Data Communicat Ions Network 2 All in Source by Jayson C. Lucena

DATA
COMMUNICATION
&
NETWORK 2
ALL IN SOURCE
BY
JAYSON C. LUCENA
3/30/2020 Finals: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?
Select one:
a. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused
until the server is rebooted.
b. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
c. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
d. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
Question 2
Correct
Which command will show you the summary of the NAT configuration?
Select one:
a. show ipnat translations
b. show ipnat statistics
c. clear ipnat translations *
d. debug ipnat
https://blended.amaesonline.com/abl-semestral/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=270960&cmid=2741 1/28
Question 3
Correct
What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello packets on a
multiaccess network?
Select one:
a. 30
b. 20
c. 10
d. 40
Question 4
Incorrect
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host?
Select one:
a. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the
length of the agreement.
b. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.
c. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of period, a new quest for an
address must be made, and another address is then assigned.
d. Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically
contacting the DHCP sever to renew the lease.
Question 5
Correct
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts?
1. Designated IP address to the DHCP server
2. IP address leased to the LAN
3. Network or subnetwork IP address
4. Manually assigned address to the clients
5. IP address used by the interfaces
6. Broadcast address on the network
Select one:
a. 3 & 6
b. 2 & 6
c. 1 & 3
d. 3 & 5
Question 6
Correct
Which of the following would be a good starting point for troubleshooting if your router is not
translating?
Select one:
a. Run the debug all command.
b. Reboot.
c. Call Cisco.
d. Check your interfaces for the correct configuration.
Question 7
Incorrect
Select one:
a. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
b. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator
must resolve the conflict.
c. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused
d. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
b. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator
c. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused
d. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
Question 9
Correct
Which of the following are 3 disadvantages of using NAT?

1. Translation introduces switching path delays.
2. NAT conserves legally registered addresses.
3. NAT causes loss of end-to-end IP traceability.
4. NAT increases flexibility when connecting to the Internet.
5. Certain applications will not function with NAT enabled.
6. NAT reduces address overlap occurrence.
Select one:
a. 2, 3, 6
b. 1, 3, 5
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 6
Question 10
Correct
Which task does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform?
Select one:
a. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
b. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
c. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
d. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
Question 11
Correct
Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?
Select one:
a. Show ip interface
b. Show interface access-lists
c. Show access-lists
d. Show interface
Question 12
Correct
Which command would you place on interface connected to the Internet?
Select one:
a. ip nat inside
b. ip nat outside
c. ip inside local
d. ip outside global
Question 13
Correct
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic
protocol is also being used?
Select one:
a. link cost
b. administrative distance
c. link bandwidth
d. link delay
e. hop count
Question 14
Correct
Select one:
a. ip inside local
b. ip nat outside
c. ip outside global
d. ip nat inside
Question 15
Incorrect
Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
Select one:
a. Show interface
b. Show all access-lists
c. Show access-lists
d. Show ip interface
Question 16
Correct
Which version of NAT allows many hosts inside a private network to simultaneously use a single inside
global address for connecting to the Internet?
Select one:
a. Port forwarding
b. PAT
c. Static NAT
d. Dynamic NAT
Question 17
Correct
Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs?
1. Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
2. Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
3. Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.
4. Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
5. Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
6. For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.
Select one:
a. 3. 4, 6
b. 3, 4, 5
c. 2, 4, 6
d. 1, 2, 6
Question 18
Correct
Which command will show you all the translations active on your router?
Select one:
a. debug ipnat
b. show ipnat translations
c. clear ipnat translations *
d. show ipnat statistics
Question 19
Correct
Refer to the graphic. It has been decided that PC1 should be denied access to Server. Which 2 of the
following commands are required to prevent only PC1 from accessing Server1 while allowing all other
traffic to flow normally?
1 – Router(config)# interface fa0/0

Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 out
2 – Router(config)# interface fa0/0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in
3 – Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip host 172.16.161.150 host 172.16.162.163
Router(config)# access-list 101 permit ip any any
4 – Router(config)# access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.161.150 0.0.0.255 172.16.162.163 0.0.0.0
5 – Router(config)# access-list 101 permit ip any any
Select one:
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c. 4 & 5
d. 1 & 5
Question 20
Correct
What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?
Select one:
a. router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
b. router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
c. router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
d. router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
Question 21
Correct
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF
on a router?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
1. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
2. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
3. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
4. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
5. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Select one:
a. 3 & 4
b. 1 & 5
c. 1 & 2
d. 2 & 4
Question 22
Correct
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network
192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0?
1. Router(config)#router ospf 1
2. Router(config)#router ospf 0
3. Router(config)#router ospf area 0
4. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
5. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
6. Router(config-router)#network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Select one:
a. 1 & 4
b. 1 & 5
c. 2 & 4
d. 4 & 5
Question 23
Correct
All hosts in the networks have been operational for several hours when the DHCP server goes down.
What happens to the hosts that have obtained service from the DHCP server?
Select one:
a. The hosts will not be able to communicate with any otherhosts.
b. The hosts will only be able to communicate with otherhosts by IP address not by hostname
c. The hosts will continue to communicate normally for a period of time.
d. The hosts will be able to communicate with hosts outsides their own network
Question 24
Correct
Select one:
a. Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically
b. Addresses are assigned for 24hrs. At the end of period, a new quest for an address must be
made, and another address is then assigned.
c. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of period, a new quest for an
d. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the
Question 25
Correct
Select one:
a. show ip nat translations
b. show ip nat statistics
c. debug ip nat
d. clear ip nat translations *
Question 26
Correct
The ip helper-address command does what?
Select one:
a. Relays a DHCP request across networks
b. Resolves an IP address overlapping issue
c. Resolves an IP address from a DNS server
d. Assigns an IP address to a host
Question 27
Incorrect
Select one:
a. Addresses are leased to host. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically
b. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the
c. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.
d. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of period, a new quest for an
Question 28
Correct
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to HTTP traffic coming from the Internet that is destined for
172.12.12.10 if the traffic is processed by this ACL?
router#show access-lists
Extended IP access list 110
10 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq telnet
20 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq smtp
30 deny tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any eq http
40 permit tcp 172.16.12.0 0.0.255.255 any
Select one:
a. Traffic will be accepted, because the source address is not covered by the ACL.
b. Traffic will be dropped per line 30 of the ACL.
c. Traffic will be dropped, because of the implicit deny all at the end of the ACL.
d. Traffic will be accepted per line 40 of the ACL.
Question 29
Correct
If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created
and applied to it?
Select one:
a. 4
b. 8
c. 6
d. 12
Question 30
Incorrect
When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts?
1. Designated IP address to the DHCP server
2. IP address leased to the LAN
3. Network or subnetwork IP address
4. Manually assigned address to the clients
5. IP address used by the interfaces
6. Broadcast address on the network
Select one:
a. 2 & 3
b. 3 & 6
c. 4 & 6
d. 1 & 4
Question 31
Correct
If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created
and applied to it?
Select one:
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 12
Question 32
Correct
What is the purpose of the DHCP server?
Select one:
a. To provide an IP configuration information to hosts
b. To translate URLs to IP addresses
c. To provide storage for email
d. To translate IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
Question 33
Correct
Which 3 statements describe the routing protocol OSPF?

1. It supports VLSM.
2. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
3. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
4. It increases routing overhead on the network.
5. It allows extensive control of routing updates
6. It is simpler to configure than RIPv2.
Select one:
a. 2, 3, 6
b. 1, 2, 5
c. 1, 3, 5
d. 2, 3, 4
Question 34
Correct
A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the
administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router.
Which two configuration commands can achieve the task?
1. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23
2. Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0
Select one:
a. 1 & 5
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 & 4
d. 3 & 5
Question 35
Correct
Refer to the diagram below. The network administrator of RMS Overseas and Employment Agency that
has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The
FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the
10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used
to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied?
1. access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5

2. access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq www
3. access-list 105 permit ip any any
4. access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.54.5 any eq www
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
5. access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit ip any any
6. R2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in
7. R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
8. R1(config)# interface s0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 5
c. 3 & 5
d. 1 & 2
Question 36
Correct
All hosts in the networks have been operational for several hours when the DHCP server goes down.
What happens to the hosts that have obtained service from the DHCP server?
Select one:
a. The hosts will continue to communicate normally for a period of time.
b. The hosts will not be able to communicate with any otherhosts.
c. The hosts will be able to communicate with hosts outsides their own network
d. The hosts will only be able to communicate with otherhosts by IP address not by hostname
Question 37
Correct
OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the three characteristics of OSPF areas?
1. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured
2. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535
3. Area 0 is called the backbone area
4. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas
5. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0
6. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1
Select one:
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 3, 6
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 5
Question 38
Correct
Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?
Select one:
a. They can be created with a number but not with a name.
b. They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
c. They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
d. They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.
Question 39
Correct
The following access list below was applied outbound on the E0 interface connected to the
192.169.1.8/29 LAN:
access-list 135 deny tcp 192.169.1.8 0.0.0.7 eq 20 any
access-list 135 deny tcp 192.169.1.8 0.0.0.7 eq 21 any
How will the above access lists affect traffic?
Select one:
a. No traffic, except for FTP traffic will be allowed to exit E0
b. FTP traffic from 192.169.1.22 will be denied
c. All FTP traffic to network 192.169.1.9/29 will be denied
d. All traffic exiting E0 will be denied
Question 40
Correct
What two functions describe uses of an access control list?

1. ACLs assist the router in determining the best path to a destination.
2. Standard ACLs can restrict access to specific applications and ports.
3. ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.
4. ACLs can permit or deny traffic based upon the MAC address originating on the router.
5. ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.
Select one:
a. 3 & 5
b. 2 & 4
c. 1 & 2
d. 1 & 5
Question 41
Correct
Refer to the exhibit. A junior network engineer in one of the biggest telecom company in the
Philippines has prepared the exhibited configuration file. What two statements are true of the planned
configuration for interface fa0/1?
1. The two FastEthernet interfaces will require NAT configured on two outside serial interfaces.
2. Address translation on fa0/1 is not required for DMZ Devices to access the Internet.
3. The fa0/1 IP address overlaps with the space used by s0/0.
4. The fa0/1 IP address is invalid for the IP subnet on which it resides.
5. Internet hosts may not initiate connections to DMZ Devices through the configuration that is shown.
Select one:
a. 2 & 5
b. 1 & 4
c. 1 & 3
d. 3 & 4
Question 42
Correct
Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
Router# show ip dhcp conflict
IP address Detection method Detection time
172.16.1.32 Ping Feb 16 1998 12:28 PM
172.16.1.64 Gratuitous ARP Feb 23 1998 08:12 AM
Select one:
a. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
b. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
c. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
d. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
Question 43
Correct
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
Select one:
a. Bandwidth
b. Bandwidth, Delay and MTU
c. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay and Load
d. Bandwidth and MTU
Question 44
Correct
Select one:
a. dynamic NAT
b. PAT
c. static NAT
d. port forwarding
Question 45
Correct
The following configuration line was added to router R1

Access-list 101 permit ip 10.25.30.0 0.0.0.255 any
What is the effect of this access list configuration?
Select one:
a. Permit all packet matching the host bits in the source address to all destinations
b. Permit all packet from the third subnet of the network address to all destinations
c. Permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source address to all destinations
d. Permit all packet matching the last octet of the destination address and accept all source
addresses
Question 46
Correct
What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello packets on a
multiaccess network?
Select one:
a. 30
b. 20
c. 10
d. 40
Question 47
Correct
PAT Address Translation is also termed what?
Select one:
a. NAT Overload
b. NAT Static
c. Overloading Static
d. NAT Fast
Question 48
Correct
As a network administrator of RMS Aerospace Industries, you have been instructed to prevent all traffic
originating on the LAN from entering the R2 router. Which the following command would implement
the access list on the interface of the R2 router?
Select one:
a. ip access-group 101 out
b. access-list 101 in
c. access-list 101 out
d. ip access-group 101 in
Question 49
Correct
What is the default number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing of a Cisco OSPF
router?
Select one:
a. 16
b. 4
c. unlimited
d. 2
Question 50
Correct
A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks
attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the
information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
Select one:
a. The OSPF area is configured improperly.
b. The process id is configured improperly.
c. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
d. The network number is configured improperly.
3/30/2020 Midterms: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
This is a conduit for multiple VLANs between switches and routers.
Select one:
a. Trunks
b. Tunneling
c. None of the choices
d. Access Point
Question 2
Correct
"Router On Stick" is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a router.
Select one:
True
False
Question 3
Correct
Which of the following is the command to specify a VLAN name? Name of VLAN is employee.
Select one:
a. None of the choices
b. set VLAN name = employee
c. name= employee /set
d. name employee
Question 4
Correct
To troubleshoot issues when a trunk is not forming or when VLAN leaking is occurring, what command
to be used to check whether the local and peer native VLANs match?
Select one:
a. show interfaces trunk
b. check vlan connection
c. view trunk - match
d. check match vlan
Question 5
Incorrect
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link?
1. VTP
2. 802.1q
3. IGP
4. ISL
5. 802.3u
Select one:
a. 4 & 5
b. 2 & 4
c. 1 & 2
d. 1 & 5
Question 6
Correct
What route would have the lowest administrative distance?
Select one:
a. A route received through the OSPF routing protocol
b. A directly connected network
c. A route received through the EIGRP routing protocol
d. A static route
Question 7
Incorrect
Refer to the exhibit. According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for
10.1.5.65?
Network Interface Next-hop
10.1.1.0/24 e0 directly connected
10.1.2.0/24 e1 directly connected
10.1.3.0/25 s0 directly connected
10.1.4.0/24 s1 directly connected
10.1.5.0/24 e0 10.1.1.2
10.1.5.64/28 e1 10.1.2.2
10.1.5.64/29 s0 10.1.3.3
10.1.5.64/27 s1 10.1.4.4
Select one:
a. 10.1.3.3
b. 10.1.4.4
c. 10.1.2.2
d. 10.1.1.2
Question 8
Correct
Which two network parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a
network?
1. Jitter
2. bandwidth
3. resiliency
4. hop count
5. delay
6. confidentiality
Select one:
a. 3 & 4
b. 1 & 2
c. 1 & 5
d. 2 & 5
Question 9
Correct
This type of attack takes advantage of the way that hardware on most switches operates. Most switches
perform only one level of 802.1Q de- encapsulation, which allows an attacker to embed a hidden
802.1Q tag inside the frame.
Select one:
a. Switch boarding Attack
b. Port Attack
c. Backdoor Attack
d. Double Tagging Attack
Question 10
Correct
Network infrastructure devices require IP addresses to enable remote management. Using the device IP
address, the network administrator can remotely connect to the device using any of the following
EXCEPT
Select one:
a. SSH
b. HTTPS
c. None in the choices
d. HTTP
e. Telnet
f. All of the choices
Question 11
Correct
What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is blinking green?
Select one:
a. The port is operating at 10 Mbps.
b. The port is operating at 100 Mbps.
c. The port is busy and receiving data.
d. The port is operating at 1000 Mbps.
e. The port is busy and sending data.
Question 12
Correct
Which of the following is the command to configure the switch default gateway with IP address of
172.10.90.1?
Select one:
a. ipdefault gateway 172.10.90.1
b. ipconfig default-gateway 172.10.90.1
c. ipset gateway 172.10.90.1 -default
d. ip default-gateway 172.10.90.1
Question 13
Correct
If your routing table has a static, a RIP, and an OSPF route to the same network, which route will be
used to route packets by default?
Select one:
a. IGRP ROUTE
b. Static route
c. OSPF route
d. RIP route
e. They will all load-balance
Question 14
Correct
The primary functions of a router are the following?

1. Packet switching
2. Flow control
3. Domain name resolution
4. Path selection
5. Microsegmentation
Select one:
a. 3 & 4
b. 4 & 5
c. 1 & 4
d. 2 & 3
Question 15
Correct
Which two features are characteristics of flash memory?

1. Flash receives a copy of the IOS from RAM when a device is powered on.
2. Flash provides nonvolatile storage.
3. The contents of flash may be overwritten.
4. Flash is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.
5. The contents of flash may be lost during a power cycle.
Select one:
a. 2 & 3
b. 4 & 5
c. 1 & 5
d. 1 & 2
Question 16
Correct
The ________________ switches do not support features or options beyond those that originally came with
the switch.
Select one:
a. Fixed configuration
b. Remote configuration
c. Modular configuration
d. Server side configuration
Question 17
Correct
This is the path over which the data is transferred in a network. It describes how the network devices
appear connected to network users.
Select one:
a. logical topology
b. TCP/IP
c. physical topology
d. internet topology
Question 18
Correct
This memory provides temporary storage for various applications and processes, including the running
IOS, the running configuration file, IP routing table, Ethernet ARP table.
Select one:
a. RAM
b. NVRAM
c. ROM
d. Flash
Question 19
Correct
This is the practice of inserting a VLAN ID into a packet header in order to identify which VLAN (Virtual
Local Area Network) the packet belongs to.
Select one:
a. VLAN building
b. VLAN insertion
c. VLAN linkage
d. VLAN tagging
Question 20
Correct
A protocol that provides an encrypted connection to a remote device.
Select one:
a. TCP/IP
b. FTP
c. HTTP
d. SSH
Question 21
Correct
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in
the exhibit?
Select one:
a. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
b. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
c. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
d. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
Question 22
Correct
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator
checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What
additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?
Select one:
a. enable
b. clockrate 128000
c. no shutdown
d. IPv6 enable
Question 23
Correct
A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local network. How
can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network
performance?
Select one:
a. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
b. Use a hub to connect the four vlans with a FastEthernet interface on router.
c. Add two more FastEthernet interfaces.
d. Add a second router to handle the vlan traffic.
Question 24
Correct
To enable network access to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured
on a host?
1. default gateway
2. hostname
3. DNS server address
4. DHCP server address
5. IP address
6. subnet mask
Select one:
a. 1, 3, 6
b. 1, 5, 6
c. 2, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 3
Question 25
Correct
The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the installation of different
numbers of line card.
Select one:
b. Server side configuration
c. Stackable configuration
d. Modular configuration
Question 26
Correct
Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric?
1. The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.
2. A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
3. The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator.
4. Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
5. Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
6. The metric is always determined based on hop count.
Select one:
a. 2 & 3
b. 1 & 5
c. 3 & 4
d. 4 & 5
Question 27
Correct
This is a proprietary protocol that all Cisco devices can be configured to use. This checks other Cisco
devices that are directly connected, which allows the devices to auto-configure their connection.
Select one:
a. Cisco Configuration Protocol
b. Cisco Auto Configure
c. Cisco Discovery Protocol
d. Cisco Auto Connect Protocol
Question 28
Correct
Which protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch?
Select one:
a. 802.11g
b. 802.11n
c. 802.1q
d. ISL
e. 802.11a
Question 29
Correct
Which of the statements describe characteristic of load balancing?
Select one:
a. If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load
balancing.
b. Unequal cost load balancing is supported by OSPF.
c. Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination
network.
d. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
Question 30
Correct
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the network to issue
DHCP addresses to clients. The normal reason for this attack is to force the clients to use false Domain
Name System (DNS) or Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) servers and to make the clients use
the attacker, or a machine under the control of the attacker, as their default gateway.
Select one:
a. DHCP phishing attack
b. DHCP backdoor attack
c. DHCP spoofing attack
d. DHCP starvation attack
Question 31
Correct
Which is the VLAN not tagged by 802.1q?
Select one:
a. Native VLAN
b. Voice VLAN
c. Default VLAN
d. Management VLAN
e. Data VLAN
Question 32
Correct
What is the best practice relative to switch port modes?
Select one:
a. Use the dynamic auto or dynamic desirable switch port mode.
b. Do not use trunk switch port mode.
c. Use only access switch port mode.
d. Do not use the dynamic auto or dynamic desirable.
Question 33
Correct
Which protocolis used to configure trunking on a switch?
Select one:
a. 802.1q
b. vlan
c. 802.11n
d. 802.11a
Question 34
Correct
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker floods the DHCP server with DHCP requests to use all
the available IP addresses that the DHCP server can issue. After these IP addresses are issued, the
server cannot issue any more addresses, and this situation produces a denial-of-service (DoS) attackas
new clients cannot obtain network access.
Select one:
a. DHCP backdoor attack
b. DHCP phishing attack
d. DHCP starvation attack
Question 35
Correct
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator
checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What
additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?
Select one:
a. IPv6 enable
b. no shutdown
c. end
d. clockrate 128000
Question 36
Correct
Refer to the exhibit below. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are
correct?

SwitchA(config)#interface fa0/0
SwitchA(config-if)#switchport access vlan 2

1. The switchport belongs only to VLAN 2.
2. By default, all switch ports are members of VLAN 1005.
3. Interface fa0/0 will be in both VLAN 1 (by default) and VLAN 2.
4. The exhibit shows interface fa0/0 to be dynamically mapped to VLAN 2.
5. A network host can be connected to this interface.
Select one:
a. 4 & 5
b. 1 & 2
c. 2 & 4
d. 1 & 5
Question 37
Correct
Routers support three packet-forwarding mechanisms. These are
Select one:
a. Cisco Forward, Receive, Cisco Process
b. Process, Fast, Cisco Express Forwarding
c. Transmit, Receive, Store
d. Receive, Process, Transmit
e. Transmit, Receive, Distribute/Forward
Question 38
Correct
Select one:
a. Default VLAN
b. Management VLAN
c. Native VLAN
d. Data VLAN
Question 39
Correct
This is used between a network device and server or other device that is equipped with an appropriate
802.1Q-capable NIC.
Select one:
a. Tunneling
b. Access Point
c. Trunks
d. Domain
Question 40
Correct
Which of the following is the command to configure the IP domain name of the network
(mycompany.com)
Select one:
a. ip configure mycompany.com
b. ipconfig mycompany.com
c. config mycompany -ipdomain
d. ip domain-name mycompany.com
Question 41
Correct
Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router?

1. RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
2. ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
3. NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
4. Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
5. ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
6. Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS
Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 2
c. 4 & 5
d. 1 & 5
Question 42
Correct
Which statement describe a characteristicof load balancing?
Select one:
a. Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination
network.
b. Unequal cost load balancing is supported by RIP.
c. If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load
balancing.
d. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
Question 43
Correct
True of False.
Ingress is used to describe frames leaving the device through a particular port.
Select one:
True
False
Question 44
Correct
What is the command to create a VLAN with a valid VLAN ID number 30?
Select one:
a. create vlan 30
b. vlan 30
c. vlan id =30 –set
d. set vlan id = 30
Question 45
Incorrect
Select one:
True
False
Question 46
Incorrect
A collection of interconnected switches forms a _______________________.
Select one:
a. Shared domain
b. Collision domain
c. Broadcast domain
d. Common domain
Question 47
Correct
In troubleshooting VLANs, what command should be used to check whether the port belongs to the
expected VLAN?
Select one:
a. check vlan
b. show vlan
c. view vlan
d. display vlan
Question 48
Correct
Which two features are characteristics of flash memory?

1. The contents of flash may be lost during a power cycle.
2. Flash provides nonvolatile storage.
3. The contents of flash may be overwritten.
4. Flash is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.
5. Flash receives a copy of the IOS from RAM when a device is powered on.
Select one:
a. 4 & 5
b. 3 & 4
c. 1 & 5
d. 2 & 3
Question 49
Correct
The network segments that share the same bandwidth between devices.
Select one:
a. Broadcast domain
b. Common domain
c. Collision domain
d. Shared domain
Question 50
Correct
This is a protocol that is used to synchronize the clocks of computer systems over packet-switched,
variable-latency data networks.
Select one:
a. Network Time Protocol
b. Internetwork Time Protocol
c. Synchronize Time Protocol
d. Real Time Protocol
3/30/2020 Pre-Final Exam: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
Select one:
a. link bandwidth
b. hop count link cost
c. link delay
d. administrative distance
https://blended.amaesonline.com/abl-semestral/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=269352&cmid=2736&showall=1 1/32
Question 2
Correct
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how
many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
Select one:
a. 4
b. 3
c. 5
d. 2
Question 3
Correct
What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with
that route goes into a down state?
Select one:
a. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
b. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.
c. The Static route is removed from the routing table.
d. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
Question 4
Incorrect
What does administrative distance refer to?
Select one:
a. The cost of a link between two neighboring routers.
b. The advertised cost to reach a network.
c. The cost to reach a network that is administratively set.
d. A measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source.
Question 5
Incorrect
Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which interface
will R1 forward the packet?
Select one:
a. Serial0/0/1
b. FastEthernet0/1
c. Serial0/0/0
d. FastEthernet0/0
Question 6
Correct
Refer to the given network diagram. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static
route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?
Select one:
a. A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
b. A(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
c. A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
d. A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2
Question 7
Incorrect
The network administrator of ABC Supermarket configures the router with the "ip route 172.16.1.0
255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2" command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
Select one:
a. S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
b. C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
c. S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
d. C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
Question 8
Correct
Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, bounded and triggered updates, and uses
the multicast address of 224.0.0.10?
Select one:
a. RIPv1
b. EIGRP
c. OSPF
d. RIPv2
Question 9
Incorrect
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is highierthan the
administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
Select one:
a. To be used as a backup route
b. To act as a gateway of last resort
c. To be used as a primary route
d. To be the priority route in the routing table
Question 10
Incorrect
Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets?

1. They are used to negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
2. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.
3. They are used to determine the complete network topology.
4. They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
5. They are used to flood link-state information to all neighbors.
Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 2
c. 4 & 5
d. 1 & 5
Question 11
Incorrect
In reference with the network diagram of RMS Defence Industries. What routing solution will allow both
PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth
utilization?
Select one:
a. Configure a dynamic routing protocol between R1 and Edge and advertise all routes.
b. Configure a dynamic route from R1 to Edge and a static route from Edge to R1.
c. Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and a
static route from Edge to R1.
d. Configure a static route from R1 to Edge and a dynamic route from Edge to R1.
Question 12
Correct
Which parameter can be tuned to affect the selection of a static route as a backup when a dynamic
Select one:
a. Link bandwidth
b. Administrative distance
c. Hop count
d. Link cost
e. Link delay
Question 13
Incorrect
A network administrator in Stark Industries is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF
network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other
OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error
is causing this problem?
Select one:
b. The process id is configured improperly.
d. The network number is configured improperly.
Question 14
Incorrect
What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF routing protocol?
Select one:
a. 110
b. 120
c. 90
d. 100
e. 130
f. 170
Question 15
Correct
Select one:
a. Native VLAN
b. Default VLAN
c. Voice VLAN
d. Data VLAN
Question 16
Incorrect
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is
shown in the exhibit?
1. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

2. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
3. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
4. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
5. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
6. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk
ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
1. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

2. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
3. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
4. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
5. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
exhibit.
6. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on
Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Select one:
a. 1, 3
b. 1, 2
c. 4, 6
d. 2, 3
Question 17
Correct
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking?
1. one physical interface for each subinterface
2. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
3. a management domain for each subinterface
4. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
5. one subinterface per VLAN
6. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Select one:
a. 3, 4, 6
b. 2, 3, 6
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 2, 4, 5
Question 18
Incorrect
Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface?
Select one:
a. ipv6 autoconfig
b. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
c. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64
d. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
Question 19
Correct
Select one:
a. 170
b. 110
c. 120
d. 90
e. 100
f. 130
Question 20
Correct
Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45,
according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the
172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24
network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?
Select one:
a. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
b. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45
c. The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.
d. The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
Question 21
Correct
A network administrator in XYZ Telecom is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to
confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit
interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will
display the required information?
Select one:
a. Router#showipeigrp neighbors
b. Router# show ipeigrp topology
c. Router#showipeigrp interfaces
d. Router# show ipeigrp adjacency
Question 22
Incorrect
What is an advantage of OSPF compared to RIP?
Select one:
a. Less complexity
b. Low memory requirements
c. Fast convergence
d. Less CPU processing
Question 23
Correct
Select one:
a. Hop count
b. Administrative distance
c. Link delay
d. Link bandwidth
Question 24
Correct
What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols?

1. to maintain routing tables
2. to assure low router overhead
3. to avoid exposing network information
4. to discover the network
5. to choose the path that is specified by the administrator
Select one:
a. 3 & 4
b. 1 & 4
c. 4 & 5
d. 2 & 3
Question 25
Correct
Select one:
a. 90
b. 110
c. 120
d. 100
Question 26
Correct
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is highier than the
Select one:
a. To be the priority route in the routing table
b. To act as a gateway of last resort
c. To be used as a backup route
d. To load-balance the traffic
Question 27
Correct
Select one:
a. administrative distance
b. link cost
c. link bandwidth
d. link delay
e. hop count
Question 28
Correct
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to the server from
both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?
Select one:
a. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R3.
b. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R1.
c. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.
d. RIPv2 does not support VLSM.
Question 29
Correct
Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP
connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP
connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal.
Select one:
a. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252
b. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10
c. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10
d. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0
Question 30
Incorrect
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are correct?
Select one:
a. 2, 3
b. 1, 5
c. 1, 4
d. 3, 5
Question 31
Correct
Refer to the exhibit below. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet
with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?
Select one:
a. Configure a dynamic route from R1 to Edge and a static route from Edge to R1.
b. Configure a static route from R1 to Edge and a dynamic route from Edge to R1.
c. Configure a dynamic routing protocol between R1 and Edge and advertise all routes.
d. Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and
a static route from Edge to R1.
Question 32
Correct
Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPV6 address to a router interface?
Select one:
a. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
b. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
c. ipv6 address PREFIX_1::1/64
d. ipv6 autoconfig
Question 33
Correct
A network engineer for a semiconductor company wants to use the primary ISP connection for all
external connectivity. Refer at the diagram below. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary
ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?
Select one:
a. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0
b. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252
c. ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10
d. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10
Question 34
Correct
There are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing among these choices. What are these?
1. Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
2. Static routing scales well with expanding networks.
3. Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation.
4. Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing
5. Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks.
Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 5
c. 3 & 5
d. 1 & 4
Question 35
Correct
Which two statements describe a routed switch port on a multilayer switch?

1. Layer 2 switching and Layer 3 routing are mutually supported.
2. The port is not associated with any VLAN.
3. The routed switch port supports VLAN subinterfaces.
4. The routed switch port is used when a switch has only one port per VLAN or subnet.
5. The routed switch port ensures that STP remains in the forwarding state.
Select one:
a. 1, 5
b. 2, 4
c. 3, 5
d. 1, 3
Question 36
Correct
What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no
specific route to the destination network?
Select one:
a. generic route
b. default route
c. destination route
d. dynamic route
Question 37
Correct
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is highierthan the
Select one:
a. To be the priority route in the routing table
b. To load-balance the traffic
c. To be used as a backup route
d. To act as a gateway of last resort
Question 38
Correct
Which are the 2 trunking protocols?
Select one:
a. ISL & IEEE 802.1q
b. 802.11g and 802.11n
c. ISL & IEEE 802.11q
d. ISL and 802.11g
Question 39
Correct
A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four vlans in the local network. How
can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network
performance?
Select one:
a. Use a hub to connect the four vlans with a FastEthernet interface on router.
b. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
c. Add a second router to handle the vlan traffic.
d. Add two more FastEthernet interfaces.
Question 40
Correct
Which factor directly affects the time to convergence?
Select one:
a. Size of the network
b. The data link layer protocol used
c. Number of hosts
d. Type of applications used
Question 41
Correct
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing
departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
Select one:
a. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
b. More collision domains will be created.
c. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
d. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
Question 42
Correct
Select one:
a. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
b. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
c. The Static route is removed from the routing table.
d. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.
Question 43
Correct
Select one:
a. The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.
b. The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
c. The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
d. The Static route is removed from the routing table.
Question 44
Correct
Select one:
a. Link bandwidth
b. Hop count
c. Link cost
d. Link delay
e. Administrative distance
Question 45
Correct
Select one:
a. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set .
b. the bandwidth of a link between two neighboring routers.
c. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source.
d. the advertised cost to reach a destination ip address.
Question 46
Correct
Refer to the sample configuration below. Which (config-router) command will allow the network
represented on the interface to be advertised by RIP?
router rip
version 2
no auto summary
!
interface ethernet0
ip address 10.12.6.1 255.255.0.0
Select one:
a. Redistribute ethernet0
b. Network ethernet0
c. Network 10.12.0.0
d. Redistribute 10.12.0.0
Question 47
Correct
Select one:
a. Type of applications used
b. Number of hosts
c. Size of the network
d. The data link layer protocol used
Question 48
Correct
Which three statements about routed ports on a multilayer switch are true?
1. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.
2. A routed port takes an IP address assignment.
3. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
4. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch.
5. A routed port is associated only with one VLAN.
6. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.
Select one:
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 3, 4, 6
c. 2, 3, 6
d. 1, 3, 5
Question 49
Correct
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the
Select one:
a. to be the priority route in the routing table
b. to load-balance the traffic
c. to act as a gateway of last resort
d. to be used as a backup route
Question 50
Correct
There are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing among these choices. What are these?
1. Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
2. Static routing scales well with expanding networks.
3. Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation.
4. Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing
5. Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks.
Select one:
a. 2, 3
b. 3, 5
c. 1, 4
d. 2, 4
3/30/2020 Prelims: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
This layer provides intelligent switching, routing, and network access policy functions to access the rest
of the network.
Select one:
a. Access layer
b. Core layer
c. Network layer
d. Distribution layer
Question 2
Correct
What is the command to set the IP address (192.168.10.2) and subnet mask (255.255.0.0) for specific
Fast Ethernet interface?
Select one:
a. ipset 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0
b. ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0
c. ip 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0
d. ipset config 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0
e. ipconfig 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0
Question 3
Incorrect
True of False. VLAN IDs 1 to 1005 are automatically created. ID 1 cannot be removed while VLAN IDs
1002 to 1005 can still be removed.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Correct
A type of VLAN that is configured to carry user-generated traffic.
Select one:
a. Management VLAN
b. Data VLAN
c. Native VLAN
d. Default VLAN
Question 5
Incorrect
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
Select one:
a. The speed of network is the primary concern of the end user
b. Network switches must support the appropriate number of devices on the network.
c. The capability of the switch to store frames is important in a network where there may be
congested ports to servers or other areas of the network.
d. When selecting the type of switch, rack units should always be considered. Rack units is the
number ports available in the network switch.
e. The cost of a switch will depend on number and speed of the interfaces, supported features, and
expansion capability
Question 6
Correct
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
Select one:
a. A switch populates the MAC address table based on destination MAC addresses.
b. When the destination MAC address is not found in the MAC address table, the switch forwards
the frame out of all ports
c. To forward the frame, the switch examines the destination MAC address and compares it to
addresses found in the MAC address table.
d. None of the choices
e. As frames enter the switch, the switch learns the source MAC address of the received frame and
adds the MAC address to the MAC address table.
Question 7
Correct
This is used to connect a PC to the console port of a switch for configuration.
Select one:
a. Console cable
b. Asynchronous link cable
c. Cross cable
d. UTP Network cable
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. Cisco Configuration Protocol
b. Cisco Discovery Protocol
c. Cisco Auto Configure
d. Cisco Auto Connect Protocol
Question 9
Correct
This is used between a network device and server or other device that is equipped with an appropriate
802.1Q-capable NIC.
Select one:
a. Tunneling
b. None of the choices
c. Access Point
d. Trunks
Question 10
Correct
This is a conduit for multiple VLANs between switches and routers.
Select one:
a. Tunneling
b. Access Point
c. None of the choices
d. Trunks
Question 11
Correct
In the Switch port LED status, if the LED is blinking green what is the status of switch?
Select one:
a. A link is present.
b. There is activity and the port is sending or receiving data.
c. The port is blocked.
d. There is a link fault error.
Question 12
Correct
This is a point-to-point link between two network devices that carries more than one VLAN.
Select one:
a. Tunneling
b. Access Point
c. Virtual Private Network
d. Trunks
Question 13
Correct
The following are VLAN best practices EXCEPT?
Select one:
a. Shut down unused switch ports to prevent unauthorized access
b. Configure all the ports on all switches to be associated with VLANs other than VLAN 1.
c. Join native VLAN to VLAN.
d. Separate management and user data traffic.
Question 14
Correct
This is a protocol that is used to synchronize the clocks of computer systems over packet-switched,
variable-latency data networks.
Select one:
a. Network Time Protocol
b. Internetwork Time Protocol
c. Synchronize Time Protocol
d. Real Time Protocol
Question 15
Correct
TRUE or FALSE. Store-and-forward switching has two primary characteristics that distinguish it from
cut-through: error checking and automatic buffering.
Select one:
True
False
Question 16
Correct
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of VLAN?
Select one:
a. Groups that have sensitive data are separated from the rest of the network, decreasing the
chances of confidential information breaches.
b. Cost savings result from reduced need for expensive network upgrades and more efficient use
of existing bandwidth and uplinks.
c. VLANs make it easier to manage the network because users with similar network requirements
share the same VLAN.
d. Dividing Layer 1,2 and 3 networks into multiple physical workgroups reduces unnecessary traffic
on the network and boosts performance.
Question 17
Correct
Which of the following describes a VLAN?
Select one:
a. VLANs allow an administrator to segment networks based on factors such as function, project
team, or application.
b. VLANs provide a way to group devices within a LAN.
c. A group of devices within a VLAN communicate as if they were attached to the same wire.
d. VLANs are based on logical connections, instead of physical connections.
Question 18
Correct
Which of the following describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol?
Select one:
a. All of the choices
b. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is a proprietary networking protocol developed by Cisco Systems.
c. Dynamic Trunking Protocol is disable by default.
d. Switches from other vendors do not support Dynamic Trunking Protocol.
Question 19
Correct
Configurations are stored within a VLAN database file, called
Select one:
a. cisco_vlan.ini
b. cisco_vlan.dat
c. vlan.dat
d. vlan.cfg
Question 20
Correct
the switch.
Select one:
c. Modular configuration
d. Server side configuration
Question 21
Incorrect
Telnet protocol by default uses Port ______.
Select one:
a. 23
b. 8080
c. 80
d. 22
Question 22
Correct
What is the command to assign the port to a particular VLAN when the interface is in access mode?
Select one:
a. switchport access vlanvlan-id
b. assignport access vlanvlan-id
c. setport access vlanvlan-id
d. defineport access vlanvlan-id
Question 23
Correct
A protocol that provides an encrypted connection to a remote device.
Select one:
a. HTTP
b. FTP
c. SSH
d. TCP/IP
Question 24
Correct
VLAN IDs 1002 through 1005 are reserved for
Select one:
a. FDDI VLANs
b. All of the Choices
c. Token Ring VLANs
d. None of the Choices
Question 25
Correct
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a Switched Network
Select one:
a. Support to wireless networking and connectivity
c. Quality of Service
d. Support to IP telephony
e. Traffic management
Question 26
Correct
SSH protocol by default uses Port ______.
Select one:
a. 23
b. 8080
c. 22
d. 80
Question 27
Correct
Sometimes switch ports must manually have their duplex mode manually configured. This duplex mode
increases effective bandwidth by allowing both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data
simultaneously.
Select one:
a. Half duplex mode
b. Full duplex mode
c. Asynchronous duplex mode
d. None of the choices
Question 28
Correct
Select one:
b. The port is busy and receiving data.
c. The port is operating at 1000 Mbps.
d. The port is busy and sending data.
e. The port is operating at 10 Mbps.
Question 29
Correct
In troubleshooting VLANs, what command should be used to check whether the port belongs to the
expected VLAN?
Select one:
a. check vlan
b. show vlan
c. view vlan
d. display vlan
Question 30
Correct
True or False.
If two devices in the same VLAN have different subnet addresses, they cannot communicate.
Select one:
True
False
3/30/2020 Quiz 001: Attempt review
Question 1
Correct
This layer provide fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity.
Select one:
a. Distribution layer
b. Core layer
c. Network layer
d. Access layer
Question 2
Correct
the switch.
Select one:
a. Modular configuration
c. Server side configuration
d. Fixed configuration
Question 3
Correct
A switch forwarding method that begins the forwarding process after the destination MAC address of
an incoming frame and the egress port has been determined.
Select one:
a. Cut-through switch method
b. Rapid Frame forwarding
c. Automatic-forward switching
d. Store-and-forward switching
Question 4
Correct
This layer is considered as the network backbone.
Select one:
a. Network layer
b. Distribution layer
c. Core layer
d. Access layer
Question 5
Correct
Stackable that are arranged one on top of the other with cables linking the switches in a _____________
connection.
Select one:
a. Parallel
b. Straight cable
c. Cross cable
d. Daisy Chain
Question 6
Correct
A switch forwarding method that makes a forwarding decision on a frame after it has received the
entire frame and then checked the frame for errors.
Select one:
a. Cut-through switch method
b. Automatic-forward switching
c. Rapid Frame forwarding
d. Store-and-forward switching
Question 7
Correct
A collection of interconnected switches forms a _______________________.
Select one:
a. Broadcast domain
b. Collision domain
c. Shared domain
d. Common domain
Question 8
Correct
TRUE or FALSE. Store-and-forward switching has two primary characteristics that distinguish it from
cut-through: error checking and automatic buffering.
Select one:
True
False
Question 9
Correct
The primary function of this layer is to provide network access to the user.
Select one:
a. Core layer
b. Network layer
c. Distribution layer
d. Access layer
Question 10
Correct
This layer provides intelligent switching, routing, and network access policy functions to access the rest
of the network.
Select one:
a. Network layer
b. Access layer
c. Core layer
d. Distribution layer
Question 1
Correct
What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is green?
Select one:
c. The port is busy and sending data.
e. The port is operating at 10 Mbps.
Question 2
Correct
172.10.90.1?
Select one:
a. Ipdefault gateway 172.10.90.1
b. Ipconfig default-gateway 172.10.90.1
c. Ip default-gateway 172.10.90.1
d. Ipset gateway 172.10.90.1 -default
Question 3
Correct
This attack tries to crack a password on another device. The first phase of this attack starts with the
attacker using a list of common passwords and a program designed to try to establish a Telnet session
using each word on the dictionary list.
Select one:
a. Crack password attack
b. Telnet password attack
c. Telnet DoS attack
d. Brute force password attack
Question 4
Correct
SSH protocol by default uses Port ______.
Select one:
a. 8080
b. 23
c. 22
d. 80
Question 5
Correct
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker floods the DHCP server with DHCP requests to use all
the available IP addresses that the DHCP server can issue. After these IP addresses are issued, the
server cannot issue any more addresses, and this situation produces a denial-of-service (DoS) attackas
new clients cannot obtain network access.
Select one:
a. DHCP starvation attack
b. DHCP backdoor attack
d. DHCP phishing attack
Question 6
Correct
Select one:
a. Cisco Discovery Protocol
b. Cisco Auto Connect Protocol
c. Cisco Auto Configure
d. Cisco Configuration Protocol
Question 7
Correct
What is the command to set the IP address (192.168.10.2) and subnet mask (255.255.0.0) for specific
Fast Ethernet interface?
Select one:
a. ipconfig 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0
b. ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0
c. ipset 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0
d. ipset config 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0
e. ip 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
c. The port is operating at 100 Mbps.
e. The port is busy and sending data.
Question 9
Correct
Global configuration mode is used to configure system globally, or to enter specific configuration
modes to configure specific elements such as protocols. What is the command to enter global
configuration mode?
Select one:
a. set global
b. enter global
c. configure terminal
d. config global
e. config device
Question 10
Correct
What is the command used to determine the status of both physical and virtual interfaces including IP
address?
Select one:
a. display all ip interface
b. show ip interface brief
c. list ip interface /all
d. status ip interface /all
Question 1
Correct
This layer provide fault isolation and high-speed backbone onnectivity.
Select one:
a. Network layer
b. Access layer
c. Distribution layer
d. Core layer
Question 2
Correct
To troubleshoot issues when a trunk is not forming or when VLAN leaking is occurring, what command
to be used to check whether the local and peer native VLANs match?
Select one:
a. check vlan connection
b. show interfaces trunk
c. check match vlan
d. view trunk - match
Question 3
Incorrect
TRUE or FALSE.
A host can be assigned it IP address information in one of the two way. Statically and dynamically
assigned. In statistically assigned IP address, the DHCP server provides a valid IP address.
Select one:
True
False
Question 4
Correct
Telnet protocol by default uses Port ______.
Select one:
a. 22
b. 8080
c. 23
d. 80
Question 5
Correct
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the network to issue
DHCP addresses to clients. The normal reason for this attack is to force the clients to use false Domain
Name System (DNS) or Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) servers and to make the clients use
the attacker, or a machine under the control of the attacker, as their default gateway.
Select one:
a. DHCP starvation attack
b. DHCP phishing attack
c. DHCP backdoor attack
d. DHCP spoofing attack
Question 6
Correct
172.10.90.1?
Select one:
a. ipdefault gateway 172.10.90.1
b. ipset gateway 172.10.90.1 -default
c. ip default-gateway 172.10.90.1
d. ipconfig default-gateway 172.10.90.1
Question 7
Correct
The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the installation of different
numbers of line card.
Select one:
a. Modular configuration
b. Server side configuration
c. Fixed configuration
d. Stackable configuration
Question 8
Correct
Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of a network?
Select one:
a. Security
c. All of the choices
d. Cost
e. Scalability
f. Reliability
Question 9
Correct
This is the arrangement of the cables, network devices, and end systems. It describes how the network
devices are actually interconnected with wires and cables.
Select one:
a. TCP/IP
b. logical topology
c. physical topology
d. internet topology
Question 10
Correct
This is the practice of inserting a VLAN ID into a packet header in order to identify which VLAN (Virtual
Local Area Network) the packet belongs to.
Select one:
a. VLAN tagging
b. VLAN building
c. VLAN insertion
d. VLAN linkage
Question 1
Correct
Select one:
a. Data VLAN
b. Voice VLAN
c. Default VLAN
d. Management VLAN
e. Native VLAN
Question 2
Correct
Which protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch?
Select one:
a. 802.11a
b. 802.1q
c. 802.11g
d. ISL
e. 802.11n
Question 3
Correct
1. VTP
2. 802.1q
3. IGP
4. ISL
5. 802.3u
Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 1 & 5
c. 1 & 2
d. 4 & 5
Question 4
Correct
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What
would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem?

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Select one:
a. 1, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 4, 5, 6
d. 2, 4, 6
Question 5
Correct
VLAN is a switching technology that reduces the size of a broadcast domain.
Select one:
True
False
Question 6
Correct
Select one:
True
False
Question 7
Correct
Select one:
a. Native VLAN
b. Default VLAN
c. Data VLAN
d. Management VLAN
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. ISL and 802.11g
b. 802.11a and 802.11b
d. 802.11g and 802.11n
Question 9
Correct
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing
departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
Select one:
a. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
b. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
c. More collision domains will be created.
d. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
Question 10
Correct
Refer to the exhibit below. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are
correct?


Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 4 & 5
c. 1 & 5
d. 1 & 2
Question 1
Incorrect
Select one:
a. Size of the network
b. Number of hosts
c. The data link layer protocol used
d. Type of applications used
Question 2
Correct
Select one:
a. Hop count
b. Link bandwidth
c. Link delay
d. Administrative distance
Question 3
Incorrect
Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets?

1. They are used to negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
2. They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.
3. They are used to determine the complete network topology.
4. They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
5. They are used to flood link-state information to all neighbors.
Select one:
a. 2 & 4
b. 4 & 5
c. 1 & 2
d. 1 & 5
Question 4
Incorrect
What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols?

1. to maintain routing tables
2. to assure low router overhead
3. to avoid exposing network information
4. to discover the network
5. to choose the path that is specified by the administrator
Select one:
a. 4 & 5
b. 1 & 4
c. 1 &3
d. 2 & 4
Question 5
Correct
A network administrator in Stark Industries is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF
network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other
OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error
is causing this problem?
Select one:
b. The network number is configured improperly.
d. The process id is configured improperly.
Question 6
Incorrect
A network administrator in XYZ Telecom is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to
confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit
interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will
display the required information?
Select one:
a. Router#showipeigrp interfaces
b. Router#showipeigrp neighbors
c. Router# show ipeigrp topology
d. Router# show ipeigrp adjacency show ipeigrp adjacency
Question 7
Incorrect
OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and interfaces operational, how
many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
Select one:
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 5
Question 8
Incorrect
A network administrator of Stark Industries has examined the routing table of a router and noted that
the entry for the destination network 172.16.4.0/24 begins with the letter D. What does this letter
signify?
Select one:
a. The route to this network is configured statically on the router.
b. The route to network 172.16.4.0/24 is directly connected.
c. The route source was learned dynamically.
d. That is the direct route for packets to that network.
Question 9
Incorrect
Which classless routing protocol supports VLSM and CIDR, bounded and triggered updates, and uses
the multicast address of 224.0.0.10?
Select one:
a. OSPF
b. RIPv1
c. RIPv2
d. EIGRP
Question 10
Incorrect
OSPF routing uses the concept of areas. What are the characteristics of OSPF areas?
1. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured.
2. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535.
3. Area 0 is called the backbone area.
4. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas.
5. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0.
6. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1.
Select one:
a. 1, 2, 5
b. 3, 4, 6
c. 2, 3, 6
d. 2, 3, 5
Question 1
Correct
Select one:
a. ISL and 802.11g
b. ISL & IEEE 802.11q
d. 802.11g and 802.11n
Question 2
Correct
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking?
1. one physical interface for each subinterface
2. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
3. a management domain for each subinterface
4. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
5. one subinterface per VLAN
6. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Select one:
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 3, 4, 6
c. 2, 4, 5
d. 2, 3, 6
Question 3
Incorrect
Select one:
a. the cost to reach a network that is administratively set .
b. the bandwidth of a link between two neighboring routers.
c. the advertised cost to reach a destination ip address.
d. a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing information source.
Question 4
Incorrect
Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45,
according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the
172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24
network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?
Select one:
a. The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
b. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
c. There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45
d. The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.
Question 5
Incorrect
Refer to the exhibit. The user at Workstation B reports that Server A cannot be reached. What is
preventing Workstation B from reaching Server A?
Select one:
a. The IP address for Workstation B is a subnet address.
b. The gateway for Server A is not on the same subnet.
c. The IP address for Server A is a broadcast address.
d. The gateway for Workstation B is not on the same subnet.
Question 6
Correct
Which three statements about routed ports on a multilayer switch are true?
1. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.
2. A routed port takes an IP address assignment.
3. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
4. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch.
5. A routed port is associated only with one VLAN.
6. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.
Select one:
a. 2, 3, 6
b. 3, 4, 6
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 3, 5
Question 7
Correct
Select one:
a. Native VLAN
b. Default VLAN
c. Data VLAN
d. Voice VLAN
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. hop count link cost
b. administrative distance
c. link bandwidth
d. link delay
Question 9
Correct
1. VTP
2. 802.1q
3. IGP
4. ISL
5. 802.3u
Select one:
a. 2, 4
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 3, 5
Question 10
Incorrect
What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?
Select one:
a. ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 135
b. ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 serial 0/0/0
c. ip route 172.16.0.0 255.248.0.0 10.0.0.1
d. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0
Question 1
Correct
PAT Address Translation is also termed what?
Select one:
a. NAT Static
b. NAT Overload
c. Overloading Static
d. NAT Fast
Question 2
Correct
Which command will allow you to see real-time translations on your router?
Select one:
a. clear ip nat translations *
b. show ip nat translations
c. debug ip nat
d. show ip nat statistics
Question 3
Correct
Which command will create a dynamic pool named Todd that will provide you with 30 global
addresses?
Select one:
a. ip nat pool Todd 171.16.10.65 171.16.10.94 net 255.255.255.248
b. ip nat pool Todd 171.16.10.65 171.16.10.94 net 255.255.255.240
c. ip nat pool Todd 171.16.10.1 171.16.10.254 net 255.255.255.0
d. ip nat pool Todd 171.16.10.65 171.16.10.94 net 255.255.255.224
Question 4
Correct
Which command would you place on interface on a private network?
Select one:
a. ip nat outside
b. ip outside global
c. ip inside local
d. ip nat inside
Question 5
Correct
What are two benefits of using NAT?

1. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.
2. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
3. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
4. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enable.
5. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all host that require external access.
6. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.

Select one:
a. 2 & 5
b. 1 & 5
c. 1 & 4
d. 3 & 4
Question 6
Correct
Select one:
a. ip outside global
b. ip inside local
c. ip nat outside
d. ip nat inside
Question 7
Correct
Which two statements about static NAT translations are true?

1. They are always present in the NAT table.
2. They allow connection to be initiated from the outside.
3. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the
outside.
4. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
Select one:
a. 1 & 4
b. 3 & 4
c. 2 & 5
d. 1 & 2
Question 8
Correct
Which of the following would be a good starting point for troubleshooting if your router is not
translating?
Select one:
a. Call Cisco.
b. Run the debug all command.
c. Check your interfaces for the correct configuration.
d. Reboot.
Question 9
Correct
Which of the following are 3 disadvantages of using NAT?

1. Translation introduces switching path delays.
2. NAT conserves legally registered addresses.
3. NAT causes loss of end-to-end IP traceability.
4. NAT increases flexibility when connecting to the Internet.
5. Certain applications will not function with NAT enabled.
6. NAT reduces address overlap occurrence.
Select one:
a. 1, 2, 6
b. 2, 3, 6
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 3, 5
Question 10
Correct
Select one:
a. Port forwarding
b. Dynamic NAT
c. PAT
d. Static NAT
Question 1
Correct
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
Select one:
a. 90
b. 110
c. 120
d. 100
Question 2
Correct
Which of the following 3 methods/types of NAT?

1. Static
2. IP NAT pool
3. Dynamic
4. NAT double-translation
5. Overload
Select one:
a. 1, 3, 5
b. 2, 3, 5
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
Question 3
Incorrect
As a network administrator of RMS Aerospace Industries, you have been instructed to prevent all traffic
originating on the LAN from entering the R2 router. Which the following command would implement
the access list on the interface of the R2 router?
Select one:
a. access-list 101 out
b. access-list 101 in
c. ip access-group 101 out
d. ip access-group 101 in
Question 4
Correct
Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
Select one:
a. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
b. access-list 102 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
c. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
d. access-list 110 permit ip any any
Question 5
Incorrect
The following configuration line was added to router R1

Access-list 101 permit ip 10.25.30.0 0.0.0.255 any
What is the effect of this access list configuration?
Select one:
a. Permit all packet matching the last octet of the destination address and accept all source
addresses
b. Permit all packet matching the host bits in the source address to all destinations
c. Permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source address to all destinations
d. Permit all packet from the third subnet of the network address to all destinations
Question 6
Correct
Select one:
a. ip inside local
b. ip nat outside
c. ip nat inside
d. ip outside global
Question 7
Correct
Select one:
a. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
b. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused
c. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator
d. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
Question 8
Correct
Select one:
a. show ip nat translations
b. clear ip nat translations *
c. debug ip nat
Question 9
Correct
Select one:
a. ip nat outside
b. ip nat inside
c. ip outside global
d. ip inside local
Question 10
Correct
Select one:
a. clear ip nat translations *
b. debug ip nat
c. show ip nat translations

Data Communicat Ions Network 2 All in Source by Jayson C. Lucena

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

Data Communicat Ions Network 2 All in Source by Jayson C. Lucena

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Data Communicat Ions Network 2 All in Source by Jayson C. Lucena

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

DATA

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which of the following are 3 disadvantages of using NAT?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which task does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which command is used to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?

Which command would you place on interface connected to the Internet?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Which command would you place on interface connected to the Internet?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

1 – Router(config)# interface fa0/0

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host?

The ip helper-address command does what?

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP address to host?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What is the purpose of the DHCP server?

Which 3 statements describe the routing protocol OSPF?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

1. access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5

Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What two functions describe uses of an access control list?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The following configuration line was added to router R1

PAT Address Translation is also termed what?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

This is a conduit for multiple VLANs between switches and routers.

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

"Router On Stick" is a method used for communicating inter-vlan using a router.

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What route would have the lowest administrative distance?

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The primary functions of a router are the following?

Which two features are characteristics of flash memory?

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

A protocol that provides an encrypted connection to a remote device.

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00