Class Xii Sample Papers

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA BERHAMPUR
CLASS:- XII SESSION:- 2021`-22
SUBJECT :- ENGLISH ( CORE)
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER TERM:- 1
Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks 40

1. Read the passage given below.
1. The first Indian woman physician Anandibai Joshi, graduated in 1886. Starting from that single figure, about 125
years later, Indian women have started to outnumber men in admissions to medical colleges and the trend continues
to grow stronger by the year, particularly over the last five years. During this period, India has produced 4500 more
female doctors than male ones.
2. In India women constituted 51% of the students joining medical colleges, cornering 23,522 seats in 2014-15,
compared to 22,934 men. This increase is in keeping with the worldwide trend. In fact, in the neighbouring countries
such as Pakistan and Bangladesh there are much higher portions of women in medical colleges, with figures standing
at 70% and 60% respectively.
3. Paradoxically, there is a serious shortage of female doctors in India. According,to the medical journal Lancet, only
17% of all allopathic doctors and 6% of those in rural areas are women. This is less than one female allopathic doctor
per 10,000 population in rural areas, whereas the ratio is 6.5 in urban areas.
4. According to a paper on women in medicine published in the journal ‘Indian Anthropologist’ by sociologist Dr Mita
Bhadra, the gender gap persists at the post graduation and doctoral levels. The percentage of women doctors here is
around one-third of male doctors. She also observed that positions of leadership in academics and administration are
still mostly occupied by men.
5. In Pakistan, though 70% of medical students are women, only 23% of registered doctors were females because a
large number of those who graduated never took to practising. The picture is no different in Bangladesh where 3164
female doctors graduated as compared to 2383 male doctors, in 2013. The trend of more women joining the medical
profession is welcomed in all these countries as female doctors are seen as committed and caring. This difference in
numbers in the profession vis-a-vis women graduating has led to several studies being carried out. A paper on women
in medicine published by Dr Rakesh Chaddha and Dr Mamta Sood of the psychiatry department of AIIMS noted that
medicine has been a male-dominated profession because it demands long working hours that are disadvantageous to
women who, even today, struggle to juggle career and family responsibilities.
6. Earlier, though women were largely restricted to fields such as obstetrics, gynaecology and paediatrics, this is
changing now. There has always been a preponderance of women in pre-clinical subjects like anatomy, physiology and
biochemistry and paraclinical subjects like pharmacology, pathology and microbiology, right from the ‘70s. However,
when a department is headed by a woman, the percentage of women in the faculty goes up. In departments headed
by women, the women faculty was 49% as compared to just 19% in those headed by men, says Dr Chaddha, giving the
example of the neurology department at the AIIMS, which saw a lot of women faculty joining when the HOD was a
woman. ‘It is probably because the head of the department becomes a role model and more women are encouraged
to join,’ said Dr. Chaddha.
7. There are skews within the medical profession in most parts of the world with some medical specialties, such as
surgery and other disciplines requiring emergency duty with irregular hours being male-dominated. Even in the United
Kingdom, though women account for 56% of those opting for medical education, 49% are public health and only 8%
are surgeons, according to a Royal College of Physicians expert.
8. Among the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development countries (OECD), across ten of them,
predominantly from the erstwhile Eastern Bloc, the proportion of female physicians is more than 50%, ranging from a
high 73.8% in Estonia to 50.2% in Spain. In two non- OECD countries, Latvia and Lithuania, females accounted for over
74% and 70% of physicians. In contrast, only one in five doctors in Japan and Korea were women. In the United States
it is one in three, confirming the fact that the disproportion among women and men doctors is a universal
phenomenon.
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, complete the statements given below with the help of
options that follow. (1x8=8)
(a) In 125 years, the female doctors have outnumbered male doctors by …………………………. in India.
(i) 4000
(ii) 4300
(iii) 4500
(iv) 2383
(b) How many women are joining the medical profession in Pakistan and Bangladesh?
(i) is much lower than the figures in India
(ii) equals women doctors in India
(iii) is growing faster than the doctors in India
(iv) is higher than the figures in India
a.(i) and (iii) are true
B. only (iv) is true
c. (iii) and (iv) are true
d. (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) There are less women in medicine because
(i) it is a tough line
(ii) it demands long working hours
(iii) women do not enjoy this field
(iv) women are discouraged by their peers in this segment
(d) Females accounted for over …………………………. of the physicians in Lithuania.
(i) 70%
(ii) 74%
(iii) 50%
(iv) one in three women
(e) The positions of leadership in academics and administration are still occupied by
(i) women only
(ii) men only
(iii) Both men and women
(iv) doctors only
(f) Pharmacology, pathology and microbiology are termed …………………………. subjects in medicine.
(i) paraclinical
(ii) paedriatrics
(iii) gynaecology
(iv) para medical
(g) Which is the medical journal that reported a serious shortage of female doctors in India?
(i) Lancet
(ii) psychiatry
(iii) Royal College
(iv) OECD
(h) Find words from the passage which mean the opposite of the following. Select the option. correct
(a) abundance (para 3)
(i) shortage
(ii) erstwhile
(iii) scantiness
(iv) paucity
A. (i) and (ii) are correct

B. (iii) and (i) are correct
C. (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
D. Only (ii) is correct
Passage – 2 Case Based (1x6=6)
The Ganges is one of the largest rivers in Asia. It rises in the Himalaya Mountains and flows over 2500km through
India and Bangladesh into the Bay of Bengal.
However, the Ganges, India’s holy river, is also one of the most polluted in the world. The Ganges River basin has
a size of over 1 million square km. It lies in one of the most populous regions on earth. About 500 million people,
half of India’s overall population, live in the Ganges river plains.
There are many causes of Ganges river pollution. About 2 million Hindus battle in the river every day. During
religious ceremonies, up to a hundred million people clean their sins away in the Ganges River. They believe that
bathing in the river will make them pure. In addition, thousands of bodies are cremated near the river, especially
around the holy city, Varanasi. The ashes are often released into Ganges.
The Ganges also provides water for farming land, which is increasing at a tremendous rate. Irritation projects
cause water levels to go down along the river. More and more dams are being erected along India’s holy river,
mainly to produce energy for Delhi and other large cities in the area.
The river flows through 30cities with a population of over 100,000 each. Everyday, 3 billion litres of untreated
water from these big cities pass into the Ganges River, along with remains of animals.
Ganges River Pollution: A case Study of Causes of Ganges River Pollution.
Because of India’s lax environmental regulations, industries along the river release chemicals and other
poisonous material into the Ganges. In some places they are a thousand times over the allowed limit. Especially
India’s traditional leather industry needs great amounts of water . In addition, fertilizers from the fields find their
way into the ground water, and ultimately flow into the river. Altogether, the amount of Industrial pollution has
doubled in the past 20 years.
This widespread pollution of the Ganges River has also led to major health problems. Many diseases are
common, including cholera, hepatitis and diarrhoea.
While India’s population keeps growing, more and more people are leaving the countryside and moving to big
cities along the Ganges. As a result, the river will not be able to cope with even more people.
Life in the river is also at risk. Recent reports have shown that there is high a level of mercury in some fish. The
construction of dams is destroying forests and vegetation, killing off many animals and plants.
India authorities are fighting an upward battle towards cleaning up Ganges River. International organizations
have offered help. The World Bank has agreed to give India a loan of up to a million dollars to clean up the
Ganges River.
1. From which of the following neighbouring countries, the Ganges flows through India into the Bay of Bengal?
a) China
b) Bhutan
c) Bangladesh
d) Sri Lanka
2. How many people ( in million) clean their sins away in the Ganges River?
a) 2
b) 100
c) 500
d) 750
3. According to the passage, which disease in not common due to the widespread pollution of the Ganges River?
a) Influenza
b) Diarrhoea
c) Hepatitis
d) Cholera
4. According to the passage, which industry in India needs great amount of water?
a) Lock
b) Dyeing
c) Cloth
d) Leather
5. Which International organisation has agreed to give India a loan of a billion dollar to clean up the Ganges
River?
a) The World Bank
b) IMF
c) ADB
d) IDA
6. The bar graph shows that the River Ganges has got polluted badly. The sewage treatment plants had been
established. Which of the following is true ?
a) The treatment capacity is equal to the sewage generation
b) The sewage generation is less than the treatment plant.
c) The sewage generation is more than the treatment capacity installed.
d) The treatment plant is sufficient.
WRITING
3. An Inter-school Kabaddi Competition is organized by your school, ST. Michael Sr, Secondary
school , Delhi. Write a notice, in not more than 50 words, requesting the students to be present at
the venue to encourage the players. Invent all the necessary details. You are Arjun, the sports
captain of your school. (1x4=4)
Answer:
ST. MICHAEL SR. SECONDARY SCHOOL, DELHI

NOTICE
September 25, 2021
a.---------------------------------------------------------
An Inter-school Kabaddi Competition (b) ------------------------- on 20th December at 3.00 pm in the

school playground. The students who want to participate in the competition (c) -------------------- their
names along with their details till 17th December to their Sports Secretary. All the students are
requested to be present at the venue (d) --------------------- the participants. For further details,
contact the undersigned.
Arjun
Sports captain
choose the most appropriate option

a. ----------------------------
i.Inter School Kabaddi Competition
ii.Kabaddi competition
iii.Internal Competition
iv.Secondary Competition
b. ------------------------------
i. was going to be held
ii. is going to be held
iii.were going to be held
iv. none of these
c. --------------------------------
i. may enrol
ii. would enrol
iii. might enrol
iv. both (i) and (ii)
d. ------------------------------
i. to cheer up
ii. to cheer of
iii. to cheer off
iv. none of these
4. You are Amit / Amita staying at Sunrise apartments, Gymkhana road, Pune. The main road leading to this
colony has three open manholes causing frequent accidents at night. The street light is also not available.
Complete this letter to the editor of the Times of India expressing your concern about the part of the authorities
towards this situation. Also suggest ways to mobilize city dwellers, with the help of school children for the cause
of safety roads. (1x6=6)
Answer:
C4
Sunrise apartment
Gymkhana road
Pune
June 13 2021
The Editor
The Times of India
Mumbai
Sub: __________________________________________
Respected Sir
Through the columns of your esteemed newspaper I wish to draw the kind attention of the relevant authorities
towards the b)____________________.
I would like to bring the attention of the relevant authorities towards the issue of three open manholes on the
main road leading to a colony. These open man holes are turning into death traps for the residents who have
demanded that the authorities concerned take steps to cover them.
Moreover , our colony has no street lights since the last 2 months . There are no street lights even on the main
roads leading to a colony. With the open manholes and lack of street lights c)________________ , the road gets
dark even after 7 in the evening. People fear going out not only to avoid accidents but also to avoid being prey to
unscrupulous elements. The open manholes not only d)_________________ but are also a breeding ground for
mosquitoes. Motorist, elders and children are the main victims of these manholes and many times accidents
have been reported due to these manholes.
Whenever torrential rains hit the areas they cause even more problems. e) ______________for the cause of safe
roads, we plan to organise a student rally from sunrise apartments main gate to Mr Rehan, the current MP’s
house and hope this letter will elicit a suitable response from our elected representatives.
Thanking you
Yours faithfully
Amita
Choose the most appropriate option
a.
i) Mobilization of city dwellers.
ii) Darkness around sunrise apartments.
iii) Road safety in the colony.
iv) Concern about night accidents.
b.
i) Pitiable condition of local residents.
ii) Miserable condition of people residing in colony.
iii) Pathetic condition of residents of Sunrise apartments Gymkhana road.
iv) Frequent accidents occur during at night.
c.
i) Accidents happen.
ii) Accidents are on a rise.
iii) There are racing accidents.
iv) Most accidents occur.
d.
i) Emit bad smell and cause pollution.
ii) Give foul smell and lead to accidents.
iii) Create a pollution.
iv) Create worst situation
e.
i) To avoid the danger.
ii) To provide safety to passengers.
iii) To protect the passes by.
iv) To mobilize City dwellers.
f. When you are writing a formal letter, what information might you need?
A) dates
B) names
C) contact details
D) all of these
LITERATURE
5. Read the given extract to attempt questions that follow.
(1) Then, from one thing to another, he went on to talk of the French
language, saying that it was the most beautiful language in the worldthe
clearest, the most logical; that we must guard it among us and never
forget it, because when a people are enslaved, as long as they hold fast
to their language it is as if they had the key to their prison. (1x4=4)
Questions :
a. What does the word 'Enslaved' mean?
i. Made a slave of
ii. Be a slave of
iii. Both of these
iv. None of these
b. Hold fast means......

i. Adhere to
ii. Stick to
iii. Bind to
iv. All of these
c. What piece of advice was given by the teacher to everyone?
i. To respect their mother tongue
ii. To bury their mother tongue
iii. Both (i) and(ii)
iv. Neither (i) and (ii)
6.“ Listening to them , I see two distinct worlds- one of the family, caught in a web of
poverty, burdened by the stigma of caste in which they are born; the other a vicious circle
of the sahukars, the middlemen, the policemen, the keepers of law, the bureaucrats and the
politicians. Together they have imposed the baggage on the child that he cannot put down.
(1x3=3)
1. Which are the two different worlds that the author sees?
a. Policemen – bureaucrats
b. Sahukars – policemen
c. Middlemen – poor people
d. Poor people – influential people
2. What do you mean by the word ‘stigma’?

a. Disgrace
b. Proud
c. Arrogant
d. Delight
3. Who is “I”?
a. Anees Jung
b. Saheb
c. Mukesh
d.None of the above
7. Driving from my parent’s home
to Cochin last Friday morning, I
saw my mother,beside me
(1x3=3)
i.Words are demonstrated to connote
a.Time
b. Space
c.Position
ii.Pick the correct option that is used to describe the declining health of
poet’s mother.
a.A corpse
b. Trees sprinting
c.late winter’s moon
d.Merry Children
a.Only 1 and 2
b.Only 2 and 3
c.Only 1 and 3
d.Only 2 and 4
iii. Pick the correct option that match the words / phrases with the literary
device.
Word/ phrase Literary device
1 Children spilling out Personification
2 Trees sprinting Metaphor

3 Wan, pale as a late winter's moon- Simile
4 Smile and smile and smile- Repetition

a.1 and 4 only
b.2 and 3 only
c.3 and 4 only
d.2 and 4 Only
8. Break O break open till they break the town
And show the children to green fields, and make their world
Run azure on gold sands, and let their tongues
Run naked into books the white and green leaves open
History theirs whose language is the sun. (1x2=2)
i. Choose the viewpoint that is most similar to the poet's based on theextract.
a.To foster creativity, children should be allowed free time toplay
in the fields.
b.If the children are provided with food and shelter, their
condition will improve.
c.If children acquire moral responsibility, they can spread lightand
awareness.
d.Children must be given the opportunity to enjoy the wholesome
bounties of nature.
ii.Pick the option that is NOT TRUE according to this extract.
a.The children should be allowed to read books and form their
opinions.
b.The children should enjoy freedom of acquiring knowledge aswell
as freedom of expression.
c.The children should see the world of poverty and misery
through the windows.
d.The children should break all the barriers and obstacles that
bind and confine them to ugly and dirty surroundings.
9. But that’s the reason, he said, and my friends all agreed. Everything
points to it, they claimed. My stamp collecting, for example; that ‘s a
temporary refuge fromreality.’ (1x4=4)
i.Who is ‘he’ in the above extract?
a. Galesburg
b. Sam
c. Charley
d. Jack
ii.Which reason of the problem is being cited here?

a. Charley wanted to have refuge from reality.
b. Charley wanted to become rich.
c. Charley wanted to have a political career.
d. Charley wanted to marry
iii.Which other evidence did prove that Charley was an escapist?

a. Hobby of collecting coins
b. Hobby of collecting butterflies
c. Hobby of collecting stones
d. Hobby of collecting stamps
iv.Who in Charley’s ancestors pursued philately?

a. His father
b. His Grandfather
c. His Great grandfather
d. His maternal uncle
10. Read the questions carefully and answer the questions. ( Attempt
any ten questions). Each question carries 1(one) mark.
I.Why did Mr. Hamel call the French language the most beautiful.
Assertion (A) Because it was his native language.

Reason : (R) Because it was the clearest and logical.
a.Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b.Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c.A is true but R is false.
d.A is false but R is True

11.Assertion (A) : Douglas went to swim in the Warm Lake.
Reason (R) : He wanted to get rid of residual doubts .
Point out if:
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If A is false but R is true
12.Choose the option that applies correctly to the two statements givenbelow.
Statement: The poet is distressed by the predicament of slum children and
sympathizes with them.
Reason: The poet criticizes the government’s nonchalance towards the
poverty-stricken children.
a.Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b.Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation ofA.
c.A is true but R is false.
d.A is false but R is true.
13.Which of the following statement/statements is/are TRUE?
Statement 1: The map doesn’t provide an honest portrayal of the realworld
to the slum children
Statement 2: Glimpses of the unattainable world do not incite slumchildren
to commit crimes.
a.Both 1 and 2
b.Only 1
c.Only 2
d.Both are false
14.There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Markyour answer as per the codes provided:
(i) Assertion - Clerk thought Charley was trying to skin him.
Reason - Charley hands him 21th century currency
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
15. Assertion(A). A soldier kills an enemy soldier especially in war.
Reason (R). Killing an enemy soldier is the only criterion of true patriotism.
a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.
c) A is true R is false.
d) A is false R is true.
e) Both A and R are true.
16.“I will learn to drive a car,” he answers, looking straight into myeyes.
What trait of Mukesh is exhibited in the above sentence?
a. Determined
b. Confused
c. Hesitant
d.Curious
17.What did Charley see at the Third Level?
a.flickering gas lights and people with funny mustaches

b.brass spittoons
c.men wearing a tan gabardine suit and a straw
d.A and B
18.How is keeping quiet related to life and can change attitude?
a.it helps to think and search soul

b.helps to change attitudes
c.helps to develop new thinking process
d.All these
19.It would be an exotic
momentwithout rush,
without engines we
would all be together
in a sudden strangeness
Identify the figure of speech used in the second line.

a. Simile
b. Metaphor
c. Personification
d. Repetition
20.What does the narrator speak about in the beginning of the chapter?
a) The war
b) The General
c) Dr. Sadao’s childhood and his father.
d) The servants and Dr’s wife.
21.Pick the idiom that best describes the situation which Sadao and Hanawere
in:
a) To be like a fish out of water.
b) Like water off a duck’s back.
c) To be dead in the water.
d) To be in hot water.
------------------------- xxx ---------------------

Sample Question Paper
Term 1
Subject: Physics (042)
Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 35
General Instructions:
1. The question paper contains three sections
2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions
4. Section C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.
SECTION-A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In
case more than desirable numbers of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for
evaluation.
1. Electric field and electric potential inside a charged spherical shell :

(A) E = 0; V = 0
(B) E = 0 ; V ≠ 0
(C) E ≠ 0 ; V = 0
(D) E ≠ 0 ; V ≠ 0
2. Shape of equipotential surface in uniform electric field will be :
(A) Spherical normal to electric field
(B) Random
(C) circular normal to electric field
(D) Equidistant Planes normal to electric field
3. One metallic sphere A is given positive charge where as another identical metallic sphere B of
exactly same mass as of A is given equal amount of negative charge. Then
(a) Mass of A and mass of B still remain equal
(b)Mass of A increases
(c) Mass of B decreases
(d) Mass of B increases
4. When charge is supplied to a conductor, its potential depends upon:
(a) the amount of charge
(b) Geometry & size of conductor
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) only on (a)
5. A conducting sphere of radius R, and carrying a charge q is joined to a conducting sphere of radius
2R, and carrying a charge – 2q. The charge flowing between them will be
q 2q 4q
(a) (b) (c) q (d)
3 3 3
6. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10 V. The potential at a distance
of 2 cm from the centre of the sphere
(a) Zero (b) 10 V (c) 4 V (d) 10/3 V
7. In a Whetstone’s bridge, all the four arms have equal resistance R. If resistance of the
galvanometer arm is also R, then equivalent resistance of the combination is
(a) R
(b) 2R
(c) R/2
(d) 4R
8. In a metre bridge experiment, resistance box (with R = 2 ohm) is connected in the left gap
and the unknown resistance S in the right gap. If balancing length be 40 cm, calculate value
of S.
(a) 2Ω
(b) 3 Ω
(c) 4 Ω
(d) 2.5 Ω
9. Kirchhoff’s I law for the electric junction is based on:
(a) Law of conservation of charge
(b) Law of conservation of energy
(c) Law of conservation of angular momentum
(d) Law of conservation of mass
10. The conductivity of a semiconductor:
a. Increases with increase in temperature
b. Decreases with increase in temperature
c. First increases then decreases with increase in temperature
d. Does not depend on the temperature
11. In the network of resistors shown in the adjoining figure, the equivalent resistance between
A and B is
(a) 54 ohm
(b) 18 ohm
(c) 36 ohm
(d) 9 ohm
12. A cell of internal resistance 3 ohm and emf 10 volt is connected to a uniform wire of length
500 cm and resistance 3 ohm. The potential gradient in the wire is
(a) 30 mV/cm
(b) 10 mV/cm
(c) 20 mV/cm
(d) 4 mV/cm
13. Two wires of same material have length L and 2L and cross–sectional areas 4A and A
respectively. The ratio of their specific resistance would be
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 8 : 1
(c) 1 : 8
(d) 1 : 1
14. To convert a moving coil galvanometer into on ammeter of given range, we must connect:
(a) A suitable low resistance in series
(b) A suitable low resistance in parallel
(c) A suitable high resistance in parallel
(d) A suitable high resistance in series
15. Two wires of same length are shaped into a square and a circle if they carry same
current, ratio of magnetic moment is :
(a) 2 : 
(b)  : 2
(c)  : 4
(d) 4 : 
16. If distance between two current- carrying wires is doubled, then force between them is
(a) halved
(b) Doubled
(c) Tripled
(d) Quadrupled
17. The coil of a moving coil galvanometer is wound over a metal frame in order to
(a) Reduce hysteresis
(b) Increase sensitivity
(c) Increase moment of inertia
(d) Provide electromagnetic damping
18. S.I. unit of magnetic pole strength is
(a) Ampere/meter
(b) Ampere-meter
(c) volt/meter
(d) Ampere/meter2
19. Due to relative motion of a magnet with respect to a coil, an emf is induced in the Coil,
identify the Principle involved-
(a) Ampere’s circuital law
(b) Faraday's law
(c) Gauss law
(d) Biot-Savart law
20. In a circuit with a coil of resistance 2 ohms, the magnetic flux changes from 2.0 Wb to 10.0
Wb in 0.2 second. The charge that flows in the coil during this time is
(a) 5.0 coulomb
(b) 4.0 coulomb
(c) 1.0 coulomb
(d) 0.8 coulomb
21. An emf of 200V is induced in a circuit when current in the circuit falls from 5A to 0. A in 0.1
second. The self-inductance of the circuit is-
(a) 3.5 H
(b) 3.9 H
(c) 4 H
(d) 4.2 H
22. One 60 V, 100 W bulb is to be connected to 100 V, 50 Hz ac- source. The potential drop
across the inductor is (f = 50 Hz)
(a) 80 V
(b) 40V
(c) 10 V
(d) 20V
23. The variation of instantaneous current I(t) and the instantaneous emf E(t) in a circuit is as shown
in the following figure. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The voltage lags behind the current by π/2

(b) The voltage leads the current by π/2
(c) The voltage and the current are in phase
(d) The voltage leads the current by π
24. High voltage transmission line is preferred as
(a) Its appliances are less costly
(b) Thin power cables are required
(c) Idle current very low
(d) Power loss is very less
25. In series R-L-C circuit, quality factor can be improved by
(a) Decreasing L
(b) Increasing C
(c) Decreasing R
(d) Decreasing R & L
SECTION-B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20
questions. In case more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be
considered for evaluation.
26. Four identical charges +50 micro coulomb each are placed, one at each corner of a square of
side 2 m. How much external energy is required to bring another charge of same magnitude
from infinity to the centre of the square?
a. 64 J
b. 41 J
c. 16 J
d. 10 J
27. The electric potential V is given as a function of distance x (metre) by V = ( 5 x2 + 10 x – 9 ) volt.
Value of electric field at x = 1 is:
a. 20 V/m
b. 6 V/m
c. 11 V/m
d. -23 V/m
28. An electron enters in higher potential region V2 from lower potential region V1, then its velocity:
a. Will decrease
b. Will change in direction but not in magnitude
c. Will not change in direction of field
d. Will not change in direction perpendicular to field
29. State which of the following relation is correct:
a. Joule = coulomb x volt
b. Joule = coulomb/volt
c. Joule = volt x ampere
d. Joule = volt/ampere
30. A 2 micro farad capacitor is charged to 100 V and then its plates are connected by a conducting
wire. The heat produced is:
a. 1 J
b. 0.1 J
c. 0.01 J
d. 0.001 J
31. If the length of a wire is increased by 0.1% by stretching, then percentage increase in its
resistance will be:
a. 0.2 %
b. 2 %
c. 1 %
d. 0.1 %
32. A battery has ejf 4 V and internal resistance r. When this battery is connected to an external
resistance of 2 ohm, a current of 1 A flows in the circuit. How much current will flow if the
terminals of the battery are connected directly?
a. 1 A
b. 2A
c. 4A
d. Infinite
33. In an experiment to measure the internal resistance of a cell by potentiometer, it is found that
the balance point is at a length of 2 m when the cell is shunted by a 5 ohm resistance, and is at a
length of 3 m when the cell is shunted by a 10 ohm resistance. The internal resistance of the cell
is:
a. 1.5 ohm
b. 10 ohm
c. 15 ohm
d. 1 ohm
34. When additional resistance of 1980 ohm is connected in series with a voltmeter, the scale
division reads 100 times larger value. Resistance of the voltmeter is:
a. 10 ohm
b. 20 ohm
c. 30 ohm
d. 40 ohm
35. In a house there are 12 bulbs each of resistance 440 ohm, one motor of 0.1 hp, 4 fans each of
100 V. These are operated 5 hours per day. The expenditure of electricity in a month of 30 days
would be: [ 1 hp = 746 W, V = 220 V, cost of electricity is Rs. 1.20 per unit.]
a. Rs 250.96
b. Rs 300
c. Rs 323.02
d. Rs 400
36. A particle of charge q and velocity v passes undeflected through a space with non-zero electric
field E and magnetic field B. The undeflecting conditions will hold if:
a. Signs of both q and E are reversed
b. Signs of both q and B are reversed
c. Both B and E are changed in magnitude, but keeping the product of B and E fixed.
d. Both B and E are doubled in magnitude.
37. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r carrying current I is B1. The field at
the centre of another coil of radius 2r carrying same current I is B2. The ration B1/B2 is:
a. ½
b. A
c. 2
d. 4
38. The dimensional formula of magnetic induction is:
a. M T4 A-1
b. M T-2 A -1
c. M L A-2
d. M T-2 A
39. A beam of protons with a velocity of 4 x 105 m/s enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T at an
angle of 600 to the magnetic field. The radius of the helical path taken by proton beam is:
a. 0.036 m
b. 0.012 m
c. 0.024 m
d. 0.048 m
40. A proton of mass 1.67 x 10-27 kg and charge 1.6 x 10-19 C is projected in x-y plane with a speed of
2 x 106 m/s at an angle of 600 to the x-axis. If a uniform magnetic field of 0.14 T is applied along
the y-axis, the path of the proton will be:
a. A circle of radius 0.2 m and time period π x 10-7 s.
b. A circle of radius 0.1 m and time period 2 π x 10-7 s.
c. A helix of radius 0.07 m and time period0.5 x 10-6s.
d. A helix of radius 0.14 m and time period 1.0 x 10-7 s.
41. A long horizontal metallic rod with length along the east-west direction is falling under gravity.
The potential difference between its two ends will:
a. Be zero
b. Be constant
c. Increase with time
d. Decrease with time
42. A loss-free transformer having 100 turns in primary is used to transmit 10 kW of power. The
input voltage is 200 V and power is transmitted at 5 kV. The current in the primary and
secondary of the transformer are:
a. 2 A and 50 A
b. 50 A and 2 A
c. 25 A and 4 A
d. 12.5 A and 8 A
43. The reactance of a 25 micro farad capacitor at the ac frequency of 4000 Hz is:
a. 10 ohm
b. 20 ohm
c. 5/π ohm
d. π/5 ohm
44. in an ac circuit containing only capacitance, the current:
a. leads the voltage by 1800
b. remains in phase with the voltage
c. leads the voltage by 900
d. lags the voltage by 900
45. Assertion: Mass of a body decreases when it is negatively charged.
Reason: Charging is not mainly due to transfer of electrons.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false and R is also false
46. Assertion: The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire decreases when temperature of the
wire increases.
Reason: On increasing temperature, conductivity of metallic wire decreases.
47. Assertion: The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is the deflection of current per unit current
passing through the coil.
Reason: The galvanometer can be used as a detector to check, if a current is flowing in the
circuit.
48. Assertion: The self-induced current is also called the back emf.
Reason: The self-induced emf opposes any change in the current in a circuit.
49. Assertion: When the capacitor is connected to an AC source, it limits or regulates the current,
but does not completely prevent the flow of charge.
Reason: The capacitor is alternately charged and discharged as the current reverses each half-
cycle.
SECTION- C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 5. In
case more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for
evaluation.
QUANTIZATION OF ELECTRIC CHARGE

Smallest charge that can exist in nature is the charge of an electron. During friction it is only the
transfer of electrons which makes the body charged. Hence net charge on any body is an integral
multiple of charge of an electron [1.6 x 10-19 C], i.e. q = + n e , where n = 1,2,3,4……….
Hence no body can have a charge represented as 1.1e, 2.7e, 1/3 e etc.
50. If a body gives out 109 electrons every second, how much time is required to get a total charge
of 1 C from it? (consider 1 year = 365 days)
a. 190.19 years
b. 150.12 years
c. 198.19 years
d. 188.21 years
51. Which one of the following charges is possible?
a. 5.8 x 10-18 C
b. 3.2 x 10-18 C
c. 4.5 x 10-19 C
d. 8.6 x 10-19 C
FACTORS AFFECTING RESISTANCE

According to Ohm’s law, the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional o the
potential difference across the ends of the conductor i.e. I α V => V/I = R, where R is resistance
of the conductor. Electrical resistance of a conductor is the obstruction posed by the conductor
to the flow of electric current through it. It depends upon length, area of cross-section, nature of
material and temperature of the conductor. We can write, R α L/A or R = ρ L/A, where ρ is
electrical resistivity of the material of the conductor.
52. If 1 micro ampere current flows through a conductor when potential difference of 2 volt is
applied across its ends, then the resistance of the conductor is:
a. 2 x 106 ohm
b. 3 x 105 ohm
c. 1.5 x 105 ohm
d. 5 x 107 ohm
53. The slope of the graph between potential difference and current through a conductor is:
a. A straight line
b. A curve
c. First curve then straight line
d. First straight line then curve
AVERAGE POWER ASSOCIATED WITH AN INDUCTOR AND CAPACITOR

The power averaged over one full cycle of a.c. is known as average power. It is also known as
true power.
Pav = Vrms Irms cosφ = (V0I0) cosφ / 2.
Root mean square or simply rms watts refer to continuous power.
A circuit containing a 80 mH inductor and a 60 microfarad capacitor in series is connected to a
230 V, 50 Hz supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible.
54. The value of current amplitude is:
a. 15 A
b. 11.63 A
c. 17.65 A
d. 6.33 A
55. The average power transferred to the inductor is:
a. Zero
b. 7 W
c. 2.5 W
d. 5 W
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA, BERHAMPUR
Sample Question Paper 2021-22

Term 1
Class-XII
Subject: Chemistry (043)
Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 35
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
SECTION-A
This section consists of 25multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In
case more than desirable numbers of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for
evaluation.
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a crystalline solid?

(a) Definite and characteristic heat of fusion.
(b) Isotropic nature.
(c) A regular periodically repeated pattern of arrangement of constituent particles in the entire crystal.
(d) A true solid
2. Iodine molecules are held in the crystals lattice by ............... .
(a) london forces (b) dipole-dipole interactions (c) covalent bonds (d) coulombic forces
3. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to
(a) interstitial positions b) F-centres c)Schottky defect d) Frenkel defect
4. A compound formed by elements X and Y crystallises in a cubic structure in which the X atoms are at the corners
of a cube and the Y atoms are at the face- centres. The formula of the compound is
(a) XY3 (b) X3Y (c) XY (d) XY2
5. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water and ethanol. The
mixture shows
(a) no deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(b) positive deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(c) negative deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(d) that the solution is unsaturated.
6. The molal elevation constant depends upon
(a) nature of solute. (b) nature of the solvent. (c) vapour pressure of the solution. (d) enthalpy change.
7. People add sodium chloride to water while boiling eggs. This is to
(a) decrease the boiling point. (b) increase the boiling point.
(c) prevent the breaking of eggs. (d) make eggs tasty.
8. Mole fraction of glycerine C3H5(OH)3 in solution containing 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerine is
(a) 0.46 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.20 (d) 0.3
9. The IUPAC name of Glycerol is :
(a) Ethane 1,2-diol (b) Propane 1,2,3-triol (c) 2-methyl 1 -propanol (d) Butane-2-ol
10. Mechanism of acid catalysed hydration reaction involves
(i) Protonation of alkene to form carbocation by electrophilic attack of H3O+
(ii) Nucleophilic attack of water on carbocation.
(iii) Deprotonation to form alcohol.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
11. The compound obtained by the reaction of ethene with diborane followed by hydrolysis with alkaline
H2O2 is a) ethanol b) propanol c) ethanal d) triethyl bromide
12. The reaction of Ethyl magnesium chloride with methanal produces ___________
a) Propan-1-ol b) Propan-2-ol c) 2 Methyl Propan-2-ol d) None of the above.
13. The process of converting alkyl halides into alcohols involves_____________.
a) addition reaction b) substitution reaction c) dehydrohalogenation reaction d) rearrangement reaction
14. C-X bond is strongest in a) CH3Cl b) CH3Br c) CH3F d) CH3I
15. Arrange the following sets of compounds in order of their increasing boiling points: Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-
ol, butan-2-ol, ethanol, propan-1-ol, methanol.
a) Methanol, ethanol, propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol
b) Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol. butan-2-ol. propan-1-ol, ethanol, Methanol
c) Pentan-1-ol, butan-2-ol. butan-1-ol. propan-1-ol, ethanol, Methanol
d) Methanol, ethanol, propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol
16. A compound X with the molecular formula C3H8O can be oxidised to another compound Y whose
molecular formulae is C3H6O2. The compound X may be
(a) CH3CH2OCH3 (b) CH3CH2CHO (c) CH3CH2CH2OH (d) CH3CHOHCH3
17. Order of esterification of alcohols are (a) 3° > 1° > 2° (b) 2°> 3° > 1° (c) 1 ° > 2° > 3° (d) None of these
18. In which of the following compounds, nitrogenexhibits highest oxidation state?
(a) N2H4 (b) NH3 (c) N3H (d) NH2OH
19. Nitrogen forms N2, but phosphorus does not form P2,however, it converts P4, reason is
(a) triple bond present between phosphorus atom
(b) pπ– pπ bonding is weak
(c) pπ – pπ bonding is strong
(d) multiple bonds form easily.
20. Which compound has planar structure?
(a) XeF4 (b) XeOF2 (c) XeO2F2 (d) XeO4
21. The bleaching action of chlorine is due to
(a) reduction (b) hydrogenation (c) chlorination (d) oxidation.
22. Oleum is
(a) castor oil (b) oil of vitriol (c) fuming H2SO4 (d) none of these.
23. Number of chiral carbons in -D-(+) glucose is
(a) five (b) six (c) three (d) four.
24. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives
(a) α-D-glucose +β D-fructose
(b) β -D-glucose + α -D-glucose
(c) β -D-glucose + α--D-fructose
(d) α--D-fructose + β -D-fructose.
25. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?
(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose (c) Maltose (d) Lactose
SECTION B
This section consists of 24multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In
case more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for
evaluation.
26. Which of the following compounds has the most acidic nature?
a)
b)
OH
d)
c)
27. Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the preparation of alkyl halides?
(I) CH3CH2OH + HCl
(II) C6 H5CH2OH + HCl
(III) (CH3)3COH + HCl
(IV) (CH3)2CHOH + PCl3
(a) (I) and (II) only
(b) (IV) only
(c) (III) and (IV) only
(d) (I), (III) and (IV) only
28. Reaction between acetone and methyl magnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give
(a) iso-propyl alcohol (b) sec-butyl alcohol c) tert-butyl alcohol (d) iso-butyl alcohol.
29. Among the following four compounds
(i) Phenol (ii) Methyl phenol
(iii) Meta-nitrophenol (iv) Para-nitrophenol The acidity order is
(a) (iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii) (b) (iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii) (c) (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii) (d) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
30. Which of the following is correct about H-bonding in nucleotide?
(a) A – T, G – C (b) A – G , T – C (c) G – T, A – C (d) A – A, T – T
31. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to
(a) chiral bases
(b) chiral phosphate ester units
(c) D-sugar component
(d) L-sugar component.
32. In DNA, the linkages between different nitrogenous bases are
a) phosphate linkage
b) H-bonding
c) glycosidic linkage
d) peptide linkage.
33. Haemoglobin is
(a) a vitamin (b) a carbohydrate c) an enzyme (d) a globular protein.
34. The helical structure of protein is stabilised by
(a) dipeptide bonds (b) hydrogen bonds (c) ether bonds (d) peptide bonds.
35. Replacement of Cl of chlorobenzene to give phenol requires drastic conditions. But chlorine of 2,4-
dinitrochlorobenzene is readily replaced because
(a) NO2 donates e– at meta position
(b) NO2 withdraws e– from ortho/para positions
(c) NO2 makes ring electron rich at ortho and para
(d) NO2 withdraws e– from meta position.
36. A compound of molecular formula C7H16 shows optical isomerism, compound will be
(a) 2,3-dimethylpentane
(b) 2,2-dimethylbutane
(c) 2-methylhexane
(d) none of these.
37. When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces
a) Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2 b) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O (c) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2 (d) Cu(NO3)2 and NO
38. Which of the following bonds has the highest energy?
(a) S–S (b) O–O (c) Se–Se (d) Te–Te
39. Which statement is wrong?
(a) Bond energy of F2 > Cl2
(b) Electronegativity of F > Cl
(c) F is more oxidising than Cl
(d) Electron affinity of Cl > F
40. Ionic solids, with Schottky defects, contain in their structure
(a) cation vacancies only
(b) cation vacancies and interstitial cations
(c) equal number of cation and anion vacancies
(d) anion vacancies and interstitial anions.
41. A metal crystallises with a face-centred cubic lattice. The edge of the unit cell is 408 pm. The diameter of the
metal atom is
(a) 288 pm (b) 408 pm (c) 144 pm (d) 204 pm
42. pA and pB are the vapour pressures of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal binary
solution. If xA represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be
(a) pA + xA(pB – pA) (b) pA + xA ( pA – pB) (c) pB + xA(pB – pA) (d) pB + xA ( pA – pB)
43. Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar
mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25°C. (Given,
vapour pressure data at 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)
(a) The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.
(b) Not enough information is given to make a prediction.
(c) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.
(d) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.
44. Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?
(a) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
(b) C6H5CH(CH3)Br
(c) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br
(d) C6H5CH2Br
Assertion-Reason Questions
DIRECTION: Mark the option which is most suitable:
(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
(b) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but Reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but Reason is correct statement.
45. Assertion: The total number of atoms present in a simple cubic unit cell is one.
Reason: Simple cubic unit cell has atoms at its corners, each of which is shared between eight adjacent
unit cells.
46. Assertion: Soft drink and soda water bottles are sealed under high pressure.
Reason: The dissolution of gas in liquid is an endothermic process.
47. Assertion: H2Se is more acidic than H2Te
Reason: Bond enthalpy decrease with increased in size of the atom.
48. Assertion: Vitamin C has to be continuously supplied through diet.
Reason: Vitamin C is a water soluble vitamin.
49. Assertion: Chlorobenzene is less polar than chloro methane.
Reason: Chlorobenzene has a longer C-Cl bond due to resonance.
SECTION-C
This section consists of 6multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any5. In case more
than desirable numbers of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50. Match the following:

A B
(i) Antifreeze used in car engine (a) Neutral ferric chloride
(ii) Solvent used in perfumes (b) Glycerol
(iii) Starting material for picric acid (c) Methanol
(iv) Wood spirit (d) Phenol
(v) Reagent used for detection of (e) Ethleneglycol phenolic group
(vi) By product of soap industry (f) Ethanol used in cosmetics
Choose the correct option
(a) (i) — (d), (ii) — (c), (iii) — (f), (iv) — (a); (v) — (g), (vi) — (b)
(b) (i) — (d), (ii) — (e), (iii) — (b), (iv) — (a) (v) — (c), (vi) — (b)
(c) (i)—(e), (ii)—(f), (iii)—(d), (iv)—(c), (v)—(a), (vi)—(b)
(d) (i) —(d), (ii) — (a), (iii) — (f), (iv) — (e); (v) — (c), (vi) — (b)
51. Complete the following analogy:
Kolbe’s reaction: A:: Williamson synthesis: B
(a) A:phenol B: ethane
(b) A: ethane B: ethyl chloride
(c) A: phenol B: ethyl chloride
(d) A: ethyl chloride B: ethanol
52. Which of the following analogies is correct:
(a)Nitrogen: Group 15 :: Argon: Group 17
(b)Carbon: maximum compounds :: Xenon: no compounds
(c) Sulphur dioxide: bent :: ClF3: bent Tshaped
(d)Helium: meteorological observations:: Radon: metallurgical processes
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions 53-55:
Boiling point or freezing point of liquid solution would be affected by the dissolved solids in the liquid
phase. A soluble solid in solution has the effect of raising its boiling point and depressing its freezing point.
The addition of non-volatile substances to a solvent decreases the vapor pressure and the added solute
particles affect the formation of pure solvent crystals. According to many researches the decrease in
freezing point directly correlated to the concentration of solutes dissolved in the solvent. This
phenomenon is expressed as freezing point depression and it is useful for several applications such as
freeze concentration of liquid food and to find the molar mass of an unknown solute in the solution.
Freeze concentration is a high quality liquid food concentration method where water is removed by
forming ice crystals. This is done by cooling the liquid food below the freezing point of the solution. The
freezing point depression is referred as a colligative property and it is proportional to the molar
concentration of the solution (m), along with vapor pressure lowering, boiling point elevation, and
osmotic pressure. These are physical characteristics of solutions that depend only on the identity of the
solvent and the concentration of the solute. The characters are not depending on the solute’s identity.
53. . Assume three samples of juices A, B and C have glucose as the only sugar present in them. The
concentration of sample A, B and C are 0.1M, .5M and 0.2 M respectively. Freezing point will be highest
for the fruit juice:
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) All have same freezing point
54. . When a non volatile solid is added to pure water it will:
(a) boil above 100°C and freeze above 0°C
(b) boil below 100°C and freeze above 0°C
(c) boil above 100°C and freeze below 0°C
(d) boil below 100°C and freeze below 0°C
55. Identify which of the following is a colligative property:
(a) freezing point (b) boiling point (c) osmotic pressure (d) all of the above
_____________________
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (TERM I) 2021-22
CLASS XII
BIOLOGY
Time: 90 Minutes
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
6. There is no negative marking
SECTION – A
Section – A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first
attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.
1 The egg apparatus consists of:
A. Antipodal cells, synergids, egg cell
B. Antipodal cells, egg cell, secondary nucleus
C. Synergids, egg cell
D. Secondary nucleus ,egg cell
2 Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in
A. Commelina
B. Zostera
C. Salvia
D. Fig
3 Corn cob tussles are made up of
A. Anther ,
B. Style and stigma,
C. Stipules,
D. None of these.
4 Name the type of pollination in which genetically different types of pollen grains
of the
same species land on the stigma.
A. Xenogamy,
B. Geitenogamy,
C. Autogamy,
D. Parthenocarpy.
5 Name the type of tissue present in the fertilised ovules of an Angiospermic plants
that supplies food and nourishment to the developing embryo is
A. Tapetum,
B. Endosperm,
C. Sporogeous tissue,
D. Synergids.
6 Which of the following shows diploidity?
A. Spermatid
B. Spermatozoa
C. Spermatogonium
D. Secondary spermatocyte
7 Which of the following exhibits strong contraction during delivery of the baby?
A. Perimetrium
B. Endometrium
C. Myometrium
D. None
8 Hormone that stimulates the leydig cells is:
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. FSH
C. GnRH
D. A & B
9 Which part of the blastocyst attaches with the surface of endometrium?
A. Inner cell mass
B. Trophoblast
C. Ectoderm
D. Mesoderm
10 What would be the fate of menstruation if the ovum is not fertilized?
A. Occurs for 3-5 days
B. Does not occur
C. Occurs for 5-10 days
D. Occurs irregularly
11 Sucking of milk out takes place through:
A. Mammary tubules
B. Mammary duct
C. Mammary ampullae
D. Lactiferous duct
12 An organism with two identical allele of a gene in a cell is called
a) Heterozygous
b) Homozygous
c) Hybrid
d) Homozygous
13 When two tall plants are crossed 45 tall plants and 14 dwarf plants are
obtained.The genotype of
parent plants is
A. TT x TT
B. TT x tt
C. Tt x Tt
D. TT x Tt
14 A dihybrid heterozygous tall plant with round seed is crossed with a similar
genotype, what
percentage of plants should posses Tt Rr genotype?
A. 6.25%
A. 12.5%
B. 25%
C. 75%
15 When the phenotypic and genotypic ratios resemble in the F2 generation it is an
example of
A. Independent assortment
B. Qualitative inheritance
C. Segregation
D. Incomplete dominance
16 Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for
A. Recombination of linked gene
B. Segregation of alleles
C. Dominance of genes
D. Linkage between genes
17 In which of the following, females are heterogametic
A. Humans
B. Grasshopper
C. Drosophila
D. Fowl
18 What is the length of DNA having 75 base pairs?
A. 255A0
B. 112.5 A0
C. 750 A0
D. None of these
19 Which is the largest gene in Man?
A. Dystrophin
B. Dystronin
C. Dystromin
D. Dystropin
20 Who experimentally proved that DNA is the genetic material?
A. Meselson& Chase
B. Hershey & Chase
C. Hershey &Meselson
D. Watson & Chase
21 Consider the following statements
1. Codes for amino acid methionine
2. Initiation codon
3. Stop codon
4. Sense codon
Which of the above statements are true with respect to AUG?
A. 1, 2 & 3 are correct
B. 2, 3 & 4 are correct
C. 1, 2 & 4 are correct
D. Only 1 is correct
22 Okazaki fragments are
A. Short DNA fragments on the lagging strand
B. Short DNA fragments on the leading strand
C. The RNA primers required for initiation of DNA synthesis
D. The DNA fragment produced due to radiation action
23 RNA polymerizes which is on the promoter, moves to the structural genes to
transcribe them. However, it happens when
A. There is no repressor on the operator
B. There is repressor on the operator
C. Inducer binds to structural genes
D. RNA polymerase shifts first to regulator gene
24 The base sequence of the strand of DNA is CATTAG CATGAT GAC. What will be
the
sequence of RNA strand which is complimentary with the DNA?
A. GTA ATC GAT CTA
B. UA AUC GUA GUA CUG
C. GTA ATG ATG GUA CUG
D. None of these
SECTION - B
Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No.25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this
section. The first attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.
Question No. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is False but R is true
25 Assertion: Saheli, an oral contraceptive for females, contains a steroidal
preparation.
Reason: It is a "once a week" pill with very few side effects.
26 Assertion: Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus but translation
occurs in the
cytoplasm.
Reason: mRNA is transferred from the nucleus into the cytoplasm there
ribosomes and amino
27 Assertion: In human beings, 23 pairs of chromosomes are present in diploid cells.
Reason: 22 pairs of chromosomes are equal in male and female but a pair sex
chromosome is different in them.
a. Both assertion and reason are correct
b. The assertion is correct but the reason is incorrect
c. Both assertion and reason are incorrect
d. The assertion is correct but reason does not explain the assertion
28 Assertion- As the anther mature and dehydrate the microspores disassociate
from each other and develop into a pollen grain.
Reasons- As the anther develop, the cell of the sporogenous tissue undergo
meiotic division to form microspore tetrads.
29 In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in
A. antipodal, zygote and endosperm
B. zygote, nucellus and endosperm
C. endosperm, nucellus and zygote.
D. D. antipodals, synergids and integusments
30 A female undergoing IVF treatment has blocked fallopian tubes. The technique by
which the embryo with more than 8 blastomeres will be transferred into the
female for further development is
A. ZIFT
B. GIFT
C. IUT
D. D. AI
33 Two important RNA processing events lead to specialized end sequences in most
human mRNAs: (i) at the 5’ end, and (ii) at the 3’ end. At the 5’end the most
distinctive specialized end nucleotide, (iii) is added and a sequence of about 200
(iv) is added to the 3’ end.
A. (i) Initiator codon (ii) Promotor (iii) Terminator codon (iv) Release factors
B. (i). Promotor (ii) Elongation (iii) Regulation (iv) Termination.
C. (i) Capping (ii) Polyadenylation (iii) mGppp (iv) Poly(A).
D. (i) Repressor (ii) Co repressor (iii) Operon (iv) sRelease factors
31 The most effective method for birth control is:

A. Abortion
B. Oral pills
C. Abstinence
D. Sterilization
32 What is correct about the test-tube baby :
A. Fertilization in female’s genital tract and growth in test tube
B. Rearing of premature born baby in an incubator
C. Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus
D. Both fertilization and development are done outside the female genital tract
33 Identify A,B,C and D in the given diagram
A. A-Histone core, B-DNA, C- H1 Histone, D- Nucleosome

B. A- DNA , B-Histone, C- H1 Histone, D- Nucleosome
C. A-Nucleosome, B-DNA, C- H1 Histone, D- Histone core
D. A-Histone core, B- H1 Histone, C- DNA, D- Nucleosome
34 Identify a,b and c in the picture

A. a-ori site,b-intron, c-promoter
B. a-promoter ,b- structural genes, c-terminator
C. a- terminator, b-structural gene, c-promotor
D. a-transcription unit,b- RNA polymerase,c-terminator
35 From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents both
autogamy and geitonogamy.
(a) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers.
(b) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers.
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers.
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers.
36 In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after fertilisation are:
(a) Synergids and primary endosperm cell.
(b) Synergids and antipodals.
(c) Antipodals and primary endosperm cell.
(d) Egg and antipodals.
37 Name the parts in the female reproductive system
A. 1- fallopian tube,2-testis,3-cervix,4-uterus,5-vagina
B. 1- fallopian tube,2-ovary,3-cervix,4-uterus,5-vagina
C. 1- fallopian tube,2-ovary,3-vagina,4-uterus,5-cervix
D. 1cervix,2-ovary,3-fallopian tube,4-uterus,5-vagina
38 How many microspore mother cells are required to produce 1000
microspores/pollen grains?
(a) 100
(b) 150
(c) 200
(d) 250
39 The development of fruits without fertilisation of the ovary, is called
(a) parthenogenesis
(b) parthenocarpy
(c) agamospermy
(d) apomixis
40 Select the correct sequence of stages of spermatogenesis in a human male.
(a) Spermatogonium → Spermatids → Spermatocytes → Spermatozoa
(b) Spermatogonium → Spennatocytes → Spermatids → Spermatozoa
(c) Spermatids → Spermatogonium → Spermatocytes → Spermatozoa
(d) Spermatocytes → Spermatogonium → Spermatids → Spermatozoa
41 How many functional sperms and how many ova will be formed by a primary
spermatocyte and a primary oocyte, respectively?
(a) One, One
(b) One, Four
(c) Four, One
(d) Four, Four
42 Urethral meatus refers to the
(a) urinogenital duct
(b) opening of vas deferens into urethra
(c) external opening of the urinogenital duct
(d) muscles surrounding the urinogenial duct
43 Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen is formed by
(a) seminal vesicle and bulbourethral gland.
(b) bulbourethral gland and prostate.
(c) prostate and seminal vesicle.
(d) seminal vesicles, prostate and bulbourethral gland.
44 A woman with normal vision has a colorblind father. She marries a colourblind
man. What proportion of their children will be colourblind?
(a) 0%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 100%
45 Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group
respectively. What would be the genotype of both mother and father?
(a) Mother is homozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is heterozygous for ‘B’.
(b) Mother is heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is homozygous for ‘B’.
(c) Both mother and father are heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group,
respectively.
(d) Both mother and father are homozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group,
respectively.
46 Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon
is called:
(a) multiple allelism
(b) mosaicism
(c) pleiotropy
(d) polygeny.
47 If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female
to only some of the male progeny, the disease is: [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Autosomal dominant
(b) Autosomal recessive
(c) Sex-linked dominant
(d) Sex-linked recessive.
48 The number of meiotic divisions, required to produce 400 seeds in a pea plant, is
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 400
(d) 500
Read the following and answer any five questions:
In angiosperm, the seed is the final product of sexual reproduction. It is described
as a fertilized ovule. The seeds are formed inside the fruit. The seed consists of a
seed coat, cotyledon, and the embryo axis. A mature seed is usually non -
albuminous or albuminous. integument of ovules harder as tough protective seed
coat. Sometimes due to reduced water content, the general metabolic activity of
the seed slows down and the seed enters a state of inactivity. In the mature
plant, the fruit develops front the ovary they are called true fruit. The fruit is the
result of fertilization. There are a few species in which fruit develops without
fertilization. Bananas are such an example.
v. The figure given below represent
49 Which of the following have non-albuminous seed?
a. Sunflower
b. Groundnut
c. Maize
d. Barley
50 The entry of oxygen and water in the seed during germination:

a. micropyle
b. chalazal
c. epicotyl
d. hypocotyl
51 The embryo enters the state of inactivity called:

a. pericarp
b. dormancy
c. apomixis
d. none of these
52 The wall of the ovary develops into the wall of fruit called:
a. scutellum
b. pericarp
c. plumule
d. radicle
53 Development of fruit without fertilisation is:

a. parthenocarpic fruit
b. false fruit
c. true fruit
d. composite fruit
54 If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for sixth generations in bacteria,
the ratio of Heavy strands 15N/15N :Hybrid15N/14N : light 14N/14N containing
DNA in the sixth generation would be
A. 1:1:1
B. 0:1:7
C. 0:1:15
D. 0:1:31
55 Two important RNA processing events lead to specialized end sequences in most
human mRNAs: (i) at the 5’ end, and (ii) at the 3’ end. At the 5’end the most
distinctive specialized end nucleotide, (iii) is added and a sequence of about 200
(iv) is added to the 3’ end.
A. (i) Initiator codon (ii) Promotor (iii) Terminator codon (iv) Release factors
B. (i). Promotor (ii) Elongation (iii) Regulation (iv) Termination.
C. (i) Capping (ii) Polyadenylation (iii) mGppp (iv) Poly(A).
D. (i) Repressor (ii) Co repressor (iii) Operon (iv) sRelease factors
56 The sequence of nitrogen bases in a # segment of a coding strand of DNA is ’
AATGCTTAGGCA. What will be the sequence of nitrogen bases in the wRNA
transcribed by it?
(a) UUA CGA AUC CGU
(b) AAU GCU AAC CGA
(c) AAU GCA AUC CGU
(d) AAU GCU UAG GCA
57 The central dogma of molecular biology (genetic information flow) was modified
by the discovery of
(a) RNA polymerase
(b) DNA ligase
(c) Reverse transcriptase
(d) DNA polymerase
58 The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at
(a) 3′ (downstream) end and 5′ (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription
unit.
(b) 5′ (upstream) end and 3′ (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription
unit.
(c) the 5′ (upstream) end.
(d) the 3′ (downstream) end.
59 Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand, because
(a) DNA molecule being synthesised is very long.
(b) DNA dependent DNA polymearse catalyses polymerisation only in one
direction (5′ → 3′).
(c) it is a more efficient process.
(d) DNA ligase has to have a role.
60 If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female
to only some of the male progeny, the disease is:
(a) Autosomal dominant
(b) Autosomal recessive
(c) Sex-linked dominant
(d) Sex-linked recessive.
Class: XII Session: 2021-22 Computer Science (Code 083)
(Theory: Term-1)
Maximum Marks: 35 Time Allowed: 90 Minutes
 The question paper is divided into 3 Sections - A, B and C.

 Section A, consist of 25 Questions (1-25). Attempt any 20 questions.
 Section B, consist of 24 Questions (26-49). Attempt any 20 questions.
 Section C, consist of 6 case study based Questions (50-55). Attempt any 5 questions.
 All questions carry equal marks.
Q Section-A
This section consists of 25 Questions (1 to 25). Attempt any 20 questions from this
section. Choose the best possible option.
1 Which of the following is not considered a valid identifier in Python ?
a. Two2
b. _main
c. hello_rsp1
d. 2 hundred
2 Consider a declaration s = {1:2,3:4,5:6}. Which of the following represents the data type
of s?
a. list
b. tuple
c. dictionary
d. string
3 Suppose list1 is [2, 33, 222, 14, 25], What is list1[:-1]?
a) [2, 33, 222, 14]
b) Error
c) 25
d) [25, 14, 222, 33, 2]
4 What error is returned by following statement, if file “try.txt” does not exist?
f = open(“try.txt”)
a. Not found
b. FileNotFoundError
c. File does not exist
d. No error
5 Which of the following options can be used to read all the lines of a text file Myfile.txt?
a. myfile = open('Myfile.txt'); myfile.read()
b. myfile = open('Myfile.txt','r'); myfile.read(n)
c. myfile = open('Myfile.txt'); myfile.readline()
d. myfile = open('Myfile.txt'); myfile.readlines()
6. To read the 02 characters of the file from a file object F, we use
a. F.read(2)
b. F.read()
c. F.readlines()
d. F.readline()
7 To open a file Myfile.txt for appending , we can use
a. F=open("Myfile.txt","a")
b. F=open(“Myfile.txt","w+")
c. F=open(r"d:\Myfolder\Myfile.txt","w")
d. F=open("Myfile.txt","w")
8 Which of the following is not a keyword?
(a) int
(b) break
(c) for
(d) pass
9 Identify immutable type out of the following :
a) list
b) dict
c) int
d) set
10 Which of the following statements will create a tuple ?
(a) Tp1 = (“a”, “b”)
(b) Tp1= (3) * 3
(c) Tp1[2] = (“a”, “b”)
(d) None of these
11 Which of the following file mode will refer to the BINARY mode?
a. binary
b. bw
c. bin
d. wb
12 What is the significance of the seek() method?
a. Moves the file pointer to the desired location
b. tells the current position of the file pointer within the file
c. checks the existence of a file at the desired location
d. Moves the file pointer to the beginning
13 Which statement is correct for dictionary?
a. A dictionary is a ordered set of key:value pair
b. each of the keys within a dictionary must be unique
c. each of the values in the dictionary must be unique
d. values in the dictionary are immutable
`14 Which of the following is a function / method of csv module in Python?
a. dump()
b. tell()
c. load()
d. writer()
15 Which operator is used for replication?
a) +
b) %
c) *
d) //
16 Which of the following functions generates an integer?
a) uniform( )
b) randint( )
c) random( )
d) None of the above
17 What will be the output of the following Python code?
print(“abc DEF”.capitalize())
a) abc def
b) ABC DEF
c) Abc def
d) Abc Def
18 Which of the following is a valid operator in python?
a.*/
b. is
c. ^
d. like
19 What is true about Binary files
a. They are not human readable
b. the file extension is .dat
c. the file stores same format as held in memory.
d. All of the above
20 Find and write the output of the following python code:
def myfunc(a):
a=a+2
a=a*2
return a
print(myfunc(3))
a) 6
b) 10
c) 16
d) Error
21 Which function header statement is correct:-
(a) def interest (p, t, r=6):
(b) def interest (p=2000, t=2, r):
(c) def interest (p=2000, t=2, r) :
(d) def interest (p, time=2, r):
22 In Python which is the correct method to load a module math?
a) include math
b) import math
c) using math
d) from math
23 Observe the code carefully and write answer of questions given below
def sum(a=5,b=6,c=9):
print(a,b,c)
sum(1,2,3)
What is the output of the above code?
a) 6
b) 1 2 3
c) 20
d) None of the above
24 In csv files, each field of record is separated by
a. comma
b. colon
c. space
d. None of the above
25 If we do not specify file mode while opening a file, the file will open in .............mode
a. read
b. write
c. append
d. Error occurs
Section-B
This section consists of 24 Questions (26 to 49). Attempt any 20 questions.
26 Evaluate the following expression and identify the correct answer:
6 % 3 + 5**2 * 4 // 5 – 3 ** 2
a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11
27 Suppose content of 'Myfile.txt' is:
I am a student of class XII.

I have opted for Computer Science.
What will be the output of the following code?
myfile =open("Myfile.txt")
data = myfile.readlines()
print(len(data))
myfile.close()
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 6
28 If the following code is executed, what will be the output of the following code?
name="ComputerSciencewithPython"
print(name[-3:-5:-2])
a. h
b. t
c. o
d. n
29 What possible outputs(s) are expected to be displayed on screen at the time of execution
of the program from the following code?
a. 10@20@30@40@50@
b. 20@30@
c. 40@30@
d. 50@
30 Find the output:
a. InDIa%****
b. InDIa%***
c. iNdiA%****
d. iNdiA%***
31 What is the output of the below program?

def say(message, times = 1):
print(message * times)
say('Hello', 2)
a. Hello
b. Hello2
c .Error
d. HelloHello
32 Identify the output of the following Python statements.
b=1
for a in range(1, 13, 2):
b += a + 2
print(b)
a. 41
b. 43
c. 46
d. 49
33 Specify the minimum and maximum values that can be assigned to variable A in the below
statement:
A = random.randint (1, 3)
a) 1,3
b) 1,2
c) 0,3
d) 2,3
34 import pickle
numericals = {1: ‘I’, 4 : ‘IV’, 5: ‘V’ , 9: ‘IX’, 10:’X’, 40:’XL’,50:’L’, 90:’XC’,
100:’C’,400:’CD’,500:’D’,900:’CM’,1000:’M’}
file1 = open(“roman.log”,”_______”)
pickle.dump(numerals,file1)
file1.close()
In which mode should the above file be opened so as to add the dictionary in the already
existing file?
a. wb+
b. rb+
c. ab
d. w
35 Predict the output of the following code.

def swap(P ,Q):
P,Q=Q,P
return (P)
R=100
S=200
R=swap(R,S)
print(R,S)
a. 100 200
b. 200 100
c. 100 100
d. 200 200
36
What will be the value of the expression?
(12%10%3)**3
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 8
(d) 12
37 Observe the following program and find out, which line of output(s) a to d will not be
expected from the program?
import random
X=3
N=random.randint(1,X)
for i in range(N):
print(i,'#',i+1)
a. 0#1
b. 1#2
c. 2#3
d. 3#4
38 Find and write the output of the following Python code:
def fun(s):
k=len(s)
m=" "
for i in range(0,k):
if(s[i].isupper()):
m=m+s[i].lower()
elif(s[i].isalpha()):
m=m+s[i].upper()
else:
m=m+'##'
return m
print(fun('Charles@Babbage'))
a. Charles##Babbage
b. cHARLES##bABBAGE
c. CHARLES##BABBAGE
d. cHARLES#bABBAGE
39 What will be the output of the following code?

a=100
def show():
global a
a=200
def invoke():
global a
a=500
show()
invoke()
print(a)
a.100
b.200
c.500
d.Error
40 What will be the data type of data?

myfile = open("Myfile.txt")
data = myfile.read()
myfile.close()
a. string
b. list
c. tuple
d. dictionary
41 Suppose content of 'Myfile.txt' is
Hurt no living thing:

Ladybird, nor butterfly,
Nor moth with dusty wing,
Nor cricket chirping cheerily,
Nor grasshopper so light of leap,
Nor dancing gnat, nor beetle fat,
Nor harmless worms that creep

count = 0
data = myfile.readlines()
for line in data:
if line[1] == 'o':
count += 1
print(count)
myfile.close()
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
42 Find the output:
def alter(M,N=50):
M=M+N
N=M-N
return N
A=100
B=200
A=alter(A,B)
print(A,’#’,B)
a.
b.
c.
d.
43 Find the output:

for i in range(1,12):
if i%2==0:
continue
print(i,end=” “)
a. 1 3 5 7 9
b. 2 4 6 8 10 12
c. 1 3 5 7 9 11
d. 2 4 6 8 10
44 Which of the following statements will create a tuple ?

(a) Tp1 = (“a”, “b”)
(b) Tp1= (3) * 3
(c) Tp1[2] = (“a”, “b”)
(d) None of these
Poor old lady, she swallowed a fly.

I don't know why she swallowed a fly.
Poor old lady, I think she'll die
vc=0
x = myfile.read()
d=x.split()
for i in d:
if i==”poor” or i==’lady’:
vc=vc+1
print(vc)
myfile.close()
a. 4
b. 2
c. 8
d. 9
45 Find the Output:
colors=["violet", "indigo", "blue", "green", "yellow", "orange", "red"]
del colors[4]
colors.remove("blue")
colors.pop(3)
print(colors)
a. =["violet", "indigo", , "green", "yellow"]

b. ['violet', 'indigo', 'green', 'red']
c. =["violet", "indigo", "yellow","red"]
d. ["violet", "indigo", "green" , "orange", "red"]
46 What will be the output of following program:
a='hello'
b='virat'
for i in range(len(a)):
print(a[i],b[i],end=” “)
a. hellovirat
b. hello virat
c. hveilrlaot
d. htealrliov
47 Find and write the output of the following python code:
def myfunc(a):
a=a+2
a=a*2
return a
print(myfunc(2))
48 Raghav is trying to read a list l from a binary file myfile.bin.
Consider the following code written by him.
import pickle
tup1 = (1,2,3,4,5)
myfile = open("myfile.bin",'rb')
l=pickle._______ #Statement 1
print(l)
myfile.close()
Identify the missing code in Statement 1
. a. dump(myfile,l)
b. dump(l, myfile)
c. load(myfile)
d. load(myfile,l)
What are heavy? Sea-sand and sorrow:

What are brief? Today and tomorrow:
What are frail? Spring blossoms and youth:
What are deep? The ocean and truth.
x = myfile.readlines()
print(len(x))
myfile.close()
a. 4
b. 25
c. 26
d. 27
Section-C
Case Study based Questions
This section consists of 6 Questions (50 -55) Attempt any 5 questions.
Rohit, a student of class 12, is learning CSV File Module in Python. During examination,
he has been assigned an incomplete python code (shown below) to create a CSV File
'Student.csv' (content shown below). Help him in completing the code which creates the
desired CSV File.
CSV File
1,AKSHAY,XII,A
2,ABHISHEK,XII,A
3,ARVIND,XII,A
4,RAVI,XII,A
5,ASHISH,XII,A
Incomplete Code
import #Statement-1
fh = open( , , newline='') #Statement-2
stuwriter = csv. #Statement-3
data = [ ]
header = ['ROLL_NO', 'NAME', 'CLASS', 'SECTION']
data.append(header)
for i in range(5):
roll_no = int(input("Enter Roll Number : "))
name = input("Enter Name : ")
Class = input("Enter Class : ")
section = input("Enter Section : ")
rec = [ ] #Statement-4
data.append( ) #Statement-5
stuwriter. (data) #Statement-6
fh.close()
50 Identify the suitable code for blank space in the line marked as Statement-1.
a) csv file
b) CSV
c) csv
d) cvs
51 Identify the missing code for blank space in line marked as Statement-2.
a) "Student.csv","wb"
b) "Student.csv","w"
c) "Student.csv","r"
d) "Student.cvs","r"
52 Choose the function name (with argument) that should be used in the blank space of
line marked as Statement-3.
a) reader(fh)
b) reader(MyFile)
c) writer(fh)
d) writer(MyFile)
53 Identify the suitable code for blank space in line marked as Statement-4.
a) 'ROLL_NO', 'NAME', 'CLASS', 'SECTION'
b) ROLL_NO, NAME, CLASS, SECTION
c) 'roll_no','name','Class','section'
d) roll_no,name,Class,section
54 Identify the suitable code for blank space in the line marked as Statement-5.
a) data
b) record
c) rec
d) insert
55 Choose the function name that should be used in the blank space of line marked as
Statement-6 to create the desired CSV File?
a) dump()
b) load()
c) writerows()
d) writerow()
Class: XII Session: 2021-22 Computer Science (Code 083)
MARKING SCHEME
1 d.2 hundred
2 c. dictionary
3 a. [2, 33, 222, 14]
4 b. FileNotFoundError
5 d. myfile = open('Myfile.txt'); myfile.readlines()
6 a.F.read(2)
7 a. F=open("Myfile.txt","a")
8 (a) int
9 (c) int
10 a.Tp1 = (“a”, “b”)
11 d. wb
12 a.Moves the file pointer to the desired location
13 b.each of the keys within a dictionary must be unique
14 d.writer()
15 c) *
16 b) randint( )
17 c) Abc def
18 b) is
19 d. All of the above
20 b) 10
21 (a) def interest (p, t, r=6):
22 b) import math
23 b) 1 2 3
24 a. comma
25 a. read
26 d. 11
27 c.2
28 a.h
29 b. 20@30@
30 c. iNdiA%****
31 d. HelloHello
32 d. 49
33 a. 1,3
34 c.ab
35 a. 200 200
36 b. 8
37 d. 3#4
38 cHARLES##bABBAGE
39 c. 500
40 a. string
41 d) 5
42 d) 100#200
43 c) 1 3 5 7 9 11
44 a)
45 a)4
46 b. ['violet', 'indigo', 'green', 'red']
47 c. hveilrlaot
48 c. load(myfile)
49 a. 4
50 a. csv
51 a. "Student.csv","wb"
52 a) writer(fh)
53 d.roll_no,name,Class,section
54 b. rec
55 c. writerows
Max. Marks: 40
Time: 90 Minutes
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) There are 40 questions in all.
Case-based MCQs and
(iii) This question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs),
Assertion-Reason MCQs.
Only one of the options in every question is
correct.
(iv)
The candidate has to give his/her answer by
(o) An OMR sheet of every practice paper is given.
darkening the circle against that question.
Choose the correct option.

uestion numbers 1 to 30 are multiple choice questions.
1. Let f: N- Z such that
when n is odd
2
is
flx)=
when n is even
(b) one-one and onto both

(a) onto but not one-one
neither one-one nor onto (a) one-one but not onto

(c)
is alan
2. The function flu) log,lx' + Vx +1]
=
(a) even function (b) odd function

(d) decreasing function
(c) even increasing function
3. Iff:R>R be defined by fo)=VxER. Thenfis
(a) One - One (b) Onto (c) Bijective (d) fis not defined
4. If A =
{a, b, c, d, e} and B =
{1, 2, 3, 4), then the number of relations that can be defined from
A to B is
(a) 20 (b) 220 (c) 2 (d)9
5. A relation R = {x, y): |x-y| is divisible by 3; x, y e R; set of real numbersl, then R is
(a) Symmetric (b) Reflexive (C) Transitive (d) All of these
6. The value of sin (sinis

() ) (a)
7. What is the value of tan c o s ,

(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) None of these
1100
o o5
8. The matrix A = 0 5 0 is a
5 0 0 (d) Square matrix
(c) Unit matrix
(a) Scalar matrix (b) Diagonal matrix
9. If A and F- thenfind (7A +58).

-7 33
(a)22
3 31
(b)7-22
(6) |33 31 ()22 31 (731

10. If A =|then A0is
[0 0 40 01
0 0 ()
(a)220220 (C)40 40 0 40
11. If A+B+C= T, then

tan (A +B+C)tanC cos C
tan (A + B) sin B equal to
cos(A+B) - sin B 0
(a) -1 (b) 0
(d) None of these
c)1
-a 1 1
12. If A =|1 -a 1 and B = then equals
da
1 - a
(a) 1+3B (6) 3B

(c) -3B (d) 1-3B
b+c b
13. If a cta cklabc), then the value of k equals
a b a+b
(a) 0 (6) 2
c) 4 (d)-4
14. For any 2 x 2 matrix, if A (adj A) = |10 01
10then |A| is equal to
(a) 20 (b) 100 (c) 10 (d) 0
15. The inverse of the matrix

5
16. Use matrix method to solve the following system of equations: 5r- 7y =2, 7x- 5y 3.
11 1 1
(a)x24: 24 )*2424 c)*= 1,y=1 d) = y =
17. Find the values ofa so that the function /a) defined by
sin ax x#0
f)= may be continuous at x = 0.
1 x=0
(a) 1 (6) 1 c)-1 (d) None of these

1 if x 3
18. If fx) {ax +b, if3<x <5. Determine the values of a and b so that flx) is continuous.
=
7 if 5 Sx
(a) a = 3, b =3 b) a = 3, b = 4 () a 3, b=-8 (d) None of these
dy
19. Ifx+y= 3axy, find
ay-x ay x2
(a) ay-x
+ax y-a (c) 0 (d) 2
y-ax
20. Ifx =a sec'0 and y = a tan'e, findat 0 =
(a) 2 (c) 3
3
21. Find
dy when x=a cos'tand y = a sin't.
dx
(a) -tanht (b) tan t c)sect (a) a tannt
22. Differentiate sin( w.rt. tanx,- 1<x<1.

(a) 2 2 (c) 0 (d) 1
23. Differentiate x with respect to x log x.

(d) - x
(a) x (b) (c)
24. Find the value of log,2 with respect to x.
1 1 1 1
log,*rlog,2 () 0 () log2
25. If flx) = x*+2x +7 find f'(3).
(a) 18 (6) 8 (c) 10 (d) 3
26. If xy1 +y +yv1 +x = 0 and x # y, then find the value of

dy
dx
-1
( 1-
27. The maximum value of( s
(a) e (b) e (c) ele
28. The slope of the normal to the curve y = 2x+3 sin x at x = 0 is
(a) 3 b) (c)-3 (d)

29. The coordinates of the point on the curve (+ 1) (y -3) =x where a tangent to the curve has the
greatestslopeare given by
a3,3 )-33-
(c) (0, 3) (d) none of these
30. In an LPP, if the objective function Z = ax + by has the same maximum value on two corner
points of the feasible region, then the number of points of which Zmax Occurs is
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) finite (d) infinite
Case Based Questions-I that t o l l o w .
in the questions
Kead the following and choose the correct option
the total profit

-5x+ 125x + 37500 is
Px)= where x is the
function of a company,
the company.
production of
31. What will be the production when

the profit is maximum?
(d) -37500
(c) - 12.5
(a) 37500 (b) 12.5
32. What will be the maximum profit?
(d) None
(b) T38281.25 (c)39,000
(a) T38,28,125
33. Check in which interval the profit is strictly increasing
(a) (12.5, o) (b) for all real numbers
(c) for all positive real numbers (d) (0, 12.5)
34. When the production is 2 units what will be the profit of the company?
() 37,770 (d) None

(a) 37500 (6) 37,730
Case Based Questions-II

Read the following and choose the correct option in the questions that follow.
Owner of a whole sale computers shop plans to sell two type of computers - a desktop and
portable model that will cost T25000 and 40000 respectively.
35. If thenumber of desktop model and portable model in

the stock are x and y, to s
maximum profit after selling and store of
exceed 250 units, then which of the
shop have capacity to keep computer
following is correct?
(a) x+y=250 (b) x+y> 250
c)x+y> 250 (d) x+y 250
36. If owner of shop does not want to invest
more than R70 lakhs on both type of compute
then which of the following is correct?
(a) x+y<1000 (6) 5x +
8y>1400
(c) 5x+8y<1400
(d) 5x 8y = 1400
2 i
Pnt on the desktop model is Z4.500 and on portable model is Z5000, the pront
expressed as
(a) Z 45x+50y
(b) Z 4500x+ 5000y
(c) Z
5000x +4500y (d) Z=x+y
have ins stock t
of units of each type of computers which the owner of shoP
number
get maximum profit is
(a)x 250, y 100 (b) x=100, y
=
250
(c)x-200,y 100 (d)x-200, y =50

other
(A) and the
Oyuestion numbers 39 to 40, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (a) as
codes (a), (b), (C) and
Ladellea Keason (R). Select the correct a n s w e r to these questions from the
given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and Ris not the correct explanationforA.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A isfalse but R is true. functiorn.
R>R such thatf{x) = x. The function fis an onto
39.
39. Assertion (A) : Letf: B i.e., range ofg = B.
be onto function if g{A)=
Reason (R) A function g:A-> Bis said to
cos 20 sin 28
If A=|
40. Assertion (A): IfA
0
Cos sin
=sin cos than A-sin 20
than A"sin 26 cos
cos 20
Reason (R) I fA - s i n 0
cos t h a n A - scos
S ,0]
sin in6nn6 sin
cosn
sinn6]
n
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA BEREHAMPUR
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
CLASS 12TH
SUBJECT: GEOGRAPHY
Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks 35
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The Question Paper contains three sections (A, B & C).
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions (Map Section (Q.No. 25-29) is mandatory to
Attempt).
4. Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions. (First Part of C Section (Source based has 4
Questions (Q.No. 49-52) and all need to be attempted).
6. There is no negative marking
Section A
There are 24 questions in this section. Attempt any 20 questions.
1. Which of the following families of modern Indian languages has the highest number of
speakers in India?
a. Austric b. Dravidian c. Sino-Tibetan d. Indo-European
2. Which of the following activities are called gold- collar professions?
a. Quinary activities b. Quaternary activities c. Secondary activities d. primary

activities
3. With reference to the growth trends of the global population, consider the following
statements:
1. The doubling time of world population has been increasing in the last century.
2. At the beginning of the twentieth century, the world population was less than half
of its current levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Consider the following:
This stage in the demographic transition theory is marked by high birth rate but lowering
death rates resulting in a natural increase in the population. Countries like Kenya and Sri
Lanka are currently said to be in this stage.
Which of the following stage of the demographic transition theory is being described in
the above passage?
a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. None
5. Which of the following statement best describe the Truck Farming?
a. It is farming in which farmers specialize in vegetables.
b. It is a farming in which animals are transported from one place to another for trading.
c. It is a farming in which heavy machinery is used for harvesting the crops.
d. It is a part of dairy farming in which trucks are used for transporting milk from one
place to another.
6. Considering the following statement above the Human Development Index:
1. It is issued every year by the World Bank.
2. It is calculated as a geometric mean of Health, Education and Standard of Living

Indicators.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
A . 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor 2
7. With reference to the Demographic Transition Theory, consider the following

statements:
1. According to the theory, the population of a given region changes from high
births and high deaths to low births and low deaths.
2. During a complete demographic cycle rural agrarian societies are transformed
into urbanized and industrial economies.
8. Arrange the following in increasing order of the number of people practicing them in
India?
1. Sikhs b. Christian’s c. Muslims d. Buddhists
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. 2-1-3-4 b. 3-1-2-4 c. 3-2-1-4 d. 1-2-3-4
9. In the Himalayas, some tribes like Gujjars, Bakarwals, Giddis and Bhotiyas migrate
from plains to the mountains in summers and to the plains from the high altitude pastures
in winters in every season.
a. Jhuming b. Transhumance c. Gathering d. Pastoralism
10. Considering the following statements:
1. Migration takes place only when people move from rural to urban areas in search
of employment.
2. In India, intra-state rural to rural migration by place of last residence is

dominated by females.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. Both 1 and 2 d. Neither 1 nor2
11. Considering the following activities:
1. Hunting and gathering
2. Pastoral activities
3. Fishing
4. Forestry
5. Mining and quarrying
Which of the activities mentioned above are considered primary activities?
a. 3 and 4 only b. 1,2 and 3 only c. 2,4 and 5 only d. 1,2,3,4 and 5
12. Consider the following
1. This period is referred to as the period of population explosion in India.
2. It is marked by a rapid fall in mortality rate but high fertility in the population.
3. The average annual population growth rate observed in this period was high
around 2%.
Which of the following time periods in Indian history is characterized by the above
conditions?
a. 1901-1921 b.1921-1951 c. 1951-1981 d.1981-2020
13. Considering the following pairs in the context of shifting cultivation:
Local name Region
1. Milpa : India
2. Taungiya : Myanmar
3. Ladang : Malaysia
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2 only b. 2 and 3 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1,2 and 3
14. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, sex ratio is calculated as the number of females per thousand males in
the population.
2. The current average global sex ratio is in favour of females.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

15. Considering the following statements:
1. Primitive human society as highly influenced by the strong forces of nature.
2. Level of technological development was low and humans were afraid of fury of
nature.
3. Ellen C. Semple was a proponent of this school of Human Geography.
Which of the following schools of Human Geography do the above statements refer to?
a. Possibilism b. Environmental Determinism c. Cultural Determinism d.

Neo Determinism
16. Consider the following statement in the context of the Ground Resources
1. The replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic KM.
2. The level of groundwater utilization is relatively high in the river basin lying in
north- western region and parts of South India.
3. The groundwater utilization is moderate rate in the states like Chhattisgarh,

Odisha, Bihar and Kerala etc.
a) 1 and 3 Only b) 2 and 3 Only c) 3 Only d) 1 and 2 Only
17. Consider the following statement in the context of the Ground Resources
1. The groundwater utilization is very high in the states of Punjab, Haryana,

Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.
2. The groundwater utilization moderate rate in the sates like Gujarat, Uttar
Pradesh, Bihar, Tripura and Maharashtra.
3. Which utilize only a small proportion of their groundwater potentials states

like Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Bihar and Kerala etc.,
a) 2 and 3 Only b) 1 and 3 Only c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) None

18. Given below are two statements, on laballed as Assertion (A), and the other laballed as
Reasons (R):
Assertion (A): The level of groundwater utilization is relatively high in the river
basin lying in north- western region and parts of South India.
Reasons (R): The demands for water would need the supplies, and such situation,
will be detrimental to development, and can cause social upheaval and disruptions.
Select your answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
a) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
b) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
c) Both (A) and (R) is the correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
19. Consider the following statement in the context of the Lagoons and Backwater
1. India has a vast coastline and the coast is very indented in some states due to a
number of lagoons and lakes have formed.
2. The states like Kerala, Odisha and West Bengal have vast surface water resources
in these lagoons and lakes.
3. Although, water is generally brackish in these water bodies, it is used for fishing
and irrigation certain varieties of paddy crops, coconut, etc.
a) 1and 3 Only b) 2 and 3 Only c) 1 and 2 Only d) All of these
20. Who releases the Human Development Report?
a. World bank b) World economic forum c) United Nations d) UNCTAD
21. Who secured the top rank in The Human Development Report 2018?
a) Sweden b) Norway c) Switzerland d) Austria

22. What is the rank of India in the Human Development Index 2021?
a) 131st b) 142nd c) 130th d) 132nd
23. Who invented the Human Development Index?
a) Paul krugman d) Mahbul- ul Haq c) Jean dreze d) Alfred Marshal
24. Which three Indicators are used in the Human Development Index (HDI)?
I) Standard of living II) Education
III) Life Expectancy IV) Condition of environment
Which of the Indicators are mentioned above are considered Human Development Index?
a) Only I, II and IV b) Only I, II and III c) Only I and II d) All of the above
Section B
(There are 24 questions in this section. Attempt any 20 questions.)
Question no. 25-29 is based on map and is mandatory to attempt. (Visually Impaired
Students will also attempt MCQs)
25. Choose the country with largest Geographical area in the African Continent.
a). Algeria
b).Sudan
c). Egypt
d). South Africa
26. Which one of the followings is a region of commercial grain farming practiced in Europe?
a) Pampas
b) Steppes
c) Downs
d) Prairies
27. Which one of the following is a region of North America practicing subsistence gathering?
a) Great Lake
b) Prairies
c) North Canada
d) Mexico
28. Which of the following terminal stations connect Trans-Canadian Railway?

a) Halifax and Vancouver
b) New York and San Francisco
c) Halifax and Montreal
d) Calgary and Vancouver
29. Which of the following is the most heavily used inland waterway of the world?
a) Suez Canal
7
b) Panama Canal
c) Rhine Waterway
d) Volga Waterway
Question no. 30-48 (Attempt any 15)
30. Which one of the following states of India has the highest rank in the Human
Development Index?
a) Tamil Nadu b) Punjab c) Haryana d) Kerala
31. Consider the following pairs:
Settlements : Region
1. Dispersed : Himachal Pradesh
2. Clustered : Bundelkhand
3. Hamleted : Lower Ganga Plains
Which of the pair given above is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 Only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None
32. “Human geography is the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and
earth’s surface”. This statement given by whom?
a) Ellen C Semple b) Paul Blache c) Mahbul- ul Haq d) Ratzel
33. “Human geography is the study of “the changing relationship between the unresting
man and the unstable earth”
34. “Conception resulting from a more synthetic knowledge of the physical laws
governing our earth and of the relations between the living beings which inhabit it”.
35. Who used the terms 'unresting man' and 'unstable earth' to define human geography? *
a) Vidal de la Blache b) Friedrich Ratzel c) Richard Hartshone d) E.C Semple
36. Make correct pairs from the following two columns and select the correct option. 1.Early
colonial period (a) Exploration & Description
2. Late 1950’s to the late 1960’s (b) Regional Analysis
3. Later colonial period (c) Aerial Differentiation
4. 1930’s through the inter-war period (d) Spatial Organization
Which of the pair given above is/are correctly matched?

a) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c b) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b c) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a d) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
37. The core concern of ‘Stop & Go’ determinism is-
a) The movement of human from a state of necessity to a state of freedom

b) Human beings should adapt the dictates of nature.
c) Possibilities can be created within a limit and there is no free run without accidents
d) There are only possibilities and no necessities.
38. Arrange the following approaches in a correct order according to their development
1. Spatial organization 2. Regional approach
3. Areal differentiation 4. Humanistic approach

A) 2, 3, 1, 4 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 4, 1, 2, 3 D) 3, 2, 1, 4
39. Which school of thought was based on the Marxian theory to explain the basic cause of
poverty, deprivation and social inequality?
a) Welfare b) Humanistic c) Environmental d) Radical
40. Patterns of population distribution and density of population help us to understand-
a) Regional imbalances of an area b) Demographic characteristics of any area
c) Uneven topography of an area d) Developmental level of an area
41. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
A) Kobe-Osaka region ---- Presence of industries
B) Mediterranean Regions- ---- Pleasant climate

C) Ganga Plains -----Scenic beauty
D) Mega cities ----- Good civic amenities and employment
42.Which of the following is not a PULL factor of migration?
a) Better job opportunities b) Peace and stability
c) Socio-economic backwardness d) Security of life
43. Which of the following factor helped in the reduction of birth rate and provided a stage
for accelerated population growth?
a) Technological advancement b) Industrial Revolution
c) Development of resources d) None of the above
44. It took how many years for the world population to rise population from 5 billion to 6
billion?
a) 25 Years b) 12 Years c) 16 Years d) 11 Years
45. Consider the following points regarding the growing population in developing world and
choose the correct options from the given options;
1. Birth rate is extremely high as compared to death rate

2. Need for children to go out and work to bring in income for the family.
3. Lack of availability and knowledge of contraception and family planning.

a) Only 1 and 2 are correct. b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
c) All 1,2 and 3 are correct d) All are incorrect
46. Which of the following feature is not related to First stage of demographic transition?
a) Improvements in sanitation and health conditions.
b) Life expectancy is low.
c) People are mostly illiterate and have low level of technology.
d) People are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset.
47. Which of the following statement is true about the last stage of demographic transition?
a) Both fertility and mortality decline considerably. b) Deliberately controls the family size.
c) The population becomes urbanized and literates d) All the above
48. Who stated that ‘the number of people would increase faster than the increase in food
supply’?
a) Thomas Malthus b) Richard Hartshone
c) Alexander Von Humboldt d) Carl Ritter
a) Statement I is correct b) Both are correct c) Statement II is correct d) Both are incorrect.
c) Total agricultural population /Net cultivated Area d) None of these
SECTION C
SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS
Question numbers 49 to 52 are compulsory to attempt
Jal Kranti Abhiyan (2015-16)

Water is a recyclable resource but its availability is limited and the gap between supply and demand will be
widening over time. Climate change at the global scale will be creating water stress conditions in many regions of
the world. India has a unique situation of high population growth and rapid economic development with high
water demand. The Jal Kranti Abhiyan launched by the Government of India in 2015–16 with an aim to ensure
water security through per capita availability of water in the country. People in different regions of India had
practised the traditional knowledge of water conservation and management to ensure water availability. The Jal
Kranti Abhiyan aims at involving local bodies, NGOs and cititzens, at large, in creating awareness regarding its
objectives. The following activities have been proposed under the Jal Kranti Abhiyan: 1. Selection of one water
stressed village in each 672 districts of the country to create a ‘Jal Gram’. 2. Ídentification of model command
area of about 1000 hectares in different parts of the country, for example, UP, Haryana (North), Karnataka,
Telangana, Tamil Nadu (South), Rajasthan, Gujarat (West), Odisha (East), Meghalaya (North-East). 3. Abatement
of pollution: • Water conservation and artificial recharge. • Reducing groundwater pollution. • Construction of
Arsenic-free wells in selected areas of the country. 4. Creating mass awareness through social media, radio, TV,
print media, poster and essay writing competitions in schools. Jal Kranti Abhiyan is designed to provide livelihood
and food security through water security.
49. Present day world is experiencing acute water paucity due to:
a). Climate Change b). Industrial Pollution c). Rising Sea level d). Forest Depletion
50. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Model Command Area in India?
a) Water conservation and artificial recharge
b) Reducing groundwater pollution
c) Construction of Arsenic-free wells in selected areas of the country
d) Not concerned with food security and livelihood of the people
51. The Objective of the Jal Kranti Abhiyan is achieved through:.
a).Using traditional know how
b). Adopting modern technology
c). Mixing modern technology with traditional knowledge
d). Outsource to some other organization
52. The main aim of The Jal Kranti Abhiyan is to ensure water security through-----
a). Creating Jal Grams B). Reducing ground water pollution
C). Per capita availability of water D). Construction of arsenic free wells
GRAPH BASED QUESTION

Attempt any 3 questions from the following questions 53-56
Study the given graph carefully and answer the following questions:
53. How does the natural increase in population occur, as per the graph?
a) Birth Rate – Death Rate
b) Death Rate + Birth Rate
c) Growth Rate - Birth Rate
d) Birth Rate + Migration
54. What does the transition from high fluctuating stage to low fluctuating stage indicate?
a) Shift from Urban Industrial economy to Rural Agrarian economy
b) Shift from Rural Agrarian economy to Urban Industrial economy
c) Low Birth and Death Rate to High Birth and Death Rate
d) Migration from Urban to Rural areas
55. From the given graph, what condition can you infer about the developing countries?
a) High Birth Rate and High Death Rate
b) Low Birth rate and Low Death rate
c) High Birth Rate and Low Death Rate
d) Low Birth Rate and High Death Rate
56. In which stage of Demographic Transition, population explosion took placea)

Stage I
b) Stage II
c) Stage III
d) Post Stage III
DATA BASED QUESTIONS

Attempt any 3 questions from the following questions 57-60
57. Which year has seen a negative population growth rate in India?
a. 1931
b. 1921
c. 1911
d. 1941
58. What was the highest recorded growth rate of population in India?
a. 24.66
b. 24.80
c. 23.85
d. 21.54
59. Which year has recorded the highest growth of population in India in terms of absolute numbers?
a. 2001
b. 2011
c. 1991
d. 1981
60. How much population increase has been registered between the census years 1911 to census year 2011?
a. 900789600
b. 182307640
c. 181583094
d. 971797095
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Choose the correct answer from following options in terms of population:-
a) Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal
b) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Maharashtra
c) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal
d) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Maharashtra, Bihar
2. The average density of population of India (2011) is per km.
a) 216 b) 382 c) 221 d) 392
3. Choose the correct option:
I - Hindus are largest religious group in India.
II - Muslims are largest minority group in India

a) Statement I is correct b) Both are correct c) Statement II is correct d) Both are incorrect.
4. A worker is known as Main Worker, who works at least:-
a) More than 183 days b) 200 days c) Less than 183 days d) More than 200 days
5. Which state has the highest % rural population?
a) Uttar Pradesh b) Himachal Pradesh c) Bihar d) Jammu & Kashmir
6. State having lowest sex ratio in India-
a) Punjab b) Bihar c) Haryana d) Chhattisgarh
7. Which formula are uses for Physiological density?
a) Total population/Total Area b) Total population /Net cultivated Area
c) Total agricultural population /Net cultivated Area d) None of these
8. Tamil language is related to which family?
a) Austric b) Dravidian c) Sino- Tibetan d) Indo-European

SET -A .HISTORY .
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The paper has been divided into four sections – A, B, C and D.
2. Section A contains 20questions.
3. Section B contains 18 Questions.
4. Section C contains two Case based Questions with 10 questions .
5. Section D contains Questions 59 & 60 which are Map Based Questions. Both the
questions have to be attempted
7. There will be no negative marking.
SECTION -A
1 )Which of the following items has not been found in the Harappan graves?
(a) Pottery and ornaments

(b) Iron hand axe
(c) Jewellery
(d) Copper mirrors
2) Which town in Indus Valley Civilisation had no Citadel?
(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Harappa
(c) Chanhudaro
(d) Lothal
3)What was the first artifact which was known to Cunningham and
was given to him by English man?
a) Seal
b) Beads
c) Pottery
d) Toys
4) Which of the following was one of the occupations of Kshatriyas?
(a) Perform sacrifices and give gifts
(b) To teach Vedas
(c) Trade
(d) Agriculture
5) Shakas who came from Central Asia were regarded by the Brahmanas as
(a) Dasas
(b) Untouchables
(c) Mlechchhas
(d) Aryans
15) The original story of Mahabharata was composed by (a) Brahmanas (b) Kshatriyas (c)
Sutas (d) None of these
6) What were the guilds of the merchants and craftsmen called?
(a) Shrenis
(b) Ur
(c) Adimai
(d) Uzhavar
7) What are big rocks kept on the burial in central and south India called?
(a) Northern Black Polished Ware

(b) Pillars
(c) Boulders
(d) Megaliths
8) What was the name of the gana to which Buddha belonged to?
(a) Licchavi
(b) Sakya
(c) Koliyas
(d) Kamboj
9)What does the symbol of ‘empty seat’ symbolise?
(a) First Sermon of the Buddha
(b) An event in the life of Buddha
(c) Wisdom of the Buddha
(d) Meditation of the Buddha
10) Who provided money for the preservation of the Sanchi Stupa?
(a) John Marshall
(b) Begums of Bhopal
(c) Alexander Cunningham
(d) None of the above
11) What was the balcony-like structure in a stupa called?
(a) Anda
(b) Harmika
(c) Yashti
(d) Chhatri
12) The Sangha was an association of whom?
(a) Bhikkus
(b) merchants
(c) traders
(d) dancers
13) Harappa is located on the banks of which river?
(a) Indus
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Jhelum
14) Where were large granaries found?
(a) Lothal and Dholavira
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Banawali
(d) Harappa and Mohenjodaro
15) The original story of Mahabharata was composed by
(a) Brahmanas
(b) Kshatriyas
(c) Sutas
(d) None of these
16)Harihara and Bukka belonged to which dynasty?
(a) Tuluva
(b) Saluvas
(c) Aravidu
(d) Sangam
17) The Battle of Talikota between Vijayanagara and the Deccan sultans took place in
which year?
(a) 1550
(b) 1565
(c) 1570
(d) 1575
18) Which Persian ambassador visited the Vijayanagara Empire?
(a) Domingo Paes
(b) Nicolo de Conti
(c) Abdur Razzaq
(d) Duarte Barbosa
19) According to which Buddhist text Asoka distributed portions of the Buddha’s relics
to every important town and ordered the construction of stupas over them?
(a) Ashokavadana
(b) Mahaparinibbana Sutta
(c) Sutta Pitaka

(d) Vessantara Jataka
20) Who is Ulama?
(a) Devotees of Shiva
(b) Devotees of Vishnu
(c) Muslim Sufi saints
(d) Scholars of Islamic studies
SECTION -B
21) Find out from the following pairs which one is correctly matched:
(a) Deg : Food
(b) Khanqah : Pilgrimage
(c) Futuh : Charity
(d) Murids : Master
22) Match the following
i)NIRGUNA a) SOUND
ii)ALAKH b) WITH
ATTRIBUTES
iii)SHABDA c) THE
UNSEEN
iv)SASUNA d) WITHOUT
ATTRIBUTE .
Choose the correct option

(a) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
(b) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
(c) i – c, ii – b, iii – a, iv – d
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c
23) Who composed the prem-akhyan ‘Padmavat’?
(a) Amir Khusrau
(b) Baba Farid
(c) Malik Muhammad Jayasi
24) Consider the following statements regarding Sangha.
(i) Mahapajapati Gotami persuaded Buddha to allow women into the sangha.
(ii) Many women who entered the sangha became teachers of Dhamma and went
on to become theris.
(iii) Once within the sangha, all were regarded as equal.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II only
25 ) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The mid-first millennium BCE saw the emergence of new religions
in India.
Reason (R): People began speculating on the significance of the sacrificial

tradition and authority of the Vedas.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(d) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.
26) Consider the following statements regarding the Virupaksha temple.
(i) The hall in front of the main shrine was built by Krishnadeva Raya to mark his
accession.
(ii) It has a unique shrine designed as a chariot.
(iii) The principal deity of this temple was generally worshipped in Maharashtra.
(a) only ‘i’
(b) ‘i’ and ‘iii’
(c) ‘ii’ and ‘iii’
(d) All of these
27) Which traveller called the ‘Mahanavami Dibba’ as the ‘House of Victory’?
(a) Duarte Barbosa
(b) Fernao Nuniz
(c) Domingo Paes
(d) Abdur Razzaq
28) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
Assertion (A): Women were expected to give up their father’s gotra and take up
their husband’s gotra after marriage.
Reason (R): Women who married Satavahana rulers retained their father’s gotras
instead of adopting names derived from their husband’s gotra name.
29) Consider the following statements regarding Jatis and social mobility.
(i) Jatis like varna was based on birth.
(ii) Just like varnas the number of jatis was fixed.
(iii) Jatis with different occupations sometimes organised into shrines or guilds.
Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) iii only
(d) i only
30) Match the following.
i)Endogamy a)Marriage
outside the unit .
ii)Exogamy b)Practice of man

having several
wife’s.
iii)Polygny c)Practice of a
women having
several
husband’s.
Choose the correct option:
(a) i – b, ii – c, iii – a
(b) i – a, ii – b, iii – d
(c) i – c, ii – a, iii – b
(d) i – d, ii – a, iii – b
31) Arrange the following dynasties of the Vijayanagara Empire in chronological

order:
1. Sangama 2. Aravidu 3. Tuluva 4. Saluva
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4, 3 and 2
(d) 4, 1,2 and 3
32) Consider the following statements regarding the features of the Harappan
settlements.
(i) The Harappan settlements were often small.
(ii) They had no large buildings
(iii) Harappan settlements had a well-planned network of roads.
(iv) Drainage system was the key feature of the Harappan settlements.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) (b) III and IV

(c) I, III and IV
(d) (d) I, II and IVAnswer
33) Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the Harappan
weights?
(a) Weights were usually made of a chert stone.
(b) They were generally circular with mark-ings.
(c) The lower denominations of weights were binary
. (d) The higher denominations followed the decimal system.
34) ) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
Assertion (A): The rayas gave territories to military commanders.
Reason (R): The Amar-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the
Mughal Empire.
35) Which of the following is not one of the features of Harappan writing?
(a) The Harappan script was pictographic and not alphabetical.
(b) It has been deciphered by James Prinsep.
(c) It had too many signs, somewhere between 375 and 400.
(d) The script was written from right to left.
36) Consider the following statements regarding Magadha.

(i) Magadha was the most powerful mahajanapada.
(ii) Initially Pataliputra was the capital of Magadha and later it was shifted to
Rajagriha.
(iii) Elephants were found in abundance in the forests of Magadha.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II only
37) Which one of the following statements was not a justified reason for Magadha
being a powerful mahajana pada?
(a) Magadha was drained by several rivers which made the land very fertile.
(b) In Magadha there were rich deposits of iron ore.
(c) Pataliputra, the capital of Magadha, was fortified.
(d) Magadha was ruled by powerful kings.
38) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
Assertion (A): There are limits to what epigraphy can reveal.
Reason (R): It is not always easy to be sure about the exact meaning of the words
used in inscriptions.

SECTION -C
39)
i)Agrahara was the land granted to a _______?
A) Kshetriya
B) Brahmana
C) Shudra
40) Name the teacher mentioned in the above para ?
A) Karalavam
B) Chanalasvamin
C) Kabir
41) What was the name of the village?
A) Danguna
B) Magadha
C) Kanuj
42) The village was exempted from ?
A) Kings and subjects
B) Farmers and policeman
C) Policeman and soldiers
43) The charter was written in which year ?
A) 12
B) 15
C) 13
44) The inscription was engraved by ?
A) Chakradasa
B) Prabhavati gupta
C) Harishena
One of the most striking examples of this process is evident at Puri, Orissa, where
the principle deity was
identified, by the 12th century, as Jagannath (literally, the lord of the world), a
form of Vishnu
45)This picture is one of the most striking example of
A) Nayannar bhakti movement
B) Lingayat sect
C) Integration of cults
46) Lord Jagannath was associated with .
A) Brahma
B)Vishnu
C)Shiva
47) Choose the correct option.

Assertion(A) : Jagannath was literally the Lord of the world.
Reason(R) : Lord Vishnu was worshipped in various avatars.
(i) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is incorrect but R is correct.
(iv) R is incorrect but A is correct.
48) a) Lord Jagannath has been depicted here with his sister Subhadra and brother
Balaram
b) Lord Jagannath has been depicted here with his wife Sita and brother Lakshman.
(i) Only (a) is correct
(ii) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(iii) Only (b) is correct.
(iv) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
SECTION -D
MAP BASED QUESTIONS
On the given outline map of India, identify the Location with the help of specified
information
On the given outline map of India, identify the Location with the help of specified
information
49) One the political map of india ,The point A is famous for Teracotta models of plough
in harrapa ?
A ) Cholistan
B) Banawali
C) Kalibangan
50) On the political map of india , B is the place where Dockyard was found ?
A) Lothal
B) Dholavira
C) Kotdiji .
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER – 2021-22
ECONOMICS (CLASS 12)
TERM 1
Time: 90 minutes Maximum Marks: 40
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. There are a total 60 questions in this paper out of which 50 questions are to be attempted.
2. This paper is divided into three Sections:
a. Section A – Contains 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
b. Section B – Contains 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
c. Section C – Contains 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
Q.NO. QUESTIONS
SECTION A
(20 questions out of 24 questions are to be attempted)
1 The Government can achieve its budget objective of ‘ Economic stability’ by
(Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
a) managing the General Price Level in the economy to the desired level.
b) increasing the Gross Domestic Products (GDP) of the economy.
c) bringing the production of goods and services under its direct and absolute control.
d) rationalisation of taxes in pro-poor direction.
2 Borrowings will be recorded in _______ side and _______ account of Balance of Payments of an
economy
. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
a) credit side , current account
b) debit side , capital account
c) credit side ,capital account
d) debit side ,current account
3 The process of credit creation mainly depends on
(Choose the correct alternative)
a) primary deposits
b) legal reserve ratio
c) both a&b
d) none of the above
4 Assertion (A): Appreciation of domestic currency means a rise in the price of domestic
currency
Reason (R): Appreciation leads to increase in exports.
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason(R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
5 The strategy to earn foreign exchange by promoting domestic exports and making domestic
industry competitive in the international market is called:
a) export promotion
b) import substitution
c) export liberalization
d) import restriction.
6 Ms. Sakshi, an economics teacher, was explaining the concept of ‘minimum percentage of the
total deposits to be kept by any commercial bank with the Central Bank of the country, as per
norms and statute prevailing in the country’.
From the following, choose the correct alternative which specifies towards the concept
explained by her?
a) Cash Reserve Ratio
b) Repo Rate
c) Bank Rate
d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
7 Two friends Mira and Sindhu were discussing the exchange rate systems.
‘Under this system, the exchange rates are determined by the market forces of demand and
supply
The above-mentioned statement was given by Sindhu, identify the type of exchange rate system
was she talking about?
a) Fixed Exchange Rate
b) Floating Exchange Rate
c) Managed Floating Exchange Rate
d) Managed Fixed Exchange Rate
8 Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
Statement 1 – Public goods are those goods and services that are collectively consumed by the
public.
Statement 2 – Public goods are excludable and rivalrous in nature.
Alternatives:
a) Both the statements are true.
b) Both the statements are false.
c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false
9 Under the Balance of Payments structure of a nation, the two main categories of accounts for
the classification of the transactions are and . (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
i. current account
ii. unilateral transfer account
iii. capital account
iv. loan account
Identify the correct alternatives from the following:
Alternatives:
a) i and ii
b) i and iii
c) iii and iv
d) iv and i
10 Identify which of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India?
a) To act as the banker to the Government of India.
b) To act as the custodian of the gold reserve of India
c) To act as the financial advisor to the Government of India
d) To accept deposits from public
11 Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956 formed the basis of the Five Year Plan.
a) First
b) Fourth
c) Second
a) Third
12 Occupational structure refers to (Fill in the blank with correct alternative)
a) size of labour force in a country
b) number of people living in a country
c) distribution of workforce among different sectors of an economy
d) nature of different occupations
13 is the portion of agricultural produce which is sold in the market by the farmers,
after meeting their self-consumption requirements. (Fill in the blank with correct alternative)
a) Trade Surplus
b) Marketable Surplus
c) Producer Surplus
d) Consumer Surplus
14 Assertion(A): The Average per capita daily requirement of 2400 calories in rural areas and
2100 calories in urban areas.
Reason (R): Because rural areas people do more labor in comparison to urban areas. that’s
why more calories is required in rural areas.
a) both assertion (A)and Reason(R) ARE true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion(A).
b) Both assertion (a) and reason(R)are true and Reason(R)is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A)is false but reason (R) is true.
15 Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct alternatives given below:
Statement 1 – India is often called as the ‘outsourcing hub’ of the world.
Statement 2 – Availability of skilled manpower is one of the prime factors responsible for the
status gained by India at the international platform.
Alternatives:
16 Before the advent of Green Revolution in 1960’s, India was primarily dependent on
for the supply of food grains. (Fill in the blank with correct alternative)
a) United States of America (USA)
b) Britain (United Kingdom)
c) Mexico
a) Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR)
17 From the following given sets of statements in column I and II, choose the correct pair of
statements.
Column I Column II
A Exports of goods and i Excess of Exports of goods over the

services Imports of goods
B Trade Surplus ii An element of invisible items
C Current Transfers to rest of iii Recorded as a positive item in the BOP

the world account
D Portfolio Investments iv Foreign Institutional Investors

Alternatives:
a) A-i
b) B-ii
c) C-iii
d) D-iv
18 Which one of the following is not a non-institutional source of credit?
(a) Money lenders
(b) Co-operative Credit
(c) Trader and commission agents
(d) Land development bank
19 The Government of India has decided to vaccinate the adult population of India (with
Covaxin/Covishield), without any charge. This would be categorized as _
(Fill in the blank with correct alternative)
a) revenue nature income
b) capital nature expenditure
c) revenue nature expenditure
d) capital nature income
20 In 2011-12, poverty line was defined worth ________ as consumption per person a month
for rural areas and _______ for urban areas.
(A) ₹816 and ₹1,000
(B) ₹1,012 and ₹1,210
(C) ₹550 and ₹860
D) ₹860 and ₹673
21 In a hypothetical economy, Mr. Neeraj has deposited ₹100 in the bank. If it is assumed that there
is no other currency circulation in the economy, then the total money supply in the economy will
be (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
a) zero
b) ₹ 100
c) not defined
d) ₹ 120
22 ‘Since independence, India has witnessed a considerable fall in the Infant Mortality Rate in India’
Identify which of the following may not be one of the reasons for the fall in the Infant Mortality
Rate? (Choose the correct alternative)
a) Improvement in health facilities over the years
b) Improvement in educational standards over the years
c) Fall in standard of living of the population of the nation over the years
d) Technological expansion over the years
Statement 1 – Subsidies do not add any burden on the financial health of a nation.
Statement 2 – Complete removal of subsidies may violate the aim of equitable distribution of
income.
Alternatives:
24 Prior to India's independence, the stagnation in the agricultural sector was mainly caused by
. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
a) investment in technology
b) investment in agriculture facilities
c) advanced infrastructural facilities
d) land settlement system
SECTION B
25 Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A) – Acquisition of a domestic (Indian) company by a foreign (Australian) company
will be recorded on the credit side of Balance of Payment Account.
Reason(R) – It leads to outflow of foreign exchange from the domestic economy.
From the given alternatives choose the correct one:
Alternatives:
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
26 Suppose in an economy, the initial deposits of ₹ 500 crores lead to the creation of total deposits
worth ₹ 5000 crores.
Under the given situation the value of reserve requirements would be
a) 0.01
b) 1
c) 0.1
d) 0.4
Assertion (A) – Major policy initiatives (land reforms and Green Revolution) helped India to
become self-sufficient in food grains production.
Reason(R) – The proportion of people depending on agriculture did not decline as expected after
the Green Revolution.
Alternatives:
Assertion (A).
of Assertion (A).
28 Identify the incorrect statement from the following: (Choose the correct alternative)
a) Diversification in agriculture sector provides sustainable livelihood rural population.
b) Diversification includes - change in cropping pattern, shift of workforce from agriculture
to other allied activities and non-agriculture sector.
c) Objective of investment in new agricultural avenues (non-farm activities) increases
financial risks for the rural population.
d) Diversification reduces the proportion of unemployed population in the rural areas to
considerable limits.
Assertion (A): India become self-reliant in the agricultural production after introducing green
revolution.
Reason(R): shortage of food grains due to drought and lack of irrigation facilities in the early
1960’s.
a) Both assertion(A) and reason(R) are true and reasons (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion(A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
30 From the set of statements given in Column I (Name of the Scheme) and Column II (Objective of
Poverty Alleviation Program), choose the correct pair of statements:
Column I Column II
(Name of the Scheme) (Objective of Poverty Alleviation Program)
A) Mahatma Gandhi i) developing infrastructure and

National Rural housing conditions
Employment
Guarantee Act
B) Poshan Abhiyan (Mid ii) guaranteed wage employment to

Day Meal Programme) rural unskilled worker
C) National Social iii) helping specific group – elderly

Assistance Programme people by giving them pensions
D) Valmiki Ambedkar iv) improving food and nutritional

Awas Yojana status of the poor
Alternatives:
a) A-i
b) B-ii
c) C-iii
d) D-iv
31
Figure Showing Population below poverty line in some large states, 1973-2012 (%)
On the basis of the given bar diagram, identify the states which are able to reduce the poverty
level as compared to other states between 1973 -2012.
a) Tamil Nadu, Gujrat, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh
b) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal and Orissa
c) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
d) Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu
32
On the basis of the above-mentioned information answer the following question:

The Real Per Capita Income of India (as per the given data) has increased by _
(approximately) between 1951 and 2016-17. (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
a) 915 %
b) 1015 %
c) 815 %
d) 715 %
Assertion (A) – The goal of equitable distribution of land was fully served by abolition of
intermediaries, in the post-independence India.
Reason(R) – Big landlords challenged the land ceiling legislation, delaying the implementation
and subsequently escaping from the legislation

Alternatives:
Assertion (A).
of Assertion (A).
Statement 1 – The emergence of Self-Help Groups (SHG’s) ensured the reduction in the fissures
of the formal credit system.
Statement 2 – The borrowings from SHGs mainly confined to consumption purposes by its
members.
Alternatives:
Statement 1 – The value of money multiplier is determined by the reserve ratio prevailing in the
monetary system.
Statement 2 – The process of credit creation directly relates to the value of reserve ratio.
Alternatives:
36 Arrange the following event in the correct chronological order:

(Choose the correct arrangements)
i. The year of great divide
ii. Establishment of Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO)
iii. Introduction of Railways in India by the British
iv. Opening of Suez Canal
Alternatives:
a) iv,ii,i,iii
b) i,iv,iii,ii
c) ii,iii,iv,i
d) iii,iv,ii,i
37 Read the following statements -Assertion (A) and Reason(R), choose one of the correct
alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): Trade of invisible items between two nations is a part of capital account of
Balance of Payment
Reason(R): Transactions that affect the asset-liability status of a country in relation to the rest of
the world are known as Capital Account transaction.
Alternatives:
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
of Assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R)is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R)is true.
38 Demand Deposits include_ and _ .(Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
i. Saving account deposits
ii. Fixed deposits
iii. Current Account Deposits
iv. Post Office Savings
Alternatives:
a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
c) i and iii
d) i and iv
39 Read the following statements -Assertion (A) and Reason(R), Choose one of the correct
Assertion (A): Since the default rates of farm loans have become chronically high due to multiple
reasons, the rural banks are facing a lot of cash crunch.
Reason(R): Due to lack of proper storage facilities a lot of farm produce is wasted.
Alternatives:
of Assertion (A).
of Assertion (A).
Assertion (A): Since Independence, the economic condition of many farmers across India has
improved as they have adopted horticulture as a secondary source of income.
Reason(R): Varying climatic and soil conditions have given India an added advantage to be the
producer of diverse horticultural crops.
Alternatives:
of Assertion (A).
of Assertion (A).
Assertion (A): Demand Deposits are considered as a convenient mode of payment for execution
of even the high value transactions.
Reason(R): Demand Deposits are non-withdrawable in nature and cannot be withdrawn against
issue of cheques and other similar instruments of payment.
Alternatives:
of Assertion (A).
of Assertion (A).
42 Choose the correct alternatives to be filled in given blanks A and B.
a) Low level of income and Low level of investment

b) Low level of investment and Low level of Income
c) Low Mobilization of savings and Low level of investment
d) Low level of Investment and Low savings
43 Ms Ramanpreet has started a new business venture, she intends to spend a huge amount
towards ‘on-the-job training’ of her workers before putting them to work. It exhibits the right
step in the direction of Human Capital Formation.
Spot which of the following does not directly contributes to the process of human capital
formation by Ms Ramanpreet:-
a) adds skills and expertise
b) improves efficiency
c) ensures gender equity
d) increases output productivity
44 Suppose that the Balance of Trade (BOT) of a nation, exhibits a surplus of ₹ 20,000 crores. The
import of merchandise of the nation is half of the exports of merchandise to the rest of the world.
The value of exports would be ₹_ _ crores. (Fill up the blank with correct
alternative)
a) 30,000
b) 40,000
c) 24,000
d) 35,000
Statement 1 – Government of India adopted ‘Trickle Down Approach’ to alleviate poverty to
benefit the last man at the bottom of the pyramid.
Statement 2 – Empirical data over the years have shown that trickle-down theory did not yield
desired results in India.
Alternatives:
Assertion (A): If the receipts and payments on the current account are equal to each other, it
depicts a situation of Current Account Surplus.
Reason(R): A surplus current account means that the nation is a lender to other countries and a
deficit current account means that the nation is a borrower from other countries.
Alternatives:
of Assertion (A).
of Assertion (A).
47 Identify the correct statement from the following: (Choose the correct alternative)
a) Restrictive policies of commodity production, trade and tariff pursued by the colonial
government adversely affected the structure, composition and volume of India’s foreign
trade.
b) Effective trade policies of commodity production, trade and tariff pursued by the colonial
government favorably affected the structure, composition and volume of India’s foreign
trade.
c) Liberal policies of commodity production, trade and tariff pursued by the colonial
government adversely affected the structure, composition and volume of India’s foreign
trade.
d) Restrictive policies of commodity production, trade and tariff pursued by the colonial
government favorably affected the structure, composition and volume of India’s foreign
trade.
48 Match the situations given in Column I with their respective implications given in Column II:
Column I Column II
A Migration i. reduced in per capita economic
growth
B Low level of academic standards ii. Imbalance between demand and
supply of human resource
C Population- High Growth rate iii. Brain Drain
D Lack of proper manpower planning iv. Mismatch between required skill and
academic standards
a) A-ii; B-iii; C-iv; D-i

b) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii
c) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
d) A-ii; B-iv, C-i; D-iii
SECTION C
Q.No. 49 – 54 are to be answered on the basis of the following data: (in ₹ Crores)
=
Source: indiabudget.gov.in
49 The value of recovery of loans has_ crores between 2019-20 (Actual) and 2020-21
(Budgeted Estimate). (Fill up the blank with correct alternative)
a) fallen by ₹ 3349
b) risen by ₹ 3349
c) fallen by ₹ 3439
d) risen by ₹ 3439
50 The percentage change in the Non-Tax Revenue, between 2019-20 (Actual) and 2020-
21(Budgeted Estimate), taking the 2019-20 as base, would be .
a) 15.02%
b) 16.20%
c) 17.68%
d) 20.01%
51 Identify which of the following is not an example of revenue receipts :
a) Tax
b) Fees.fine
c) Escheat
d) Borrowings
52 Identify the correct formula to calculate Fiscal Deficit
a) Total expenditure - Total Receipt ( other than borrowings)
b) Revenue Expenditure- Revenue Receipt
c) Total expenditure – Total receipts
d) Revenue Expenditure + Capital expenditure - Revenue Receipt
Statement 1 – Revenue and Capital receipts are increasing but borrowings and other liabilities
are reducing.
Statement 2 – Grants and aid for creation of capital assets decreased from 2019 to 2021
Alternatives:
54 The value of Primary Deficit for the year 2020-21, would be ₹ crores.
(Fill up the blank with correct alternative))
a) 88134
b) 321581
c) 96133
d) 609219
Q.No. 55-60 are to be answered on the basis of the following data:

India’s post-1990 economic strategy entailed three important breaks with the past:
• To dismantle the vast network of controls and permits that dominated the economic
system.
• To redefine the role of the state as a facilitator of economic transactions and as a neutral
regulator rather than the primary provider of goods and services.
• To move away from a regime of import substitution and to integrate fully with the global
trading system.
The 1991 reforms unleashed the energies of Indian entrepreneurs and gave untold choice to the
consumers and changed the face of the Indian economy. The reform agenda constituted a
paradigm shift, and has defined the broad contours of economic policymaking for three decades.
Liberalization was adopted as the guiding principle of governance and all governments since
1991, have broadly stuck to that path.
Today we don’t need a paradigm shift. We need to look at individual sectors and see which one
of these needs, reforms to create a competitive environment and improve efficiency. The power
sector, the financial system, governance structures and even agricultural marketing need
reforms.
Today’s reforms also require much more discussion and consensus-building. The central
government needs to work in tandem with state governments and consult different stakeholders
impacted by reform decisions. Timing and sequencing are critically important in the new reforms’
agenda.
Source: Excerpts from ‘Like 1991, the 2021 crisis presents an opportunity, by C.Rangarajan, 22nd January 2021(livemint.com)
55 According to the given text, _ was adopted as the guiding principle of governance and
all governments since 1991.
a) Modernization
b) Liberalisation
c) Privatization
d) Globalization
Statement 1 – 1991 was a landmark moment in India’s post-independence history as that

changed the nature of the economy in fundamental ways.
Statement 2 –India’s economic establishment launched a multipronged reforms agenda to

repair India’s macroeconomic balance sheet and ignite growth.
Alternatives:
Assertion (A) – India’s pre-1990 economic strategy dismantles the vast network of controls and
permits that dominated the economic system.
Reason (R) – The 1991 reforms unleashed the energies of Indian entrepreneurs, gave untold
choice to consumers and changed the face of the Indian economy.
Alternatives:
Assertion (A).
of Assertion (A).
58 In the light of the given text and common knowledge, identify the incorrect statement: -
a) A severe balance of payments problem triggered an acute economic crisis in 1991.
b) In 1991, the economic and political leadership launched a multipronged reforms agenda
to repair the macroeconomic situation of the nation.
c) In post 1991 situation, the state was given the role of primary regulator of the economy.
d) Post pandemic, individual sectors should be looked closely. Sectors that need reforms
should be identified and corrective action should be taken.
Statement 1 – Timing and sequencing are critically important in the post-economic reform
agenda.
Statement 2 – Post pandemic reforms in India require a paradigm shift.
Alternatives:
Assertion (A) – The 1991 reforms released the vitalities of Indian businesspersons.
Reason (R) – The reform agenda established a paradigm shift and defined the broad outlines of
economic policymaking for years to come.
Alternatives:
Assertion (A).
of Assertion (A).

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA BERHAMPUR

CLASS:- XII SESSION:- 2021`-22

SUBJECT :- ENGLISH ( CORE)

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER TERM:- 1

Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks 40

(i) is much lower than the figures in India

(ii) equals women doctors in India

(iii) is growing faster than the doctors in India

(iv) is higher than the figures in India

a.(i) and (iii) are true

B. only (iv) is true

c. (iii) and (iv) are true

d. (i), (ii) and (iii) are true

(c) There are less women in medicine because

(i) it is a tough line

(ii) it demands long working hours

(iii) women do not enjoy this field

(iv) women are discouraged by their peers in this segment

(d) Females accounted for over …………………………. of the physicians in Lithuania.

(iv) one in three women

(i) women only

(ii) men only

(iii) Both men and women

(iv) doctors only

(iv) para medical

(iii) Royal College

(a) abundance (para 3)

A. (i) and (ii) are correct

ST. MICHAEL SR. SECONDARY SCHOOL, DELHI

An Inter-school Kabaddi Competition (b) ------------------------- on 20th December at 3.00 pm in the

choose the most appropriate option

5. Read the given extract to attempt questions that follow.

a. What does the word 'Enslaved' mean?

iii. Both of these

iv. None of these

b. Hold fast means......

iv. All of these

c. What piece of advice was given by the teacher to everyone?

i. To respect their mother tongue

ii. To bury their mother tongue

iii. Both (i) and(ii)

iv. Neither (i) and (ii)

2. What do you mean by the word ‘stigma’?

2 Trees sprinting Metaphor

4 Smile and smile and smile- Repetition

ii.Which reason of the problem is being cited here?

iii.Which other evidence did prove that Charley was an escapist?

iv.Who in Charley’s ancestors pursued philately?

Assertion (A) Because it was his native language.

a.Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b.Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c.A is true but R is false.

d.A is false but R is True

Reason (R) : He wanted to get rid of residual doubts .

Point out if:

(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(c) If A is true but R is false

(d) If A is false but R is true

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

a.flickering gas lights and people with funny mustaches

18.How is keeping quiet related to life and can change attitude?

a.it helps to think and search soul