FINAL COACHING IN

CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS AND HUMAN RELATIONS

Prepared by:

Ella Kristina I. Ingcad

PART I- CRIMES

1. Criminology is considered as a _________________?

A. Prevention of Crime
B. Subject
C. Interdisciplinary
D. Bachelor

Note:
Criminology is an interdisciplinary science which involving two or more academics fields.

2. According to RA 11131, Criminology is considered a ______________?

A. Science
B. Applied Science
C. Principle
D. Part of Society

3. It is a violation of Societal rules of behaviour as interpreted and expressed by the criminal law, which
reflects public opinion, traditional values and the view point of people currently holding social and
political power. Individuals who violate these rules are subject to sanctions by state authority, social
stigma and loss of status.
A. Crime
B. Deviance
C. Misdemeanour
D. Common Law

NOTE:

 Deviance- behaviour that departs from the social norm but is not necessarily criminal. Violates
accepted norms and arouses negative social reactions.
 Misdemeanour – a minor crime usually punished by a short jail term and/or a fine
 Common Law – the system of law originating in medieval England and emphasizing court
decisions and customs

4. It is a sub area/components of criminology which concerned with the role social forces play in shaping
criminal law and the role of criminal law in shaping society?
A. Social Science
B. Criminal Etiology
C. Sociology of Law
D. Penology

NOTE:

 Sociology of Law – Measuring the social, historical, political and political and economic factors
that change laws and society.
 Criminal Etiology – The Study of the Cause/ origin of the Crime
 Penology – Studying the correction and control of criminal behaviour.
 Social Science- Crime is a social creation and it exist in society being a social phenomenon.

5. The term Criminology was derived (taken) from French word _______
A. Criminologia
B. Crimen
C. Criminologie
 D. Logia

6. It is term applied for a specialist in the study of disorders, sometimes used as psychiatrist.
A. Criminalist
B. Alienist
C. Forensic anthropologist
D. Anthropologist

Take Note:
 Criminalist - a person who is trained in science of application of instruments and methods to
the detection of crime
 Forensic Anthropologist- examine the skeletal or decomposed remains in unexplained death.
 Anthropologist- they studies human’s physical, social and language development, and the
cultures they establish.

7. A statement that we would have no crime if we have no criminal law and that we can eliminate crimes
by merely abolishing criminal law.
A. Dura lex sed lex
B. Nullum crimen, nulla poena sine lege
C. Manie sans Delire
D. Logomacy

 Manie sans delire – referred to as a Psychopathic personality

8. It is the nature of criminology changes as a social condition. It is concomitant (connected) with the
advancement of other science that have been applied to it.
A. Applied Science
B. Nationalistic
C. Dynamic
D. Science

9. The scientific study of the causes of crime in relation to man and society who set and defines rules and
regulations for himself and others to govern.
A. Criminal Justice
B. Criminology
C. Penology
D. Criminal Justice System

Note:

 Criminal Justice – is the study of the various agencies of the government responsible in
processing law violators in order to serve the ends of justice.
 Penology – the study of criminal punishment
 Criminal Justice System – the Machinery of the State or Government which enforce the rules
of conduct necessary to protect life and property and to maintain the peace of order.
• The sum total of instrumentation which a society uses in the prevention of crime and
control of crime.

10. It is the study of criminality in relation to the spatial distribution in a community?

A. Criminal Physical Anthropology
B. Criminal Demography
C. Criminal Ecology
D. Criminal Epidemiology

11. A crime punishable by penal laws?

A. Crime
B. Felony
C. Offense
D. Infraction
Revised Penal Code- Felony

12. These are the unlawful acts that interferes the operation of society and the ability of people to function
efficiently. It is considered illegal because they threaten general well-being of society and challenge its
accepted moral principles. The sale of pornography is one of the example and it is also called Victimless
Crime.
A. Crimes against National Security
B. Public Order Crimes
C. Special Laws
D. City Ordinance

13. “Crimonologie” was first coined by French Anthropologist Paul Topinard in what year?
A. 18 century
B. 1885
C. 1887
D. 1870-1880

14. The purpose to use a particular means to effect such result.

A. Desire
B. Capability
C. Opportunity
D. Intent

Note:

 Desire- what a person wanting or longing to commit crime

 Opportunity- a set of circumstance providing a chance or possibility. The physical possibility
for the person to execute a crime.
 Capability – ability to do something

15. It is means the capacity to know and understand the consequences of one's act.
A. Freedom
B. Intelligence
C. Negligence
D. Imprudence

Note:

 Negligence- indicates deficiency of perception or failure to pay attention and to use diligence in
foreseeing the injury or damage impending to be caused. It usually involves LACK OF
FORESIGHT.
 Imprudence – indicates deficiency of action or failure to take the necessary precaution to avoid
injury to person or damage property. It usually involves LACK OF SKILL

16. Crimes are committed either by Dolo or Deceit or by _____________?

A. Culpa
B. Motive
C. Fault
D. Both A and C

17. The Philippine Criminology Profession Act of 2018.

A. RA 10666
B. RA 10963
C. RA 11131
D. RA 11200

Take Note:

 RA 10666 – the “children’s safety on Motorcycle Act 2015

 RA 10963- An act shall be known as the Tax Reform for Acceleration and Inclusion (TRAIN LAW)
  RA 11200 – An act providing for the Rank Classification in the PNP, amending for the purpose of section
28 of RA 6975 otherwise known as DILG act of 1990

18. RA 6506 was repealed by RA 11131, the Professional Regulatory Board for Criminologist shall composed
of?
A. Chairman and two members
B. Chairman and three members
C. Chairman and four members
D. Chairman and five members

19. It is study of Human society, its origin structure, function and direction.
A. Socialization
B. Norms
C. Culture
D. Sociology

Note:

 Socialization – it refers to learning process by which a person learns and internalizes the way
of society so that he can function and become an active part of society.
 Norms – the unwritten rule which is the standard behaviour turn require certain expectations
of behaviour in given situation.
 Culture – it refers to the system of values and meanings shared by a group of individuals
including the embodiment of those values and meanings in a material object.

20. According to the gravity of offense. Those which the law punishes with penalties which in their
maximum period are correctional.
A. Grave Offense
B. Less Grave offense
C. Light Offense
D. Capital Punishment

Note:

Crime punishable by Death penalty is what kind according to gravity?

A. Grave Offense
B. Less Grave offense
C. Light Offense
D. Capital Punishment

21. According to the above mention, what is the equivalent fines of Less Grave Offense?
A. More than 1,200,000
B. Not less than 40,000 but more than 1,200,000
C. Less than 40,000
D. Not less than 40,000 but not more than 1,200,000

As amended by RA 10591, August 29, 2017

22. A crime can be classified according to its stages of commission, what crime is committed when the
merely commences the execution of an offense by overt act but which nevertheless did not perform all
acts of execution which would produce the felony by reason of some cause other than his own
spontaneous desistance?
A. Attempted Stage
B. Frustrated Stage
C. Consummated Stage
D. Aggravated

Remember: Crimes without frustrated: Rape, Bribery, Corruption of Public officers, Adultery, Physical Injury.
  Overt Acts- are external acts which if continued will logically result in felony. It is start of criminal
liability because the offender has commenced the commission of an offense with an overt act.

23. It is the crime resulted due to the person’s inability to predict the obvious possible outcome of his
actions.
A. Imprudence
B. Negligence
C. Lack of foresight
D. Lack of Skill

Note:
 Imprudence
Deficiency in action; failure to take the necessary precaution to prevent the danger due to
carelessness.
 lack of foresight
When the crime resulted due to the person’s inability to predict the obvious possible outcome of
his actions.
 lack of skill
When the crime resulted because the person does not have the necessary skill to perform the
action safely
 Negligence
Deficiency in perception; failure to foresee the danger

24. In the Crime Concubinage, the offender is a married ______________?

A. Concubine
B. Woman
C. Man
D. Paramour

25. Crimes refer to behaviour that violate contemporary standards only.

A. Mala Inse/malum Inse
B. Mala prohibita/Malum prohibitum
C. Customs
D. Victimization

Note:
 Mala Inse – Crimes refer to behaviour that violate traditional norms and moral codes, it includes the
violent and property crime that most concerns the public.
- When the act is inherently immoral, they are Mala inse event if punished by
special law.
 Customs – norms that unwritten and informal
 Victimization – the suffering of a crime

26. It is defined narrowly and usually means that the defendant was not fear of her life or safety at the time
of the crime.
A. Actus Reus
B. Mens Rea
C. Duress
D. Motive

Note:
 Actus Reus (Guilty Act) - refers to the actual criminal act of which defendant is accused.
 Mens Rea (Guilty Mind) –
 Duress – constraint illegally exercised to obligatory someone to perform an act
Coercion (force)
 Motive – moving power impels one to action for a definite result.

27. Those who become victim psychologically because they become afraid of the effects of crime by watching
television, newspaper listening to witness testimony.
A. Victim
 B. Primary victim
C. Secondary victim
D. Remote Victim

28. Nero, a skilled person in making deception through verbal communication. He had committed estafa
to several persons through illegal recruitment. What crime according to result did he committed? (the
criminal gains/benefited)

A. Simple crime
B. Compound Crime
C. Acquisitive crime
D. Extinctive Crime

Take Note:
 Simple Crime – according to Plurality; single act constituting only one offense
 Compound Crime – single act constituting two or more grave offense
 Extinctive Crime- when the result of the Act is Destruction

29. Killing of two or more person in different locations with almost no time break between murders.
A. Murder
B. Serial Murder
C. Mass Murder
D. Spree Murder

Take Note:
 Murder- any person shall kill another with malicious intent (ART 248, RPC)
 Serial Murder – Act involving killing of several victims in three or more separate incidents over a week,
a month or year.
 Mass Murder – killing of four or more victims at one location with one event

30. A crime that is committed in the shortest possible time such as Libel.
A. Static Crime
B. Continuing Crime
C. Instant Crime
D. Episodial Crime

31. It is considered as the main source of the Revised Penal Code?

A. Recognizance
B. Philippine Constitution 1987
C. Spanish Penal Code of 1870
D. Criminal Law

 Criminal Law-the written code that defines crimes and their punishment

32. Committed by a person belonging to the upper socio-economic class in the course of his occupational
activities.
A. Rational Crime
B. Irrational Crime
C. White Collar Crime
D. Blue Collar Crime

33. Incomplete or contemplated crimes such as criminal solicitation or criminal attempts.

A. Enterprise Crime
B. Inchoate Crime
C. Mission Hate Crimes
D. Trill-Seeking Hate Crimes
Note:
 Enterprise Crime – The use of illegal tactics by a business to make profit in the market place
 Mission Hate Crime- violent crimes committed by disturbed individuals who see it as their duty to rid
the world of evil.
  Trill-Seeking Hate Crimes- Hatemongers who join forces

PART II- CRIMINALS

34. It is a small group of persistent offenders who account for majority of all criminal offenders.
A. Acute Criminals
B. Chronic Criminals
C. Organized Criminals
D. Professional Criminals
Note:
 Acute Criminals- Person who violate criminal law because of the Impulse of the moment, fit of
passion or anger.
 Organized Criminals- according to behavioural system, this criminals have high degree of
organization that enables them to commit crime without being detected and usually operates in large
scale.
 Professional Criminals- those who have highly skilled and able to obtain considerable amount of
money without being detected because of organization and contact with other professional criminals
35. A person who repeatedly violates law and organized his or her neighbours?
A. Habitual Criminals
B. Career Criminals
C. Neurotic Criminals
D. Accidental Criminals
Note:
 Habitual Criminals – those who continue to commit criminal acts for such diverse reasons due to
deficiency of intelligence and lack of control
 Neurotic Criminals- a person whose actions arise from the intra-psychic conflict between the social
and anti-social components of his personality
 Accidental Criminals- those who commit criminal acts as result of unanticipated circumstances.

36. First female executed through Lethal Injection in the Philippines

A. Ada Margaret Jukes
B. Lucila Lalu
C. Josefina Esparas
D. Ella Kristina Isidro

37. There are three principal types of physiques according to Ernst Kretchmer. These one have a
characteristic of medium to tall, strong, muscular and they are usually connected with crime of violence.
A. Asthenic
B. Athletic
C. Pyknic
D. Mesomorphic
Note:
 Asthenic- Lean, slightly built, narrow shoulders, their crimes are petty thievery and fraud.
 Pyknic- Medium height, rounded figures, massive neck, broad face; they tend to commit deception,
fraud and violence

38. An Italian Bandit who (outlaw) executed in 1870. The skull of his was preserved by the Italian
Criminologist Cesare Lombroso.
A. Prescillian
B. Joan of Arc
C. Guiseppe Villella
D. Cain

39. This body built by somatotyping theory have heavy builds and are slow-moving and lethargic.
A. Ectomorphs
B. Endomorphs
C. Mesomorphs
D. Asthenic
PART II-A Personality
40. According to him Criminology is absolutely not a science due to the variations of behavior. (lack of
proposition)
A. Rafaelle Garofalo
B. George Wilker
C. Charles Goring
D. Enrico Ferri

41. Who Composed the board of Criminology on December 14, 15, and 16 2018?
A. Atty Ruben G. Gabao, Dr. George O, Fernandez and Dr. Ramil A, Sta Teresa
B. Atty Ramil G. Gabao, Dr. Ruben O, Fernandez and Dr. George A, Sta Teresa
C. Atty. Ramil G. Gabao, Dr. George O, Fernandez and Dr. Ruben A, Sta Teresa
D. Dr. Ruben G. Gabao, Atty. George O, Fernandez and Dr. Ramil A, Sta Teresa

42. He was the first to take advantage of criminal statistics in crime causation thus crediting him as the
“FATHER OF MODERN STATISTICS”
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Adolf Quetelet
C. August Compte
D. Cesare Beccaria

43. According to him, Crime is Normal part of the society. One of his profound contributions to
contemporary criminology is the concept of Anomie ---the breakdown of social order as result of loss of
standard and values.
A. Giambattista Dela Porta
B. Ernst Kretchmer
C. Emile Durkheim
D. William Sheldon
E. Travis Hirchi

44. His Containment theory sought to explain why – despite the various “Push and Pull” factors that may
tempt individuals into criminal behaviour.
A. Johann Kaspar Lavater
B. Walter Reckless
C. Johann Gaspar Spurzheim
D. Franz Joseph Gall
E. Gresham Sykes

Note:
 Johan Kaspar Lavater (1741-1801) - Swiss theologian who state “People’s true character and
inclinations (feelings) could be read from their facial features.
 Johann Gaspar Spurzheim- German phrenologist who was the assistant of Gall and was the man most
singularly responsible for spreading phrenology.
 Franz Joseph Gall – He Developed Cranioscopy, a method to study the personality and development of
mental based on the external shape of the skull.
 Gresham Sykes- advocated the Neutralization Theory which is the people become law abiding if they
feel they are benefited by it and they violate it if these laws are not favourable to them.

45. According to him, criminology is the entire body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon.
It includes within its scope the process of making laws, of breaking laws and of reacting towards the
breaking of the laws.

A. Richard Louis Dugdale

B. Edwin Sutherland
C. Sigmund Freud
 D. Jeremy Bentham

46. According To him, people imitate one another. Crime begins as a fashion and later become a custom,
the inferior usually imitate the superior and the newer fashion displaces the older one.

A. Robert King Merton

B. August Aichorn
C. Gabriel Tarde
D. Shaw And Mckay

Note:
 Robert Merton - applied the theory of anomie of Durkheim to criminology. Utilized a modified version
of it and identify two elements of culture interaction to produce potentially anomie conditions: (culturally
defined goals and social approved means of obtaining them.
 August Aichorn- “latent delinquency” youngsters who seek immediate gratification without considering
right and wrong (they lack guilt)
 Shaw and McKay-contended that criminals are not biologically inferior, intellectually impaired or
psychologically damaged and criminal behaviour is cause by neighbourhood denigration and slum
conditions

47. He claims that the lower class cannot socialize effectively as the middle class in what is considered
appropriate in the middle class behaviour.

A. Earl Richard Quinney

B. Lloyd Ohlin
C. Thorsten Sellin
D. Albert Cohen
E. Alfred Binet

Note:
 Earl Richard Quinney- Advocated the Instrumentalist theory of capitalist rule where is the upper class
create laws that protect their interest.
 Lloyd Ohlin – Advocated the Differential Opportunity theory which explained that society leads the
lower class to want things and society does thing to people.
 Thorsten Sellin- was studied the Culture Conflict Theory wherein he concluded that the main
difference between a criminal and a non-criminal is that each is responding to different sets of conduct
norms.

48. He was the Grandfather of Labeling Theory?

A. John Dollard
B. Robert Ezra Park
C. Frank Tannebaum
D. Ron Akers
E. Daniel Glasser
Note:
 John Dollard- Advocated Frustration- Aggression Theory which holds that Frustration is natural
consequence of living which is a root cause of crime.
 Robert Ezra Park- studied the scientific method in explaining criminality which Human Ecology Theory
is the study of the Interrelationship of people and their environment.
 Ron Akers – Advocated of Differential Reinforcement theory
 Daniel Glasser – his theory of Differential Identification Theory is the modification of Differential
Association Theory, in this view people commit crime if they believe that it will lead to acceptance by
and approval of these important people in their lives.
PART III- THEORIES
LEVEL: EASY

49. During the prehistoric times, there was no formal criminal justice system, and crimes where punished
based on:
A. formal laws
B. customs
C. Norms
D. Tradition

50. It is a set of statements devised to explain behaviour, events or phenomena, especially one that has
been repeatedly tested and widely accepted?
A. Principle
B. Hypothesis
C. Theory
D. Science
Note:
 Principle- a fundamental truth or proposition that serves as the foundation for a system of belief or
behaviour or for a chain of reasoning.
 Hypothesis- something taken to be true for the purpose of argument or investigation; an assumption
 Science-(Body of knowledge) the intellectual and practical activity encompassing the systematic study
of the structure and behaviour of the physical and natural world through observation and experiment.

51. It is the study that deals with the relationship between the skull and human behaviour.
A. Franz Joseph Gall
B. Craniometry
C. Phrenology
D. Craniology

Note: Craniometry - the scientific measurement of skulls, especially in relation to craniology.

52. A theory in criminology states that "Person who committed crimes is due to supernatural and force
from evil"?

A. Prescillian
B. Heretics
C. Demonological theory
D. Witchcraft
E. Joan of Arc

53. This theory, however, does not give any distinction between an adult and a minor or a mentally-
handicapped in as far as free will is concerned.
A. Cesare Bonesara Marchese de Beccaria
B. On Crmies and Punishment
C. Classical Theory
D. Crime
E. Situational Force

Note: Crime is a Function of free will and personal choice. And Classical phrase “Let the punishment fit
the crime”

54. This school of thought in criminology states that although individuals have free will, there are other
factors that affect the exercise of their free will, which cause them commit crimes:
A. neo-classical
B. Insane
C. Exempting
D. Some other Factors
E. Child
 55. This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and,
that low intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is linked to behaviour including criminal behaviour:
A. Low IQ or Intellectual Quotient
B. Heredity
C. Alfred Binet
D. Nature Theory

56. Group of urban sociologists who studies the relationship between environmental conditions and crime.
A. Crime is a Social phenomenon
B. Urban Sociologist and Anthropologist
C. CHICAGO SCHOOL
D. Focus on Neighbourhood conditions

Note: Chicago focus on Poverty levels influence crime rates. They believe that crime was a social phenomenon
and could be eradicated by improving social and economic condition”
-the social environment directly controls criminal behaviour
Social Structure Theory is the modern version of Chicago School which views that disadvantage economic
class position is a primary cause of crime.

57. This theory reflects the way people react to a given situation based on the social influences they acquired
from other people that practically determine their behaviours. This theory likewise serves as the
learning process of delinquent behaviours and considered as one of the most important theory in crime
causation.
A. Edwin Sutherland
B. Differential Association Theory
C. Communication and Association
D. Criminal Behaviour is not inherited but Learned
E. Most important theory in crime causation

58. The theory which states that attachment, connection and link to society will determine whether a person
shall commit a crime or not:
A. BIAC
B. Travis Hirchi
C. Social Bond theory
D. Bond with Society

59. This school on crime causation emphasized economic determinism and concentrated on the need for
the quality among all citizens. They provided statistical data which claimed to show that variations in
crime rates are associated with variations in economic conditions.
A. Cartographic School of thought
B. Statistical Method
C. Winter and Summer Season
D. Adolf Quetelet and andre Guerry

60. It is the study of facial features and their relation to human behaviour.
A. Human physiognomy
B. Giambatista dela Porta
C. Facial Features
D. Johann kaspar lavater
E. people’s true characters
61. It refers to a study showing the relationship between the physical built of a person to his personality
structure and the type of offense he is most prone to commit?
A. Ernst Kreshmer
B. Physical Built
C. Somatotyping or Physiology
D. William Sheldon

62. This theory states that individuals copy behaviour patterns of other individuals, and that those with
weaker personalities tend to get influenced easier by those with stronger personalities.
A. Gabriel Tarde
B. Imitation Theory
 C. Modelling
D. 3 Patterns
Note:
The Theory of Imitation is explained by the following patterns:

o Pattern 1: individuals imitate others in proportion to the intensity and frequency of their contact
o Pattern 2: inferiors imitate superiors
o Pattern 3: when two behaviour patterns clash, one may take the place of the other

63. This the school of thoughts that criminal behaviour is based on biological, psychological and social
factors. The shift from the Philosophical to scientific approach in explaining the causes of crime.
A. Trait or Positivist Theory
B. Focus on the Person
C. Holy Three
D. Modern Positive Criminology
E. Cesare Lombroso

64. According to this study the law violating behaviour occurs when an offender decides to risk breaking
the law after considering both personal factors (needs) and situational factors.
A. The Greatest Happiness Principle
B. Focus on Pain And Pleasure
C. Jeremy Betham
D. Utilitarianism
E. Felicific Calculus

65. This theory assumes that Individuals choose to commit crime after calculating whether its potential
reward outweigh its potential risks. It’s also assume that they can be deterred from committing crime
if the potential risks seem too certain or too severe.
A. Calculate their behaviour
B. Modern views of Classical Theory
C. Rational Choice Theory
D. Focus on their fear of punishment

66. It contends that the exploitation of the working class would eventually lead to class conflict at the end
of the capitalist system.
A. Karl Marx
B. Conflict Theory
C. Ruling Class
D. Capitalist Society

67. This explanations say crime arise from internal disturbance developing in early childhood because of
interaction problems between parents and children,
A. ID, EGO and Super Ego
B. Sigmund Freud
C. Psychoanalytic Theory
D. Focus on Early Childhood

68. This theory holds that criminality is promoted by becoming negatively labelled by significant others,
such as criminals, “ex con” and lock them into lives of crime.
A. Labeling Theory
B. Focus on Negative label
C. Effect of Stigma
D. Raymond Paternoster

69. It is a branch of social structure that focus on the breakdown of institution such as family, school, and
employment in inner city neighborhood. Focuses on the conditions within the urban environment that
affect crime rates. Links crime rate to neighbourhood ecological characteristics.
A. Clifford Shaw and Henry Mckay
B. Focus on the inner zone of institutions
C. Social Disorganization theory
 D. Weak Social Relationship is the cause of the crime

70. This View that law violators learn to neutralize conventional values and attitudes enabling them to drift
back and forth between criminal and conventional behaviour.
A. Focus on drift
B. David Matza and Greham Sykes
C. Rationalizing Deviant Behavior
D. Neutralization Theory

71. This theory the view that victim may initiate, either actively or passively the confrontation that leads to
their victimization.
A. Active Precipitation
B. Passive Precipitation
C. Victim precipitation Theory
D. Focus on the Victim

PART IV- HARD

72. The Original “Chicago School” vision has been updated in this theory that view, people at the bottom of
the social hierarchy who cannot achieve success through conventional means experience Anomie,
strain, failure and frustration are most likely turn into criminal to solution their problems.
A. Social Structure Theory
B. Social Process Theory
C. Social Learning Theory
D. Social Control Theory

Note:
 Social Learning Theory- Criminal behaviour is learned through human interactions
 Social Control theory- Human Behaviour is controlled through close associations with institutions and
individuals.
 Social Process Theory- the view that criminality is a function of people’s interactions with various
organization, institutions and processes in society.

73. When a parents are alienated (separated) from their children, their negative labelling reduces their
children’s self-image and increases delinquency this process called __________?
A. Self Labeling
B. Stigmatize
C. Reflected appraisal
D. Retrospective reading

Note:
 Stigmatize – to apply negative labelling with enduring effects on a person’s self-image and social
interactions.
 Retrospective reading – the reassessment of a person’s past to fit a current generalized label

74. Ms.keyword successfully steals a textbook at the campus bookstore gets a higher grade and finally
admitted to law school, and later becomes a famous judge. Because his shoplifting goes unnoticed, this
relatively unimportant event that has a little bearing on his future life. What kind of view that stated
above?
A. Primary Deviance
B. Secondary Deviance
C. Deviance Amplification
D. Successful degradation ceremonies
Note:
 Secondary Deviance – a norm violator or crime that comes to the attention of significant others or social
control agents who apply a negative label with a long term consequences for the violator’s self-identity
 Deviance amplification- pushes offender out of mainstream of society and locks them into an escalating
cycle of deviance, apprehension, labelling and criminal self-identity
  Successful degradation ceremonies – a course of action in which someone’s identity is publicly
redefined and destroyed and they are thereafter viewed as socially unacceptable

75. “Everyone steals, why pick on me?” and “ If I don’t do it to him , I’m sure he will do it to me!” this stated
is an example of what theory
A. Differential Association theory
B. Strain Theory
C. Neutralization Theory
D. Imitation Theory

76. Ms. Pempem may become the target of intimate violence when she improves her job status and her
success result in a backlash from her jealous husband. This situation is example of
A. Lifestyle Theory
B. Suitable Target
C. Passive precipitation
D. Cohort

Note:
 Cohort – a group of subjects that is studied over time
 Suitable Targets – object of crime either person or object that are attractive and readily available.
 Lifestyle Theory – views that people become crime victims because of their lifestyle that increase their
exposure to criminal offenders.

77. Victims do not encourage crime but are victim prone because they reside in socially disorganized high
crime areas where they have the greatest risk of coming into contact with criminal offenders. This views
came from what theory?
A. Routine Activities Theory
B. Human Ecology Theory
C. Deviant Place Theory
D. Broken Window Theory

78. This theory recognize that criminality is not a disease or pathological behaviour. It focuses attention on
the social reaction and interaction that shape individuals and their behaviour.
A. Social Bond theory
B. Strain Theory
C. Labeling Theory
D. Differential Association Theory

79. A person pursues criminal behaviour to the extent that he identifies himself with real or imaginary
persons from whose perspective his criminal behaviour seems acceptable. This theory is ____________?
A. Differential Reinforcement theory
B. Social Bonding Theory
C. Differential Identification theory
D. Differential Association Theory

80. This theory of Charles Title has been applauded as “One of the most important theoretical contributions
to the sociology of deviance”. This theory observed that some people by virtue of their roles and personal
qualities can exercise considerable control over other people.
A. Self-Control theory
B. Control Balance Theory
C. Neutralization Theory
D. Containment Theory

81. The most notable statement of English philosopher John Locke believed that humans are not
predisposed at birth to be either or bad. Instead he argued that mind is a ____________ or blank slate,
that an individual who would generally not become criminal without first learning about crime from
society.
A. Guerrilla
B. Tabularasa
C. Life Course Criminology
 D. Euphoria

Note:
 Euphoria – is the experience of pleasure or excitement and intense feelings of well-being and
happiness, such as listening or making music or laughter can induce a state of euphoria.
 Life Course- it explanation emphasize the importance of parenting during childhood and
adolescence on the likelihood of behavioural problems in young and older children alike.

Human Behavior and Crisis Management

By
Ella Kristina Ingcad

82. It is defined as a dynamic process which shows itself in changed behaviour that is based on prior
experience. People possess few, if any, instinctive skills and no instinctive knowledge which is enable
them to survive?
A. Habitual
B. Learning
C. Instinctive
D. Symbolic

Note:
Classification of Human behaviour
Habitual- Motorized behaviour
Instinctive- Unlearned and simply comes out
Symbolic – by means of unsaid words and shown through symbols or body signs.

83. It is composed of adoptive adjustment people make as they cope with one another, with problems, with
opportunities, and with working together aspects in a given situation?
A. Behavior
B. Human Behavior
C. Inherited/inborn behavior
D. Learned behavior

84. A feeling or impression created by given stimulus or cause that leads to particular reaction or behevior,
in short the effect.
A. Sensation
B. Perception
C. Awareness
D. Motivation

Motivation- defined as the state or condition of being induced to do something.

85. It is a distortion of the senses, revealing how the human brain normally organizes and interprets
sensory stimulation.
A. Hallucination
B. Illusion
C. Delusion
D. Paranoia

86. May be defined as a false belief which is strongly held despite all test of reality.
A. Hallucination
B. Delusion
C. Illusion
D. Behavior disorder

Behavior disorder- any persistent limitation or disturbance in adjustment which acts as a barrier to
the individuals fulfilling a satisfying role in society.
 87. The intense need to satisfy an unmet need is known as ________________________? It also defined as an
energetic force fueled by human needs.
A. Drive
B. Motive
C. Frustration
D. Tension

NOTE:
Motive- a stimulus which produces an action that satisfies a need.
Frustration - Used to refer to the situation which blocks motivated behavior.
Tension- the frustration or discomfort caused by unfulfilled human needs.

88. Something that exist within people that moves them to engaged in a work related behavior in an effort
to accomplish a personal goal.
A. Goals
B. Needs
C. Performances
D. Wants
Note:
Goals- objects, conditions, or activities toward which a particular motive directed.
Performances- the purposeful activity that result from an individual’s goal-oriented behavior and
normally evaluated in terms of specific outcomes.

89. Conflicts and behavioural outcomes are classified as follows. Except

A. Approach-Approach
B. Avoidance-Approach
C. Avoidance-Avoidance
D. Approach-Avoidance

90. He is the creator of the hierarchy of human needs, the five human needs activate, fuel and shape the
internal drives to overcome inertia or inactivity affiliated with status quo.
A. Sigmund Freud
B. Abraham Maslow
C. Jonh Locke
D. Afred binet

Hierarchy of needs
 Physiological or survival needs – it is a limited duration as soon as the needs satisfied example: water,
food and even the shelter if the following satisfied it is replaced by another needs.(sex or sleep)
 Safety or Security needs- the need for order and stability and need for freedom from anxiety and
insecurity related to personal safety, Job security, or financial survival. .(stability)
 Belongingness or Social needs- it is emerge as a very important source of motivation. Human being
have an inherent need to interact with significant others. .(love or companionship)
 Self-esteem or Ego needs- every people have desire to be a competent and need to feel they are worth
something to themselves as well as to others. .(Respect)
 Self-Actualization or Fulfilment needs- It is triggered when the person achieve a measure of
satisfaction for their physiological, security, social and ego needs.

91. Freud thought that people are inherently pleasure seeking because of the ________________?
A. ID
B. EGO
C. SUPER EGO
D. ALTER EGO

92. This type of conflict when there are two courses of action, each of which has both pleasant and
unpleasant consequences.
A. Avoidance-avoidance B. approach-avoidance C. approach-approach d.
multiple

93. The way people react to frustration is sometimes knows as ________________?

A. Use of Defense Mechanism
 B. Coping Mechanism
C. Withdrawal/retreat
D. Aggression

Frustration tolerance
 Withdrawal/retreat- is a corresponding to running away from the problem or flight which to some, is
the safest way.
 Aggression- is a negative outcome of a person’s inability to handle frustration rightly. Manifestation in
physical behaviour can be observe in one’s negative attitudes towards life both in the personal and
professional aspect.
 Use of Defense Mechanism- it is the most tolerated way of handling frustration. It is man result when
a person attempts to overcome fear from an anticipated situation or event.

94. When an individual realized that in finding for the right solution of the problem, he always end up with
a negative outcome or result. Thus, he try to make a change direction first and find out if the solution
or remedy.
A. Direct approach
B. Approach-approach
C. Detour
D. Avoidance- Avoidance

Direct approach – can be seen among people who handle their problem in a very objective way.

95. These are unconscious psychological processes that serve as a safety valve that provides relief from
emotional conflict and anxiety. It can be the most tolerated way of handling frustration.
A. Motivation
B. Defense Mechanism
C. Anxiety
D. Complex

96. Refers to the excessive concern about state of health or physical condition
A. Somatoform Disorder
B. Hypochondriasis
C. Depersonalization
D. Amnesia

97. A stage of development when girls begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers.
A. Oedipus Complex
B. Electra Complex
C. Doing Gender
D. Chivalry Hypothesis

Defense Mechanism

98. Xeena Hyun can’t understand why her boyfriend lee min ho has been so grumpy and irritable with her
for the past few days. In fact xeena have no idea what she did wrong, which of the following defense
mechanism did her boyfriend show?
A. Suicide
B. Displacement
C. Repression
D. Projection

99. Woman who never wanted to have children becomes a super mom.
A. Sublimation
B. Identification
C. Reaction Formation
D. Suppression

100. Ren, who actually likes to have others do things for him, is quick to criticize other people for being
dependent and lazy.
A. Repression
 B. Compensation
C. Regression
D. Projection

101. Xeena has suffered heavy financial losses while playing the stock market, upon trading her big, luxury
car in for an old, broke down small car, Xeena informed her friends that she bought the cheaper car to
do part in the battle against air pollution.
A. Fantazy/day dreaming
B. Altruism
C. Rationalization
D. Scapegoating

102. Kim Soo hyun has been in love with his bestfriend, but one day his best friend told him that she is
getting married to someone else. Kim soo hyun smiled while crying and said “Im so happy for you my
bestfriend best wishes” what kind of defense mechanism he did apply?
A. Reaction Formation
B. Denial
C. Suppression
D. Substitution

103. After failing his doctoral examination Ji Chang Wook spends days in bed cuddling his favourite
Stuffed toy Iron man.
A. Regression
B. Suppression
C. Repression
D. Identification

The Behavior Disorder

104. Refers to any persistent limitation or disturbance in adjustment which acts as a barrier to the
individual’s fulfilling a satisfying role in society.
A. Organic Behavior Disorder
B. Behavior disorder
C. Functional behavior Disorder
D. Personality Disorder

Personality Disorder – a person with PD cannot significantly alter or change his behavior to events which
require different responses.

105. People with this kind of PD easily gets excited and possess an emotional instability characterized by
a capacity to overact too many situation in a dramatic manner. This dramatic behavior is always
attention seeking.
A. Passive- Aggressive
B. Hysterical personality disorder
C. Paranoid Personality Disorder
D. Compulsive Personality Disorder

106. This behavior characterized of a general disorganization of individual’s make up, sensory and motor
disturbance. They may have experience of delusion and/or hallucination.
A. Neurotic
B. Psychopathic
C. Psychotic
D. Paranoid Schizophrenic

107. Manifest extreme violence and shown with excessive motor activity, grimacing, talkativeness, and
unpredictable emotional, when this symptoms are not present, the individual is usually stupor, a state
in which total silence is present and the posture is often bizarre, with the person is remaining in a
single position by hours, seemingly unmindful to anything and responsive too no one,
A. Simple Schizophrenic
 B. Catatonic Schizophrenia
C. Paranoid Schizophrenic
D. Hebephrenic Schizophrenia

Note:
Schizophrenia – it can be classified as major form of psychosis, noted for extreme withdrawal
behaviour, regression and hallucination.
Paranoid Schizophrenic – characterized principally by delusion grandeur and/or delusion
persecution. Hallucination, usually auditory are most time present.
Hebephrenic Schizophrenia – severe integration personality which to untrained observer may only
be a childish playfulness.
Simple Schizophrenia – characterized by a gradual deterioration of drive, ambition and the ability
to function, reflected in the absence of social relationship, and to work effectively at a job, or difficulty in
functioning above marginal level.

108. Mr. Nolie Ingcad, a person working in a funeral parlor, dreams of having sexual intercourse
with a corpse. What type of sexual deviation did he commit?
A.necrophilia b. pedophilia c. bestiality d. none

109. It is may be defined as a sexual act that seeks gratification by means other than heterosexual
relationship.
A. Sexuality
B. Sexual Deviancy
C. Coitus
D. Homosexuality

110. This person have a sexual gratification and excitement by substituting an inanimate object or part of
the body for the human love object.
A. Sadist
B. Fetishism
C. Fetishist
D. Sadism

111. It is a sexual excitement and gratification from, at times, wearing clothes and enacting the role of the
opposite sex.
A. Homosexuality
B. Transvestism
C. Masochism
D. Exhibitionism
E. Voyeurism

112. It is a desire to engage in a sexual intercourse with a dead body, such abnormal sex act is a serious
mental illness.
A. Bestiality
B. Paedophilia
C. Incest
D. Necrophilia

113. It is a violent criminal behaviour which defined almost all illegal acts of violence committed for political
purposes by clandestine groups.
A. Mania Fanatica
B. Terrorism
C. Kidnapping
D. Assassination

114. The unconscious wish for death is called?

A. Typhus
B. Thanatos
C. Thanos
D. Eros
 115. It is the oldest of all terrorist tactics where the targets are often predictable land invariably claimed
after the event by the terrorist themselves,
A. Hostage Taking
B. Kidnapping
C. Assassination
D. Bombing

Bombing- it is known as the most common tactic for terror groups.

116. The increase in bombing activity and the increase in sophistication of device used has caused the
NATO EOD Standardization Committee to classify all terrorist bomb as I.E.D means________________?
A. Improvised Exclusive Devices
B. Improvised Explosive Devices
C. Improved Explosive Devices
D. Improviser Exclusive Devices

117. In hostage taking situation we must also address the legal consideration of whether to “PLAY WAITING
GAME” of hostage negotiation or to ________________?
A. Kill
B. Assault
C. Withdraw
D. Wait

118. He is the most dangerous as the law, in his mind, has no basis of legality. The one who falls on the
extreme side of the violence scale.
A. Common Criminal
B. Psycho
C. Fanatica
D. Person in Crisis

119. If attack has been decided upon, it should be carried within ____________________ upon decision.
A. 7 minutes
B. 7 seconds
C. 5 minutes
D. 5 seconds

120. Salvari Vitas means ______________

A. To save lives
B. To safe flight
C. To life
D. To die

121. Which of the following a non- negotiable, Except

A. Food
B. Heroin
C. Ice pick
D. Drugs

122. What is Negotiable?

A. Ammunition
B. Weapons
C. Swapping of prisoner
D. None of the above

123. One or more hostages respond to captors with belligerence and non-cooperation.
A. Stockholm Syndrome
B. London Syndrome
C. Lima Syndrome
D. Avengers Syndrome
 Juvenile Delinquency
June 2019
Ella Kristina Ingcad

124. This is Formed when a child develop a firm sense of who they are and what they are stand for and it
study by Erik Erickson?
A. Role Diffusion
B. Ego identity
C. At risk Youth
D. Wayward minors
E. Identity Crisis

Note:
Wayward minors- Early legal designation of youth whose violations of the law related to their minority
status; now referred to as status offense.
At risk Youth- Young people who are extremely vulnerable to the negative consequences of school
failure, substance abuse, and early sexuality.
Role Diffusion- according to Erik Erikson, Role Diffusion occurs when youth spread themselves too
thin, experience personal uncertainty and place themselves at the mercy of leaders who promise to give them a
sense of identity they cannot develop for themselves.
Identity Crisis- Psychological state, identified by Erickson, in which youth face inner turmoil and
Uncertainty about life roles.

125. It is called a participation in illegal behaviour by a minor who falls under statutory limit?
A. Juvenile Delinquency
B. Juvenile Justice System
C. Dower System
D. Status Offense

Juvenile Justice System- the Segment of the justice system including law enforcement officers as
the courts, and correctional agencies, designed to treat youthful offenders.
Dower system- middle ages custom of the bride’s family giving the groom monetary compensation
before marriage could take place.
Status Offense- certain acts or omissions which may not be punishable socially or legally if
committed by adults but become anti-social or illegal because the offender is a minor or CHILD AT RISK.

126. A philosophical viewpoint that encourages the state to take control of the wayward children and
provide care, custody and treatment to remedy delinquent behaviour.
A. Child Savers
B. Parens Patriae
C. Best Interest of the Child
D. Chancery Courts

Parens Patriae- Power of the state to act in behalf of the child and provide care and protection equivalent to
that of a parent.
Child Savers- Nineteenth century reformers who developed programs for troubled youth and influenced
legislation creating the juvenile justice system.
Chancery Courts- court proceedings created in fifteenth- century England to oversee the lives of high-born
minors who were orphaned or otherwise could not care for themselves.

127. Young offenders choose to engage in anti-social activity because they believe their action will be
beneficial and profitable.
A. Choice Theory
B. Trait Theory
C. Sub Culture Theory
 D. Classical Theory

SET 2

128. PD 603 is also known as _________________

A. “The Child And Youth Welfare Act”
B. The “Child And Youth Welfare Act”
C. The “Child and Youth Welfare Code”
D. “The Child And Youth Welfare Code”

129. The molding of the character of the child starts at the___________?

A. Peer
B. Home
C. Church
D. School

130. According to PD 603 of article 17 the father and mother shall exercise jointly just and reasonable
parental authority and responsibility over their legitimate or adopted children. In case of disagreement,
the_______________ decision shall prevail unless there is a judicial order to the contrary.
A. Mother
B. Father
C. Guardian
D. State

131. In case of separation between parents of the child, a child of such age is given by the court the
preference to choose between either parents.
A. under 9 years of age
B. 7 years of age
C. 10 years of age
D. 5 years of age

132. Parental authority is deemed terminated upon:

A. death of the parents
B. emancipation of the child
C. death of the child
D. All of the above

133. Parents and guardians are responsible for the damage caused by the child under their parental
authority in accordance with the Civil Code called ______________?
A. Parental Authority
B. Torts
C. Parental Responsibility
D. Guardian Ad Litem

134. It refers to the aggregate of persons working in commercial, industrial, and agricultural
establishments or enterprises, whether belonging to labor or management.
A. Samahan
B. Community
C. NGO
D. Barangay

135. It is a twenty-four hour child-caring institution providing short term resident care for youthful
offenders who are awaiting court disposition of their cases or transfer to other agencies or jurisdiction.
A. Child Caring Institution
B. Youth Detention Home
C. Receiving Home
D. Maternity Home
 136. It is an institution or person assuming the care, custody, protection and maintenance of children for
placement in any child-caring institution or home or under the care and custody of any person or
persons for purposes of adoption, guardianship or foster care.
A. Child Placing Agency
B. Shelter Care Institution
C. Youth Rehabilitation Center
D. Nursery

Note:
Child-caring institution- is one that provides twenty-four resident group care service for the physical,
mental, social and spiritual well-being of nine or more mentally gifted, dependent, abandoned, neglected,
handicapped or disturbed children, or youthful offenders.
An institution, whose primary purpose is education, is deemed to be a child-caring institution
when nine or more of its pupils or wards in the ordinary course of events do not return annually to the
homes of their parents or guardians for at least two months of summer vacation.
Detention home- is a twenty-four hour child-caring institution providing short term resident care for
youthful offenders who are awaiting court disposition of their cases or transfer to other agencies or
jurisdiction.
Shelter-care institution- is one that provides temporary protection and care to children requiring
emergency reception as a result of fortuitous events, abandonment by parents, dangerous conditions of
neglect or cruelty in the home, being without adult care because of crisis in the family, or a court order
holding them as material witnesses.
Receiving homes- are family-type homes which provides temporary shelter from ten to twenty days for
children who shall during this period be under observation and study for eventual placement by the
Department of Social Welfare. The number of children in a receiving home shall not at any time exceed
nine: Provided, that no more than two of them shall be under three years of age.
A nursery - is a child-caring institution that provides care for six or more children below six years of
age for all or part of a twenty-four hour day, except those duly licensed to offer primarily medical and
educational services.
Maternity home is an institution or place of residence whose primary function is to give shelter and
care to pregnant women and their infants before, during and after delivery.
Rehabilitation center is an institution that receives and rehabilitates youthful offenders or other
disturbed children.
A reception and study center is an institution that receives for study, diagnosis, and temporary
treatment, children who have behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the appropriate care
for them or recommending their permanent treatment or rehabilitation in other child welfare agencies.
Child-placing agency- is an institution or person assuming the care, custody, protection and
maintenance of children for placement in any child-caring institution or home or under the care and custody
of any person or persons for purposes of adoption, guardianship or foster care.

137. It is one who is without a parent, guardian or custodian; or one whose parents, guardian or other
custodian for good cause desires to be relieved of his care and custody; and is dependent upon the
public for support.
A. Neglected Child
B. Dependent Child
C. Abandoned Child
D. Abused Child

138. What is the law that strengthen the juvenile justice system of the Philippines?
A. PD 603
B. RA 9344
C. RA 10630
D. RA 6809

139. It is the expulsion of the fetus from the mother’s womb:

A. intentional abortion
B. unintentional abortion
C. therapeutic abortion
D. abortion
 140. The members of this group consist of those with I.Q.s from about 25 to about 50; one who belongs
to this group shows a mental level and rate of development which is 1/4 to 1/2 that of the average
child, is unable to acquire higher academic skills, but can usually acquire the basic skills for living to
a reasonable degree. He can likewise attain a primary grade level of education if he receives effective
instruction.
A. Custodial
B. Educable
C. Trainable
D. Borderline

Classification of Mental Retardation.

 Custodial Group. The members of this classification are severely or profoundly retarded, hence,
the least capable group. This includes those with I.Q.s to 25.
 Trainable Group. The members of this group consist of those with I.Q.s from about 25 to about
50; one who belongs to this group shows a mental level and rate of development which is 1/4 to
1/2 that of the average child, is unable to acquire higher academic skills, but can usually acquire
the basic skills for living to a reasonable degree. He can likewise attain a primary grade level of
education if he receives effective instruction.
 Educable Group. This group's I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75, and the intellectual
development is approximately 1/2 to 3/4 of that expected of a normal child of the same
chronological age. The degree of success or accomplishment that they will reach in life depends
very much on the quality and type of education they receive, as well as on the treatment at home
and in the community. Many of the educable retardants may reach 5th or 6th grade educational
level and can develop occupational skills which may result in partial or complete economic
independence in adulthood.
 Borderline or Low Normal Group. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with I.Q.s
from about 75 to about 89. The members of this classification are only slightly retarded and they
can usually get by in regular classes if they receive some extra help, guidance and consideration.
They have to spend much more time with their studies than do most children in order to pass.
Those who cannot make it are usually handicapped by one or more other conditions aside from
that of intelligence.

141. Those with any behavioural disorder, whether functional or organic, which is of such a degree of
severity as to require professional help or hospitalization.
A. Physically Handicapped Children
B. Emotionally Disturbed Children
C. Mentally Ill Children
D. Abused Children

Note:
Physically Handicapped Children. - Physically handicapped children are those who are crippled, deaf-mute,
blind, or otherwise defective which restricts their means of action on communication with others.
Emotionally Disturbed Children. - Emotionally disturbed children are those who, although not afflicted with
insanity or mental defect, are unable to maintain normal social relations with others and the community in
general due to emotional problems or complexes.
Mentally Ill Children. - Mentally ill children are those with any behavioral disorder, whether functional or
organic, which is of such a degree of severity as to require professional help or hospitalization.

142. Refers to the to the totality of the circumstances and conditions which are most amiable to the
survival, protection and feelings of security of the child and most encouraging to the child's physical,
psychological and emotional development. It also means the least detrimental available alternative for
safeguarding the growth and development of the child.
A. Paramount
B. Best Interest of the Child
C. Torts
D. Responsibility
143. Refers to the person who is under eighteen (18) years old.
A. Minor
B. Child
 C. Child At Risk
D. Juvenile

Child at Risk is refers to a child who is vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal offenses because
of personal, family and social circumstances

144. This refers to the apprehension or taking into custody of a child who committed an offense by the
law enforcement officer:
A. initial contact with the child
B. preliminary investigation
C. initial investigation
D. inquest proceedings

145. It is refers to a child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an offense under
Philippine laws.
A. Youthful Offender
B. Child At Risk
C. Juvenile
D. Child in Conflict with the Law

146. It is refers to the program that the child in conflict with the law is required to undergo after he/she
is found responsible for an offense without resorting to formal court proceedings.
A. Diversion
B. Diversion Program
C. Intervention
D. Community Based Program

147. It is refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process of determining the responsibility and treatment
of a child in conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural, economic, psychological or
educational background without resorting to formal court proceedings.
A. Diversion
B. Diversion Program
C. Intervention
D. Community Based Program

148. The civil personality of the child is deemed to have been commenced upon:
A. birth of the child
B. when the child celebrates his first birthday
C. from the time of his conception
D. upon reaching the age of majority

149. PD 603 was signed by the late president Marcos when?

A. December 10, 1974
B. June 10, 1974
C. June 10, 1975
D. July 6, 1987

150. It is refers to a series of activities which are designed to address issues that caused the child to
commit an offense. It may take the form of an individualized treatment program which may include
counselling, skills training, education, and other activities that will enhance his/her psychological,
emotional and psycho-social well-being.
A. Intervention
B. Diversion
C. Diversion Program
D. Community Based Program

151. It is refers to the programs provided in a community setting developed for purposes of intervention
and diversion, as well as rehabilitation of the child in conflict with the law, for reintegration into his/her
family and/or community.
A. Diversion
B. Community Based Program
 C. Institutional Based Program
D. Diversion Program

152. It is refers to a system dealing with children at risk and children in conflict with the law, which
provides child-appropriate proceedings, including programs and services for prevention, diversion,
rehabilitation, re-integration and aftercare to ensure their normal growth and development.
A. Juvenile Court
B. Juvenile Justice System
C. Juvenile Justice and Welfare System
D. Criminal Justice System

153. It is refers to offenses which discriminate only against a child, while an adult does not suffer any
penalty for committing similar acts. These shall include curfew violations; truancy, parental
disobedience and the like.
A. Offense
B. Status Offense
C. Felony
D. Crime

154. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under 18 is exempt from criminal liability unless:
A. he acted with discernment
B. he acted without discernment
C. He Committed Capital Punishment
D. He is Insane

155. In the absence of death of both parents of the child who shall continue to exercise authority over the
child. EXCEPT
A. Surviving grand parents
B. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of age
C. Surviving parents of child
D. Actual custodian of the child over 21 years of age.

156. It is refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed by the Department of Social Welfare and
Development (DSWD), LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGOs monitored by the DSWD, which provides
care, treatment and rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the law. Rehabilitation services
are provided under the guidance of a trained staff where residents are cared for under a structured
therapeutic environment with the end view of reintegrating them into their families and communities
as socially functioning individuals. Physical mobility of residents of said centers may be restricted
pending court disposition of the charges against them.
A. Youth Detention Center
B. Youth Rehabilitation Center
C. Child Placing Agency
D. Family Court

Youth Detention Home- refers to a 24-hour child-caring institution managed by accredited local government
units (LGUs) and licensed and/or accredited nongovernment organizations (NGOs) providing short-term
residential care for children in conflict with the law who are awaiting court disposition of their cases or transfer
to other agencies or jurisdiction.

157. refers to a 24-hour child-caring institution established, funded and managed by local government
units (LGUs) and licensed and/or accredited nongovernment organizations (NGOs) providing short-term
residential care for children in conflict with the law who are above fifteen (15) but below eighteen (18)
years of age who are awaiting court disposition of their cases or transfer to other agencies or jurisdiction.
A. Youth Detention center
B. Bahay Pag asa
C. New Bilibid Prison
D. Camp Sampaguita
158. The minimum age for children committed to a youth care facility or ‘Bahay Pag-asa’ shall be
______________?
A. Twelve (12) years old.
 B. Fifteen (15) years old
C. Below Fifteen old
D. Below Twelve years old

159. A child who is above twelve (12) years of age up to fifteen (15) years of age and who commits parricide,
murder, infanticide, kidnapping and serious illegal detention where the victim is killed or raped,
robbery, with homicide or rape, destructive arson, rape, or carnapping where the driver or occupant is
killed or raped or offenses under Republic Act No. 9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002)
punishable by more than twelve (12) years of imprisonment, shall be deemed a neglected child under
Presidential Decree No. 603, as amended, and shall be mandatorily placed in a special facility within
the youth care faculty or ‘Bahay Pag-asa’ ______________________?
A. The Intensive Juvenile Intervention and Support Center (IJISC).
B. The Intensive Juvenile Diversion and Support Center (IJDSC).
C. The Intensive Juvenile Delingquent Intervention and Support Center (IJDISC).
D. The Juvenile Intervention and Support Center (JISC).

160. A family type homes which provides temporary shelter from ten to twenty days for children who shall
during this period be under observation and study for eventually placement by the Dept. of Social
Welfare.
A. shelter care
B. receiving homes
C. detention home
D. Child caring instititution

161. According to the right if the CICL, Every child in conflict with the law shall have the following rights,
Except:
A. The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or
punishment;
B. The right be imposed a sentence of capital punishment or life imprisonment, without the
possibility of release;
C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily, of his/her liberty; detention or
imprisonment being a disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the shortest appropriate
period of time;
D. The right to be treated with humanity and respect, for the inherent dignity of the person, and in
a manner which takes into account the needs of a person of his/her age. In particular, a child
deprived of liberty shall be separated from adult offenders at all times. No child shall be detained
together with adult offenders. He/She shall be conveyed separately to or from court. He/She
shall await hearing of his/her own case in a separate holding area. A child in conflict with the
law shall have the right to maintain contact with his/her family through correspondence and
visits, save in exceptional circumstances;

162. According to RA 9344 any person contesting the age of the child in conflict with the law prior to the
filing of the information in any appropriate court may file a case in a summary proceeding for the
determination of age before the Family Court which shall decide the case _________________from receipt
of the appropriate pleadings of all interested parties.
A. Before 24 hours
B. After 24 hours
C. Within 24 hours
D. 24 hours

163. The local social welfare and development officer shall supervise the implementation of the diversion
program. The diversion proceedings shall be completed _________________.
A. within forty-five (45) hours
B. Within forty-five (45) days.
C. After forty-five (45) hours.
D. After forty-five (45) days.

164. Take the child immediately to the proper medical and health officer for a thorough physical and
mental examination. The examination results shall be kept confidential unless otherwise ordered by
the____________________. Whenever the medical treatment is required, steps shall be immediately
undertaken to provide the same.
 A. MTC
B. RTC
C. SUPREME COURT
D. FAMILY COURT

165. The prosecutor shall conduct a preliminary investigation in the following instances:
A. when the child in conflict with the law does not qualify for diversion
B. When the child, his/her parents or guardian does not agree to diversion.
C. When considering the assessment and recommendation of the social worker, the prosecutor
determines that diversion is not appropriate for the child in conflict with the law.
D. All of the above

166. Upon determination of probable cause by the prosecutor, the information against the child shall be
filed before the Family Court within how many days from the start of the preliminary investigation?
A. Fifteen (15) days
B. forty-five (45) days
C. twenty four (24) days
D. five (5) days

167. If the court finds that the child in conflict with the law is guilty of the crime he is accused of doing,
the __________ of the sentence shall automatically suspended:

A. Imposition
B. Execution
C. determination
D. pronouncement

168. When during suspension of the sentence the youthful offender is found incorrigible or his wilfully
failed to comply with the condition of his rehabilitation program he shall be:
A. returned to the committing court for the pronouncement of judgment
B. placed him under solitary confinement
C. be subjected to religious counselling
D. placed in a foster home

169. The child in conflict with the law whose sentence has been suspended shall be brought back to the
court when he reaches the age of _________ for final disposition of his case.
A. 21
B. 19
C. 18
D. 20

Note:
SEC. 40. Return of the Child in Conflict with the Law to Court. - If the court finds that the objective of the
disposition measures imposed upon the child in conflict with the law have not been fulfilled, or if the child in
conflict with the law has wilfully failed to comply with the conditions of his/her disposition or rehabilitation
program, the child in conflict with the law shall be brought before the court for execution of judgment.
If said child in conflict with the law has reached eighteen (18) years of age while under suspended sentence, the
court shall determine whether to discharge the child in accordance with this Act, to order execution of sentence,
or to extend the suspended sentence for a certain specified period or until the child reaches the maximum age
of twenty-one (21) years.

170. All records and proceedings involving children in conflict with the law from initial contact until final
disposition of the case shall be considered ______________________
A. Closed and discreet
B. Secret files
C. Privileged and confidential.
D. Confidential

171. It refers to a principle which requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum
involvement of the victim, the offender and the community.
A. Commulative justice
 B. Restorative justice
C. Social Vengeance
D. Retribution

172. Refers to the person who is subject for adoption:

A. Adopter
B. adoptee
C. adoptive
D. adoptor

CRIMINOLOGICAL RESEARCH
Ella Kristina Ingcad
173. It is type of research that crucial to do, research to guide lawmakers in crafting laws that address the
question of crime and how law enforcers respond to crime.
A. Descriptive Research
B. Criminological Research
C. Correlation Research
D. Criminology Research

174. It is Scientific and systematic search for pertinent information on a specific topic.
A. Data
B. Research
C. Search
D. Data Gathering

175. It is done for the development of theories and principles.

A. Pure Research
B. Applied Research
C. Basic Research
D. Both A and C

176. According to the level of Investigation, the researcher studies the relationship of the variables.
A. Exploratory Research
B. Descriptive Research
C. Experimental Research
D. Research Investigation

177. According to the time of Element, this Research describe what is?
A. Historical Research
B. Inferential Research
C. Descriptive Research
D. Experimental Research

178. It Is the Foundation of the Study

A. Theoretical Framework
B. Conceptual Framework
C. Assumption
D. Hypothesis

179. A device designed or adopted by researcher for data gathering.

A. Initial Contact with a Child
B. Survey
C. Research Instrument
D. Subject Instrument
180. Is an illustration of how research problems are generated from the theoretical framework of the study?
A. Table of Content
B. Conceptual Framework
C. Theoretical Framework
D. Hypothesis

181. A self-evident truth which is based upon known fact or phenomenon, it is not usually answered or
proven because it is assumed true or correct which are beyond the control of the researcher.
A. Data
B. Data Gathering
C. Assumption
D. Hypothesis

182. It a type of Instrument that the information is collected directly from the respondents
A. Research Instrument
B. Subject Instrument
C. Researcher Instrument
D. Informant Instrument

183. A science which deal with the systematic process of collecting, organizing, classifying, presenting,
interpreting and analyzing data.
A. Social Science
B. Statistic
C. Research
D. Data

184. An act or instance of interpreting an explanation. This is done to give meaning to data generated from
the instrument to answer the problems raised in the study.
A. Data Gathering
B. Interpretation of data
C. Hypothesis
D. Assumption

185. What Is the Title of Chapter One?

A. The problem and Introduction
B. A problem and its settings
C. The Problem and Its Settings
D. The Introduction and Its Problem

186. It is a Contribution of the result of the study to the individuals, institutions, administrators, society,
etc
A. Recommendation
B. Significance of the study
C. Hypothesis
D. Conceptual Framework

187. Weakness of the study beyond the control of the researcher.

A. Scope
B. Scope and Limitation
 C. Limitation
D. Locality

188. Chapter 2 means?

A. The problem and Its setting
B. Review and other studies like literature
C. Review of Related Literature and studies
D. Literature and other studies

189. It is called a Foreign unpublished articles

A. Foreign Literature
B. Local Literature
C. Foreign Studies
D. Local Studies

190. It is a relevance of literature and studies to the present research

A. Local Studies
B. Synthesis
C. Significance of the study
D. Recommendation

191. What chapter that contains the answer to all the sub-problems of the study?
A. chapter One
B. Chapter two
C. Chapter three
D. Chapter four

192. An appeal to people or institutions concerned to solve the problems discovered in the study
A. Significance of the study
B. Assumption
C. Recommendation
D. Conclusions

CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM

193. Which of the following is NOT included in the components of criminal justice system of the United
States?
A. Law enforcement
B. Prosecution
C. Corrections
D. Courts

 U.S. CJS Pillars = LCC (Law Enforcement, Court & Correction)

 R.P. CJS Pillars = LPCCC (Law Enforcement, Prosecution, Court, Correction & Community)

194. This criminal justice model is based on the idea that the most important function of the CJS is the
protection of the public and the repression of criminal conduct.
A. Crime prevention
B. Law and order
C. Crime control
D. Due process
Two Models of Criminal Justice System:
 Due Process Model = (the accused is presumed innocent) the rights of an individual must be co-equal
with the concern for public safety.
 Crime Control Model = (the accused is presumed guilty) gives greater importance to the protection of
society against oppression.

195. This concerns to the obligations of the community to individuals, and requires fair disbursement of
common advantages and sharing of common burden.
A. Prosecution
B. equality
C. justice
D. trial

196. This function of the law enforcement is being done through elimination of factors influencing the
occurrence of crimes, good community relations, educating the citizens about their role, introduction
of delinquency prevention programs, good parenting and others.
A. Maintenance of law and order
B. crime prevention
C. Reduction of crime
D. crime control

197. This principal character of the criminal justice process links all components of the CJS.
A. Offender
B. witness
C. Victim
D. Crime

Note:
 Offender = the principal character to the CJS.
 Felon = one who committed a felony.
 Suspect = one who is implicated to the commission of a crime (subject of investigation).
 Respondent = person who is a subject of preliminary investigation or inquest proceeding.
 Accused = person charged of an offense in court and facing trial.

198. The frontline defender of democracy in the CJS.

A. Prosecution
B. Police
C. Correction
D. Court

 Police = initiator/frontline defender of CJS.

 Prosecution = represents the people of the Phils.
 Court = the center piece of CJS & ensures administration of justice.
 Correction = responsible for the rehabilitation or reformation of convicted offenders.
 Community = responsible for accepting for reintegration those sentence prisoner who have served their
sentence.

199. He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the police have gathered and deciding whether it is
sufficient to warrant the filing of charge(s) against the alleged violator.
A. Investigator
B. prosecutor
C. judge
D. solicitor general

 Investigator = gathers information, custodial investigation and Interrogation.

200. He is an arbiter in court who ensues that the defense and the prosecution adhere to the legal
requirements of introducing evidences.
A. Clerk of court
 B. sheriff
C. judge
D. jury

201. The pillar of the CJS which is not under the executive branch of the government.
A. law enforcement
B. prosecution
C. court
D. correction

202. This is a governmental body that is charged with the responsibility of administering justice.
A. Law enforcement
B. Prosecution
C. correction
D. court

203. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a member of some court,
Government Corporation, board or commission.
A. Agent of person in authority
B. Government officer
C. Government employee
D. person in authority

 Public officers = refers to any government officers or employee in general.

 Person in Authority = one vested with jurisdiction (power/authority).
 Agent of a person in authority = one who is in-charge of ensuring peace and order and enforcement
of law and protection of life and property.

204. A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique position in the Philippine Criminal Justice System serving
as the lawyer of the State or government in criminal cases.
A. law enforcement
B. prosecution
C. court
D. correction

205. This document is required by the Prosecutor’s Office before it can entertain a complaint on a case
covered by the Barangay Court.
A. Certificate of Non-Settlement
B. Certificate to file action (CFA)
C. Certificate of Non-arbitration
D. complaint affidavit

206. It refers to the study of the various agency of our government in charge of processing law violators to
ensure the protection of the society and maintenance of peace and order.
A. Criminology
B. Victimology
C. Criminal Justice
D. Sociology

207. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules of conduct necessary to protect life and property
and to maintain peace and order?
A. Criminal Justice System
B. Criminology
C. Criminal law
D. Criminal jurisprudence

208. It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case which would convince a reasonable mind based on
moral certainty but which nevertheless does not preclude the possibility of error.
A. Preponderance of evidence
B. substantive evidence
C. Clear and convincing evidence
 D. proof beyond reasonable doubt

 Hierarchy of Proof (Quantum of Proof/Degree of Proof required in a case)

o Proof beyond Reasonable doubt (Criminal case) = requires moral certainty.
o Clear and Convincing Evidence (a little higher than preponderance of evidence but lower than
proof beyond reasonable doubt) = used to prove self-defense and in extradition hearing.
o Preponderance of Evidence (Civil Case) = evidence of greater weight.
o Substantial Evidence (Administrative Case) = evidence sufficient to support a conclusion.

209. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement
whereby the prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a lighter sentence in exchange for the
defendant’s entering a guilty plea.
A. arraignment
B. preliminary investigation
C. pre-trial
D. plea bargaining

 Arraignment = formal reading of charges in an open court in a language understandable by the accused
and thereby asking him whether he pleads guilty or not.
 Pre-trial = a mandatory proceeding conducted to expedite the trial of the case.

Inquest Proceeding Preliminary Investigation

✓ Conducted to a subject who has been arrested
without a warrant.
✓ The purpose is to determine the validity of
arrest and the existence of a probable cause
for the filing of criminal information.
✓ Must be conducted following the Provisions of
Art 125. (Grave Felony = 36 hrs, Less Grave
felony = 18 hrs & Light felony = 12 hrs.)
✓ Conducted to cases punishable by at least 4years
2 months and one day and above. (Rule 112)
✓ Inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of
determining the existence of probable cause for
the filing of criminal information to court

210. The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the country which is under the ________?
A. DOJ
B. NAPOLCOM
C. DILG
D. DSWD

211. A person who is under custodial investigation is basically protected by a number of rights mandated
under the constitution and this was even expounded in the legislative act known as _______?
A. Miranda Doctrine
B. Bill of Rights
C. R.A. 7438
D. R.A. 9745

 Bill of Right = fundamental rights of a person under the constitution.

 Miranda Warning = the doctrine involving arrest of a person and placing the person under custody of
the law.
 R.A. 9745 = Anti-torture Act

212. A body officially assembled under authority of law in which judicial power is vested or the
administration of justice is delegated.
A. court
B. prosecution
C. corrections
D. law enforcement
 213. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and order, enforce the law, protect life, liberty and
property and ensure public safety.
A. Law Enforcement
B. court
C. prosecution
D. corrections

214. System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation and treatment of persons convicted of committing
crime.
A. police
B. court
C. prosecution
D. corrections

215. The “Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”.

A. R.A. 6713
B. R.A. 1379
C. R.A. 7080
D. R.A. 3019

 R.A. 6713 = (February 20, 1989) Code of Conduct and Ethical Standard for Public officials and employees.
 R.A. 1379 = an act declaring forfeiture of ill-gotten wealth of public officers and employee.
 R.A. 7080 = Anti Plunder Act.

216. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses punishable with imprisonment not exceeding six
years.
a. Supreme Court
b. Court of Appeals
c. RTC
d. MTC

 Supreme Court = highest court with one (1) Chief Justice and 14 Associate Justices.
 Court of Appeals (69 Justices); Court of Tax Appeals; and Sandiganbayan (1 –presiding justice and
14 associate justices).
 Regional Trial Court = court of general jurisdiction. (Cases punishable by more than 6 years).
 MTC, METC, MCTC & MTCC = first level court. (cases punishable by not more than 6 years)

217. It is otherwise known as the Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990,
enacted on December 13, 1990. Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and the PPSC.
a. R.A. 6975
b. R.A. 8551
c. P.D. 1184
d. R.A. 6040

 R.A. 8551 = PNP reform and Reorganization Act of 1998. (PNP Modernization Act).
 P.D. 1184 = INP personnel Professionalization Law of 1977.
 R.A. 6040 = the law which authorized the NAPOLCOM to administer the Entrance Examination for
Philippine National Police Applicant.

218. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of carrying the regulations of the Department of State. This
was armed and considered as the mounted police who later discharged the duties of a port, harbor and
river police.
a. Carabineros de Seguridad Publica
b. Guardia Civil
c. Guardrilleros
d. Barangay Chieftains

219. On January 9, 1901, the Metropolitan Police Force of Manila was organized pursuant to :
a. Act No 70
b. Act 175
 c. Act 255
d. E.O. 389
e. E.O. 94

 Act No. 175 = Creates the Insular Constabulary.

 Act. No. 255 = renamed the Insular Constabulary to Philippine Constabulary.
 R.A. 157 = Bureau of Investigation (later named National Bureau of Investigation by virtue of E.O. 94).

220. It created the POLCOM (Police Commission) as a supervisory agency to oversee the training and
professionalization of the local police under the Officer of the President. Otherwise known as the Police
Professionalization act of 1966, dated September 8, 1966. It was later renamed as the National Police
Commission (NAPOLCOM).
a. R.A. 4864
b. P.D. 765
c. E.O. 1012
d. E.O. 1040

 P.D. 765 = creates the Integrated National Police (INP).

221. It is the process of reducing if not eliminates the existence of a cause from initially occurring;
thus, lessen the police work as suppressing the spread of criminality.
a. Crime Prevention
b. Crime control
c. Criminal apprehension
d. law enforcement

222. Directly under the supervision of the Department of Justice, its most important function in the
Criminal Justice System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law through the speedy delivery of
services particularly in the prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
a. National Prosecution Service
b. PNP
c. Ombudsman
d. Solicitor General

 Ombudsman = prosecutor arm of the government concerning cases committed by public officer with salary
grade 27 and above or with the rank equivalent to regional head.
 Solicitor General = the lawyer of the State. He represents the State in Appeal Cases to higher courts.

223. What do you call a court covering two (2) or more municipalities?
a. MTC
b. MCTC
c. MeTC
d. MTC’s

224. What is that term which refers to the wise use of one’s own judgment in a given situation without
referring to your superior due to the eminence of the situation?
a. Police resourcefulness
b. Police integrity
c. Police discretion
d. police prudence

225. It refers to the art or science of identifying law violators, locating and tracing them in order to
affect their arrest and gather evidence to prove their guilt in court.
a. Crime prevention
b. criminal investigation
c. Crime control
d. Intelligence work

226. An attached agency of the Office of the President tasked to implement and undertake drug law
enforcement.
 a. Narcotics Command
b. PDEA
c. AID-SOTF
d. NBI
227. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any peace officer of public officer in charge of
enforcement of the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of the prosecutor.
a. Complaint
b. Pleadings
c. Information
d. Affidavit

 Pleadings = written statements of the respective claims and defenses of the parties submitted to the
court for appropriate judgment. (Rule 6, Sec. 1,Rules of Court)
Complaint Information

✓ Sworn Statement ✓ Need not be sworn

✓ Subscribed by Offended party, peace officer or any ✓ Subscribed by the Fiscal (Prosecutor)
public officer entrusted of the enforcement of the ✓ Filed with the Court.
law violated.
✓ Filed with the prosecutor’s office/ court.

228. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded
belief that a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be
held for trial.
a. preliminary investigation
b. Prejudicial question
c. inquest proceeding
d. custodial investigation

229. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by:

a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day.
b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. less than four years, two months and one day
d. six years, one day and above

230. Is the actual restraint of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.
a. Arrest
b. invitation
c. investigation
d. seizure

231. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing the law breakers in the execution of
their criminal plan.
a. Instigation
b. Investigation
c. Entrapment
d. Raid

232. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or interdependent from any branch of government.
a. prosecution
b. court
c. correction
d. community

233. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor who directs the prosecution of the offense and
he/she did it on the behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated to the higher court such as Court of
Appeals, who represents the State in the prosecution of the offense?
A. Chief State Prosecutor
B. Solicitor General
 C. National or provincial prosecutor
D. Judge

234. It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement officer after a person has been taken into
custody.
a. custodial investigation
b. inquest
c. Interview
d. Interrogation

235. In cases committed by Public officer with salary grade 27 and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
1379 or Art. 210 to 212 of the Revised Penal Code a complaint should first be filed to the office of _______
for the conduct of the required preliminary investigation.
a. Ombudsman
b. Judge of MTC
c. Solicitor General
d. the President

236. In flagrante delicto means ______?

a. caught in the act
b. caught after commission
c. instigation
d. entrapment

237. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power or try cases submitted to for adjudication. What
term is use in referring to the authority or power to hear and decided cases.
a. Jurisdiction
b. Jurisprudence
c. Venue
d. Territory

238. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the first time to the exclusion of other courts.
a. original jurisdiction
b. exclusive jurisdiction
c. appellate jurisdiction
d. concurrent jurisdiction

 Original = first trial;

 Exclusive = sole authority;
 appellate = the power to retry or review;
 concurrent = vested to several equally level courts.

239. It is the formal reading of the charges against a person accused of a crime and latter asking him
whether he pleads guilty or not to the crime charged.
A. arraignment
B. preliminary investigation
C. plea
D. promulgation of judgment

 promulgation of judgment = reading of the judgment of the court.

 rendition of judgment = the writing by the judge of the his/her decision over the case.

240. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within Barangay level.

a. barangay tanod
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo
c. barangay council
d. lupon tagapamayapa

241. It is the most common way by which the police discovers or it informed that a crime has been
committed:
 a. When the witness voluntarily reports the crime.
b. When the victim reports the crime
c. When the police discovers the crime
d. When the suspect surrenders

242. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of the Lupon
and the Brgy. Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and other members who shall be:
a. more than 10 but less than 20
b. more than 10
c. not less than 10 but not more than 20
d. less than 10

243. Pangkat tagapagkasundo = consist of three (3) members chosen from among the members of the
Lupon.
a. When arrest may be made?
b. At any time of the day and night
c. At night time
d. At day time
e. from sun dust till dawn

 Search = made preferably during daytime. Unless expressly provided by the warrant.

244. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even without a warrant?
a. All of these
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of the arresting officer.
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and there is personal knowledge based on
probable cause that the person to be arrest has committed it.
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee

245. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist destitute litigant?
a. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. volunteer counsel

 Counsel de parte = private counsel whose services was enlisted by the accused.

246. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and to testify or to bring with him any
books or documents under his control at the trial of an action.
a. subpoena
b. subpoena duces tecum
c. subpoena ad testificandum
d. warrant of arrest

 Subpoena ad testificandum = to attend and testify

 Subpoena duces tecum = to bring a document.

247. The “anti-Plunder Act”.

a. R.A. 7080
b. R.A. 1379
c. R.A. 3019
d. R.A. 6713

248. This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to provide free legal assistance to poor members of
society:
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. National Prosecution Service
d. Public Attorney’s Office
 249. This is the power to apply the law to contests or disputes concerning legally recognized rights or
duties between the state and private persons, or between individual litigants in cases properly
brought before the judicial tribunal.
a. Judicial Power
b. Court
c. Judicial Review
d. Court of Justice

250. This is the process or method whereby accusations are brought before the court of justice to
determine the innocence or guilt of the accused.
a. Prosecutor
b. Trial
c. Prosecution
d. Preliminary Investigation
e.
251. The settlement of a dispute by a person/s chosen to hear both sides and to come to a decision.
a. Mediation
b. Arbitration
c. Settlement
d. Agreement

252. One who prosecutes another for a crime in the name of the government?
a. Public Prosecutor
b. Prosecution
c. Private Prosecutor
d. Ombudsman
253. It refers to the “court of last resort”.
a. RTC
b. Supreme Court
c. Sandiganbayan
d. MTC
254. This court was created under RA 1125, as amended, which has exclusive appellate jurisdiction
to review on appeal decisions of the Commissioner of the Internal Revenue involving internal revenue
taxes and decisions of the Commissioner of Customs involving customs duties.
a. Court of first instance
b. Sandiganbayan
c. Court of Appeals
d. Court of Tax Appeals

255. This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed by high-ranking public officials (with salary
grade of 27 above), which can only be committed because of their position.
a. Intermediate court
b. Sandiganbayan
c. Court of Appeals
d. Court of Tax Appeals

256. It a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the signature of the judge directing the jail or
prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence.
a. Commitment Order
b. warrant of arrest
c. Mittimus
d. habeas corpus

 Commitment order = written order of an authority ordering the receiver of a person for temporary
confinement.

257. Is that branch of the criminal justice system charged with the custody, supervision and
rehabilitation of a convicted offender?
a. Penology
b. Correction
c. Probation
 d. Criminology
258. A Jail is a place for the temporary confinement for persons awaiting court action as well as
convicted persons serving short sentence. It was derived from what Spanish word?
a. jaula
b. gaol
c. caula
d. hawla
e. a and c
259. Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise by the president. Which of the following is not
one of them?
a. Pardon
b. Commutation of Sentence
c. Amnesty
d. Parole
260. Prison is a place for confinement of convicted prisoners. What classification of prisoners is
sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to three (3) years or whose fine is less than 6,000 but
more than 200 or both?
a. National prisoner
b. City prisoner
c. provincial prisoner
d. municipal prisoner

 Municipal = 1 day to 6 mos. Provincial = 6 mos. and 1 day to 3 years.

 City = 1 day to 3 years
 National or insular = 3 yrs. and 1 day and above.

261. Prisons are institution for confinement of convicted offenders sentenced to more than three (3)
years of imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco-Roman word _____?
a. Presinto
b. presidio
c. Precindio
d. Precinto

262. It is granted to convicted offenders who have served a portion of their service granted by the
Board of Pardons and Parole.
a. Pardon
b. Amnesty
c. Probation
d. Parole

263. They serve as the conciliation panel consisting of three (3) members.
a. Lupon tagapagkasundo
b. Pangkat tagapagkasundo
c. Lupon Tagapamayapa
d. Pangkat tagapamayapa

 P.D. 1508 = Law which creates the Katarungang Pambarangay.

 Lupon Tagapamayapa –consisting of 10 to 20 members

264. It is a security facility, usually operated by the police stations, for the temporary detention of
persons held for investigation or awaiting preliminary investigation before the prosecutor.
a. Lock-up jail
b. workhouses
c. Ordinary jail
d. Prison

265. It is a form of motivation granted by the Director of Prisons whereby a number of days are
deducted from the length of years that a prisoner have been sentenced to serve for his good conduct.
a. Commutation of sentence
b. GCTA
 c. Parole
d. Reprieve

266. Correctional institutions in the country is divided into National and Local institution. What
Department of the Executive Branch is the one in charge of the National Penitentiary?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of Justice
c. Department of Interior and Local Government
d. Bureau of Correction
267. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the transgression of the law.
a. penalty
b. exemplarity
c. self-defense
d. punishment

268. City and Municipal is the division of our correctional institution which primarily in charge of
those detention prisoner, awaiting for final judgment of their trial and serving short sentences and
under the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology. While it is true that even the Provincials Jails
like the City and Municipal Jails are under the DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of
the __________?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Bureau of Correction
c. Department of Justice
d. Provincial government

269. This is the process wherein the inmate, after serving his sentence, is released to be able to mingle
with the community.
a. Reintegration
b. Realization
c. reincarnation
d. Rehabilitation

270. It refers to the examination of an individual’s person, house, papers or effects, or other buildings
and premises to discover contraband or some evidence of guilt to be used in the prosecution of a
criminal action:
a. Search
b. Raid
c. Search and seizure
d. Entrapment

271. This court was established by virtue of PD.1083, otherwise known as “Code of Muslim Personal
Laws of the Philippines”.
a. Court of Tax Appeals
b. Sandiganbayan
c. Shari’a Court
d. Family Court

ETHICS AND VALUES

272. A division of ethics which deals with the general principles of morality.
a. general ethics
b. special ethics
c. code of ethics
d. all of the above

 Special ethics = a division of ethics which deals with specific field or career.

273. It means courage to endure without yielding.

a. prudence
b. fortitude
 c. temperance
d. justice

274. It is the virtue that inclines the will to give to each one his rights.
a. prudence
b. fortitude
c. temperance
d. justice

Four Moral Virtues

 Prudence = Ability to govern and discipline oneself by means of reason and sound judgment.
Characterized by being careful about one’s choice or decision, not taking undue risk and not saying or
doing things that might later be regretted.
 Justice = the concept of giving what is due to others. The moral rightness based on ethics, rationality, law
etc.
 Fortitude = firmness of the mind that enables a person to face danger, pain or despondency with stoic
resolve.
 Temperance = moderation in action, thought or feeling; restraint.

275. It is the ability to last.

a. endurance
b. patience
c. perseverance
d. fortitude

276. It is the ability to govern and discipline oneself by means of reason and sound judgment.
a. prudence
b. fortitude
c. temperance
d. justice

277. It the ability to moderate or to avoid something.

a. prudence
b. fortitude
c. temperance
d. justice

278. It is the ability to be calm in enduring situations.

a. patience
b. perseverance
c. endurance
d. prudence

279. The ability to go on despite obstacles or oppositions.

a. patience
b. perseverance
c. endurance
d. prudence

280. It is anything that is owed or due. The power to own, exact or use something.
a. right
b. duty
c. law
d. value

 Duty = anything we are obliged to do or to omit. It is a moral obligation incumbent upon a person of
doing, omitting or avoiding something.
 Value = is the concept that described the beliefs of an individual or culture.
 Moral values = are those that directly pertain to the function of intellect and will:
 281. It includes all rights enjoyed by individuals as provided by the Constitution and other
international instruments.
a. rights
b. human rights
c. privileges
d. political rights

 Natural rights = those rights which are based on the natural law.

282. All PNP members must have the moral courage to sacrifice self-interest in keeping with the time-
honored principle of ____.
a. Delicadeza
b. Amor propio
c. Pride
d. Pakikisama

283. It is the state of affairs requiring tact to protect the integrity of a person.
a. Virtue
b. Delicadeza
c. Courage
d. Prudence

284. What is the complete title of the PNP Code of Conduct?

a. PNP Code of Ethical Standards and Professional Conduct
b. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards
c. PNP Code of Conduct and Standards
d. PNP Ethical Standards

285. An example of Police immorality is _________.

a. Living with a woman not his wife
b. Going to the office not in uniform
c. Smoking while patrolling
d. Always absent from his post

286. It is a list of rights pertaining to persons; a list of individual liberties, freedom and rights which
are guaranteed and protected by the Constitution.
a. people’s rights
b. bill of rights
c. personal rights
d. rights

287. It is the absence of knowledge which a person ought to possess.

a. ignorance
b. amnesia
c. intelligence
d. dumb

288. An old Roman philosophy which means “the safety of the people is the supreme law”.
a. ignorancia leges neminem excusat
b. salus populi est suprema lex
c. ignorancia facti excusat
d. dura lex sed lex

289. It is an omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty which is the
police officer’s legal obligation to perform.
a. nonfeasance
b. Misfeasance
c. malfeasance
d. corruption
 Malfeasance = performing an act that is prohibited by law.
 Misfeasance = there is irregularity in the performance of duty.
 Non-feasance = failure or non-performance one’s duty.

290. Imports the act of cruelty, severity, unlawful execution, domination or excessive use of authority.
a. dishonesty
b. disloyalty
c. incompetency
d. oppression

291. Otherwise known as the “Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”.

a. R.A. 1379
b. R.A. 3019
c. R.A. 7080
d. R.A. 6713

292. It is the misuse of authority for personal gain committed by a person who enforces the law.
a. corruption
b. immorality
c. police corruption
d. police immorality

293. It is the unreasonable, unnecessary and excessive use of force in the conduct of police operations
which does not support a legitimate police function.
a. brutality
b. police brutality
c. torture
d. police torture

294. No PNP member shall engage in any activity which shall be in conflict with their duties as public
servant.
a. malingering
b. moonlighting
c. loyalty to the service
d. delicadeza

295. During labor disputes, strikes or rallies, members of peace keeping detail shall maintain
themselves outside the ____ radius from the picket line.
a. 50m
b. 40m
c. 30m
d. 20m

296. Giving unfair breaks to friends and relatives.

a. deviance
b. nepotism
c. misconduct
d. corruption

297. Police Community relation is:

a. The honest effort of both the police and the public to understand one another.
b. A pet project of the DILG
c. Building confidence
d. On its way out

298. Policy in exercising utmost restraint by law enforcers in the performance of their duties.
a. Command responsibility
b. maximum tolerance
c. Parens patriae
d. Rules of engagement
299. Worst form of graft and corruption in the government.
a. bribery
b. abuse of authority
c. malingering
d. moonlighting

300. Reason why a police officer must always wear his uniform securely buttoned.
a. loose clothing is shabby
b. it is a minor offense
c. a complete uniform gets women’s attention
d. a neat appearance will command respect

301. What is the primary purpose of a public relation program?

a. to develop mutual understanding between the police and public;
b. To plan for a community relation program;
c. To recruit new members for community relations;
d. To train police officers in community relations.

302. What program is concerned with creating a favorable public image of the police?
a. Human relations
b. Press relations
c. Community relations
d. Public relations

303. What changes must occur given an effective police community relations program?
a. Attitudinal and behavioral changes in policemen;
b. Political and social changes in policemen.
c. Attitudinal and mental changes in policemen.
d. Social and economic Changes in policemen

304. The key to professionalism is the implementation of a _____ program which includes the equitable
distribution of recruitment, fair promotion, and rationalized approach in assignment, skills
development, grant of awards and reward and decent living upon retirement.
a. Human resource dev’t
b. System and Procedure
c. Organizational dev’t
d. Compensation

305. The binding spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the police organization.
a. loyalty
b. camaraderie
c. patriotism
d. valor

306. The authority to make decisions without reference to the specific rules or facts, using instead
one’s own judgment.
a. Discretion
b. prudence
c. Negotiation
d. Conviction

307. What is the most important supervisory principle in order to improve the morale of staff?
a. Be fair and just
b. BE strict on attendance
c. Be Kind and respectful
d. Be forgiving

308. It refers to the planned use of mass communication for public purpose:
a. Press release
b. Publication
c. advertisement
 d. Propaganda

309. The best measure for the competence of police officer is ______.
a. High morale of his men
b. Ability of his men to prepare reports.
c. Good command of words
d. High level of education among his men

310. This particular program makes the policemen a friend and partner of the people as well as their
defender. In short, this program makes the police a part of, and not apart from society.
a. Civic Action Program
b. Public information Program
c. Public relation Program
d. Mass Communication Program

311. It is the sum total of all the dealings of the police with the people it serves and whose goodwill
and cooperation the police needs for the greatest possible efficiency in public service.
a. Police Community Relations
b. Human relations
c. Police Public relation
d. Public relations

312. A police-community relations programs must have the following objectives, EXCEPT:
a. to enforce the law and arrest violators
b. to obtain public cooperation and assistance
c. to create broader understanding and sympathy with the problems and needs of the
police
d. to maintain and develop the goodwill and confidence of the community .

313. The best relation a law enforcement organization can give to the community is:
a. good and credible performance
b. frequent media coverage of police work
c. good public press relations
d. community visitations

314. In launching a police community program, to attain a sound degree of success, link or “ugnayan”
should be made first with:
a. Community Civic organization
b. Local prominent residents
c. local ladies club
d. Barangay officials

315. To develop public good will, a policemen on duty must do the following, EXCEPT:
a. be selective of people to serve
b. be courteous and fair
c. be quick to assist individuals in their problem
d. perform job with dedication and efficiency
316. The usual greetings rendered by the members of the PNP:
a. shake hands
b. hand salute
c. gun salute
d. thumbs-up

317. This program is designed to influence the opinions, emotions, attitudes, and behavior of the
public so that they will behave in a manner beneficial to the unit in particular and the whole PNP in
general.
a. Mass Communication Program
b. Public Information Program
c. Civic Action Program
d. Public Information Program
 318. It consists with the peace officers’ relations with the officers and men of his own department.
a. inter-departmental relations
b. intra-departmental relations
c. citizen’s relations
d. teamwork

319. To develop good will, a policeman on duty should do the following, EXCEPT:
a. annoy or inconvenience any law abiding citizen
b. perform his job with dedication
c. project an honest image
d. be courteous

320. Considered as the highest form of love in the PNP hierarchy of police values.
a. love of women
b. love of God
c. selfless love of people
d. love of power

321. A manifestation of love of country with a pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the
Constitution.
a. nationalism
b. patriotism
c. heroism
d. valor

 Nationalism = being loyal to the Republic and to the people, promote the use of locally produced goods,
resources & technology.

322. Public officials & employees shall always uphold the public interest over and above personal
interest. All government resources and powers of their respective offices must be employed and used
efficiently, effectively, honestly & economically to avoid wastage in public fund and revenue.
a. Commitment to democracy
b. Commitment to Public interest
c. Commitment to service
d. Conservation of Natural Resources

323. All PNP members must inhibit himself from soliciting political influence, help or support in
matters pertaining to assignment, awards, training and promotion.
a. Non partisanship
b. Political Patronage
c. Police Lifestyle
d. Delicadeza

 Non-partisanship = PNP members shall provide services to everyone without discrimination regardless
of party affiliation in accordance with existing laws and regulations.
 Police Lifestyle = the public expects a police officer to live a simple, yet credible and dignified life.

324. It is characterized by being upright in character, in manner, dignified in appearance, and sincere
in their concern to their fellowmen.
a. Gentlemanliness
b. Discipline
c. Valor
d. Patriotism

325. PNP personnel shall follow logical procedures in accomplishing task assigned to them to minimize
waste in the use of time, money and effort.
a. Orderliness
b. Discipline
c. Humility
d. Justice
Ms.Keywrod