English Class X

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Question Bank (Term-1)

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti
Regional Office, Jaipur
Class X
Question Bank (English Language & Lit.-184)
Edition: September, 2021
This Question Bank is designed for the students of Class X keeping in mind their upcoming CBSE board Examinations.
The Question Bank contains a series of Objective Type Questions chapter wise. The content prepared by the team
members is based on their experience of classroom teaching and books referred by them. All efforts have been made
and utmost care taken to make this Question Paper error-free. The publisher is not responsible for any type of
typographical errors/ human errors (if any)
Chief Patron Sh. N.K. Patel, Deputy Commissioner

Regional Office Jaipur
Patron Smt. Sunita Sharma

Assistant Commissioner, Jaipur
Coordinator Sh. Suresh Kumar

Principal, JNV Mohindergarh (HR)
Prepared by Mr. Bijender Kumar, TGT (Eng.), JNV Fatehabad

Sh. Pradeep Yadav, TGT (Eng.), JNV Jind
Sh Arvind Poonia, TGT (Eng.), JNV Alwar
Compiled & Mrs. Vimlesh Bhaskar, TGT (Eng.), JNV Dholpur

Moderated by
Designed By Dr. Sunil Vats, PGT(Comp.Sci.), JNV Mohindergarh

English Language and Literature
Code No. 184
Class X (2021-22)
Term wise Syllabus
Term - I
READING
Question based on the following kinds of unseen passages to assess inference, evaluation,
vocabulary, analysis and interpretation:
1. Discursive passage (400-450 words)

2. Case based Factual passage (with visual input/ statistical data/ chart etc. 300-350
words)
WRITING SKILL
1. Formal letter based on a given situation.

 Letter to the Editor
 Letter of Complaint (Official)
 Letter of Complaint (Business)
GRAMMAR
1. Tenses
2. Modals
3. Subject-Verb Concord
4. Determiner
5. Reported Speech
6. Commands and Requests
7. Statements
8. Questions
LITERATURE
Questions based on extracts / texts to assess interpretation, inference, extrapolation beyond

the text and across the texts.
FIRST FLIGHT
1. A Letter to God
2. Nelson Mandela
3. Two Stories About Flying
4. From the Diary of Anne Frank
5. The Hundred Dresses 1
6. The Hundred Dresses 2
POEMS
1. Dust of Snow
2. Fire and Ice
3. A Tiger in the Zoo
4. The Ball Poem
FOOTPRINTS WITHOUT FEET
1. A Triumph of Surgery
2. The Thief's Story
3. Footprints Without Feet
Term - II
READING
Question based on the following kinds of unseen passages to assess inference, evaluation,
vocabulary, analysis and interpretation:
1. Discursive passage (400-450 words)

2. Case based Factual passage (with visual input/ statistical data/ chart etc. 300-350
words)
WRITING SKILL
1. Formal letter based on a given situation

 Letter of Order
 Letter of Enquiry
2. Analytical Paragraph (based on outline/chart/cue/map/report etc.)
GRAMMAR
1. Tenses
2. Modals
3. Subject Verb Concord
4. Determiner
5. Reported Speech
6. Commands and Requests
7. Statements
8. Questions
LITERATURE
Questions based on extracts / texts to assess interpretation, inference, extrapolation beyond

the text and across the texts.
FIRST FLIGHT
1. Glimpses of India
2. Madam Rides the Bus
3. The Sermon at Benares
4. The Proposal (Play)
POEMS
1. Amanda
2. Animals
3. The Tale of Custard the Dragon
FOOTPRINTS WITHOUT FEET
1. The Making of a Scientist

2. The Necklace
3. The Hack Driver
4. Bholi
Each Semester
SECTION WEIGHTAGE (IN MARKS)
READING 10
WRITING & GRAMMAR 10
LITERATURE 20
TOTAL 40
INTERNAL ASSESSMENT 10
GRAND TOTAL 50
1
Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti, Jaipur Region

Term I Examination
Class- X
Subject-ENGLISH
Discursive Passages
Passage-1
Falling Down and Getting Up
Read the passage given below
1. Have you ever failed at something so miserably that the thought of attempting to do it again was the last thing
on your mind?
2. If your answer is yes, then you should understand that you are not a robot. Unlike robots, we human beings have
feelings, emotions, and dreams. We are all meant to grow despite our circumstances and limitations. Flourishing
and trying to make our dreams come true feels great when life goes our way. But what happens when it does
not? What happens when you fail despite all your hard work? Do you stay down and accept defeat or do you
get up again? If you tend to persevere and keep going, you have what experts call ‘grit’.
3. Falling down or failing is one of the most agonizing, embarrassing, and scary human experiences. But it is also
one of the most educational, empowering, and essential parts of living a successful and fulfilling life. Did you
know that perseverance (grit) is one of the seven qualities that has been described as the key to personal success
and betterment in society? The other six are curiosity, gratitude, optimism, self-control, social intelligence, and
zest. Thomas Edison is an example of grit for trying more than 1,000 times to invent the light bulb. If you are
reading this with the lights on in your room, you will realise the importance of his success. When asked why he
kept going despite hundreds of failures, he merely stated that they had not been failures, they were hundreds of
attempts towards creating the light bulb. This statement not only revealed his grit but also his optimism for
looking at the bright side.
4. Grit can be learnt to help you become more successful. One of the techniques that help is mindfulness.
Mindfulness is a practice that makes an individual stay at the moment by bringing awareness of his or her
experience without judgement. This practice has been used to quieten the noise of fears and doubts. Through
this simple practice of mindfulness, individuals have the ability to stop the self-sabotaging downward spiral of
hopelessness, despair, and frustration.
5. What did you do to overcome the negative and self-sabotaging feelings of failure? Reflect on what you did, and
try to use those same powerful resources to help you today.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer any ten questions from the twelve that follow: 1*10 =
10
(A) The reason why you are not a robot is that:
(a) You fail miserably at tasks (c) You work hard
(b) Failure and success can affect your emotions (d) You have limitations
(B) Choose the option that best captures the central idea of the passage from the given quotes.
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“What is the point of being alive if you don’t at least try to do something remarkable?” (1)
“Mistakes are the portals of discovery.” - James Joyce (2)
“Failure should be our teacher, not our undertaker. Failure is delay, not defeat. It is a temporary detour, not a dead
end.” -Denis Waitley (3)
“A person who never made a mistake never tried anything new.” -Albert Einstin (4)
(a) Option (1) (c) Option (3)
(b) Option (2) (d) Option (4)
(C) What is the tone of the following context: “Falling down or failing is one of the most… educational,
empowering, and essential parts of living a successful and fulfilling life.”?
(a) Humorous (c) Horrifying
(b) Optimistic (d) Solemn
(D) Which of the following is relevant for the title of the passage.
(a) Dreams Always Come True (c) Humans vs Robots
(b) Failure and Grit Go Hand in Hand (d) Falling Down and Getting Up
(E) ……………… was created after many attempts.
(a) electricity (c) current
(b) light bulb (d) tube light
(F) Which of the following sentences makes the correct use of “grit”, as used in the passage?
(a) Get rid of that grit in your shoes. (c) The road had been covered with grit.
(b) She had a bit of grit in her eye. (d) Her grit never made her give up.
(G) To develop perseverance, one must:
(a) become more aware (c) be in the moment and be aware without judgement
(b) work hard (d) seek guidance
(H) How does mindfulness help?
(a) It creates awareness (c) It helps one become successful
(b) It quietens the noise of fears and doubts (d) It helps develop focus
(I) What do you understand from this line, “Falling down or failing is one of the most agonising, embarrassing,
and scary human experiences.”?
(a) Falling down makes us angry. (c) Stay positive and be optimistic
(b) Failure can deeply affect our emotions (d) Self-control is empowering
(J) Choose the option that correctly states the meaning of ‘social intelligence’ as implied in the passage:
(a) Knowing others (b) Knowing oneself and others
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(c) Knowing oneself (d) Knowing one’s surroundings

(K) The importance of perseverance and optimism for a successful and fulfilling life is explained using the
example of?
(a) Thomas Edison (c) Grit
(b) Flourishing (d) Limitations
(L) What is the message conveyed in the last paragraph of the passage?
(a) Always aim for the best
(b) Live life king size
(c) Through mindfulness we can overcome the negative impact of failure
(d) Social intelligence is crucial for a successful life
Passage 1.
Answer Key
A – (b) E – (b) I – (b)
B – (c) F – (d) J – (b)
C – (b) G – (c) K – (a)
D – (d) H – (b) L – (c)
Passage-2
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. Reading Comprehension (RC, as it is normally called) is the most peculiar section in almost all scholastic,
entrance and employment tests. The skills in RC make a lot of difference to one’s chances of good
grades/selection.
2. Most students find it difficult to tackle topics that are diverse from the field they are in or they are comfortable
with. So, one needs to develop a taste for even the most obscure and boring topic on this planet. For success in
RC one should be able to understand And even with an average speed one can succeed if one implements the
strategies
3. Broadly speaking, RC passages can be classified in a few categories. Fact based RC is the simplest form of RC.
These types of passages have lot of information in the form of names, numbers etc. In this type of passages, one
should read very fast.
4. Don’t try to memorize any facts, numbers or names etc. In fact, there is no need to even remember them. Just
make yourself familiar with the structure of the passage. Just see in which paragraph author is talking about
what. Mark it. Then when you go to the questions, identify in which paragraph information regarding that
question is mentioned. Go to that paragraph, read the numbers, names etc. and mark the answer.
5. Inference based RC is the toughest form of RC. Here the passage is fairly tough to understand. This includes
passages on topics like Religion, Spirituality, Philosophy, etc. Most of the students will be comfortable
attempting these passages at least in RC. The reading speed is fairly slow in this type of passages. The way to
master this type of passages is to read them again and again while practicing
6. Topic based RC includes passages on any particular topic like economics, astrology, medical science, etc.
Generally, what makes -these passages tough is usage of technical terms. If a topic is new to us then presence
of technical term scares us even if they are defined in the passage. For success in this type of passages we need
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to have a fan-understanding of the definition of the term if it is defined in the passage Read that definition twice
if you need to. But don’t worry about technical terms if they are not defined in the passage Assume them to be
non-existent and proceed. Key principle in these passages is that don’t go to the next line unless the previous
line is clear.
7. Reading passage first and then questions is the most popular strategy for RC. While answering the question you
may come back to the passage to find answer as you have just read the passage initially and not crammed it. But
you should not come back for each and every question. If you come back for majority of questions then you
haven’t read the passage properly. The key to success for this strategy is that you should understand the passage
very well. We will suggest students to follow this technique from the beginning and work upon this.
8. Reading questions first and then passage is the strategy followed by a few students. They just look at the
questions and not options. The objective is that after seeing the questions when you read the passage then you
read only that part carefully where the answer is given. The flaw with this is that you will not be able to
remember all the questions. Besides this, this strategy fails when there are questions that require understanding
of the passage.
2.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the questions choosing correct option-
i) What do students find difficult?
a. to tackle the topics that are diverse from the fields. c. lacks reading speed
b. as per their interests. d. none of the above
ii) How can students get success in reading comprehension?
a. to read it again and again. c. Both A& B.
b. to develop a taste even for the most obscure and d. None of the above.
boring topic
iii) State True or False
Fact based RC is the simplest form of RC.
a. True b. False
c. Can’t decide d. None of the above
iv) Why is inference-based R C the toughest form?

a. It includes passage which are fairly difficult to understand.
b. It includes passages based on Philosophy, Religion and Spirituality.
c. Only A is correct.
d. Both A & B are correct.
v) What is the most popular strategy for RC and why?
a. Silent Reading of the Questions
b. Reading Question first and then answer the question
c. Reading passage first and then questions.
d. All the above.
vi) In paragraph 2, the antonym of “interesting” is _________.
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a. boring c. obscure
b. comfortable d. none of the above
vii) In paragraph 4, the synonym of “known” is _________.
a. mark c. familiar
b. fact d. all the above
viii) Give the noun form of “require”.
a. requiring c. acquires
b. required d. requirement
Passage 2 Answer key
i) a. to tackle the topics that are diverse from the fields.
ii) b. to develop a taste even for the most obscure and boring topic
iii) a. True
iv) d. Both A & B Correct.
v) c. Reading passage first and then questions.
vi) a. boring
vii) c. familiar
viii) d. requirement
Passage-3
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by writing the options that you consider the
most appropriate in your answer sheet.
Imagine 100 people walking on a beach in the middle of the night, stopping every once in a while, to search for
turtle eggs and hatchlings! I was a part of this walk recently in the heart of Chennai in Tamil Nadu! Our aim was
to take them to the safety of a ‘hatchery’.
As we trudged along the beach, we came across the tractor-like tracts of a turtle that must have come ashore to lay
her eggs. The tracks are unmistakable. These are caused by the feet and back flippers of the turtle as it drags itself
across the sand. But try as we might, we could not locate the nest that the turtle must have dug to drop its eggs. An
hour later, we came across another set of tracts, and this time located the nest.
As our expert guides dug, a wave of excitement went through the group…one by one, turtle hatchlings emerged
from the hole. They began walking and we guided them to the sea so they could swim off. We found and released
87!
This night exercise has been a part of the unique “turtle walk” organized by conservationists in Chennai for the last
20 years! Every year when the nesting season of the Olive Ridley turtles comes around, people gather to patrol the
beach every night. They ensure that no one digs up the eggs or hatchlings to eat them, and when they find eggs,
they transfer them to a safe enclosed hatchery.
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Why do they need to do this? Because the Chennai beach is visited by thousands of people, and by dogs, and the
turtles could easily be disturbed or dug up.
Another threat faced by the hatchling is the lighting across the beach. When they emerge from the nest, these turtles
look for the brightest part of the horizon and head there. In natural conditions, this would be the sea. In Chennai,
however, it is now brighter inland than at the sea! Chennai’s turtle volunteers spend hours every night to ensure
that this does not happen.
1. The Olive Ridley turtles come ashore
(a) to lay eggs in nests (c) to save themselves from bigger sea animals
(b) to enjoy the sand on the shore (d) to take rest
2. The author and others were looking for turtle eggs to
(a) dig up the eggs and to eat them (c) transfer them to a safe enclosed hatchery
(b) keep them in show cases (d) transfer them to a safe cage
3. Turtle eggs and hatchlings are in danger of
(a) being dug up and eaten by people and dogs (c) being disturbed by bright light
(b) being destroyed by children (d) being crushed by walkers on the beach
4. The hatchlings do not head towards the sea on their own because
(a) they are too young to know the direction (c) they are afraid of going to the sea
(b) they are attracted towards the bright lights (d) the sea waves are very strong
inland
5. the word in the passage which means the same as “people engaged in protection of valued resources” is :
a. guides c. volunteers
b. conservationists d. flippers
6. This night exercise has been a part of the unique “turtle walk” organized by conservationists in Chennai for the
last ………… years!
a. 40 years c. 15 years
b. 20 years d. all the above
7. What is the Synonyms of the word “emerge”:
a. vanish c. disappear
b. appear d. all the above
8. Another threat faced by the hatchling is the………… across the beach.
a. Lighting c. rain.
b. thunder d. none of the above
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1. (a) to lay eggs in nests 5. c. volunteers

2. (c) transfer them to a safe enclosed hatchery 6. b. 20 years
3.a.) being dug up and eaten by people and dogs 7. b. appear
4. (b) they are attracted towards the bright lights 8. a. Lighting
inland
Passage - 4
Cured yesterday of my disease, I died last night of my physician, says Matthew Prior, a celebrated pharmacologist,
while talking about the deleterious effects of drugs in his book, ―The Remedy Worse than the Disease. There is
no dearth of patients dying of misguided treatment. In this era of drugs, we must familiarise ourselves with the term
―Iatrogenic disease (physician caused ailment). When a physician administers medicines without a complete
understanding of the patient ‘s condition, drugs play havoc. A person may become the victim of a worse disease or
even lose his life. With Analgin, for instance, special precautions should be taken in case of pregnancy, bronchial
asthma, renal and hepatitis dysfunctions and blood-related disorders. It has been banned in several countries,
including the USA and Sweden, because of its unexpected and negative effects that lead one even to death through
an anaphylactic shock. An anaphylactic shock is a process that leads to a severe fall in the blood pressure,
bronchoconstriction, the swelling of blood and lymph vessels and sometimes death because of the loss of fluid in
these vessels. Anaphylaxis usually occurs suddenly, in minutes after the administration of a drug. The well-known
drug, penicillin, and many other drugs, may cause anaphylaxis. The term ―side-effects‖ is a part of an ailing layman
‘s vocabulary but adverse drug reactions are known only to a more aware and literate patient. Ciprofloxacin, when
given for an ear-infection, may cause vertigo and amoxycillin, while fighting a throat infection, may hurt the
stomach. Similarly, while chemotherapy given for cancer may lead to indigestion and hair fall, steroids
administered continuously may lead to obesity and diabetes. Drugs are meant to eliminate disease. In the quest for
avoiding the misery of sickness, man has invented medicines that may themselves cause diseases. The illness
caused by a drug may be short term or long-term. Side effects are short-term and predictable. The unpredictable
and bizarre reactions are termed as adverse reactions. A variety of drugs cure many ills but are also known to cause
irregular heart beat and even sudden death. A strong sense of responsibility on the physician ‘s part and an attitude
of extreme caution on the patient ‘s part can substantially help in covering at least some of the risks of medicines,
if not all. There are many factors that help a doctor in his choice and use of the drug. The medical history of a
patient, age, sex, personality, environment and education contribute in deciding the course of treatment. The very
old and the very young are likely to suffer as their bodies are less tolerant. Older children may sometimes be more
tolerant than the adults. The elderly tends to respond better to standard drug dosage. But the lower body size, slow
blood flow to vital organs, decreasing metabolic capacity and tendency to multiple physical problems contribute to
adverse reactions.
1. An ―Iatrogenic disease is an ailment caused by……………………………

(a) infection in the hospital ward
(b) overdose of anaesthetic
(c) the wrong administration of drugs by a physician
(d) self-medication and buying drugs over the counter
2.Analgin and penicillin must be used carefully because……………………………
(a) these may cause suffocation
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(b) they may create bruises

(c) some patients complain of leg cramps
(d) these may cause anaphylaxis
3. An adverse drug reaction is an illness caused by…………………………… (a) secondary effects of a drug
(b) a drug having unpredictable and strange effects on a patient
(c) a drug having predictable and unpleasant disorders
(d) the use of drugs taken after their date of expiry
4. Man has invented drugs to eliminate……………………………
(a) diseases
(b) side effects
(c) death
(d) casualties
5. Elderly people are prone to adverse drug reactions because they have……………………………
(a) larger body size
(b) multiple emotional problems
(c) slow blood flow to vital organs
(d) stagnant metabolic capacity
6.The word dysfunction ‘in the passage……………………………
(a) disorder of brain
(b) indigestion
(c) bad temper
(d) not working properly
7. Find the word which means ‗‘Considerably(last paragraph)
(a) adverse
(b) tolerant
(c) caution
(d) substantially
1.(c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d)
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Passage 5
The choices we make on a daily basis—wearing a seatbelt, lifting heavy objects correctly or purposely staying out
of any dangerous situation—can either ensure our safety or bring about potentially harmful circumstances.
You and I need to make a decision that we are going to get our lives in order. Exercising self-control, self-discipline
and establishing boundaries and borders in our lives are some of the most important things we can do. A life without
discipline is one that’s filled with carelessness.
We can think it’s kind of exciting to live life on the edge. We like the image of “Yeah! That’s me! Living on the
edge! Woo-hoo!” It’s become a popular way to look at life. But if you see, even highways have lines, which provide
margins for our safety while we’re driving. If we go over one side, we’ll go into the ditch. If we cross over the line
in the middle, we could get killed. And we like those lines because they help to keep us safe. Sometimes we don’t
even realize how lines help to keep us safe.
I’m not proud of this, but for the first 20 years of my life at work, I ignored my limits. I felt horrible, physically,
most of the time. I used to tell myself “I know I have limits and that I’ve reached them, but I’m going to ignore
them and see if or how long I can get by with it.” I ran to doctors, trying to make myself feel better through pills,
vitamins, natural stuff and anything I could get my hands on. Some of the doctors would tell me, “It’s just stress.”
That just made me mad. I thought stress meant you don’t like what you do or can’t handle life, and I love what I
do. But I kept pushing myself, traveling, doing speaking engagements and so on— simply exhausting myself. You
and I don’t have to be like everyone else or keep up with anyone else. Each of us needs to be exactly the way we
are, and we don’t have to apologize for it. We’re not all alike and we need to find a comfort zone in which we can
enjoy our lives instead of making ourselves sick with an overload of stress and pressure.
i. The reason why living on the edge has become popular, is because of the
a. constant need for something different. c. exhausting effort to make changes.
b. population being much younger. d. strong tendency to stay within our limits
ii. Which of the following will be the most appropriate title for the passage?
a) Much too soon c) How much is too much?
b) Enough is enough d) Have enough to do?
iii. The phrase “potentially harmful circumstances” refers to circumstances that can
(a) certainly be dangerous. (c) be possibly dangerous.
(b) be fairly dangerous. (d) seldom be dangerous.
iv. Select the option that makes the correct use of “unsustainable”, as used in the passage, to fill in the blank
space.
a) In the long run, the _ officials followed emergency procedures.
b) Emergency procedures were by the officials.
c) Officials reported a set of events during the emergency.
d) Officials admit that the emergency system is in the longer run.
v. The author attempts to the readers through this write-up.
a) rebuke c) offer aid to
b) question d) offer advice to
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vi. The author uses colloquial words such as “yeah” and “Woo-hoo!”. Which of the following is NOT a
colloquial word?
a) hooked c) stuff
b) guy d) stress
vii. What does the author mean when he says, “to get our lives in order”?
a) To resume our lives. c) To rebuild our lives.
b) To organize our lives. d) To control our lives.
viii. Choose the option that correctly states the two meanings of ‘outlook’, as used in the passage.
1. A person’s evaluation of life
2. A person’s experiences in life
3. A person’s point of view towards life
4. A person’s regrets in life
5. A person’s general attitude to life
a) (1) and (4) c) (3) and (5)
b) (2) and (3) d) (4) and (5)
ix. The author explains the importance of discipline and boundaries in our lives using the example of
a) road accidents. c) lines on the highway.
b) traffic rules. d) safe driving
x. What is the message conveyed in the last paragraph of the passage?
a) Love what you do. c) Be the best version of yourself.
b) Love yourself to love others. d) Be yourself.
i. constant need for something different
ii. Much too soon
iii. certainly be dangerous
iv. Officials admit that the emergency system is in the longer run.
v. offer advice to
vi. hooked
vii. To organize our lives
viii. (3) and (5)
ix. lines on the highway
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x. Be the best version of yourself

Passage 6
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
1. Tourists to Jammu and Kashmir have another attraction–a floating post office on the Dal Lake in Srinagar, the
first in the country. ‘Floating Post Office, Dal Lake’–claimed to be the only one such post office in the world–
is built on an intricately carved maroon houseboat, fastened on the western edge of the Dal Lake.
2. This post office lets you avail of all the regular postal services available in the country while being afloat. The
seal used on everything posted from Floating Post Office is unique–along with the date and address, it bears the
design of a boatman rowing a shikara on the Dal Lake. The special. feature of this post office is that letters
posted from here carry a special design which has the picturesque scenery of Dal Lake and Srinagar city. These
pictures reach wherever these letters are posted to and hence promote Kashmir as a tourist destination across
the world.
3. This is actually a heritage post office that has existed since British times. It was called Nehru Park Post Office
before 2011. But then the chief postmaster John Samuel renamed it as ‘Floating Post Office’.
4. The post office’s houseboat has two small rooms–one serves as the office and the other a small ‘museum that
traces the philatelic history of the state postal department. It has a shop that sells postage stamps and other
products.
5. But for the locals, Floating Post office is more than an object of fascination. 1–2 crore is deposited per month
in Floating Post Office by communities living in and around the Dal Lake. The lake has several islets that are
home to more than 50,000 people.
6. The greatest fear is the recurrence of 2014 like floods in which the houseboat had gone for a toss uncontrollably
pushed by the flood. Rescue teams had to anchor it using special mechanism in a nearby highland. Then it was
brought back on the Dal after the water receded. The biggest boon is that at no time of the year do you need a
fan in this post–office!
Attempt the following questions on the basis of the passage you have read:
(a) Jammu and Kashmir has another attraction, the first in the country ………………………. .
(i) A floating ATM (iii) A floating post office
(ii) A floating bank (iv) A floating museum
(b) The greatest fear that the post office has is that ………………………. .
(i) it can get drowned (iii) it has less deposits
(ii) it can be looted (iv) the floods can ruin it
(c) The post office provides-
(i) All the facilities (iii) No service
(ii) A few services (iv) It is for tourism
(d) It was renamed by-
(i) Michael Johnson (iii)Michael Philip
(ii) John Samuel (iv) Johnson
(e) The post office bears the design of a-
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(i) motorboat (iii)Shikara

(ii) plane (iv) Cart
(f) The post office’s houseboat has ……………………….. small rooms.
(i) Four (iii) Three
(ii) Two (iv) No Room
(g) The heritage post office has existed since the ……………………….. times.
(i) British (iii) German
(ii) French (iv) Italian
(h) Find the word from the passage which means the same as “attraction”.
(i)distraction (iii)mechanism
(ii)receded (iv)fascination
(I) The Poast office facilitates around-

(i)10000 people (iii)20000 people
(ii)50000 people (iii)25000 people
(J) Before 2011 the Post office named-
(i) Nehru Park (iii)Rajiv Park
(ii)Gandhi Park (iv) Kashmir Valley
(a) iii (b) iv. (c) i. (d) ii. (e) iii. (f) ii. (g) i. (h)iv. (i) ii. (j) I
Passage 7
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
1. Then all the windows of the grey wooden house (Miss Hilton used to live here. She expired last week.), were
thrown open, a thing I had never seen before. At the end of the day, a sign was nailed on the mango tree: FOR
SALE.
2. Nobody in the street knew Miss Hilton. While she lived, her front gate was always locked and no one ever saw
her leave or saw anybody go in. So even if you wanted to, you couldn’t feel sorry and say that you missed Miss
Hilton.
3. When I think of her house, I see just two colours. Grey and green. The green of the mango tree, the grey of the
house and the grey of the high iron fence that prevented you from getting at the mangoes.
4. If your cricket ball fell in Miss Hilton’s courtyard you never got it back. It wasn’t the mango season when Miss
Hilton died. But we got back about ten or twelve of our cricket balls.
5. The house was sold and we were prepared to dislike the new owners even before they came. I think we were a
little worried.
13
6. Already we had one resident of the street who kept on complaining about us to our parents. He complained that
we played cricket on the pavement; and if we were not playing cricket, he complained that we were making too
much noise anyway.
7. One afternoon, when I came back from school Pal, said, “Is a man and a woman. She pretty, but he ugly like
hell”. I didn’t see much. The front gate was open, but the windows were shut again. I heard a dog barking in an
angry way.
8. One thing was settled pretty quickly. Whoever these people were they would never be the sort of people to
complain that we were making noise and disturbing their sleep.
9. A lot of noise came from the house that night. The radio was going at full volume until midnight when the radio
station closed down. The dog was barking and the man was shouting. I didn’t hear the woman.
Attempt the following questions on the basis of the passage you have read:
(a) Miss Hilton’s house had just 2 colours ………………………..
(i) Grey and Black (iii) Grey and Pink
(ii) Grey and Blue (iv) Grey and Green
(b) The sign ‘For Sale’ was hung on a ………………………..
(i) banyan tree (iii) oak tree
(ii) mango tree (iv) guava tree
(c) Whose front gate was always locked?
(i) Miss Clinton (iii) Henry Lovell
(ii)Miss Hilton (iv) Mrs. Diana
(d) You would always get your cricket balls if they fell in Miss Hilton’s courtyard.
(i) She would say nothing (iii) False
(ii) True (iv) She would never come out
(e) The new owners of the house had a ………… .
(i) Horse (iii) rabbit
(ii) kitten (iv) dog
(f)The iron fence did not let the boys get at the ………………………. on the tree.
(i) grapes (iii) mangoes
(ii) apples (iv) litchi
(g) Find a word in paragraph 8 which means the same as “arranged.
(i) pretty (iii)disturbing
(ii) quickly (iv) settled
(h) Find a word in paragraph 6 which means ‘raised path for pedestrians at the side of a road’.
(i)resident (ii)complaining
14
(iii)Pavement (iv) quickly

(I)What did People heard at night-
(i) noise at full volume (iii) Dancing
(ii) Silence (iv) None
(J)What did the boys get when Hilton died-
(i)their shoes (iii) their cricket balls
(ii) their books (iv) None of the above
(a) iv (b) ii.(c) ii (d) iii (e) iv (f) iii (g) iv (h) iii (i) i. (j) iii.
Passage 8
Sacred Trees
Sacred trees form an important part of the ecological heritage of India. Most temples, towns, villages—and
sometimes even Muslim dargahs— are associated with trees. Some plants are sacred to the individual deity; others
are sacred to the place… Several plants have been worshipped in India from time immemorial. Wherever the tulsi
grows—from the Indo-Gangetic plains to the shores of the Indian Ocean at Kanyakumari— it occupies a position
of pride in the central courtyard of the house, tended to, carefully, by the housewife.
Apart from the elaborate myths connecting it to Krishna, the tulsi plant has several medicinal properties. To protect
and revere this plant with so many medicinal properties, it was designated as sacred, a fitting tribute to its role in
providing invaluable healthcare. The worship of plants is an ancient phenomenon in India. It is probably the oldest
form of worship. The association of a single tree with a sacred sthala or sthana is reflected in the chaitya vriksha
and sthalavriksha or literature and society.
When people turned to food production, the Mother Goddess or the Earth Mother became the chief deity. Fertility,
creation, and the world of plants and animals became her blessings to her devotees. The worship of the tree was the
adoration of her creative abilities, symbolising fertility so essential or the survival of the early people. Spirits—
good or bad—were believed to reside in trees. If the trees were worshipped, then the resident spirits were pleased.
As sacred forests were replaced by agriculture, a single tree was left and was designated as ‘sacred’ tree.
The earliest temples were little more than images placed under trees. Later, the tree and the image were enclosed
by a fence made of wood, followed even by stone. Numerous references are made in literature to trees as abodes
of gods.
Q. On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the following questions.
1. __________ form an important part of the ecological heritage of India.
1. Indo-gangetic plains 3. Sacred trees
2. Mother Goddess 4. Kanyalcumari
2. The worship of plants is an __________ phenomenon in India.
1. ancient 3. immemorial
2. invaluable 4. elaborate
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3. The __________ has several medicinal properties

1. chaitya vriksha 3. tulsi plant
2. sthalavariksha 4. sacred tree
4. Tulsi was designated as sacred
1. to protect it 3. as it has many medicinal properties
2. to respect it 4. all of these
5. The most important things given by the mother Earth to us are:
1. air and fire 3. plants and animals
2. creative abilities 4. spirits
.
6. All trees except one were fell down by the early people for:
1. their shelter 3. earning money
2. agriculture 4. fuel
7. A single tree left by the early people which was designated as __________.
1.Aproductive tree 3. a sacred tree
2.symbolic tree 4. ignored
8.The worship of plants has been started by the ………….. .
1.modern people 3.people of middle ages.
2.ancient people 4. None
9. The Sacred Trees are adored in India-
1. North India 3. Through out India
2. South India 4. None of the Above
10. Which is considered as Mother God-
1.Earth 3. Moon
2.Sun 4.Stars
(1) 3. (2) 3. (3) 3. (4) 3 (5) 3. (6) 2 (7) 3. (8) 2 (9) 3 (10) 1
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Passage 9
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
An epidemic of obesity or being overweight is affecting many countries in the world; more than 300 million people
are obese or overweight. Obesity could be for a particular reason. In India, some people tend to be overweight
because of their high calorie diet and lack of physical activities. In the United States, obesity is more prevalent in
lower income groups. Obesity is now well recognized as a disease in its own right. Though obesity commonly
means being overweight, it is defined as an excess amount of body weight that includes muscle, bone, fat and water.
‘Obesity’ specifically refers to an excess amount of body fat.
A certain amount of body fat is needed to store energy, keep warm and absorb the shocks. Usually men with more
than 25% body fat and women with more than 35% body fat are regarded as obese. Obesity tends to run in families
suggesting a genetic cause. Environmental factors include lifestyle behaviour such as what a person eats and his or
her level of physical activity. So, one should choose more nutritious food which is low in fat, and become more
active. Then,
there are psychological factors. Negative emotions such as boredom, sadness and anger are the main culprits. Then
there is also ‘binge eating’ i.e. when people eat large amounts of food thinking that it is beyond their control how
much they eat. Those with the most severe binge eating problem are also likely to have more symptoms of
depression and low self-esteem.
Obesity is a health hazard giving rise to many serious medical conditions like type 2 diabetes, heart disease, high
blood pressure and stroke. Obesity is also linked to a higher rate of certain types of cancer. There are many ways
of losing weight but exercise is the best as it is free from any type of harmful side effects.
(a) Women having _ body fat are regarded as obese.
(i) more than 35% (iii) less than 30%
(ii) more than 25% (iv) less than 25%
(b) Obesity can be defined as a/an _ amount of body weight.
(i) less (iii) optimum
(ii) excess (iv) balanced
(c) In the United States obesity is more prevalent among __ people.
(i) high income (iii) low income
(ii) homeless (iv) affluent
(d) Environmental factor refers to __ behaviour.
(i) indecent (iii) lifestyle
(ii) decent (iv) loud
(e) Binge eating is when people eat __ of food.
(i) a meagre amount (iii) extra organic type
(ii) a small portion (iv) a large portion
(f) Obesity is a health hazard because it creates-
(i) Diabetes (ii) Heart disease
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(iii)High blood Pressure (iv)all of above

(g) Binge eating creates the problem of-
(i) depression (iii) Polio
(ii) Heart attack (iv)None
(h)Man is considered as obese with the fat-
(i) more than 30% (iii) less than 25%
(ii) More than 25% (iv) over 40%
(a) (i) more than 35% (b) (ii) excess (c) (iii) low income (d) (iii) lifestyle (e) (iv) a large portion
(f)(iv)all of above (g) (i) depression (h) (ii) More than 25%
Passage 10
CHESS IS CALLED THE GAME OF KINGS
1. Chess is called the game of kings. It has been around for a long time. People have been playing it for over 500
years. Chess is based on an even older game from India. The chess we play today is from Europe.
2. Chess is a two-player game. One player uses the white pieces while the other uses the black pieces. Each piece
moves in a special way. One piece is called the king. Each player has one. The players take turns moving their
pieces. If a player lands on a piece, he or she takes it. The game ends when a player loses his or her king. There
are a few more rules, but these are the basics.
3. Some people think that chess is more than a game. They think that it makes the mind stronger. Good chess
players use their brains. They take their time. They think about what will happen next. These skills are useful
in life and in chess. Chess is kind of a work out for the mind.
4. You don’t always have lots of time to think when playing chess. There is a type of chess with short time limits.
It’s called blitz chess. In blitz chess, each player gets ten minutes to use for the whole game. Your clock runs
during your turn. You hit the time clock after your move. This stops your clock. It also starts the other player’s
clock. If you run out of time, you lose. Games of blitz chess are fast-paced.
5. Chess is not just for people. Computers have been playing chess since the 1970s. At first, they did not play well.
They made mistakes. As time went on they grew stronger. In 1997, a computer beat the best player in the world
for the first time. It was a computer called Deep Blue. Deep Blue was big. It took up a whole room. By 2006 a
cell phone could beat the best players in the world. Chess sure has come a long way. Don’t you think so?
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer ANY TEN questions from the ELEVEN given
below. (1×10 = 10).
i. What is the author’s purpose in writing the second paragraph?
a. To explain the rules of chess
b. To compare different types of games
c. To talk about game pieces
d. To persuade people to play chess
ii. Which is not a reason that chess is a good workout for the mind according to the text?
a. Good chess players think about what will happen next.
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b. Good chess players take a lot of risks.

c. Good chess players take their time.
d. Good chess players use their brains.
iii. How long have people been playing chess?
a. Over 100 years c. Over 1000 years
b. Over 500 years d. Over 5000 years
iv. Where did the game that chess is based on come from?
a.Europe c.America
b. India d.All of these
v. Which best describes the main idea in the fourth paragraph?
a. This paragraph argues that players should think less.
b. This paragraph explains how blitz chess is played.
c. This paragraph explains how time clocks work.
d. This paragraph describes many different ways to play chess.
vi. How does a game of chess end according to the text?
a. One player takes all of the other player’s pieces.
b. One player makes it to the end of the board.
c. One player becomes king.
d. One player loses his or her king.
vii. Which happened first?
a. Computers did not play chess well c. Cell phones got good at playing chess.
b. Deep Blue won an important game. d. Deep Blue took up a whole room.
viii. How is blitz chess different from regular chess?
a. Each player has two kings. c. Players only have ten minutes to play.
b. Players are blindfolded. d. Players start from a random position.
ix. If it’s your turn in blitz chess, what happens when you hit the clock?
a. Both your clock and the other person’s clock keep running
b. The other person’s clock stops running and yours starts.
c. Both clocks stop running.
d. Your clock stops running and the other person’s clock begins.
x. When did a computer first beat a strong human player in chess?
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a. 2006 c. 1970
b. 1997 d. 1976
xi. What is the meaning of the word “Blitz”?
a. a sudden effort or attack on somebody/something c. very happy
b. to dive fast d. annoyed
ANSWER KEY PASSAGE ON CHESS –
(i) a (ii]b [iii]b [iv]b [v]b [vi]d [vii]a [viii]c [ix]d [x]b [xi]a
PASSAGE 11
Who Doesn’t Know How to Cook rice
1. “Who doesn’t know how to cook rice? Cooking rice hardly takes time.” said my father. So, I challenged myself.
I switched from news to YouTube and typed, “How to cook rice?” I took one and a half cups of rice. Since I
didn’t have access to a rice cooker, I put the rice in a big pot. Firstly, the rice has to be washed to get rid of dust
and starch. I thought I won’t be able to drain the rice and that it will fall out of the pot. I observed the chef as I
swirled the rice around and used my dexterous hands to drain it, not once, not twice, but three times. I looked
down at the sink and saw less than 50 grains that made their way out of the pot. Suffice to say, I was up to the
mark.
2. The video stated that the key to perfect rice is equal amounts of rice and water. I have heard that professionals
don’t need to measure everything; they just know what the right amount is. But as this was my first time in the
kitchen, I decided to experiment by not measuring the water needed for boiling the rice. I wanted the rice to be
firm when bitten, just like pasta. I don’t enjoy the texture of mushy rice. It has to have that chutzpah; it has to
resist my biting power just for a bit before disintegrating.
3. After what seemed like 10 minutes, all the water disappeared. I went in to give it a good stir. To my surprise,
some of the rice got stuck to the pot. I tried to scrape it off but to no avail. At the same time, there was a burning
smell coming from it. I quickly turned the stove off. “What have you done to the kitchen?” shouted Mother,
while coming towards the kitchen. I managed to ward her off.
4. Finally, when the time came to taste my creation, I was surprised! It wasn’t bad at all. The rice had the desired
consistency. Sure, a little more salt would’ve been better, but I just added that while eating. The experience was
fairly rewarding and memorable. It taught me a new sense of respect for those who cook food on a regular basis
at home or engage in gourmet creations professionally.
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer ANY TEN questions from the eleven given below.
(1×10 = 10)
i. Father’s question to the narrator, about knowing how to cook rice, was intended to
a. criticize the narrator’s lack of abilities.
b. make the process sound simple.
c. encourage the narrator to take up cooking.
d. showcase his own expertise in cooking rice.
ii. “I switched from news to YouTube …” Pick the option in which the meaning of ‘switch(ed)’ is NOT the same
as it is in the passage.
a. He switched on the radio to listen to the news while having dinner.
20
b. “Forget these diet supplements and switch to yoga, if you want a true sense of well-being.”
c. Mom switched to reading fiction recently because she was bored with cook-books.
d. The company will switch the trucks to other routes to bring down city pollution.
Hint: ‘Switch to’ means to change from one thing to another and ‘switch on’ means to start any electrical
appliance. Like- please switch on the .
iii. Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the correct sequence of the process.
• Use water to wash the rice.

• Repeat the process three times.
• Drain the water off.
• Put rice in a utensil.
• Swirl the water in and around the rice.
a. 4,2,1,3,5 c. 4,1,5,3,2
b. 1,3,2,5,4 d. 5,1,2,4,3
iv. The narrator says that he has dexterous hands. He would have had a problem had it been the opposite. NOT
BEING dexterous means, being
a. uncomfortable. c. unclear.
b. clumsy. d. clueless.
Hint: Dexterous meaning- skillful or expert
v a. Which option represents the correct ratio of water to rice for cooking ‘perfect rice’?
a. Image 1 c. Image 3
b. Image 2 d. Image 4
measurements to cook rice

vi. How did mother react to the burning smell?
a. She commented on it. c.She inquired about it.
b. She brushed it aside. d.She handled it.
vii. According to the passage, the fact that the narrator risked experimentation, on his maiden attempt in the
kitchen, shows that he was
a. conscientious. c. presumptuous.
b. nervous. d. courteous.
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viii. Pick the option showing the CORRECT use of the word ‘chutzpah’.
a. It is the court’s duty to dispense chutzpah to everyone irrespective of caste or creed.
b. The speaker may not have much of a stage presence, but you’ve got to admit she’s got chutzpah.
c. I could crack the code easily which proved me to be a chutzpah and I was the only one who could do so.
d. After his father’s demise, the daughter took over the family’s chutzpah to save it
Hint: Chutzpah meaning- extreme self confidence
ix. Pick the option that correctly states what DID NOT happen after the writer checked on the rice.
a. Turning the stove off. c. Forgetting to scrape the stuck rice.
b. Being taken aback at the condition of rice. d. Smelling the delicious aroma of cooked rice.
x. The narrator’s creation was
a. almost perfect to taste. c. overly seasoned.
b. way off from what he wanted. d. quite distasteful.
xi. Pick the option that correctly lists the final feelings of the writer with reference to the cooking experience
1. frustrating 4. disillusioning
2. amusing 5. exacting
3. satisfying 6. enlightening
a. 1 and 4 c. 3 and 6
b. 2 and 5 d. 1 and 3
(ANSWERS AND HINTS)
1. Discursive passage [Competencies- comprehension, interpretation, inference, vocabulary]
i. b) make the process sound simple.
ii. a) “He switched on the radio to listen to the news while having dinner.
iii. c) 4,1,5,3,2
iv. b) clumsy
v a. a) image 1
vi. d) She inquired about it.
vii. c) presumptuous.
viii. b) The speaker may not have much of stage presence, but you’ve got to admit she’s got chutzpah.
ix. d) Smelling the delicious aroma of cooked rice
x. a) almost perfect to taste.
xi. c) 3 and 6.
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Case based Factual Passage

Passage 1
Education in the Republic of India |
1. Education in India is primarily provided by public schools (controlled and funded by the government at three
levels: central, state and local) and private schools. Under various articles of the Indian Constitution, free and
compulsory education is provided as a fundamental right to children aged 6 to 14. The approximate ratio of
public schools to private schools in India is 7:5.
2. India has made progress in increasing the
attainment rate of primary education. In 2011,
approximately 75% of the population, aged
between 7 and 10 years, was literate. In the 2011
Census, about 73% of the population was literate,
with 81% for males and 65% for females. National
Statistical Commission surveyed literacy to be
77.7% in 2017–18, 84.7% for male and 70.3% for
female. This compares to 1981 when the respective
rates were 41%, 53% and 29%. In 1951 the rates
were 18%, 27% and 9%. India’s improved education system is often cited as one of the main contributors to its
economic development. Much of the progress, especially in higher education and scientific research, has been
credited to various public institutions.
3. At the primary and secondary level, India has a large private school system complementing the government-run
schools, with 29% of students receiving private education in the 6 to 14 age group Certain post-secondary
technical schools are also private. The private education market in India had a revenue of US$450 million in
2008 but is projected to be a US $40 billion market.
Education in Republic of India

Minister of Education Ramesh Pokhriyal
National education budget Budget 3.6% of GDP ($ 120 billion) [1]
General details
Primary languages English, Indian languages
System type Federal, state and private
Established
Compulsory education 1 April 2010
Literacy (2017-18[3])
Total 77.7%[2]
Male 84.7%
Female 70.3%
Enrollment
Total (N/A)
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Primary 95%[4]
Secondary 69%[4]
Post secondary 25%[4]
4. As per the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2012, 96.5% of all rural children between the ages of 6-
14 were enrolled in school. This is the fourth annual survey to report enrollment above 96%. India has
maintained an average enrolment ratio of 95% for students in this age group from the year 2007 to 2014. As an
outcome, the number of students in the age group 6-14 who are not enrolled in school has come down to 2.8%
in the year academic year 2018 (ASER 2018). Another report from 2013 stated that there were 229 million
students enrolled in different accredited urban and rural schools of India, from Class I to XII, representing an
increase of 23 lakh students over 2002 total enrolment, and a 19% increase in girl’s enrolment.
5. While quantitatively India is inching closer to universal education, the quality of its education has been
questioned particularly in its government run school system. While more than 95 percent of children attend
primary school, just 40 percent of Indian adolescents attend secondary school (Grades 9-12). Since 2000, the
World Bank has committed over $2 billion to education in India. Some of the reasons for the poor quality include
absence of around 25% of teachers every day.[14] States of India have introduced tests and education assessment
system to identify and improve such schools.
6. Although there are private schools in India, they are highly regulated in terms of what they can teach, in what
form they can operate (must be a non-profit to run any accredited educational institution) and all the other
aspects of operation. Hence, the differentiation of government schools and private schools can be misleading.
7. In January 2019, India had over 900 universities and 40,000 colleges.[17] In India’s higher education system, a
significant number of seats are reserved under affirmative action policies for the historically disadvantaged
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes. In universities, colleges, and similar
institutions affiliated to the federal government, there is a maximum of 50% of reservations applicable to these
disadvantaged groups, at the state level it can vary. Maharashtra had 73% reservation in 2014, which is the
highest percentage of reservations in India.
Q. On the basis of your understanding of the passage answer any ten of the following questions by choosing the
most appropriate options.
(a) The approximate ratio of public schools to private schools in India is……
(I) 5 : 7 (iii) 7 : 5
(ii) 1 : 9 (iv) 9 : 7
Ans: 7:5
(b)Pick the option that lists the statements that are NOT TRUE according to the passage.
1. India’s improved education system is often cited as one of the main contributors to its economic development.
2. At the primary and secondary level, India has a large private school system.
3. Report from 2013 stated that there were 329 million students enrolled in different accredited urban and rural
schools of India.
4. Maharashtra had 33% reservation in 2014 which is the lowest percentage of reservations in India.
(I) 3and4 (iii) I and 2
(ii) 2 and 4 (iv) I and 3
24
Ans: 3 and 4
(c) India’s improved education system is often cited as one of the main contributors to its_____________
(i) overall development (iii) Economic development
(ii) social development (iv) Political development
Ans: Economic Development
(d) Based on the statistical data in the passage, which option represents the correct graphical representation of
enrolment rate in primary and Secondary schools?
(i) Image 1 (iii) Image 3
(ii) Image 2 (iv) Image 4
Ans: Image 2
(e) According to the table what was the literacy rate of females in the year 2011?
(i) 74% (iii) 65%
(ii) 82.2% (iv) 69%
Ans: 65%
(f) Based on the statistical data in the passage, choose the option that lists the statements that are TRUE with
respect to the education policy.
1. enrolment in secondary schools was 69%.
2. National Education Budget passed by the ministry was 3.1%.
3. The literacy rate of women was 69.5% in 2011.
4. As per 2011 census, total literacy rate was 82.2%.
(i) 1 and 4 (iii) 3 and 4
(ii) 2 and 4 (iv) 1 and 3
Ans: (i) 1 and 4
(g) Much of the progress especially in higher education and scientific research has been attributed to________
(i) Private Institutions (iii) Government Institutions
(ii) Public Institutions (iv) Semi-Government Institutions
Ans: (ii) Public Institutions
(h) One of the reasons for the poor quality of government-run schools in India is _____
(i) Poor Infrastructure
(ii) Absence of around 25% teachers every day .
(iii) Low enrolment of girls
(iv) No aid given by the government.
25
Ans: (ii) Absence of around 25% teachers every day.

(i) Mark the state of India with highest percentage of reservations in college and universities.
(i) Maharashtra (iii) Bihar
(ii) Odisha (iv) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (i) Maharashtra
(J) Which word in the passage means the same as ‘Registered’ (Para 4)
(i) Survey (iii) enrolled
(ii) Accredited (iv) Representing
Ans: (iii) enrolled
(k) Arrange the given sentences in the sequence in which they appeared in the passage.
1. In universities, colleges and similar institutions, there is a maximum of 50% of reservations applicable to the
disadvantaged group.
2. Certain post-secondary technical schools are also private.
3. The approximate ratio of public schools to private schools is 7:5.
4. While more than 95% of children attend primary schools, just 40% of adolescents attend secondary schools.
(i) 1, 2, 4, 3 (iii) 3, 2, 4, 1
(ii) 4, 1, 2, 3 (iv) 3, 1, 4, 2
Ans: (iii) 3, 2, 4, 1
Passage 2
How Children Consume Caffeine
Q1 Observe the following data and read the passage given. Answer the multiple-choice questions.
How Children Consume Caffeine Passage

26
Each day, most of us depend on caffeine to wake up and be ready for the day to cope with the fast-paced life.
Consumption of caffeine is an ancient habit. In fact, this natural stimulant is one of the most commonly consumed
beverages in the world. Though caffeine is known for its ill effects on health, it’s one of the best sources to provide
us with that extra “energy” that makes us get going. Many of us rely on caffeine to stay alert and improve
concentration. Despite all these apparent benefits, the quantity of caffeine intake should be kept under check.
Adults are still considered safe to have a dose of caffeine, adolescents and young adults should be very cautious
while consuming it. So the bottom line lies with the fact “when is it safe to start the consumption of caffeine” and
“how much to consume”. If we’re careful enough to keep in mind these two questions, we shall definitely be
awarded the title ‘Conscious Consumer’ of caffeine.
Based on your understanding of the above passage, answer the given questions by choosing the most appropriate
option:
(a) Which age group has the highest consumption of soft drinks?
(i) Ages 13-17 (ii) Ages 2-5
(iii) Ages 6-12 (iv) All the age groups mentioned above
Ans: (i) Ages 13-17
(b) Which beverage is the least popular among teenagers?
(i) Coffee (ii) Tea
(iii) Soft drinks (iv) Energy drinks
Ans: (iv) Energy drinks
(c) Which age group of children, as per the data, has the best habits concerning beverages?
(i) Ages 13-17 (ii) Ages 2-5
(iii) Ages 6-12 (iv) None of the above
Ans: (iv) None of the above
(d) Which beverage contains the most amount of caffeine?
(i) Coffee (ii) Tea
(iii) Energy drinks (iv) Soft drinks
Ans: (iii) Energy Drinks
(e) Which beverage is least popular among the age group 6-12?
(i) Tea (ii) Coffee
Ans: (iv) Energy Drinks
(f) Which beverage is most popular among all the age groups put together?
(i) Tea (ii) Coffee
27
Ans: (iii) Soft Drinks

(g) Which beverage is the least popular among all the age groups?
(i) Tea (ii) Coffee
Ans: (iv) Energy Drinks
(h) What does caffeine do to our brain?
(i) Fatigue (ii) Headaches
(iii) Induces sleep (iv) Brings alertness
Ans: (iv) Brings Alertness
(i) Caffeine intake is not advised
(i) if your blood pressure level is within normal range.
(ii) if your blood pressure level is low.
(iii) if your blood pressure tends to be on the higher side.
(iv) None of the above.
Ans: (iii) if your blood pressure tends to be on the higher side.
(j) Which of the following doesn’t influence the caffeine content in a beverage?
(i) Processing time. (ii) Brewing time. (iii) The shelf life. (iv) None of the above.
Ans: (ii) Brewing Time
(k) The key to consume caffeine in our daily life :
(i) In moderation. (ii) As per the market promotions.
(iii) Addiction. (iv) No consumption at all.
Ans: (i) In moderation
Passage 3
Poster Based Comprehensions Class X Look at the poster and answer the questions that follow:
28
1. This poster is drafted to…….

(A) Create awareness among people.
(B) Indicate the need to maintain clean & healthy environment.
(C) Indicate the need to keep the surroundings dry.
(D) All of these
2. What is ‘Chikungunya'?
(A) A deadly virus. (C) A deadly weapon.
(B) A deadly disease. (D) All of these
3. ‘Chikungunya’ is caused by….
(A) Flies. (C) Mosquitoes
(B) Germs (D) Bats
4. What is always better than cure?
(A) Precaution. (C) Proclamation

(B) Prevention. (D) Promotion.
5. This message is issued by ……….
(A) World Health Organisation
(B) Human Welfare Association.
(C) Human Resources Organisation.
(D) All of these three. Look at the poster and answer the following question
6. What is the meaning of the word “Deadly”?
(A) funny (C) fatal
(B) Sunny (D) all the above
7. What is the opposite word “flow” used in the passge:
(A) Disease (C) Stagnate
(B) Prevention (D) None of the above
Answers:
1. D 4. B 7. C
2. B 5. B
3. C 6. C
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Passage 4
Look at the poster carefully and answer the questions that follow:
1:-What is pollution to mankind?
(A) A boon . (C) A curse

(B) A threat . (D) Everything to mankind
2:-What are the major causes of pollution?
(A) Deforestation (C) Waste and harmful material of factories
(B) Smoke of vehicles (D) All of the above
3:-How can pollution be stopped?
(A) By planting trees and plants (C) By using solar energy
(B) By reducing smoke and wastage (D) All of the above
4:-What should be our immediate actions?
(A) Optimization of resources (C) Afforestation
(B) Utilisation of solar energy (D) All of the above
5:-This poster is based on the theme :
(A) Global warmimg (C) Deforestation
(B) Pollution
6:- Complete the Slogan: Go Green …………….
(A) Go colourful (C) Go Clean
(B) Go funny (D) None of the above
7. What is the Similar word of the word “warning” used in the passage?
(A) Global (C) Effects
B) Threat (D) All the above
Answers
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B
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Passage 5
Global weather is warming leading to Arctic meltdown. This is primarily a result of the greenhouse effect caused
by too much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere which acts as a blanket, trapping heat and warming the plant. Burning
of fossil fuels like coal, oil and natural gas for
energy cutting down and burning forests to create
pastures and plantations leads to carbon
accumulation. Refrigeration and air conditioning
and certain agricultural practices also aggrevate the
problem by releasing additional potent global
warming gases such as methane and nitrous oxide.
Over the last century, global average temperature
has increased by more than 1.0º F. A warming
would also have the potential to change rainfall and
snow patterns, increase droughts and severe storms,
reduce lake ice cover, melt glaciers, increase sea
levels and change plant and animal behaviour. The
impact of global warming on our planet is extremely serious and if this problem is not talked on an urgent basis it
will lead to melting of polar ice caps leading to an increase in sea level drowning coastlines and slowly submerging
continents. Our generation needs to give a healing touch to the earth which we have ourselves made sick.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY TEN questions from the twelve that follow.
(a) Global warming is a result of:
(i) warm planet. (iii) greenhouse effect.
(ii) trapped heat. (iv) carbon dioxide.
Ans. (iii)
(b) The cause of greenhouse effects is:
(i) global warming. (iii) cutting down trees.
(ii) burning of coal. (iv) too much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Ans. (iv) 26
(c) Carbon accumulation is caused by:
(i) burning of fossil fuel. (iii) burning natural gas.

(ii) burning forests. (iv) all the above
Ans. (iv)
(d) The word in the passage which means the same as ‗to make worse‘ is:
(i) potent (iii) aggrevate
(ii) severe (iv) accumulation
Ans. (iii)
31
(e) According to the pie chart the main greenhouse gas emissions is by:
(i) power stations. (iii) transportation fuel.

(ii) industries. (iv) land use.
Ans. (i)
(f) A warming world DOES NOT:
(i) increase droughts. (iii) create pastures.
(ii) reduce lake ice cover. (iv) melt glaciers.
Ans. (iii)
(g) Gases like methane and nitrous oxide are released by:
(i) greenhouse effect. (iii) some agricultural practices.

(ii) fossil fuel burning. (iv) changing snow patterns.
Ans. (iii)
(h) On the basis of the pie chart choose the option that is NOT TRUE:
(1) Transportation fuel emits more gases than industries 27
(2) The treatment of waste disposal and treatment emits the least gases
(3) There is a stark difference between gases emitted by land use and residential/ commercial sources
(4) The gases emitted by agricultural by products is more than that by fossil fuels
(i) Option 2 and 4 (iii) Option 3 and 4
( ii) Option 1 and 3 (iv) Option 1 and 2
Ans. (ii)
(i) The word ‗submerging‘ in the passage DOES NOT mean the same as:
(i) sinking (iii) go over
(ii) drown iv) go under
Ans. (iii)
(j) It is evident from the pie chart that almost 40% of greenhouse gas emissions are caused by:
(i) Power stations and industries. (iii) Water disposal and treatment and industries.
(ii) Agriculture and fossil fuel retrieval. (iv) Agricultural and water disposal.
Ans. (i)
(k) If global warming is not tackled on an urgent basis it will lead to:
( i) melting of polar ice caps. (ii) submergence of continents.
32
(iii) drowning coastlines. (iv) all the above

Ans. (iv)
(l) The word ‗tackled‘ in the passage DOES NOT mean the same as:
(i) undertaken (iii) accepted as challenge
(ii) dealt with (iv) to avoid
Ans. (iv)
Passage 6
4. Look at the poster carefully and answer the questions that follow :
1. The poster is regarding:

a. tips for successful job interview c. spending free time with friends
b. good social and public behaviour d. all of the above
33
2. Pharse ‘read up on’ stands for :

a. reading slowly c. reading about something to get more information
b. reading loudly d. classroom reading
3. How can a person be successful in his interview?
a. with proper information and preparation for the post
b. with punctuality and courtesy
c. by highlighting his strong points
d. all of the above
4. Fill suitable verb in the given blank : Where are you __________ ?
a. go c. going
b. gone d. will go
5. Antonym of ‘ previous’ is :
a. following c. above
b. old d. preceding
6. What is meaning of the phrase “ Keep an eye on”:
a. keep your eyes clean c. Option A & B both correct
b. keep under careful observation d. None of the above
7. What do you mean by the Job Interview?
a. to present your speaking skills c. Correct tone of voice
b. Impressive body posture d. all the above
Answers:
1. A 4. C 7. d
2. C 5. A
3. D 6. B
Passage-7
1. Celebrities advertising products are nothing new. In fact it has been part of our lives. Back in the 2000‘s you
could not sit through a commercial break without seeing the teen pop icon of that time, Britney Spears ,
endorsing Pepsi. The Pepsi legacy was later continued by the most famous celebrity we know of, Beyonce. She
was paid millions to promote the carbonated drink which outraged health advocacy groups. Many concerned
people questioned her ethics as to why she was supporting a drink that plays a major role in causing obesity.
2. With growing importance of social media in a shopper‘s purchase journey, companies are evolving and stepping
up the endorsement game across different channels. With celebrities vouching for promoting their products,
brands can increase awareness, trust and familiarity, which are important variables in the purchase making
decision process.
34
3. Consumers feel more sympathetic towards a brand, if their products are promoted by a celebrity they admire or
relate to. It is simple psychological effect. People believe that purchasing a product that is promoted by a
celebrity they admire, will allow them to emulate the celebrity‘s desired traits or attract similar people into their
lives. They will associate the celebrity‘s success, beauty aesthetic skills etc. with a particular product.
4. A research by Nelson conducted in 2015 broke down the level of trust in advertising formats by different
generations. It found that celebrity endorsements resonate more strongly with Generation Z (ages 15 to 20) and
Millennial (ages21-34), audiences. Brands are taking advantage of that by increasingly utilizing the social media
communities of celebrities. Social media is away for consumers particular those of younger demographics to
enlarge 34 and build intimate connections with the celebrities they follow, making the place for these celebrities
to plug a company or a product on their personal social media accounts.
5. While celebrity endorsements certainly help to attract consumers its direct influence on the
consumers‘purchasing decisions is inconclusive. As consumers are becoming better educated and have faster
access to information, blind faith in celebrity endorsement is beginning to wane. They will be attracted to a
brand because of a celebrity but they will
quickly move away if the product does not
perform. It is the quality of your product that
will keep consumers coming back, not a
celebrity link.
6. A brand needs to tell consumer why a product
makes sense for them as individuals and what
problem they can solve with it, not solely rely
on a real-life Barbie doll, athlete or pop culture
icon. If they can‘t their products will lose value
over time and consumers will be the first one to
turn their backs.
Answer any ten of the following questions on the basis of the passage you have read.
1. According to the passage, why are celebrities questioned for brand endorsements?
a) For evasion of tax
b) For increasing health effects
c) For the side effects of using the brand
d) For using wrong means to advertise the misleading data.
2. Big brands started hiring big celebrities to endorse their brands because
a) Celebrities have a huge fan following
b) It increases awareness , trust and familiarity
c) It increases their profit
d) To achieve name and fame
3. What is the psychological effect of celebrity brand endorsements?
a) Association of product with celebrity‘s desired feature
b) People become more sympathetic towards a brand
c) Fame factor overrides quality in the product decision making process
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d) All the above 35

4. According to the passage , which category people were more influenced by celebrities while buying a product?
a) Boomers c) Millennial
b)Gen Z d) Both (b) and (c)
5. Choose the option that lists the correct answer for the following:
i) Neerav is a teen who loves watching television. He exceptionally follows everything that his favourite actor does
ii) Neelam is a working woman. She follows her favourite actress on social media, and while making decision she
would consider keeping her favourite actress‖s choice in her mind. Which category does she fit into?
a) Neerav belongs to Gen Z and Neelam is Millennial
b) Neerav and Neelam both belong to Gen Z
c) Neerav is millennial while Neelam is a Gen X
d) Both Neerav and Neelam are millennials
6. Based on your understanding the passage choose the option that lists the variables of the decision making.
(i) Awareness (iv) Familiarity

(ii) Celebrity (v) Ethics
(iii) Trust (vi) Knowledge
(a) (i) (V) and (VI)
(b) (II) (III) and (IV)
(C) (I) (II) and )IV)
(d) (II) (V) and (VI)
7. How does Social Media help in the endorsement of a brand?
(a) it allows to engage and build connections with the celebrities
(b) it promotes that the product will make them similar to the celebrity
(c) it gives the opportunity to reach the level of the favourite celebrity
(d) it shows the quality of the product
8. What does the passage claim in para ―6‖?
(a) There is no relationship between brands endorsements and purchase decision making
(b) we should focus on the quality of the product
(c) Brands must choose proper celebrities for the product
(d) Brands must steer away from false advertisements
9. Millennial belong to the age group of
36
(a) 15-20 (b) 21-34

(c) 35-40
(d) 10-20
10. Through which medium are brands taking advantage of the influence of celebrities?
(a) Tv advertisements (c) social media
(b) Print Media (d) brand face 36
11. According to the passage, brand should not rely on
(a) Real life Barbie dolls (c) Athletes
(b) Pop Icons (d) all of these
12. which word in para 5 means ‗ decrease‖
(a) wane (c) attract
(b) blind (d) acess
Answer Key
1. ( C) For the side effects of using the brand
2. (b) increase awareness, trust and familiarity
3. (a) Association of product with the celebrity‘s desired feature
4. (d) both (b) and (c)
5. (a) Neerav belongs to Gen Z and Neelam is a Millennial
6. (c) (i) (II) and (iv)
7. (a) it allows to engage and build connections with the celebrities
8. (a) There is no relationship beteen endorsements and purchase decision making
9. (b) 21-34
10. © social media
11. (d) all of these
12. (a) wane
Passage 8
The UN’s 2017 International Year tells that sustainable tourism is an important tool for development, most
importantly in poor communities and countries. Today sustainability – environmental, social, and economic – is
increasingly recognised as the benchmark for all tourism business. As noted by the UN World Tourism
Organisation, 57% of international tourist arrivals will be in emerging economies
37
Based on data collected by a survey by Travel Bureau, the following market profile of an ecotourist was
constructed: -
Age: 35 - 54 years old, although age varied with activity and other factors such as cost. Gender: 50% female and
50% male, although clear differences based on activity were found.
Education: 82% were college graduates, a shift in interest in ecotourism from those who have high levels of
education to those with less education was also found, indicating an ex- pansion into mainstream markets.
Household composition: No major differences were found between general tourists and experienced ecotourists**
Party composition: A majority (60%) of experienced ecotourism respondents stated they prefer to travel as a couple,
with only 15% stating they preferred to travel with their families, and 13% preferring to travel alone. (**
experienced ecotourists = Tourists that had been on at least one “ecotourism” oriented trip.)
Trip duration: The largest group of experienced ecotourists- (50%) preferred trips lasting 8-14 days.
Expenditure: Experienced ecotourists were willing to spend more than general tourists, the largest group (26%) .
Important elements of trip: Experienced ecotourists top three responses were: (a) wil- derness setting, (b) wildlife
viewing, (c) hiking/trekking.
Motivations for taking next trip: Experienced ecotourists top two responses were (a) enjoy scenery/nature, (b) new
experiences/places.
i. In the line “…recognised as the benchmark”, the word “benchmark” DOES NOT refer to
a) a basis for something.
b) the criterion required.
c) the ability to launch something new.
d) a standard point of reference.
38
ii. The World Tourism Organisation of the UN, in an observation, shared that
a) emerging economies of the world will gain 57% of their annual profits from international tourists.
b) countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in the
next decade.
c) a large number of international tourists in 2030 will be from developing countries.
d) barely any tourist in the next decade shall travel from an economically strong nation to a weak one.
iii. One of the elements that is important to ecotourists on trip is
a) wild and untouched surroundings.
b) cultural exchange.
c) car and bus rides.
d) fully furnished flats.
iv. Choose the option that lists the correct answers for the following:
1. Asha Mathew, an NRI, loves animals and wishes to travel to places that safeguard their rights and
inculcate awareness of their rights. What kind of tourist is she?
2. Gurdeep Singh from UK is an environmental scientist and has always chosen to travel to places that are
examples of a symbiotic relationship between man and nature. What kind of tourist is he?
a) (1) is an ecotourist and (2) is a geotourist
b) (1) is an ethical tourist and (2) is a geotourist
c) (1) is a sustainable tourist and (2) is a pro-poor tourist
d) (1) is a geotourist and (2) is a responsible tourist
v. In the market profile of an ecotourist, the information on gender indicates that
a) female ecotourists were more than the male ecotourists.
b) the activity preferences were varied in females and males.
c) the choice of things to do on a trip were quite similar for both the genders.
d) male ecotourists were frequent travellers.
vi. The education aspect in the market profile of the ecotourist revealed that
a) mainstream market trends were popular with undergraduates.
b) ecotourists were only those who had basic education.
c) mainstream markets were popular tourist destinations for educated ecotourists.
d) ecotourism was no more limited to the small group of highly educated travellers.
vii. According to the survey conducted by the Travel Bureau, the total percentage of experienced ecotourists
who DID NOT prefer to travel alone was
39
a) 60%. c) 15%.
b) 75%. d) 13%.
viii. According to the survey, one of the most powerful driving forces leading experienced ecotourism to
invest in new trips was
a) setting up work stations in new places.
b) the chance to go camping in the wild.
c) competing with other ecotourists as frequent travellers.
d) the opportunity to travel to new places.
ix. Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TRUE.
a) Economically backward countries will benefit from sustainable tourism.
b) The tourism business currently recognizes sustainability as an important factor.
c) Emerging economies will receive negligible international tourists in the near future.
d) The sustainability factor in tourism is a significant means for development.
x. The survey clearly showed that the age range of ecotourists:
a) remained the same for the choice of tourist- attractions to visit.
b) changed with the monetary requirements for the trip.
c) fluctuated due to male-female ratio.
d) was constant across various features of the trip.
i . d ii. b iii. a iv. a v. c vi. d vii. a viii. d ix. c x. a
Passage 9
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow: -
MONSOON
The monsoon, which is essentially the seasonal reversal in wind direction, causes most of the rainfall received in
India and some other parts of the world. The primary cause of monsoons is the difference between annual
temperature trends over land and sea. The apparent position of the Sun with reference to the Earth oscillates from
the Tropic of Cancer to the Tropic of Capricorn. Thus, the low-pressure region created by solar heating also changes
latitude. The northeast and southeast trade winds converge in this low-pressure zone, which is also known as the
Inter tropical Convergence Zone or ITCZ. This low-pressure region sees continuous rise of moist wind from the
sea surface to the upper layers of the atmosphere, where the cooling means the air can no longer hold so much
moisture resulting in precipitation. The rainy seasons of East Asia, sub-Saharan Africa, Australia and the southern
part of North America coincide with the shift of ITCZ towards these regions.
40
Q1: Monsoon is
(a) A type of sea wave (c) very hot wind
(b) a seasonal reversal in wind direction (d) very cold wind
Q2: What is the full form of ITCZ?
(a) Intertrance Convergence Zone (c) Intertropical Capricorn Zone
(b) Intertropical Convergence Zone (d) Intertropical Conveyance Zone
Q3: The major cause of monsoon is the
(a) difference between annual temperature trends over land and sea
(b) difference between day and night temperature
(c) moisture in the atmosphere
(d) None of these.
Q4: Low Pressure region is created by
(a) solar heating (b) lunar cooling (c) moist wind (d) dry wind.
Q5: It rains when
(a) moist wind goes down
(b) dry wind meets moist wind
(c) the air can no longer hold moisture resulting in precipitation
(d) annual temperature goes down.
Q6: The earth oscillates from-
(a) North to south (c) Tropic of Capricorn to Cancer
(b) South to North (d) tropic of cancer to capricorn
41
Q7: ITCZ is formed around

(a) Tropic of capricorn (c) Equator
(b) Tropic of Cancer (d) None of the above
Q8: High temperature creates-
(a) High Pressure (c) Medium Pressure
(b) Low Pressure (d) None
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. a 5.c 6.d 7.c 8.b
Passage 10
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :
1. Caged behind thick glass, the most famous dancer in the world can easily be missed in the National Museum,
Delhi. The Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-Daro is that rare artifact that even school children are familiar with. Our
school textbooks also communicate the wealth of our 5000 year heritage of art. You have to be alert to her
existence there, amid terracotta animals to rediscover this bronze image.
2. Most of us have seen her only in photographs or sketches therefore the impact of actually holding her is
magnified a million times over. One discovers that the dancing girl has no feet. She is small, a little over 10 cm
tall – the length of a human palm – but she surprises us with the power of great art – the ability to communicate
across centuries.
3. A series of bangles – of shell or ivory or thin metal – clothe her left upper arm all the way down to her fingers.
A necklace with three pendants bunched together and a few bangles above the elbow and wrist on the right hand
display an almost modern art.
4. She speaks of the undaunted ever hopeful human spirit. She reminds us that it is important to visit museums in
our country to experience the impact that a work of art leaves on our senses, to find among all the riches one
particular vision of beauty that speaks to us alone.
(a) The dancing girl belongs to
(i) Mohenjo-Daro (iii) Homosapiens
(ii) Greek culture (iv) Tibet
(b) In the museum she’s kept among
(i) dancing figures (iii) terracotta animals
(ii) bronze statues (iv) books
(c) Which information is not given in the passage ?
(i) The girl is caged behind glass.
(ii) She is a rare artefact.
(iii) School books communicate the wealth of our heritage.
(iv) She cannot be rediscovered as she’s bronze.
(d) ‘Great Art’ has power because :
42
(i) it appeals to us despite a passage of time.

(ii) it is small and can be understood.
(iii) it’s seen in pictures and sketches.
(iv) it’s magnified a million times.
(e) The jewellery she wears :
(i) consists of bangles of shell, ivory or thin metal.
(ii) is a necklace with two pendants.
(iii) both (i) and (ii) are correct.
(iv) neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
(f) Museums tell us about-
(i)The ancient Culture (ii) the ancient lifestyle
(iii) Both I and II are true (iv) Both I and II are wrong
(g)Our ancient heritage is how much old-
(i)2000 years old (ii)5000 years old
(iii)3000 years old (iv)None
(h)The length of the dancing girl’s statue-
(i) 50 Cm (ii) 100 Cm
(iii) 10 cm (iv) 80 cm
(a)(i) Mohenjo-daro. (b) (iii) terracotta animals. (c) (iv) She cannot be rediscovered as she’s
bronze. (d) (i) it appeals to us despite a passage of time (e) (iv) Neither I nor ii is
correct. (f) (iii) Both I and II are true (g) (ii)5000 years old (h) (iii) 10 cm
Passage 11
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : -
Spread over an area of 11,570 acres, Kalesar Reserve Forest is the only one of its kind in Haryana. It is home to a
wide range of wild flora and fauna including three elephants, a male tiger, 16 male and female leopards, 19 panthers
and some other animals as well.
Spread on both sides of Yamunanagar – Paonta Sahib Road in Yamunanagar district, it was designated a national
park through a government notification in December 2003. However, it is alleged, lack of sufficient funds is proving
to be a hindrance in wildlife conservation in the national park. The Divisional Forest Officer revealed that it is the
only forest in Haryana with a natural ‘sal’ tree belt.
As for the steps taken to ensure protection of wildlife and environment, it was disclosed that staff had been given
weapons by the State Government to tackle the menace posed by poachers. The State had also set up two special
environmental courts, one each at Kurukshetra and Faridabad, to deal with crimes related to poaching and illicit
felling of trees from the area. Eight watering holes have been dug up across the forest area to ensure that wildlife
does not stray into human habitats on its fringes in search of drinking water. Similarly, earthen dams have been
constructed to conserve rainwater for the future use of wildlife.
43
(a)Kalesar Reserve Forest was designated a national park through a government notification in __ .
(i) February, 2003 (iii) March, 2004
(ii) December, 2003 (iv) August, 2001
(b) __ watering holes have been dug up across the forest area to stop wildlife from going astray in search of
water.
(i) Four (iii) Eight
(ii) Seven (iv) Ten
(c) Which word in the passage means ‘natural environment in which a particular species live’ ?
(i) Habitat (iii) Fauna
(ii) Flora (iv) Waterhole
(d) Which word in para 3 is a synonym of ‘danger/risk’ ?
(i) Disclosed (iii) Poaching
(ii) Fringes (iv) Menace
(e) The word ‘illicit’ means
(i) not approved by society (iii) obtained dishonestly or unfairly
(ii) not allowed by rules (iv) not allowed by law
(f) Which tree is found abundance-
(i) Acacia (iii) Mangrove
(ii) Mango (iv) Sal
(g) Kalesar national Park is situated in-
(i) Rajasthan (iii) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) Haryana (iv) Himachal Pradesh
(h) A reserve Forest area protects-
(i) Wild Animals (iii) Both Wild animals & trees
(ii) wild plants and trees (iv) None
(a) (ii) December 2003 (b) (iii) ) Eight (c) (i) Habitat (d) (iv) Menace (e) (ii) not allowed by rules /
(iv) not allowed by law (both are correct) (f)(iv) Sal (g)(ii) Haryana (h)(iii) Both Wild
animals & trees
Passage 12
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :-
44
Have you ever failed at something so miserably that the thought of attempting to do it again was the last thing you
wanted to do?
If your answer is yes, then you are ‘not a robot’. Unlike robots, we human beings have feelings, emotions, and
dreams. We are all meant to grow and stretch despite our circumstances and our limitations. Flourishing and trying
to make our dreams come true is great when life is going our way. But what happens when it’s not? What happens
when you fail despite all of your hard work ? Do you stay down and accept the defeat or do you get up again and
again until you are satisfied? If you have a tendency to persevere and keep going then you have what experts call,
grit. Falling down or failing is one of the most agonizing, embarrassing, and scariest human experiences. But it is
also one of the most educational, empowering, and essential parts of living a successful and fulfilling life. Did you
know that perseverance (grit) is one of the seven qualities that have been described as the keys to personal success
and betterment in society? The other six are: curiosity, gratitude, optimism, self-control, social intelligence, and
zest. Thomas Edison is a model for grit for trying 1,000 plus times to invent the light bulb. If you are reading this
with the lights on in your room, you know well he succeeded. When asked why he kept going despite his hundreds
of failures, he merely stated that what he had been not failures. They were hundreds of ways not to create a light
bulb. This statement not only revealed his grit but also his optimism for looking at the bright side.
Grit can be learned to help you become more successful. One of the techniques that help is mindfulness.
Mindfulness is a practice that helps the individual stay in the moment by bringing awareness of his or her experience
without judgement. This practice has been used to quiet the noise of their fears and doubts. Through this simple
practice of mindfulness, individuals have the ability to stop the self-sabotaging downward spiral of hopelessness,
despair, and frustration.
What did you do to overcome the negative and self-sabotaging feelings of failure? Reflect on what you did, and
try to use those same powerful resources to help you today.
a) While inventing the light bulb, Thomas Edison had failed____________________
i. 1000 times iii. 1000 plus times
ii. 10000 plus times iv. 10000 times
b) Failure is a part of __________________life.
i. normal iii. human
ii. common iv. ordinary
c) In Paragraph 2,_____________________means continue.

i. robots iii. agonizing
ii. keep going iv. failing
d) In passage the synonym of distressing is____________________
i. embarrassing iii. agonizing
ii. scariest iv. failing
e) ______________helps in preventing individuals from going down the lines of despair.
i. success iii. doubt
ii. fear iv. Mindfulness
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f)how many qualities are mentioned in the given extraction-

i. Eight iii.six
ii. seven iv. five
g) Grit is also called-
i. observance iii.intelligence
ii. negligence iv.preservance
h)Find out the Synonym of –‘Attentiveness’ from the extraction-

i.spiral iii.Mindfulness
ii.grit iv.frustration
a) iii.1000 plus b) iii.human c) ii.keep going d) iii.agonising
e) iv.mindfulness f)ii.seven g)iv.preservance h) iii.Frustration
Letter of complaint
1. Yesterday you went to Sunrise Hospital,Market Road , New Delhi taking with you the victim of a hit and run
accident . There were chaotic conditions in the casualty department. The injured was attended to after a lot of
precious time had been lost.
Q1. What is the appropriate ‘subject’ for this letter?
A. Poor condition of ambulance or other emergency transport.
B. Road rage
C. Chaotic condition and poor attitude of the hospital staff.
D. Increasing cases of accidents
Q2. What is the correct salutation sequence?

A.1234 C. 4132
B. 3214 D. 4123
Q3. Which of the following is not appropriate to be mentioned in the body of this letter?
A. The nurses and attendants were least interested in attending to the patient.
B. Sometimes people resort to violence in road rage cases just to satisfy their ego.
C. The doctor on duty was not available and came only after two hours.
D. Victim was finally saved but he suffered a lot of blood loss.
Q 4. Which of the following lines is appropriate for the beginning of ‘introductory para’?
46
A. This is with reference to the increasing incidents of road rage

B. This is with reference to your advertisement in Delhi Times
C. This is with reference to the poor treatment
D. Both A and C
Q 5. ‘Yours truly’ is a ____
A. Designation C. Salutation
B. Subscription D. Both A and B
Q 6.’ Sunrise hospital ’,market road New Delhi is a _____
A. Sender’s address C. Both of the above
B. Receiver’s address D. None of the above
ANSWER KEY -
1- C 4- C
2- D 5- B
3- B 6- B
2. You are Virender of 122, Arjun Nagar, New Delhi. A number of scooters and cars are parked in your locality
without any order, causing blockage of the streets. Write a complaint Letter to the letter to the local Secretary
of the Resident‘s Association complaining against this problem.
122, Arjun Nagar
New Delhi
February 20, 2019
The Secretary
(i) ……………… New Delhi
Sir
Subject- Complaint regarding the issue of (ii) ……………………… in the locality. I would like to drive your
attention to the bad parking habits of residents in our locality. It is resulting in a lot of chaos and
(iii) ……………………..for those who come back late. Despite defining the area assigned to each vehicle, cars are
parked amidst two parking spots. One vehicle occupies the space for 2-3 vehicles leading to mismanagement. Two-
wheelers are (iv) ……………………………………… . This creates problems for other people as they have to then
spend a lot of time finding parking spots in other localities. It induces frustration and (v)
…………………………………….. . Various notices and warnings have been given to the rule-violators, but to
our dismay, no 49 betterment can be seen. I request you to take strict action as this is leading to fights between the
residents. (vi) …………………………………….. is expected considering the depth of the situation.
Yours faithfully
Virender
47
An Awakened citizen
(i) (a) Society‘s Association
(b) Municipal Corporation
(c) Resident‘s Association
(d) Traffic Police Department
(ii) (a) unauthorised parking
(b) wrong parking
(c) parking area
(d) bad parking habits
(iii) (a) paid parking
(b) no place for parking
(c) disturbed state of mind
(d) aggression
(iv) (a) placed nowhere near the allotted zone
(b) placed in the four-wheeler parking area
(c) placed on the footpath
(d) haphazardly
(v) (a) need for more parking area
(b) tension for the safety of vehicles
(c) need for a security guard for the vehicles
(d) need of coming early for the sake of parking space
(vi) (a) Speedy and quick response
(b) Prominent reply
(c) Effective and Speedy action
(d) Justified action
Answer Key
(i) (c) Resident‘s Association
(ii) (d) bad parking habits
(iii) (b) no place for parking 50
(iv) (a) placed nowhere near the allotted zone
(v) (b) tension for the safety of vehicles
48
(vi) (c) Effective and Speedy action
Letter to the Editor

1. Write a letter to the monthly magazine India today, New Delhi about the successful online teaching ‘SMILE ‘
by the education of government of Rajasthan for the students in government school .
1. Which of the following line is appropriate for the beginning of ‘introductory para’…….?
A. Most respectfully to the education minister C. Both A and B
B. Hon’ble education minister D. None of these
2. Fill in the blanks.
Students learn and do homework. (1)_____ homework is printed and (2) ______ as record in school.
1. A. Those
B. There
C. Their
D. That’s
2. A. Keeping
B. Keeps
C. Kept
D. Keep
3. Why Government initiated this programme?
A. To keep student’s study continue.
B. So that students are not to deprive from study.
C. Students are our country’s future, providing them adequate knowledge and better education facilities.
D. All of these
4. What will be the subject of this letter?
A. Online teaching programme ‘SMIL’ for govt. students in Rajasthan
B. Offline teaching programme ‘SMILE’ for govt. students in Rajasthan
C. Extra class programme for a group of students
D. Online teaching programme ‘SMILE’ for govt. students in Rajasthan
5.This system of online teaching is :
A. Visionary C. Virtual
B. Traditional D. Both A and C
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6. ‘Sir’ is a:
A. Designation C. Salutation
B. Subscription D. Both A and C
ANSWER KEY -
1- B 3- D
2. D 4- D
1- C 5- D
2- C 6- C
Letter to Editor
1] A Formal Letter Should Be _________ To Have The Desired Effect On The Recipient.
A- In Proper format C- Relevant
B- Grammatically correct D- All these
Ans- D
2] How To End The Main Body Of A Formal Letter?
A- by telling the recipient what he should be doing next
B- By showing love
C- By discussing weather
D- None
Ans- A
3] What Would You Write In The Opening Part Of A Formal Letter ?
A- Asking About Health
B- Asking About Family
C- Informing About Purpose Or Writing The Letter
D- None
Ans- C
4] The Key Point Of A Formal Letter Is Written In Which Part Of A Formal Letter ?
A- Intro C- Subject
B- Heading D- Body
Ans- D
5] What Is The Accurate Representation To Show The Purpose Of A Letter ?
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A- Please Note Formal Notice C- Subject : Formal Notice

B- Attention : Formal Notice D- Announcement : Formal Notice
Ans- C
6] Which Of The Following Is A Characteristic Of The Block Format Of A Formal Letter ?
A- There is no indentation
B- Use of punctuation marks is dispensed within the block format
C- Each block begins with margin on left hand side
D- All
Ans- D
7] What Is The Correct Way To Write The Subscription In A Formal Letter ?
A- Yours truly C- You truly
B- Your truly D- None
Ans- A
8] What Is Written On The Top Of Editor's Letter On The Left Side ?
A- Salutation C- Subject
B- Yours truly D- Sender’s address
Ans- D
9] Which Of These Is The Right Format Of Writing The Date In All The Formal Letters ?
A- 21/11/2021 C- November 21, 2021
B- 21-11-2021 D- None
Ans- C
10] The Subject Of Letter To Editor Should Be _____?
A- Long
B- Irrelevant
C- Brief and relevant
D- None
Ans- C
11] Which Of These Is The Most Suitable Salutation Of A Letter To The Editor ?
A- Dear sir/madam C- Mr. Editor/Mrs. editor
B- Mr. Sir /Mrs. madam D- None
Ans- A
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12] Which Of The Following Statements Is Incorrect about letter to editor ?

A- Must be in formal language C- Must be relevant information
B- Must be complete in all respects D- Must be informal
Ans- D
13] What Is The Motive Of Writing A Letter To The Editor ?
A- To ask him to take action
B- To order him
C- To request him to give some space to your views in his column
D- None
Ans- C
14] Which Of The Following Is Not A Part Of A Letter To Editor ?
A- Date C- Salutation
B- Subject D- Photo
Ans- D
15] Where Is Receiver's Address Written ?
A- On the top of the letter C- Just above date
B- Just below the date D- Just after salutation
Ans- B
16] Which Of The Following Are The Features Of A Letter To Editor ?
A- Stick to the point C- Relevant content
B- Formal language D- All these
Ans- D
17. At which place ‘With love’ can be used in an informal letter?
(A). Closing. (D). Body.
(B). Opening. (E). None of these
(C). Heading.
Answer: (A).
18. Suppose we didn’t know the recipient’s name of a letter, how we can address the recipient?
(A). Dear Mr/Mrs. (C). My dear.
(B). Hello. (D). Dear Sir or Dear Madam.
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(E). None of these

Answer: D
19. A formal letter should be …… to have the desired effect on the recipient ?
(A). In the proper format. (D). All of these.
(B). To the point and relevant. (E). None of these
(C). Grammatically correct.
Answer: All of these.
20. Suppose we didn’t know the recipient’s name, how we can close and end the letter?
With love.
(A). Yours sincerely. (C). Yours faithfully.
(B). Affectionately yours. (D). None of these
Answer: C
21. How we can address the recipient when we are writing an informal letter?
(A). Dear Mr. (D). My dear.
(B). Hello Sir/Madam. (E). None of these
(C). Dear Sir/Madam.
Answer: D
22. Which of the following is the name given to the date and address at the top in a formal letter?
(A). Starting. (D). Heading.
(B). Closing. (E). None of these
(C). Body.
Answer: Heading.
23. How to end the main body of a formal letter?

(A). By showing your love for the recipient.
(B). By discussing the weather in your city.
(C). By discussing the weather in the recipient’s city.
(D). By telling the recipient what he should be doing next.
(E). None of these
Answer: D
24.What would you say in The opening part of a formal letter having which kind of information?
53
(A). Ask how good the weather is in the recipient’s city.

(B). Inform the recipient why you are writing the letter.
(C). discussing the recipient if he is hale and hearty.
(D). discussing how good the weather is in your city.
Answer: B
25. The key point of a formal letter is written in which part of a formal letter?
(A). Postscript. (D). Closing.
(B). Body. (E). None of these
(C). Opening.
Answer: B
Business Letters
1. Answer the following questions related to business letters:-

1. Which of these must be avoided in business letters?
a) Polite words c) Abbreviations
b) Formal words d) Clear details
2. Which of these must not be mentioned in a business letter?
a) Information of the quality of the order c) The mode of payment
b) Name of the firm d) With regards
3. Where should the name of the firm be mentioned?
a) Right of the page c) Above the address of the writer
b) Below the address of the writer d) On the last page of the letter
4. Which of these is not a mode of address for any letter?

a) To a tradesman c) To a firm
b) To a child d) To professional men
5. Which of these is not used to conclude a business letter?
a) Yours faithfully c) Yours sincerely
b) Yours truly d) With kind regards
6. Which of these should not be present in a business letter?
54
a) The name of firm or businessman c) Business jargon

b) The date d) Courteous leave-taking
7. Where are the details of enclosures mentioned?
a) Beginning of the letter c) Right-hand side of the letter
b) Below the signature column d) Main body of the letter
8.What is written on the top of a business letter on left side?
a) Sender’s Address c)Date
b) Receiver’s address d) Salutation
9. what is written below the senders address in a business letter
a)Salutation c)Date
b) Receiver’s address d) Salutation
10. Which correct while writing Date in a business letter.
a) 23/03/2021 c)March 23,2021
b) 23rd March,2021. d) None
11.The business Letter should be-
a) As long as possible c) Elaborative
b) Brief,clear & relevant d) None
12. Where is the salutation placed in a Business letter?
a) Just above the date c) along with the date
b) Just below the date d) None
13. Which is the most appropriate salutation for a Business letter-

a) Dear Sir/Madam c)Mr./Mrs.
b) Sir/Madam d) None
14.Where should the subscription be placed in Business letter?
a) In the beginning c)In the end
b) in the middle d) None
15. What is the motive of a business letter?
a) to place an order b) to complaint
55
c) to enquire about the products d) All of the above

4. Complete the letter by choosing best option: -
Write a letter to the customer service manager of Ganesh Electronics Pvt. Ltd. complaining about a defect in the
music system purchased from the store. Sign yourself as Gauri/Gaurav. (100-150 words)
H.No.58 Block-D
Sector 26, Rohini
New Delhi- 110085
11 February 2021
To
……….(16)………..
Ganesh Electronics Pvt. Ltd.
Rohini, New Delhi- 110085
Subject- ………………..(17 )………..no. MS-845/07/2020
…..(18)…..
I hereby write to complain regarding the defect in the music system w.r.t bill no. MS-845/07/2020 purchased on 11
January 2021 from your store.
The music system worked properly for one month but it has not been functioning properly for the past three days.
The sound breaks whilst the songs are being played and the system hangs multiple times. Coupled with this, the
songs stop playing abruptly and require the system to be restarted. Since the music system is still in the warranty
period of six months, I wish to get it replaced at the earliest.
I request you to look into this matter without any delay and provide a new working music system of the same brand.
I have enclosed a copy of the bill of purchase for your reference. Looking forward to your early response.
Thanking you
…………. (19)
…………(20)
16.The letter is to be written to-
a) Customer Care c) Customer Service Manager
b) Service Manager d) None
17. The Subject of the letter is-
a) about missing item c) about damaged parcel
b) Filing complaint for a defect in purchase d) None
18.The salutation for this letter should be-
a) Dear Sir b) Sir
56
c)Madam d) Dear Friend

19.The Complimentary/concluding phrase close for this letter should be-
a) Yours lovely c)Yours Friend
b) Yours affectionately d) Yours Truly
20.Who is the sender of this letter
a) Gauri c)Rakesh
b) Mohan d) None
V. Complete the given letter by choosing best alternates-
You wish to do Spanish learning course from the institute ‘Learn a Language’. Write a letter to enquire about
course details, fees, duration etc. sign yourself as Kritika/Kartik. (100-150 words)
584, Defence Colony
Dehradun
Uttarakhand- 24801
…………..(24)… .
To
The Manager
…………….( 21)
Connaught Place
Uttarakhand- 248001
Subject- ………………….(22)
Sir/ Ma’am
I wish to enquire about the Spanish learning course offered by your institute. Since I have basic knowledge of
Spanish language priorly, I wish to learn the language at an advanced level.
I request you to provide the following details relating to the advance level Spanish learning course-
i.fee of the course

ii.duration of the course
iii.Course material
iv.Class schedule
v.batch size (if any) and;
vi other relevant details
Please attach the complete brochure along with the letter. I look forward to a quick response regarding the enquiry.
57
Thanking you
Yours truly
…………….(23)
21. What is the name of the Recepient Institute
a) Joy of Learning c) Oxford Institute
b) Cambridge Institute d) Learn a Language
22.what should be the subject of the letter?
a) to place an order c) to complaint
b) Enquiring about Spanish learning course d) None
23. Who is the sender of this letter?
a) Rohan/Reeta c)Kritika/Kartik
b) Sohan/Seema d) All the above
24.Appropriate format for the date should be-
a) 12/02/2021 c)Feb.12,2021
b) 21 February 2021 d) None
25. what information the sender may seek-
a) about the duration of the course c)Course Scedule
b) About the Fee d) All of the above
VI. Complete the given letter by giving best alternates: -
You are in-charge of purchase for Turbo Automobiles Ltd. Last week you made an order which is still pending.
Write a letter to the manager of ‘Tools & Spares’ for the cancellation of the aforementioned order in less than 150
words.
………………….(26)
Pahar Ganj, Central Delhi
Delhi- 110055
3 March 2021
To
The Manager
……………..(27)
Delhi- 110065
Subject- ……………(28)…….no. TS/948 dated 6 September 2020
Sir
58
I want to draw your attention to an order made with you on 6 February 2020 w.r.t order number TS/948. I hereby
make a kind request to cancel this order.
Our company had undertaken a project for which this order was made. However, we are no longer doing the project
and hence we do not require the items that we ordered from you. Since the order cancellation request is made within
10 days of the order placement, it is in compliance with your firm policies. No payment had been made and thus,
there are no outstanding balances and the accounts stand clear.
Please confirm the cancellation of the order at the earliest. I shall make the cancellation payment after cancellation
is confirmed. I have enclosed a copy of the original order receipt.
Thanking you
Yours faithfully
Sarvesh
Purchase in-charge
26.What is the name of the sender’s firm-
a) Turbo Automobiles Ltd c)MRF
b) Reliance d)Mahindra & Mahindra
27.What is the name of the recipient firm-
a) Turbo Automobiles Ltd c) Reliance
b) Mahindra & Mahindra d) Tools & Spares
28.what is the subject for this letter-
a) Placing an order c) Cancellation of order
b) Replacement of items d)None
29.Who is the sender /writer of this letter?
a) Co ordinator c)Manager
b) Purchase Incharge d) Secretary
30. Why they have to cancel the order-
a) the were damaged c) they found the items missing
b) They stopped working d) Because they have withdrawn the project.
VII.Answer the following questions related to business letters:-
31. Which is the perfect line to commence a Business Letter?
a) Through the columns your esteemed c) With reference to your advertisement
b) I would like to introduce d) None
32. Which is not a part of Business letter?
59
a) Photo c) signature
b) Date d) Salutation
33. Which is a right way to sign off the Business letter-
a) a Concerned Citizen c) Yours Truly
b) An aspirant d) All of the above
34. What is the ideal word limit for a Business Letter-
a) 500 c) 400
b) 1000 d) 150
35. What are the parameters for measuring a business Letter-
a) Grammatical Accuracy c) Expressio
b) Format d) All of the above
Answer Key –
1. c 2. d 3. c 4.c 5. b 6.c 7.b 8. 9. c 10.b 11. b 12. d 13.b 14. c 15. d 16. C 17.b 18. b 19.d 20. A 21. D
22.b 23. c 24. b 25.d 26.a 27. d 28.c 29. c 30. d 31. b 32.a 33.c 34. d 35. D
Grammar Section
Tenses
Choose the correct option-
Q1. I __________ working all afternoon and have just finished the assignment.
A have been C shall be
B had been D am
Q2. Rohan __________ the movie before he read the review.
A watches B have watched
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C had watched D was watching

Q3. He __________ in the States but he still does not have a command over the English language.
A have been living C have lived
B has been living D living
Q4. By the next month, we shall __________ the project.
A has completed C completed
B completing D have completed
Q5. Every boy and girl __________ in the class today.
A are present C have present
B is present D had present
Q6. He __________ daily for a year now.
A exercises C has been exercising
B was exercising D have been exercising
Q7. I __________ this book since morning.
A had been reading C have had read
B has been reading D shall be reading
Q8. Which tense is used to express general truths and facts?
A Present continuous tense C Past perfect tense
B Present perfect tense D Present indefinite tense
Q9. According to the prevailing rate, two dozen __________ rupees one hundred.
A costs C costing
B cost D costed
Q10. The Council __________ made its decision.

A have C has
B have had D having
Q11. What do tenses as the form of a verb help to determine?
A The time of the action C Both (A) and (B)
B The state of the action D The number of action
Q12. Which tense is used to show the completion of an action by a certain time in the future?
A Future perfect tense B Present indefinite tense
61
C Future perfect continuous tense D Both (A) and (C)

Q13. Identify the tense used in the following sentence. “When I reached the bookstore, all the copies had already
been sold.”
A Past perfect tense C Present perfect tense
B Past indefinite tense D Present indefinite tense
Q14. The wise leader and politician __________ assassinated.
A are C have been
B has been D have had been
Q15. Neither of the paintings __________ sold.
A have been C are
B were D was
Correct Ans. B
Q16. Sita or her brothers __________ to be blamed.
A is C are
B has D was
Q17. The Chief guest, with his wife, __________.
A has left C have left
B are leaving D left
Q18. The quality of products __________ over time.
A are degrading C have degrading
B have been degrading D were degraded
Correct Ans. B
Q19. The news __________ not updated timely.

A were C is
B have D are
Q20. They __________ into their cars and drove away.
A has got C gets
B have got D got
Q21. Choose the sentence with the future perfect tense.
A They shall have arrived by then. B They shall be arriving by then.
62
C They shall arrive by then. D They shall have been arriving by then.
Q22. Identify the tense used in the following sentence. “We are going to reach the destination as scheduled.”
A Present continuous tense C Future continuous tense
B Future perfect continuous tense D Present perfect continuous tense
Q23. Which tense is used to express an action going at some point in the past?
A Past indefinite tense C Past continuous tense
B Past perfect continuous tense D Past perfect continuous tense
Q24. Each of the four army soldiers __________ for the mission.
A were ready C was ready
B are ready D have been ready
Q25. The thief and the eye-witness __________.
A has escaped C was escaping
B has been escaping D have escaped
Q26. Back in my native place, I __________ a smartphone.
A did not have C did not had
B do not have D do not had
Q27. Choose the correct sentence.
A When I woke up, he has already eaten breakfast.
B When I woke up, he had already eaten breakfast.
C When I had woken up, he had already ate breakfast.
D When I had woken up, he has already ate breakfast.
Q28. I __________ the medicine as prescribed by the doctor for a week now.
A takes C would have taken
B have been taking D have had been taking
Q29. You and I __________ the obligations.
A am fulfilled C have fulfilled
B has been fulfilling D has fulfilled
Q30. Identify the tense used in the sentence. “Her brother will walk her down the aisle.”
A Future indefinite tense C Present indefinite tense
B Future perfect tense D Present perfect tense
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Q31. Choose the past perfect continuous tense form of the sentence. “The children played in the park throughout
the evening.”
A The children played in the park throughout the evening.
B The children have been playing in the park throughout the evening.
C The children had played in the park throughout the evening.
D The children had been playing in the park throughout the evening.
Q32. Identify the tense used in the sentence. “Here comes the soon-to-be bride!”
A Present continuous tense C Future indefinite tense
B Present indefinite tense D Present perfect tense
Q33. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. “The weatherman forecasted that it’s going to rain.”
A Present indefinite tense C Future perfect continuous tense
B Future indefinite tense D Future continuous tense
Q34. Two-thirds of the food supply __________ for the month.
A has been used C have been using
B were used D has been using
Q35. The technique of paraphrasing __________.
A are practised C have to be practised
B has to be practised D is practising
Q36. “Shyam and his brothers” __________ a famous sweet shop in our neighbourhood.
A are C is
B have been D have
Q37. Which tense is used to express that an action started in the past and is continuing till now?
A Present perfect tense C Past continuous tense
B Past perfect continuous tense D Present perfect continuous tense
Q38. Identify the tense used in the sentence. “While he was in the military, he still regularly wrote to me.”
A Past indefinite tense C Present indefinite
B Past perfect tense D Past perfect continuous tense
Q39. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. “He is always found reading the newspaper.”
A Present indefinite tense C Present continuous tense
B Present perfect continuous tense D Present perfect tense
Q40. Fill in the blank with the present perfect tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “James ___________
to visit her grandmother.” (go)
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A have been going C has gone

B had gone D has been going
Q41. Fill in the blank with the future perfect continuous tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “We
__________ for an hour now.” (wait)
A shall have been waiting C shall be waiting
B have been waiting D had been waiting
Q42. Choose the present indefinite tense form of the sentence. “He had been sleeping.”
A He has been sleeping. C He has slept.
B He had slept. D He sleeps.
Q43. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. “He joined the cooking school late but only in a few
months had mastered the recipes.”
A Past indefinite tense C Present perfect tense
B Past perfect tense D Present indefinite tense
Q44. By the time she was fifteen, she __________ a beautiful singer.
A shall become C had become
B become D has becoming
Q45. Fill in the blank with the present perfect continuous tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “Adam
__________ a health regime everyday.” (follow)
A follows C has been following
B have been following D has followed
Q46. Neither she nor I __________ at home.
A were C has been
B was D be
Q47. My friends and I __________ stuck there.

A had been C has been
B was D have had been
A Sam have gone to buy some groceries. C Sam be going to buy some groceries.
B Sam had going to buy some groceries. D Sam is going to buy some groceries
Q49. Which tense is used to express an action taking place in the future?
A Future perfect tense B Future perfect continuous tense
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C Future indefinite tense D Future continuous tense

Q50. Chris __________ to attend the programme.
A did not wanted C do not wanted
B did not want D does not wanted
Q51. Meera __________ for the charitable cause.
A came to contribute C came to contributed
B come to contributed D comes to contributed
Q52. Fill in the blank with the past continuous tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “Monica __________
since last week.” (plan)
A did plan C had been planning
B has been planning D was planning
Q53. The crowd that __________ due to the quarrel has dispersed now.
A have gathered C had gathered
B has been gathered D has been gathering
Q54. Identify the tense used in the sentence. “Nick has purchased a new laptop.”
A Present perfect tense C Past perfect tense
B Past indefinite tense D Present indefinite tense
Q55. The stars __________ bright at night.
A shines C has shine
B shine D shining
Q56. Identify the tense used in the sentence. “When shall our application be approved?”
A Future perfect tense C Past perfect tense
B Present indefinite tense D Future indefinite tense
Q57. Which tense is used to express an action completed in the immediate past?
A Past indefinite tense C Present perfect tense
B Present indefinite tense D Past perfect tense
Q58. Choose the past perfect continuous tense form of the sentence. “George travels around the world.”
A George has been travelling around the world.
B George had been travelling around the world.
C George shall have been travelling around the world.
D George was travelling around the world.
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Q59. You should not __________ back with your teacher.

A talk C had talked
B talks D talked
Q60. Pentagon __________ five sides.
A have had C has
B had D have
Q 61. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “My father’s shop has been sold out.”
A Past perfect tense C Past indefinite tense
Q 62. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “I am visiting her now.”
A Present indefinite tense C Future perfect tense
B Future perfect continuous tense D Present continuous tense
Q63. Fill in the blank with the future perfect tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “Peter __________ had
it been possible.” (adjust)
A would adjust C has adjusted
B would have adjusted D had adjusted
Q64. Choose the future perfect tense form of the given sentence. “He has a lot of experience.”
A He had a lot of experience. C He will have had a lot of experience.
B He will have a lot of experience. D He will be having a lot of experience.
Q65. I probably __________ left.
A should have C has
B will D having
Q66. Fill in the blank with the present perfect tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “I __________ here for
a month now.” (be)
A had been C have been
B would have been D have had been
Q67. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. “By the time I was informed, the registrations had been
closed.”
A Past perfect tense C Past indefinite tense
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A Harry inviting me to his farmhouse once.

B Harry shall invited me to his farmhouse once.
C Harry had invited me to his farmhouse once.
D Harry has been inviting me to his farmhouse once.
Q69. Has the itinerary __________ yet?
A been deciding C decided
B been decided D be decided
Q70. It is a tradition that __________ ever since.
A have been celebrated C has been celebrated
B had been celebrated D has been celebrating
Correct Ans. C
Q71. Jackson and Kate __________ all this time.
A have been collaborating C collaborate
B have to collaborate D collaborates
Q72. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “Welcome to the ceremony.”
A Present perfect tense C Past indefinite tense
B Present indefinite tense D Past perfect tense
Q73. Fill in the blank with the past perfect continuous tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “The area
__________ from an earthquake.” (recover)
A is recovering C had been recovering
B has been recovering D has recovered
Q74. Choose the present perfect tense form of the given sentence. “The manager shall be on leave.”
A The manager is on a leave. C The manager was on leave.
B The manager had been on leave. D The manager has been on leave
Q75. Mathematics __________ difficult by many students.
A is found C has been founding
B has found D are found
Q76. I __________ you my last year’s books.
A have had lend C lends
B shall lend D lending
Q77. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. “As soon as I was ready to leave, it started to pour.”
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A Present perfect tense C Past indefinite tense

B Past perfect tense D Present indefinite tense
Q78. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “Someone picked my pocket.”
A Present indefinite tense C Past perfect tense
B Past indefinite tense D Present perfect tense
Q79. Choose the future perfect tense form of the given sentence. “Charlie is the headboy of our school.”
A Charlie will be the headboy of our school.
B Charlie has been the headboy of our school.
C Charlie have had been the headboy of our school.
D Charlie would have been the headboy of our school.
Q80. Which tense is used to express a person’s habitual or regular activities?
A Present perfect tense C Present indefinite tense
B Present perfect continuous tense D Present continuous tense
Q81. Joey __________ from the vacation just now.
A has returned C had been returning
B had returned D returns
Q82. You should not __________ the worst.
A assumed C assume
B assuming D assumes
Q83. Choose the future indefinite tense form of the given sentence. “The parcel has been delivered.”
A The parcel had been delivered. C The parcel was delivered.
B The parcel will be delivered. D The parcel would have been delivered.
Q84. Fill in the blank with the present perfect continuous tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “Workers
__________ day and night.” (work)
A had been working C has been working
B have been working D are working
Q85. Fill in the blank with the past perfect tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “Vikram __________ his
job.” (do)
A did C had done
B was doing D had been doing
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A I did not accompanied them. C I does not accompany them.

B I do not accompanied them. D I do not accompany them.
Q87. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “Sasha scolds and asks her to go away.”
A Past indefinite tense C Present indefinite tense
B Past perfect tense D Present perfect tense
Correct Ans.C
Q88. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “John met the officer in the evening.”
A Past continuous tense C Past perfect tense
B Past perfect continuous tense D Past indefinite tense
Q89. The whole family __________ for the ceremony.
A has been invited C invites
B have been invited D invited
Q90. Fill in the blank with the past indefinite tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “After a long day at
work, Rachel _________ tired.” (be)
A is C had been
B are D has been
Q91. Which tense is used to express an action that is taking place at the time of speaking?
A Present perfect continuous tense C Present continuous tense
B Present indefinite tense D Present perfect tense
Q92. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. “She has decided to distribute the duties after everyone
completes their work.”
A Past perfect tense C Present indefinite tense
B Present perfect tense D Past indefinite tense
Q93. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “Everyone shall be reaching by tomorrow.”
A Future indefinite tense C Future perfect continuous tense
B Present continuous tense D Future continuous tense
Q94. Joseph __________ by everyone after he won the competition.
A was congratulated C shall be congratulated
B congratulate D have been congratulated
A He visit the temple frequently. B He visits the temple frequently.
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C He had visiting the temple frequently. D He have had visited the temple frequently.
Q96. Fill in the blank with the future perfect tense form of the verb given in the bracket. “Mary __________
seats for us.” (save)
A ought to save C would have saved
B should save D would save
Q97. Identify the tense used in the underlined phrase. “She speaks less but has strong opinions.”
A Present indefinite tense C Past perfect tense
B Present perfect tense D Past indefinite tense
Q98. Identify the tense used in the given sentence. “You are always working on your laptop.”
A Present indefinite tense C Present continuous tense
B Present perfect tense D Present perfect continuous tense
Q99. Jack and John __________ helpful.
A be C was
B have been D had been
Q100. Which tense is used to express an action that began in the past before some point and continued up to that
point?
A Past indefinite tense C Past perfect continuous tense
B Past perfect tense D Past continuous tense
Answer key for English Grammar Topic – ‘Tenses MCQs
Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer Q. No. Answer

1 B 26 A 51 A 76 B
2 C 27 B 52 D 77 C
3 B 28 B 53 C 78 B
4 D 29 C 54 A 79 D
5 B 30 B 55 B 80 C
6 C 31 D 56 D 81 A
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7 A 32 B 57 D 82 C
8 D 33 D 58 B 83 B
9 B 34 A 59 A 84 B
10 C 35 B 60 C 85 C
11 C 36 C 61 B 86 D
12 C 37 D 62 D 87 C
13 A 38 B 63 B 88 C
14 B 39 C 64 C 89 A
15 D 40 C 65 A 90 C
16 C 41 A 66 C 91 C
17 A 42 D 67 A 92 B
18 B 43 B 68 C 93 D
19 C 44 C 69 B 94 A
20 D 45 C 70 C 95 B
21 A 46 B 71 A 96 C
22 B 47 A 72 B 97 A
23 C 48 D 73 C 98 C
24 C 49 C 74 D 99 D
25 D 50 B 75 A 100 C
Modals
Choose the correct option
Q1. This dress suits her style. She __________ definitely like it!
A. can C. will
B. could D. may
Q2. When Juan was two, he __________ already speak very well.
A. might C. can
B. could D. should
Q3. She __________ visit her grandparents’ house during holidays.
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A. dare to C. can
B. ought to D. might
Q4. __________ I talk to the manager?
A. Might C. Could
B. May D. Shall
Q5. During peak hours, it _________ take more than two hours.
A. can C. shall
B. should D. will
Q6. How __________ she do that to us!
A. would C. could
B. must D. shall
Q7. If I get the required assistance, I __________ pass the exam in the first attempt.
A. shall C. might
B. can not D. could
Q8. The audience __________ settle before the doors are closed.
A. can C. might
B. shall D. must
Q9. We __________ always respect our elders.
A. can C. should
B. will D. could
Q10. ___________ we save money for the party?
A. would C. should
B. need D. dare
Q11. All students __________ obey the school regulations.
A. could C. are able to
B. must D. will
Q12. You __________ visit them, just make a phone call.
A. can not C. need not
B. will D. shall not
Q13. All members ___________ attend the meeting as per the notice.
A. can B. would
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C. might D. should
Q14. There ________ be a famous shop here.
A. used to C. ought to
B. should D. would
Q15. There has been a landslide. You __________ be careful while driving there.
A. can C. could
B. must D. would
Q16. I ___________ have won the tournament.
A. need to C. could
B. will D. dare to
Q17. You __________ speak in the library.
A. must not C. need not
B. dare not D. could not
Q18. “We _________ definitely look into the matter”, the officer affirmed.
A. need to C. will
B. would D. dare to
Q19. It’s time we _________ leave.
A. might C. might have
B. should D. could have
Q20. We are __________ wait in the lobby until the receptionist calls again.
A. supposed to C. obliged to
B. used to D. able to
Q21. Oh! I __________ have loved to go with you all.

A. could
B. should
C. might
D. would
Q22. __________ you pass me the salt and pepper?
A. Might C. Shall
B. Can D. Ought
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Q23. I __________ make sure that he performs better.

A. would have C. will
B. should have D. might
Q24. __________ you be a little polite?
A. Should C. Need
B. Will have D. Could
Q25. He is the chief guest. He __________ be there.
A. ought to C. might
B. could D. supposed to
Q26. __________ I borrow some money from your father?
A. Ought C. Might
B. May D. Would
Q27. He seems dangerous. We __________ talk to him.
A. would not C. should not
B. might not D. could not
Q28. We __________ reach by 7 PM before the ceremony starts.
A. must C. could
B. might D. dare
Q29. That restaurant serves the best sushi. You __________ definitely try!
A. would C. may
B. might D. should
Q30. It has started raining. I __________have carried my umbrella.

A. might C. would
B. should D. could
Q31. The road seems uneven, you __________ slow down.
A. would C. need to
B. can D. dare to
Q32. He __________ be shy during his college days.
A. used to C. ought to
B. need to D. could
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Q33. __________ you like to accompany us on the tour?

A. Should C. Will
B. Would D. Shall
Q34. We __________have given an identity card to them.
A. would C. should
B. will D. might
Q35. I am unable to find my phone. I __________have lost it on the way back.
A. should C. might
B. could D. ought to
Q36. You __________ always inform your parents of your whereabouts.
A. should C. could
B. would D. may
Q37. Don’t you ___________ lie to me!
A. need to C. ought to
B. dare D. have
Q38. You __________ visit the doctor before the condition worsens.
A. can C. must
B. could D. might
Q39. You __________ be informed about the results soon.
A. might C. ought to
B. will D. can
Q40. __________ I make an announcement?

A. Shall C. Could
B. Should D. Will
Q41. You __________ pay for the damage done!
A. could C. dare
B. would D. must
Q42. I __________ do this before the deadline.
A. dare to C. ought to
B. may have D. would have
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Q43. Had our flights been on time, we __________ reached by now.

A. could have C. might have
B. would have D. need to
Q44. I __________ go to the supermarket in the evening.
A. could C. will
B. can D. dare
Q45. Drivers __________ wear the seat belt while driving.
A. will C. dare to
B. ought to D. might
Q46. I __________ go and check the arrangements downstairs.
A. should C. might
B. would D. can
Q47. Rajeev had an accident. He __________ attend the meeting.
A. might not C. dare not
B. can not D. ought not
Q48. __________ we inform them about our arrival?
A. May C. Should
B. Could D. Would
Q49. I __________ performed better had I practiced more.
A. should have C. will
B. could have D. used to
Q50. We __________ celebrate often when we lived together.

A. ought to C. used to
B. need to D. can
Q51. If you are nervous, __________ I speak to her?
A. should C. can
B. would D. could
Q52. The class is dismissed. You __________ leave now.
A. should C. need to
B. can D. ought to
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Q53. You __________ follow the court orders.

A. could C. can
B. might D. must
Q54. __________ you please bring me a chair?
A. Might C. Would
B. Would have D. Can
Q55. He is our colleague. We __________ invite him.
A. can C. dare to
B. must D. will
Q56. You __________ borrow my books for your research.
A. need to C. have to
B. can D. ought to
Q57. It was a grand party. They __________have spent a lot.
A. might C. could
B. need to D. must
Q58. Had he wanted, he __________have completed the project by now.
A. should C. could
B. might D. must
Q59. We __________ either host lunch or dinner.
A. may C. ought to
B. could D. shall
Q60. I __________ wake up early to catch the flight tomorrow.

A. must C. could
B. can D. would have
Q61. ___________ we hire a tour guide?
A. Could C. Would
B. Should D. Might
Q62. I __________ believe my eyes!
A. might not C. couldn’t
B. must not D. shouldn’t
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Q63. We __________ finish our meals before we leave.

A. dare to C. could
B. ought to D. would
Q64. I missed my last appointment. I __________ visit the doctor this weekend.
A. must C. can
B. used to D. could
Q65. You ___________ ask your mom before submitting the application.
A. would C. can
B. could D. should
Q66. I __________ appreciate your presence there.
A. can C. will have
B. should D. would
Q67. You __________have read the terms and conditions before you signed the document.
A. could C. would
B. should D. might
Q68. During the college days, I __________ beat them all in the race!
A. could C. can
B. should D. might
Q69. People __________ be interested to learn about his struggle.
A. could C. would
B. might D. should
Q70. Do you __________ fight with those goons?

A. ought to C. dare to
B. might D. must
Q71. You __________ babysit your sister as her elder brother.
A. will C. could
B. can D. ought to
Q72. It is big news! We ___________ definitely celebrate.
A. should C. would
B. could D. might
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Q73. She __________ make any mistake. She’s an expert in her field.
A. couldn’t C. shouldn’t
B. wouldn’t D. might not
Q74. How __________ we assist you?
A. would C. should
B. can D. will
Q75. Rohan __________ be here anytime soon.
A. can C. will
B. would D. may
Q76. You __________ go to the picnic but on some condition.
A. should C. would have
B. could have D. can
Q77. I __________have been there if I had the address.
A. would have C. should have
B. could have D. might have
Q78. I have decided that I __________ go to Bali this year definitely.
A. should C. can
B. will D. could
Q79. We are the organisers. We __________ welcome the guests.
A. could C. ought to
B. might D. would
Q80. You _________ bring more food. We have enough supplies already.
A. shall not C. could not
B. need not D. would not
Q81. It was a long day. You __________ be hungry.
A. must C. need to
B. might D. should
Q82. I am busy right now. I __________ call you later.
A. could C. dare to
B. ought to D. shall
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Q83. __________ you be able to convince him?

A. Could C. Should
B. Will D. May
Q84. The train is running late. We _________ reach on time.
A. should not C. could not
B. might not D. need not
Q85. We ___________ disturb the committee for such a trivial matter.
A. dare not C. should not
B. can not D. will not
Q86. It’s not a hectic job. You __________ stress.
A. can not C. dare not
B. need not D. will not
Q87. The soup is hot. You __________ be careful.
A. should C. would
B. could D. might
Q88. It’s high time. I __________ take this anymore.
A. should not C. can not
B. will not D. may not
Q89. We ___________ apologised if we had been at fault.
A. could have C. ought to have
B. should have D. would have
Q90. We __________ tease each other during childhood.

A. used to C. should
B. need to D. Will
Q91. I __________ talk to your guardian if you don’t behave nicely.
A. could have C. shall
B. ought to have D. should
Q92. She __________ deposit the cheque on time to get it cleared.
A. dare to C. might
B. must D. could
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Q93. ___________ I invite her for a meal?

A. Would C. Can
B. Must D. Need
Q94. They __________ decided by now.
A. should have C. will have
B. could have D. ought to have
Q95. We _________ afford a new car this year.
A. should C. may
B. might D. can
Q96. We __________ take a detour before we reach the destination.
A. would C. might
B. should D. will
Q97. You __________ pay attention in the class.
A. can C. may
B. should D. might
Q98. ____________ I call the witness?
A. Could C. Should
B. Can D. May
Q99. There’s not much time left. I __________ start packing for the tour.
A. need to C. can
B. might D. Could
Q100. We __________ touch the antique pieces.

A. should not C. need not
B. dare not D. can not
Answer key for ‘Modals’ MCQs
Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.
1 C 21 D 41 D 61 B 81 A
2 B 22 B 42 C 62 C 82 D
3 D 23 C 43 B 63 B 83 B
4 B 24 D 44 C 64 A 84 B
82
5 A 25 A 45 B 65 D 85 C
6 C 26 B 46 A 66 D 86 B
7 C 27 C 47 B 67 B 87 A
8 D 28 A 48 C 68 A 88 C
9 C 29 D 49 B 69 B 89 D
10 C 30 B 50 C 70 C 90 A
11 B 31 C 51 A 71 D 91 C
12 C 32 A 52 B 72 A 92 B
13 D 33 B 53 D 73 B 93 C
14 A 34 C 54 C 74 B 94 A
15 B 35 C 55 B 75 C 95 D
16 C 36 A 56 B 76 D 96 C
17 A 37 B 57 D 77 A 97 B
18 C 38 C 58 C 78 B 98 D
19 B 39 B 59 A 79 C 99 A
20 A 40 A 60 A 80 B 100 B
Subject Verb Agreement
Q1. __________ of the two sisters is married. A. Both

A. Both B. Each
B. Every C. Every
C. Each D. Many
D. Any Q3. We should inform __________ of them.
Q2. _________ of you should attend the A. many
conference.
B. every
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C. few B. Much
D. all C. The few
Q4. They have spent __________ for their son’s D. Little
wedding.
Q10. It seems that they would need _________
A. many workers for the construction.
B. enough A. little
C. all B. either
D the little C. more
Q5. __________ of the candidates pass this exam. D. some
A. Enough Q11. _________ man that we saw turned out to be a
thief.
B. Fewer
A. A
C. Either
B. The
D. Most
C. That
Q6. __________ of the deadlines is met.
D. This
A. Neither
Q12. Can ___________ help me?
B. No
A. many
C. None
B. nobody
D. Much
C. everybody
Q7. Can I borrow __________ sugar?
D. somebody
A. much
Q13. He should work _________ and take a break.
B. some
A. less
C. a little
B. little
D. a few
C. a little
Q8. With this, you have lost __________ chance
that you had. D. more
A. a little Q14. He told me that __________ blue was her
favoritecolor.
B. little
A. a
C. the little
B. the
D. slight
C. this
Q9. __________ participants left the meeting in
between. D. None of the above
A. Several Q15. You can pick ___________ of two.
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A. many 1. C 11. B
B. more 2. A 12. D
C. either 3. D 13. A
D some 4. B 14. D
Q16. __________ those students were punished. 5. D 15. C
A. All 6. A 16. A
B. Much 7. B 17. D
C. Enough 8. C 19. A
D. Some 9. A 20. C
Q17. There isn’t ___________ cash left with us. 10. C
A. some
B. many
C. more
D. much Subject Verb Agreement
Q18. Despite looking for her ___________, I Q1. The teacher ____________ completed this
couldn’t find her. chapter.
A. somewhere A. have
B. anywhere B. has
C. everywhere C. is
D. nowhere D. are
Q19. ____________ one of them has been invited. Q2. Ram and Shyam __________ business partners.
A. Each A. have
B. Every B. has
C. Many C. are
D. Much D. had
Q20. ___________ sun is about to set. Q3. She ___________ her office by 9 a.m. daily.
A. A A. reach
B. An B. reaches
C. The C. reached
D. A little D. reaching
Answers: Q4. Rahul and his friends ___________ also invited
to the party.
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A. is D. was
B. was Q10. The information provided to you ___________
wrong.
C. had
A. were
D. were
B. was
Q5. Neither you nor your sister should ___________
to them. C. are
A. talk D. have been
B. talks Q11. The company ____________ of its
stakeholders.
C. talked
A. think
D. talking
B. thought
Q6. Twenty years _________ the minimum age to
fill this form. C. thinks
A. are D. thinking
B. is Q12. Either of the two dresses shall ____________
good.
C. has
A. looking
D. have
B. look
Q7. A bouquet of flowers ___________ required for
the event. C. looks
A. are D. looked
B. have Q13. Each and every member __________ to vote.
C. has A. has
D. is B. have
Q8. A pair of socks ___________ been missing C. having
from my wardrobe.
D. are
A. have
Q14. A large number of soldiers ___________ died
B. has for the country.
C. were A. has
D. is B. is
Q9. Much ____________ been said in the news C. are
reports.
D. have
A. were
Q15. Half of the class ___________ empty.
B. have
A. were
C. has
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B. was B. needs
C. has C. needing
D. have D. has need
Q16. Physics ____________ difficult to understand. Q20. None of the candidates ___________
responded.
A. were
A. were
B. are
B. have
C. is
C. has
D. have been
D. is
Q17. The quality of food here ___________ gone
down. Answers:
A. have 1 B 11 C
B. has
2 C 12 B
C. is
D. are
3 B 13 A
Q18. My mother, along with others, ___________
worried.
4 D 14 D
A. were
B. are 5 A 15 B
C. have
6 B 16 C
D. was
Q19. She ___________ not take a lot of stress. 7 D 17 B
A. need
8 B 18 D
9 C 19 A
10 B 20 B
11 C
Reported speech
1. Nancy said, “I may leave tomorrow.” D. Nancy informed me to leave tomorrow.
A. Nancy said that she might leave the next day. 2. Keshav said, “Rita is busy right now.”
B. Nancy said that she might leave tomorrow. A. Keshav said Rita was busy.
C. Nancy asked if she should leave the next day. B. Keshav informed that Rita was busy then.
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C. Keshav said Rita had been busy. C. The guard asks me who he was.
D. Keshav informed that Rita is busy. D. The guard asked who I was.
3. The teacher said, “You are suspended!.” 9. Ravi said, “The concert ended yesterday.”
A. The teacher exclaimed that I am suspended. A. Ravi said that the concert had ended yesterday.
B. The teacher exclaimed to me to suspend. B. Ravi said that the concert ended the day before.
C. The teacher informed me that I was suspended. C. Ravi said that the concert had ended the previous
day.
D. The teacher exclaimed that I was suspended.
D. Ravi said that the concert ended already.
4. He said, “I have been a great mentor.”
10. The teacher said, “The wind is a renewable
A. He said that he had been a great mentor.
energy source.”
B. He said that he was a great mentor.
A. The teacher said that the wind was a renewable
C. He exclaimed that he was a great mentor. energy source.
D. He said that he has been a great mentor. B. The teacher said that the wind is a renewable
energy source.
5. Vidushi said, “We went for a summer trip.”
C. The teacher told that the wind is a renewable
A. Vidushi said that they went for a summer trip. energy source.
B. Vidushi said that they were on a summer trip. D. The teacher tells that the wind was a renewable
C. Vidushi said that they had gone for a summer energy source.
trip. 11. She said, “Bring a glass of water, please.”
D. Vidushi said they went for a summer trip. A. She commands me to bring a glass of water.
6. Rahul said, “I will manage hereafter.” B. She requested me to bring a glass of water.
A. Rahul said that he would manage hereafter. C. She asked me to brought a glass of water.
B. Rahul said that he will manage thereafter. D. She ordered me to bring her a glass of water.
C. Rahul said that he would manage thereafter. 12. He said, “Let us have dinner here.”
D. Rahul said that he will manage hereafter. A. He proposed that we had dinner there.
7. “I am going out tonight.” Manisha said. B. He asked if we wished to have dinner there.
A. Manisha said that she was going out tonight. C. He said that we should have dinner there.
B. Manisha said that she was going out that night. D. He said that we had dinner there.
C. Manisha said she was going out that night. 13. She said, “Shut the door!”
D. Manisha said that she will be going out that A. She asked me whether I would shut the door.
night.
B. She ordered me to shut the door.
8. The guard asked, “Who are you?”
C. She said that I should shut the door.
A. The guard asked who he was.
D. She shouted and said to shut the do
B. The guard asked me who he was.
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14. The policeman said, “Don’t cross the speed 18. Maria said, “Please lend me a pen.”
limit.”
A. Maria ordered me to lend a pen.
A. The policeman said not to cross the speed limit.
B. Maria begged me to lend her a pen.
B. The policeman asked if I would cross the speed
C. Maria asked if I could lend her pen.
limit.
D. Maria requested me to lend her a pen.
C. The policeman forbade me to cross the speed
limit. 19. He said, “Guard the door.”
D. The policeman asks if I had crossed the speed A. He pleaded with me to guard the door.
limit.
B. He asked if I could guard the door.
15. The student said, “Ma’am, please extend the
deadline.” C. He enquired whether I may guard the door.
A. The student asked the teacher to extend the D. He commanded me to guard the door.
deadline. 20. Joseph said, “Alas! These are difficult times.”
B. The student said if the teacher would extend the A. Joseph said that those were difficult times.
deadline.
B. Joseph said it would have been difficult times.
C. The student requested ma’am to extend the
deadline. C. Joseph sighed with sorrow that those were
difficult times.
D. The student said that ma’am should extend the
deadline. D. Joseph exclaimed that those were difficult times.
16. “Don’t make noise in the library.” the librarian 21. She said, “What a beautiful view!”
said.
A. She said that the view was beautiful.
A. The librarian said not to make noise in the
B. She exclaimed that the view is beautiful.
library.
C. She exclaimed with joy and said that the view
B. The librarian ordered me not to make noise in the
was beautiful.
library.
D. She exclaimed that the view was beautiful.
C. The librarian said to be quiet while in the library.
22. Henry exclaimed with regret that he had missed
D. The librarian asks me to not make any noise.
his flight.
17. Ms. Nita said, “Reschedule the meeting to next
A. Henry said, “Alas! I miss my flight.”
Monday.”
B. Henry said, “I missed my flight.”
A. Ms. Nita asked to reschedule the meeting to the
following Monday. C. Henry said, “Oh! I missed my flight.”
B. Ms. Nita asked for the meeting to be rescheduled D. Henry said, “I would miss my flight!”
to the next Monday.
23. He asked me not to worry.
C. Ms. Nita said to reschedule the meeting for
Monday. A. He said, “He should not worry.”
D. Ms. Nita asked for the rescheduling of the B. He said, “Oh! Don’t worry.”
meeting for the following Monday. C. He said, “ do not worry.”
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D. He said, “You should not worry.” 6. C. Rahul said that he would manage thereafter
24. Rishabh exclaimed with grief that his friend had 7. B. Manisha said that she was going out that night.
died.
8. D. The guard asked who I was.
A. Rishabh said, “Alas! He dies.”
9. C. Ravi said that the concert had ended the
B. Rishabh said, “Alas! My friend died.” previous day.
C. Rishabh said, “Oh! My friend died.” 10. C. The teacher told that the wind is a renewable
energy source
D. Rishabh said, “Oh! Ah! My friend died.”
11. B. She requested me to bring a glass of water.
25. He requested the audience to maintain silence.
12. C. He said that we should have dinner there.
A. He said to the audience, “Please maintain
silence!” 13. B. She ordered me to shut the door.
B. He said, “The audience must maintain silence.” 14. C. The policeman forbade me to cross the speed
limit.
C. He said, “Will the audience maintain silence?”
15. C. The student requested ma’am to extend the
D. He said to the audience, “Please maintain
deadline.
silence.”
16. B. The librarian ordered me not to make noise in
26. Mr. Steven said that that explanation was easier.
the library.
A. Mr. Steven said, “That explanation is easier!”
17. A. Ms. Nita asked to reschedule the meeting to
B. Mr. Steven said, “This explanation was easier.” the following Monday.
C. Mr. Steven said, “This explanation could be 18. D. Maria requested me to lend her a pen.
easier.”
19. D. He commanded me to guard the door.
D. Mr. Steven said, “This explanation is easier.”
20. C. Joseph sighed with sorrow that those were
difficult times.
ANSWER KEY:- 21. D. She exclaimed that the view was beautiful.
1. A. Nancy said that she might leave the next day 22. C. Henry said, “Oh! I missed my flight.”
2. B. Keshav informed that Rita was busy then. 23. C. He said, “ do not worry.”
3. D. The teacher exclaimed that I was suspended. 24. B. Rishabh said, “Alas! My friend died.”
4. A. He said that he had been a great mentor 25. D. He said to the audience, “Please maintain
silence.”
5. C. Vidushi said that they had gone for a summer
trip. 26. D. Mr. Steven said, “This explanation is easier.”
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2. Read the following comic strip and answer the passage given below:
I saw Supandi standing in the field. When I _(I) doing there, he (II) he was trying to win a Nobel prize. I was
confused and enquired how standing in the rice field would help him do so. He stumped me by saying that he
(III) won Nobel prizes had all been outstanding in their fields!
I. (a) exclaimed what he was (b) told him what he was
(c)asked him what he was (d) says to him about what
II. (a) ordered that (b) refused that

(c)questioned that (d)replied that
III. (a) has heard that people who has (b) was hearing that people who has
(c) had heard that people who had (d) did hear that people who had
Answer key I.C II. D III. C

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Literature (Text Books)

First Flight
A Letter to God
Multiple choice Questions
Q1- Where was Lencho’s house situated? Q6- What destroyed Lencho’s fields?
A) bottom of the hill A) heavy rainfall
B) top of a hill B) hailstorm
C) top of a plateau C) landslide
D) in a city D) flood
Q2- What was the only thing that the Earth needed Q7- The field looked as if it were covered in
according to Lencho? _______.
A) a shower A) salt
B) a snowfall B) locusts
C) strong winds C) sugar
D) sunlight D) ice
Q3- Where did Lencho expect the downpour to Q8- Lencho compared the quantum of damage with
come from?
A) attack by rats
A) north
B) attack by crows
B) north-east
C) plague of locusts
C) north-west
D) None of the above
D) south-east
Q9- What was the only hope left in the hearts of
Q4 – What did Lencho compare the large raindrops Lencho’s family?
with?
A) compensation from government
A) silver coins
B) help from farmer’s association
B) pearls
C) help from God
C) diamonds
D) there was no hope left
D) new coins
Q10- How did Lencho decide to contact his last
Q5- Which crop was growing on Lencho’s fields? resort?
A) Corn A) by visiting them personally
B) Barley B) through a letter
C) Rice C) through e-mail
D) None of the above D) through fax
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Q11- How much money did Lencho ask for? C) God’s signature
A) 100 pesos D) new seeds
B) 1000 pesos Q17- How much money was the postmaster able to
arrange?
C) 10 pesos
A) 100 pesos
D) 500 pesos
B) Nil
Q12- What was the immediate reaction of the
postman on seeing the letter? C) 1000 pesos
A) laughed whole-heartedly D) 70 pesos
B) cried Q18- What did the postmaster feel on experiencing
Lencho receive the letter?
C) felt sad about what happened
A) contended
D) felt empathetic
B) proud
Q13- The postmaster was a fat, amiable man. What
is the meaning of amiable? C) overwhelmed
A) rude D) all of the above
B) helpful Q19- Why was Lencho not surprised on seeing the
money in the envelope?
C) friendly
A) he was too sad to acknowledge it
D) enthusaistic
B) he had unwavering faith in God
Q14- On seeing the letter, the postmaster was
moved by Lencho’s ______ C) he was an ungrateful man
A) unwavering faith D) none of the above
B) handwriting Q20- How did he feel when he counted the money?
C) love for God A) grateful
D) determination B) joyful
Q15- Why did the postmaster decide to reply to C) relieved
Lencho’s letter?
D) angry
A) he was a good man
Q21- What did Lencho think of the post-office
B) he felt empathetic employees?
C) to preserve Lencho’s faith in God A) bunch of crooks
D) all of the above B) rude
Q16- What else did the reply demanded apart from C) unhelpful
goodwill, ink and paper?
D) proud
A) lost crop
B) money
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Q22- What did Lencho ask for in his second letter? Q25- Who is the author of the lesson ‘A Letter to
God’?
A) more money
A) G.L. Fuentes
B) remaining amount and not send it by mail
B) J.k. Rowling
C) remaining amount and send it by mail only
C) William Shakespeare
D) he didn’t ask for anything
D) Roald Dahl
Q23- What is the irony in this lesson?
A) Lencho was sad after the hailstorm even though
he was the one waiting for a shower ANSWER KEY
B) Postmaster laughed at Lencho but still helped 1 B 11 A 21 A
arrange money for him
2 A 12 A 22 B
C) Lencho blamed the post office employees who in
3 B 13 C 23 C
fact helped him
4 D 14 A 24 D
D) there is no irony
5 A 15 C 25 A
6 B 16 B
Q24- What type of conflict does the chapter
highlight? 7 A 17 D
A) conflict between nature and humans 8 C 18 A
B) conflict among humans 9 C 19 B
C) conflict among God and nature 10 B 20 D
D) both 1 and 2
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Nelson Mandela: Long Walk to Freedom

Q1- When was the inauguration day? people of our country of what is, after all, a common
victory for ____.”
A) 10 May
A) justice
B) 10 March
B) peace
C) 20 May
C) human dignity
D) 20 March
D) all of the above
Q2- It was a celebration of South Africa’s first
______ government. Q7- What was it that the nation needed to be
liberated from?
A) autocratic, racial
A) poverty
B) democratic, non-racial
B) gender discrimination
C) democratic, racial
C) deprivation
D) monarch, non-racial
D) all of the above
Q3- How many deputy presidents were elected?
Q8- “We have achieved our political emancipation.”
A) two
What is the meaning of emancipation?
B) three
A) freedom from restriction
C) one
B) enslavement
D) none
C) slavery
Q4- Why did other countries broke off diplomatic
D) both 2 and 3
relations wih South Africa?
Q9- The spectacular array of South African jets was
A) White rulers
a display of –
B) Other countries are racial
A)military’s precision
C) It is a poor country
B) military’s loyalty to democracy
D) Apartheid policy
D) both 1 and 2
Q5- What change brought international leaders to
C) none of the above
South Africa?
Q10- What colours does the new South African flag
A) End of Apartheid
possess?
B) humanity
A) black, red, green, blue and gold
C) peace
B) black, red, yellow, blue and gold
D) trade negotiations
C) orange, black, yellow, blue and silver
Q6- “We thank all of our distinguished international
D) black, blue, violet, saffron and green
guests for having come to take possession with the
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Q11- “The structure they created formed the basis of B) Obligation to family
one of the harshest, most inhumane, societies the
C) Obligation to God
world has ever known.” What structure is Mandela
talking about? D) Both 1 and 2
A) Racial domination against the black skinned Q17- Why were two National Anthems sung?
B) Poverty and suffering A) to imply unity
C) Discrimination against the poor B) to mark the end of racial discrimination
D) oppression of women C) to mark the end of gender discrimination
Q12- Whom did Mandela wanted to thank but D) Both 1 and 2
couldn’t?
Q18- What comes more naturally to heart according
A) his family to Mandela?
B) white rulers A) hatred
C) African patriots who no longer existed B) unity
D) Military C) love
Q13- What unintended effect did the decades of D) racial discrimination
oppression and brutality had?
Q19- What realisations did Mandela have of his
A) created men of extraordinary courage, wisdom boyhood freedom?
and generosity
A) it is just an illusion
B) Poverty and suffering
B) he was born free
C) boycot from foreign nations
C) freedom was meant for kids
D) both 2 and 3
D) he had no realisations
Q14- According to Mandela, what is the greatest
wealth of a nation? Q20- What began Mandela’s hunger for freedom?
A) minerals A) the fact that it had already been taken away from
him
B) gems
B) his obligation towards people
C) diamonds
C) his obligation towards family
D) people
D) he was born to fight
Q15- What did Mandela learn about courage?
Q21- Which party did Mandela join?
A) it is absence of fear
A) Indian National Congress
B) it is the triumph over fear
B) African National Congress
C) both 1 and 2
C) National African Party
D) none of the above
D) he did not join any party
Q16- What are a man’s obligations in life?
A) Obligation to people
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Q22- A man who takes away another man’s freedom A) oppressed

is _____
B) heights of character
A) White
C) poverty
B) a prisoner of hatred
D) lack of freedom
C) criminal
D) rude
ANSWER KEY
Q23- Who, according to Mandela is not free?
1 A 11 A 21 B
A) oppressor
2 B 12 C 22 B
B) oprressed
3 A 13 A 23 C
C) both 1 and 2
4 D 14 D 24 D
5 A 15 B 25 B
Q24- How did Mandela’s hunger for freedom
6 D 16 D 26
change his life?
7 D 17 D 27
A) turned from frightened to bold
8 A 18 C 28
B) turned from law-abiding attorney to a criminal
9 C 19 A 29
C) turned a life-loving man to live like a monk
10 A 20 A 30
C) all of the above
Q25- What does depths of oppression create?
97
Two Stories About Flying
Q1- Who is the author of "His First Flight"? D) to abandon him

A) Liam O' Flaherty
B) Frederick Forsyth Q6- What were his parents teaching his brothers and
sisters?
C) Roal Dahl
A) to perfect the art of flying
D) Paulo Coehlo
B) to skim the waves
C) to dive for fish
Q2- Who is the author of "Black Aeroplane"?
D) all of the above
A) Liam O' Flaherty
B) Frederick Forsyth
C) Roal Dahl
D) Paulo Coehlo
Q7- The sight of ________ maddened him.
A) his brothers flying
Q3- The lesson "His First Flight" is about a ______
B) his siblings enjoying without him
A) pilot
C) food
B) seagull
D) all of the above
C) parrot
D) pigeon
Q8- What urged him to make his first flight?
A) hunger
Q4- Why was he afraid to fly?
B) sight of fish
A) he was a coward
C) courage
B) he was afraid his wings will not support him
D) both 1 and 2
C) he was afraid that everyone would judge him
D) both 1 and 2
Q9- Why did his mother stop midway while giving
him the fish?
Q5- What did his parents threaten him with if he
A) she was mad at him
didn't flew away?
B) to push him to fly out of hunger
A) to never talk to him
C) she didn't want to give him the fish
B) to punish him
D) she got tired
C) to starve him
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Q10- The title "Black Aeroplane" is based on?

A) the aeroplane that helped the pilot Q15- What risk did the pilot take?
B) the pilot's aeroplane A) flying back to Paris
C) aeroplane in the stormy sky B) missing the breakfast he desired
D) none of the above C) he took no risk
D) flying his old Dakota straight into the storm
Q11- The pilot was flying from _____ to _____.
A) England, France Q16- What instruments had stopped working during
the storm?
B) England, India
A) compass
C) France, England
B) radio
D) France, India
C) both of them
D) none of them
Q12- What was the pilot looking forward to?
A) to reach his destination
Q17- What was the pilot not sorry about?
B) to meet his family
A) missing his holiday
C) his holiday
B) driving the plane into the storm
D) both 2 and 3
C) risking the lives of fellow passengers
D) both 2 and 3
Q13- Which control station did he contact on his
way?
A) Paris Q18- What did the seagull pretend was happening to
him so that he could take his first flight?
B) India
A) he was unconscious
C) England
B) he was falling down the cliff
D) he didn't contact any
C) he was falling asleep
Q14- "They looked like black mountains standing
in front D) He lost his balance
of me across the sky". What looked like black
mountains?
Q19- What food did the seagull's mother get for it?
A) Black mountains
A) earthworms
B) Storm clouds
B) fish
C) tall buildings
C) insects
D) black plateau
D) rodents
99
Q20- How far was the narrator from Paris when he Q24- What was the name of the aeroplane that the
saw dark clouds in the sky? pilot was flying?
A) 200 km A) Airbus
B) 100 km B) Boeing
C) 50 km C) Dakota
D) 150 km D) Minesotta
Q21- Which of the pilot's intruments stopped
working first?
Q25- The pilot was not able to ___ anything
A) compass
A) see
B) radio
B) hear
C) both stopped together
C) speak
D) both were working
D) all of them
Q22- When the pilot of the black aeroplane asked
the narrator to follow him, in which direction did he
turn the aeroplane?
A) south ANSWER KEY
B) north 1 A 11 C 21 A
C) east 2 B 12 D 22 B
D) west 3 B 13 A 23 C
4 B 14 B 24 C
Q23- Why didn't the pilot turn the aeroplane back 5 C 15 D 25 A
towards Paris?
6 D 16 C 26
A) He wanted to meet his family
7 C 17 D 27
B) He wanted to go on a holiday
8 D 18 C 28
C) He did not want to miss the breakfast
9 B 19 B 29
D) He did not like Paris
10 A 20 D 30
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From the Diary of the Anne Frank
Q1- Why was writing in a diary a strange experience

for Anne?
Q6- Which subject was she not sure of passing?
A) she had never written anything before
A) Maths
B) she didn't know how to write
B) science
C) neither she nor anyone else would be interested
C) english
in it later
D) all of the above
D) she had to get it off her chest
Q2- Who would Anne allow to read her diary?
Q7- Why was Mr Keesing annoyed with her?
A) her sister
A) she was not a good student
B) her parents
B) she was talkative
C) a real friend (if she got one)
C) she was rude
D) no one
D) all of the above
Q3- Why does Anne want to keep a diary?
A) she has no close friends
Q8- Which topic was she to write an essay on as a
B) she loves to write
part of her punishment?
C) she wants people to read about her later
A) A Chatterbox
D) she likes the idea of it
B) An incorrigible chatterbox
C) Quack, Quack, Quack, said Mistress Chatterbox
Q4- What did she name her diary?
D) all of the above
A) Anne
Q9- What language was the diary originally written
B) Catty in ?
C) Kitty A) Spanish
D) Kitten B) English
C) Dutch
Q5- Why does she give a brief sketch about her D) French
family in the diary?
A) no one would understand it if she dove right in
Q10- How did Anne justify her being talkative in the
B) to introduce Kitty to her family essay?
C) she would forget facts about her family A) she disussed the subject topics in class
D) she liked talking about her family B) it is a habit
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C) it is an inherited trait from her mother and you A) 11th birthday

can't do much about it
B) 12th birthday
D) the class is boring
C) 13th birthday
D) 14th birthday
Q11- What shows Anne's love for her grandmother?
A) she still thinks about her
Q17- What name was her book published with?
B) she misses her
A) From the Diary of Anne Frank
C) she let her birthday pass with little celebration
B) The Diary of a Young girl
D) both 1 and 2
C) Anne Frank
D) Anne Frank's Diary
Q12- Why does Anne think she was lonely?
A) she had no friends
Q18- Why did she not want to give a brief in the
B) she had no real friends diary at first?
C) she was all alone A) she didn't want to be formal
D) she was an introvert B) she wanted the diary to be her real friend
Q13- Why was she unable to get closer to her C) She did not like the idea
already existing friends?
D) both 1 and 2
A) she didn't like her friends
Q19- How many siblings did Anne have?
B) her friends are not understanding
A) 1
C) she can't bring herself to talk about personal stuff
B) 2
D) all of the above
C) 3
Q14- What would the kids bet about in class?
D) 4
A) who is more talkative
Q20- What was Anne Frank's full name?
B) who would pass the class
A) Anneliese Marie Frank
C) football matches
B) Anna Mariam Frank
D) baseball matches
C) Anne Mark Frank
Q15- What did she write in her last essay?
D) Anneliese Martina Frank
A) a poem
Q21- Who was the only survivor from Anne's
B) a joke family
C) a paragraph A) Anne
D) a funny poem B) Anne's father
Q16- When was the diary given to Anne? C) Anne's mother
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D) Anne's sister Q25- On which date did Anne record the incident in
Mr Keesing's class in her diary?
Q22- What was the name of Anne Frank's sister?
A) 12 June, 1942
A) Margaret
B) 21 June, 1942
B) Margot
C) 20 June, 1942
C) Marrie
D) 22 June, 1942
D) Martina
ANSWER KEY
Q23- In which city were Anne and Margot sent to
live with their grandmother? 1 C 11 D 21 B
A) Berlin 2 C 12 B 22 B
B) Aachen 3 A 13 C 23 B
C) Munich 4 C 14 B 24 C
D) Bonn 5 A 15 D 25 D
Q24- How old was Anne's father when he married 6 A 16 C 26
her mother?
7 B 17 B 27
A) 34
8 D 18 D 28
B) 35
9 C 19 A 29
C) 36
10 C 20 A 30
D) 32
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The Hundred Dresses – I

1.Read the given passage and answer the questions: -
She always wore a faded blue dress that didn’t hang right. It was clean, but it looked as though it had never been
ironed properly. She didn’t have any friends, but a lot of girls talked to her. Sometimes, they surrounded her in the
school yard as she stood watching the little girls play hopscotch on the worn hard ground. “Wanda,’’ Peggy would
say in a most courteous manner, as though she were talking to Miss Mason. “Wanda,” she’d say, giving one of her
friends a nudge, “tell us. How many dresses did you say you had hanging up in your closet?”
1. The ‘most courteous manner’ here means that Peggy was
a) on her best behaviour.
b) teasing Wanda.
c) trying to impress Wanda.
d) respectful to Wanda..
2. Peggy would say in a most courteous manner-
a) she wanted to push her away from the scene.
b) she disliked her friend being distracted then.
c) she was teasing Wanda and wanted her to make others pay attention.
d) she was teasing Wanda and didn’t want anyone her miss the ‘fun’.
3. Pick the option having the words that DO NOT loosely match the word, ‘closet’, from those given.
1) wardrobe
2) loft
3) cabinet
4) cupboard
5) porch
6) cellar
Choose correct option among the following:
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 6
d) 2, 5 and 6
4. Why was Wanda’s answer to Peggy’s question always the same? Pick the LEAST probable reason. This was
so because she knew that
a) she was being picked on and it was probably her defence.
b) confessing the truth would probably worsen the situation.
104
c) she didn’t know how else to get out of that situation.

d) sticking to an unexpected answer would get her the attention she needed.
5. Which of the following images showcase ‘hopscotch’?
II. “In the opinion of the judges, any one of the drawings is worthy of winning the prize. I am very happy to say
that Wanda Petronski is the winner of the girls’ medal. Unfortunately, Wanda has been absent from school for some
days and is not here to receive the applause that is due to her. Let us hope she will be back tomorrow. Now class,
you may file around the room quietly and look at her exquisite drawings.”
6. Pick the statement that is TRUE, according to the information given in the extract.
a) Wanda won the prize because she had submitted a variety of entries.
b) Wanda would have still won the prize even if she had submitted just one entry.
c) Wanda won the prize because the majority of judges were women.
d) Wanda would have still won the prize if she had drawn something else.
7. Miss Mason says, “I am very happy to …”. Which phrase DOES NOT replace the underlined phrase correctly
from those given below?
a) It gives me great pleasure to…
b) I am sure you’ll be surprised to…
c) I am delighted to…
d) It fills me with joy to…
8. When the teacher wants them to ‘file around’, she wants the students to
a) put the files in their proper places.
b) gather around her table to discuss the designs.
c) file the designs properly in their folders.
d) walk in a line to admire the designs.
9. Pick the sentence that DOES NOT use ‘due to’ in the same sense as in the given extract.
a) She was disappointed due to their rude behaviour.
b) We must give our colleagues the vacation due to them.
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c) I have some extra money due to me this month from my friend.

d) You have an apology due to your parents.
10. The teacher refers to Wanda’s designs as ‘exquisite’ because
a) each one of the hundred designs was different.
b) each one of them was very beautiful.
c) each of them was a copy of the latest fashion trend.
d) each one had the same colour theme as the other..
III.Answer the following questions Choosing appropriate option:-
11.- Who were the two best friends?
A) Peggy, Maddie
B) Wanda, Peggy
C) Maddie, Wanda
D) Willie, Wanda
12- Where in the classroom does Wanda sit?
A) end corner
B) middle
C) front
D) rotational
13- Why did Wanda used to sit there?
A) she didn’t score very good marks
B) her feet were filled with dirt and mud
C) her friends sat there
D) no one really knows
14- Who was the most popular girl in school?
(A)Wanda
B) Maddie
C) Peggy
D) all of them
15- How would you describe Wanda’s dress?
A) faded blue
B) not ironed properly
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C) clean
D) all of the above
16- Why was Peggy’s game bothering Maddie?
A) she cared about Wanda
B) Peggy was harsh on Wanda
C) she feared she’d be next to get teased
D) all of the above
17- Why was Maddie glad even when she was late for school?
A) she didn’t want to attend the class
B) they could not make fun of Wanda
C) she liked going late
D) both 1 and 3
18- What reason did Maddie give herself to justify teasing Wanda?
A) Wanda used to lie about her dresses
B) Wanda deserved it
C) Peggy was the best liked girl and couldn’t do anything wrong
D) both 1 and 2
19- What did the drawing and colouring contest mean for the girls and boys?
A) designing dresses and motorboats
B) designing interiors and bikes
C) designing dresses and bikes
D) designing interiors and motorboats
20- Where did they used to wait for Wanda?
A) Bakers street
B) Boggins Heights
C) Boggins street
D) Oliver street
21- Why did Peggy say "and I thought I could draw"?
A) she’d won the medal always
B) Wanda’s drawings were amazing
C) she thought Wanda could draw better
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D) All of the above

22- Miss Mason said, "look at her exquisite drawings". What is the meaning of "Exquisite"?
A) luxurious
B) neatly made
C) superior
D) extremely beautiful and well-made
Answer Key- The Hundred Dresses 1
1. b) teasing Wanda 2. d) she was teasing Wanda and didn’t want anyone her miss the ‘fun’. 3. 1, 3 and 4 4.
d) sticking to an unexpected answer would get her the attention she needed. 5. (d) 6. b) Wanda would have still
won the prize even if she had submitted just one entry. 7. b) I am sure you’ll be surprised to… 8. d) walk in a line
to admire the designs. 9. a) She was disappointed due to their rude behaviour. 10. b) each one of them was very
beautiful 11. A) Peggy, Maddie 12. A) end corner 13. D) no one really knows 14. C) Peggy 15. D) all of the
above 16. C) she feared she’d be next to get teased 17. B) they could not make fun of Wanda 18. C) Peggy was
the best liked girl and couldn’t do anything wrong 19. A) designing dresses and motorboats 20. D) Oliver street
21. D) All of the above 22. D) extremely beautiful and well-made
The Hundred Dresses – II

I.Read the given passage and answer the questions:-
Dear Teacher
My Wanda will not come to your school anymore. Jake also. Now we move away to big city. No more holler
‘Pollack’. No more ask why funny name. Plenty of funny names in the city.
Yours truly,
Jan Petronski
1. Jan’s tone in the writing of the letter IS NOT
a) distressing.
b) spiteful.
c) hurt.
d) painful.
2. What, according to the letter, was the primary reason that prompted Mr Petronski to take the decision to move
to a big city?
a) His wish to achieve success in the big city.
b) His urge to join his relatives who mostly lived in the big city.
c) His anxiety over their poverty in the small city.
d) His agony about his children being viewed as ‘outsiders’ by their schoolmates
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3. The dictionary says the following about migration.

Migration involves the movement of people (birds, fish etc.) from one place to another with intentions of settling,
permanently or temporarily, at a new location (geographic region).Which of the following options
INCORRECTLY uses ‘migration’?
a) After gold was found in the uninhabited region, there was a migration to that area.
b) Bears sleep through winters. This migration helps bears to use their stored energy much more slowly.
c) There was a mass migration of youngsters to the tagged locale, to assist the cause for charity.
d) Scientists have studied the migration of fish over long distances in the river
4. The phrase ‘Pollack’ reveals discrimination on the basis of
a) race.
b) gender.
c) religion.
d) wealth.
5. The line– Plenty of funny names in the city—suggests that the city
a) is a melting pot of people from different parts of the world.
b) has foreign people willing to give opportunities to the poor.
c) is a safe haven for immigrants if they have funny names.
d) has a special status for all who are willing to be funny.
II.Read the given passage and answer the questions:-
Weeks went by and still Wanda did not answer.Peggy had begun to forget the whole business, and Maddie put
herself to sleep at night making speeches about Wanda, defending her from great crowds of girls who were trying
to tease her with, “How many dresses have you got?” And before Wanda could press her lips together in a tight
line, the way she did before answering, Maddie would cry out, “Stop!”
6. Which primary feelings of Maddie does the extract reveal?
a) guilt, regret and righteousness
b) guilt and shame
c) shame, regret and courage
d) courage and righteousness
7. Which of the following is most likely to be a part of Maddie’s speech?
a) Stop! I think it’s about time we asked her a new question. This is not fun anymore.
How about her faded dress?
b) Stop! Don’t you know that I’m the one who had to lead in Peggy’s absence? This is unacceptable.
c) Stop! How dare you all join in without Peggy’s permission? Don’t you know she’d be angry?
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d) Stop! Aren’t you all ashamed of yourself? Why do you trouble her? She means no harm to anyone.
8. Choose the declaration which is likely to be received with the pressing of lips together in a tight line.
a)1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
9. Pick the option with a cause-effect relation, with reference to the given extract.
a) Wanda’s absence— Peggy missing Wanda
b) Maddie’s need to make amends – Confessing publicly
c) Wanda’s absence – Maddie’s need to make amends
d) Peggy teasing Wanda— Maddie’s stand against it
10. Wanda didn’t reply to the letter for weeks.
Pick the option that DOES NOT supply a possible reason for this, from those given below.
a) The letter took more than a couple of weeks reaching her as it didn’t have an address and needed to be
forwarded.
b) She needed time to forgive Maddie and Peggy and think her reply through.
c) Peggy had second thoughts after mailing the letter and reclaimed it from the post office, to mail weeks later.
d) She was occupied with settling in at the new school in the city.
III.Answer the following questions Choosing appropriate option:-
11- Who wrote the letter received by Miss Mason?
A)Wanda
B) Wanda’s mother
C) Wanda’s father
D) Wanda’s brother
12- What did the letter convey?
A)Wanda wasn’t well
B) Wanda won’t be attending school
C) they have moved to the big city
D) both 2 and 3
13- What else was mentioned in the letter?
A) her drawings
B) her medal
C) the school
D) her funny name
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14- How did Miss Mason feel about whatever happened with Wanda?
A)unfortunate
B) sad
C) cruel
D) both 1 and 2
15- How would you describe Miss Mason’s feelings towards the class?
A)Angry
B) Upset
C) Happy
D) Cheerful
16- What was just as bad as what Peggy had done?
A)Maddie staying silent while Peggy teased Wanda
B) Maddie not stopping Peggy
C) Maddie teasing Wanda
17- What was Maddie reminded of by the Petronski’s house?
A) how they teased her
B) how she could stop all of it
C) Wanda’s drawings
D) Wanda’s dress; unironed but clean
18- What excuses does Peggy think of for her behaviour?
A) Wanda didn’t know she was being made fun of
B) she got the idea of hundred drawings only when Peggy asked her
C) None of these
D) Both A and B
19- How did they contact Wanda?
A) Letter
B) Phone call
C) Email
D) They visited her
20- What did they write in the letter?
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A) apology
B) Her drawings and that she won
C) asked about new city
D) both 2 and 3
21- Who was more anxious for a reply?
A) Maddie
B) Peggy
C) Miss Mason
D) All of them
22- What did Maddie notice in the drawings?
A) Wanda drew their faces
B) they were beautiful
C) Wanda wrote notes for them
D) all of the above
23- What do you mean by "picking on someone"?
A) Unfairly criticising them
B) Taking something from them
C) Taking them somewhere
24- What was the description of the house which Maddie thought to be Wanda’s house?
A)Little white house
B) Big white house
C) Small green cottage
D) Tiny Red hut
ANSWER KEY :- 1. b) spiteful. 2. d) His agony about his children being viewed as ‘outsiders’ by their
schoolmates 3. b 4. a) race.
5. a) is a melting pot of people from different parts of the world. 6. c) shame, regret and courage 7. d 8.A 9.C
10. C.11.C 12. C13.D 14.D 15.B 16.A 17.D 18.D 19.A 20.D 21.A 22.A 23.A 24. A
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"Dust of Snow"
Q1- Who is the poet of the poem "Dust of Snow"? B) metaphor

A) Leslie Norris C) oxymoron
B) Robert Frost D) simile
C) Carolyn Wells Q7- Name the poetic device used in the line "And
saved some part"
D) Robin Klein
A) alliteration
Q2- Why does the poet call it "dust of snow"?
B) metaphor
A) snow particles were too tiny
C) oxymoron
B) they came over him like dust
D) similie
C) they felt like dust
Q8- What does "Dust of Snow" represent?
D) they looked like dust
A) healing power of nature
Q3- The poet says, "Of a day I had rued". What is
the meaning of "rued"? B) particles of snow
A) ruined C) cool weather
B) held in regret D) none of the above
C) ruled Q9- What are the two negative creatures that Frost
used as carriers of positivity?
D) conquered
A) snow, dust
Q4- What uplifted his mood?
B) hemlock tree, snow
A) falling of snow on his shoulder
C) snow, crow
B) the crow
D) hemlock tree, crow
C) hemlock tree
Q10- The crow and Hemlock tree symbolize ____
D) all of the above
A) sorrow
Q5- What is the rhyme scheme of the poem?
B) happiness
A) baba cdcd
C) celebration
B) abab cdcd
D) death
C) abab cddc
ANSWER KEY
D) abba cdcd
1 B
Q6- Name the poetic device used in the line "Has
given my heart" 2 A
A) alliteration 3 B
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4 A 8 A
5 B 9 D
6 A 10 A
7 A
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"Fire and Ice"

Q1- Who is the poet of the poem "Fire and Ice"? C) aaab bcbcb
A) Leslie Norris D) abab bcbcb
B) Robert Frost Q7- Name the poetic device used in the line "I hold
with those who favour fire".
C) Carolyn Wells
A) Assonance
D) Robin Klein
B) Alliteration
Q2- What does the poet compare fire with?
C) None
A) hatred
D) Both
B) desire
Q8- Name the poetic device used in the line "Some
C) hot
say the world will end in fire".
D) both 1 and 3
A) Metaphor
Q3- What is the meaning of "perish"?
B) Imagery
A) bloom
C) Alliteration
B) rise
D) Oxymoron
C) die
Q9- Name the poetic device used in the line "To say
D) glow that for destruction ice is also great".
Q4- What would suffice if the world were to perish A) Metaphor

twice?
B) Imagery
A) ice
C) Alliteration
B) fire
D) Oxymoron
C) hatred
Q10- Where has he used personification?
D) both 1 and 2
A) fire
Q5- What would be a better option to end the earth?
B) ice
A) fire
C) earth
B) ice
D) both 1 and 2
C) both are equally competent
D) none
ANSWER KEY
Q6- What is the rhyming scheme of the poem?
1 B
A) abaa bcbcb
2 B
B) aaba bcbcb
3 C
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4 D 8 B
5 C 9 B
6 A 10 D
7 D
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A Tiger in the Zoo
Stanza-I
“He stalks--------his quiet rage” b. Quiet
(i) Who does ‘He’ refer here? c. Stalks
a. Tiger d. None of the above
b. Cage Stanza –II
c. Poet “He should------ deer pass”
d. None of the above (i)Where should he be?
(ii) How does he walk? a. in the cage.
a. With fun b. he should be in the long grass.
b. With pride c. in the pool water.
c. With pain d. None of the above.
d. All the above (ii)Why should he be there?
(iii) Where is he? a. He should be there to play.
a. He is in the cage. b. He should be there to hunt.
b. He is in the forest. c. He must be there to take rest.
c. He is in the garden. d. All the above.
d. None of the above. (iii)Where should be he going?
(iv) How does he react? a. He should be going near water hole.
a. Reacts by yawning. b. Near the patrolling car.
b. Reacts by showing surprise. c. Near the cage.
c. Reacts by showing anger. d. All the above
d. All the above. (iv)Find the word which means the opposite of
‘Thin’
(v) Why does he react so?
a. Pass
a. He is hungry.
b. Plump
b. He is in the cage.
c. Deer
c. He wants to sleep.
d. All the above
d. All the above.
Stanza- III
(vi) Find the word which means ‘anger’
“He should be ---- around houses”
a. Rage
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(i) Where should be the tiger? c. Both A & B are correct.

a. In the zoo d. None of the above
b. In the case Stanza – V
c. In the jungle “He hears ________________ at night.”
d. None of the above (i) When does he hear the last voice?
(ii) How is he terrorizing the villagers? a. He hears the last voice at noon time.
a. By making funny noises. b. He hears the last voice in the morning.
b. By showing his teeth and claws. c. He hears the last voice at night.
c. By attacking on their domestic animals. d. None of the above.
d. None of the above. (ii) From where does the last voice come?
(iii) Name the Poet of the Poem. a. From the near by factory.
a. Robert Browning b. From the railway station.
b. Robert Frost c. From the patrolling car.
c. Lesli Norris d. All the above.
d. None of the above
Stanza –IV (iii) How does he stare the stars?
“But he is ------ concrete cell” a. With the brilliant eyes
(i) Where is the tiger locked? b. With the dull eyes.
a. He is locked behind the bars in the zoo. c. With sleepy eyes.
b. In a Circus. d. None of the above.
c. In the Jungle ANSWERS:
d. All the above. Stanza- 1
(ii) Why is he ignoring the visitors? (i) A. Tiger
a. Not feeling hungry. (ii) B. with Pride
b. His strength is behind the bars, unable to do (iii) A. he is in the cage.
anything.
(iv) C. Reacts by showing anger.
c. Feeling tired.
(v) B. he is in the cage.
d. All the above.
(vi) A. rage
(iii) Why is he unable to move freely?
Stanza-2
a. The cage is too small to move.
(i) B. he should be in the long grass.
b. Having tied with iron chains.
(ii) B. He should be there to hunt.
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(iii) A. he should be going near water hole. 4. Where was the boy staring down?
(iv) B. plump (a) the sea
Stanza-3 (b) the ocean
(i) A. in the jungle. (c) the harbour
(ii) B. by showing his teeth & claws. (d) the lake
(iii) C. Lesli Norris 5. Name the literary device used in “And no one
buys a ball back.”
Stanza- 4
(a) Metaphor
(i) A. He is locked behind the bars in the zoo.
(b) Simile
(ii) B. His strength behind the bars, unable to do
anything. (c) Alliteration
(iii) A. The cage is too small to move. (d) Anaphora
Stanza- 5 6. Why does the poet decide not to condole the boy?
(i) C. He hears the last voice at night. (a) He is busy
(ii) C. From the patrolling Car. (b) He is indifferent
(iii) A. with brilliant eyes. (c) It will be of no use
The Ball poem (d) He is happy
1.Who is the poet of the poem ‘The Ball Poem’? 7. According to the poet, what is the child learning?
(a) Sylvia Plath (a) to bear loss
(b) W.B Yeats (b) to take care of things
(c) Robert Frost (c) to be responsible
(d) John Berryman. (d) to be careful
2. Why are the boy’s eyes desperate? 8. What does a ball cost?
(a) Because he has lost his ball. (a) 5 dimes
(b) Because he has lost his money. (b) 10 dimes
(c) Because he has lost his gloves (c) 1 dime
(d) None of the Above (d) 4 dimes
3. What does ‘in the world of possessions’ means? 9. What is the boy playing with?
(a) Love (a) bat
(b) Lust (b) ball
(c) Materialistic things (c) car
(d) None of the Above (d) bus
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10. Name the literary device used in “Merrily (c) Alliteration

bouncing, down the street, and then Merrily over —
(d) Anaphora
there it is in the water!”
ANSWER KEY:-
(a) Metaphor
1.d 2.a 3.c 4.c 5.c 6.c 7.a 8.c 9.b 10.d
(b) Simile
Footprints without Feet

A Triumph of Surgery
120

Q1- Who is the author of the story "A Triumph of C) Veterinary surgeon
Surgery"?
D) Dog
A) James Herriot
Q7- What was the dog unable to play?
B) Ruskin Bond
A) ring-throw
C) Robert Arthur
B) walk
D) Victor Canning
C) hide and seek
Q2- Who does "I" refer to in the story?
D) all of the above
A) Tricki
B) Mrs. Pumphrey
Q8- What did the doctor advise?
C) Veterinary surgeon
A) cut his food
B) give him more exercise
Q3- What is the name of the veterinary surgeon?
C) keep him on a very strict diet
A) Tricki
D) all of the above
B) Mrs. Pumphrey
Q9- Was the narrator waiting for a call from Mrs
C) Hodgkin Pumphrey?
D) Mr. Herriot A) no
Q4- What problem does Mrs Pumphrey think Tricki B) yes
has?
C) maybe
A) diarrhoea
D) maybe not
B) malnutrition
Q10- What is the meaning of ‘distraught’?
C) allergies
A) bend
D) all of the above
B) worried
Q5- Did Mrs Pumphrey cut down on sweets as was
C) upset
advised?
D) both b and c
A) yes
Q11- How was Tricki acting?
B) no
A) refusing to eat his favourite food
C) only for a while
B) didn’t go for walks
D) she was not advised anything like that
C) vomiting
Q6- Who is Hodgkin?
D) all of the above
A) dog owner
Q12- What was best according to the vet?
B) gardener
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A) to take him to the hospital A) fight

B) to take him for a walk B) play
C) to let him have sugar C) run
D) both b and c D) none of the above
Q13- Why did the other dogs ignore Tricki? Q19- What does the narrator refer to Tricki as, in the
group of other dogs?
A) he was an uninteresting object
A) silky little object
B) he was ill
B) shaggy little object
C) he was furious
C) he didn’t say anything
D) all of the above
Q14- for how many days he was given no food?
Q20- What is the meaning of the word
A) 1
"convalescing"?
B) 2
A) condescending
C) 3
B) worsen
D) 5
C) disappointing
Q15- Who was Joe?
D) recover
A) nurse
Q21- What did Mrs Pumphrey bring first?
B) pug
A. Eggs.
C) greyhound
B. Brandy.
D) cat
C. Wine.
Q16- What did the dogs know about food?
D. None of these
A) last ones will be liable to have competition for
Q22- How did the staff benefit from Mrs
the leftover food
Pumphrey’s overdoing?
B) there was no competition
A) breakfast with eggs
C) it wasn’t good
B) lunch with wine
D) it was the best part of the day
C) dinner with brandy
Q17- what is the meaning of the word "jostling"?
D) all of the above
A) running
Q23- What made the narrator call Mrs Pumphrey
B) struggling after a fortnight?
C) walking A) Tricki got recovered
D) none of the above B) Tricki got unwell
Q18- What is the meaning of the word C) he knew she is suffering

"scrimmage"?
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D) both a and c C) maybe

Q24- "In two weeks he had been transformed into a D) she showed no emotions
lithe, hard-musled animal" . What is the meaning of
Q29- Who do you blame for Tricki’s illness?
the word "lithe"?
A) Mrs. Pumphrey
A) dirty
B) Tricki
B) graceful
C) Herriot
C) misbehaving
D) Vet
D) rude
Q30- Why is the narrator tempted to keep Tricki as
Q25- What did they use out of these?
a permanent guest?
A) toys
A) because he loved Tricki
B) cushions
B) he thought Mrs. Pumphrey woudn’t take good
C) coats care of Tricki
D) none of the above C) they would lose all Luxuries like eggs, wine and
brandy
Q26- How would you decribe Mrs. Pumphrey?
A) loving
ANSWER KEY
B) over-doing
1 A 11 D 21 A
C) intelligent
2 C 12 A 22 D
D) rational
3 D 13 A 23 D
Q27- How would you decribe the vet?
4 B 14 B 24 B
A) tactful
5 C 15 C 25 D
B) over-doing
6 B 16 A 26 B
C) careless
7 A 17 B 27 A
D) irrational
8 D 18 A 28 A
Q28- Was Tricki happy on seeing Mrs. Pumphrey?
9 B 19 A 29 A
A) yes
10 D 20 D 30 C
B) No
The Thief’s Story

Q1- Who is the author of the story "The Thief's A) James Herriot
story"?
B) Ruskin Bond
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C) Robert Arthur C) playing

D) Victor Canning D) writing an article
Q2- What is he a "fairly successful hand" at? Q8- How did the narrator attempt at being friends
with Anil?
A) wrestling
A) flattering him
B) stealing
B) teasing him
C) deceiving
C) introducing himself
D) working hard
Q3- What was his name?
Q9- What did the boy ask Anil for?
A) Hari
A) to give him food
B) Anil
B) to employ him
C) Amol
C) to give him money
D) Harry
D) to teach him
Q4- What was the boy's age?
Q10- How often did he change his name?
A) 15
A) every day
B) 25
B) every week
C) 20
C) every month
D) every year
Q5- What was Anil's age?
Q11- He changed his name in order to stay ahead of
A) 15
_____
B) 25
A) police
C) 20
B) employers
C) none of them
D) both of them
Q6- How has the narrator described Anil?
Q12- What name did he tell Anil?
A) simple
A) Anil Singh
B) kind
B) Hari Lal
C) easy-going
C) Hari Singh
D) all of the above
D) Anil Lal
Q7- What was Anil doing when the boy met him?
Q13- What do you mean by the word "grunting"?
A) cooking
A) make a low inarticulate sound
B) watching a match
B) say something which is clearly audible
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C) shouting A) Anil
D) none of the above B) publisher
Q14- How was the meal he cooked first night? C) Anil's friends
A) delicious D) none of the above
B) mouth-watering Q20- Who is easier to rob?
C) finger-licking good A) a careless man
D) terrible B) a greedy man
Q15- How did he infer that about his food? C) a trusting man
A) Anil said he liked it D) Anil
B) Anil couldn't have enough of it Q21- What takes all the pleasure out of work?
C) Anil was licking his fingers A) robbing a careless man
D) Anil gave it to a stray dog B) robbing a greedy man
C) when someone doesn't notice they've been
robbed
Q16- What did Anil promise him to teach?
D) both a and c
A) write his name
Q22- How much money did he steal?
B) cook
A) 500
C) write full sentences
B) 600
D) all of the above
C) 700
Q17- Did Anil really mind his petty ways of
earning money? D) 800
A) yes Q23- Did he get away on the Lucknow Express?
B) no A) yes
C) maybe B) no
D) he didn't earn through petty ways C) maybe
Q18- "a queer way to earn money"..What is the D) none of the above
meaning of the word "queer"?
Q24- How, according to the narrator, would Anil feel
A) strange upon finding out?
B) famous A) angry
C) rare B) fear
D) illegal C) acceptance
Q19- Who was the most trusting person narrator D) sad
had ever met ?
Q25- What did he do with the money?
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A) ran away with it B) Anil

B) threw it C) a greedy man
C) bought a cycle with it D) none of the above
D) returned it Q30- What was the name of the shop above which
Anil lived?
A) Laddu Sweet Shop
Q26- Did Anil say anything about the robbery?
B) Rasgulla Sweet Shop
A) yes
C) Jamun Sweet Shop
B) no
D) Jumna Sweet Shop
C) maybe
ANSWER KEY
1 B 11 D 21 D
Q27- Why does Hari return the money?
2 B 12 C 22 B
A) he wanted to learn to write
3 A 13 A 23 B
B) he was worried about how Anil would feel
4 A 14 D 24 D
C) he felt bad
5 B 15 D 25 D
6 D 16 D 26 B
Q28- What do you mean by the word "unlined"?
7 B 17 B 27 A
A) in a line
8 A 18 A 28 B
B) showing no sign of worry or anxiety
9 B 19 A 29 A
C) none of the above
10 C 20 B 30 D
Q29- Who does "I" refer to in the story?
A) Hari
Footprints without Feet

1- “THE two boys started in surprise at the fresh A)bare feet
muddy imprints of a pair of _____”
B) shoes
126
C) tyres C) burned the house

D) none of the above D) he didn’t do anything for revenge
8.- What suggests that he was a homeless wanderer?
2.- He was leaving his imprints in _____ A) no clothes
A) Paris B) no money
B) London C) invisible
C) Iping D) all of the above
D) Canada 9.- Where did he find comfort in London?
A) at the inn
3.- What is the meaning of “bewildered”?
B) a big store
A) perplexed
C) theatre store
B) confused
C) puzzled
10- Where did he go next?
D) all of the above
A) at the inn
4.- Who were the boys following?
B) a big store
A) a scientist
C) theatre store
B) a dog
C) a rat
11- What did he take from there?
A) food
5.- What was he working on?
B) wine
A) making fake footprints
C) bandages
B) making human bodies invisible
C) making a fool of children D) all of the above
D) all of the above
6- “Brilliant scientist though he was, Griffin was 12- Where did he go next?
rather a _____ person.”
A) Piping
A) lawless
B) Iping
B) lawful
C) Snowland
C) good
D) rude
13- what was an unusual event?
7- What did he do for revenge?
A) a guest at the inn during winters
A) burned himself
B) a guest at the inn during summers
B) burned the landlord
127
C) a guest at the inn during spring B) Griffin arriving at the inn during off season
D) nothing was unusual there C) Griffin pretending to be waiting for a cheque
14.- Why does Mrs Hall find the scientist eccentric? D) none of the above
A) he visited during off season 17. Who called the incident “an extraordinary
affair”?
B) his intention was only to work
A) clergyman
C) he looked weird
B) clergyman’s wife
D) all of the above
C) Mrs Hall
15. Why was Mrs Hall prepared and ready to tolerate
strange habits and irritable temper? D) all of the above
A) he had paid in advance 18. What did she think had happened to her
furniture?
B) he was a scientist
A) nothing
C) both 1 and 2
B) the scientist had put spirits in them
C) the scientist was playing with them
16. What is being referred to as the “strange
incident” that happened in the study? D) the furniture had gone mad
A) Griffin stealing money while being invisible 19. “The scientist was always _____; now he
became furious.”
A) patient C) calm
B) quick-tempered D) none of the above
20. Where was the theatrical company shop situated?
A) Dury lane C) Druy lane
B) Drury lane D) Druri Lane
ANSWER KEY:- 1.A 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.B 6.A 7.C 8.D 9.B 10.C. 11.C 12.B 13.A 14. D 15.A 16.A 17.A
18. B 19.B 20.B

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Question Bank (Term-1)

Chief Patron Sh. N.K. Patel, Deputy Commissioner

Patron Smt. Sunita Sharma

Coordinator Sh. Suresh Kumar

Prepared by Mr. Bijender Kumar, TGT (Eng.), JNV Fatehabad

Compiled & Mrs. Vimlesh Bhaskar, TGT (Eng.), JNV Dholpur

Designed By Dr. Sunil Vats, PGT(Comp.Sci.), JNV Mohindergarh

1. Discursive passage (400-450 words)

1. Formal letter based on a given situation.

Questions based on extracts / texts to assess interpretation, inference, extrapolation beyond

1. Discursive passage (400-450 words)

1. Formal letter based on a given situation

Questions based on extracts / texts to assess interpretation, inference, extrapolation beyond

1. The Making of a Scientist

WRITING & GRAMMAR 10

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti, Jaipur Region

(c) Knowing oneself (d) Knowing one’s surroundings

c. Can’t decide d. None of the above

iv) Why is inference-based R C the toughest form?

1. (a) to lay eggs in nests 5. c. volunteers

1. An ―Iatrogenic disease is an ailment caused by……………………………

(b) they may create bruises

x. Be the best version of yourself

(i) motorboat (iii)Shikara

(I) The Poast office facilitates around-

(iii)Pavement (iv) quickly

3. The __________ has several medicinal properties

(iii)High blood Pressure (iv)all of above

b. Good chess players take a lot of risks.

• Use water to wash the rice.

measurements to cook rice

Case based Factual Passage

Education in Republic of India

Ans: (ii) Absence of around 25% teachers every day.

How Children Consume Caffeine Passage

Ans: (iii) Soft Drinks

1. This poster is drafted to…….

(A) Precaution. (C) Proclamation

1:-What is pollution to mankind?

(A) A boon . (C) A curse

(i) burning of fossil fuel. (iii) burning natural gas.

(i) power stations. (iii) transportation fuel.

(i) greenhouse effect. (iii) some agricultural practices.

(iii) drowning coastlines. (iv) all the above

1. The poster is regarding:

2. Pharse ‘read up on’ stands for :

d) All the above 35

(i) Awareness (iv) Familiarity

(a) 15-20 (b) 21-34

Q7: ITCZ is formed around

(i) it appeals to us despite a passage of time.

c) In Paragraph 2,_____________________means continue.

f)how many qualities are mentioned in the given extraction-

h)Find out the Synonym of –‘Attentiveness’ from the extraction-

Q2. What is the correct salutation sequence?

A. This is with reference to the increasing incidents of road rage

(vi) (c) Effective and Speedy action

Letter to the Editor

A- Please Note Formal Notice C- Subject : Formal Notice

12] Which Of The Following Statements Is Incorrect about letter to editor ?

(E). None of these

23. How to end the main body of a formal letter?

(A). Ask how good the weather is in the recipient’s city.