What component gives color to the stain?

Benzene ring
Chromophore
Auxochrome
Chromogen
None of the above

What component gives ionic property to the stain?

Benzene ring
Chromophore
Auxochrome
Chromogen
None of the above

What is a basic structural component of a dye?

Chromophore
Benzene ring
Auxochrome
Chromogen
None of the above

What components does chromogen contain?

Chromophore and auxochrome
Auxochrome and benzene ring
Benzene ring and chromophore
Benzene ring, chromophore and auxochrome
Chromophore

Choose cationic stain from the list

Nigrosin
Safranin
Giemsa stain
Eosin
India ink

Choose anionic stain from the list

Crystal violet
Methylene blue
Malachite green
Nigrosin
Giemsa stain

What type of microscope has the highest resolving power?

Scanning electron microscope
Transmission electron microscope
Dark-field microscope
Fluorescence microscope
Differential interference contrast microscope

What type of microscope produces polarized light?

Bright-field microscope
Dark-field microscope
Fluorescence microscope
Transmission electron microscope
Differential interference contrast microscope

What type of microscope makes it possible to study various layers of relatively thick specimen?
Dark-field microscope
Fluorescence microscope
Transmission electron microscope
Confocal scanning laser microscope
Differential interference contrast microscope

What type of microscope utilizes the difference in the refractive index between bacterial cells
and the surrounding medium?
Confocal scanning laser microscope
Dark-field microscope
Fluorescence microscope
Transmission electron microscope
Phase Contrast microscope

“Complete destruction of all the micro-organisms including spores from an object or

environment” refers to:
Pasteurization
Disinfection
Sterilization
Boiling
Preservation

Choose the most appropriate definition of the term “pasteurization”

The complete destruction of all the micro-organisms including spores from an object or
environment
The process of reducing or eliminating pathogenic microorganisms or viruses in or on material
so that it no longer presents a hazard
Prevention of multiplication of microorganisms in formulated products, including
pharmaceuticals and foods
The process of heating food or other substances under controlled conditions of time and
temperature to reduce the total number of pathogens without damaging the substance
Inhibition of the growth of microorganisms in or on living tissue (eg, skin) or biologic fluids (eg,
mucosal secretions)

Choose the most appropriate definition of the term “preservation”

The complete destruction of all the micro-organisms including spores from an object or
environment
The process of reducing or eliminating pathogenic microorganisms or viruses in or on material
so that it no longer presents a hazard
Prevention of multiplication of microorganisms in formulated products, including
pharmaceuticals and foods
The process of heating food or other substances under controlled conditions of time and
temperature to reduce the total number of pathogens without damaging the substance
Inhibition of the growth of microorganisms in or on living tissue (eg, skin) or biologic fluids (eg,
mucosal secretions)

Most cultural media and solutions are sterilized with:

Chemical agents
Ethyl alcohol
Glutaraldehyde
Radiation
Autoclave

What method is applied to sterilize liquids that are damaged by heat

Use of Vapor-Phase Sterilants
Use of Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
Sterile Filtration
Radiation
Use of Aldehydes

Sodium hypochlorite belongs to:

Aldehydes
Halogen-Releasing Agents
Biguanides
Bisphenols
Organic Acids

Chlorhexidine belongs to:

Aldehydes
Halogen-Releasing Agents
Biguanides
Bisphenols
Organic Acids

Sterilants that have hydrophobic group and hydrophilic group in their strucure:
Organic Acids
Aldehydes
Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
All mentioned above
None of abovementioned

Which one of the listed microorganisms is diplococcus?

Micrococcus luteus
Stomatococcus mucilaginosus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Nocardia farcinica
Actinomyces Israeli

Cells of what bacterium are linked in chains?

Micrococcus luteus
Stomatococcus mucilaginosus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aureus

Choose spherical-shaped bacterium from the list

Spirillum
Lactobacillus
Sarcina ventriculi
Nocardia farcinica
Vibrio cholera

Choose pleomorphic bacterium from the list

Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Rickettsia rickettsii
Sarcina ventriculi
Staphylococcus aureus
Vibrio cholera

Choose comma-shaped bacterium

Stomatococcus mucilaginosus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Sarcina ventriculi
Vibrio cholerae
Nocardia farcinica

The size of up to 1 mm can have:

Spirochaetes
Mycoplasmas
Rods
Sulphur bacteria
Cocci

The smallest bacteria are found in the group of:

Spirochaetes
Mycoplasmas
Diplococci
Sulphur bacteria
Staphylococci

Pleomorphism is characteristic for

Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Sarcina ventriculi
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Micrococcus luteus
Vibrio cholera

Which one of the listed microorganisms is pleomorphic?

Salmonella typhi
Escherichia coli
Bifidobacterium bifidum
Vibrio cholera
Staphylococcus aureus

A specimen stained by Ozheshko method contains rod-like microorganisms stained blue with
round terminal components stained red. What are these components?
Pili
Volutin granules
Flagella
Endopores
Capsules
Bacterial endospores are:
Constant structural components of bacterial cells.
Used for nutrient storage.
Easily inactivated by heat.
Easily inactivated by ultraviolet radiation
Visualized using the acid-fast stain

Bacterial endospores are:

Easily inactivated by heat.
Constant structural components of bacterial cells.
Resistant to heat
Used for nutrient storage.
Easily inactivated by ultraviolet radiation

A specimen stained by Ziehl-Neelsen method contains rod-like microorganisms stained blue

with round terminal components stained red. What are these components?
Constant cell structures aimed to store energy
Non constant cell structures aimed to store energy
Non constant cell structures allowing for active movement
Non constant cell structures aimed for defense against unfavorable environmental conditions
Constant cell structures aimed for defense against unfavorable environmental conditions

A specimen stained by Shelfer-Foulton’s method contains rod-like microorganisms stained red

with round terminal components stained green. These structures are:
Constant structural components of bacterial cells
Resistant to ultraviolet radiation
Used for nutrient storage.
Easily inactivated by heat.
Easily inactivated by ultraviolet radiation

Which staining technique will be indicative for causing agents of botulism, gas gangrene and
tetanus?
Capsule staining
Volutin staining
Endospore staining
Neisser Staining
Loeffler flagella staining

A microorganism stained by Neisser’s method contains inclusions stained in brown. These

granules are:
Osmotic neutral reservoirs of carbon and energy
Intracytoplasmic storage form of complexed inorganic polyphosphate
Reserve of electrons (reducing source)
Used to modulate the cell's buoyancy
Reserve carbon and energy source

A patient is suspected to have diphtheria. What staining technique can be applied as a rapid test
for the identification of the causative agent?
Modified Ziehl-Neelsen staining
Burri method
Neisser Staining
Schaeffer-Fulton`s staining
Capsule staining

A microorganism stained by Neisser’s method contains inclusions stained in brown. These

granules are:
Reserve of electrons
Polyphosphate reserve
Used to modulate the cell's buoyancy
Carbon and energy reserve
Osmotic neutral reservoirs of carbon and energy

After staining a microorganism isolated from feces of a patient was shown to possess multiple
flagella located over the entire cell. This bacteria is:
Monotrichous
Amphitrichous
Peritrichous
Lophotrichous
Atrichous

What staining method can be used to detect the cell structure that serves as an H antigen?
Modified Ziehl-Neelsen staining
Loeffler flagella staiing
Neisser Staining
Schaeffer-Fulton`s staining
Burri method

Application of various staining techniques has shown a microorganism isolated from feces of a
patient to be non-motile. This bacterium is:
Monotrichous
Amphitrichous
Peritrichous
Lophotrichous
Atrichous

After staining a microorganism isolated from feces of a patient was shown to possess single
flagellum on each of two opposite ends. This bacterium is:
Monotrichous
Amphitrichous
Peritrichous
Lophotrichous
Atrichous

A patient is suspected to have a cholera disease. The causative agent of the disease:
Is not motile
Is atrichous
Is peritrichous
Is monotrichous
Is lophotrichous

What staining technique is applied to reveal flagella of spirochaetes?

Modified Ziehl-Neelsen staining
Loeffler flagella staining
Neisser Staining
Schaeffer-Fulton`s staining
None of above

A patient is suspected to have syphilis. The causative agent of the disease:

Is not motile
Is monotrichous
Is peritrichous
Has one polar flagellum
Is motile

Representatives of which group of microorganisms are mostly atrichous?

Spore-forming bacilli
Spirilla
Cocci
Spirochaetes
Non-spore-forming bacilli

Which structural component is constant in bacterial cell?

Mitochondria
Nucleus
Nucleoid
Endospore
Capsule

If an infectious agent is a bacteria, then next is true:

It has membrane-bound organelles
It has Golgi apparatus
It has 70S ribosome and DNA associated with histone proteins
It has 80S ribosome and DNA associated with histone proteins
It has a cytoplasmic membrane

Non-constant structural components of bacterial cells are:

Volutin granules, Cell wall, Pili
Pili, Volutin granules, Flagella
Flagella, Endopores, Nucleoid
Endopores, Capsules, Cytoplasm
Cytoplasmic membrane, Capsules, PHB granules

Which structural component is constant in a bacterial cell?

80S Ribosome
Endospore
Sulfur globules
70S Ribosome
Capsule

Oxidative and transport enzymes of a cell are located in:

Cytoplasm
Capsule
Cytoplasmic membrane
Endospore
Cell wall
A structure of a cell that stays clear in Burri-Hins staining method is:
A motility organella
70S Ribosome
A virulence factor
An inclusion
Cell envelope

The protein synthesizing systems of a syphilis causing agent are?

80S Ribosomes
Nucleoid
Sulfur globules
70S Ribosomes
None of the above

Choose bacteria that naturally lack the cell wall

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Bacillus megaterium
Pseudomonas fluorescens

Mycolic acid is present in

Outer Membrane of Gram-positive bacteria
Outer Membrane of Gram-negative bacteria
Cytoplasmic Membrane of Gram- positive bacteria
Cytoplasmic Membrane of Gram-negative bacteria
In cell wall of Mycobacterium

Lipopolysaccharide is present in
Outer Membrane of Gram-positive bacteria
Outer Membrane of Gram-negative bacteria
Cytoplasmic Membrane of Gram- positive bacteria
Cytoplasmic Membrane of Gram-negative bacteria
In cell wall of Mycobacterium

Choose the INCORRECT statement about the causative agent of leprosy:

Contains mycolic acid in a cell wall
Contains phospholipids in a cell wall
Contains peptidoglican in a cell wal
Contains LPS in a cell wall
Contains 70S ribosomes

O-antigen is located in
Plasma membrane
Outer membrane
Appendages
Cell coverings
S-layer

Teichoic acid is:

A polymer of glycan (sugar) chains cross-linked by short peptide fragments
A polymer of ribitol or glycerol (alcohols) and phospholipid
Comprised of Lipid A and O polysaccharide
Comprised of phospholipids, lipopolysaccharides, lipoproteins and surface proteins
Comprised of alternating glycans (NAM and NAG) bound together in long strands

What component is absent in gram-positive cell walls?

Teichoic acid
Peptidoglycan
N-acetyl muramic acid
Lipopolysaccharide
Lipoteichoic acid

The results of your patient’s throat culture just arrived, and it have shown that the causing agent
is a pathogenic yeast. What is true for this agent?
It doesn’t have protein synthesizing systems.
It doesn’t have membrane-bound organelles
It doesn’t have nucleus
It doesn’t have a cytoplasmic membrane
It doesn’t contain murein-containing cell wall

Choose a genus of microorganism that lacks a nucleus:

Mucor
Penicillium
Nocardia
Saccharomyces
Candida

Choose a genus of microorganism that lacks a nucleus:

Mucor
Streptomyces
Penicillium
Balantidium
Saccharomyces

Choose a genus of microorganism that lacks a nucleus:

Mucor
Penicillium
Saccharomyces
Actinomyces
Candida

Cryptococcus is a representative of:

Cocci
Streptococci
Tetracocci
Micrococci
Fungi

A cell “mouth” for ingesting fluids or solid particles is called

Cytosole
Cytosome
Cytoplasm
Endoplasm
Endosome

What microorganism can cause malaria?

Naegleria
Plasmodium falciparum
Trypanosoma cruzi
Toxoplasma gondi
Acanthamoeba

What fungus can cause dermatophytosis?

Coccidioides
Rhizopus
Paracoccidioides
Malassezia
Microsporum

What fungus causes Chicago disease?

Coccidioides immitis
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Malassezia furfur
Cryptococcus neoformans

Cryptococcosis is an infection caused by a representative of:

Cocci
Streptococci
Fungi
Actinobacteria
Diplococci

A causative agent of candidiasis is a representative of:

Rod-shaped bacteria
Winding bacteria
Actinobacteria
Yeasts
Protozoa

A causative agent of leishmaniasis is a representative of:

Rod-shaped bacteria
Winding bacteria
Actinobacteria
Yeasts
Protozoa

Choose the term that describes infections, caused by environmental pathogens in the general
population
Hospital-associated infections
Community-acquired infections
Opportunistic infections
Mixed infection
Fungal infections
Choose the term that describes infections, caused by pathogens in clinical settings
Community-acquired infections
Hospital-associated infections
Opportunistic infections
Mixed infection
Fungal infections

Choose the term that describes infections, caused by pathogens infecting already weakened
individuals
Community-acquired infections
Hospital-associated infections
Opportunistic infections
Mixed infection
Fungal infections

What disease can be diagnosed using acid-fast staining?

Tetanus
Tuberculosis
Diphtheria
Plague
Cholera

Choose causative agent of plague

Clostridium perfringens
Pseudomonas fluorescens
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Mycobacterium leprae
Yersinia pestis

What bacteria have mycolic acid in its cell wall?

Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas fluorescens
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Bacillus subtilis
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Mycoplasmas:
Are Gram-positive bacteria that have lost their cell wall
Are Gram-negative bacteria that have lost their cell wall
Are L-forms
Naturally lack a cell wall
None of the above

A complex staining technique that can be used in preliminary diagnosis of tuberculosis:

Gram-staining method
Romanowsky-Giemsa method
Ziehl-Nielsen method
Neisser method
Wet mount

Lipopolysaccharide is not present in a cell wall of

Shigella
Escherichia coli
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Yersinia pestis
Pseudomonas fluorescens

Clostridium tetani treated with lysozyme in media with the osmotic strength balanced to the
internal osmotic pressure of the cell will form:
Any kind of L-form
Protoplasts
Spheroplasts
Chloroplasts
Acid-fast cell wall

In osmotically protected media, E. coli cells treated with EDTA-lysozyme will form:
Protoplasts
Spheroplasts
Chloroplasts
Acid-fast cell wall
None of the above

What is the target of lysozyme?

Lipid A
Lipopolysaccharide
Teichoic acid
Peptidoglycan
Lipoteichoic acid

Choose gram-positive bacteria from the list

Yersinia pestis
Bacillus subtilis
Pseudomonas fluorescens
Vibrio cholerae
Escherichia coli

Choose the form of bacteria which can cause persistent infections that are often resistant to
antibiotic treatment?
Protoplasts
Archaea
Gram-positive bacteria
Spheroplasts
L-phase variants

Choose gram-negative bacteria from the list

Bacillus megaterium
Clostridium botulinum
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Yersinia pestis
Staphylococcus aureus

Choose acid-fast bacteria from the list

Clostridium botulinum
Escherichia coli
Vibrio cholerae
Mycobacterium leprae
Bacillus megaterium

Teichoic acid is present in a cell wall of:

Meningococci
Vibrio cholera
Clostridium tetani
Gonococci
Escherichia coli

A patient is suspected for tuberculosis. Which complex staining technique can be used for a
preliminary diagnosis?
Gram-staining method
Ziehl-Neelsen
Romanowsky-Giemsa method
Neisser method
Wet mount

Bacterial strain uses energy of chemical reactions and obtains electrons from sugars. Due to
classification it belongs to:
PhotoAutotrophs
PhotoOrganotrophs
ChemoOrganotrophs
ChemoLitotrophs
OrganoHeterotrophs

Bacterial strain uses solar energy and obtains electrons from sugars. Due to classification it
belongs to:
PhotoAutotrophs
PhotoOrganotrophs
LitoHeterotrophs
PhotoLitotrophs
OrganoHeterotrophs

Bacterial strain uses solar energy and obtains electrons from inorganic compounds. Due to
classification it belongs to:
PhotoAutotrophs
LitoAutotrophs
LitoHeterotrophs
PhotoLitotrophs
OrganoHeterotrophs

Bacterial strain utilizes CO2 as a source of carbon and obtains electrons from inorganic
compounds. Due to classification it belongs to:
ChemoAutotrophs
LitoAutotrophs
LitoHeterotrophs
ChemoOrganotrophs
OrganoHeterotrophs
Bacterial strain utilizes organic source of carbon and obtains electrons from inorganic
compounds. Due to classification it belongs to:
ChemoAutotrophs
ChemoOrganotrophs
LitoHeterotrophs
ChemoOrganotrophs
OrganoHeterotrophs

The causative agent of the disease utilizes organic source of carbon and obtains electrons from
sugars. Due to classification it belongs to:
ChemoAutotrophs
ChemoOrganotrophs
PhotoAutotrophs
ChemoOrganotrophs
OrganoHeterotrophs

The causative agent of the disease utilizes sugars and alcohols as a source of carbon and uses
energy of chemical reactions. Due to classification it belongs to:
ChemoAutotrophs
PhotoHeterotrophs
PhotoAutotrophs
ChemoOrganotrophs
ChemoHeterotrophs

The causative agent of the disease utilizes organic source of carbon and uses energy of chemical
reactions. Due to classification it belongs to:
ChemoAutotrophs
PhotoHeterotrophs
PhotoAutotrophs
ChemoOrganotrophs
ChemoHeterotrophs

The bacteria isolated from water sample utilizes sugars as source of carbon and uses solar
energy. Due to classification it belongs to:
ChemoLitotrophs
PhotoHeterotrophs
PhotoAutotrophs
Autotrophs
Phototrophs

The bacteria isolated from water sample utilizes CO2 as source of carbon and uses solar energy.
Due to classification it belongs to:
ChemoLitotrophs
PhotoHeterotrophs
PhotoAutotrophs
Autotrophs
Phototrophs

Neutrophiles grow best at a pH range of ___

1-4
5-8.0
2-3.5
9-9.5
3-7

Acidophiles grow best at a pH _______

Less than 3
2-3.5
Less than 5
5-8.0
3-7

Alkaliphiles grow best at a pH ____

Less than 3
2-3.5
Less than 5
5-8.0
More than 8.5

Mesophiles are group of bacteria that grow within the temperature range of?
less than 0 degree Celsius
degree Celsius 0-20
degree Celsius 25-45
degree Celsius 45-60
more than degree Celsius 60

Psychrophiles are group of bacteria that grow within the temperature range of?
less than –5 degree Celsius
degree Celsius –5…15
degree Celsius 25…45
degree Celsius 45…60
more than 60 degree Celsius

Thermophiles are group of bacteria that grow within the temperature range of?
less than –5 degree Celsius
degree Celsius –5…15
degree Celsius 25…45
degree Celsius 45…70
more than 60 degree Celsius

The temperature that allows for most rapid growth during a short period of time is known as
Minimum Temperature
Maximum Temperature
Optimum Temperature
Growth Temperature
No correct answer

Microorganisms that can be found thriving in icy-cold climates would be

considered_____________
Barophiles
Termophiles
Mesophiles
Psychrophiles
Bibliophile
Bacteria with optimum growth temperature between 70C and 110C are:
Alkaliphiles
Thermophiles
Mesophiles
Psychrophiles
Hyperthermophiles

Bacteria with optimum growth temperature between 45C and 70C, which are commonly found
in hot springs and in compost heap are:
Alkaliphiles
Thermophiles
Mesophiles
Psychrophiles
Hyperthermophiles

Chose the correct definition for general purpose media:

Designed to suppress the growth of some microorganisms while allowing the growth of others
Is used to increase the relative concentration of certain microorganisms in the culture
Designed in such a way that different bacteria can be recognized on the basis of their colony
color
Simple media that supports most non-fastidious bacteria
Is used to grow nutritionally exacting (fastidious) bacteria

Chose the correct definition for enrichment culture media:

Simple media that supports most non-fastidious bacteria
Designed to suppress the growth of some microorganisms while allowing the growth of others
Is used to increase the relative concentration of certain microorganisms in the culture
Designed in such a way that different bacteria can be recognized on the basis of their colony
color
Is used to grow nutritionally exacting (fastidious) bacteria

Chose the correct definition for enriched media:

Simple media that supports most non-fastidious bacteria
Designed to suppress the growth of some microorganisms while allowing the growth of others
Is used to increase the relative concentration of certain microorganisms in the culture
Designed in such a way that different bacteria can be recognized on the basis of their colony
color
Is used to grow nutritionally exacting (fastidious) bacteria

Chose the correct definition for differential media:

Simple media that supports most non-fastidious bacteria
Designed to suppress the growth of some microorganisms while allowing the growth of others
Is used to increase the relative concentration of certain microorganisms in the culture
Designed in such a way that different bacteria can be recognized on the basis of their colony
color
Is used to grow nutritionally exacting (fastidious) bacteria

Chose the correct definition for selective media:

Simple media that supports most non-fastidious bacteria
Designed to suppress the growth of some microorganisms while allowing the growth of others
Is used to increase the relative concentration of certain microorganisms in the culture
Designed in such a way that different bacteria can be recognized on the basis of their colony
color
Is used to grow nutritionally exacting (fastidious) bacteria

Simple media that support most non-fastidious bacteria:

Selective media
General Purpose media
Differential media
Enriched Media
Enrichment media

Media designed to suppress the growth of some microorganisms while allowing the growth of
others
General Purpose media
Differential media
Enriched Media
Enrichment media
Selective media

Media used to increase the relative concentration of certain microorganisms in the culture
General Purpose media
Differential media
Enriched Media
Enrichment media
Selective media

Media designed in such a way that different bacteria can be recognized on the basis of their
colony color
General Purpose media
Differential media
Enriched Media
Enrichment media
Selective media

Media used to grow nutritionally exacting (fastidious) bacteria:

General Purpose media
Differential media
Enriched Media
Enrichment media
Selective media

Choose a selective media that allows for recovering P. aeruginosa pure culture
Thayer Martin Agar
Mannitol Salt Agar
MacConkey’s Agar
Cetrimide Agar
Endo Agar

Choose a selective media that allows for isolating the Neisseria gonorrhoeae pure culture
Mannitol Salt Agar
MacConkey’s Agar
Cetrimide Agar
Endo Agar
Thayer Martin Agar

Choose a selective media that allows for isolating the S. aureus pure culture
Thayer Martin Agar
Mannitol Salt Agar
MacConkey’s Agar
Cetrimide Agar
Endo Agar

Which agar is selective for Vibrio cholerae?

MacConkey’s Agar
XLD
TCBS
MacConkey
Blood Agar

The isolation of gonorrhea-causing microorganism, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is achieved by the

addition of certain antibiotics into media. This media is an example of:
Differential media
Enriched media
Assay media
Selective media
Non cultivated

Thioglycollate media is used to cultivate

Aerobic bacteria
Anaerobic bacteria
Aerotolerant bacteria
Microaerophilic bacteria
NO correct answer

Thayer Martin Agar is a selective medium for

Staphylococcus aureus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Clostridium difficile
Vibrio cholerae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Mannitol Salt Agar is a selective medium for :

Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium difficile
Enterobacteria
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

According to type of respiration bacteria are divided into aerobes and anaerobes. Which
group of bacteria can both use oxygen and not use it?
Obligate anaerobes
Obligate aerobes
Facultative anaerobes
Aerotolerant Anaaerobes
None of the above

An organism is completely dependent on atmospheric O2 for growth. This organism is

Osmotolerant
Acidophile
Facultative anaerobe
Aerotolerant anaerobe
Obligate aerobe

Which term best describes an organism that can't exist in the presence of oxygen?
Obligate aerobe
Facultative aerobe
Obligate anaerobe
Facultative anaerobe
Microaerophlile

Which term best describes an organism that cannot use oxygen to transform energy but can
grow in its presence?
Obligate aerobe
Aerotolerant anaerobes
Obligate anaerobe
Facultative anaerobe
Microaerophlile

The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that _______

Doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it
Is killed by oxygen
Uses oxygen when present, or grows without oxygen when oxygen is absent
Requires less oxygen than is present in air
Prefers to grow without oxygen

The term obligate aerobe refers to an organism that _______

Doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it
Is killed by oxygen
Uses oxygen when present, or grows without oxygen when oxygen is absent
Requires less oxygen than is present in air
Grows only in the presence of oxygen.

The term microaerophile refers to an organism that _______

Doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it
Is killed by oxygen
Uses oxygen when present, or grows without oxygen when oxygen is absent
Rrequires a low concentration of oxygen for growth, but higher concentrations are inhibitory.
Prefers to grow without oxygen

Unknown bacterial strain can utilize inorganic source of carbon. Due to classification it
belongs to:
Auxotroph
Prototroph
Chemotroph
Autotroph
Heterotroph
Wich organisms obtains carbon from both organic compounds and by fixing carbon dioxide
Chemotrophs
Mixotrophs
Lithotrophs
Phototrophs
Heterotrophs

Wich organisms obtains carbon for synthesizing cell mass from organic compounds
Chemotrophs
Organotrophs
Lithotrophs
Phototrophs
Heterotrophs

The causative agent of the disease utilizes sugars, alcohols, and aminoacids as source of
carbon. Due to classification it belongs to:
Litotrophs
Heterotrophs
Prototrophs
Autotrophs
Chemotrophs

Bacterial strain isolated from soil can utilize inorganic source of carbon. Due to classification
it belongs to:
Auxotroph
Prototroph
Autotroph
Chemotroph
Heterotroph

The organisms which can use reduced inorganic compounds as electron donors are known as
_________
Chemotrophs
Organotrophs
Lithotrophs
Phototrophs
Autotrophs

The organisms which can use reduced organic compounds as electron donors are known as
_________
Chemotrophs
Organotrophs
Lithotrophs
Phototrophs
Autotrophs

The organisms which can obtain reduced equivalents obtained from organic compounds
Chemotrophs
Organotrophs
Lithotrophs
Phototrophs
Autotrophs

The organisms which use energy of chemical reactions are known as _________
Organotrophs
Chemotrophs
Lithotrophs
Phototrophs
Autotrophs

The organisms which use solar energy are known as _________

Organotrophs
Chemotrophs
Lithotrophs
Phototrophs
Autotrophs

The GasPak system is suitable for cultivating:

Aerobic bacteria
Anaerobic bacteria
Aerotolerant bacteria
Microaerophilic bacteria
NO correct answer

Choose the incorrect statement describing the principle of anaerobic bacteria cultivation:
Bottles or tubes filled completely to the top
Tightly fitting stopper
Use of shaker or bubbling sterilizer
Reducing agent added
Oxygen removed

GasPak system generates:

Mix of O2 and CO2
Mix of H2 and CO2
Mix of H2 and CO
Mix of N2 and CO2
None of the above

Oxygen in GasPak system is removed by:

is gradually used up through reaction with catalyst
is gradually used up through reaction with H2
is gradually used up through reaction with CO2
is gradually used up through reaction with N2
None of the above

The generation time for E. coli is ________

2 minutes
35 minutes
20 minutes
13 minutes
1 hour

Average for bacteria is the generation time of:

20 minutes
30-60 minutes
2 minutes
13 minutes
1 hour

The generation time for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is ________

2 hours
12 to 24 minutes
12 to 24 hours
10 to 30 days
30-60 minutes

The generation time for Mycobacterium leprae is ________

2 hours
12 to 24 minutes
12 to 24 hours
10 to 30 days
30-60 minutes

The generation time of 20 min is characteristic for:

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium leprae
E.coli
It is average generation time for bacteria
None of the above

The generation time of 10 to 30 days is characteristic for:

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium leprae
E.coli
It is average generation time for bacteria
None of the above

The generation time of 12 to 24 hours is characteristic for:

Mycobacterium leprae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E.coli
It is average generation time for bacteria
None of the above

The time required for a cell to undergo binary fission is called the:
exponential growth rate
growth curve
generation time
lag period
stationary phase

Which phase in a population growth curve is associated with no increase or decrease in

microbial population?
lag phase
logarithmic phase
stationary phase
stop phase
death phase

The phase of the growth curve where a rapid growth of bacteria is observed is known as
lag phase
logarithmic phase
stationary phase
stop phase
death phase

A short period of time prior to exponential growth of a bacterial population during which no,
or very limited, cell division occurs.
logarithmic phase
stationary phase
stop phase
lag phase
death phase

Lag phase is also known as:

transitional period
generation time
period of rapid growth
period of initial adjustment
death period

A cryptic growth is characteristic for:

Lag phase
Log phase
Stationary phase
Exponential phase
Anaphase

Which phase shows reproduction rate equal to the equivalent death rate?
Log phase
Stationary phase
Death phase
Lag phase
None of above

The portion of the growth curve where a rapid growth of bacteria is observed is known as
Lag phase
Logarithmic phase
Stationary phase
Decline phase
None of above

Which of the following method can be used to determine the number of bacteria
quantitatively?
Streak-plate
Spread-plate
Pour plate
Pour-plate and spread plate
e)All answers are incorrect

A __________ is used when the diluted liquid culture is mixed in cooled molten agar before
being poured into culture dishes.
Streak-plate
Spread-plate
Pour plate
Pour-plate and spread plate
All answers are incorrect

The growth is normally expressed as __________ in turbidimetric measurement

cells per ml
cfu/ml
mg N2 /ml
U/ml
optical density

“Tenericutes” is a __________.
Subfamily name
Species name
Family name
Genus name
Division name

Members of what taxonomic category nowadays belong to the domain “Archaea”?

Firmicutes
B Tenericutes
Mendosicutes
Gracilicutes
Actinobacteria

What taxonomic category represents the “basic unit” of taxonomy

Order
Domain
Species
Kingdom
Genus

“Gracilicutes” is a __________.
Subfamily name
Species name
Family name
Genus name
Division name

“Staphylococcus” is a __________.
Subfamily name
Species name
Family name
Genus name
Superfamily name
E.coli belongs to
Irregular, nonsporing gram-opositive rods
Regular, non-sporing grampositive rods
Facultatively anaerobis gram-negative rods
Anaerobic gram-negative cocci
Gram-positive cocci

Bacteria that lack a cell wall are classified as members of

Firmicutes
B Actinobacteria
C. Mendosicutes
Gracilicutes
Tenericutes

Bacteria that have a gram-negative a cell wall are classified as members of

Firmicutes
B Actinobacteria
C. Mendosicutes
Gracilicutes
Tenericutes

Bacteria that have a gram-positive a cell wall are classified as members of

Actinobacteria
Mendosicutes
Gracilicutes
Firmicutes
Tenericutes

Members of what taxonomic category share the highest number of characteristics?

Class
Genus
Domain
Order
Kingdom

Which statement describes the catalase enzyme?

acts with a plasma factor to convert fibrinogen to a fibrin clot
enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
catalyzes decarboxylation or deamination of the amino acids lysine, ornithine, and arginine
catalyzes nitrate reduction by several mechanisms
is detected by growing the organism in the presence of substrates such as gelatin or
coagulated egg

Which statement describes the coagulase enzyme?

enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
catalyzes decarboxylation or deamination of the amino acids lysine, ornithine, and arginine
catalyzes nitrate reduction by several mechanisms
is detected by growing the organism in the presence of substrates such as gelatin or
coagulated egg.
acts with a plasma factor to convert fibrinogen to a fibrin clot
Which statement describes the proteinase enzyme?
acts with a plasma factor to convert fibrinogen to a fibrin clot
enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
catalyzes decarboxylation or deamination of the amino acids lysine, ornithine, and arginine
catalyzes nitrate reduction by several mechanisms
is detected by growing the organism in the presence of substrates such as gelatin or
coagulated egg.

Which test is related to lactose fermentation?

urease production
proteinase production
Voges-Proskauer test
Citrate utilization
O-Nitrophenyl-β-d galactoside breakdown

Which test is related to acetoin detection?

urease production
proteinase production
Voges-Proskauer test
Citrate utilization
O-Nitrophenyl-β-d galactoside breakdown

Formation of a red dye after addition of a benzaldehyde reagent describes the outcome of:
urease test
indole test
Voges-Proskauer test
Citrate utilization test
O-Nitrophenyl-β-d galactoside breakdown

Liberation of oxygen as gas bubbles can be seen in

indole test
Voges-Proskauer test
oxidase test
O-Nitrophenyl-β-d galactoside breakdown
catalase test

The black color of the salts formed with heavy metals such as iron are characteristic for?
indole test
hydrogen sulfide test
Voges-Proskauer test
oxidase test
O-Nitrophenyl-β-d galactoside breakdown

What test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other, less pathogenic
staphylococci?
Voges–Proskauer test
Citrate utilization test
Catalase production test
Nitrate reduction test
Coagulase test

Choose the appropriate description of the term “identification”

classification of organisms in an ordered system that indicates a natural relationship
categorization of organisms with similar traits into taxonomic groups (taxons)
naming of an organism by international rules (established by a recognized group of medical
professionals) according to its characteristics
is practical use of a classification scheme to isolate and distinguish desirable organisms from
undesirable ones, verify the authenticity or special properties of a culture in a clinical setting,
and isolate and recognize the causative agent of a disease
none of the above

Choose the appropriate description of the term “nomenclature”

classification of organisms in an ordered system that indicates a natural relationship
categorization of organisms with similar traits into taxonomic groups (taxons)
practical use of a classification scheme to isolate and distinguish desirable organisms from
undesirable ones
verification of the authenticity or special properties of a culture in a clinical setting
naming of an organism by international rules (established by a recognized group of medical
professionals) according to its characteristics

Choose the description of the term “taxonomy”

categorization of organisms with similar traits into taxonomic groups (taxons)
classification of organisms in an ordered system that indicates a natural relationship
practical use of a classification scheme to isolate and distinguish desirable organisms from
undesirable ones
verification of the authenticity or special properties of a culture in a clinical setting
naming of an organism by international rules (established by a recognized group of medical
professionals) according to its characteristics

Choose the description of the term “classification”

classification of organisms in an ordered system that indicates a natural relationship
categorization of organisms with similar traits into taxonomic groups (taxons)
practical use of a classification scheme to isolate and distinguish desirable organisms from
undesirable ones
verification of the authenticity or special properties of a culture in a clinical setting
naming of an organism by international rules (established by a recognized group of medical
professionals) according to its characteristics

Which of the following describes the term “biovar” most appropriately:

group of organisms that reveal a determined degree of homogeneity
population of cells of a single species all descendent from a single cell
the population of microorganisms within the species which differ in one or more features
a taxonomic unit that unites organisms on the basis of morphological, physiological,
biochemical, genetic and other
characteristics
the population of microorganisms of the same species in the same place at the same time

The population of microorganisms within the species which differ by tissue tropism is called
morphotype
chemovar
pathovar
genus
serovar
 The population of microorganisms within the species which differ by antigenic structure is
called
morphotype
chemovar
pathovar
genus
serovar

Choose the description of the term “pathovar”

the population of microorganisms within the species which differ by antigenic structure
the population of microorganisms within the species which differ according to morphological
characteristics
the population of microorganisms within the species which differ by tissue tropism
the population of microorganisms within the species which differ according to physiological
and biochemical parameters
the population of microorganisms of the same species in the same place at the same time

Choose the description of the term “chemovar”

the population of microorganisms within the species which differ by antigenic structure
the population of microorganisms within the species which differ according to morphological
characteristics
the population of microorganisms within the species which differ by tissue tropism
the population of microorganisms within the species which differ according to physiological
and biochemical parameters
the population of microorganisms of the same species in the same place at the same time

Choose the most appropriate definition of the term “species”

A culture containing a single kind of microorganism
A population of cells all descendent from a single cell
A population of bacterial cells which have grown from one bacterial cell on solid medium
Collection of strains that all share the same major properties and differ in one or more significant
properties from other collections of strains
A group of organisms of the same genus in the same place at the same time

Choose the most appropriate definition of the term “colony”

A culture containing a single kind of microorganism
A population of cells all descendent from a single cell
A population of bacterial cells which have grown from one bacterial cell on solid medium
Collection of strains that all share the same major properties and differ in one or more significant
properties from other collections of strains
A group of organisms of the same genus in the same place at the same time

Choose the most appropriate definition of the term “pure culture”

Group of organisms that reveal a determined degree of homogeneity
Population of cells of a single species all descendent from a single cell
A culture containing a single kind of microorganism
Collection of strains that all share the same major properties and differ in one or more significant
properties from other collections of strains
A group of organisms of the same species in the same place
at the same time

Choose the most appropriate definition of the term “population of microorganisms”

Group of organisms that reveal a determined degree of homogeneity
Population of cells of a single species all descendent from a single cell
A culture containing a single kind of microorganism
Collection of strains that all share the same major properties and differ in one or more significant
properties from other collections of strains
A group of organisms of the same species in the same place
at the same time

Choose the description of the term “morphotype”

A taxonomic unit that unites organisms on the basis of morphological, physiological,
biochemical, genetic and other characteristics
The population of microorganisms within the species which differ according to morphological
characteristics
Population of cells of a single species all descendent from a single cell
The population of microorganisms within the species which differ according to physiological
and biochemical parameters
Group of organisms that reveal a determined degree of homogeneity

Choose the description of the term “serovar”

The population of microorganisms within the species which differ according to morphological
characteristics
The population of microorganisms within the species which differ by tissue tropism
The population of microorganisms within the species which differ by antigenic structure
The population of microorganisms within the species which differ according to physiological
parameters
The population of microorganisms within the species which differ according to biochemical
parameters

The population of microorganisms within the species which differ according to physiological
and biochemical parameters
Morphotype
Chemovar
Pathovar
Genus
Serovar

The population of microorganisms within the species which differ according to morphological
characteristics:
Chemovar
Morphotype
Pathovar
Serovar
All of these

Collection of strains that all share the same major properties and differ in one or more significant
properties from other collections of strains:
Colony
Population
Morphotype
Species
Pathovar
A group of organisms of the same species in the same place at the same time:
Colony
Population
Morphotype
Species
Pathovar

“A genomically coherent group of individual isolates or strains sharing a high degree of

similarity in many independent features when comparably tested under highly standardized
conditions” refers to:
Colony
Population
Strain
Species
Family

Choose the most appropriate definition of the term “taxon”

Group of organisms all descendent from a single cell
Group of organisms which have grown from one bacterial cell on solid medium
Group of organisms that reveal a determined degree of homogeneity
Collection of strains that all share the same major properties and differ in one or more significant
properties from other collections of strains
None of the above

Choose the INCORRECT rule in nomenclature

Genus name species name
Genus name is never abbreviated
Genus name is capitalized
A species name is never used alone
Species name is never abbreviated

Choose the INCORRECT rule in nomenclature

Genus name is capitalized and may be abbreviated
Genus name may be used alone to indicate a genus group
Species name is capitalized
A species name is never used alone
Species name is never abbreviated

What approximate amount of pathogens can be identified using routine culturing techniques or
targeting the microbes with molecular probes?
1%
5%
10%
50%
80%

Housekeeping genes :
Sequence differences among them provide information on relatedness of widely divergent
groups of bacteria
Example of such are the genes encoding cytochromes
Are used for phylogenetic analysis
Can be elucidated with DNA sequencing
All statements are correct

Choose the INCORRECT statement:

GC content of closely related bacteria is similar
GC content of closely related bacteria is rather different
GC content of DNA is revealed by thermal denaturation midpoint
All statements correct
All statements Incorrect

Quantitative manifestation of microorganism pathogenicity is:

Adhesiveness
Toxicity
Invasiveness
Virulence
None of above

It is known, that between different groups of microorganisms there are a few types of co-
operations. How is the type of co-operation named, if there is strengthening of physiology
functions of members of association?
Metabiosis
Synergizm
Mutualizm
Sattelizm
Commensalizm

Which bacterial structure from listed below defends it from phagocytes?

Cellular membrane
Endospores
Capsule
Fimbriae
Pili

The chemical structure of the endotoxin is:

Peptidoglican
Protein
Lipid
Lipopolysaccharide
Lipoprotein

Microbial exotoxins transfer with blood at diphtheria. Consequently, in this case it is possible to
speak about:
Septicopyemia
Bacteriemia
Septicemia
Toxinemia
Intoxication

It was found that colon bacilla strain doesn’t have the H-antigen. What structure component is
absent in this strain’s cells?
Cell wall
Capsule
Outer membrane
Flagella
Mesosome

_______is produced by some organisms capable of destroying erythrocytes

Fibrinolysin
Hyaluronidase
Lysozyme
Hemolysin
Ig A1 proteases

Teichoic acid and lipopolysaccharides (LPS) are important components of bacterial cell walls.
Which of the following statements is true?
Teichoic acid is found only on gram (-) cell walls
Teichoic acid is also known as an endotoxin
LPS is a component of gram () cell walls
LPS is also known as an endotoxin
B and D are correct

The main cause of diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis found in health care associated
infections is the presence of which of the following microorganisms?
Enterococcus pnemoniae
Bacillus cereus
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Listeria monocytogenes
Clostridium difficile

Brucella is the cause of undulant fever, it is a _______ pathogen

Opportunistic
Coliform
Zoonotic
Enteric
None of the above

Fleas are carriers of :

Clostridium perfringens
E.coli
Shigella
Yersinia pestis
Smallpox

It is possible to catch _______ a skin disease, from your cat.

Influenza
A fever
AIDS
Cancer
Zoophilic dermatophytes

Which infectious diseases are NOT transmitted by dogs?

Leishmaniasis
Hydatid cyst
Plague
Zoophilic dermatophytes
None of above

A patient with diagnosis “Syphilis” was treated with antibiotics and become healthy. Then he
was infected by T. pallidum again. How is such type of infection called?
Recidivation
Reinfection
Superinfection
Secondary infection
Complication

Bacteriological examination of the feces of a 38-year-old woman, who had been ill with typhoid
fever 1.5 year ago, revealed Salmonella typhi. Name the form of the infectious process.
Disbacteriozis
Bacteria carrying
Reinfection
Superinfection
Recidivation

Malaria is a protozoal disease caused by _____ .

Trypanosoma
Toxoplasma
Plasmodium
Leishmania
Rotavirus

In what way is salmonella usually transmitted to humans?

Direct contact
Contaminated food or water
Insect bite.
Indirect contact

Which of the following two diseases are caused by viruses?

HIV/AIDS & cholera
Measles & smallpox
Malaria & cholera
Tuberculosis & HIV
Flu & stroke

Which of the following types of disease is caused when the immune system attacks the body?
Lifestyle
Disorder
Heart disease
Autoimmune
All of the Above

A man, who lived in the endemic region, suffered a three-day malaria. After moving to the non
endemic area in 1.5 years he got sick with malaria again. Which form of malaria is the most
likely in this case?
Reinfection
Relapse
Superinfection
Persistent infection
Secondary infection

Which of the contagious viruses has been eliminated from the world-wide population?
Chickenpox
Smallpox
Measles
Monkeypox.
All of these

Which type of pathogen causes malaria?

Virus
Bacteria
Protozoa
Fungi
Non above

The primary habitat of Vibrio cholerae is _____.

Intestine of humans
On water plants
Natural waters
Exoskeletons of crustaceans
Insect

_____ cause protozoal sexually transmitted disease

Entamoeba
Cryptosporidium
Trichomonas vaginalis
Treponema pallidum
Neiseria gonorrheae

During treatment with bismuth preparations a patient with syphilis developed gray spots on
his oral mucosa and nephropathy symptoms. What drug is used as an antidote to bismuth
preparations poisoning?
Nalorphine
Bemegride
Unithiol
Naloxone
Methylene blue

A 26-year-old woman with bronchitis has been administered a broad spectrum antibiotic as a
causal treatment drug. Specify this drug:
Interferon
BCG vaccine
Ambroxol
Dexamethasone
Doxycycline

Streptomycin and other aminoglycosides prevent the joining of formylmethionyl-tRNA by

bonding with the 30S ribosomal subunit. This effect leads to disruption
of the following process:
Transcription initiation in procaryotes
Transcription initiation in eucaryotes
 Translation initiation in procaryotes
Translation initiation in eucaryotes
Replication initiation in procaryotes

To treat bronchitis the patient was prescribed a beta-lactam antibiotic. Its mechanism of
action is based on inhibition of murein production, which results in death of the causative
agent. Name this drug:
Bijochinol (Quinine bismuth iodide)
Ciprofloxacin
Azithromycin
Streptomycin
Penicillin G Sodium Salt

A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculous

antibiotic. Name this drug:
Tetracycline
Streptocide
Rifampicin
Furasolidone
Bactrim (Co-trimoxazole)

A patient has been diagnosed with gonorrhea. As fluoroquinolones are the drugs of choice
for treatment of gonorrhea the patient should be prescribed with:
Furazolidone
Fluorouarcil
Sulfacarbamide (Urosulfanum)
Cefazolin
Ciprofloxacin

A patient developed pyoinflammatory process of periodontal tissues caused by activation of

the microorganisms inherent in the body, which are a part of oral mucosal microflora. What
type of infection is it?
Exogenous infection
Autoinfection
Reinfection
Superinfection
Relapse

Material obtained from a patient contains several types of microorganisms (staphylococci

and streptococci) causative of the patient’s disease. Name this type of infection:
Superinfection
Reinfection
Consecutive infection
Coinfection
Mixed infection

A patient has been diagnosed with URTI (Upper respiratory tract infection). Blood serum
contains immunoglobulin M. What stage of infection is it?
Prodromal
Incubation
Reconvalescence
Carriage
 Acute

Protective function of saliva is based on several mechanisms, including the presence of

enzyme that has bactericidal action and causes lysis of complex capsular polysaccharides of
staphylococci and streptococci. Name this enzyme:
Alpha-amylase
Oligo-1,6-glucosidase
Collagenase
Lysozyme
Beta-glucuronidase

Choose antibiotic that targets bacterial protein synthesis

Norfloxacin
Rifampicin
Doxycycline
Vancomycin
Polymyxin E

Choose antibiotic that targets bacterial cytoplasmic membrane

Trimethoprim
Ciprofloxacin
Neomycin
Polymyxin B
Bacitracin

Choose antibiotic that targets bacterial cell wall

Azithromycin
Penicillin G
Sulfasoxazole
Amikacin
Tetracycline

Choose antibiotic that inhibits RNA synthesis

Streptomycin
Amphotericin B
Trimethoprim
Meropenem
Rifampicin

Choose antibiotic which inhibits DNA synthesis

Minocycline
Nalidixic acid
Ceftriaxone
Daptomycin
Sulfasoxazole

Choose antibiotic that targets folic acid synthesis

Polymyxin B
Doxycycline
Ciprofloxacin
Trimethoprim
Aztreonam
Choose antibiotic that targets 50S subunit of bacterial ribosome
Imipenem
Eperezolid
Cycloserine
Rifampin
Daptomycin

Choose antibiotic that targets 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome

Polymyxin E
Sulfasoxazole
Ertapenem
Ceftaroline
Gentamicin

Choose antibiotic that inhibits the nucleic acid synthesis

Doxycycline
Cefazolin
Norfloxacin
Polymyxin B
Ketoconazole

What agent is used to treat fungal infections?

Ertapenem
Clotrimazole
Tobramycin
Bacitracin
Penicillin G

Choose term for the transfer of resistance genes from one generation of bacteria to another by
reproduction
Horizontal gene transfer
Vertical gene transfer
Transduction
Transformation
Conjugation

Choose the term for the transfer of resistance genes through the temporary fusion of the
mating partners
Transduction
Vertical gene transfer
Transformation
Conjugation
Mutation

Choose the term for the transfer of resistance genes from bacteriophages to bacteria
Conjugation
Mutation
Transformation
Transduction
Vertical gene transfer
 Choose the term for the transfer of resistance genes by receiving “free” DNA from
environment
Conjugation
Transformation
Transduction
Mutation
Vertical gene transfer
Choose the way of acquiring antibiotic resistance that is not dependent on the gene transfer
Conjugation
Transduction
Mutation
Transformation
Natural resistance

Transformation is a
transfer of resistance genes from bacteriophages
transfer of resistance genes by receiving “free” DNA from environment
transfer of resistance genes from one generation of bacteria to another
transfer of resistance genes through the temporary fusion of the mating partners
a stable heritable change of a gene leading to acquisition of resistance to particular antibiotic

Conjugation is a
a stable heritable change of a gene leading to acquisition of resistance to particular antibiotic
transfer of resistance genes from bacteriophages
transfer of resistance genes by receiving “free” DNA from environment
transfer of resistance genes from one generation of bacteria to another
transfer of resistance genes through the temporary fusion of the mating partners

Transduction is a
transfer of resistance genes from one generation of bacteria to another
a stable heritable change of a gene leading to acquisition of resistance to particular antibiotic
transfer of resistance genes from bacteriophages to bacteria
transfer of resistance genes through the temporary fusion of the mating partners
transfer of resistance genes by receiving “free” DNA from environment

Vertical gene transfer is a

transfer of resistance genes from one generation of bacteria to another
a stable heritable change of a gene leading to acquisition of resistance to particular antibiotic
transfer of resistance genes from bacteriophages to bacteria
transfer of resistance genes through the temporary fusion of the mating partners
transfer of resistance genes by receiving “free” DNA from environment

Horizontal gene transfer is a

transfer of resistance genes from bacteriophages to bacteria
transfer of resistance genes through the temporary fusion of the mating partners
transfer of resistance genes by receiving “free” DNA from environment
transfer of resistance genes from one generation of bacteria to another
answers A, B, C are correct

Choose bactericidal antibiotic from the list

Trimethoprim
 Minocycline
Imipenem
Chloramphenicol
Sulfasoxazole

Which antibiotic from the list doesn’t possess bactericidal activity?

Meropenem
Ciprofloxacin
Penicillin G
Vancomycin
Spectinomycin

Choose broad-spectrum antibiotic from the list

Vancomycin
Aztreonam
Penicillin G
Bacitracin
Meropenem

Choose narrow-spectrum antibiotic from the list

Ertapenem
Tetracycline
Tobramycin
Aztreonam
Norfloxacin

Choose narrow-spectrum antibiotic from the list

Ertapenem
Tetracycline
c Penicillin
Tobramycin
Norfloxacin

Choose narrow-spectrum antibiotic from the list

Ertapenem
Tetracycline
c Bacitracin
Tobramycin
Norfloxacin

Choose broad-spectrum antibiotic from the list

Vancomycin
Aztreonam
Penicillin G
Bacitracin
Doxycycline

Choose broad-spectrum antibiotic from the list

Vancomycin
Tetracycline
Aztreonam
Penicillin G
 Bacitracin

Choose antibiotic that doesn’t belong to beta-lactams

Ceftaroline
Minocycline
Penicillin
Meropenem
Aztreonam

Choose antibiotic that doesn’t belong to beta-lactams

Ceftaroline
Meropenem
Penicillin
Cycloserine
Aztreonam

Beta-lactamases confer resistance to

Azoles
Cephalosporines
Polymyxins
Macrolides
Tetracyclines

Mycoplasma are resistant to meropenem because of

Mutation leading to acquisition of resistance
Vertical transfer of resistance genes
Horizontal transfer of resistance genes
Natural resistance
Acquired resistance

Which antibiotic cannot be used against Gram-positive bacteria?

Bacitracin
Doxycycline
Rifampicin
Penicillin G
Aztreonam

What antibiotic causes the biggest number of allergic responses?

Daptomycin
Tetracycline
Penicillin
Gramicidin
Imipenem

Choose agents that inhibit fungal cell wall synthesis

Azoles
Aminoglycosides
Echinocandins
Cephalosporins
Quinolones

Choose agents that interfere with sterol synthesis in fungi

 Echinocandins
Beta-lactams
Cephalosporins
Quinolones
Azoles

Which bacteria from the list are resistant to Doxycycline?

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Clostridium tetani
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escherichia coli

Erythromycin and clindamycin resistance is associated with:

Drug inactivation
Decreased Permeability
Activation of Drug pumps
Change in drug Binding site
Use of alternate Metabolic pathway

Sulfonamide and trimethoprim resistance is associated with:

Drug inactivation
Decreased Permeability
Activation of Drug pumps
Change in drug Binding site
Use of alternate Metabolic pathway

Alteration on the 50S ribosomal binding site confers resistance to:

Ceftaroline
Meropenem
Penicillin
Erythromycin
Aztreonam

Diabetes in human can be associated with the presence of

Helicobacter pylori
Coxsackievirus
Borna agent
Borrelia burgdorferi
Coronaviruses

A transition from Endospores to Vegetative Cells in the life cycle of bacteria was describes by
Robert Koch
Louis Pasteur
Ferdinand Cohn
Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
Robert Hooke

Which one of the listed microorganisms doesn’t have flagella?

Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Spirillum
Treponema pallidum
Staphylococcus aureus

Choose the CORRECT statement about the Generalized transduction

Is performed by lysogenic viruses
Random fragment of DNA is carried
A specific part of the host genome is packed
Includes integration with bacterial chromosome
Requires formation of a specific pilus

Which one of the listed microorganisms is monotrichous?

Salmonella typhi
Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Vibrio cholerae
Treponema pallidum

Choose the CORRECT statement about Plasmids

Occur only as circular molecules
Always contain resistance genes
Can be transferred via vertical gene transfer only
Can carry transposons
Never confirm resistance against heavy metals

Choose the INCORRECT statement about the Specialized transduction

Is performed by lysogenic viruses
A specific part of the host genome is packed
Includes integration with bacterial chromosome
Random fragment of DNA is carried
Requires formation of a specific pilus

Choose the INCORRECT statement about PAI:

present in the genome of pathogenic bacteria but absent in nonpathogenic strains
mostly inserted in the backbone genome of the host strain in specific sites that are frequently
tRNA or tRNA-like genes
Mobility genes are present
GC content is usually similar to those in backbone genome genes
Sometimes include remnants of IS elements

Choose a disease that doesn’t belong to Re-emerging Infectious Diseases

Diphtheria
Malaria
Rabies
Cholera
Measles

A disproval of the concept of Spontaneous generation was made by

Ferdinand Cohn
Robert Koch
Louis Pasteur
Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
Robert Hooke
Schizophrenia can be associated with the presence of
Helicobacter pylori
Coxsackievirus
Borna disease virus
Borrelia burgdorferi
HIV

Solid media were implemented by

Ferdinand Cohn
Robert Koch
Louis Pasteur
Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
Robert Hooke

Which one of the listed microorganisms DOESN’T have flagella?

Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Spirillum
Treponema pallidum
Staphylococcus aureus

Naturally occurring genome editing systems in bacteria are called

Transposons
Insertion Sequenses
Pathogenicity Islands
Restriction Methylation Systems
CRISPR Cas system

Which one of the listed microorganisms has endoflagella?

Salmonella typhi
Escherichia coli
Vibrio cholerae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Treponema pallidum

Choose the CORRECT statement about Plasmids

Don’t contain their own origin of replication
Always contain resistance genes
Can occur in fungi
Can not replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome
Always are necessary for survival

Choose a structure that never is observed in bacteria

70S ribosome
Cytoskeleton
S-layer
Glycocalyx
Histons

Choose the INCORRECT statement about PAI

present in the genome of pathogenic bacteria but absent in nonpathogenic strains
mostly inserted in specific sites that are frequently tRNA or tRNA-like genes
integrases are fquently located at the beginning of the island
integrases in PAI determine the pathogenicity of host bacterium
GC content different from that of the core genome

Choose a disease that doesn’t belong to Re-emerging Infectious Diseases

Diphtheria
Malaria
Legionnaire disease
Rabies
Measles

Requires the attachment of two related species and the formation of a bridge that can transport
DNA
Recombination
Conjugation
Transformation
Transfection
Transduction

Which one of the listed microorganisms is atrichous

Salmonella typhi
Escherichia coli
Vibrio cholerae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Treponema pallidum

Choose the INCORRECT statement :

Having similar genotypes but living in different environment bacteria develop different
phenotype
Having similar phenotypes but living in different environment bacteria develop different
genotype
In biofilm bacteria can have different phenotype comparing to its planktonic state
Cryptic plasmid doesn’t influence the phenotype but changes the genotype of bacteria
RNA molecules are not a part of a genotype

Choose a structure that never is observed in bacteria:

Cytoskeleton
S-layer
Glycocalyx
Golgi apparatus
Nucleoid-associated proteins

In bacteria enzymes of respiration and ATP synthesis are located in

Mitochondrion
Adjacent to nucleoid
Cytoplasm
Cytoplasmic membrane
70S ribosome

Choose the INCORRECT statement about the causative agent of leprosy

Contains mycolic acid in a cell wall
Contains peptidoglican in a cell wall
Contains phospholipids in a Cytoplasmic Membrane
Contains LPS in a cell wall
Contains 70S ribosomes

Choose the CORRECT statement about archaea:

Lack cell wall
Have peptidoglican in a cell wall
Lack peptidoglican in a cell wall
Contain mycolic acid in a cell wall
Have LPS in Outer Membrane

Single layers of thousands of copies of a single protein linked together are

Polysomes
Slime layers
S-layers
Peptidoglycan molecules
Teichioic acid molecules

Diseases that emerged due to Phage Lysogenic Conversion of bacteria include

Diabetes
Gastric ulcers
Schizophrenia
Botulism
Yellow fever

Choose a disease that belongs to Re-emerging Infectious Diseases

Legionnaire disease
Diphtheria
Gastric ulcers
Ebola hemorrhagic fever
Diabetes

Choose microorganisms that were observed , discovered and described first

Bacteria
Yeasts
Molds
Viruses
All simultaneously discovered

A process when random pieces of DNA are transferred by viruses to other bacterial cells is
called
Conjugation
Transformation
Transfection
Generalized Transduction
Specialized Transduction

Which one of the listed microorganisms doesn’t have flagella?

Salmonella typhi
Escherichia coli
Vibrio cholerae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Treponema pallidum

Choose the INCORRECT statement :

Bacterial biofilms are multilayer
pH and oxygen conditions may be very different in different layers
In biofilm bacteria can have different phenotype comparing to its planktonic state
Cryptic plasmid doesn’t influence the phenotype but changes the genotype of bacteria
In biofilms bacteria communicate via lysogenic conversion

Choose a structure that never is observed in bacteria

Cytoskeleton
Endoplasmic Reticulum
S-layer
Glycocalyx
Nucleoid-associated proteins

The process of communication between bacteria is called

Conjugation
Lysogenic Conversion
Generalized Transduction
Specialized Transduction
Quorum Sensing

Choose the INcorrect statement about endotoxin:

Stimulates fever
Is toxic only in high amounts
Causes systemic effect
Is toxic in minute doses
Does not stimulate antitoxins

The diseases that emerged due to Phage Lysogenic Conversion of bacteria include
Gastric ulcers
Schizophrenia
Cryptococcosis
Diphtheria
Yellow fever

Choose the INCORRECT statement about exotoxin:

Toxic in minute amounts
Usually doesn’t stimulate fever
Is specific to a cell type or molecule
Is present in Gram positive bacteria only
Stimulates antitoxins

Choose a disease that DOES NOT belong to Re-emerging Infectious Diseases

Rabies
Diphtheria
Lyme borreliosis
Tuberculosis
Pertussis
The use of cotton for closing flasks and tubes was proposed by
Robert Koch
Ferdinand Cohn
Louis Pasteur
Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
Robert Hooke

Signs of disease DO NOT include

edema
lymphadenitis
blood pressure alterations
pain
presence of antibodies in a patient’s serum

Common for Bacterial pathogens Vibrio cholerae, Listeria monocytogenes, Campylobacter

jejuni, and enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (EPEC) as well as viral pathogens such as
norovirus and rotavirus is them being associated with
Tetanic seizures
Diarrhea
Running nose
Nosebleeding
Chest pain

Incubation period for influenza virus is

Approximately a week
Approximately 1–2 days
Approximately 5 days
Approximately 1–2 hours
Approximately 20 minutes

An enzyme allowing H. pylori is able to colonize the stomach and persist in its highly acidic
environment
Catalase
Oxydase
DNAse
Urease
Coagulase

A viruse that causes a disease that doesn’t go into a latent state after the acute infection
HSV-1
HSV-2
HV
VZV
EBV

Superinfection is
Subsequent infection by same organism in a host (after recovery).
Infection by same organism in a host before recovery.
It is a condition where due to infection at localized sites like appendix and tonsil, general effects
are produced.
Cross infection occurring in hospital.
It is one where clinical affects are not apparent
Focal infection is
Subsequent infection by same organism in a host (after recovery).
Infection by same organism in a host before recovery.
It is a condition where due to infection at localized sites like appendix and tonsil, general effects
are produced.
Cross infection occurring in hospital.
It is one where clinical affects are not apparent

Nosocomial infection is
Subsequent infection by same organism in a host (after recovery).
Infection by same organism in a host before recovery.
It is a condition where due to infection at localized sites like appendix and tonsil, general effects
are produced.
Cross infection occurring in hospital.
It is one where clinical affects are not apparent

Reinfection is
Infection by same organism in a host before recovery.
Subsequent infection by same organism in a host (after recovery).
It is a condition where due to infection at localized sites like appendix and tonsil, general effects
are produced.
Cross infection occurring in hospital.
It is one where clinical affects are not apparent

Subclinical infection is
Infection by same organism in a host before recovery.
Subsequent infection by same organism in a host (after recovery).
It is a condition where due to infection at localized sites like appendix and tonsil, general effects
are produced.
Cross infection occurring in hospital.
It is one where clinical affects are not apparent

Insects serve as a biological vector in

Dysentery
Typhoid fever
Malaria
Cholera
Syphilis

Choose a noncommunicable disease

Diphteria
Tetanus
AIDS
Influenza
Leprosy

Choose a weakly communicable disease

Diphteria
Tetanus
AIDS
Influenza
Leprosy

Choose a disease that is not zoonotic

Rabies
Plague
Anthrax
Tetanus
Salmonellosis

In Human Microbiome Project the species of microorganism living in human gastro-intestinal

tract are studied by
Pure culture isolation technique
Complex staining methods
Immunological methods
Metagenomics
Human DNA sequencing

Choose a bacteria able to survive inside the phagocyte

E. coli
S. aureus
Mycobacterium
All Gram-negative bacteria
Bacteria that lack a cell wall

Choose a bacteria able to survive inside the phagocyte

E. coli
Legionella
Protoplasts
All Gram-negative bacteria
Bacteria that naturally lack a cell wall

Krebs Cycle
Occurs only in Strict anaerobes
Occurs only in Strict aerobes
Occurs in Facultative anaerobes
Occurs only in Aerobic Respiration
Occurs only in Anaerobic Respiration