Professional Documents
Culture Documents
MCQS CH-1 (2) ...
MCQS CH-1 (2) ...
Q1. Who can become the member of the stock exchange? (1)
1. Having corporate structure, capital adequacy, track record, education 2. there is no exit/entry barrier experience etc.
3. Only corporate member 4. ALL
Q2. From whom the clearing member seek membership as PCM? (1)
1. SEBI 2. NSCCL
3. NSDL 4. None of the above
Q3. who are eligible for acquiring new membership of NSE (1)
1. Individuals, partnership firms 2. Institutions, including subsidiary of banks
3. Body corporate including companies 4. All of the above
Q4. DPG stands for (1)
1. Dominant Promoter/Shareholder Group 2. Dominant Permitted Group
3. Dominant Promotion Group 4. None of the above
Q5. In NSEIL, the minimum paid up capital required for a corporate member in CM segment is _____Lakhs (1)
1. 30 2. 20
3. 100 4. 300
Q6. SEBI made it mandatory for all brokers to use ______ for client (1)
1. PAN 2. UCC
3. BANK ACCOUNT 4. NONE
Q7. The trading member shall issue Contract notes and / or bills_____ (1)
1. CM 2. AP
3. CLIENT 4. NONE
Q8. If a client buy shares worth Rs 2,25,000 and sell share Rs 1,75,000 through a broker , then the maximum brokerage payable
(1)
to him is ___________
1. 10000 2. 20000
3. 24000 4. 14000
Q9. A trading member can face disciplinary proceeding for not complying with the ________ (1)
1. Code of advertisement 2. Code of Payment
3. Code of Disciplinary 4. NONE
Q10. An advertisement & issued by a trading member shall contain ____ (1)
1. The photograph of the directors the trading member 2. The signature of the directors the trading member
3. Addresses of the directors the trading member 4. Name and or his logo, code of NSE membership
Q11. __________ or an individual can become member of an exchange? (1)
1. A corporate, a partnership firm 2. Dealer
3. AP 4. Agent
Q12. Trading members decorous of appointing sub broker are required to submit the following documents to the membership department of the exchange (1)
______________
1. A copy of sub-broker agreement duly certified by TM. 2. Application for registration as a sub- broker with SEBI
3. Recommendation letter to be given by the TM with whom the sub-broker is affiliated 4. All of the above
Q45. Minimum Net Worth For the CM, F&O and WDM is ________
1. 100 2. 200
3. 300 4. None
Q46. Before submission of an application for surrender of membership, the trading member is required to comply with all the
pre-requisites for application of surrender in the prescribed format. The following aspects should be covered in the application for surrender of membership (1)
from a trading member
1. Who has been suspended/ disciplinary action taken by the Exchange 2. In respect of whom any investigation/ action consequent to a
/SEBI default has been initiated by the Exchange /SEBI,
3. Who is falling within the category of ?associates? as defined by SEBI 4. All
Q47. No trading member, who has surrendered its trading membership, their partners (in case of partnership firm) and/ or
dominant shareholders (in case of corporates) is eligible to be re-admitted to the trading membership of the Exchange in any (1)
form for a period of ________
1. One Year 2. Two Years
3. Three Years 4. Four Years
Q48. Which of the Following is Misconduct ? (1)
2. Violation of the provisions of any statute governing the activities,
1. Fraud or fraudulent act or if he is convicted of a criminal offence business and operations of the Exchange
3. Failure to submit to or abide by arbitration 4. Any of the Above
Q49. Which of the following is Unbusiness like Conduct ? (1)
1. Transaction or business dealings in fictitious names 2. Circulation of rumours
3. Unwarrantable business which effects purchases or sales for its account or any
account related to the trading member 4. Any of the Above
Q50. Which of the Following is Unprofessional Conduct ? (1)
2. Business for defaulting constituent who failed to carry out engagements
1. Business in securities in which dealings not permitted relating to securities and is in default to another trading member
3. Carrying out his business during his suspension period 4. Any of the of above
Q51. The relevant authority may require a trading member to suspend its business in part or in whole under following conditions:(1)
1. Prejudicial business 2. Unwarrantable business
3. Unsatisfactory financial condition 4. All of the Above
(1)
Q52. The suspension of a trading member has the following consequences
1. Rights of creditors unimpaired 2. Fulfillment of contracts
3. Suspension of membership rights 4. All of the Above
Q53. A trading member may be declared a defaulter by direction/circular/notification of the relevant authority of the trading
(1)
segment if:
2. He admits or discloses his inability to fulfill or discharge his
1. He is unable to fulfill his obligations duties, obligations and liabilities
3. If he fails to abide by the arbitration
proceedings as laid down under the
4. Any of the Above bye laws, rules and
regulations
Q54. The sub-broker will be required to adhere to NSE?s ?know your clients? requirements. The important documents relating to
(1) dealing through a sub-broker are given below:
1. Individual client registration application form 2. Non-individual client registration application form
3. Sub-broker client agreement 4. All of the Above
Q55. In case of corporate or partnership firm, the directors or partners and in the case of an individual sub-broker applicant
(1) should comply with the following requirements
2. They should not have been convicted of any offence involving
1. They should not be less than 21 years of age
fraud or dishonesty
3. They should not have been debarred by SEBI 4. ALL
Q56. Under Member Constituent Agreement (MCA), trading members are required to make the constituent/clients aware of(1) 1. Trading segment to which TM is
admitted, 2. Particulars of SEBI registration number,
3. The precise nature of the trading
member?s liability for business to be
4. All conducted
Q57. In order to assess the risk involved in trading, TM is required to issue _________ in such format, as may be prescribed by the
(1)
(1) Exchange from time to time and should obtain the same from his constituents duly signed.
1. KYC 2. UDR
3. RDD 4. MCA
Q58. Who issue Purchase/Sale Note on Behalf of Broker ? (1)
1. SEBI 2. NSE
3. SUB-BROKER 4. NONE
Q59. Which of the following is not Code of Advertisement ?
1. The Trading Member should designate and authorise a person to ensure 2. The advertisement should not contain any confusing, the correctness
of the information given in any advertisement misleading or offensive information
3. The copy of such advertisement should
be retained for a period of three
4. NONE years
Q60. Body corporates including companies as defined in the Companies Act, 1956. A company is eligible to be admitted as a
member if: (1)
1. It is formed in compliance with provisions of Section 12 of the Companies
2. It complies with the financial requirements and norms as may
Act 1956 which mentions about the mode of forming incorporated company be specified by SEBI
3. The directors of the company shouldn?t have been disqualified for beingmembers of a
stock exchange and should not have held the offices of the
4. All of the Above directors in any company which had been a member of the stock
exchange and had been declared defaulter or expelled by the stock exchange
Q61. Securities market broadly categorized as ___________. (1)
1. ET 2. Primary Market
3. Secondary Market 4. both 2 and 3
Q62. Which entities allow to raise fund from the Primary Market? (1)
1. Government 2. corporate
3. both 1 and 2 4. Non-Profit Entities
Q63. Securities, in the form of equity or debt, can be issued in domestic/international markets at ______________ (1)
(1)
1. Face value 2. Discount
3. Premium. 4. All of the above
Q64. The primary market issuance is done either through public issues or private placement. Under (1)
1. Companies Act, 1956 2. Income Tax act ,1961
3. indian contract Act,1872 4. None of the above.
Q65. when the issuer makes an issue of securities to a select group of persons not exceeding 49 and which is neither a rights issue nor a public issue it is called (1)
a _____________
1. Bonus 2. public Placement
3. private placement. 4. none of the above
Q66. Secondary market comprises of ______________
1. Equity 2. Derivatives
3. debt markets 4. All of the above
Q67. The secondary market is operated through ___________ (1)
1. Over-the-Counter (OTC) market 2. the Exchange-Traded market
3. Both 4. NONE
Q68. ______________is used to give information about the price movements of products in the financial, commodities or any other
(1)
markets.
1. An Index 2. Primary Market
3. Secondary Market 4. None
Q69. The blue chip index of NSE is (1)
1. CNX Nifty 2. S&P Nigty
3. Nifty 4. S&P CNX NIFTY
Q70. Market capitalisation of a particular company on a particular day can be computed as product of the number of shares
(1) outstanding and the ___________ of the share.
1. Closing price 2. Opening Price
3. Trading Price 4. Previous Day Closing Price
(1)
Q71. The market capitalization ratio is defined as market capitalization of stocks divided by GDP. It is used as a measure of
(1)
____________
1. stock market size 2. Market Behaviour
3. Market wise position limit 4. None of the above.
Q72. The turnover ratio is defined as the total value of shares traded on a country?s stock Exchange for a particular period divided by market capitalization at the
end of the period. It is used as a measure of trading activity or ___________ in the stock (1) markets.
1. Volume 2. liquidity
3. Price Movement of the Day 4. Any of the above
Q73. Under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act [SC(R)A], 1956, ?securities? include ____________ (1)
1. Govt. Securities 2. collective investment scheme
3. Bonds 4. All of the above
Q74. The securities market has essentially different categories of participants like____________
1. the investors 2. the issuers
3. the intermediaries 4. All of the above
Q75. Securities Market Participants are thoroughly regulated by ____________ (1)
1. SEBI 2. RBI
3. DEA /MCA 4. All of the above
Q76. Which of the Following is not Market Participants ? (1)
1. Foreign Venture Capital Investors 2. Collective Investment Schemes
3. Debenture Trustees 4. None of the above.
Q77. The Exchange (NSE) provides trading in the following segments ______________ (1)
1. WDM 2. Capital Market
3. Financial and currency Derivative 4. All of the above
Q78. Wholesale Debt Market (WDM) Segment: This segment at NSE commenced its operations in ______ (1)
1. June 1997 2. June 1996
3. June 1994 4. June 1995
(1)
Q79. Capital Market (CM) Segment: This segment at NSE commenced its operations in ________ (1)
1. November 1993 2. November 1996
3. November 1994 4. November 1995
Q80. Futures & Options (F&O) Segment: This segment provides trading in derivatives instruments like index futures, index options, stock options, and stock (1)
futures, and commenced its operations at NSE in __________.
1. June 2001 2. June 2002
3. June 2003 4. June 2000
Q81. Currency Derivatives Segment (CDS) Segment: This segment at NSE commenced its operations on ________ (1)
1. Currency Derivatives Segment (CDS) Segment: This segment at NSE 2. Currency Derivatives Segment (CDS) Segment: This segment commenced its operations
on August 25, 2008 at NSE commenced its operations on August 20, 2008
3. Currency Derivatives Segment (CDS) Segment: This segment at NSE 4. Currency Derivatives Segment (CDS) Segment: This segment commenced its
operations on August 19, 2008 at NSE commenced its operations on August 29, 2008
(1)
Q82. Currency Derivatives Segment (CDS) Segment: This segment at NSE commenced its operations on August 29, 2008, with the launch of currency futures
trading in .
1. US Dollar-Indian Rupee (USD-INR) 2. Euro-INR
3. Pound Sterling-INR 4. Japanese Yen-INR
Q83. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the securities market regulator in India, was established under SEBI Act
(1)
1992, with the main objective and responsibility _______
1. Protecting the interests of investors in securities 2. Promoting the development of the securities market
3. Regulating the securities market 4. All of the above
Q84. In order to provide efficiency, liquidity and transparency, NSE introduced a nation-wide on-line fully automated ____________
(1) on the CM segment on November 3, 1994.
1. Screen Based trading system (SBTS) 2. NEAT
3. BOLT 4. ODIN
Q85. In December 2001, all scrips were moved to rolling settlement and the settlement period was reduced progressively from
(1) _____to T+3 days.
1. T+7 2. T+6
3. T+5 4. T+2
Q86. Trading in derivatives, however, took off in 2000 with _________after suitable legal and regulatory framework was put in
(1)
place
1. Equity Index Option 2. index futures
3. Stock Future 4. StocK Option
Q87. it has been made mandatory for all newly issued securities to be compulsorily traded in dematerialized form. Now, the
(1)
public listed companies making IPO of any security for Rs.______ crore or more have to make the IPO only in dematerialized form.
1. 50 2. 500
3. 20 4. 10
Q88. National Securities Clearing Corporation Ltd. (NSCCL), which commenced its operations in ________ (1)
1. April 1993 2. April 1994
(1)
3. April 1996 4. April 1995
Q89. In order to protect the interest of the investors and promote awareness, the Central Government (Ministry of Corporate
(1)
Affairs1 ) established ______________ in October 2001
1. the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) 2. IPF
3. SGF 4. CPF
Q90. Indian companies have been permitted to raise resources overseas through issue of _________
1. FCCBs 2. ECB (external commercial borrowing)
3. ADR/GDR 4. All of the above
Q91. They can invest in a company under portfolio investment route upto _______ of the paid up capital of the company (1)
1. 14% 2. 24%
3. 10% 4. 5%
Q92. The Indian stock exchanges have been permitted to set up trading terminals abroad. The trading platform of Indian exchanges is now accessible through
(1)
the Internet from anywhere in the world.
1. TRUE 2. FALSE
3. NOT ALLOWED 4. Irregular
Q93. RBI permitted __________ for ADRs / GDRs, which means that the investors (foreign institutional or domestic) who hold ADRs
(1)
/ GDRs can cancel them with the depository and sell the underlying shares in the market.
1. Non Fungibility 2. two-way fungibility
3. partial fungibility 4. None of the above.
Q94. Volatility index is a measure of market?s expectation of volatility over the _____ term (1)
1. Far 2. Mid
3. Near 4. Any
Q95. India?s first volatility index, India VIX (based on the Nifty 50 Index Option prices) was launched by NSE in ___________. (1)
1. April 2008 2. April 2000
3. April 2002 4. April 2007
Q96. Launch of Securities Lending & Borrowing Scheme_______ (1)
1. to take short positions effectively with less cost. 2. to take short positions effectively with No cost.
3. to take short positions effectively with High cost. 4. None of the above.
(1)
Q97. ___________is a major primary market reform. It enables investors to apply for IPOs / FPOs and rights issues without making a
(1)
payment.
1. SLBS 2. ICDR
3. ASBA 4. None of the above.
Q98. On August 31, 2009, futures on interest rate was launched on the _____________. (1)
1. National Stock Exchange 2. NEAT
3. NSCCL 4. NSDL
Q99. In August 2009, the SEBI issued Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements (ICDR) Regulations 2009, replacing the ____________ 2000
1. Disclosure and Investor Protection (DIP) Guidelines 2. UDR
3. IRDA 4. Annual Report
Q100. ICDR Regulations 2009 would govern all disclosure norms regarding _____________. (1)
1. issue of securities 2. lisiting of securities
3. delisting of securities 4. None of the above.
Q101. Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) is a major primary market reform. It enables investors to apply for ________ (1)
1. IPO 2. FPO
3. RIGHT ISSUE 4. All of the above
Q114. An application for arbitration can be filed within ____ from the date of dispute (1)
1. 3 months 2. 45 days
3. 6 months 4. 1 year
Q115. If a client buys shares worth Rs. 90,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 1,10,000 through a stock-broker, then the maximum brokerage payable is _____
1. 4000 2. 6000
3. 2000 4. 5000
Q116. Under the Member Constituent Agreement, trading members are required to make the clients aware of which of the
(1)
following
1. trading segment in which the trading member is admitted 2. SEBI Registration number
3. basic risks involved in trading on the Exchange 4. All of the above
Q117. Which of the following is deemed to be price sensitive information (1)
2. b) intended declaration of dividends (both interim and final)
1. periodical financial results of the company
3. issue of securities or buy back of securities 4. All of the above