edgardo's sentence will be reduced. d. Edgardo's sentence will be increased

35. A program specifically designed for the prisoner in order to give him an opportunity
to adapt from life in prison to the life in the community
a. amnesty b. parole
c. Pre-release d. Probation

36. The Philippine Legislature during the American regime passed Act No. 1876
providing for the establishment of a prison in ___. The prison was built for the prisoners
of the province and insular prisoners who were members of the non-Christian tribes of
the Mountain Provinces and Nueva Viscaya.
a. La Trinidad, Benguet b. Baguio Jail and Prison
c. Bontoc, Mt. Province d. The Holo

37. R.A. No. 9263 provides that the BJMP shall be headed by a Chief who is assisted
by 2 Deputy Chiefs, and 1 Chief of Directorial Staff, all of whom are appointed by the
President. What is R.A. No, 9263?
a. Law Repealing RA 6975 b. BFP and BJMP Professionalization Act of
2004
c. BJMP Professionalization Act of 2004 d. BFP Professionalization Act of 2004

38. Pardon cannot be exercised in the following instances, EXCEPT:


a. before trial b. before conviction
c. after conviction d. before conviction and before trial

39. Which of the following rehabilitation programs in jails promotes good interpersonal
relationships and solves the offender's problems of adjustments?
a. Educational services b. Employment services
c. Medical services d. Counseling services

40. What is issued by the court to a correctional facility indicating the basis for the
confinement of a prisoner?
a. Detention order b. Mittimus
c. Probation order d. Bail

41. Provincial jails were first established in 1910 under the American Regime. At
present, who supervises and controls the said jails?
a. Provincial Government b. BJMP
c. bucor d. LGU

42. When is a probationer required to report to the Probation Officer?


a. Within 24 hours from receipt of probation order
b. Within 72 hours from receipt of probation order
c. Within 48 hours from receipt of probation order
d. Within 96 hours from receipt of petition under

43. Edgardo Tubataha was sentenced by Judge Roberto Mandirigma on June 5, 2004.
On July 25, 2004, Judge Mandirigma died. What is the effect of the judge's death to the
service of Edgardo's sentence?
a. Edgardo continues to serve his sentence. b. Edgardo's sentence will be
suspended.
c. Edgardo's sentence will be reduced. d. Edgardo's sentence will be increased.

44. What is issued by the court to a correctional facility indicating the basis for the
confinement of a prisoner?
a. Mittimus b. Probation order
c. bail d. Detention order

45. Immediately after apprehension and booking, what is done with the youthful
offender?
a. He is assigned a prison cell
b. He is interrogated by police officers
c. He is committed to the care of the Department of the Interior and Local
d. He undergoes thorough physical and mental examination

46. There are various types of prison programs. For what purpose is the maintenance
program?
a. it employs prisoners in various product or good-producing tasks
b. it assigns prisoners to daily routine work like laundry and janitorial
c.it attempts to improve a prisoner's job skills or educational achievement
d. it secures prisoners from escape or violence

47. Mr. A was convicted by a court and meted a sentence of 3 years imprisonment.
Which of the following Mr. A must undertake in order that his intention for probation is
entertained?
a. Petition congress for amnesty
b. The application be filed with the trial court
c. Apply for probation within the period of perfecting an appeal
d. Apply an appeal to modify the decision of final judgment

48. The primary purpose of incarcerating criminal offenders is_______.


a. making them pay for their crimes b.helping them atone for their felony
c. rehabilitating them d. segregating them from the family

49. Pedro de la Cuesta was sentenced to a prison term of six (6) months and one (1)
day to three (3) years. How is he classified?
a. Provincial Prisoner b. Maximum prisoner
c. Municipal prisoner d. Insular prisoner

50. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?


a. Lethal injection b. Stoning
c. Mutilation d. Branding

51. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole officer, which one is
not?
a. The manipulative techniques
b. The executive techniques
c The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques
d. The trick and treat techniques
52. While prisoners are not allowed to have disciplinary authority over their co-
prisoners, technically skilled prisoners may:
a. supervise prison labor b. run the whole show for livelihood
program
c. be requested to assist other prisoners d. provide direction to livelihood
program

53. there are two (2) inmates arguing over loss of some items in their cell. You are the
guard on duty. What will you do? 
a. look for witnesses to testify who is the culprit
b. confine the culprit in a segregated room
с. poke your gun at both of them to stop the heated discussion
d. invite both of them to the office and investigate the matter

54. Punishing criminal to serve as an example to others is a theory of


a. equality b. social-defense
c. Self-defense d. Exemplary

55. Which of the following organizations donated the Half-way House inside the
compound of the Bureau of Corrections?
a. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office b. Office of the President
с. Asia Crime Foundation d United Nations

56. Which of the following is absolutely prohibited in prison/jail?


a. smoking cigarette b. disciplinary punishment
c. corporal punishment d. work detail

57. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified petitioners, when it


becomes a matter of right?
a. When no appeal was undertaken b. When the convict files a petition for
probation
c. When his probation is approved d. After the submission of the PSIR

58. Which model underscores the assumption that criminal behavior is caused by
biological or psychological conditions that require treatment?
a. Rehabilitation mode b. Medical model
c. Reform model d. Community model

59. Counseling services is usually the core treatment in


a. vocational program b. educational program
c. One physical therapy d. group therapy

60. What is the core of a treatment program in the form of group therapy provided by
professional staff called?
a. therapeutic services b. Counseling services
c. educational services d. church service
61. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the Philippines
under the BUCOR is located in
a. Occidental Mindoro b. Davao
c. Palawan d. Zamboanga

62. Babylon, about 1990 BC, credited as the oldest code prescribing savage
punishment but in fact_______is older
a. Justine Code b. Sumerian Code
c. Hammurabic Code d. Code of Daco

63. Which of the following is the primary purpose of Adult Probation Law?
a. Foster closer relationship between the offender and the judge who promulgated the
probation order
b. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing him with
personalized, community based program
C. Place the offender outside the police power of the state.
d. Coordinate the workings of the agencies of the cranial justice system

64. Which of the following models of correctional institutions emphasizes security,


discipline and order?
a. Reintegration model b. rehabilitation model
c. custodial model d. Medicine model

 Reintegration model- emphasize maintenance of the offender’s ties to family and


community
 Rehabilitation model- emphasize treatment programs

65. What should be done with inmates found to be drug dependents/addicts?


a. They should be placed in comfortable quarters
b. They should be sent back to their parents for supervision
c. They should be segregated from other inmates especially during withdrawal
period
d. They should be given sedatives/stimulants regularly

66. The probationer may be authorized to travel outside the PO's area of operational
jurisdiction for a period of -
a. More than 10 days but not exceeding 30 days
b. Not allowed because it is outside of jurisdiction
c. More than 30 days but not more than 6 months
d. More than 30 days but not exceeding 60 days

67. The central goal of the Probation Administration is to enhance the safety of the
community by reducing the incidence of criminal acts by person's
a. under preventive discipline b. not yet convicted
c. previously convicted d. to be convicted

68. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little more care than other
inmates. Which of the following should NOT be done by a jail officer?
a. prescribe the medicines to the heart patient-inmate
b. ensure that the inmates see the medical staff regularly
c. avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate
d. ensure that the inmate comply with his prescribed diet

69. The most common problem of the National prison is


a. Lack of adequate funding b. Disagreement about their mess
c. Excessive number of escapes d. Overcrowding

70. What is the process by which prisoners are assigned to types of custody and
treatment appropriate to their individual needs?
a. Diversion b. Classification
c. Incarceration d. Segregation

71. Among the penal farms in the country, is the largest operating institution under the
BuCor covering a total land area of more or less 28,000 hectares.
a. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm b. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm
c. Davao Prison and Penal Farm d. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm

72.An__________ program employs prisoners in various product or good-producing


tasks.
a. Administrative b. Industrial
c. Operational d. Agricultural

73. Who among the following prisoners may be excused from hard work?
a. "B" who is 56 years old b. "A" who is 62 years old
c. "D" who is 50 years old d. "C" who is 60 years old

74. A prison system which features where consisted in solitary confinement of prisons.
a. Auburn Prison System b. Elmira Reformatory
c. Pennsylvania system d. Irish System

75. What needs to be given emphasis in the management of jails?


a. Direction and supervision of personnel b. Punishment of prisoners
c. Direction of prisoners d. Discipline of prisoners and
personnel

76. How much time has the Probation Officer for the preparation of his investigation
report?
a. 60 days b. 30 days
c. 120 days d. 45 days
77. The classical theory of criminology provides that the basis of criminal liability is:
a. Human free will b. Individual's thinking
c. Human facilities d. Individual's mental state

78. The power to grant amnesty is a presidential discretion, which must be with
congressional concurrence. It is usually granted to:
a. suspected offendersq b. Offender under appeal
c. convicted offenders d. Political offenders

79. Can Romeo, an inmate who is suffering from asthma and having difficulty in
breathing, be brought to the hospital?
a. No, it is against prison rules
b. Yes, with permission from the court
c. Yes, if the prison health officer says it is necessary
d. No let the prison nurse give the medication

80. Parole is granted by the:


a. Court b. BPP
c. President d. Director of Prison

81. What agency of the government is responsible to administer Presidential Decree


968, or the Probation Law?
a. Board of Pardon and Parole
b. Probation and Parole Administration
c. Bureau of Correction
d. Department of Justice

82. which of the following contributes to prison violence?


a. conjugal visits which allows private moments between prisoner and partner
b. Inhumane prison conditions, including overcrowding, depersonalization, and
threats of homosexual rapes
c. work furlough which allows prisoners to go out and work
d. prison industry which gives opportunity for prisoners to earn

83. Inmates who demonstrate good behavior and entitled to a 5-minute phone call to an
authorized individual every days
a. 60 b. 30
c. 90 d. 5

84. The first in the world to abolish death penalty in the year 1846.
a. Michigan b. Boston
c. Rome d. England

85. The vocational rehabilitation of a handicapped person is best done by


a. Setting standard beyond his reach so that he will do his utmost.
b. Stressing what he can do rather that what he can't do.
c. Seeing to it that he understands his limitations
d. Teaching him a number of vocations at the same time so that he has a sense of
versality

86. What is the security classification of inmates with one record of escape but have
served five years since recommitment?
a. Minimum security b. Maximum security
c. Medium security d. Optimum security

87. Counseling services is usually the core treatment in


a. vocational program b. physical therapy
c. group therapy d. educational program

88. How long the Probation Officer's Final Report shall be submitted by the City and
Provincial Parole and Probation Office to the Trial Court?
a. 10 days after expiration of the period
b. 15 days after expiration of the period
c. 30 days before the expiration of the period
d. 30 days after the expiration of the period

89. Here are various types of prison programs. For what purpose is the maintenance
program?
a. it attempts to improve a prisoner's job skills or educational achievement
b. employs prisoners in various product or good-producing tasks
c. it assigns prisoners to daily routine work like laundry and janitorial
d. it secures prisoners from escape or violence

90. What is the practice of beating, torturing, maiming or any form of causing pain to a
prisoner called?
a. Corporal punishment b. Medical model of punishment
c. capital punishment d. Indeterminate punishment

91. Julia Roberts confiscated white crystalline substance rolled in a transparent sachet
and she suspected it to be "shabu". What should she do first? 
a. record the incident in the logbook b. properly preserve the evidence
c. properly identify the evidence d. bring the substance to NBI

92. The principle of______ provides that punishment of a convict prevents others from
performing similar actions for fear that they will be punished similarly.
a. rehabilitation b. reformation
c. retribution d. deterrence

93. Whenever the transfer of inmates to another jail is effected, the following rules shall
be observed, except:
a. When two or more prisoners are transported, each must be secured to the
other
b. A prisoner must be handcuffed and secured to a part of the vehicle during transit to
abort any escape plan or self-destruction
c. Notorious/disastrous prisoners being moved shall be handcuffed
d. Before any transfer, all offenders shall be inspected and searched for dangerous
weapons or objected

94. Which of the following probationers may be recommended for the early termination
of probation?
a. those physical and mentally fit for travel
b. those recommended for further supervision
c. cooperative and participative probationer in the programs
d. probationers convicted for offenses involving moral turpitude

95. Romeo was sentenced to serve a prison term of six (6) years. He did not qualify for
probation. He was brought to the Bureau of Corrections in Muntinlupa. To which place
should he be brought for processing and classification?
a. testing center b. reception and diagnostic center
c. processing center d. evaluation center

96. What happens to a probationer when the court withdraws his privilege of probation?
b. He is returned to prison and he serves his sentence
c. He is placed under police custody. d. He is released to the community

97. How many days that a trial court must resolved application for probation from the
date of receipt of the investigation report from the probation officer?
a. 30 days b. 45 days
c. 15 days d. 10 days

98. How are inmates who have served at least 1/2 their minimum sentence or 1/3 of
their maximum sentence excluding Good Conduct and Time Allowance classified in
terms of security?
a. Optimum security b. Minimum security
c. Minimum security d. Maximum security

99. Mr. Omar was convicted and sentenced for violation of the custom law or other laws
within the jurisdiction of the Bureau of Customs. Is Mr. Omar qualified for parole?
a. None of these b. maybe
c. eyes d. no

100. The court ordered a probationer to pay certain amounts to his victim as part of his
civil liability. To whom shall the probationer remit his payments?
a. Cashier of the Probation Office b. Municipal Treasurer
c. Cashier of the Trial Court d. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
CRIMSOC

1. All parents are required to enroll their children in school to complete at least
a Nursery Education b. Elementary Education
c. Tertiary Education d. Secondary Education

2. Crime exists when it is reported. What point of view was described?


a. Criminological point of view b. Legal point of view
c. Psychological point of view                   d. Scientific point of view

3. The principle which state that man, by nature, always tries to maximize pleasure and
avoid pain.
a hedonism b. Utopia
c. atavism d. Socialism

4. What changes must occur given an effective police community relations program?
a. Attitudinal and behavioral changes in policemen b. Social and economic changes
in policemen
c. Social and economic changes in policemen d Attitudinal and mental changes
in policemen

5. It is an act which provides a uniform system of preliminary investigation.  (RA 5180)

a. PD 177 b. Act 2942


c. RA 5189 d. PD 963

6. Vincent always worry even there is little or nothing to provoke his anxiety. He is
relentless, jittery and has unwanted worries whenever he reports.
a. Generalized Anxiety disorder b. Panic Disorder
c. Social Phobia d. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

7. A police officer should always avoid any occasions to humiliate, embarrass, annoy or
inconvenience any individual to avoid
a Support b. Goodwill
c. resentment d. response

8. What may be considered as the biggest hindrance to access to justice by the poor as
far as law enforcement pillar is concerned?
a. Existence of corruption in the police organization
b. Impunity of violating citizen's rights by law enforcers
c. Use of torture or brutal practices by the police
d. Very expensive judicial process

9. All the following are general prevention measures in every government level for
juvenile delinquency, except:
a. well-defined responsibilities for the qualified agencies and institutions
b. policies, programs and strategies based on analytical studies
c. in depth analysis of the problem and inventories of programs and services
d. ambiguous objectives and policies for the reduction of juvenile incidents
10. Unknown to some, if not all, the prosecution pillar has a dual role, that of prosecutor
and at the same time:
a. government a law agency b. chief law enforcement officer
C. administrator of the system d. prosecution pillar of the system

11. You propose research is to find out why some people continue to be involved in
illegal drugs despite the extra-judicial killings of those who are involved. You will be
interviewing at least five people you personally know using and dealing with shabu.
What type of research best applies in this situation?
a. Quantitative research b. Qualitative research
c. Criminological research d. Both qualitative and quantitative

12. The omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty. which
is the officer's legal obligation to perform.
a. Misconduct b. Bribery
c. Neglect of duty d. Incompetence

13. What is known to be the oldest but commonly used terrorist tactic where target are
often police, military officials or political features.
a. assassination b. Hijacking
c. Kidnap for Ransom d. ambush

14. An ethical act that every policeman must observe by way of recognizing their own
inadequacies, inabilities and limitations as individuals and perform their duties without
attracting attention or to expect recognition.
a. Humility b. integrity
c. Perseverance d. morality

15. Which of the following will not exempt the child from criminal liability?
a. A child is above 18 but below 21 years
b. A child above 15 years but below 18 years who acted without discernment 
c. A child is 15 year and below who acted without discernment
d. A child is above 15 years but below 18 years who acted with discernment

16. What is the primary purpose of a public relations program?


a. to plan for a police community relations program
b. to recruit new members for community relations program 
c. to develop mutual understanding between the police and the public
d. to train police officers in community relations

17. The aim of this research is to get a better understanding through first and
experience, truthful reporting, and quotations of actual conversations.
a. Qualitative Research b. Research Design
c. Criminological Research d. Quantitative Research

18. The following are the characteristics of criminology, except:


a. Applied Science b. Nationalistic
c. flexible d. dynamic

19. An abuse that is kept secret for a purpose, concealed, or underhanded is called:
a. Clandestine abuse b. Abuse of authority
c. clinical abuse d. Overt abuse

20. A state of normlessness as proposed by Durkheim that describes France during its
trying times.
a. Strain Theory b. Chicago Area Project
c. Anomie d. Labelling Theory

21. A person appointed by the court to act as legal guardian of a child even if his
parents is still alive when the best interest of the said child so requires.
a. Parens Patriae b. Guardian ad Litem
c. Counsel de Officio d. adopter

22. Schizophrenia is also known as?


a. Dementia Praecox b. Pyromania
c. Kleptomania d. Dipsomania

23. The basis of criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of the penalty is
retribution.
a. Eclectics theory b. Positivist theory
e Multiple factor theory d. Classical theory

24.  The basic law on the Philippine Prison System is found in Revised Administrative
Code, otherwise known as:
a. Royal Decree b. Bilibid Prison Law
c. Correction Law d. prison Law

25. The primary advocate of the Positivist School in Criminology.


a. Cesare Becarria- classical b. Edwin Sutherland- Differential Association theory
c. Leonard Keeler d. Cesare Lombroso

26. Girls see her mother as rival for her father's attention is termed as
a. none of the above b. Mental retardation
c. Electra d. Oedipus Complex

27. It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of conscience, deficient feeling


of affection to others and aggression to environment and other people.
a. Psychopathic personality b. Schizophrenic personality
c. Neurotic personality d. Compulsive neurosis
28. This type of physique has relatively predominant muscles, bones and motor organs
of the body.
a. Ectomorphic- payat b. Mesomorphic - macho
c. Endomorphic- taba (LMS) d. Viscerotonic

29. A sub-discipline of criminology which focuses on victims of crime.


a. victimology b. Penology
c. Criminal psychology d. Criminal profiling

30. Ernst Kretschmer's physique theory describes those who are stout and round bodies
tend to commit what type of crimes?
a. violation against decency and morality b. deception, fraud and violence
c. violence d. petty theft and fraud

31. What is the first and last process in Assault operations


a. Pre-Assault & Post Assault b. None of the above
c. Pre-Assault & Assault d. Moving Tacties & Assault

32. One day we may be cool and withdrawn and the next day, warm and sociable. This
condition may fall into the disorder known as:
a. Psychopathic behavior b. amnesia
c. Bipolar disorder d. Schizophrenia

33.Which of the ff. is the initial action undertaken by the PNP as Law Enforcement Pillar
of the CJS?
a. Gather evidence and identifies the offender (s) b. investigate evidence
c. Arrest and bring the perpetrators before courts d. Responds to calls for
assistance

34. It is one of the principal divisions of criminology that attempt to provide scientific
analysis of the crime.
a. Delinquent b. Criminal Etiology
c. Sociology of Law- attempt to offer scientific analysis d. Crime

35. The stage of advance planning, organization and coordination and control in
response to an anticipated future crisis occurrence is called:
a. Proactive Crisis Management b. Reaction Phase
c. Reactive Crisis Management d. Performance Stage

36. The Differential Association Theory provides a good illustration of a social learning
approach perspective in Criminology. Criminal behavior according to this theory is:
a. A result of an emotional disturbance   b. An inmate quality of goodness or badness
c. An excess of wisdom   d. Learned and not inherited
37. Any person who shall engage in trading and dealing with children including but not
limited to the act of buying and selling of a child for money or for any consideration or
barter.
a. Child prostitution b. Child abuse
c. Child trafficking (RA 7610) d. Child Exploitation

38. It is ego's dependence on id.


a. reality anxiety b. Moral anxiety
c. anxiety d. neurotic anxiety

39. The following are the classifications by Cesare Lombroso except one:
a. Deficient criminals b. Born criminals
e. Criminal by passion d. Pseudo criminals- insane person

40. Genitals become the source of gratification. It is where Oedipus complex and
Electra complex occur.
a. Phallic Stage b. Latency Stage-   focus peer relationship
c. moral Stage d. oral Stage- mouth

41. Charles gets very sexually excited by about women shoes. While he used to
fantasize about women wearing particular shoes, he now focuses almost exclusively on
the shoes themselves. Charles has an ________.
a. Unusual interest but does not have a diagnosable disorder   b. Sexual dysfunction
c. Fetishistic disorder d. Frotteuristic disorder

42. The negligent treatment or maltreatment of a child by a parent or caretaker under


circumstances indicating harm or threatened harm to the child's health or welfare is
known as:
a. Child neglect b. Child in conflict with the law
c. Child Dilemma d. Child abuse

43. Pablo is a thin, long, fragile, but he is brainy and artistic; he would think about life,
rather than a it. According to Sheldon this is?
a Endomorphic b. Ectomorphic
c. ethnography d. Mesomorphic

44. When the accused is found not guilty of the charges presented before the country,
he is:
a. convicted b. acquitted
c. suspended d. absuelto

45. The first institution founded in New York dedicated for the treatment and
confinement of juveniles
a. House of ill-refute b. House of Refugee
c. House of the homeless d. House of Refuge
46. What aggressive behavior includes repeated noncompliance to a direct command,
verbal abuse-name calling, verbal abuse-threat, and physical abuse?
a. Covert b. isolated
c. covert d. Interactive

47. Among the following who is the most vulnerable group to abuse and suffer threats?
a. Parents b. civilian
c. Children d. old age

48. Moral aspect of personality that judges our personality and is also known as the
conscience.
a. Super ego b. ego
c. ID d. all of the above

49. Research utilizes proven analytical procedures in gathering and analyzing data
purposely to:
a. Ensure that there is no error in their interpretation
b. Ensure the competency of the researchers
c. all of the above
d. Ensure the reliability of the result

50. One of the following is not considered as police community relations:  


a. It is the development of attitude and behavior that creates mutual support from the
community. 
b. It is the close supervision of the police over the community he serves
c. It is an attitude of delivering police service to the people
d. It is a behavior that concerns police service must be efficient and humane

51. In crisis management, the teams under the support unit are under the control of the
ground commander. Which is responsible for the collection and processing of all
information needed by the on-scene commander?
a. Negotiation unit b. Security element
c. Intelligence team d. Support unit

52. When a person is seen to show indiscriminate giggling or crying, emotional flatness,
the voice is monotonous, the face immobile and expressionless and manifest highly
bizarre and add behavior then appropriately he is:
a. suffering from sexual dysfunction
b. suffering from psychopathic behavior
C. suffering from schizophrenia or psychotic behavior
d. suffering from neurotic behavior

53. A modified classical theory that introduces limited responsibility, extenuating


circumstances, pr children and the mentally defective or insane from responsibility
a. Classical theory b. Hedonism
c. Neo-classical theory d. Positivist theory
54. Which of the following belong to the court pillar of the Phil. CJS?
a. Inferior or lower courts b. Court of Tax Appeal
c. Agrarian Courts d. Barangay Courts

55. Children shall not be ___ to become members of the AFP or its civilian units or other
armed groups, nor not be allowed to take part in the fighting or used as guides, couriers
or spices.
a. Recruited b. levited
c. Forced d. Trailed

56. A parent who provided a sperm, egg or uterus to help in the conception of a child
a. Siepparent b. Biological parent
c. Unfit parent d. Surrogate parent

57. Rolly gets excited when he kills his prey. What kind of a serial killer is he?
a. Lust Killer Type b. Mission oriented type
c. Visionary type d. Thrill oriented type

58. A type of crime in which the end result is destructive.


a. Seasonal crime b. Extinctive crime
c. static crime d. Acquisitive crime

59. Which of the following is described as the threatening behaviors, either verbal or
physical, directed at others?
a. dependency b. Aggression
c. Abnormality d. violence

60. What kind of assault committed when it includes kicking, punching, deliberately
throwing an object and drawing a lethal weapon against someone?
a. verbal b. Mental
c. Physical d. Sexual

61. He use the data and statistical analysis to gain insight into the relationship between
crime a
a. Rawson W Rawson b. Emile Durkheim
c. Henry Mayhew c. Adolphe Quetelet

62. No person shall employ child models in all ______ or advertisements promoting
alcohol beverages, intoxicating drinks, tobacco, and its byproducts and violence.
a. Product b. Shows
c. Commercial d. Aspects

63. The key to successful police community relations (PCR) depends to a large extend
upon:
a. Character of the community residents
b. Dictates of the Environment
c. Selection of personnel to the PCR Unit
d. Character and Temperature of the police unit commander 

64. The Principle that events including criminal behavior that has sufficient causes. 
a. Narcissism b. Positivism
c. Atavism d. Determinism
65. The secretariat of the Philippine Criminal Justice is:
a. DND b. NAPOLCOM
c. DILG d. Peace and order council (POC)

66. A pattern of repeated or habitual unauthorized absences from school by any juvenile
subject to compulsory education laws is called
a. School Delinquency b. School Truancy
c. Status Offense d. Deviation

67. A soldier experience sudden blindness after returning from the battle. He would
most likely be diagnosed with which of the following disorder?
a. Phobic Disorder b. Conversion Disorder
c. Dissociative Disorder d. Bipolar Disorder

68. He was the first criminologist to expound the theory ‘crime is the result of manifold
causes, which although found always linked into an intricate network, can be detected
by means of careful study’ As sociologist, he wrote the ‘new Horizons in Criminal Law
and Penal Procedure’
a.Stanfeld Sargent b. Enrico Ferri
c. Garofalo d. Lombroso 

70. People who commit crime because they are pushed to it inducement, by reward or
promise with categorize as 
a. Active Aggressive b. Habitual
c. Passive inadequate d. Socialized Delinquent

71. The prosecutors have ____ in determining which charges to bring or whether to
present the case to the courts.
a. Wide discretion b. Legal responsibility
c. Legal authority d. common sense

72. Science concerned with improving the quality of human off springs. 
a. Genetics b. Eugenics
c. Criminology d. Heredity
73. Study of criminality in relation to spatial distribution in a community. (Criminal
ecology) 
a. Criminal determinism b. Criminal epidemiology
c. Criminal Psychology d. Criminal demography (Lms)
74. What school of thoughts in criminology challenges the proposition that man has
absolute free will to choose between good and evil and states that it is not absolute as
presumed to be because free will can be diminished by pathology mental disorders and
other conditions that may instigate personal responsibility?

A. Radical Criminology b. Neo-Classical School of Criminology


c. Positivism d. hedonistic Calculus

75. He is considered as the most prominent jurists at the time of his appointment to the
first supreme Court organized under the American model.
a. Cayetano Arellano b. Gregorio Araullo
c. Wictorino Mapa d. Florentino Torres 

76. Cooper is an auto mechanic at local garage. However, he is convicted that his
phone line is tapped and all the rooms in his house have listening devices planted, so
that enemy agents can learn all his secret conversations. He never takes the same
route to work two days in a row, to prevent the enemy agents from following him and
learning where he works. In this case, it appears that cooper experiencing? 
A. Delusion of Persecution b. Loosening of association
c. Hallucinations d. Delusion of grandeur

77.What do you call measures other that juridical proceedings used with a young
person alleged to have committed an offense?
a. Alternative measures b. individual response against bad behavior 
c. Rehabilitation c. Extra judicial proceedings 

78. Dyplastic is also known as?


a. Mixed type b.Asthenic
c. Athletic d. Pyknic

79. A child deserted by his parents or guardians for six continuous months is classified
as,
a. Dependent b. neglected
c. abused d. Abandoned

80. Which of the following is not a symptom of dysocial behavior? 


a. Failure to conform to social norms
b. Consistent irresponsibility, as reflected in a poor work history 
c. Lack of guilt for wrongdoings
d. Episode of schizophrenia like illogical thinking 
 
81.Police officer shall treat official business as much, and shall not impart the same to
anyone except those for whom it is intended, or as directed by his superior officer, or as
required by law.
a. Criminal investigation b. Confidential Information
c. Admission d. Confession
82. Who has parental authority over legitimate or adopted children?
a. Father b. mother
c. Grand Parents d. father and mother

83. In the past, psychologist assumed that they could best understand human behavior
by searching for a stable, consistent personality dispositions or traits that exert orderly
generalized effects ion behaviors. Which among the following theory on criminal
behavior is not consistent with the previous statement? 
A. Strain Theory B. Psychological Determination
c. Psychoanalytical Theory d. Behavioral descriptions

84. What program is concerned with creating a favorable public image of the police?
a. public relations
b. Human relations 
c. press relations
d. community relations

85. A theory that is based on utilitarian concept of free will and greatest good of the
greatest number.
a. Deterrence theory
b. Free will theory
c. Hedonistic theory
d. Classical theory

86. It refers to a quantity or “characteristic” that has two or more mutually exclusive
values of properties.
a. Indicative
b. Theoretical framework
c. Hypothesis 
d. Variable

87. Research starts with a problem and ends with a problem. What characteristics is
this?
a. Analytical
b. Empirical
c. Cyclical
d. Logical

88. It is a psychosexual stage where the source of gratification is the mouth.


a. Latency stage
b. Anal stage
c. Phallic stage 
d. Oral stage
89. In criminological research and statistics, the facts and observations that researchers
gather by their own measurements for the purpose of a particular study is called:
a. secondary data
b. substitute data
c. primary data
d. tertiary data

90. This phase of crisis management is designed to predict or prevent the probability of
occurrence of crises and at the same time prepared to handle them with these occur?
a. -active
b. Reactive
c. inactive
d. Pro-active

91. Study of human mind in relation to criminality.


a. Criminal psychology
b. Criminal psychiatry
c. Criminal physical anthropology
d. Criminal demography

92. A theory that is based on utilitarian concept of free will and greatest good of the
greatest number.
a. Deterrence theory
b. Free will theory
c. Hedonistic theory
d. Classical theory

93. He is physiognomist who was one of the first to suggest the link between facial
figures and crime.
a. Johann Kaspar Lavater
b. Cesar Lombroso
c. Hanz Gall
d. Cesare Becarria

94. The study of standards of conduct and moral judgement.


a. Ethics
b. logic 
c. Community relations
d. Psychology

95. It is defined as a dereliction of police duties either because of malfeasance,


misfeasance or nonfeasance:
a. Police Misbehavior
b. Police Misconduct
c. Police Deviancy
d. Police discipline
96. Davao City Police Office has recorded a crime volume of 1050 for the first and
second quarter of 2017. For the period covered 1020 of these cases were solve. What
is the Crime solution efficiency of DCPO?
a. 79.1%
b. 201.6%
c. 102.9%
d. 97.1%

97. What aggressive behavior includes cursing/swearing, intentional destruction of


property, and self-destructive behaviors?
a. Interactive
b. Isolated
c. Overt
d. Covert
98. This unit charged for the coordinative efforts of the five (5) pillars of the Philippine
CJS. 

a. DND
b. NAPOLCOM
c. Peace and Council (POC)
d. Office of the President

99. The one who makes complete estimate of the crisis situation and plans his courses
of actions upon arrival at the incident area while negotiation is in progress is the:
a. Chief Negotiator
b. Support Unit Commander
c. Tactical Commander
d. Fire Fighting team

100. What perspective in Criminology probes the situational or environmental action and
examines the underlying conditions within the environment that may encourage criminal
behavior?
a. Criminal Anthropology
b. Psychiatric Criminology
c. Sociological Criminology
d. Psychological Criminology
JURISPRUDENCE

1. A married man has a date with a woman who is his wife. But the wife followed and
surprised them inside the hotel room. Did the husband commit concubinage?

a. All of them are correct


b. No, because the husband did not cohabit with the woman
c. No, because sexual intercourse is not under scandalous circumstance
d. No, because the husband did not bring the woman in the conjugal dwelling

2. Mr. M found a luggage containing assorted cell phones. He delivered the same to the
police but the police sold the cell phones and appropriated the proceeds for himself. can
the police be charged of theft considering that he is not the actual finder?

(bisan dili sya actual finder sa cp consider ghapn sya as actual finder in law so, theft
kaso nya dli malver. Kay public funds mn gna mean ana tas ang theft taking simple
property) 

a. Yes, but for malversation b. No, because he is not the actual finder
c. No, but he is civilly liable d. Yes, because he is finders in law

3. A penal law is ALWAYS prospective in its application. This statement is___.

a. True, otherwise people who committed the act before the law will be made liable 
b. False because it may be given retroactive application if the new law imposes a
heavier penalty
c. False because the reason why a law becomes criminal is precisely to punish the
prohibited act.
d. False because it may also be given retroactive effect if favourable to the
accused who is not a habitual Delinquent.

4. In filing a complaint or information, how is the real nature of the crime charged
determined?

a. Law specifically violated b. Evidences to be presented


c. Facts recited in the complaint of information d. Title at the charged sheet

5. In all criminal cases appealed to the court of appeals, the party appealing the case
shall be called _.

a. Offending party b. Adverse party


c. appellee d. Appellant

6. Any person who by direct provision of law, elected or appointment in charged or


appointment in charged with protection of life and property and maintenance of public
order.
a. Public officer b. Agent of person in authority
c. Person in Authority d. Police Officer

7. A boxed B and B fell down; his head hit on the concrete pavement which caused
internal hemorrhage. B died as a result. What is a crime committed by A?

A. homicide b. accidental murder


c. Murder d. Negligence resulting to homicide

8.It is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to


engender a well-founded belief that a crime has been committed and the respondent is
probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.

A .Pre-trial b. Preliminary investigation


c. Prosecution d. Inquest

9. It is a penalty prescribed by law composed of three distinct penalties, each forming a


period: the lightest of them shall be the minimum, the next the medium, and the most
severe the maximum.

a Subsidiary penalty b. Complex penalty


c.Juridical penalty d. Periods of penalty

10. SHARI’A court was created under PD 1083, known as Muslim code on personal
laws approved February 14, 1997. What is the equivalent of the SHARI’A COURT to the
existing regular courts in our Country?

a.MCTC b.CMIC
c. COURT d. RTC

11. If a person killed another, not knowing that the latter was his son, will he be guilty Of
parricide?

a. No, because of error in personae but liable for murder b. No, but liable for murder
c. Yes, because of their relationship d. all of the above

12. When more than three armed male factors take part in the commission of robbery.
This is known as

a .Big-time Robbery b. Robbery in band


c. Brigandage d. Robbers

13. Lito Tidor, a known rapist and drug addict in their barangay killed his old and ailing
foster father Tonyo because the foster father failed to give money to Lito Tidor to buy
shabu. What crime is committed?
a. Homicide b. No crime
c. Murder d. Parricide

14. Cardo found a cellphone worth 65,000.00 pesos belonging to Vivita. Cardo fails to
return the cellphone to Vivita or the local authorities. What crime is committed by
Cardo?

a. piercing b. qualified theft


c. Theft d. simple theft

15. The best time an accused may move to quash the complaint or information.

a. Before filing of the complaint b. Arraignment


c. after filing of the complaint d. before entering his plea

16. X, Y, and Z are Maute pirate, while on high seas they boarded and seized MV
Marawi, a vessel belonging to DINO SHIPPING LINES. They looted everything inside
the vessel including personal belongings of the crew and the passengers and killed the
captain. What crime is committed?

a. Robbery b. Piracy
c. mutiny d. Qualified piracy

17. Intoxicating the victim after which 4 accused armed with a knife gang-rape the
victim. Rape in this case is aggravated by:

a. Superior strength b. treachery


c. means to weaken the defense d. band

18. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than six months. They live together with
the children of Lea from her first husband. Charlie had sexual relationship with Jane, 14
year old daughter of Lea. Jane loves Charlie very much. What crime was committed by
Charlie, if any?

a.Simple seduction b.rape


c.Consented abduction d. qualified seduction

19. What crime, if any, is committed by a policewoman who made immoral advances to
the snatcher under her custody?

a. Acts of lasciviousness b. Abuse against chastity

c. no crime d. Indecent proposal


20. With intent to kill, A fired his gun on B. it did not hit B. Then A spontaneously
desisted instead of firing his gun again. What is the crime committed?

a. grave threat b. alarms and scandal


c. attempted felony d. Illegal discharge

21. A, because of his family problem concerning his adulterous wife committed suicide
in front of his two children Bino and Lito by drinking a poison. Is committing suicide a
crime?

a. Sometimes b. Yes
c. No d. It depends

23. The following are not the different kinds of jurisdiction of the court except:

a Higher court b. Secondary


c. Compulsory d. Limited

24. Dino agreed to kill Binoy in consideration of the 50,000.00 pesos from Caloy, a
corrupt politician of the City Sepngit. What is the criminal liability of Dino?

a. ACCOMPLICE b. Accessory
c. Principal d.NONE

25. What is the basis of exempting A from criminal liability under Article 12 for the
Revised Penal Code?

a. NONE OF THE ABOVE b. Complete absence of intelligence


c. Complete absence of freedom of action d. Complete absence of intent

26. Which among the following regular courts have an appellate jurisdiction?

a. MCTC b. RTC
c.MTC d. Sandiganbayan court

27. The judgment rendered by the trial court changes the nature of the offense from a 
non-bailable to bailable. Where can the bail application be resolved?

a. Metropolitan Trial Court b. Regional Trial Court


c. Appellate Court d. Trial Court
28. A vice mayor has been courting his secretary but the secretary always turned down
and avoided him. When they were alone in one (1) afternoon, he locked the secretary
inside their office. About an hour had passed the secretary started crying so he opened
the door and allowed the secretary to go home. What crime is committed?

a. Attempted arbitrary detention b. Arbitrary detention


c. Attempted illegal detention d. illegal detention

29. The power includes the duty of the court to settle actual controversies involving
rights which are legally demandable and enforceable.

a. Incidental power b. Judicial review


c. Judicial Power d. Adjudicatory power

30. The authority of the court to take cognizance of a case in the Court of First Instance.

a. Exclusive Jurisdiction b. General Jurisdiction


c. Original Jurisdiction d. Appellate Jurisdiction

31. Which of the following statement is NOT true?

a. None of these
b. A person who acts by virtue of a justifying circumstance does not transgress the law
because there is nothing unlawful in the act as well as in the intention of the actor
c. In justifying circumstance, there is no civil liability except in causing damage to
another state of necessity
d. In justifying circumstance, there is no civil liability except in causing damage to
another is a state of necessity in exempting circumstances there is a crime but there is
no criminal

32. The judge who issued the warrant or granted the application shall fix a reasonable
amount of bail considering primarily, but not limited to, the following factors EXCEPT:

a. Nature and circumstances of the offense b. All of the above


c. Financial ability of the used to give bail d.  Penalty for the offense
charged

33. Voluntary but without malice failing to do an act from which material damage results
by reason of inexcusable lack of precautions on the part of the person performing the
act.

a. NEGLIGENCE b. Reckless imprudence


c. Imprudence d.Reckless negligence

34. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to


annoy or insult others.

a.Alarm and scandal b. Tumultuous disturbances


c.Karaoke d. Charivari

35. Ruel, a government employee was charged with Malversation of Public funds for
appropriating for himself P50, 000 govt. funds under his custody, after conviction he
was given a general pardoned by the President of the Philippines. After being set free
he immediately assume office. His superior barred him from office for reason that the
pardon did not expressly restore him in office or to his former position. Is the contention
of Ruel's superior valid?

a. No, the pardon in couch in general hence it includes the civil aspect such as
restoration in office 
b. yes, because the pardon is in council in general, it does in any way mention Ruel's
restoration of public office
c. None of the foregoing
d. No. the pardon by the President restores him in office even if the same is not
expressly remitted in the pardon.

36. One of the exceptions to the Prospective applications of penal laws is?

a. NONE OF THESE
b. If the penal laws is favorable to the accused
c. If one commit an offense on Philippine ship or airship
d. Treaty Stipulations and Laws of preferential application

37. Ordering the victim to exhibit to the offenders her complete nakedness for about ten
minutes is a classic example of aggravating circumstances of

a Nocturnity b. Ignominy
c. Astucia d. Alevosia

38. Is the adjudication by court that the accused is guilty or not guilty of the offense
charged and the imposition on him of the proper penalty and civil liability.

a. Judgment b.Court ruling


c. Decision d. Sentence

39. A person designated by the Court to assist destitute litigants.

a. Amicus curiae b. Counsel de officio

c. Attorney on record d. Special counsel

40. Pedro is a suspected drug pusher and user of barangay Ephedra. Mollong is an
agent of PDEA who plan to conduct buy bust operation against Pedro. A buy bust
operation conducted in connection to drug related offenses is a form of __.

a.Instigation b.Proximate cause


c.Absolutory cause d. ENTRAPMENT
41. It is a written statement charging a person of an offense, subscribed by the offended
party, any peace officer, or other public officer charged with the enforcement of the laws
violated.

a. Criminal procedure b. Preliminary investigation


c. Complaint d. Information

42. Sander was convicted of homicide. In the judgment, the court finds 3 mitigating
circumstances and only one are aggravating circumstances. Assuming that the penalty
for Homicide is Reclusion Temporal. What is the proper penalty to be imposed for
Sander?

a. Reclusion Temporal medium b.Reclusion Temporal Maximum


c. Reclusion Temporal Minimum d. none of these

43. Prof. Dino de Laurente gave a failing grade of 74 to one of his students, Ronnie.
When the two met the following day at the school canteen, Ronnie slap Prof. de
Laurente on the face. What was the crime committed by Ronnie?

a. Direct assault b. Grave coercion


c. Slight physical injuries d. Corruption of Public officials

47. Is a miscarriage of the blow thereby hitting a different and/or another victim, the
intended and the resultant crime is called? What do you call this circumstance?

a. Praeater Intentionem b. Aberratio Tetus


c. Error in Personae Dura lex sed lex

45. One of the following is not a crime against National security and Law of Nations

a. Flight to enemy's country b. Espionage


c. Treason d. REBELLION

46. How many days is the trial period except trial as otherwise authorized by the
Supreme Court?

a. 180 days b.200 days


c.160 days d. 220 days

47. How is accidental drunkenness appreciated as a circumstance in the commission of


an offense?

a. Aggravating b. Mitigating
c. Justifying d. Exempting

48. A policeman may be arrested even without warrant when he


a. is not improper uniform b. has pending administrative case

c. indiscriminately fires his issued firearm d. is on AWOL

49. How about if in the above example, it is one of the crew member, who with intent to
gain and with force and violence upon person took all properties belonging to
passengers. What crime is committed?
  
a. theft b. Mutiny
c. Piracy d.Robbery

50. A person who shot another with a firearm and with no intent to kill is liable of:

a. Physical injury b. Discharge of Firearm


c. Attempted Murder d.Homicide

51. Among the following courts under BP. 129, which Court shall have original
jurisdiction to issue writ of mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, habeas corpus and quo
warranto?

a. Supreme court b. Office of the OMBUDSMAN


c . Military tribunal d. Court of Appeals

52. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man
not her husband who knows her to be married, although the marriage can later declared
void.

a. immorality b. Concubinage
c. Adultery d. Bigamy

53. Which of these is NOT a requisite of "avoidance of greater evil or injury

a. That the injury feared be greater than the injury done to avoid it
b That the evil sought to be avoided actually exists
c. That there be no practical
d. That the means used to avoid the injury is lawful

54. Dino living with his common law wife Dina has a sexual intercourse with Clara, his
officemate and childhood sweetheart whom Dino knows to be married with Ben. What
crime was committed by Dino?

a. Adultery b. Bigamy
c. none d. Concubinage
55. Driver Matapang did not give a tong in tong collection racket by the police. He was
apprehended by POI Buaya telling him that he was driving carelessly. Matapang was
brought to the police station and was detained. When POI Buaya reported the following
day. he opened the cell and told Matapang to go home. What crime is committed?

a. Illegal detention b. none of the above


c. Arbitrary detention d. Unlawful arrest

56. It is a juridical condition of penalty where nobody should be imprisoned for a crime
committed by others.

a. Personal b. CERTAIN
c. Indivisible penalty d. Divisible penalty

57. The law creating the Revised Penal Code is?


a. Act. No 3815 b. Act No.1123
c. NONE OF THE ABOVE d. Act No.2311

58. One of the two requisites of admissibility of evidence is when it is relevant to the
issue and what is the other requisite?

a. it observes continuity of rules b. It is not excluded by law or rules


c. It multiples admissibility changes d. It has a heavy weight of evidence

59. What is meant by a "demurrer to evidence"?

a. Motion to inhibit b. Motion to deny


c. Motion to postpone d. Motion to dismiss

60. Mayoralty candidates A & B in the city of Naga are contesting each other's votes
garnered during the last elections. In this case, what could be the best evidence to
present in court?

a. Certification by board of canvassers b. Witnesses


c. Registration of voters d.Ballot

61. Which among the following is not included in the classification but it is a part of the
organization of courts.

a. Special court b. lower court


c. Constitutional court d. Statutory court

62. Courts which have the power of review or supervision over lower courts.

a. Higher court b. Superior court


c. Inferior court d Supreme court
63. It is the judgement rendered by the court without trial.

a. Summary judgment b. Adjudication


c. Summary hearing d. Final verdict

64. A person who threw a hand grenade at his victim who was killed as a result of the
explosion is guilty of:

a Homicide b. Murder
c. Accidental murder d.terrorism

65. When the accused refuses to plea or makes a conditional plea during arraignment.
What plea should be entered for him?

a. NOT Guilty b. Trial will proceed


c. Postpone the arraignment d. Guilty

66. The following are the bases of summary judgment except:

a. Testimonies d. Answer
c.Affidavits d. Depositions

67. Which of the following terms means resorting to any device to conceal identity?

a.CRAFT b. Fraud
c. Knowledge d. Disguise

68. A person is found dead with wounds in the back, neck and other parts of the body.
What is the crime committed?

a. accidental murder b. Murder


c. terrorism d. Homicide

67. X, pretending as the owner of a house and lot sold to Y, X is liable for a crime of:

a.Usurpation b.fraud 
c.novation d. Swindling

70. Which of the following statement is NOT true?

a. In exempting circumstances there is a crime but there is no criminal


b.A person who acts by virtue of a justifying circumstance does not transgress the law
because there is nothing unlawful in the act as well as in the intention of the actor
c. In justifying circumstances there is no civil liability except in causing damage to
another in state of necessity
d. None of these

71. Molato, a college student and while playing with his friend Carla inserted a sex toy
to the sex organ of Carla that causes the continuous bleeding and injury of Carla's sex
organ. What crime is committed by Molato?

a.Physical injury b. Acts of lasciviousness


c. Sexual assault d. Rape with carnal knowledge

72. A search warrant may be issued for the search and seizure of personal property
which includes the following:

A. List of properties b. Real property


c. Fruits of the poison tree d. Subject of the offense

73. One of the exceptions of the General applications of our penal laws is:

a. If the penal laws is favourable to the accused


b. if one commit the offense on Philippine ship or airship
c. Treaty Stipulations and to preferent application
d. None of the foregoing

74. It refers to methods prescribed by law of the apprehension and prosecution of


person accused of any criminal offense and for their punishment in case of conviction

a. Substantive Law b. Arrest 


c. Criminal Procedure d. Adjective law

75. It consists in the successive execution, by the same individual, of different criminal
acts, upon any of which no conviction has yet been declared.

a. Continuous crime b. Plurality of crimes


c. complex crime d. Delito compuesto

76. All but one is pecuniary liabilities of persons criminally liable,

a. condonation b. Fine 
c. REPARATION d. Cost of proceedings

77. Is reckless imprudence a crime in itself?

a. Sometimes b. it depends on the act


C. no d. Yes
78. What must be evidence be in order to become relevant to the issue?

a. Not be offensive to our senses


b. Not be excluded by the rules
c. Has direct bearing and actual connection to the facts in issue
d. Should not be contrary to morals

79. What is the validity of a warrant of arrest?

a. 10 days b.10 months 


c. Lifetime d. 10 years

80. Prescription of the crime commences to run:

a. Upon escape of the accused


b. Upon re-appearance of the accused
c. Upon filing of the complaint or information
d. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party

81. What court exercises original jurisdiction in all cases involving violations of R.A.
3019, The Anti-graft and corrupt practices act.

a . Sandiganbayan b. Ombudsman
c. Tanodbayan d. Kangaroo court

82. There was error or irregularity in the course of trial, which remedy is available to the
accused that was found guilty?

a. Appeal b. Escape or evade sentence


c. Motion for reconsideration d. Assassinate the judge

83. The following are all alternative circumstances except.

a. RELATIONSHIP b. Degree of instruction education


c. INTOXICATION d. Habitual drunkard

84. The Philippine Congress enacted RA 7877 on February 14, 1995 primarily to protect
women from sexual harassment in specified places and activities. This law is also
known as the:

a. Anti-Sexual Harassment Act of 1995 b. Gabriela Silang Act of 1995


c. Anti-violence Against Women and their children d. Women's Dignity Set of 1995

85. A 15 years old boy had a sexual congress with his sister who is 30 years older to
him. What crime is committed?
a. Qualified seduction b. Simple seduction
c.Abduction d. Incestuous rape

86. Is trial and hearing, one and the same in all courts?

a. it depends b. Yes
c. SOMETIMES d. No

87. A search warrant may be issued for the search and seizure of personal property,
which includes the following

a Real property b. Subject of the offense


c. Fruits of the poison tree d. List of properties

88. It is the deprivation of material authority, the rights of parental authority or


guardianship of any ward and the right to manage and dispose his property,

a. DISQUALIFICATION b. Indemnification
c. Civil liability d. Civil interdiction

89. It is known as the E-COMMERCE law concerning the admissibility of electronic


evidence.

a. RA. 8792 b. B.P. 129


c. R.A. 9364 d. RA. 9124

90. X and Y are husband and wife, Y is pregnant for their first child for almost 6 months,
one day, they had a heated misunderstanding concerning X's gambling activities at the
MRW Casino and without intention of injuring Y, X box Y that cause the untimely
abortion of the baby. What crime committed?

a. Unintentional abortion b.Parricide


c.Serious physical injury d.infanticide

90. X and Y are husband and wife, Y is pregnant for their first child for almost 6 months,
one day, they had a heated misunderstanding concerning X's gambling activities at the
MRW Casino and without intention of injuring Y, X box Y that cause the untimely
abortion of the baby. What crime committed?

a. Unintentional abortion b.Parricide


c.Serious physical injury d.infanticide

91. One of the exceptions to the Prospective applications of penal laws is?
a. all of these
b. If the penal laws is favorable to the accused
c. Treaty Stipulations and Laws of preferential application
d. If one commit an offense on Philippine ship or airship

92. Who among the following is not authorized to conduct preliminary investigation?

a. Provincial Prosecutor b. RTC Judge


c. National State Prosecutor d. None of the above

93. Which of the following circumstances are considered mitigating?

a. Incomplete justifying and incomplete exempting circumstances


b. Offender had no intention to commit so grave a wrong that as that committed
c. all of the above
d. defender is over seventy (70) years old

94. What is the effect of the appeal when the appellant escapes from prison, jump bail
or flees to foreign country during the pendency of the appeal?

a. Dismiss the Appeal b. Dismiss the Trial


c. Stop the Trial d.Postpone the Appeal

95. The infraction of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly
regulation of the affairs of the society.

a. Mala Inse b. prudence


c. Mala Prohibita d. Negligence

96. Through violence and intimidation, the strikers prevented the non-participating
workers from entering the premises of the company. What is the crime committed

a. Light coercion b. Grave threats


c. grave coercion d. none of these

97. The Supreme Court is known as to classification of court is:

a. Fourth level b. Second level


c. First level d. Third level

99. How many justices composed the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice?

a. 60 b.10
c.15 d. 113
99. SHARIA COURTS are constituted as provided for in the Code of Muslim Personal
Laws of the as____.

a. P.D. No. 1606 B.P. Blg. 1202


c. PD No. 1083 d. R.A No 1125

100. The following are not examples how criminal liability is totally extinguished except:

a. PAROLE b. Conditional pardon


c. AMNESTY d. Commutation of sentence
LEA

1. When patrol officer visually observes a weapon during pat-down search, a more
secure search position may be:
a. Standing position b. Hands placed against a stationary object and feet spread
apart
c. All of these

2. The use of the squad wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line, would be most likely
for
a Civil disturbance/disobedience b. Teachers' hunger strike
c. Combat maneuvers d. Disaster and relief

3.______means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity of


command from top to bottom of organization.
a. coordination b. monitoring
c. authority d audit

4. The type of undercover operation wherein techniques are applied for a longer time
and are considered as the most different investigative activity yet the most rewarding.
a. Penetration b. Casing
c. Surveillance d. Undercover operation

5. The concise record containing vital information, necessary for the arrest of a crime
suspect is called:
a. Intelligence summary b. Modus operandi file
c. Investigation report d. Arrest shoot and booking report

6. When patrol officers saturates a given area with additional units, walking beats to
increase the aura of police omnipresence, what particular patrol operational tactics do
they employ?
a. High visibility patrol b. Low visibility patrol
c. Directed deterrent patrol d. Split force patrol

7. The performance rating is the evaluation of the traits, behavior and effectiveness of a
police officer on the job as determined by work standards. This is done through:
a. Rating b Compensation
c. Judgment d. Appraisal

8. It is the ongoing process, which ensures that new risks are recognized and that
established deterrents remain, necessary and cost effective.
a. Risk analysis b. Inspection
c. Interrogation d. Evaluation

9. Before a security expert can recommend, what type of security will be need by an
industrial establishment, there is a need for him to undertake a:
a. Security survey b. Security education
c. Security training d. Security check

10. The visible symbol of Law and order" in the community is


a. President of the Philippines b. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
c. Uniformed Policeman d. The Parish Priest

11. In planning a police staff study, the planner premises his __ from the findings of said
study.
a. Recommendation b. Brief
c. Ideas d. Conclusions

12. Best practice while conducting patrol at the central business district during the night
shift.
a. Walk near the road curb b. Stay on the high ground such as roof top
c. Walk near the buildings d. Stay in the shadows on the building

13. What is meant by evaluation of C-1?


a. Information comes from a fairly reliable source and is doubtfully true
b. Information comes from a fairly reliable source and is confirmed from other sources
c . Information comes from an unreliable source and is improbably true
d. Information comes from an unreliable source and is probably true

14. What parcel of the Holy Bible you can see the first recorded intelligence in the
history?
a. Number 13:17 b. Number 3:17
c. Number 17:13 d. Number 7:13

15. Information and materials, the unauthorized disclosure of which, while not
endangering national security would be prejudicial to the prestige of the nation are
classified as:
a. Top secret (LMS) b. Confidential
c. Restricted d. Secret

16. Under our existing policy, how many days are given to the mayor to choose the
Chief of Police from receipt of the referral?
a. Within Three (3) days b. Within Five (5) days
c.Within Fifteen (15) days d. Within Ten (10) days

17. In the Philippines the PNP is under NAOPOLCOM, Japan National Police
a. Police Administrative Bureau b. Public Safety Bureau
c. National Public Safety Commission d. National Police Agency

18. The following are the management process EXCEPT:


a. Coordinating b. Organizing
c. Leading           d. Planning
19. A patrol duty that prevents crime through the noticeable presence of police vehicles
and uniformed policemen is called:
a. Reactive enforcement b. Protective Enforcement
c. Preventive Enforcement d. Selective Enforcement

20. These are barbed wires place above the vertical fence in order to increase physical
protection of establishments or installations.
a. Cellar guard b. Top tower
c. Top guard d. Tower guard house

21. Which of the various police laws has for its purposes the promotion of a higher
degree of efficiency in the organization, administration and operation of local police
agencies and to place the local police service on a professional level?
a. RA 8551 b. RA 4864
c. RA 9263 d. RA 6975

22. Its role is to provide law enforcement agencies with criminal intelligence and
information nationally and internationally about major criminals and serious crimes.

a. Office of Strategic Services b. International Police Organization


c. National Criminal Intelligence Service d. Police National Computer

23. The assignment of a particular worker to a particular task which fits most his ability
known as:
a. Staffing (LMS) b. Employment
c Deployment d. Specialization

24. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United Kingdom and it is also
referred Box 850 because of its old post office box number.
a. Security Service (MI-5) b. Secret Intelligence (MI -6)
c. Defense Intelligence Staff d. Government Communication Headquarter

25. They refer to a factor which influences patrol force deployment and depends on how
the public view the role of the police in the community
a. Type of crime and police problem experienced b. Community expectations
c. Zoning plan of the city d. Financial material and human
resources

26. Before a security expert can recommend, what type of security will be need by an
industrial establishment, there is a need for him to undertake a:
a. Security training b. Security education
c.  Security survey d. Security check

27. The waiver program for initial appointment in the PNP will apply only when:
A.The number of qualified applicant is below the maximum annual quota
b. The number of qualified applicant is above the minimum annual quota
c. The number of qualified applicant is below the minimum annual quota
d. None of these

28. The following changes must be made in police operating procedures if the
investigative skills of patrol personnel are to be employed to their fullest advantage,
EXCEPT: 

a.Patrol officers should be encouraged to devote more time to the investigation of more
crimes to which they.respond. 
b. Patrol officer should be better trained and equipped to conduct routine investigations
c. Patrol supervision should insist that patrol officers simply make a brief report and
return to patrol duties
d. The patrol supervision should be able to provide the patrol officer with assistance in
determining whether a case has sufficient merit to warrant immediate follow up
investigation by the patrol officer

29. The utilization of units or elements of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives
and properties, ensuring public safety and other related activities.
a. Employment b. Utilization
c. Deployment d. Disposition

30. What do we refer to in determining the crimes per 100,000 populations


a. Crime rate b. Peace and order situation
c. Crime suppression d. Crime statistics

31. To determine a supervisor's span of control, what has to be taken into


consideration? 
a. The number of superiors who gives him orders
b. The number of subordinates who directly reports to him
c. The functions for which he assumes full responsibility
d. The number of superiors to whom he reports

32. Power esteeming from the relief that the person exercising the power is doing so
lawfully and rightfully, generally in connection with his/her position of accepted authority.
a. Legitimate power b. Coercive power (LMS)
c. Reward power d. Expert power

33. It represents an attempt to integrate the police and the community interest into a
working relationship so as to produce the desire objective of peacekeeping in the
community. It is a grassroots approach undertaken to bring the people and the police
together in a cooperative situation.
a. Team policing b. People empowerment
c. Society interventions d. Community participation
34. The principle of police organization states that there should be one man who is in
command of the entire organization.
a. Scalar Principle b. Chain of Command
c. Unity of Command d. Span of Control

35. The following belongs to the three broad goals of the police organization except:
a. Arrest of criminal b. Ensure public safety
c. Protect life and property d. Maintain peace and order

36. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than upon
high visibility patrol techniques?
a. Decoy patrol b. High visibility patrol
c. Low visibility patrol d. Directed patrol

37. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation of local chief executives as


representative of the NAPOLCOM.
I. Repeated unauthorized absences;
II. Abuse of authority
III. Habitual tardiness
IV. Providing material support to criminals and
V. Engaging acts inimical to national security

a. I, II, V, IV b. I, II, IV, III


c. I, II, III, V d. I, II, III, IV, V

38. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary considerations in the:
a. Spoils system b. Promotional system
c. Two-party system d. Evaluation system

39. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to
apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting them believe that their crimes will not
be detected?
a. Theory of Police Omnipresence b. Low profile theory
c. High visibility d. Team policing

40.The assignment of a particular worker to a particular task which fits most his ability
known as:

a Staffing b. Employment
c. Deployment d. Specialization

41. The advantage of a strong patrol more than make up for slightly inferior
performance. More patrolmen are then made available for emergency, and the more
active and widespread the patrol; the more apparent is their presence, thus, promoting
the impression of
a. efficiency b. suspenseness
c. omnipresence d. effectiveness

42. The concept of police service which states that the yardstick of police efficiency is
the absence of crime refers to:
a. Home rule b. Modern
c. Old d. Continental

43. What is the system of natural and man-made barriers placed between the and the
object/person/matter being protected?
a. Communication security b. Personal security
c. Physical security d. Personnel security

44. The police theory which states that police is the servant of the people. This theory
currently adopted by the Philippine National Police.
a. Modern b. Home rule
c. Contemporary d. Continental

45. The PNP is accepting applicants which did not meet the upgraded general
qualification provided that the applicants are below the minimum annual quota. If you
are a member of cultural minority, most probably you would use?
a. Educational Waiver b. Height Waiver
c. Age Waiver d. Weight Waiver

46. A new private Security Agency shall be issued a temporary license to operate that is
good
for:
a. One year and six months b. Two (2) years
c. One One (1) Year d. Six months

47. This list includes official and citizens who are cleared to attend meeting in
Malacanang,
a target list b. access list
c. Black list d. white list

48. One of the criteria for promotion which relers to the overall length of service in the
present rank.
a. Government service record b. Time-in-Grade
c. Length of service in the PNP d. Period of permanency in the rank

49. Except for one, listed functions are all operational tasks:
a. Investigation b. Traffic control
c. Inspection and audit d. Patrol

50. An intelligence report classified as A - 2 means


a. The information comes from a completely reliable source and is doubtfully true
b. The information comes from completely reliable source and is probably true
c. The information comes fresh a usually reliable source and is possibly true
d. The information comes from a usually reliable source and is probably true

51. When police officers are not bent on waiting for something to happen and respond
but instead utilizes some other means to effect crime prevention, the focus is said to be
a type of what kind of patrolling?
a. Reactive patrol b. Patrol
c. Police patrol d. Proactive patrol

52. This is the particular provision of the New Philippine Constitution of 1987, which
mandated the establishment of a police which is civilian in character and national in
scope.
a. Sec. 16, Art. VI b. Sec. 6, Art. XVI
c. Sec. 12, Art. III d. Sec 3, Art. XII

53. How are coded messages converted to intelligible languages?


a. Labeling b. Processing
c. Encoding d. Decoding

54. He is the first Filipino chief of the Philippine Constabulary in 1917.


a Gen. Cesar Nazareno
b. Brig. Gen Rafael Crame
c. Col Antonio Torres
d. Col Lamberto Javalera

55. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and ribbon, which constitute the
tangible evidence of an award:
a.Medal b. Decorations
c. Ribbons d. Awards

56. You cannot prevent or predict natural hazards like storms, earthquakes, nor floods.
In order to reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards, as a security officer:
a. Prepare the disaster or emergency plan for those hazards for the firm
b. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
c. Alert your guards when such hazard occurs
d.Not take any concern on such hazards

57. The headquarters of the INTERPOL is located in.


a. Lyon, France b. USA
c. Columbia d. Rome

58. Natural hazards such as storm, earthquakes, floods or lahar cannot be prevented
from occurring. To minimize the disastrous effect of this phenomena, the security officer
must prepare a:
a Civil defense plan b. Disaster or emergency plan
c Guard deployment plan d. Security educational plan
59. The modern policing system the world implemented originated from what country?
a. United States b. England
с. Europe d. Japan

60. What is the method of collecting information wherein the investigator tails or
shadows the persons or vehicles?
a. Surveillance b. Photography
c. Casing d. Research

61. Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or lahar cannot be prevented
from occurring. To minimize the disastrous effects of these phenomena, the security
officer must prepare a
a. Security education plan b. Civil defense plan
c. Disaster or emergency plan d. Guard deployment plan

62. It is primarily considered as a line management responsibility,


a. Human Resource Management b. Police public relation
c. Effective media publicity d. Total eradication of criminalities

63. Which of the following is not included in the patrol function?


a. Routine preventive patrol
b. Response for citizen calls for assistance
c. Investigation of crimes after this is reported to the investigation section
d. Inspection of identified hazards

64. Central Intelligence Agency is a civilian intelligence agency of the United States
government responsible for providing national security intelligence to senior United
States policymakers. Who is the first CIA Director?
a. Harry Truman b. Roscoe Hillenkoetter
c. Fabian Ver

65. Surveillance: Shadowing while Stool Pigeon/Squirrel


a. Undercover Agent b. Subject
c. Informer d. Surveillant

66. It is undertaken by shifting and sorting of all available intelligence materials.


a. Integration b. Evaluation
c. Analysis d. Deduction

67. Counter intelligence, security of VIP's and dissemination of propaganda are known
activities of what particular unit within the intelligence organization?
a. Intelligence operations b. Evaluation and distribution division
c. Secret intelligence d. Intelligence proper unit
68. The method of acquiring desired information from a person who is unaware that he
is providing wanted information, and if made aware, may not intend to give information.
a. Interview b. Interrogation
c. Elicitation d. Conversation

69. This type of patrol performs certain specific, predetermined preventative strategies
in a regular and systematic basis.
a Apprehension oriented patrol b. Low visibility patrol
c. Split-force patrol d. Directed deterrent patrol

70. The following are Political Field of security EXCEPT ONE:


a. Financial Security b. National Security
c. Human Security d. International Security

71. Primary obligation to keep forward and maintain actual record of equipment,
supplies, entrusted to an office/personnel.
a. Moral obligation b. Personal responsibility
c. Property responsibility d. Property accountability

72. No determine a supervisor's span of control, what has to be taken into


consideration?
a. The number of superiors to whom he reports
b. The number of subordinates who directly reports to him
с. The number of superiors who gives him orders
d. The functions for which he assumes full responsibility

73. This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding citizens feeling of security
but the reaction of fear for would be violators.
a. Low visibility patrol b. High visibility patrol
c. Police Omnipresence d. Single officer patrol

74. What police approach is applied when the focus of the police organization is the
daily needs of the police personnel?
a. Classical b. Positivist
c. Human relation approach d. Behavioral science

75. A method of gathering information done in a clandestine manner.


a. Overt b. Positive
c. Covert d. Negative

76. The PNP will recruit 5000 new policemen on August 2018 to fill up its quota. Who
among the following applicants is qualified to apply?
a. z who was born on December, 1997
b. w who was born on May 25, 1986
c. X who was born on July 3. 1996
d. Y who was bom on October 15. 1984

77. An account in writing, print or in some other permanent form intended to perpetrate
knowledge of facts or events,
a. Reports b. Police report
c. Police blotter d. Records

78. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to capabilities, vulnerabilities and


probable course of action of foreign nation?
a. Combat intelligence b. Strategic intelligence
c. Police intelligence d. National intelligence

79. In strikes, the police and military line should be at least picket line.
a. 40 b. 100
a c. 50 d. 30

80. Which of the following allowance is given the PNP members every after three (3)
years from the date of entry in the uniformed service?

a. Reimbursable Clothing Allowance b. Replacement Clothing Allowance


c. Replacement Clothing Incentives d. Registered Clothing Allowance

81. An appeal filed with the NAPOLCOM Regional Appellate Board shall be decided
days from receipt of motion of appeal.
a. Fifteen (15) b. Thirty (30)
c. Twenty (20) d. Sixty (60)

82. It is known as the most important principle of intelligence.


a. Principle of selection b. Principle of timeliness
c. Principle of security d. Principle of objectivity

83. Among the classification of documents which do you think is the least priority?
a. Top Secret b. Restricted
c. Secret d. Confidential

84. A patrol beat refers to a:


a. Number of residences to be protected b. Number of crimes to be solved
c. Geographical area to be protected d. Location of police headquarters

85. Offensive measure taken to respond to terrorist attacks.


a. Counter intelligence b. Counter insurgency
c. Counter terrorism d. Counter subversion

86. It is the organized and physical movement of all units and elements of the Philippine
National Police for purposes of crime prevention and control.
a. deploy b. employ
c. deployment d. employment

87. In the PNP what rank is vested with the power to administer oaths?
a. Personnel of Legal Service b. Inspector to Sr. Superintendent
c. SPO1 to SPO4 d. Time-in-grade

88.The color of document used to seek the arrest of wanted persons with a view to
extradition.
a. Red Notice b. Blue Notice
c. Yellow Notice d. Green Notice

89. What police approach is applied when the focus of the police organization is the
daily needs of the police personnel?
a. Positivist b. Human relation approach
c. Classical d. Behavioral science

90. That unit in the police force best suited and is primarily responsible for taking direct
action when crime is committed is:
a. Investigation Division b. Intelligence division
c. Patrol Division d. Criminalistics Division

91. A person's suitability to be given a security clearance is determined through a


process called
a. Security investigation b. Security promotion
c. Security training d. Security education

92. Under our existing policy, how many days are given to the mayor to choose the
Chief of Police from receipt of the referral?
a. Within Three (3) days b. Within Ten (1) days
c. Within Five (5) days d. Within Fifteen (15) days

93. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to
apprehend criminals 
by soothing them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
a. Low profile theory b. Theory of police omnipresence
c. High visibility d. Team policing

94. PNP is under NAPOLCOM, an attached agency to the DILG. The Hong Kong Police
in under the:
a. Security Bureau b. National Police Agency
c. defense Bureau d. Department of Interior

95. The performance rating is the evaluation of the traits, behavior and effectiveness of
a police officer on the job as determined by work standards. This is done through:
a. Judgment b. Appraisal
c. Rating d. Compensation

96. A person's suitability to be given security clearance is determined through a process


called
a. Security investigation b. Security training
c. Security promotion d. Security education

97. It is the method of filing records according to location and addresses of the
correspondents
a. Geographic methods b. Numeric methods
c. Chronological methods d. Alphabetical methods

98. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of irresistible urge due to
unexpected opportunity and little chance of detection?
a. systematic pilferer b. ordinary pilferer
c. casual pilferer d. unusual pilferer

99. A type of Police organization the PNP adopts where it combines the flow of
communication from the line structure with the staff offices that service, advise, and
support them:
a. Line b. Functional
c. Administrative d. Line and staff

100. It is the protection of high-ranking officials from harm, kidnapping and similar acts.
a. Asset protection b. VIP security
c. Physical security d. Document security
CDI

1. When sketching traffic accident, the point of reference should be anything


which are fixed or permanent in nature, while for the vehicles involved, the
reference point should be.
   A. Center of the front and rear bumper
B. Edge of the front and rear bumper
B. Center of the axle
B. Corner of the edges of fender
2. The engagement in the business for profit or enlistment of services of any
other person for the purpose of prostitution
A. Prostitution  B. Slave  C. Slavery  D. White slavery
3. In the philippines, which of the following agencies must be accountable for
an effective driver control program?
A. LTO         B. Police  C. Courts  D. All of These
4. A method extinguishment of fire by reducing the heat below the ignition
temperature.
A. Blanketing  B. Cooling  C. Starving  D. Smothering
5. The repealed law of the fire code of the Philippines.
A. P.D 1185   B. R.A 9165  C. R.A 9514  D. P.D 1163
6. This is a kind of crime scene search where the searchers gathered at the
center and proceed outward along the spokes.     A. Strip method   B.
Sprial method
C.Wheel method D. Zone method
7. The skeletal remains of a person may help determine the identity of the victim
  A. NO    B. YES   C. Anthropology  D. Odontology
8. A classification of drugs under R.A No. 9165 which have the effects of stupor,
melancholy and dullness of the mind with delusions.
  A. Inhalants  B. Hallucinogens  
C. Depressants  D. Stimulants
9. A slang term which refers to an opiate addict.
  A. Junks B. Juni   C. Junkie  D. Speed freaks
10. Agent Diablo was assigned to conduct searched in the crime which is
approximately circular or oval. What is the best searched method agent Diablo
should apply?
  A. Zone   B. Wheel   C. Spiral   D. Strip
11. The highest order of evidence, it is known as the UNIMPEACHABLE WITNESS
because it does not lie, no faulty memory and not bias.
  A. Physical evidence B. Associate evidence
C. Expert witness D. Tracing evidence
12. The first essential step in a homicide investigation.
A. Identifying the Cadaver  B. Establishing death
C. Crime happen really     D. Identifying suspect
13. It refers to pavement or road markings for use of pedestrians:
A. Crosswalk lines B. Stop lines
C. No passing zone D. Overpass lines
14. These are classified as Regulated drugs according to Legal Categories.
A. Barbiturates, Depressants, Hypnotics
B. Barbiturates, Narcotics, Amphetamines
C. Barbiturates, Inhalants, Narcotics
D. Barbiturates, Hypnotics, Amphetamines
15. What is the process of determining factors on how accidents occur and on
how to mitigate and prevent its effects through clinical and statistical method?
A. Accident Evaluation B. Accident Analysis
C. Accident Assessment D. Accident Examination
16. A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.
A. Confession  B. Admission  C. Deposition D. Accusation
17. All of the following area acts of terrorism except:
A. Cybercrime  B. Killing  C. Bombing  D. Kidnapping
18. Republic act no. 9514, approved on December 19, 2008 is an act establishing
comprehensive fire code of the Philippines, repealing other purposes or better
known as revised fire code of the Philippines is now our main law, what is a
process of determining who the perpetrator of the fire incident is?
  A. Arson Investigation B. Fire Triangle
C. Fire Technology D. Fire Investigation
19. The term of a special crime investigator in solving a crime
A. Crime lab Technician B. Evidence
C. Suspect D. Witness
20. It is an official injury made by the Police Officer on facts and circumstances
regarding the death of a person
A. Identification B. Preservation
C. Handling D. Investigation
21. An event that may occur during an accident which refuse to that place and
time after beyond which the accident cannot be prevented by traffic unit under
consideration.
A. Final position B. Point of no escape
C. Stopping D. Perception delay
22.It is an investigation that deals with the study of major crimes based on the
application of special investigation techniques.
A. Investigation B. Special crime investigation
C. Special investigation D. Criminal investigation
23. When two cards coming from different directions reached a four way stop at
the same time, which car has the right of way?
A. The car on the right B. The car which blow its horn first
C. The car on the left D. The car with driver who flashes his
head lights first
24. All of the following are known as destruction of life except:
  A. Infanticide  B. Mutilation  C. Homicide  D. Murder
25. The questioning of a suspected person by law enforcement officers after that
person has been taken into custody.
A. Custodial investigation B. Preliminary investigation
C. Interrogation D. Interview
26. The following are the different techniques in interrogation except:
A. Friendliness B. Sympathetic approach
C. Emotional appeal D. Financial assistance
27. The first important step to take in combating trafficking in women from the
human rights perspective would be:
A. When public official awareness, understanding has been raised and their
commitment to uphold and protect women rights
B. Raise the public officials awareness
C. Raise the public officials understanding
D. All of these
28. As a criminologist/responders to terrorism, how could you protect youself and
the public by isolation terrorist?
A. Downplay potential threats
B. Free the captured victim right away
C. Note down specific danger
D. Collect and share threat information
29. Refers to the practices, tactics and strategies that government, militaries and
other groups adopt in order to fight terrorism.
A. Counter insurgency B. Counter intelligence
C. Counter terrorism D. Interpol
30. The pace and time of which the hazard could have been perceived by a
normal person. It precedes actual perception and is the beginning of perception
delay. This event is known as:
A. Perception of hazard B. Perception delay
C. Actual perception point D. Point of possible perception
31. It refers to the temperature at which the material is not hot enough to keep
burning but still gives off enough vapors to cause a flash across the surface.
A. Boiling point B. Fire point
C. Kindling temperature D. Flash point
32. What is the situation in which the capacity to sustain livelihood and life is
threatened primarily by political factors and in particular by high levels of
violence?
A. Natural Calamity B. Man-Made Disaster
C. Complex Emergency D. Terrorism
33. Can a child below 15 years of age be employed?
A. It depends whether he has a working permit
B. No, he is a minor
C. NONE of these
D. Yes, provided that employer endure protection health, safety and name of
the child.
34. It is criminal activity intended primarily for the pursuit of profits through
illegal means. This was founded in 1930 in America during the prohibition era by
Charles Lucky Luciano.
A. Criminal Syndicate B. Mafia
C. Organized crime D. Omerta

35.A braking skid mark interrupted at frequent regular intervals or the skid
mark made by a bouncing wheel on which brakes keep the wheel from
turning is known as: (Skip marks)
A. Skid marks B. Gap skid tire marks
C.Scuff marks D. Yawn marks
36. Which indicator in the investigation of terrorism gives focus to the terrorist
preparation involving other crimes?
A. Tangible evidence B. Adjunct criminal activities
C. Social behaviors D. Pre-incident
37. There are two types of standards to be obtained in the investigation of
Questioned Documents: one is collected and the other is ___
A. Replicated B. Photographed
C. NONE of these D. Dictated
38. This is a kind of crime scene search where the searchers gathered at the
center and proceed outward along the spokes.
A. Wheel method B. Zone method
C. Spiral method D. Strip method
39. It is known as the anti-trafficking of person act of 2003
  A. R.A 9165B. R.A 8792 C. R.A 9208 D. R.A 9262
40. The active principle of burning by heat and light of combustion
  A. Flammable    B. Arson   C. Flame    D. Fire
41. Any chemical substance which alters the mind and body when taken.
 A. Drug  B. Chemical substance  C. Drug substance  D. Narcotics
42. The process of gradually depriving drugs from the point of habituation until
such time he is no longer hooked on the substance.
A. Rehabilitation B. Withdrawal method
C. Therapy D. Treatment
43. This is the category of terrorist group which aims in the re-structuring of the
society.
 A. Political  B. Ethnocentric  C. Revolutionary  D. Religious
44. The origin of fire which is caused by a fortuitous event or configuration.
A. Providential B. Overloading
C. Intentional D. Accidental
45. The skeletal remains of a person may help determine the identity of the
victim.
  A. NO   B. Odontology   C. YES   D. Anthropology
46. The engagement in the business for profit or enlistment of services of any
other person for the purpose of prostitution.
  A. White Slavery  B. Prostitution   C. Slavery   D. Slave
47. ___ is an international big business enterprise being run by big-time
transnational criminal syndicates who oftentimes enjoy the protection of state
authorities.
  A. Kidnapping  B. Illegal drug trading  C. Trafficking  D. Carnapping
48. It is a chain of events in vehicular accident that refers to the first action to be
taken by a traffic unit to avoid an accident.
A. Maximum engagement B. Perception of hazard
C. Initial contact D. Maximum engagement
49. Crimes committed with several motives, political influence, economic gain and
social control in a global scope.
A. Organized crime B. Syndicated crime
C. Transnational crime D. Globalization
50. A kind of physical evidence which may locate or established the subject to the
crime or offence like fingerprint, blood, saliva and etc.
A. Tracing evidence B. Corpus delicti
C. Physical evidence D. Associate evidence
51. Prima Facie evidence of Arson. Any of the following circumstances shall
constitute prima facie evidence of arson:
A. Electrical overloading
B. If the fire started simultaneously in more than one part of the building or
establishment.
C. Contrivance designed to start a fire or ashed or traces of any foregoing are
found in the ruins or premises of the burned building or property
D. If substantial amount of flammable substances or material are store within
the building note necessary in the business of the offender not for household us.
52. The most important in the collection to disposal of physical evidence.
  A. Preservation  B. Marking   C. Chain of custody  D. Gathering
53. It simply means that the offended party was not given opportunity to make
defense. A. Treachery B. Premeditation
C. Craft D. Nocturnity
54. Study reveals that the reason why “Marijuana” is difficult to control is that.
A. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously
B. The big demand
C. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country
D. The plant can be easily cultivated
55. A chemical reaction that feeds a fire more heat and allows it to continue
   A. Fire   B. Fire tetrahedron  C. Flame  D. Fire triangle
56. What is that disposition under which a defendant after conviction and
sentence is released, subject to conditions imposed by the court
  A. Executive clemency  B. Parole  C. Pardon  D. Probation
57. This happens when heat is transferrd through direct contact from one
medium to another medium.
  A. Radiation  B. Conduction  C. Backdraft  D. Convection
58. It is an activity by which the movement of traffic units at a particular
intersection are controlled and allocated according to proportionate time to
prevent traffic accident and to maintain the smooth flow of traffic.
A. Traffic Supervision B. Traffic Direction & Control
C. Traffic Enforcement D. Traffic Management
59. From the stand point of physiological effect, narcotic drugs are commonly and
roughly classified as:
A. Depressants and Stimulants
B. Depressants and Hallucinogens
C. Spiral and Cerebral
D. Depressants and Downers
60. The known father of criminal investigation who popularize the statement, to
catch a thief you must be a thief.
A. Eugene Francois Vidocq B. Jonathan Wild
C. Robert Peel D. Allan Pinkerton
61. Shabu, known as the poor man’s cocaine is chemically known as:
A. Hydrochloride B. Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
C. Methamphetamine D. Erythoxylon coca
62. The kind of sketch by a field investigator made during crime scene search.
A. Complete search B. Crime scene search
C. Finished sketch D. Rough sketch
63. It means that the crime was actually perpetrated
  A. Evidence  B. Corpus delicti  C. Proof   D. Physical evidence
64. Which of the following is the center of fire investigation?
A. What cause the fire B. Financial gain
C. Who cause the fire D. Insurance
65. SOCTA means:
A. Serious Organized Crime, Terrorism Activity
B. Serious Organized Crime Threat Assessment
C. Serious Organized Crime Task force Assessment
D. Serious Organized Crime Terrorism Alliance
66. Any person under investigation shall have the right to __
A. All of these B. Remain Silent
C. Counsel C. Informed of Such Rights
67.On a four-lane-two-way road, the outer lanes are:
A. For overtaking purposes
B. For slow moving vehicles
C. For fast moving vehicles
D. For overtaking restrictions
68. Whoever knowingly aids, abets, cooperates in the execution of the offence by
previous or simultaneous acts defined in anti-trafficking in person act is liable as
an:
  A. Accomplice  B. Accessories  C. Suspect  D. Principal
69. A method extinguishment of fire by reducing the heat below the ignition
temperature.
  A. Smothering  B. Starving   C. Blanketing  D. Cooling
70. A painted pavement signs in a road intersection designed to avoid traffic at
the junction when the light turns green.
A. Early warning device   B. Yellow lane
C. Pedestrian crossing  D. Yellow box junction
71. This is done in order to obtain information from the suspect
A. Criminal Investigation B. Custodial interview
C. Criminal interrogation D. Admission

72.Criminal investigation is more than a/an.


A. Process  B. Technique  C. Art   D. Science
73.It is the Philippines Terrorism Law known also as Human Security Act of
2007.
A. R.A 6235   B. R.A 9165  C. R.A 5487  D. R.A 9372
74.The golden hours of criminal investigation is within 72 hours after the
commission of a crime, the crime should be investigated. What is the
golden rule related to crime scene?
A. Always preserve the crime scene
B.  Never touch any object at the crime scene unless photographed,
measured and indicated in the sketch
C. To search for truth is the main objective of investigation
D. Never touch any object at the crime scene
75.Which of the following is the background color for regulatory sign?
A. Amber   B. Green   C. White   D. Yellow
76.Which of the following is not an equipment use of fire drill?
A. Fire bucket  B. Fire resistance  C. Fire house  D. Fire ladder
77.The known drug commonly found in a Mexican mushroom.
A. Mescaline  B. Ephedrine  C. Idiosyncrasy  D. Psilocybin
78.In hit and run accident investigation, what should be the initial step or
phase in the investigative process?
A. Establish the identity of the persons involved
B. Check the victim for injuries
C. Gather evidences
D. Cordon the area
79.Which of the words below is NOT related to the others?
A. Haggle   B. Boggle   C. Bargain   D. Shackle
80.The following are all kinds of Destructive except:
A. Nipa hut in an inhabited place
B. Any church or place or worship or other building where people usually
assemble.
C. Any archive, museum, whether public or private, or any edifice devoted to
culture, education or social services.
D. Any train, airplane or any aircraft, vessel or watercraft, or conveyance for
transportation of persons or property.
81.Which of the following can be classified as International terrorism?
A. Osama bin Laden’s Al-Qaeda bombing activities
B. NPA’s bombing of cell sites
C. Bombing of night market in Roxas activities
D. Abu Sayyaf perpetrated terrorist activities
82.Galton, one of the fingerprint pioneers, scientifically estimated that the
possibility of the prints of just two fingers being identical to each other was
___
A. 64 billion to 1 B. 50 billion to 1
C.100 billion to 1 D. 70 billion to 1
83.What should drivers do when an emergency vehicle approached displaying
legally authorized red light and sounding a siren?
A. Yield and right-of-way and wait for the passage of the
vehicle.
B. Disregard the red light and siren
C.  Continue driving slowly without regard of the emerging vehicle
D. Pull aisde and stop the sar abruptly
84.A state of psycho and physio dependence or both on dangerous drugs
arising in a person following administration or use of drug on a periodic or
continuous basis.
A. Iontophoresis B. Drug addiction
C.Drug dependence D. Drug tolerance
85. He shall be a permanent member of Dangerous Drug Board.
A. Chairman, PDEA B. DOJ Secretary
C. DILG Secretary D. NBI Director
86. What is the best indicator of the sex of a victim who was killed thru burning? 
  A. Pelvic bones  B. Fingerprint   C. Bones   D. Dentures
87. In the Philippines, which of the following agencies must be accountable for an
effective driver control program.
  A. All of these   B. Police     C. LTO    D. Courts
88. This is regarded at the oldest and the biggest criminal organization in the
world
A. Medellin Cartel B. Chinese Mafia
C. Cosa Nostra D. Japanese Yakuza

89.The head of the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency as appointed by the


President of the Republic of the Philippines is with a ran of:
A. Chief Superintendent B. Superintendent
C.Director General D. Director
90. When sketching traffic accident, the point of reference should be anything
which are fixed or permanent in nature, while for the vehicle involved, the
reference point should be --
A. Edge of the front and near bumper
B. Center of the front and reap bumper
C. Center of axle
D. Corner of the edges of fender
91. What is effectivity of R.A 9165 or otherwise known as the Comprehensive
Dangerous Drug Act of 2002?
A. July 7, 2020 B. June 4, 2002
C. June 7, 2002 D. July 4, 2002
92. Popularly known as the Golden Crescent in illegal drugs.
A. Afghanistan , Pakistan, Iran, India
B. Pakistan, Iran, India, Africa
C. China, Afghanistan, Myanmar, Vietman
D. Africa Pakistan, Iraq, India
93. It refers literally to the body of crime in the different kinds of physical
evidence or it means any physical evidence to prove that crime exist.
A. Curpos delicti B. Curpos dilect
C. Corpus delicti D. Corpus dilecti 
94. According to Hans Gross, the Austrian magistrate who is known as father of
criminalistics; the search for truth is the ultimate goal of every investigation;
hence criminal investigation is a process of identification, locating and providing
physical evidence of the guilt of the ___
A. Accused B. Convict
Criminal D. Suspect
95.The present Criminal Justice System in our Country, the court relies more
on physical evidence rather than extra-judicial confession.
A. Sometimes B. It depends
C.YES D. NO
96. The most important factor in a homicide investigation in relation to the chain
of custody of physical evidence.
A. Identification B. Collection
C. Handling D. Preservation
97. The policy making body in the planning and formulation of program on drug
prevention and control in the Philippines.
A. AFP B.  DDB
C. PNP D. PDEA
98. A double solid white line in the highway means-
A. Allow parking B. No lane changing
C. Allow overtaking D. Allow lane changing
99. The best methods in the preservation of physical evidence.
A. Place it in the container
B. Refrigerate
C. Photograph
D. Preserved
100. The BFP and BJMP shall be respectively headed by a Chief who shall be
assisted by two (2) deputy chiefs, one (1) for administration and one (1) for
operations, all of whom shall be appointed by the President upon
recommendation of the Secretary of the DILG from among the qualified officers
with at least the rank of senior superintendent in the service. The FIRE CHIEF of
the BFP under R.A 6293 shall have a rank of:
A. Chief Supt B. Senior Supt
C. Fire Chief D. Director
CRMTC

1. From the standpoint of the ballistician, what is the most important single
process in barrel manufacture?
A. Boring position B. Reaming position
B. Rifling position D. Grinding
2. When investigating a QD, the examiner must follow the scientific method of
examination. The first official stage is
A. Verification B. Evaluation
B. Comparison D. Analysis
3. Which of the following questions is designed to pose a threat in the security
of the deceptive or guilty examinee and elicit his/her psychological set?
A. Evidence connecting question
B. Relevant question
C. Guilt complex
D. Control questions
4. Which indicates the speed of the lens or the amount of light the lens lets
through in proportion to its focal length?
A. Flash meter B. Exposure
B. Flash D. Electronic Flash
5. There are five major section of the polygraph machine. Which section is
designed to provide a permanent record of the test result?
A. Keymograph B. Pneumograph
B. Galvanograph D. Pen and inking system
6. An intermittent forcing of ten pen against the paper surface with an
increase speed or periodic increase in pressure is
A. Retouching B. Pen emphasis
B. Pressure D. Treamor
7. These examinations are applicable only to the dead victim except:
A. Determination whether the wound is ante-mortem or post mortem
B. Determination whether the wound(s) produced shock
C. Determination whether the wound is mortal or not
D. Determination whether the death is accelerated by a disease
8. These are questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.
A. Primary Relevant questions   B. Irrelevant questions
B. Control questions D. Relevant questions
9. What do you call that impression, designed by the ridges on the inside of
the end joint of the fingers and thumb on any smooth surface through the
media of an ink, sweat or any reagents capable or producing visibility?
A. Fingerprint Identification   B. Fingerprint/Dactylogram
B. Dactyloscopy D. Personal Identification
10.How many percent is the NaNO3 composition of black powder?
A. 15 B. 20
c. 35 D. 75
11. During the polygraph examination, the subject confessed that he committed
the crime. What is the legal status of the confession?
A. Inadmissible as evidence since result of the polygraph examns are generally
nor admissible
B. Admissible if it will prove the innocence of the subject
C. Admissible since confession is different from the result of the examination
D. Inadmissible if it is not stated in the written consent that confession will be
used in court
 
12. When loaded firearm is found in the crime scene, what is the first thing to be
done by the collector?
A. The firearm should be properly dusted for fingerprints
B. The firearm should be cautiously observed of presence of fingerprints
C. The firearm should be properly handled and unloaded
D. The firearm should be properly marked for future identification
13. A distance at which lens of camera is focused with a given particular
diaphragm opening which will give the maximum depth of field is
A. Hyper focal distances B. Focal length
C. Focal distances D. Subject distances
14. Under this state, a person acts involuntarily and he is considered to be
exempted from criminal liability because he did not act with intelligence.
A. Post-traumatic Automatism  B. Ante-traumatic automatism
C. Edemas of the brain D. Post traumatic Irritability
15. Miss “C” has been sexually abused by her boyfriend. As a result, she lost her
virginity. Her hymen was lacerated or ruptured because of sexual intercourse. In
legal medicine’s parlance, which of the following had Miss C experienced?
A. Devirginized B. Defloration
C. Maceration D. Sexually tested
16. In a decision in the case of US v Alvarez, 1 Phil. 242, the presumption of
virginity includes one below
A. All of these B. Woman with age of below puberty
C. Unmarried and of good reputation   D. The woman is single
17. Strokes which are added to the form of the letter designed to complete its
form is termed
A. Diacritical marks B. Idiosyncrasies
C. Flourishing strokes D. Embellishments
18. Generally, can a woman be raped while she is on her natural sleep?
A. YES B. NO
C. NO, Impossible D. YES, but improbable
19. It refers to the distance between the nearest and the farthest object in
apparent sharp focus when the lens is set or focus on a given distance,
A. Depth of field B. Hyper focal distance
C. Diaphragm opening D. Circle of confusion
20. This type of photographic paper is a multi-speed and could be used in both
contacts printing and enlarging.
A. Chloro-bromide paper B. Chloro fine paper
C. Chloride paper D. Bromide paper
21. What do you call the rupture of hymen through sexual intercourse?
A. Collation B. Surrender
C. Juxtaposition D. Defloration
22. The cardiosphygrmograph attachment placed above the brachial artery is the
arm cuff. Which of the following is detected by pneumograph?
A. Breathing B. Guilt of the subject
C. Blood pressure of the subject   D. Skin resistance
23. This refers to a person who, by reason of his special technical education
training and experience can be permitted to express his opinion about scientific
issues involved in the examination 
A. Document examiner B. Document Expert
C. Witness D. Expert witness
24. What does the first two digits of person’s Social Security Number indicates?
A. The month of registration
B. The income bracket or group where the member belongs
C. The region where the member originally registered
D. The occupation of the member at the time or registration
25. Ultra-violet photography has many uses in crime investigation. What 
   Type of film can be used for ultra-violet photography?
A. Infared film B. All of these
C.Panchromatic film D. Orthochomatic film
26.What statement below is true about fingerprints?
A. Fingerprints of couple can be identical
B. Fingerprints of twins can be identical
C. Fingerprints of persons can be similar
D. Siamese twin’s fingerprints are always similar
27.A way of sexual satisfaction where a woman receives the penis of a man
into her mouth and by friction with the lips and tongue coupled with the
act of sucking initiates orgasm.
A. Fellatio B. Flagellation
C.Cunnilingus D. Anilism
28.Looking at the object closely with one eye while the other is finding that the
object is not seen from the same angle and has apparently a different
position and shape
A.Parallax B. Lock trough
C.Depth of field D. Focal distance

29.Which type of firearm that requires manual cocking before squeezing the
trigger?
A. Single action B. Single shot
C.Repeating arms D. Double action
30.It is a disease where one losses the ability to write though he could still
grasp a writing instrument
A. Stress B. Parkinson’s
C.Agraphia D. Arthritis
31.This is another technique of illustrating similarities of two object like tool
marks, shells, bullets or a pair of illustrations.
A. Panoramic photography B. Matching photography
C.Microphotography     D. Matching transparencies
32.There is freehand invitation and is considered as the most skillful class of
forgery
A. Carbon tracing B. Simple forgery
C.Simulated or copied forgery D.Traced forgery
33.Fingerprints are for “Hua Chi” as to “Lo and Ki” is for__
A. Fingerprint patterns B. Loops and arches
C.Arches and whorls D. Whorls and loops
34.The shutter of a camera controls the amount of light that will reach the film
at a given time?
A. Fast shutter B. Moderate shutter
C.Slow shutter D. B-Shutter
35.When photographing the corpse in the scence, several pictures of the
conditions at the time of discovery including the environment of the corpse
must be taken from various photographic directions in order to:
A. Photographs general view of the building, look into windows and pathway
B. Take close-ups shots on the damaged area in two angles from a distance of
8-10 feet
C. Show when photographing the general conditions as being deformed as a
whole, photograph the damage parts and consider the range partly clearly 
D. Show whether there is any evidence of struggle and try to show what
happen inside prior to the crime

36.A woman has sexual intercourse with a lesbian by fondling her breast and
licking her clitoris, inter-labia fingering but not to the extent of rupturing
the hymen. What is the condition of the virginity of the woman?
A. Demi-virgnity B. Virgo Intacta
C.Moral virginity D. Physical virginity

37.Deals with the study and identification of baby fluids.


A. Pharmacology B. Posology
C.Serology D. Immunology
38.The type of rifling’s with six lands and grooves, left hand twist, narrow lands
and broad grooves.
A. Browning type B. Colt type
B. Webley typeD. Smith and Wesson type
39.Condensed and compact set of authentic specimen which is adequate and
proper should contain across section of the material from known source:
A. Disguised document  B. Standard document
C.Requested document  D. Questioned document
40.As an established rule, the accuracy of the result of ant polygraph
examination largely depends on:
A. Conditions of the subject during exam
B. Type of questions to be administered
C. Truthfulness of the subject
D. Competency of the examiner
41.It is a super cooled liquid which possesses high viscosity and rigidity.
A. Glass B. Fructure
C.Carbon D. None of the above
42.The term muzzle velocity refers most accurately to the
A. Acceleration of the projectile in flight
B. Speed of ammunition 
C. C. Speed of the bullet
D. Rate of combustion of gunpowder
43.Photography is the reproduction of an image by means of light actions.
What is the process by which big object are reduced into small strips of
film?
A. Photomacrography B. Telephotography
C.Microphotography D. Photomicrooography
44.The polygraph examiner’s analysis and interpretation are:
A. Generally not acceptable as evidence if standing alone
B. Generally acceptable as evidence if it indicates deception
C. Generally acceptable as evidence if standing alone
D. Generally not acceptable as evidence if without the consent of the
examiner.
45.Sensitized materials can either be a film or a photo paper. What is that
substance in the emulsion surface of the sensitized material which is
sensitive to light?
A. Silver Iodide B. Silver halides
C.Silver chloride D. Silver bromide
46.Writing forms can either be a disconnected or joined letter. What specimen
of writing is characterized by disconnected style?
A. Manuscript writing B. Hand writing
C.Cursive writing D. Rounded writing
47.It is a single unit of ammunition with a metallic base containing the primer,
propellant, wads, and shots
A. Pistol cartridge B. Rifle Cartridge
C.Explosives D. Shotgun shell
48.When the trace in whorls is on the outside of right delta three or more
ridges, the trace is determined to be:
A. Converging “C” B. Meeting “M”
COuter “O” D. Inner”I”
49.As part of customary test procedures, the polygraph examiner should
prepare a list of not more than ___ questions to be asked in a planned
sequence.
A. 17 questions B. 20 questions
C.12 questions D. 10 questions
50.Antidote for Arsenic Poisoning
A. Succimer B. Thiamine
C.Pyridoxine D. Fabahistine

51.The Origin of Fingerprints is to William James Herschel as to Edward


Richard Henry is to___
A. Philosophical Transaction
B. Fingerprints
C. Anatomia Humanis Corporis
D. Classification and Uses of Fingerprint
52.Which of these terms is used to describe a line, sentence or paragraph that
is inserted in between lines or paragraphs written in a document?
A. Addition B. Substitution
C.Superimposition D. Interlineations
53.Under the principle of the “best evidence”. in our judicial system, how is
photograph generally regarded as evidence?
A. Primary evidence B. Physical evidence
C.Secondary evidence D. Material evidence
54. on breast, what breast that contains contour lines which are not straight but
form part of half circle or half of sphere?
A. Infantile/Flat breast  B. Conical breast
C. Hemispherical breast  D. Pendulous breast
55. What is the current law that prohibits possession of firearm when
unauthorized?
A. R.A 8293  B. PD 1866  C. RA 8294 D.RA 10591
56. Photography they say “do not lie” however, photography sometimes mislead
like a reversed photographs. In a homicide investigation for example, a victim will
suddenly appear near the left hand. These confusing and misleading wrong
placement of:
A. The photographic paper in the easel
B. The negative in the enlarger
C. Film in the camera
D. The photographic in the developer
57. Suicide letter, threat letter and other documents in which writings are
important must be treated with __
A. Ninhydrin Petroleum Benzene Solution
B. Mighty bond C. Ninhydrin Solution
D. Cyano bond
58. Testimony as to breech face and/or firing-pin markings, striation patterns, and
gunpowder residue is commonly accepted. There are a variety of different of
these techniques, but they all usually have to do with science of motion for
projectiles. Which one is described?
A. Guns and ammo B. Laboratory services
C. Firearms Identification D. Ballistics
59. Which of the following is the main objectives of polygraph examination?
A. Eliminate innocent suspects
B. Obtain additional investigation lead
C. Locate fruits of the crime
D. Verify statement of the subject
60. An introductory backward stroke found in some capital and small letters are
called ___
A. Humps   B. Bread C. Hitch     D. Buckle knot
61. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to:
A. To mark the bullet for purposes of identification
B. To decrease the amount of the recoil
C. To increase the speed of the bullet
D. To mark the bullet for purposes of identification
62. Verbal stimulus of primary importance projected in the form of question,
intended to overcome psychological excitement level and causes changes from
the subjects physiological norm.
A. Irrelevant question B. Padding questions
C. Key question D. Relevant question
63. This refers to analysis of glass in which it is done through the determination of
its pattern and composition.
A. Spectographic Analysis   B. X-ray diffraction analysis
C. Physical activities D. None of the above
64. Outside interference during polygraph examination must be avoided;
therefore the examination room must be:
A. Must be 90% sound proof   B. well-ventilated
C. Must not be decorated D. well-lighted
65. The color process flash on what year?
A. 1914    B. 1942    C. 1935    D. 1939
66. There is no vital reaction of the skin to the wound received, no evidence of
profuse hemorrhage, the injuries are considered
A. Bullet embolism B. Souvenir bullet
C. Post-mortem death D. Ante-mortem
67. The study of handwriting base on 2 fundamental strokes- the curve and the
straight strokes?
A. Graphometry B. Grapho-analysis
C. Bibliomacy D. Graphology
68. What is the purpose of recording the fingerprint of the fingers of the right and
left hands down to the fingerprint card in plain impression?
A. Used for classification purposes
B. Used to check the location of fingerprint and for patterns interpretation.
C. Used for persons with complete fingers
D. Used to identify suspect
69. Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence when exposed to
ultra violet light?
A. Semen B. Blood C. Saliva    D. Urine
70. Which of the following is considered the earliest material that served as
paper?
A. Papyrus B. Parchment C. Codex    D. Vellum
71. The principle of fingerprint that states “fingerprints of a person are
unchanging or constant from birth until the decomposition of the body of the
person” is__
A. Principle of Permanency, Consistency, Constancy, Perennial or Immutable
B. Principle of Multiplicity
C. Principle of Individuality or Variation
D. Principle of infallibility
72. The class characteristics of a Browning type of firearm:
A. 5 Riffling, RHT B. 4 Riffling, RHT
C. 6 Riffling, RHT D. 7 Riffling, RHT
73. The focal length of lens affects both the area coverage and the size of object
being photograph. What type of lens according to focal length is best used in
photographing an object in a small area if the photographer wants to get a wider
coverage? It has a focal length of less than 35 mm.
A. Zoom lens B. Normal focus lens
C. Short focus lens D. Long focus lens
74. What is the purpose of recording the fingerprints of the finger of the right and
left hands down the fingerprint card in plain impressions?
A. Used to identify suspect
B. Used for persons with complete fingers
C. Used for classification purposes
D. Used to check the location of fingerprints and for pattern interpretation.
75. This type of bullets is found at the scene of the shooting or in a body of the
victim. The presumption is an automatic or semi-automatic weapon was used.
A. Jacketed bullets B. Tracer bullets
C. Lead bullets D. Pellets
76. Fingerprint identification remains to be the most infallible means of
identification. What study attempts at interpreting one’s personality based on his
fingerprint?
A. Dactylosgraphy B. Dactylomancy
C. Dermatoglyphics D. Dactyloscopy
77. During the Polygraph examination, the subject confessed that he committed
the crime. What is the legal status of the confession?
A. Admissible if it will prove the innocence of the subject
B. Admissible since confession if different from the result of the examination
C. Inadmissible if it is not stated in the written consent that confession will be
used in court.
D. Inadmissible as evidence since result of the polygraph exams are generally
not admissible.
78. A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of human or animal original
A. Microscopic analysis B. Chemical analysis
C. Fluorescence analysis D. Fiber-optics analysis
79. A tool in which a firearm mechanism is attached in order not to be easily
identified ___
A. Grekish gun  B. Paradox  C. Zip gun  D. Grease gun
80. A completely revised polygraph technique significantly feature by the
utilization of control question and guilt complex test was introduced by ____
A. Leonarde Keeler B. John E. Reid
C. John Larson D. Richard O. Arthur
81. To be able to obtain a normal exposure, one should make a better
combination of the film, shutter speed and lens opening. How much light will a
combination of ASA 100 1/125, and F-5.6 will absorb compare to ASA 200 1/125
anf F-4
     A. Two times   B. Equal   C. Four times  D. Six times
82. The phase of the polygraph examination wherein the subject will be informed
of his rights and his written consent will also be taken.
A. Actual polygraph examination
B. Pre test interview C. Initial interview
D. Post test interview
83. The photographer in crime scene investigation has to get as many
photographs as he can. The first shot that he should make just after reaching the
crime scene is the house where the crime of murder was committed to one of its
ten rooms. In getting the facade of the house, what lens should he utilize?
A. Macro lens B. Normal lens  C. Telephoto lens 
D. Wide angle lens
84. Given to a complete set of ten fingers as they appear on a fingerprint card
generally based on pattern type, ridge tracing or ridge count.
A. Fingerprint classification B. Henry system
C. Classification formula D. Battley system
85. It makes the developed image permanent only when thoroughly washed.
   A. All of these  B. Stop-bath  C. Stop-fix  D. Fixation
86. When investigating a QD, the examiner must follow the scientific method of
examination. The first official stage is
  A. Verification  B. Evaluation  C. Evaluation  D. Comparison
87. It is a condition especially to very young men that there is a presence of
semen without spermatozoa.
  A. Aspermia      B. UTI   C. All of the above   D. STD
88. How many percent is the KNO3 composition of black powder?
     A. 25         B. 85      C. 10 D. 75
89. If the person to be fingerprint has 6 normally formed fingers, how is the
recording do.
A. Select the normally formed fingers only
B. After recording the first 5 fingers, draw an additional box or the 6 finger
th

C. Start from the thumb to the little finger


D. Start from the thumb to the 5 finger then record the 6 at the back of the
th th

card with label


90. Which type of forged signature where no attempt has been made to make a
copy of the original signature of the person purported to sign the document?
A. Traced   B. Simulated   C. Simple   D. Spurious
91. Which part of the cartridge case characterized by a cylindrical groove mark
around its body near the mouth which serves to prevent the bullet from being
pulled out or lost from the shell?
   A. Crimp   B. Neck    C. Shoulder   D. Cannelure

92.They key division in the classification which is located at the extreme left of
the classification formula and it is taken by getting the ridge count of loop.
In case where no loop is found except in the little finger, how should the
key division is derived?
I. Loop Pattern II, First radial loop
III. First loop IV. First whorl
A. I,III B. III,IV C. II,IV D. I,II
93.A specimen of writing which was executed without intention of changing
the usual writing habits, which is executed normally by the writer is 
A.Natural writing B. Assisted Writing 
C. Disguised writing D. Guided writing
94. Part of the cartridge case where the priming mixture imparts ignition to the
gun powder is ___
  A. Anvil B. Primer pocket
C. Flash hole D. Paper disk
95. Refers to any agent that neutralizes poison and its effects.
A. Antibiotics B. Alkaloids
C. Antidotes D. Emetics
96. The one who coined the word “Photography” is __
A. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
B. Louise Jacques
C. Scott Archer
D. John F.W Herschel
97. These are questions which may refer to the subject’s age, educational
attainment and occupation.
A. Relevant questions
B. Primary relevant questions
C. Irrelevant questions
D. Control questions
98. Latent prints are called Chance Impressions. Which of the following is the best
justification?
A. They are not rolled impressions.
B. They were not intended to be left in the crime scene
C. They are not clear as to appearance
D. They were left by the suspect
99. Can a person be force to be fingerprint?
A. YES, if he is an adult
B. YES, if he was lawfully arrested
C. NO, it is a violation of his right
D. NO, if he is a minor
100. These are factory specifications within the control of man that serve as basis
for identification of a certain group or class of firearms.
A. Bore Diameter
B. Class characteristics
C. Ballistics
D. Individual characteristics

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