SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : SR ELITE & SR AIIMS S60 (TS) DATE : 05-10-2021
SUB : BOTANY NEET WEEKEND TEST- 8 Max.Marks : 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 questions

BOTANY 4. CH 3 − (CH 2 )18 − COOH is the

SECTION - A (1) Palmatic acid (2) Stearic acid
1. Which of the following is a substituted (3) Arachidic acid (4) Oleic acid
methane 5. Yeast complete their cell cycle in
(1) Nucleotides (2) Amino acids (1) 9 minutes (2) 90 minutes
(3) Glycerol (4) Nitrogen bases (3) 24 hrs (4) 72 hrs
2. Chemical and physical properties of 6. Lecithin is a
amino acids is essentially due to (1) Amino acid (2) Glycolipid
(1) R – group (3) Phospholipid (4) Protein
(2) R and − NH 2 group 7. Condensation of chromatin to
(3) R – group & −COOH group chromosome start in
(4) R – group, − NH 2 group and − COOH (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
groups (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
3. Select out the incorrect match 8. Which of the following is not an aromatic
amino acid
(1) Tryptophan
(2) Tyrosine
(3) Phenylalanine
(4) Threonine
9. Which of the following is suitable for
COOH
|
study of morphology of chromosomes
(3) H − C − NH 2 = Glycine (1) Prophase
|
H

COOH
(2) Metaphase
|
(4) H − C − NH 2 = Serine (3) Anaphase
|
CH2OH
(4) Telophase

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10. Identify given biomolecules (3) Cellulose (4) Inulin
17. Which of the following is structural
homopolymers
(1) Starch (2) Glycogen
(3) Cellulose (4) All the above
18. The stage during which separation of
(1) Adenine (2) Adenosine
homologous paired chromosome begins is
(3) Adenylic acid (4) Guanine
(1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis
11. Split of centromere is associated with
(3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
19. Chitin is a polymer of
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(1) N – acetylgalactosamine
12. Select out the incorrect match
(2) N – acetylglucosamine
(1) Alkaloids – Morphine
(3) N – acetylmuramic acid
(2) Terpenoids – Diterpenes
(4) N – acetyltilosamiuronic acid
(3) Lectins – Concanavalins
20. In human cell cycle Interphase last, what
(4) Toxins – Vinblastin
percentage of cell cycle
13. Which of the following is not a
(1) 5 % (2) > 95 %
significance of mitosis
(3) 24 % (4) 76 %
(1) Restore surface area &volume ration
21. K m value is the
(2) Growth of organism
(3) Repair (1)Substrate concentration

(4) Genetic variations (2) Enzyme concentration

14. Which of the following directly involved (3) Activation energy of reaction

in absorption of glucose in cells (4) Temperature

(1) Insulin (2) GLUT – 4 22. To ensure correct division and formation
of progeny cells with intact genome,
(3) Trypsin (4) Sucrose which of the following process/processes
15. Centriole duplication takes place during have to take place in a coordinated way
(1) G1 (2) S (1) Cell division (2) DNA replication
(3) Cell growth (4) All the above
(3) G2 (4) M
23. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform
16. Which of the following is not a polymer
during
of glucose
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(1) Starch (2) Glycogen
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
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24. Recombination nodules appear during (2) Divides twice, DNA replicates twice
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (3) Divides once, DNA replicates twice
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene (4) Divides twice, DNA replicates once
25. ‘Ash’ obtained by burining living tissues 30. Which of the following is not component
contain of nucleotide
(1) Organic compounds (1) heterocyclic compound
(2) All biomolecules (2) monosaccharide
(3) Inorganic elements
(3) phosphoric acid
(4) Acid soluble organic substances
(4) amino acid
26. What is the feature of Diplotene
31. Statement – A: All cells exhibit cell
(1) Synapsis
division.
(2) Crossing over
Statement –B: Cells of G 0 stage are
(3) Chiasmata appearance
(4) Terminalisation metabolically active.

27. Statement – I: Lipids may be simple fatty (1) Both statements A & B are correct
acids or a glycerol esterified with fatty (2) Statement A is correct and statement
acid/s B is incorrect
Statement–II: Lipids are found in acid (3) Statement A is incorrect and
insoluble pool and not strictly statement B is correct
biomacromolecules (4) Both statements A & B are incorrect
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are true 32. Which of the following is not a
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II Pyrimidine
is false.
(1) A (2) T
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II
(3) U (4) C
is true.
33. G0 phase occur at the end of
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are
false (1) G1 (2) G2

28. NAD + is the (3) S (4) M

(1) apoenzyme (2) coenzyme 34. Which of the following is most dramatic

(3) metal ion (4) activator period of cell cycle

29. During meiosis, the cell (1) G1 (2) S

(1) Divides once, DNA replicates once (3) G2 (4) M

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35. Living state is a 41. This arrangement of chromosomes
(1) non equilibrium become possible due to
(2) non equilibrium steady state
(3) equilibrium steady state
(4) both 2 & 3
SECTION – B
36. Term ‘bivalents’ reflects the fact that the
(1) Complex contain 4 chromatids (1)Poleward movement of chromosomes
(2) Complex contain 2 homologues due to depolymerisation of microtubules
(3) Complex contain 4 arms (2)Movement of poles farther apart
(4) Complex contain 2 chromatids (3) Activation of MPF
37. Beginning of diplotene is recognized by (4) Both 1 & 2
(1) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex 42. Nucleotides has how many distinct
(2) Appearance of chiasmata chemical components
(3) Terminalisation of chiasmata (1) 1 (2) 2
(4) Alignment of bivalents in spindle (3) 3 (4) 4
apparatus 43. In non-competitive inhibition
38. In a synapsed chromosomes how many (1) K m value decreases
DNA molecules remain present (2) K m value increases
(1)1 (2)2
(3) K m value remains unchanged
(3) 4 (4) 3
(4) Vmax value will not change
39. Which of the following involved in cell
44. Sulpha drugs are competitive inhibitors in
cycle events
bacteria for the synthesis of
(1) duplication of genome
(1) Folic acid
(2) synthesis of other cell constitutes
(2) P-amino – benzoic acid
(3) division of cell in daughter cells
(3) Cytochrome oxidase
(4) all the above
(4) All the above
40. Meiosis occur in
45. Secondary metabolite pigment present in
(1) Haploid cells
the vacuole is
(2) Diploid somatic cell
(1) Anthocyanin (2) Astaxanthin
(3) Germinal diploid cells
(3) Phycobilin (4) Carotenoid
(4) Any of the diploid cells

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46. Most of the organelles duplicate in 52. Which of the following is correct with
(1) G 2 phase (2) G1 phase respect comparison of India with

(3) S phase (4) Prophase Scandinavian country like Norway?

47. Bivalent chromosomes are aligned on the (1) Norway has more plant diversity

equatorial plate during (2) India has greater ecological diversity

(1) Metaphase I (2) Metaphase (3) Norway has more biodiversity

(3) Metaphase II (4) anaphase hotspots

48. M.phase starts with (4) India has lesser diversity of birds

(1) G1 Phase (2) G2 53. Submucous layer of gut is mainly formed

by
(3) S.Phase (4) Prophase
(1) Dense connective tissue
49. What is the correct order of chemical
(2) Loose connective tissue
constituents of living tissue / cell interms
(3) Elastic connective tissue
of % of total cellular mass
(4) Muscular tissue
I) Nucleic acids II) Proteins
54. Read the following statements
III) H 2O IV) Carbohydrates
(a) Fruit eating birds are termed
V) Lipids VI) Ions
detritivores
(1) I > II > III > IV > V > VI
(b) Rich diversity of the Earth is essential
(2) III > II > IV > I > V > VI
for ecosystem health
(3) III > II > I > IV > V > VI
(c) Temperate climates are relatively
(4) VI > V > IV > III > II > I
more constant than to tropical climates
50. Which of the following is example of
(d) The species-area relationship in
class 4
logarithmic scale is rectangular hyperbola
(1) C – C lyases (2) C – O lyases In the above, the INCORRECT
(3) C – N lyases (4) All the above statements are
ZOOLOGY (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
SECTION – A (2) (a) and (d) only
51. Emulsification of fats occurs in (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(1) Liver (2) Gall bladder (4) (c) and (d) only
(3) Small intestine (4) Stomach 55. All are stimulants EXCEPT
(1) Caffeine (2) Nicotine
(3) Heroin (4) Cocaine

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56. Which of the following proteolytic (2) Senescence – Between 16 and 21
enzyme of stomach is functional in both years
infants and adults? (3) Adolescence – Between 16 and 21
(1) Trypsin (2) Rennin years
(3) Renin (4) Pepsin (4) Senescence – Between 12 and 18
57. Match the three columns with a correct years
combination 61. Lacteals are seen in the elevated mucosal
Column-I Column-II Column-III components of
(1) Dodo Mauritus Viviparous (1) Stomach (2) Small intestine
bird (3) Oesophagus (4) Large intestine
(2) Thylacine Australia Marsupial 62. The logo for WWF is
mammal (1) Rhino (2) White elephant
(3) Quaaga America Placental (3) Tiger (4) Giant panda
mammal 63. Match the following and choose the
(4) Steller’s India Aquatic answer
sea cow mammal List-I List-II
58. Before the emergence of third molars in A. Enamel I. Symbiosis
an eighteen year old person, the kinds of B. Caecum II. Mastication
teeth that are ‘8’ each in total set of
C. Serosa III. Mesothelium
dentition are
D. Rugae IV. Smooth muscle
(1) Incisors and canines
(2) Incisors, canines and premolars E. Sphincter V. Irregular folds

(3) Incisors, premolars and molars (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-V, E-IV
(4) Canines, premolars and molars (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV
59. In the equation species-area relationship, (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-V
S = CAZ, the Y-intercept is (4) A-II, B-I, C-V, D-IV, E-III
(1) S (2) C 64. Which of the following belongs to in situ
(3) A (4) Z conservation?
60. The age that bridges childhood and (1) Botanical garden
adulthood is (2) National park
(1) Adolescence – Between 12 and 18 (3) Zoological park
years (4) Wildlife safari
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65. Read the following disorders Column-I Column-II
(a) Respiratory failure (a) Tropane alkaloid (i) Cannabis sativa
(b) Heart failure
(c) Cerebral hemorrhage (b) Morphine (ii) Datura
Excessive doses of drugs may lead to stramonium
coma and death due to (c) Charas (iii) Papaver
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only somniferum
(d) Crack (iv) Erythroxylum
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
coca
66. Read the following enzymes (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
[Pepsinogen, trypsinogen, (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
aminopeptidase, dipeptidase] (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
In the above, how many proteolytic 71. Which of the following is INCORRECT
enzymes are belonged to pancreatic combination?
juice? (1) Genetic diversity: Genetic variability
(1) Six (2) Five present within the species
(3) Four (4) Three (2) Species diversity: Variety of species
67. An American water weed had become a and abundance of species
troublesome invasive species in India is (3) Ecological diversity: Ecosystem
(1) Parthenium (2) Eichhornia variety present within a geographical area
(3) Lantana (4) Eupatorium (4) Alpha diversity: A comparison of
68. Identify the MISMATCHED combination diversity between ecosystems
from the following 72. Read the following statements
(1) Frenulum – Tongue (a) Goblet cells are found in mucosal
epithelium of small intestine
(2) Glisson’s capsule – Pancreas
(b) Parietal cells are found in parotid
(3) Tinea coli – Large intestine salivary glands
(4) Three roots – Upper molar (c) G-cells are found in stomach to
69. The term 'biodiversity hotspot' was secrete gastrin hormone
(d) Chief cells are found in liver to
coined by produce bile
(1) Alexander Von Humboldt In the above, the correct statements are
(2) Paul Ehrlich (1) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) David Tilman (2) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) Norman Myers (3) (a) and (c)

70. Match the following (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
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73. Endemism with regard to a species which (d) Internal anal sphincter
(1) Exhibits cosmopolitan in its (1) b, c, d, a (2) a, d, b, c
distribution (3) c, a, b, d (4) b, a, c, d
(2) Is confined to that region and not 78. The following is one of the reasons for
found anywhere else the maximum loss of biodiversity
(3) Is found in temperate regions only (1) Consumption of food by animals
(4) Belonged to faunal species but not (2) Drinking more water by animals
floral species (3) Natural changes in global ecosystem
74. Choose the correct hydrolytic reaction (4) Invasion of exotic species
(1) Emulsified fats 
Lipase
pH 1.8
→ Fatty acids 79. The following are submucosal
components of alimentary canal
(2) Nucelosides  
Nucleosidase
pH 7.8
→ Nucleotides
(1) Brunner’s glands and Meissner’s
(3) Proteins 
Pepsin
pH 1.8
→ Proteoses + Peptones
plexus
(4) Starch → Glucose + Fructose
Maltase
pH 7.8 (2) Intestinal glands and Myenteric
75. Diacetyl morphine is plexus
(1) Angel dust (2) Crack (3) Gastric glands and Choroid plexus
(3) Smack (4) Ganja (4) Bowman’s glands and Submucosal
76. Although all the biodiversity hotspots put plexus
together cover less than …. (A)…. of the 80. Which of the following content increases
earth’s land area, the number of species by smoking in blood and reduces the
they collectively harbour is extremely concentration of haembound oxygen?
high and strict protection of these (1) CO2 (2) Cl
hotspots could reduce the ongoing mass (3) Cl2 (4) CO
extinctions by almost …. (B)…. 81. The digestive activity that possible in
In the above, A and B are lowest pH in the gut of our body is the
(1) A-3%, B-20% (2) A-2%, B-20% conversion of
(3) A-3%, B-30% (4) A-2%, B-30% (1) Protein into proteoses
77. Arrange the following sphincters from the (2) Starch into maltose
anterior to posterior of alimentary canal (3) Nucleic acid into nucleotides
(a) External anal sphincter (4) Maltose into glucose
(b) Cardiac sphincter
(c) Pyloric sphincter

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82. Which argument says that biodiversity
plays a major role in many ecosystem
services that nature provides?
(1) Narrowly utilitarian argument
(2) Broadly utilitarian argument
(3) Ethical argument
(4) Classical argument
83. Read the following statements
(i) Muscularis of alimentary canal is
mainly formed by smooth muscles
(ii) Gall bladder helps in concentration of
bile
(iii) Mucus and bicarbonates in gastric
juice protect mucosa of stomach from
excoriation by HCl
(iv) Sucrase is the enzyme of pancreatic
juice that digests sucrose into glucose and
fructose
In the above,
(1) All are correct except (i)
(2) All are correct except (ii)
(3) All are correct except (iii)
(4) All are correct except (iv)
84. The number of species within a defined
region is
(1) Species domination
(2) Species richness
(3) Species cohabitation
(4) Species extinction
85. Identify the correct combination from the
following
(1) Amphetamine: Prevents the sleep
(2) LSD: Extracted from poppy plant
(3) Barbiturate: A stimulant
(4) Coke: Opiate narcotic
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SECTION – B
86. Enzyme lipase occurs in
(1) Gastric juice, bile juice, pancreatic
juice and intestinal juice
(2) Gastric juice, pancreatic juice and
intestinal juice
(3) Bile juice, pancreatic juice and
intestinal juice
(4) Pancreatic juice and intestinal juice
87. Cardiac glands secrete
(1) Enzyme (2) Mucus
(3) Intrinsic factor (4) HCl
88. Identify the INCORRECT combination
from the following
(1) Biodiversity reserve: Most effective
way to conserve the plant diversity of an
area
(2) North America: The largest tropical
Amazonian rain forest is seen
(3) Mammals: Highest number of them is
in endangered condition in vertebrates
(4) Passenger pigeon: An example of
extinction due to over exploitation
89. Read the following
Assertion (A): The conservation of
biodiversity is a collective responsibility
of all nations.
Reason (R): Biodiversity knows no
political boundaries.
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains
A
(2) Both A and R are true and R doesn’t
explain A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false
90. Read the following some side effects due (3) Tunnel vision is due to alcohol
to misuse of a few drugs to sportspersons consumption
(i) Masculinisation (4) Anxiety, shakiness etc, are the
(ii) Increased aggressiveness symptoms of withdrawal syndrome
(iii) Mood swings 94. Match the following
(iv) Depression Column-I Column-II
(v) Abnormal menstrual cycles (a) Submaxillary (i) Amino
(vi) Excessive hair growth on face and glands peptidase
body
(b) Crypts of (ii) Alpha
(vii) Enlargement of clitoris
Leiberkun amylase
(viii) Deepening of voice
(c) Islets of (iii) Insulin
The above features in females are the side
Langerhans
effects of excessive usage of
(d) Gastric glands of (iv) Intrinsic
(1) Narcotic analgesics
stomach factor
(2) Anabolic steroids
(3) Diuretics (4) Anti-diuretics (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
91. Sigmoid colon is the immediate (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
continuation of (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(1) Rectum
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(2) Descending colon
(3) Ascending colon 95. Majority of narcotic drugs are obtained
(4) Transverse colon from
92. If all the members of a host species were (1) Flowering plants
to be died then all the unique parasites of
(2) Non-flowering plants
that species could also die off. This evil
quartet is (3) Bacteria and fungi
(1) Coexistence (2) Co-evolution (4) Prokaryotes
(3) Cooperation (4) Co-extinction 96. Which of the following enzyme if
93. Which of the following is an activates can activate another inactive
INCORRECT statement? enzyme of same digestive juice?
(1) Nicotine mimics the neurotransmitter, (1) Pepsin of gastric juice
acetylcholine (2) Lipase of intestinal juice
(2) Tobacco inhalation causes heart (3) Trypsin of pancreatic juice
diseases and lowers the blood pressure (4) Bile salts of bile juice

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97. Western Ghats ecosystems could be less PHYSICS
functional if one of its tree frog species is SECTION – A
lost forever. This statement can be 101. A : Work done by all the forces is equal
explained by taking to change in kinetic energy
(1) Rivet popper hypothesis B : When a non conservative force does
(2) Species-area relationships work, the mechanical energy of system is
not conserved
(3) Importance of ex situ conservation
(1) Both A and B are true
(4) Theory of germinal selection (2) Both A and B are false
98. Identify the correct combination with (3) A is true and B is false
(4) A is false and B is true
respect to substrate and acting enzyme
102. If a body undergoes a headon elastic
Column-I Column-II
collision with another identical body at
(Substrate) (Enzyme) rest, then the maximum potential energy
(1) Starch Maltase stored in the system during the collision is
equal to
(2) Glycerol Lipase
(1) zero
(3) Sucrose Invertase (2) half of the total initial kinetic energy
(4) Polypeptide Disaccharidase of the system
(3) total initial kinetic energy of the
99. Read the following statements
system
(a) Nations endowed with rich
(4) one fourth of the total initial kinetic
biodiversity can expect to reap enormous
energy of the system
benefits.
103. A ball falls from a certain height on to a
(b) Amazonian rain forests are ‘Earth’s
hard floor and loses 25 % of its initial
lungs’ while wetlands are termed ‘Earth’s
potential energy after impinging on the
kidneys’
floor. The coefficient of restitution is
(c) Cryopreservation comes under onsite
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/4
conservation
(d) Historic Convention, ‘The Earth 3
(3) 3/4 (4)
Summit’ held in Rio de Janeiro in 2002 2
In the above, the correct statements are 104. Internal forces can change
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(1)The linear momentum but not the
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
kinetic energy of a system
100. Which of the following is not correct with
(2) The kinetic energy but not the linear
regard to reserpine?
momentum of a system
(1) It is an alkaloid
(3) Linear momentum as well as kinetic
(2) It is extracted from roots energy of a system
(3) It is an active chemical (4) Neither the linear momentum nor the
(4) It is hypertensive drug kinetic energy of a system
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105. A block of mass m is pulled along a (1) 2M (2) M
circular arc, by means of a constant M
horizontal force F as shown. Work done (3) (4) 4 M
2
by this force in pulling block from A to B
109. Two particles are executing SHM in a
is
straight line. Amplitude A and time period
R
37° T of both the particles are equal. At time
F
R t=0, one particle is at displacement
B −A
F x1 = + A and the other at x2 = and
2
A
they are approaching towards each other.
FR 3
(1) (2) FR After what time they cross each other?
2 5
3
(1) T/6 (2) T/3
(3) FR (4) mgR
2 (3) T/12 (4) T/4
106. The force acting on a particle of mass 110. A body of mass m tied at the end of a
1kg which starts from rest is f=t3 then the
light string and whirled in vertical circle.
power associated with the particle is
proportional to If the maximum tension in the string is 8
(1) t5 (2) t6 times the weight of the body. The net
(3) t7 (4) t8
force on the body when the string
107. The position of a particle moving on a
straight line under the action of a force is becomes horizontal is
2
given as x = 50t – 5t . Here, x is in metre (1) 3mg (2) 5mg
and t is in second. If mass of the particle 26 mg (4) 10 mg
(3)
is 2 kg, the work done by the force acting
on the particle in first 5 s is 111. Mass is distributed uniformly over a thin
(1) 2500 J (2) –2500 J square plate. If two end points of a
(3) 5000 J (4) –5000 J diagonal are (-2, 0) and (2, 2), what are
108. In the figure, the ball A is released from the coordinates of centre of mass of plate?
rest when the spring is at its natural
(1) (2, 1) (2) (2, 2)
(unstretched) length. For the block B of
mass M to leave contact with the ground (3) (1, 0) (4) (0, 1)
at some stage, the minimum mass of A 112. Mass is non-uniformly distributed on the
must be
circumference of a ring of radius a and
centre at origin. Let b be the distance of
centre of mass of the ring from origin.
Then
(1) b = a (2) 0 ≤ b < a
(3) b < a (4)b > a

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113. Find the velocity of centre of mass if the (1) Vertically up
triangle formed is equilateral (2) Vertically down
m (3) In a parabolic path
(4)Horizontally

s
/s

1m/
1m
117. A faulty beam balance (not hinged at the
middle) measures the weight of body.
m 1m/s m When the body is placed in the left pan, it
is balanced by weight 'W1 ' in the right
1
(1) 12ms −1 (2) ms −1 pan. When the body is placed in the right
12
pan, it is balanced by weight 'W2 ' in left
1
(3) ms −1 (4) zero pan, then correct weight of the body is
6
given by
114. The density of a non-uniform rod of W1 + W2
(1) W1W2 (2)
length 1m is given by ρ ( x ) = a 1 + bx 2 ( ) 2

where a and b are constants and (3)

(W1 − W2 ) (4)
W1 − W2
2 2
0 ≤ x ≤ 1.The centre of mass of the rod
118. A small ball of mass 1.0 kg is attached to
will be at
one end of a 1.0 m long massless string
3( 2 + b )
(1) (2) 4 ( 2 + b ) and the other end of the string is hung
4(3 + b) 3( 3 + b )
from a point. When the resulting
(3) (
3 3 + b)
(4) 4 ( 3 + b ) pendulum is making 300 from the
4( 2 + b) 3( 2 + b ) vertical, what is the magnitude of torque
about the point of suspension. (Take g =
115. (n-1) equal point masses, each of mass m,
10 m/s2)
are placed at the vertices of a regular n-
(1) 5 N – m (2) 5 3 N – m
polygon. The vacant vertex has a
r
position vector a with respect to the
(3) 0 (
(4) 5 1 + 3 Nm )
centre of the polygon. Find the position 119. From a complete ring of mass m and
vector of centre of mass. radius R, a 30° sector is removed. The
r r M.I. of the remaining ring about an axis
r a (n) r a through centre of ring and normal to its
(1) r = − (2) r =−
( n − 1) n plane is
r 3 11
r a r r (1) mR 2 (2) mR 2
(3) r = − (4) r = −a 4 12
( n − 1)
2
(3) mR 2 (4) mR 2
116. A uniform thin rod is held vertically on a 5
horizontal smooth table and released. If
the rod is in motion, the centre of mass of
the rod moves
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120. Four particles each equal to m are placed R R
(1) − (2) ±
at the four vertices of a rectangle of 2 2
length a breath b. Then the moment of +R
(3) (4) − R
inertia of system about the diagonal of 4
rectangle is 124. A dog weighing 5 kg is standing on a flat
m a boat so that it is 10 m from the shore. The
m
dog walks 4 m on the boat towards the
b a 2 + b2 shore and then halts. The boat weighs 20
kg and one can assume that there is no
m m friction between it and the water. How far
is the dog from the shore at the end of this
2
 ab   ab  time?
(1) 2m   (2) m 
a+b a+b (1) 3.2 m (2) 0.8 m
(3) 10 m (4) 6.8 m
2m ( ab )
2
2
(3) 2 2
(4) m(a + b) 125. If uniform sphere is heated then
a +b A) centre of mass remains at same
121. Moment of inertia of a sphere about its position B) Radius of gyration about a
diameter as axis is I. 8 such identical diameter doesn’t change
spheres are melted and recast as a single (1) both A and B are correct
sphere. The moment of inertia of the big (2) both A and B are wrong
sphere about a diameter as axis will be (3) A is correct but B is wrong
(1) 32 I (2) 8 I (4) A is wrong but B is correct
(3) 64 I (4) 16 I 126. A simple pendulum has time period T1.
122. The radius of gyration of a hollow The point of suspension is now moved
sphere about a tangent is
upward according to equation y = kt
2

7 2
(1) R (2) R where k = 1m / sec 2 . If new time period is
5 5
3 5 T12
(3) R (4) R T2 then ratio T 2 will be
5 3 2

123. A uniform disc of radius R lies in the x-y (1) 2/3 (2) 5/6
plane, with its centre at origin. Its (3) 6/5 (4) 3/2
moment of inertia about z-axis is equal to 127. A particle executes SHM with time period
its moment of inertia about line y=x+c. T and amplitude A. The average speed in
The value of ‘c’ will be
y
one time period is
c
x+

2A 4A
y=

(1) (2)
T T
O x 8A
(3) (4) zero
T
z

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128. Two simple pendulums have time periods 3) remains same
5T 4) may decrease or remains same
T and . They start vibrating at the
4
132. A spring hung vertically from a fixed
same instant from the mean position in
point is attached with a spherical shell of
the same phase. The phase difference
mass ‘m’ filled with water of mass ‘m’.
between them when the bigger pendulum
If a hole is made at bottom of the shell
completes one oscillations will be
then time period of oscillation of the
π π
(1) (2) spring load system
6 4
(1) Decreases
π π
(3) (4) (2) Increases
3 2
129. A body of mass 0.01 kg executes simple (3) first decreases and then increases
harmonic motion about x=0 under the (4) no change
influence of a force shown below. The 133. A particle executes SHM along a straight
period of the S.H.M. is
line with an amplitude A. The potential
F(N)
energy is maximum when its
8.0
(1) acceleration is minimum
+2.0
x(m)
-2.0 (2) restoration force zero
-8.0
(3) displacement is half the amplitude
(4) kinetic energy is zero
(1) 0.628 s (2)6.28 s 134. The amplitude of a damped oscillator
(3) 0.314 s (4)3.14 s becomes half in one minute. The
1
130. For a simple harmonic oscillator amplitude after 3 minute will be times
X
(1) frequency variation of kinetic energy the original, where X is
is same as the frequency of oscillation (1) 2 × 3 (2) 23

(2) average kinetic energy in one (3) 32 (4) 3× 22

oscillation is half of the maximum 135. A system is shown in the figure. The time
kinetic energy period for small oscillations of the two
(3) at its mean position, kinetic energy is blocks will be.
minimum k 2K
m m
(4) average speed in one oscillation is
equal to half of the maximum speed 3m 3m
(1) 2π (2) 2π
131. If iron sphere is replaced by wooden k 2k
sphere of same mass, time period 3m 3m
(3) 2π (4) 2π
1) increases 2) decreases 4k 8k
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 SECTION – B shell explodes into two fragments P and Q
of equal mass. If the speed of the
136. The velocities of a body executing SHM
fragment P immediately after explosion
at displacement ‘a’ and ‘b’ are ‘b’ and ‘a’
becomes zero, where does the centre of
respectively. The amplitude of S.H.M will
mass of the fragments hit the ground with
be
respect to point of projection?
(1) a + b (2) a - b
u 2 sin 2 θ u 2 sin 2θ
(1) (2)
(3) a2 + b2 (4) a 2 − b2 g g
137. A particle of mass m is fixed to one end u sin θ
2 2
u sin θ
(3) (4)
of a light rigid rod of length l and rotated 2g g
in a vertical circular path about its other 142. Two spheres of masses 2M and M are
end. The minimum speed of the particle initially at rest at a distance R apart. Due
at its highest point must be to mutual force of attraction they
approach each other. When they are at
(1) Zero (2) gl
separation R/2, the acceleration of the
(3) 1.5gl (4) 2gl centre of mass of sphere would be
(1) zero (2) g m/s2
138. A particle is executing S.H.M with a
(3) 3g m/s2 (4) 12g m/s2
frequency ‘f’, the frequency with K.E.
143. A simple pendulum suspended in a
oscillates is vehicle has a time period T when the
(1) f (2) f/2 vehicle travels with constant velocity
along a frictionless road AB. What will
(3) 2f (4) 4f be its time period, when the vehicle
139. Two particles A and B, initially at rest, travels along the frictionless path BC?
moves towards each other under a mutual B A
force of attraction. At the instant when
the speed of A is V and the speed of B is θ
2V, the speed of centre of mass is
(1)3V (2)V C D
(3)1.5V (4)Zero T T
(1) (2)
tan θ cos θ
140. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 30 kg T T
are placed along a vertical line. The first (3) (4)
sin θ sec θ
block is raised through a height of 7 cm. 144. A linear harmonic oscillator of force
By what distance should the second mass constant 2 × 106 N/m and amplitude 0.01
be moved to raise the centre of mass by 1 m has a total mechanical energy of 160
cm? joule. Its
(1) 3 cm downward (2)3 cm upward (1) maximum potential energy is 100 J
(3) 1 cm upward (4) 1 cm downward
141. A shell is fired from a gun with a muzzle (2) maximum kinetic energy is 100 J
velocity u m/sec at an angle θ with the (3) maximum potential energy is 60 J
horizontal. At the top of the trajectory the (4) minimum potential energy is zero
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Page 16
145. The displacement (in metres) of a particle (1) α = 0.7 x (2) α = −200x 2
performing SHM is related to time t (in
(3) α = −10x (4) α = 100x3
 π
seconds) as x = 0.05 cos  4π t +  . The 149. The period of a particle executing SHM
 4
minimum time after kinetic energy is is 8s. At t = 0 it is at the mean position.
minimum will be The ratio of the distance covered by the
1 1
(1) s (2) s particle in the 1 second to the 2nd second
16 3
3 1 is
(3) s (4) s
16 8 1
(1) (2) 2
146. Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended 2 +1
together by a massless spring of constant 1
(3) (4) 2 +1
k. When the masses are in equilibrium, 2
m1 is removed without disturbing the
150. The figure shows a disc of radius 3R from
system; the amplitude velocity of
remaining mass is which a circular hole of radius R is cut as
shown in the figure. The distance of the
K centre of mass of the remaining object
from the point O is
m1
m2
2R

 m1 g  O
(1) m1g/k (2)  
 
 km2  3R
( m1 + m2 ) g  mg 
(3) (4)  2 
k  km 
 1  (1) R/4 (2) R/5
147. A freely falling body takes 2 seconds to (3) R/3 (4) R./6
reach the ground on a planet, when it is CHEMISTRY
dropped from a height of 8m. If the period SECTION-A
of a simple pendulum is π seconds on the 151. Which of the following compounds
planet, the length of the pendulum is exhibit geometrical isomerism?
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m (1) C2 H 5 Br
(3) 1.5 m (4) 3 m
(2) ( CH )2 ( COOH )2
148. Which of the following relations between
the acceleration α and the displacement
(3) ( CH 2 )2 ( COOH )2
‘x’ of a particle is simple harmonic (4) CH 3CHO

motion?

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152. Assertion (A): CH 3CH ( OH ) COOH
CH3
is Ι
H3C − CH = CH − CH − COOH may exhibit
optically active
(1) Geometrical isomerism only
Reason (R): CH 3CH ( OH ) COOH does not
(2) Optical isomerism only
possess any elements of symmetry
(3) Geometrical and optical isomerism
The correct answer is
(4) Tantomerism
(1) Both A and R are true and R
157. Fischer projection indicates
expalains A
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not (1) Horizontal substituent’s above the

explain A plane ( i.e directed towards viewer)

(3) A is true, R is false (2) Vertical substituents above the plane

(4) A is false, R is true (3) Both horizontal and vertical

153. Angle of rotation of plane polarized light substituents below the plane ( i.e directed
can be measured by away from viewer)
(1) Manometer (4) Both horizontal and vertical
(2) Galvanometer substituents above the plane
(3) polarimeter 158. Which statement is incorrect about
(4) Viscometer diastereomers?
154. Which of the following is optically (1) Both are non super imporable and
active? non mirror images
(1) Butane (2) Physical properties are different
(2) 4-methyl heptanes (3) Both are always chiral molecules
(3) 3-methyl heptane (4) Both may or may not be optically
(4) 3- methyl pentane active
155. (± ) Lactic acid is optically in active due 159. Number of possible emantiomeric pairs
to for open structure of fructose are
(1) Internal compensation (1) 8 (2) 4
(2) External compensation (3) 16 (4) 2
(3) Presence of plane of symmetry 160. How many optically active stereomers are
(4) Absence of asymmetric carbon possible for butane-2,3-diol?
156. The molecule (1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 1
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161. The correct statement about the 163. Consider the following representation
CH3 CH3
compounds I,II and III is
COOH
COOCH3 COOH
H Br Br H

H OH HO H H OH

H Br H Br
H OH H OH HO H

C2H5 C2H5
COOH COOCH3 COOCH3

(I)
(II) (III)
They are
(1) Enantiomers
(1) II and III are enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(2) I and II are enantiomers
(3) Conformational isomers
(3) I and III are enantiomers
(4) Identical
(4) I and II are diastereomers
164. Number of chiral carbon atoms in
162. Which one of the following molecules has
S-configuration? Cl
is
COOH
CH3
(1) 4 (2) 2
HO CH3 (3) 1 (4) 3
165. Geometrical isomers differ in
(1) H (1) Position of functional group
COOH
(2) Position of atoms
(3) Spatial arrangement of atoms
H OH
(4) Length of carbon chain
166. The number of geometrical isomers in
(2) CH2COOH CH 3CH = CHCH 2CH = CH 2 are
COOH (1) Two (2) Three

Br (3) Four (4) Five

HO
167. Reason for geometrical isomerism shown

CH2COOH by 2-butene is
(3)
COOH (1) Chiral carbon
(2) Free rotation about single bond
CH3
CH2OH (3) Free rotation about double bond
(4) Restricted rotation about double
(4) C6H5
bond
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Page 19
168. Which one of the following will not show 173. Calculate the  H +  ion of 0.008M
geometrical isomerism?
Ca ( OH )2 is
H3C Cl
C=C (1) 2 × 10−7 M (2) 6.25 × 10−13 M
H Br (3) 1.4 × 10−12 M (4) 1.25 × 10−11 M
(1)
H3C Cl 174. 50 liters of 0.1M HCl is thoroughly mixed
C=C with 50 litres of 0.2M NaOH the POH of
H3C Br
(2) the resulting solution is
H Cl
(1) 1.0 (2) 0.0
C=C
D Br (3) 7.0 (4) 1.30
(3)
175. 0.1M HCl solution is diluted by 100
Cl Cl
C=C times.The PH of the solution formed is
Br Br (1) 3 (2) 2
(4)
169. The conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is (3) 4 (4) 6

(1) N2 H 4 (2) N 2 H 5+
176. Which of the following will not hydrolyse
(1) KNO3 (2) KCN
(3) N 3− (4) NH 2OH
(3) Potassium succinate (4) K 2CO3
170. In the complex compounds, the central
metal atom can act as 177. Calculate the hydrolysis constant of a salt
of weak acid ( K a = 2 × 10−6 ) and a weak
(1) A Lewis acid (2) A Lewis base
base ( 5 × 10−7 = K b )
(3) A Bronsted acid
(1) 10-4 (2) 10-2
(4) Arhenious acid
(3) 10-6 (4) 10-8
171. Which of the following is not true for
178. The PH of 0.1 M solution of the following
acidic solutions at room temperature? compounds increases in the order
(1)  H +  > OH −  (2)  H +  > 10−7 M (1) NaCl < NH 4Cl < NaCN < HCl

(3)  H +  < 10−7 M (2) HCl < NH 4Cl < NaCl < NaCN

(3) NaCN < NaCl < NH 4Cl < HCl

(4) OH −  < 10−7 M
(4) NaCN < NH 4Cl < NaCl < HCl
172. Ionic product of water changes when
179. When Ammonium chloride is added to
(1) An acid is added to it
ammonia solution, the PH of the resulting
(2) A base is added to it solution will be
(3) Either a base or acid is added to it (1) Increased (2) Seven
(4) Temperature is changed (3) Decreased (4) Not changed

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20
180. The PH of 10-3M NH 4OH (K b = 10−5 ) is CH3

(1) 3 (2) 11
(3) 10 (4) 4
181. Which of the following is a path function?
(1) Internal energy (2) Enthalpy (2) CH3

(3) Work (4) Entropy O2N

182. When potassium chloride is dissolved in

water
(1) Entropy increases
(2) Entropy decreases I
(3)
(3) Entropy increases & then decreases Br Br
(4) Free energy increases
183. For cyclic process, the condition is
(1) Only ∆U = 0
(2) Only ∆H = 0 I I
(4)
(3) ∆U > 0 and ∆H > 0
(4) Both ∆H = 0 and ∆U = 0 187 Which among the given molecules can
184. For an endothermic reaction, ∆S is exhibit tautomerism?
positive. Then the reaction is
=o =o
(1) Feasible when T ∆ S> ∆H o= Ph
(2) Feasible when ∆H >T ∆ S Ph
(3) Feasible at all temperatures I II III
(4) Not feasible at all
(1) III only (2) Both I and III
185. Entropy change for an adiabatic reversible
(3) Both I and II (4) Both I and III
process is
188. The absolute configuration of
(1) zero (2) +ve
CO2H
(3) –ve (4) Negative or zero
SECTION – B H OH

186. Which of the following biphenyls is is

optically active? H Cl

I
CH3

(1) (2R,3R) (2) (2R,3S)

(3) (2S,3R) (4) (2S,3S)
(1) I

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Page 21
189. According to Cahn-Ingold-Prelog (3) 2 (4) 8
sequence rules, the correct order of
priority for the given group is N 2 ( g ) + 2O2 ( g ) → 2 NO2 ( g ) + X KJ
193.
(1) −COOH > −CH 2OH > −OH > CHO 2NO ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → 2 NO2 ( g ) + Y KJ
(2) −COOH > −CHO > −CH 2OH > −OH The enthalpy of formation of NO is
(3) −OH > −COOH > −CHO > −CH 2OH (1) (2X-2Y) (2) X-Y
(4) −OH > −CHO > −COOH > −CH 2OH (3) (Y-X)/2 (4) (X-Y)/2
190. Select R-isomers from the following 194. Among the following gases heat of
CHO H combustion is highest for
(1) CH 4 (2) C2 H 6
(3) C2 H 4 (4) C2 H 4
H OH OHC OH
195. Heat of neutralisation is least when
(1) NaOH is neutralised by CH3COOH
CH2OH CH3 (2) NaOH od neutralised by HCl
I II (3) NH4OH is neutralised by CH3COOH
CH3
COOH (4) NH4OH is neutralised by HNO3
196. CV values for Monoatomic and diatomic
gases respectively are
Cl H CH3 NH2 1 3 3 5
(1) R, R (2) R, R
2 2 2 2
5 7 3 3
CH2-CH3 H
(3) R, R (4) R, R
2 2 2 2
III IV
197. At certain temperature, the K D2O is
(1) I,III and IV (2) I,II and IV
(3) Only I and III (4) All the above 10−16 M . Then the PD of pure D2O at that
191. Which of the following is ‘Z’ isomer? temperature is
Br (1) 7 (2) 16
CH3
C=C (3) 8 (4) 6
H3C-H2C H +
198. How many H ions present in 10 ml of a
(1)
H2N CH3 solution having PH=10 ?
C=C (1) 1010 (2) 10-10
H CH2-CH3
(2) (3) 6.02X1023 (4) 6.02X1011
I CH(CH3)2 199. At 900C, pure water has  H 3O +  = 10−6
C=C
H3C-H2C moles/lit the value of KW at 900C
(3) OH
(1) 10-14 (2) 10-8
H 2C CHO
C=C
(3) 10-6 (4) 10-12
(4)
H3C-H2C H 200. For a dibasic acid H 2 A ⇌ HA− + H + ( K1 )
192. Number of geometrical isomers possible HA− ⇌ A−2 + H + ( K2 ) , H 2 A ⇌ 2 H + + A−2 ( K ) then
for the following compound (1) K = K1 / K 2 (2) K = K1 + K 2
Cl − CH = CH − CH = CH − CH = CH − Cl (3) K = K1 − K 2 (4) K = K1 K 2
(1) 6 (2) 4
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