Test Bank 1

CHAPTER
ONE
BIOCHEMISTRY: AN INTRODUCTION
1) The ultimate source of energy for life on earth is __________.
A) The sun
B) Geothermal heat
C) Carbohydrates
D) Fats
E) Other organisms
Ans A
2) Which of the following is not a common component of biomolecules?
A) Carbon
B) Hydrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Nitrogen
E) Chlorine
Ans E
3) Which of the following is the basic structural unit of living organisms?
A) Nucleus
B) Cell membrane
C) Tissue
D) Cell
E) Cytoskeleton
Ans D
4) Which of the following is not an organelle?
A) Mitochondria
B) Chloroplast
C) Nucleus
D) Plasma membrane
E) Golgi complex
Ans D
5) Which of the following is not a role played by carbohydrates in living cells?
A) Energy source
B) Structural support
C) Intercellular communication
D) Both A and B are correct
E) All are roles played by carbohydrates in living cells
Ans E
6) Metabolism is best defined as the _________.
A) Reactions of living cells
B) Reactions that synthesize large molecules in living cells
C) Reactions that degrade molecules in living cells
D) Conversion of food molecules to energy
E) Reactions that synthesize and degrade molecules in living cells
Ans E
7) The average life span of a species is about ________years
A)One million
B) Ten million
C) Five hundred thousand
D)Five million
E) One hundred thousand
Ans A
8) Which of the following is not a waste product of living organisms
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water
C) Urea
D) Ammonia
E) Glycine
Ans E
9) Biochemistry is defined as
A) The study of life processes
B) The study of the molecular basis of life
C) The study of living organisms
D) The study of organic compounds in living organisms
E) The study of living compounds
Ans B
10) One of the principal methods that organisms use to obtain energy from chemical bonds is by ___________.
A) Substitution reactions
B) Dehydration reactions
C) Oxidation/reduction reactions
D) Hydration reactions
E) Addition reactions
Ans C
11) The following is an example of which reaction class?
CH3Br + HSCH2CH(NH2)COOH  CH3SCH2CH(NH2)COOH + Br + H+
A) Substitution
B) Elimination
C) Addition
D) Isomerization
E) Oxidation/Reduction
Ans A
12) The following is an example of which reaction class
HOOCCH=CHCOOH + H2O  HOOCCH2CH(OH)COOH
A) Substitution
B) Elimination
C) Addition
D) Isomerization
Ans C
13) The following is an example of which reaction class?
CH3CH2OH  CH3CHO + H2O
A) Substitution
B) Elimination
C) Addition
D) Isomerization
Ans E
14) Which of the following is not a component of nucleic acid?
A) Nucleotides
B) Glucose
C) Phosphate group
D) Purines
E) Pyrimidines
Ans B
15) The largest molecules in living organisms are _________.
A) proteins
B) lipids
C) nucleic acids
D) carbohydrates
E) steroids
Ans C
16) All of the following classes of compounds are lipids except _______.
A) fats
B) sterols
C) fatty acids
D) phosphoglycerides
E) nucleotides
Ans E
17) Which of the following classes of biomolecules are the most abundant in nature?
A) Lipids
B) Amino acids
C) Carbohydrates
D) Proteins
E) Nucleotides
Ans C
18) Consider the following molecule. Which arrow is pointing to a peptide bond?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Ans C
19) The following molecule is an example of which single class of compounds?
CH3CH2CH(NH2)COOH
A) Amine
B) Acid
C) Ester
D) Amino acid
E) Alcohol
Ans D
20) The following molecule is an example of which class of compounds?
CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH3
A) Hydrocarbon
B) Acid
C) Ester
D) Ether
E) Aldehyde
Ans C
21) The following molecule is an example of which class of compounds?
CH3CH2CH2COOH
A) Hydrocarbon
B) Acid
C) Alcohol
D) Aldehyde
E) Ketone
Ans B
22) The chemical properties of organic molecules are determined by specific arrangements of atoms called
_____________.
A) Structure
B) Bonds
C) Functional groups
D) Radicals
E) Molecules
Ans C
23) Which of the following classes of compounds make up most of the mass of an organism?
A) Amino acids
B) Proteins
C) Lipids
D) Carbohydrates
E) Water
Ans E
24) Which of the following is not a basic element of life
A)Phosporus
B) Hydrogen
C) Nitrogen
D)Oxygen
E) All of the above are basic elements of life
Ans E
25) Most biomolecules can be considered to be derivatives of
A)Amino acids
B) Carbohydrates
C) Fats
D)Hydrocarbons
E) Alcohols
Ans D
26) Which of the following amino acids contain a hydrophobic side chain
A)Leucine
B) Arginine
C) Glutamine
D)Glutamic acid
E) Aspartic acid
Ans A
27) Which of the following small molecules do not for biopolymers
A)Amino acids
B) Sugars
C)Fatty acids
D)Nucleotides
E) C and D
Ans C
28) Choose the amino acid that can function as a neurotransmitter
A)Glutamic acid
B) Alanine
C) Tyrosine
D)Lysine
E) Cysteine
Ans A
29) A constant source of _______ is required for maintenance of a cell’s ordered state.
A) Heat
B) Oxygen
C) Energy
D) Stimulus
E) Water
Ans C
30) Which of the following is not true of life?
A) Life is cellular
B) Life is information based
C) Life is complex and dynamic
D) All living things produce energy using mitochondria
E) Life adapts and evolves
Ans D
31) The most abundant biomolecules found in nature are
A)Amino acids
B) Fatty acids
C)Carbohydrates
D)Proteins
E) Fats
Ans C
32) Which of the following is not a component of DNA
A)Uracil
B) Adenine
C) Cytosine
D)Guanidine
E) Thymine
Ans A
33) The sum total of all reactions of a organism is called
A)Life
B) Metabolism
C) Biosynthesis
D)Anabolism
E) Energetics
Ans B
34) Which of the following is not characteristic of an autopoietic system?
A) Autonomous
B) Selforganizing
C) Selfmaintaining
D) Intelligent
E) B and D
Ans D
35) The assumption that a complete understanding of a living organism can be obtained solely by investigating
all of its components is called _________.
A) Systems biology
B) Reductionism
C) Emergence
D) Robustness
E) Feedback control
Ans B
36) Which of the following is not a core principle of systems biology?
A) Emergence
B) Robustness
C) Redundancy
D) Modularity
E) Limit of resolution
Ans E
37) The field of study associated with the investigation of gene expression patterns is called:
A) Proteomics
B) Bioinformatics
C) Genomics
D) Functional genomics
E) Synomics
Ans D
38) Which of the following is not an example of a macromolecule?
A) Nucleic acid
B) Protein
C) Polysaccharide
D) Enzyme
E) Amino acid
Ans E
39) Which of the following is not considered a class of small biomolecule?
A) Amino acid
B) Sugar
C) Nucleic Acid
D) Fatty acid
E) Nucleotide
Ans C
40) The functional group present in the following molecule is called:
A) Amine
B) Ketone
C) Amide
D) Ester
E) Acid
Ans C
41) The majority of Earth’s species belong to which of the following classifications
A)Eukaryotes
B) Prokaryotes
C) Viruses
D)Mammals
E) Archea
Ans B
42) The conversion of earths atmosphere from anerobic to aerobic was due to the development of
_________________ by cyanobacteria
A)Photosynthesis
B) Metabolism
C) Chemosynthesis
D)Oxidation of iron
E) Fixation of nitrogen as cyanide
Ans A
43) The largest mass extinction also known as the great dying was called the
A)Cenezoic extinction
B) Permian extinction
C) Mesozoic event
D)Great ice age
E) The great plague
Ans B
44) The most prominent function of RNA is
A)Energy source
B) Nutrient source
C)Protein synthesis
D)Structural elements
E) B and C
Ans C
45) An organisms entire set of DNA is called
A)Genome
B) Genetic sequence
C) Polynucleotide sequence
D)Gene
E) Inheritance
Ans A
46) The major function of carbohydrates is
A)Catalysts and structural elements
B) Energy sources and structural elements
C) Genetic information
D)Protein synthesis
E) Insulation
Ans B
CHAPTER TWO
LIVING CELLS
1) During exocytosis membranebound vesicles migrate from the Golgi apparatus to the __________.
A) Lysosome
B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) Cell wall
D) Plasma membrane
E) More than one answer is correct
Ans D
2) Notable features of eukaryotes include all of the following except ________.
A) Rapid cell division
B) Larger size
C) A complex internal structure
D) An endomembrane system
E) Organelles
Ans A
3) Gramnegative bacteria lack _________.
A) Cell walls
B) Peptidoglycans in the cell wall
C) An outer coat of lipid bound proteins
D) DNA
E) Carbohydrate containing polymers in the cell wall
Ans E
4) The plasma membrane _________.
A) Provides support
B) Is present only in eukaryotes
C) Controls the flow of substances in and out of the cell
D) Is present only in prokaryotes
E) Both A and C are correct
Ans E
5) Structural features that make phospholipids suited for their biological role are:
A) A hydrophilic head group
B) Branched carbon chains
C) A hydrophobic group
D) A and C are correct
E) None of the above are true
Ans D
6) The grainy appearance of prokaryotic cytoplasm is due in part to ________.
A) A large number of ribosomes
B) Plasmids
C) Nucleolus
D) DNA
E) RNA
Ans A
7) Which of the following types of molecules is not hydrophilic
A)Sodium chloride
B) Glucose
C) Amino acids
D)Fats
E) A and B
Ans D
8) The basic structure of biological membranes is provided by what class of compounds?
A) Proteins
B) Lipids
C) Carbohydrates
D) Steroids
E) Peptidoglycans
Ans B
9) Which of the following is not true of the nucleus?
A) It is found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
B) It contains the cell’s “genetic blueprint”
C) It exerts a profound influence over all cellular metabolic functions
D) It contains chromatin fibers
E) It is bounded by membrane
Ans A
10) Which of the following statements is not true of the endoplasmic reticulum?
A) It often constitutes more than half of the cell’s total membrane
B) It exists in two forms: rough and smooth
C) Rough ER is responsible for protein synthesis
D) Smooth ER is responsible for lipid synthesis
E) Rough ER ribosomes are responsible for biotransformation.
Ans E
11) Which of the following is not true of eukaryotic ribosomes?
A) They are macromolecular machines
B) They function in the biosynthesis of proteins
C) They contain ribosomal RNA
D) They consist of two unequally sized subunits
E) They are attached to the smooth ER
Ans E
12) Which of the following statements is not true of the Golgi apparatus?
A) The analogous plant structure is referred to as a dictyosome
B) It has two faces
C) The cisterna or forming face usually projects toward the ER
D) It is involved in the packaging and secretion of cell products
E) It is usually located near the plasma membrane
Ans E
13) Which of the following statements is not true of the lysosome?
A) It functions in intercellular digestion
B) Both ER and Golgi apparatus are involved in its formation
C) It is capable of degrading most biomolecules
D) It is involved in the packaging and secretion of cell products
E) It is involved in pathological conditions such as gout and rheumatoid arthritis
Ans D
14) Acid hydrolases are found in ___________.
A) Ribosomes
B) Lysosomes
C) Golgi Apparatus
D) Dictyosomes
E) Smooth ER
Ans B
15) The main role of peroxisomes is _____________.
A) Anaerobic respiration
B) Aerobic respiration
C) Lipid oxidation
D) Generation and destruction of peroxides
E) Carbohydrate oxidation
Ans D
16) Biological machines are derived from which class of compounds
A)Fats
B) Proteins
C) Carbohydrates
D)Ribosomes
E) B and C
Ans B
17) Which of the following organelles is involved in aerobic metabolism?
A) Mitochondria
B) Peroxisomes
C) Glyoxysomes
D) Ribosomes
E) Lysosomes
Ans A
18) Respiratory assemblies are responsible for the synthesis of ___________.
A) ATP
B) NADH
C) GTP
D) Hydrogen peroxide
E) ADP
Ans A
19) The two membranes of the mitochondria create two separate compartments called the intermembrane space
and the __________.
A) Cristae
B) Matrix
C) Lumen
D) Cisternae
E) Vesicle
Ans B
20) Which of the following statements is not true of the mitochondrial matrix?
A) It contains enzymes responsible for nucleotide metabolism
B) It contains circular DNA molecules
C) It contains all of the necessary compounds for protein synthesis
D) It has a gellike consistency
E) It has a high concentration of enzymes and ions
Ans A
21) The excluded volume of a cell varies between _____ and ______%.
A) 510
B) 1020
C) 2040
D) 4050
E) 05
Ans C
22) Plastids are plant structures similar to what organelle found in animals?
A) Ribosomes
B) Leucoplasts
C) Golgi apparatus
D) Peroixsomes
E) None of the above is correct
Ans E
23) The stroma of plastids is analogous to what structure of mitochondria?
A) Grana
B) Matrix
C) Inner membrane
D) Outer membrane
E) Cisternal space
Ans B
24) Which of the following help make up the cytoskeleton?
A) Microtubules
B) Microfilaments
C) Intermediate fibers
D) B and C are correct
E) All are correct
Ans E
25) Mitochondria and _________ consume molecular oxygen.
A) Plastids
B) Ribosomes
C) Peroxisomes
D) Lysosome
E) Golgi apparatus
Ans C
26) Which of the following is present only in prokaryotic cells?
A) Nucleus
B) Endoplasmic reticulum
C) Plasma membrane
D) Nucleolus
Ans E
27) Biotransformation is defined as:
A) The preparation of waterinsoluble substances for excretion
B) Oxidation of organic molecules
C) Transformation of food molecules to ATP
D) Reactions occuring within a living system
E) Conversion of harmless compounds to toxins
Ans A
28) In place of a nucleus a prokaryotic cell has a __________.
A) Mesosome
B) Nucleoid
C) Centrosome
D) Nucleosome
E) Reticulosome
Ans B
29) Which of the following eukaryotic organelles is a key regulator of apoptosis?
A) Mitochondria
B) Flagella
C) Chloroplasts
D) Cilia
E) Ribosomes
Ans A
30) Which of the following is not a role of transmembrane proteins?
A) Transport of ions
B) Structural support
C) Transport of nutrients
D) Receptors
E) Enzymes
Ans B
31) Which of the following is not a membrane protein?
A) Channel protein
B) Carrier protein
C) Receptors
D) Integral proteins
E) Motor proteins
Ans E
32) Examples of eukaryotic signal molecules are:
A) Neurotransmitters
B) Hormones
C) Cytokines
E) All of the above are correct
Ans E
33) Which of the following is not a phase of the information processing mechanism?
A) Reception
B) Transduction
C) Response
D) Transformation
Ans D
34) Which of the following is not a component of the endomembrane system?
A) Plasma membrane
B) Endoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi apparatus
D) Lysosomes
E) Ribosomes
Ans E
35) The carbohydrate coat of a cell is called the:
A) Extracellular matrix
B) Glycocalyx
C) Cell cortex
D) Fibroblast
Ans B
36) The perinuclear space is:
A) The space between the nucleus and the cytoplasm
B) The space between the membranes of the nuclear envelope
C) The space between the nucleus and the nucleous
D) The space between DNA and histones
E) Both A and B are correct
Ans B
37) Which of the following organelles are involved in autophagy?
A) Mitochondria
B) Lysosomes
C) Chloroplasts
D) Golgi apparatus
E) Both B and C are correct
Ans B
38) Which of the following molecules is not an example of a type of eukaryotic signal molecule
type?
A)Neurotransmitters
B) Hormones
C) Cytokinins
D)Endotoxins
E) A and B
Ans D
39) Of the 100 approximately trillion free living cells in the human body how many are actually human cells?
A)All of them
B) 50 Trillion
C) 90 Trillion
D)10 Trillion
E) 80 Trillion
Ans D
40) Analysis of the RNA of prokaryotes reveals that there are ______ distinct types of
prokaryotes.
A)One
B) Two
C) Three
D)Four
E) Five
Ans B
41) Which of the following are microbiota
A)Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Archea
D)A and B
E) A, B and C
Ans E
42) Which of the following are techniques used by the body to protect itself against
indigenous micobiota
A)Impenetrable epithelial tissue
B) Immune system cells
C) Antimicrobial proteins
D)Beta defensins
E) All of the above
Ans E
43) Which of the following is a superorganism
A) Streptococcus
B) Lactobacillus
C) Homo Sapiens
D)Corynebacterium
E) Klebsiella
Ans C
44) The endocytotic cycle is
A)A means of remodeling plasma membrane
B) A form a signal transduction
C) Cycling of sodium and potassium ions through the cell membrane
D)Continuous recycling of membrane through endocytosis and exocytosis
E) A and D
Ans A
CHAPTER THREE
WATER THE MATRIX OF LIFE
1) The most important factor in the evolution of life on earth is _______.
A) The sun
B) Oxygen
C) Water
D) Dry land
E) A reducing atmosphere
Ans C
2) A hydrogen bond is best defined as:
A) A strong chemical bond between hydrogen and another element
B) A weak chemical bond between hydrogen and another element
C) A relatively strong electrostatic bond between hydrogen and oxygen or nitrogen
D) A weak electrostatic bond between hydrogen and oxygen or nitrogen
E) A bond between two hydrogens
Ans C
3) Which of the following compounds is capable of hydrogen bonding with like molecules?
A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
B) CH3CH2OCH2CH3
C) CH3NH2
D) HOCH2CH2OH
E) Both C and D are correct
Ans E
4) Which of the following is not a type of van der Waals force?
A) Dipoledipole interactions
B) Dipoleinduced dipole interactions
C) Induced dipole – induced dipole interactions
D) Chemical bonds
E) Hydrogen bonds
Ans D
5) Which of the following is not an example of noncovalent interactions between molecules?
A) Salt bridges
B) Hydrogen bonds
C) Hydrophobic interactions
D) Ionic bonds
E) Chemical bonds
Ans E
6) Which of the following factors is responsible for the fact that water is a liquid at room temperature?
A) Covalent OH bonds
B) Ionic bonds
C) Hydrogen bonds
D) Hydrophobic bonding between water molecules
E) The molecular weight of water
Ans C
7) Which of the following properties of water promotes the relatively constant climate of earth?
A) High heat of fusion
B) High surface tension
C) High heat of vaporization
D) High heat capacity
E) A, C, and D are all important
Ans E
8) Which of the following compounds is amphipathic?
A) H2O
B) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
C) HOOCCOOH
D) CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH
E) Both A and D are correct
Ans D
9) Which of the following is a hydronium ion?
A) H3O+
B) OH
C) HOOH
D) CH3OH2+
E) H4O++
Ans A
10) Which of the following is the conjugate acid of the bicarbonate ion?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Ans B

11) Which of the following statements is true of weak acids dissolved in water?
A) They are completely ionized in water
B) They are totally unionized in water
C) They are partially ionized in water
D) The dissociation constant is a function of pH
E) The dissociation constant is a function of solute concentration
Ans C
12) What is the pH of a solution where the concentration of hydrogen ions is 2 x 105 molar?
A) 5
B) 2.5
C) 2
D) 4.7
E) 5.3
Ans D
13) Which of the following would not form a suitable buffer?
A) Acetic acid/ acetate
B) Carbonic acid/ bicarbonate
C) Bicarbonate/ carbonate
D) Hydrochloric acid/ chloride
E) Phosphoric acid/ dihydrogen phosphate
Ans D
14) Buffering capacity is directly proportional to which of the following factors?
A) Molecular weight of the buffer
B) Concentration of the conjugate acid of the buffer
C) Concentration of the conjugate base of the buffer
D) Concentration of both components of the buffer
E) The acid or base to be buffered against
Ans D
15) The sodium acetate/acetic acid buffer is 0.1 molar in sodium acetate and 0.5 molar
in acetic acid. What is the concentration of the buffer?
A) 0.1 molar
B) 0.5 molar
C) 0.6 molar
D) 0.4 molar
E) Either A or B depending on whether acid or base is being added to the buffer.
Ans C
16) The pH of a solution that is 0.25 molar in acetic acid and 0.1 molar in sodium acetate is 4.36. What is the
pKa of acetic acid?
A) 4.36
B) 4.76
C) 7.76
D) 3.76
E) 5.76
Ans B
17) The most important buffer in blood is __________.
A) Carbonate/bicarbonate buffer
B) Protein buffer
C) Phosphate buffer
D) Lactate buffer
E) Tartrate buffer
Ans A
18) When an individual breathes very rapidly, large amounts of carbon dioxide are exhaled. What effect does
this have on blood pH?
A) Acidosis
B) Alkalosis
C)No change
D) First acidosis then rebounding alkalosis
E) First alkalosis then rebounding acidosos
Ans B
19) Salt bridges in proteins are an example of _________.
A) Hydrogen bonds
B) Ionic interactions
D) van der Waals forces
E) London dispersion forces
Ans B
20) What is the osmorlarity of a solution that is 0.25 molar in trisodium phosphate?
A) 0.25 osmolar
B) 0.5 osmolar
C) 0.75 osmolar
D) 1.0 osmolar
E) None of the above are correct
Ans D
21) Red blood cells are isotonic to a solution that is 0.9% sodium chloride. These same cells are
_______________ to a solution that is 0.9% sodium sulfate.
A) Isotonic
B) Hypertonic
C) Hypotonic
D) Tonic
E) Nontonic
Ans C
22) Which of the following molecules would have a dipole moment?
A) CCl4
B) CH3CH3
C) H2
D) CHCl3
E) I2
Ans D
23) Which of the following molecules would form a micelle?
A) NaCl
B) CH3COOH
C) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
D) H3PO4
E) CH3(CH2)10COO Na +
Ans E
24) Which of the following molecules are weak acids?
A) HCl
B) CO32
C) HNO3
D) HCO3
E) Both B and D
Ans D
25) Which of the following ions would have the largest hydration sphere?
A) Li+
B) Na+
C) K+
D) Cs+
E) All would have the same size hydration sphere
Ans A
26) Hydration is best defined as
A) Covalent interaction between water and a solute
B) Noncovalent interaction between water and a solute
C) Salt formation in water
D) Ionization of a base to produce hydroxide ions
Ans B
27) The noncovalent interaction between an amide and an alcohol would be which of the following?
A) Salt bridges
B) Hydrophobic
C) Hydrogen bonding
D) Both A and C are correct
E) All of the above are true
Ans C
28) Crenation would result when cells are placed in a ___________ solution.
A) Hypertonic
B) Hypotonic
C) Isotonic
D) Nontonic
E) Nonaqueous solvent
Ans A
29) Which of the following is not an important noncovalent interaction of living organisms
A)Ionic interactions
B) Van der Waals interactions
C) Hydrogen bonds
D)Carbon hydrogen bonds
E) All are important
Ans D*
30) Which of the following molecules would have unusually high heat capacities?
A) Ammonia
B) Methane
C) Methyl alcohol
D) Benzene
Ans E
31) The hybridization of the water molecule is:
A) Sp3
B) Sp2
C) Sp
D) Unhybridized
E) Planar
Ans A
32) The strongest type of non covalent force is
A)DipoleDipole
B) DipoleInduced Dipole
C) Induced Dipole – Induced Dipole
D)London dispersion forces
E) Hydrogen bonds
Ans E
33) Which of the following ions would have the strongest tendency to form an ion pair with carboxylate groups
the surface of a protein?
A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) All have the same tendency
E) These ions do not associate with proteins
Ans C
34) Which of the following species would form a buffer with HPO42?
A) H3PO4
B) H2PO41
C) CO32
D) All would form buffers with HPO42
E) Both A and B
Ans B
35) Water can form how many hydrogen bonds
A)One
B) Two
C) Three
D)Four
E) Five
Ans D
36) Which of the following solutions will be isotonic with 3M sucrose?
A) 3M NaCl
B) 1 M Sodium sulfate
C) 1.5 M Proline
D) 2 M Sodium chloride
E) 1 M Magnesium sulfate
Ans B
37) Which of the following molecules is hydrophobic?
A) Sodium chloride
B) Ethyl alcohol
C) Hexane
D) Sucrose
E) Ammonia
Ans C
38) In biological systems buffers usually contain an excess of __________.
A) Weak base
B) Weak acid
C) The two components of the buffer are present in equal amounts
D) It would depend on the system
E) None are correct
Ans A
39) The tendency of nonpolar molecules to aggregate in a water medium is called ________.
A) Crenation
B) Hydrophobic effect
C) Hydrophillic effect
D) Micellular effect
E) Amphiatic
Ans B
40) The high heat of fusion of water is due to its _______________.
A) Hydrogen bonding
B) High surface tension
C) High heat of vaporization
D) High heat capacity
E) A, C, and D are all important
Ans A
41) Which of the following is not a role of water in the body
A)Nutrient absorption
B) Nutrient transport
C) Waste product excretion
D)Temperature regulation
E) All are roles of water
Ans E
42) Which of the following species can form a buffer system
A)Hydrochloric acid / Acetic acid
B) Acetic acid / Sodium chloride
C) Acetic acid / Ammonium chloride
D)Acetic acid/ Sodium acetate
E) Phosphoric acid / Sodium phosphate
Ans D
43) Which of the following are unusual properties of water that suit it to be the matrix
of life
A)Tetrahedral hybridization
B) Presence of oxygen
C) Thermal properties
D)Solvent characteristics
E) C and D
Ans E
44) What percentage of the worlds water is drinkable
A)100%
B) 60%
C)3%
D)1%
E) 97%
Ans C
45) The immediate effect of deforestation is
A)Drought
B) Erosion
C) Formation of grasslands
D)Formation of deserts
E) Increase in the water table
Ans B
46) Which of the following is not an effect of hydrogen bonding on the
physical properties of water
A)Increased boiling point
B) Increased heat of fusion
C) Increased melting point
D)Increased heat of vaporization
E) All are effects of hydrogen bonding
Ans E
CHAPTER FOUR
ENERGY
1) The course of chemical reactions is determined by three factors. These are enthalpy, entropy and
A) Heat of reaction
B) Free energy
C) States of matter
D) Bond energy
Ans B
2) Which of the following statements is true of an open system
A) There is an exchange of energy only with the surroundings
B) There is an exchange of matter only with the surroundings
C) There is an exchange of both matter and energy with the surroundings
D) In an open system either matter or energy, but not both may be exchanged with the surroundings
E) Energy flows only into the system: matter flows out of the system.
Ans C
3) Which of the following statements is true of a closed system?
A) There is an exchange of energy only with the surroundings
B) There is an exchange of matter only with the surroundings
C) There is an exchange of both matter and energy with the surroundings
D) In an closed system either matter or energy, but not both may be exchanged with the surroundings
E) Energy flows only into the system: matter flows out of the system.
Ans A
4) Which of the following thermodynamic properties is a state function?
A) Work
B) Heat
C) Enthalpy
D) Entropy
Ans E
5) The first law of thermodynamics is described by which of the following equations?
A) E = Q+W
B) Q = EW
C) W = QW
D) Both B and C are correct
E) All of the above are correct.
Ans A
6) Which of the following statements is not true of a spontaneous process?
A) The enthalpy value is negative
B) The entropy value is negative
C) The free energy value is positive
D) The work value is negative
E) The enthalpy value is positive
Ans B
7) Which of the following is not a standard condition for standard free energy?
A) 25 0C
B) 1 Atm pressure
C) Concentration of reactants = 1 molar
D) Concentration of products = 1 molar
E) pH = 7
Ans E
8) The ionization constant of acetic acid is 1x105. What is Go for the reaction?
A) –6500 cal/mol
B) 3250 cal/mol
C) 6500 cal/mol
D) 6000 cal/mol
E) 1624 cal/mol
Ans C
9) Under standard conditions is the ionization of a carboxylic acid spontaneous or not? A typical carboxylic
acid has a pKa of 4.
A) It is spontaneous
B) It is not spontaneous
C) Not enough information is provided
Ans B
10) In order for two reactions to be coupled what conditions must be met?
A) They must both be spontaneous
B) One of the reactions must be spontaneous
C) A product of one of the reactions must be a reactant in the second reaction
D) They both must have ATP as a reactant
E) Both B and C must be true.
Ans E
11) When water and hydrophobic molecules are mixed all of the following are true except:
A) The hydrophobic molecules aggregate
B) The free energy of dissolving molecules is unfavorable
C) TS becomes negative
D) Water’s hydrogenbonded interactions are disrupted
E) All of the above are true.
Ans E
12) The oxidation of food molecules to form CO2 and H2O is a(n) _______ process.
A) Exergonic
B) Endergonic
C) Isothermic
D) Lithotropic
E) Spontaneous
Ans A
13) The most important direct source of energy in the body is:
A) ATP
B) ADP
C) GTP
D) Glucose
E) Fatty acids
Ans A
14) The law of the conservation of energy states that
A) The total energy of the universe is constant
B) Entropy of a system increases
C) There are three laws of thermodynamics
D) The work that can be performed by a system is a constant
E) The energy of a system’s surroundings is constant
Ans A
15) Which of the following is a low quality energy source
A)Electromagnetic radiation
B) Heat
C) Electrical Energy
D)Chemical Energy
E) B and C
Ans B*
16) Which of the following statements regarding free energy changes is true?
A) At equilibrium G0 = O
B) For the reaction to be spontaneous Go must be positive
C) Free energy is a state function
D) Both A and C are true
Ans D
17) Which of the following compounds would liberate the most free energy on hydrolysis?
A) ATP
B) Phosphoenolpyruvate
C) PPi
D) ADP
E) GTP
Ans B
18) Which of the following thermodynamic properties is the most useful criterion of spontaneity?
A) Entropy
B) Free energy
C) Standard free energy
D) Enthalpy
E) Change in temperature
Ans B
19) For a reaction to be spontaneous which of the following statements must be true?
A)Suniv= O
B) Suniv = positive
C) Siniv = negative
D)A or B
E) Entropy has no effect on the spontaneity of a process
Ans B
20) Which of the following processes are driven by the hydrolysis of ATP?
A) Biosynthesis of biomolecules
B) Active transport of substances across membranes
C) Mechanical work such as muscle contraction
Ans E
21) The study of reaction rates is called ___________.
A) Reactions
B) Thermodynamics
C) Kinetics
D) Mechanics
E) Entropics
Ans C
22) Which of the following is described by the first law of thermodynamics
A)Enthalpy
B) Entropy
C) Free energy
D)A and B
E) A, B and C
Ans A
23) Which of the following is described by the second law of thermodynamics
A)Enthalpy
B) Entropy
C) Free energy
D)A and B
E) A, B and C
Ans B
24) What type of bond is being cleaved during the conversion of ATP to ADP?
A) Ester
B) Ether
C) Hydrogen
D) Anhydride
E) Amide
Ans D
25) The tendency of ATP to undergo hydrolysis is called __________.
A) Free energy of hydrolysis
B) Cleavage rate
C) Phosphoryl group transfer potential
D) High energy bond potential
Ans C
26) The products of the hydrolysis of ATP are more stable than ATP itself. This circumstance is due to
__________.
A) pH effects
B) Relief of chargecharge repulsions
C) Resonance stabilization of the products
D) Relief of steric strain
Ans E
27) A living organism is what type of thermodynamic system?
A) Closed
B) Open
C) A system at equilibrium
D) A system with negative entropy
Ans B
28) Which of the following thermodynamic properties is pathway dependent?
A) Free energy
B) Entropy
C) Enthalpy
D) Work
Ans D
29) A Kelvin is _________.
A) A unit of temperature measurement
B) A unit of entropy measurement
C) A measurement of the density of a system
D) An index of the spontaneity of a reaction
E) A unit of heat
Ans A
30) The rate of a reaction can be determined from which of the following?
A) Free energy
B) Enthalpy
C) Entropy
D) All of the above are correct
E) None of the above are correct.
Ans E
31) To maintain a system far from equilibrium a constant input of _______ is required.
A) Entropy
B) Energy
C) Only systems at equilibrium are stable
D) Disorganized energy
Ans B
32) Systems far from equilibrium are referred to as _________ systems.
A) Spontaneous
B) Dissipative
C) Critical
D) Entropic
E) Heterotropic
Ans B
33) An organism at equilbrium is said to be __________.
A) At rest
B) Dissipative
C) Organized
D) Dead
E) Dormant
Ans D
34) The following statement is made by which law of thermodynamics?
“At absolute zero the disorder of a perfect crystal approaches zero”.
A)First Law
B) Second Law
C)Third Law
D)A and B
E) All make this statement
Ans C
35) A measure of a system’s internal energy is
A)Enthalpy
B) Entropy
C) Free energy
D)Work
E) Heat
Ans A
36) In living organisms where does the increase in entropy takes place?
A)Cell
B) Surroundings
C) Either A or B
D)Entropy does not change
E) Entropy does not apply to living things
Ans B
37) How many molecules of oxygen are required to completely oxidize one mole of stearic acid
( C17H35COOH)?
A) 18
B) 9
C) 34
D) 45
E) 53
Ans E
38) Given the following H values calculate the H for the complete combustion of stearic acid.
H (kal/mol) Compound
211.4 C17H35COO
0 Oxygen
94 Carbon dioxide
68.4 Water
A) –49 kal
B) –2096.2 kal
C) –2711.8 kal
D) 0 kal
E) 3071.8 kal
Ans C
39) Magnesium ion (Mg++) forms complexes with ATP. What would happen to the stability of ATP if the
magnesium was removed?
A) There would be no change in stability
B) The ATP would be more stable
C) The ATP would be less stable
D) The effect on stability would depend on specific conditions
E) Either A or B is correct
Ans C
40) Choose the molecule with the highest phosphate transfer potential.
A)Phosphoenolpyruvate
B) ATP
C) PPi
D)Glucose1phosphate
E) Carbamoyl phosphate
Ans A
41) Biogeochemical cycles are pathways driven by which of the following?
A)Nuclear
B) Solar
C) Geothermal energy
D)Tectonic movements
E) B and C
Ans E
42) Which of the following moves through a system in a biogeochemical cycle?
A)Chemical compounds
B) Heat
C) Light
D)Energy
E) All of the above
Ans E
43) In classical thermodynamics which of the following is true?
A)All systems are at or near equilibrium
B) All materials are at low concentration
C) The system is far from equilibrium
D)The systems are always open
E) A and B
Ans E
44) A Benard cell is an example of
A)A classical thermodynamic system
B) A system at equilibrium
C)A dissipative system
D)A system at uniform temperature
E) B and C
Ans C
45) The evolution of living organisms is driven by
A)Size of the energy gradient to be dissipated
B) First law of thermodynamics
C) Second law of thermodynamics
D)Attainment of equilibrium
E) A and C
Ans E
46) A process is spontaneous when
A)G0 = 0
B) G0 > 0
C)G0 < 0
D)Energy is absorbed
E) Entropy is negative
Ans C
CHAPTER FIVE
AMINO ACIDS, PEPTIDES, AND PROTEINS
1) Which of the following is a function of proteins?
A) Defense
B) Metabolic regulation
C) Transport
D) Catalysis
Ans E
2) The term protein refers to amino acid polymers with greater than ________amino acids.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 50
D) 70
E) 90
Ans C
3) Which of the following is a nonstandard amino acid?
A) Glycine
B) Cysteine
C) 5Hydroxyproline
D) Valine
E) Alanine
Ans C
4) Which of the following is a heterocyclic amino acid?
A) Alanine
B) Valine
C) Proline
D) Tyrosine
E) Cystine
Ans C
5) Which of the following is not a class of amino acid?
A) Nonpolar and neutral
B) Polar and neutral
C) Acidic
D) Basic
E) Asymmetric
Ans E
6) Which of the following amino acids lacks a center of asymmetry?
A) Alanine
B) Glycine
C) Valine
D) Isoleucine
E) Aspartic acid
Ans B
7) Given the following pK’s what is the principal form of serine at pH 5?
pKa1 = 2.21 pKa2 = 9.15
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Ans E
8) Given the following pKa’s the isoelectric point of serine is ________.
pK1 = 2.21 pK2 = 9.15
A) 2.21
B) 5.68
C) 9.15
D) 6.62
E)11.36
Ans B
9) Consider the following dipeptide. Which letter indicates a peptide bond
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Ans C
10) The amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is referred to as ________structure.
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
E) Peptide
Ans A
11) The overall threedimensional structure of a polypeptide is referred to as _________ structure.
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
E) Peptide
Ans C
12) Invariant amino acids in a protein are presumed:
A) To be unimportant in the structure and function of the protein
B) To be essential to the structure and function of the protein
C) Always to occur at the beginning of the amino acid sequence of an enzyme
D) Always to occur at the end of the amino acid sequence of an enzyme
E) To be part of the prosthetic group.
Ans B
13) pleated sheets are associated with what level of protein structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
E) Superquaternary
Ans B
14) Which of the following amino acids would foster an helix?
A) Glycine
B) Alanine
C) Proline
D) Tyrosine
E) Serine
Ans B
15) The Greek key is associated with which of the following?
A) helix
B) Parallel pleated sheets
C) Antiparallel pleated sheets
D) Disulfide bridges
E) Salt bridges
Ans C
16) Which of the following interactions do not stabilize tertiary structure?
A) Hydrophobic interactions
B) Electrostatic interactions
C) Hydrogen bonds
D) Covalent bonds
E) None of the above
Ans E
17) Detergents denature proteins by disrupting which of the following?
A) Hydrogen bonds
B) Disulfide bridges
D) Salt bridges
Ans C
18) Fibrous proteins typically have large amounts of:
A) Helix
B) Pleated sheets
C) Disulfide bridges
D) Salt bridges
Ans E
19) The identity and arrangement of amino acids on the surface of a globular protein are important because
they may:
A) Interact to form specific binding cavities
B) Stabilize the tertiary structure of the protein
C) Bind regulatory molecules
D) Both A and C are correct
Ans E
20) Which of the following statements regarding cooperative binding is true?
A) Two or more proteins aid the binding of a ligand.
B) The binding of one ligand aids the binding of a second ligand
C) The folding of part of a protein aids in the folding of the remainder of the protein
D) All proteins engage in cooperative binding
E) The binding of a cofactor to a protein aids in the binding of a ligand.
Ans B
21) Which of the following statements is true of the Bohr effect?
A) Oxygen is delivered to cells in proportion to their needs
B) Binding of protons to hemoglobin molecules facilitates the binding of oxygen
C) Metabolic waste products bond to oxyhemoglobin
D) A and B are both true
Ans A
22) A polypeptide has a high pI value. Which of the following amino acids are likely to be present?
A) Glycine
B) Serine
C) Valine
D) Aspartic acid
E) Arginine
Ans E
23) Structural proteins “freeze” large amounts of water. Which of the following interactions is not likely to be
involved in the binding of water?
A) Salt bridges
B) Hydrogen bonding
C) Hydrophilic interactions
D) Disulfide bridges
E) Both C and D are correct.
Ans D
24) Why is the peptide bond stronger than the ester bond?
A) Greater electronegativity of nitrogen
B) Greater electronegativity of oxygen
C) Resonance stabilization of the amide bond
D) Increased basicity of nitrogen
E) Size of the nitrogen atom compared to the oxygen atom
Ans C
25) Which of the following amino acids would be classified as a nonstandard amino acid
A)Tyrosine
B) Lysine
C)Cystine
D)Glycine
E) Arginine
Ans C
26) Given that pK1 = 2.35 and pK2 = 9.69 for alanine. What is its isoelectric point
A)9.69
B) 2.34
C)6.02
D)12.03
E) 7.00
Ans C
27) When not at the terminal of a protein which of the following amino acids cannot contribute to the PI of a
protein?
A)Arginine
B) Lysine
C) Cysteine
D)Tyrosine
E) Alanine
Ans E
28) When part of a polypeptide chain other than the Nterminus, which of the following amino acids can form a
aldimines?
A)Glycine
B) Alanine
C) Proline
D)Histidine
E) Lysine
Ans E
29) Collagen is classified as which of the following types of protein?
A)Enzyme
B) Structural
C) Movement
D)Defense
E) Regulatory
Ans B
30) A prosthetic group is a :
A) Repair enzyme
B) Group other than an amino acid that is part of a protein
C) Group that generates the native form of a protein
D) Disulfide link
E) Group that reduces enzyme activity
Ans B
31) The major component of the dry weight of cells is _______.
A) Carbohydrate
B) Protein
C) Fats
D) Minerals
E) The major component will vary from organism to organism
Ans B
32) The total number of proteins that can be produced from any 10 amino acids is?
A) 1020
B) 2010
C) 100
D) 200
E) 1010
Ans B
33) Schiff bases are also referred to as:
A) Aldimines
B) Amines
C) Carbinolamines
D) Amino acids
Ans A
34) Which of the following amino acids would be found in a turn?
A) Proline
B) Alanine
C) Phenylalanine
D) Lysine
E) Tyrosine
Ans A
35) Which of the following is not a function of IUPs?
A) Signal transduction
B) Transcription
C) Translation
D) Cell proliferation
E) Oxygen transport
Ans E
36) The source of energy for motor proteins in addition to ATP is:
A) NAD+
B) GTP
C) PEP
D) ADP
E) PPi
Ans B
37) Keratin is classified as which of the following types of protein?
A)Enzyme
B) Structural
C) Movement
D)Defense
E) Regulatory
Ans B
38) In which of the following mechanical properties does spider silk exceed all synthetic fibers?
A) Toughness
B) Tensile strength
C) Elasticity
D) Resilience
E) All of the above
Ans E
39) Which of the following is a hydrophobic amino acid?
A) Glycine
B) Serine
C) Lysine
D) Phenylalanine
E) Both C and D are hydrophobic
Ans E
40) A conjugated protein consists of a simple protein combined with a _________.
A) Apoprotein
B) Holoprotein
C) Prosthetic group
D) Answers B and C are correct
Ans C
41) Which of the following amino acids is not one of the twenty standard amino acids?
A)Glycine
B) Phenylalanine
C) Tyrosine
D)Cystine
E) Arginine
Ans D
42) How many standard amino acids are there?
A)5
B) 17
C)20
D)12
E) 32
Ans C
43) How many octapeptides containing only two amino acids are possible?
A)8
B) 148
C) 16
D)256
E) 35
Ans D
44) Amino acid polymers with a molecular weight between several thousand and several million Daltons are
called
A)Dipeptides
B) Polypeptides
C)Proteins
D)Peptides
E) None of the above
Ans C
45) Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
A)Structural materials
B) Catalyst
C) Metabolic regulation
D)Transport
E) All of the above are functions of proteins
Ans E
46) Which of the following is a polar amino acid?
A)Phenylalanine
B) Tyrosine
C) Methionine
D)Tryptophan
E) Proline
Ans B

CHAPTER SEVEN
CARBOHYDRATES
1) To possess optical activity, a compound must be:
A) a carbohydrate.
B) a hexose.
C) asymmetric.
D) colored.
E) Dglucose.
Ans: C
2) Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?
A) erythrose
B) fructose
C) glucose
D) glyceraldehyde
E) ribose
Ans: B
3) The reference compound for naming D and L isomers of sugars is:
A) fructose.
B) glucose.
C) glyceraldehyde.
D) ribose.
E) sucrose.
Ans: C
4) When two carbohydrates are epimers:
A) one is a pyranose, the other a furanose.
B) one is an aldose, the other a ketose.
C) they differ in length by one carbon.
D) they differ only in the configuration around one carbon atom.
E) they rotate planepolarized light in the same direction.
Ans: D

5) Which of the following is an epimeric pair?
A) Dglucose and Dglucosamine
B) Dglucose and Dmannose
C) Dglucose and Lglucose
D) Dlactose and Dsucrose
E) Lmannose and Lfructose
Ans: B
6) Which of following is an anomeric pair?
A) Dglucose and Dfructose
B) Dglucose and Lfructose
C) Dglucose and Lglucose
D) αDglucose and βDglucose
E) αDglucose and βLglucose
Ans: D
7) When the linear form of glucose cyclizes, the product is a(n):
A) anhydride.
B) glycoside.
C) hemiacetal.
D) lactone.
E) oligosaccharide.
Ans: C
8) Which of the following pairs is interconverted in the process of mutarotation?
A) Dglucose and Dfructose
B) Dglucose and Dgalactose
C) Dglucose and Dglucosamine
D) Dglucose and Lglucose
E) αDglucose and βDglucose
Ans: E
9) Which of the following is not a reducing sugar?
A) Fructose
B) Glucose
C) Glyceraldehyde
D) Ribose
E) Sucrose
Ans: E

10) Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?
A) 6phosphogluconate
B) gluconate
C) glucose
D) glucuronate
E) muramic acid
Ans: C
11) DGlucose is called a reducing sugar because it undergoes an oxidationreduction reaction at the anomeric
carbon. One of the products of this reaction is:
A) Dgalactose.
B) Dgluconate.
C) Dglucuronate.
D) Dribose.
E) muramic acid.
Ans: B
12) From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal(β1 → 4)Glc, we know that:
A) C4 of glucose is joined to C1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
B) the compound is a Denantiomer.
C) the galactose residue is at the reducing end.
D) the glucose is in its pyranose form.
E) the glucose residue is the β anomer.
Ans: A
13) Starch and glycogen are both polymers of:
A) fructose.
B) glucose1phosphate.
C) sucrose.
D) αDglucose.
E) βDglucose.
Ans: D
14) Which of the following statements about starch and glycogen is false?
A) Amylose is unbranched; amylopectin and glycogen contain many (α1 → 6) branches.
B) Both are homopolymers of glucose.
C) Both serve primarily as structural elements in cell walls.
D) Both starch and glycogen are stored intracellularly as insoluble granules.
E) Glycogen is more extensively branched than starch.
Ans: C
15) Which of the following is a heteropolysaccharide?
A) Cellulose
B) Chitin
C) Glycogen
D) Hyaluronate
E) Starch
Ans: D
16) The basic structure of a proteoglycan consists of a core protein and a:
A) glycolipid.
B) glycosaminoglycan.
C) lectin.
D) lipopolysaccharide.
E) peptidoglycan.
Ans: B
17) In glycoproteins, the carbohydrate moiety is always attached through the amino acid residues:

A) asparagine, serine, or threonine.
B) aspartate or glutamate.
C) glutamine or arginine.
D) glycine, alanine, or aspartate.
E) tryptophan, aspartate, or cysteine.
Ans: A
18) Which of the following is a dominant feature of the outer membrane of the cell wall of gram negative
bacteria?
A) Amylose
B) Cellulose
C) Glycoproteins
D) Lipopolysaccharides
E) Lipoproteins
Ans: D
19) The biochemical property of lectins that is the basis for most of their biological effects is their ability to
bind to:
A) amphipathic molecules.
B) hydrophobic molecules.
C) specific lipids.
D) specific oligosaccharides.
E) specific peptides.
Ans: D
20) Explain why all mono and disaccharides are soluble in water.
These compounds have many hydroxyl groups, each of which can hydrogen bond with water.
21) This compound is Lglyceraldehyde. Draw a stereochemically correct representation of C1 and C2 of D
glucose. CHO | HO—C—H | CH2OH
In Dglucose, the positions of the —H and —OH on C2 are the reverse of those for C2 of L
glyceraldehyde. (Compare Fig. 71, p. 239, with Fig. 72, p. 240.)
22) Define each in 20 words or less: (a) anomeric carbon;(b) enantiomers;(c) furanose and pyranose; (d)
glycoside;(e) epimers;(f) aldose and ketose.
(a) The anomeric carbon is the carbonyl carbon atom of a sugar, which is involved in ring formation.
(b) Enantiomers are stereoisomers that are nonsuperimposable mirror images of each other.
(c) Furanose is a sugar with a fivemembered ring; pyranose is a sugar with a sixmembered ring.
(d) A glycoside is an acetal formed between a sugar anomeric carbon hemiacetal and an alcohol,
which may be part of a second sugar.
(e) Epimers are stereoisomers differing in configuration at only one asymmetric carbon.
(f) An aldose is a sugar with an aldehyde carbonyl group; a ketose is a sugar with a ketone carbonyl
group.
23) (a) Draw the structure of any aldohexose in the pyranose ring form. (b) Draw the structure of the anomer of
the aldohexose you drew above. (c) How many asymmetric carbons (chiral centers) does each of these
structures have? (d) How many stereoisomers of the aldohexoses you drew are theoretically possible?
(a) Any of the hexoses drawn with a sixmembered ring, as shown in Fig. 77 on p. 243, is correct.
The hydroxyls at C2, C3, and C4 can point either up or down.
(b) For the anomer, the structure should be identical to the first, except that the hydroxyl group at C
1 should point up if it pointed down in your first structure, and vice versa.
(c) The number of chiral centers is 5; all are carbons except C6.
(d) The number of possible stereoisomers for a compound with n chiral centers is 2n; in this case, 25,
or 32 possible isomers.
24) In the following structure: (a) How many of the monosaccharide units are furanoses and how may are
pyranoses? (b) What is the linkage between the two monosaccharide units? (c) Is this a reducing sugar?
Explain.
(a) 2 pyranoses;
(b) β1 → 4;
(c) Yes. There is a free anomeric carbon on one of the monosaccharide units that can undergo
oxidation.
25) (a) Define "reducing sugar." (b) Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose (Glc(α1 →
2)Fru). Explain why sucrose is not a reducing sugar, even though both glucose and fructose are.
(a) A reducing sugar is one with a free carbonyl carbon that can be oxidized by Cu2+ or Fe3+.
(b) The carbonyl carbon is C1 of glucose and C2 of fructose. When the carbonyl carbon is involved
in a glycosidic linkage, it is no longer accessible to oxidizing agents. In sucrose (Glc(α1 → 2)Fru),
both oxidizable carbons are involved in the glycosidic linkage.
26) Match these molecules with their biological roles.
(a) glycogen (j)

(b) starch (k) __ viscosity, lubrication of
(c) trehalose extracellular secretions
(d) chitin __ carbohydrate storage in plants
(e) cellulose __ transport/storage in insects
(f) peptidoglycan __ exoskeleton of insects
(g) hyaluronate (l) __ structural component of bacterial cell wall
(h) proteoglycan __ structural component of plant cell walls
(i)
__ extracellular matrix of animal tissues
__ carbohydrate storage in animal liver
(m)
(n)
(o) Ans: g; b; c; d; f; e; h; a
(p)
(q) 27) The number of structurally different polysaccharides that can be made with 20 different
monosaccharides is far greater than the number of different polypeptides that can be made with 20
different amino acids, if both polymers contain an equal number (say 100) of total residues. Explain
why.
(r) Because virtually all peptides are linear (i.e., are formed with peptide bonds between the α
carboxyl and αamino groups), the variability of peptides is limited by the number of different
subunits. Polysaccharides can be linear or branched, can be α or βlinked, and can be joined 1 → 4,
1 → 3, 1 → 6, etc. The number of different ways to arrange 20 different sugars in a branched
oligosaccharide is therefore much larger than the number of different ways a peptide could be made
with an equal number of residues.
(s)
(t) 28) PolysaccharidesPage: 248 Difficulty: 2Describe one biological advantage of storing glucose units in
branched polymers (glycogen, amylopectin) rather than in linear polymers.
(u) The enzymes that act on these polymers to mobilize glucose for metabolism act only on their
nonreducing ends. With extensive branching, there are more such ends for enzymatic attack than
would be present in the same quantity of glucose stored in a linear polymer. In effect, branched
polymers increase the substrate concentration for these enzymes.
(v)
(w) 29) Explain how it is possible that a polysaccharide molecule, such as glycogen, may have only one
reducing end, and yet have many nonreducing ends.
(x) The molecule is branched, with each branch ending in a nonreducing end. (See Fig. 915c, p.
305.)
(y)
(z) 30) What is the biological advantage to an organism that stores its carbohydrate reserves as starch or
glycogen rather than as an equivalent amount of free glucose?
(aa) The polymers are essentially insoluble and contribute little to the osmolarity of the cell,
thereby avoiding the influx of water that would occur with the glucose in solution. They also make
the uptake of glucose energetically more feasible than it would be with free glucose in the cell.
(ab)
(ac) 31) Draw the structure of the repeating basic unit of (a) amylose and (b) cellulose.
(ad) (a) For the structure of amylose, see Fig. 915a, p. 305. The repeating unit is αDglucose
linked to αDglucose; the glycosidic bond is therefore (α1 → 4).
(ae) (b) Cellulose has the same structure as amylose, except that the repeating units are βD
glucose and the glycosidic bond is (β1 → 4). (See Fig. 917a, p. 307.)
(af)
(ag) 32) Explain in molecular terms why humans cannot use cellulose as a nutrient, but goats and
cattle can.
(ah) The ruminant animals have in their rumens microorganisms that produce the enzyme
cellulase, which splits the (β1 → 4) linkages in cellulose, releasing glucose. Humans do not produce
an enzyme with this activity; the human digestive enzyme αamylase can split only (α1 → 4)
linkages (such as those in glycogen and starch).
(ai) 33) The glycosaminoglycans are negatively charged at neutral pH. What components of these polymers
confer the negative charge?
(aj) Uronic acids such as glucuronic acid, and sulfated hydroxyl groups, such as GalNAc4SO – and
GlcNAc6SO –. (See Fig. 724, p. 253.)
(ak)
(al) 34) Sketch the principal components of a typical proteoglycan, showing their relationships and
connections to one another.
(am) A typical proteoglycan consists of a core protein with covalently attached
glycosaminoglycan polysaccharides, such as chondroitin sulfate and keratin sulfate. The
polysaccharides generally attach to a serine residue in the protein via a trisaccharide (gal–gal–xyl).
(See Fig. 726, p. 256.)
(an)
(ao) 35) Describe the differences between a proteoglycan and a glycoprotein.
(ap) Both are made up of proteins and polysaccharides. In proteoglycans, the carbohydrate
moiety dominates, constituting 95% or more of the mass of the complex. In glycoproteins, the
protein constitutes a larger fraction, generally 50% or more of the total mass.
(aq)
(ar)36) Describe the structure of a proteoglycan aggregate such as is found in the extracellular matrix.
(as) A proteoglycan aggregate is a supramolecular assembly of proteoglycan monomers. Each
monomer consists of a core protein with multiple, covalently linked polysaccharide chains.
Hundreds of these monomers can bind noncovalently to a single extended molecule of hyaluronic
acid to form large structures.
(at)
(au) 37) What are some of the biochemical effects of the oligosaccharide portions of glycoproteins?
(av) Hydrophilic carbohydrates can alter the polarity and solubility of the proteins. Steric and
charge interactions may influence the conformation of regions of the polypeptide and protect it from
proteolysis.
(aw)
(ax) 38) Describe the process by which "old" serum glycoproteins are removed from the mammalian
circulatory system.
(ay) Newly synthesized serum glycoproteins bear oligosaccharide chains that end in sialic
acid. With time, the sialic acid is removed. Glycoproteins that lack the terminal sialic acid are
recognized by asialoglycoprotein receptors in the liver, internalized, and destroyed.
(az)
(ba) 39) What are lectins? What are some biological processes which involve lectins?
(bb) Lectins are proteins that bind to specific oligosaccharides. They interact with specific
cell surface glycoproteins thus mediating cellcell recognition and adhesion. Several microbial
toxins and viral capsid proteins, which interact with cell surface receptors, are lectins.
(bc)
(bd)
(be)
(bf)
(bg)
(bh)
(bi)
(bj)
(bk)
(bl)
(bm)
(bn)
(bo)
(bp)
(bq)
(br)
(bs)
(bt)
(bu)
(bv)
(bw)
(bx)
(by)
(bz)
(ca)
(cb) CHAPTER EIGHT
(cc) CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM
(cd)
(ce)
(cf)1) Both glycogenesis and glycogenolysis are controlled primarily by the interplay between the two
hormones insulin and ________.
(cg)
(ch) A) Glycogen synthetase
(ci) B) Glucagon
(cj) C) Fructose kinase
(ck) D) Glucose hydrolyase
(cl) E) Pentose kinase
(cm) Ans B
(cn)
(co)
(cp) 2) Hexokinase D is found in the _______.
(cq)
(cr) A) Kidney
(cs) B) Liver
(ct) C) Heart
(cu) D) Muscle
(cv) E) Intestine
(cw) Ans B
(cx)
(cy)
(cz) 3) An enzyme family called the _________ catalyzes the phosphorylation of hexoses in the
body.
(da)
(db) A) Hexolysases
(dc) B) Phosphorolysases
(dd) C) Hexokinases
(de) D) Glucokinases
(df) E) Phosphofructokinases
(dg) Ans C
(dh)
(di)
(dj)4) The conversion of glucose1phosphate to UDPglucose has a G0’ near zero. Which of the following
reactions is coupled with the above reaction to drive it to completion?
(dk)
(dl) A) Hydrolysis of PPi
(dm) B) Hydrolysis of ATP
(dn) C) Hydrolysis of ADP
(do) D) Hydrolysis of UDP
(dp) E) Hydrolysis of UTP
(dq) Ans A
(dr)
(ds)
(dt)
(du)
(dv)
(dw)
(dx) 5) Which of the following is required for the conversion of UDPglucose to glycogen?
(dy)
(dz) A) Glycogen synthase
(ea) B) Branching enzyme
(eb) C) Glucose phosphorlyase
(ec) D) Debranching enzyme
(ed) E) Both A and B are correct
(ee) Ans E
(ef)
(eg)
(eh) 6) A glycogen molecule that has been degraded to its branch points is called
(ei)
(ej) A) Dextrin
(ek) B) Glucose
(el) C) Amylose
(em) D) Limit dextrin
(en) E) Both A and B are correct
(eo) Ans D
(ep)
(eq)
(er)7) Regulation of glycolysis involves all of the following except
(es)
(et) A) Insulin
(eu) B) Glucagon
(ev) C) SREBP1c
(ew) D) AMPK
(ex) E) None of the above
(ey) Ans E
(ez)
(fa)
(fb) 8) The binding of insulin to receptors on the surface of muscle cells stimulates which of the
following processes
(fc)
(fd) A) Glycogenolysis
(fe) B) Glycogenesis
(ff) C) Release of ATP
(fg) D) Formation of cyclic AMP
(fh) E) Release of glucagon
(fi) Ans B
(fj)
(fk)
(fl) 9) Under stressful conditions epinephrine is released from the adrenal medulla. The release of
epinephrine has which of the following effects on glucose metabolism?
(fm)
(fn) A) Glycogenolysis is stimulated
(fo) B) Glycogenesis is inhibited
(fp) C) Adenylate cyclase is activated
(fq) D) Both A and B are correct
(fr) E) All of the above are correct
(fs) Ans E
(ft)
(fu)
(fv) 10) Phosphorylase kinase
(fw)
(fx) A) Converts inactive phosphorylase to active phosphorylase
(fy) B) Converts active phosphorylase to inactive phosphorylase
(fz) C) Phosphorylates glycogen synthase
(ga) D) Convets ADP to ATP
(gb) E) Both B and C are correct
(gc) Ans A
(gd)
(ge)
(gf) 11) Cori’s disease is caused by
(gg)
(gh) A) Lack of insulin
(gi) B) Lack of phospholylase b
(gj) C) Lack of glucagons
(gk) D) A deficiency of debranching enzyme
(gl) E) Deficient chromium receptors on the cell surface
(gm) Ans D
(gn)
(go)
(gp) 12) Which of the following activates phosphoprotein phosphatase?
(gq)
(gr) A) Insulin
(gs) B) Epinephrine
(gt) C) Glucagon
(gu) D) ATP
(gv) E) Both A and B are correct
(gw) Ans A
(gx)
(gy)
(gz) 13) Glucose6phosphate is a substrate in which of the following processes?
(ha)
(hb) A) Gluconeogenesis
(hc) B) Glycolysis
(hd) C) Photosynthesis
(he) D) Glycogenolysis
(hf) E) Both A and B are correct
(hg) Ans E
(hh)
(hi)
(hj)14) Fructose2,6bisphosphate
(hk)
(hl) A) Is an indicator of high cellular glucose concentration
(hm) B) Is formed by PFK1
(hn) C) Activates aldolase
(ho) D) Both A and B are correct
(hp) E) All of the above are correct
(hq) Ans A
(hr)
(hs)
(ht)
(hu) 15) The EmbdenMyerhof pathway is also referred to as
(hv)
(hw) A) Gluconeogenesis
(hx) B) Glycogenolysis
(hy) C) Glycolysis
(hz) D) Glycogenesis
(ia) E) Citric acid cycle
(ib)Ans C
(ic)
(id)
(ie) 16) In glycolysis, net ________ moles of ATP are produced per mole of glucose consumed.
(if)
(ig) A) 1
(ih) B) 2
(ii) C) 3
(ij) D) 4
(ik) E) 5
(il) Ans B
(im)
(in)
(io)17) In glycolysis ________ moles of NADH are produced per mole of glucose consumed
(ip)
(iq) A) 1
(ir) B) 2
(is) C) 3
(it) D) 4
(iu) E) 5
(iv)Ans B
(iw)
(ix)
(iy)18) The presence of which of the following molecules indicates that the cell has sufficient energy
reserves?
(iz)
(ja) A) ATP
(jb) B) Citrate
(jc) C) ADP
(jd) D) Fructose1,6biphosphate
(je) E) Both A and B are correct
(jf) Ans E
(jg)
(jh)
(ji) 19) Which of the following enzymes is an oxidoreductase?
(jj)
(jk) A) Aldolase
(jl) B) Triose phosphate isomerase
(jm) C) Glyceraldehyde3phosphate dehdyrogenase
(jn) D) Phosphofructokinase
(jo) E) Phosphoglucoisomerase
(jp)Ans C
(jq)
(jr)
(js)
(jt) 20) The first reaction in the oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway is catalyzed by
(ju)
(jv) A) Ribulose5phosphate dehydrogenase
(jw) B) Transketolase
(jx) C) Glucose6phosphatase
(jy) D) Glucose6phosphate dehydrogenase
(jz) E) Hexokinase
(ka) Ans D
(kb)
(kc)
(kd) 21) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes an irreversible process?
(ke)
(kf) A) Pyruvate kinase
(kg) B) Aldolase
(kh) C) Enolase
(ki) D) Phosphoglycerate mutase
(kj) E) Glyceraldehyde3phosphate dehydrogenase
(kk) Ans A
(kl)
(km)
(kn) 22) In anaerobic organisms pyruvate is used to regenerate cellular ________.
(ko)
(kp) A) NADP+
(kq) B) FADH
(kr) C) FAD
(ks) D) NAD+
(kt) E) ADP
(ku) Ans D
(kv)
(kw)
(kx) 23) Allosteric regulation of which of the following enzymes is important in the regulation of
glycolysis?
(ky)
(kz) A) Hexokinase
(la) B) PFK1
(lb) C) Pyruvate kinase
(lc) D) Both A and C are correct
(ld) E) All of the above are correct
(le) Ans E
(lf)
(lg)
(lh)24) Gluconeogenesis occurs primarily in the
(li)
(lj) A) Brain
(lk) B) Muscle
(ll) C) Liver
(lm) D) Heart
(ln) E) Pancreas
(lo)Ans C
(lp)
(lq)
(lr)
(ls) 25) Which of the following molecules can be used to synthesize glucose via gluconeogenesis?
(lt)
(lu) A) Lactate
(lv) B) Pyruvate
(lw) C) Glycerol
(lx) D) Keto acids
(ly) E) All of the above are correct
(lz) Ans E
(ma)
(mb)
(mc) 26) Which of the following is the most important glucogenic amino acid?
(md)
(me) A) Aspartate
(mf) B) Alanine
(mg) C) Glycine
(mh) D) Glutamate
(mi) E) All are equally important
(mj) Ans B
(mk)
(ml)
(mm) 27) Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by high concentrations of which of the following compounds?
(mn)
(mo) A) Lactate
(mp) B) Glycerol
(mq) C) Amino acid
(mr) D) Both A and B are correct
(ms) E) All of the above are correct
(mt) Ans E
(mu)
(mv)
(mw) 28) Which of the following is an oxidizing agent in fermentation?
(mx)
(my) A) Lactate
(mz) B) Glucose
(na) C) NADH
(nb) D) Pyruvate
(nc) E) ADP
(nd) Ans D
(ne)
(nf)
(ng) 29) In addition to glucose which of the following sugars are important in the human diet?
(nh)
(ni) A) Fructose
(nj) B) Galactose
(nk) C) Mannose
(nl) D) Sucrose
(nm) E) Both A and D are correct
(nn) Ans D
(no)
(np)
(nq) 30) Intermediates in the nonoxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway include all of the
following except
(nr)
(ns) A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(nt) B) Sedoheptulose7phosphate
(nu) C) Fructose6phosphate
(nv) D) Xylulose5phosphate
(nw) E) Erythrose4phosphate
(nx) Ans A
(ny)
(nz)
(oa) 31) The use of a highly exergonic reaction in the beginning of a catabolic pathway is referred to
as
(ob)
(oc) A) Bioactivation
(od) B) Turbo design
(oe) C) Activation
(of) D) Glycolysis
(og) E) Both A and C are correct
(oh) Ans B
(oi)
(oj)
(ok) 32) Aldol cleavage of which of the following sugars will produce one mole each of
dihydroxyacetone and glyceraldehyde?
(ol)
(om) A) Fructose
(on) B) Glucose
(oo) C) Ribose
(op) D) Maltose
(oq) E) Trehalose
(or) Ans A
(os)
(ot)
(ou) 33) Which of the following is a second messenger in glycogenolysis?
(ov)
(ow) A) Glucagon
(ox) B) Insulin
(oy) C) Glucose
(oz) D) ATP
(pa) E) cAMP
(pb) Ans E
(pc)
(pd)
(pe) 34) In animals excess glucose is converted into its storage form ________
(pf)
A)Starch
B) Chitin
C)Glycogen
D)Amylose
E) Amylopectin
(pg) Ans C
(ph)
(pi)35) The major carbohydrate fuel for most organisms is
(pj)
A)Glucose
B) Fructose
C) Ribose
D)Sucrose
E) All of the above
(pk) Ans A
(pl)
(pm)
(pn) 36) Which of the following enzymes is not required in gluconeogenesis?
(po)
(pp) A) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxekinase
(pq) B) Phosphofructokinase
(pr) C) Pyruvate kinase (also in glycolysis)
(ps) D) Fructose1,6bisphosphatase
(pt) E) Pyruvate carboxylase
(pu) Ans B (wrong answer B&C)
(pv)
(pw)
(px) 37) The final product of glycolysis is
(py)
(pz) A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(qa) B) Pyruvate
(qb) C) Ethanol
(qc) D) AcetylCoA
(qd) E) Acetaldehyde
(qe) Ans B
(qf)
(qg)
(qh) 38) The principal products of the pentose phosphate pathway include
(qi)
(qj) A) NADH
(qk) B) NADPH
(ql) C) ATP
(qm) D) Ribose5phosphate
(qn) E) Both B and D are correct
(qo) Ans E
(qp)
(qq)
(qr) 39) Flux of which of the following sugars into the glycolytic pathway is essentially unregulated.
(qs)
(qt) A) Glucose
(qu) B) Fructose
(qv) C) Glucose1phosphate
(qw) D) Both A and C are correct
(qx) E) None of the above are correct
(qy) Ans B
(qz)
(ra)
(rb) 40) Conversion of fructose6phosphate to fructose1,6bisphosphate has two purposes. One is
the commitment of the molecule to glycolysis, the second is
(rc)
(rd) A) Raising the free energy of the system
(re) B) Making possible the formation of a second mole of ATP
(rf) C) Preventing the cleavage products of the next step from diffusing out of the cell
(rg) D) Preventing the reverse reaction
(rh) E) Enolization of the product
(ri) Ans C
(rj)
(rk)
(rl) 41) Which of the following enzymes will catalyze the first committed step in glycolysis
(rm)
A)Phosphofructoisomeras
B) Aldolase
C) Triose phosphate isomerase
D)Phosphofructokinase 1
E) Phosphoglucooisomerase
(rn) Ans D
(ro)
(rp)
(rq) 42) The Crabtree effect in yeast is
(rr)
A)Fermentation of glucose
B) Repression of aerobic metabolism by glucose
C) Repression of glycolysis by oxygen
D)Repression of glucose metabolism by ethyl alcohol
E) Fermentation of ethyl alcohol
(rs) Ans B
(rt)
(ru)
(rv) 43) The Pasteur Effect is
(rw)
A)Fermentation of glucose
B) Repression of aerobic metabolism by glucose
C)Repression of glycolysis by oxygen
D)Repression of glucose metabolism by ethyl alcohol
E) Fermentation of ethyl alcohol
(rx) Ans C
(ry)
(rz)
(sa) 44) A diauxic shift is
(sb)
A)A significant change in gene expression
B) Shifting from aerobic to anerobic respiration
C) Shifting from anerobic to aerobic respiration
D)Change in composition of microbes in a sample
E) Change in the amount of ATP used to ferment glucose
(sc) Ans A
(sd)
(se)
(sf) 45) The phosphorolation of glucose when it enters a cell accomplishes which of the following.
(sg)
A)Makes the glucose more water soluble
B) Prevents back diffusion out of the cell
C) Isomerize the glucose
D)Activates the glucose for further reaction
E) B and D
(sh) Ans E
(si)
(sj)
(sk) 46) Which of the following compounds is an end product of anerobic respiration?
(sl)
A)Carbon dioxide
B) Ethanol
C) Water
D)Glycogen
E) Acetaldehyde
(sm) Ans B
(sn)
(so)
(sp)
(sq)
(sr)
(ss)
(st)
(su)
(sv)
(sw)
(sx)
(sy)
(sz)
(ta)
(tb)
(tc)
(td)
(te)
(tf)
(tg)
(th)
(ti)
(tj)
(tk)
(tl)
(tm)
(tn)
(to)
(tp)
(tq)
(tr)
(ts)
(tt)
(tu) CHAPTER NINE
(tv) AEROBIC METABOLISM I
(tw)
(tx)1) Place the following reaction intermediates of the citric acid cycle in chronological order. i. malate, ii
fumarate, iii succinylCoA, iv citrate, vketoglutarate.
(ty)
(tz) A), i, ii, iv, v, iii
(ua) B) iv, v, iii, i, ii
(ub) C) iv, i, v, iii, ii
(uc) D) v, iii, i, ii, iv
(ud) E) iv, v, iii, ii, i
(ue) Ans E
(uf)
(ug)
(uh) 2) Oxalosuccinate is a transient intermediate formed during which of the following reactions?
(ui)
(uj) A) Citrate  Isocitrate
(uk) B) Isocitrate  ketoglutarate
(ul) C) Pyruvate  Acetyl CoA
(um) D) Malate  Oxaloacetate
(un) E) Succinyl CoA Succinate
(uo) Ans B
(up)
(uq)
(ur) 3) FADH2 is a product of which of the following reactions?
(us)
(ut) A) Pyruvate  Acetyl CoA
(uu) B) Malate  Oxaloacetate
(uv) C) SuccinylCoA  Succinate
(uw) D) Succinate  Fumarate
(ux) E) Succinate  Malate
(uy) Ans D
(uz)
(va)
(vb) 4) NADH is produced in which of the following reactions?
(vc) A) Malate  Fumarate
(vd) B) Succinate  Fumarate
(ve) C) Ketoglutarate  SuccinylCoA
(vf) D) SuccinylCoA  Fumarate
(vg) E) Oxaloacetate  Citrate
(vh) Ans C
(vi)
(vj)
(vk) 5) In the glyoxylate cycle twocarbon molecules are converted to precursors of which of the
following?
(vl)
(vm) A) AcetylCoA
(vn) B) Glucose
(vo) C) Pyruvate
(vp) D) Succinate
(vq) E) Carbon dioxide
(vr) Ans B
(vs)
(vt)
(vu) 6) Which of the following enzymes is unique to the glyoxylate cycle __________?
(vv)
(vw) A) Aconitase
(vx) B) Malate dehydrogenase
(vy) C) Fumarase
(vz) D) Succinate dehydrogenase
(wa) E) Isocitrate lyase
(wb) Ans E
(wc)
(wd)
(we) 7) The regulated enzymes of the citric acid cycle include _________.
(wf)
(wg) A) Malate dehydrogenase
(wh) B) Fumarase
(wi) C) Citrate lyase
(wj) D) Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(wk) E) Succinate thiokinase
(wl) Ans D
(wm)
(wn)
(wo) 8) The enzymes involved in citrate metabolism include all of the following except _______.
(wp)
(wq) A) Citrate synthase
(wr) B) Citrate lyase
(ws) C) Pyruvate carboxylase
(wt) D) Malate synthase
(wu) E) Malic enzyme
(wv) Ans D
(ww)
(wx)
(wy) 9) Redox potential is best defined as
(wz)
(xa) A) The tendency of one species to gain electrons
(xb) B) The tendency of one species to lose electrons
(xc) C) The tendency of a species to gain or lose electrons
(xd) D) The entropy of a reaction expressed as a voltage difference
(xe) E) None of the above is correct
(xf) Ans C
(xg)
(xh)
(xi)10) In order to determine the standard voltage of a reaction
(xj)
(xk) A) The individual reaction reduction potentials must be added
(xl) B) The standard cells must be written as they occur in the reaction and the voltages are
added.
(xm) C) All the reactions must be written as oxidations and the voltages are added.
(xn) D) The voltages of the individual reactions at pH = 7 must be calculated and the resultant
voltages are added.
(xo) E) A standard voltage for a reaction must be determined experimentally.
(xp) Ans B
(xq)
(xr)
(xs) 11) Which of the following reactions is an oxidation reaction?
(xt)
(xu) A) NaOH +HCl  NaCl + H2O
(xv) B) CH3COOH  CH3COO +H+
(xw) C) CH3CHO  CH3CH2OH
(xx) D) CH3CH2OH  CH3CHO
(xy) E) CH2=CH2 + H2O  CH3CH2OH
(xz) Ans D
(ya)
(yb)
(yc) 12) Which of the following reactions has an oxidized product?
(yd)
(ye) A) Carboxylic acid  aldehyde
(yf) B) RSH + RSH  RSSR
(yg) C) Alcohol  Ketone Wrong answer on the answer key here….this is oxidized.
(yh) D) Glutamate  Ketoglutarate
(yi) E) None of the above are correct
(yj)Ans E
(yk)
(yl)
(ym) 13) In any redox reaction, an electron donor is
(yn)
(yo) A) The reducing agent
(yp) B) The oxidizing agent
(yq) C) Reduced as it accepts electrons
(yr) D) All of the above are correct
(ys) E) None of the above are correct
(yt)Ans A
(yu)
(yv)
(yw) 14) In a redox reaction, an electron acceptor is
(yx)
(yy) A) Oxidized as it accepts one or more electrons
(yz) B) The reducing agent
(za) C) Converted to an electron donor with the gain of one or more electons
(zb) D) All of the above are correct
(zc) E) None of the above are correct
(zd) Ans C
(ze)
(zf)
(zg) 15) Each turn of the citric acid cycle produces how many moles of CO2 ?
(zh)
(zi) A) 1
(zj) B) 2
(zk) C) 3
(zl) D) 4
(zm) E) 5
(zn) Ans B
(zo) 16) Acetyl CoA that is consumed by the citric acid cycle is produced from which of the
following biochemical pathways?
(zp)
(zq) A) Glycolysis
(zr) B) Fatty acid oxidation
(zs) C) Purine catabolism
(zt) D) Urea cycle
(zu) E) Both A and B are correct
(zv) Ans E
(zw)
(zx)
(zy) 17) Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent? (The standard reduction potential of
each species is provided in parentheses.)
(zz)
(aaa) A) FADH2 (+0.22V)
(aab) B) H2 (+0.424V)
(aac) C) Cytochrome aFe+2 (0.29V)
(aad) D) Lactate ( + 0.19 V)
(aae) E) H2O (+0.82V)
(aaf) Ans B
(aag)
(aah)
(aai) 18) Which of the following reacts with acetylCoA to form citrate?
(aaj)
(aak) A) Succinate
(aal) B) Oxaloacetate
(aam) C) Ketoglutarate
(aan) D) Fumarate
(aao) E) Malate
(aap) Ans B
(aaq)
(aar)
(aas) 19) The redox reaction in which succinate is converted to fumarate uses FAD rather than NAD+
because
(aat)
(aau) A) FAD is a stronger oxidizing agent than NAD+
(aav) B) NAD+ is a stronger oxidizing agent than FAD
(aaw) C) FAD is required for the oxidation of carboxylic acids
(aax) D) Only FAD can penetrate into mitochondria
(aay) E) NAD is not found in the cytoplasm.
(aaz) Ans A
(aba)
(abb)
(abc) 20) Most of the energy released during the electron transport system is used to drive
(abd) ______ synthesis.
(abe)
A)ATP
B) ADP
C) NADH
D)NADPH
E) Fatty acids
(abf) Ans A
(abg) 21) Which of the following reactions requires GDP
(abh) A) Fumarate  Malate
(abi) B) SuccinylCoA  Succinate
(abj) C) Malate  Oxaloacetate
(abk) D) Citrate  Isocitrate
(abl) E) Ketoglutarate  Succinyl CoA
(abm) Ans B
(abn)
(abo)
(abp) 22) How many oxidations steps are there in the citric acid cycle?
(abq)
(abr) A) 1
(abs) B) 2
(abt) C) 3
(abu) D) 4
(abv) E) 5
(abw) Ans D
(abx)
(aby)
(abz) 23) The product of the first reaction of the citric acid cycle is ________.
(aca)
A)AcetylCoA
B) Oxaloacetate
C) Pyruvate
D)Lactate
E) Citrate
(acb) Ans E
(acc)
(acd)
(ace) 24) Which of the following reactions involves a substrate level phosphorylation?
(acf)
(acg) A) Pyruvate  AcetylCoA
(ach) B) Succinyl CoA  Succinate
(aci) C) Citrate  Isocitrate
(acj) D) Fumarate  Malate
(ack) E) Malate  Oxaloacetate
(acl) Ans B
(acm)
(acn)
(aco) 25) The carbon skeletons of which of the following are direct precursors of amino acids?
(acp)
(acq) A) Malate
(acr) B) Succinate
(acs) C) Ketoglutarate
(act) D) Oxaloacetate
(acu) E) Both C and D are correct
(acv) Ans E
(acw)
(acx)
(acy)
(acz)
(ada) 26) Which of the following is not directly required for the activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase?
(adb)
(adc) A) CoASH
(add) B) Lipoic acid
(ade) C) NAD+
(adf) D) ATP
(adg) E) None of the above are correct
(adh) Ans D
(adi)
(adj)
(adk) 27) Which of the following is a positive effector of isocitrate dehydrogenase?
(adl)
(adm) A) ADP
(adn) B) FAD
(ado) C) NADH
(adp) D) Succinyl–CoA
(adq) E) Both A and C are correct
(adr) Ans A
(ads)
(adt)
(adu) 28) Consider the following reaction:
(adv)
(adw) Pyruvate + NADH + H+  Lactate + NAD+
(adx)
(ady) The half cell reaction ( with their standard reduction potentials ) are
(adz) Pyruvate + 2H+ + 2e  Lactate (0.19V)
(aea) NAD+ + H+ +2e  NADH (0.32V)
(aeb) What is the reduction potential for the overall reaction?
(aec)
(aed) A) + 0.00V
(aee) B) + 0.03 V
(aef) C) + 0.13 V
(aeg) D) +0.22 V
(aeh) E) +0.15 V
(aei) Ans C
(aej)
(aek)
(ael) 29) The overall reaction catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase is which of the following?
(aem)
(aen) A) CH3COCHO + NAD+ + CoASH  CH3CHOSCoA + NADH
(aeo) B) CH3COCOO + FAD +CoASH  CH3CHSCoA + NADH
(aep) C) CH3COCOO + NAD+ + CoASH  CH3COSCoA + NADH
(aeq) D) CH3CH(OH)COO + NADH + CoASH  CH3CH(OH)COSCoA + NAD+
(aer) E) None of the above is correct
(aes) Ans C
(aet)
(aeu)
(aev)
(aew)
(aex)
(aey)
(aez) 30) The citric acid cycle is a component of aerobic respiration. Molecular oxygen
(afa)
(afb) A) Is directly involved in the reactions of the cycle
(afc) B) Is only indirectly involved in the reactions of the cycle
(afd) C) Is an important substrate for the cycle
(afe) D) Both A and C are true
(aff) E) None of the above are true.
(afg) Ans B
(afh)
(afi)
(afj) 31) The main toxic effect of oxygen is due to which of the following?
(afk)
(afl) A) Sulfate formation
(afm) B) ROS
(afn) C) Heat production during oxidation
(afo) D) Protons
(afp) E) Hydroxide ion
(afq) Ans B
(afr)
(afs)
(aft) 32) The primordial reductive branch of the citric acid cycle was a means of producing which of
the following?
(afu)
(afv) A) ATP
(afw) B) NADP+
(afx) C) NADPH
(afy) D) NADH
(afz) E) None of the above are correct
(aga) Ans E
(agb)
(agc)
(agd) 33) The primordial oxidation branch of the citric acid cycle used which of the following as the
ultimate electron acceptor?
(age)
(agf) A) Pyruvate
(agg) B) Carbon dioxide
(agh) C) Oxygen
(agi) D) Sulfur
(agj) E) NAD+
(agk) Ans D
(agl)
(agm)
(agn) 34) The enzyme which links the two branches of the citric acid cycle is which of the following
(ago)
(agp) A) Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(agq) B) Lactate dehydrogenase
(agr) C) Malate dehydrogenase
(ags) D) Fumatate reductase
(agt) E) Fumarase
(agu) Ans A
(agv)
(agw)
(agx) 35) The glyoxylate cycle is a mechanism whereby plants manufacture carbohydrate from
___________.
(agy)
(agz) A) Other carbohydrates
(aha) B) Amino acids
(ahb) C) Fatty acids
(ahc) D) Carbon dioxide
(ahd) E) Phospholipids
(ahe) Ans C
(ahf)
(ahg)
(ahh) 36) In biological systems most energy generating redox reactions involve hydride ion transfer or
hydrogen atom transfer using which of the following?
(ahi)
(ahj) A) NADH
(ahk) B) FADH2
(ahl) C) Pyruvate
(ahm) D) NADPH
(ahn) E) Both A and B are correct
(aho) Ans E
(ahp)
(ahq) 37) Which of the following coenzymes function as an acetyl group carrier?
(ahr)
(ahs) A) Thiamine pyrophosphate
(aht) B) Lipoic Acid
(ahu) C) NADH
(ahv) D) FADH2
(ahw) E) Coenzyme A
(ahx) Ans E
(ahy)
(ahz)
(aia) 38) The first of two molecules of carbon dioxide is released from which of the following
compounds in the citric acid cycle?
(aib)
(aic) A) Isocitrate
(aid) B) Citrate
(aie) C) Ketoglutarate
(aif) D) Succinate
(aig) E) Fumarate
(aih) Ans A
(aii)
(aij)
(aik) 39) The high energy molecule produced in the conversion of succinylCoA to succinate is which
of the following
(ail)
(aim) A) ATP
(ain) B) GTP
(aio) C) AMP
(aip) D) NADH
(aiq) E) Both A and B are correct
(air) Ans E
(ais)
(ait)
(aiu) 40) Which of the following conversions is an anaplerotic reaction of the citric acid cycle?
(aiv)
(aiw) A) Pyruvate to oxaloacetate
(aix) B) Certain amino acids to succinyl CoA
(aiy) C) Glutamate to ketoglutarate
(aiz) D) Aspartate to oxaloacetate
(aja) E) All of the above are correct
(ajb) Ans E
(ajc)
(ajd)
(aje) 41) Oxygen is useful for energy generation because
(ajf)
A)It is soluble in the cell membrane
B) It is abundant
C) It is a powerful reducing agent
D)It is a powerful oxidizing agent
E) A, B and D
(ajg) Ans E
(ajh)
(aji)
(ajj) 42) The most pivotal event in the history of life on earth was
(ajk)
A)The development of DNA
B) The development of RNA
C)Emergence of the water splitting complex in Photosystem II
D)Development of photosynthesis
E) Adaptation to life on land
(ajl) Ans C
(ajm)
(ajn)
(ajo) 43) After the evolution of oxygenic photosynthesis the release of oxygen was not immediately
followed by the accumulation of oxygen in the atmosphere. This was true because
(ajp)
A)It was incorporated into organic molecules
B) It remained dissolved in water
C)It was consumed by oxidizable materials such as iron and ammonia
D)A and C
E) A, B and C
(ajq) Ans C
(ajr)
(ajs)
(ajt) 44) Obligate anaerobes are
(aju)
A)Organisms that possess antioxidant molecules that detoxify ROS
B) Grow only in the absence of oxygen
C) Can use oxygen when it is available
D)Require oxygen to grow
E) Release oxygen
(ajv) Ans B
(ajw)
(ajx) 45) Facultative anaerobes
(ajy)
A)Organisms that possess antioxidant molecules that detoxify ROS
B) Grow only in the absence of oxygen
C)Can use oxygen when it is available
D)Require oxygen to grow
E) Release oxygen
(ajz) Ans C
(aka)
(akb)
(akc) 46) In eukaryotes citrate synthetase rate is controlled primarily by
(akd)
A)Availability of oxaloacetate
B) Allosteric regulators
C) Concentration of maleate
D)The NADH/NAD+ ratio
E) SuccinylCoA availability
(ake) Ans A
(akf)
(akg)
(akh)
(aki)
(akj)
(akk)
(akl)
(akm)
(akn)
(ako)
(akp)
(akq)
(akr)
(aks)
(akt)
(aku)
(akv)
(akw)
(akx)
(aky)
(akz)
(ala)
(alb)
(alc)
(ald)
(ale)
(alf)
(alg)
(alh)
(ali)
(alj)
(alk) CHAPTER TEN
(all) AEROBIC METABOLISM II
(alm)
(aln) 1) Molecules involved in the conversion of oxidized proteins to their functional reduced
suylfhydryl form include all of the following except
(alo)
(alp) A) Thioredoxin
(alq) B) NADPH
(alr) C) Catalase
(als) D) Thioredoxin reductase
(alt) E) None of the above are correct
(alu) Ans C
(alv)
(alw)
(alx) 2) All of the following are components of the electron transport chain except ______.
(aly)
(alz) A) Coenzyme Q
(ama) B) Succinate dehydrogenase
(amb) C) Coenzyme A
(amc) D) Cytochrome c
(amd) E) NADH dehydrogenase
(ame) Ans C
(amf)
(amg)
(amh) 3) The ETC component that transfers electrons directly to oxygen is __________.
(ami)
(amj) A) Cyt c
(amk) B) UQ
(aml) C) Cyt bc1
(amm) D) Cytochrome oxidase
(amn) E) Succinate dehydrogenase
(amo) Ans D
(amp)
(amq)
(amr) 4) During the oxidation of NADH there are several steps in which Eo’ is sufficient for ATP
synthesis. These occur within
(ams)
(amt) A) Complexes I, II and III
(amu) B) Complexes I, III and IV
(amv) C) Complexes II, III, and IV
(amw) D) Complexes III, IV and V
(amx) E) Complexes I, II and IV
(amy) Ans B
(amz)
(ana)
(anb)
(anc)
(and)
(ane)
(anf)
(ang)
(anh) 5) Which of the following molecules inhibits Complex I of the electron transport chain?
(ani)
(anj) A) Azide
(ank) B) Amytal
(anl) C) Cyanide
(anm) D) Arsenic
(ann) E) Carbon monoxide
(ano) Ans B
(anp)
(anq)
(anr) 6) ATP synthesis and mitochondrial electron transport are coupled by
(ans)
(ant) A) Protonmotive force
(anu) B) High energy intermediates
(anv) C) Proton gradient
(anw) D) Both A and C are correct
(anx) E) All of the above are correct
(any) Ans D
(anz)
(aoa)
(aob) 7) Evidence supporting the chemiosmotic theory inculdes all of the following except
(aoc)
(aod) A) Inhibitors of ATP synthesis have been shown to dissipate the proton gradient
(aoe) B) Mitochondria with disrupted membranes cannot synthesize ATP
(aof) C) ATP synthesis is depressed when mitochondrial swelling occurs as a result of osmotic changes
(aog) D) The pH of a weakly buffered suspension of mitochondria rises when O2 added.
(aoh) E) Actively respiring mitrochondria expel protons
(aoi) Ans D
(aoj)
(aok)
(aol) 8) Examples of uncouplers include ________.
(aom)
(aon) A) DNP
(aoo) B) Antimycin
(aop) C) Gramicidin
(aoq) D) Both A and B are correct
(aor) E) Both A and C are correct
(aos) Ans E
(aot)
(aou)
(aov) 9) In the ATP Synthase the Fo factor
(aow)
(aox) A) Has three types of subunits
(aoy) B) Possesses ATPase activity
(aoz) C) In a transmembrane proton channel
(apa) D) Both A and B are correct
(apb) E) Both A and C are correct
(apc) Ans E
(apd)
(ape)
(apf)
(apg)
(aph) 10) The maximum P/O ration of FADH2 is
(api)
(apj) A) 1.5
(apk) B) 1.75
(apl) C) 2.0
(apm) D) 2.5
(apn) E) 3.0
(apo) Ans A
(app)
(apq) 11) The control of aerobic respiration by _________ is referred to as respiratory control.
(apr)
(aps) A) HPO4-2
(apt) B) NADH
(apu) C) FADH2
(apv) D) Citrate
(apw) E) ADP
(apx) Ans E
(apy)
(apz)
(aqa) 12) The first ROS formed during the reduction of oxygen is ________.
(aqb)
(aqc) A) Hydrogen peroxide
(aqd) B) Hydroxyl radical
(aqe) C) Singlet oxygen
(aqf) D) Superoxide radical
(aqg) E) None of the above are correct
(aqh) Ans D
(aqi)
(aqj)
(aqk) 13) The reaction of Fe+2 with H2O2 results in the production of
(aql)
(aqm) A) Hydroxyl radical
(aqn) B) Hydroxide ion
(aqo) C) Superoxide radical
(aqp) D) Both A and B are correct
(aqq) E) Both A and C are correct
(aqr) Ans D
(aqs)
(aqt)
(aqu) 14) ROS are generated during
(aqv)
(aqw) A) Xenobiotic metabolism
(aqx) B) Respiratory burst
(aqy) C) Ionizing radiation
(aqz) D) Both A and B are correct
(ara) E) All of the above are correct
(arb) Ans E
(arc)
(ard)
(are)
(arf)
(arg)
(arh) 15) Glutathione peroxidase
(ari) A) Converts organic peroxides into alcohols
(arj) B) Generates GSH from GSSG
(ark) C) Reduces H2O2 into H2O
(arl) D) Both A and B are correct
(arm) E) Both A and C are correct
(arn) Ans E
(aro)
(arp)
(arq) 16) The NADPH required for the generation of GSH from GSSG in synthesized by the reactions
of
(arr)
(ars) A) The pentose phosphate pathway
(art) B) Glycolysis
(aru) C) The citric acid cycle
(arv) D) Both A and B are correct
(arw) E) Both A and C are correct
(arx) Ans A
(ary)
(arz)
(asa) 17) Glutathione peroxidase requires _____ for full activity
(asb)
(asc) A) Sulfur
(asd) B) Copper
(ase) C) Iron
(asf) D) Selenium
(asg) E) Magnesium
(ash) Ans D
(asi)
(asj)
(ask) 18) Examples of antioxidants include all of the following except _________
(asl)
(asm) A) Ascorbic acid
(asn) B) Carotene
(aso) C) -Tocopherol
(asp) D) Hydroquinone
(asq) E) Gramicidin
(asr) Ans E
(ass)
(ast)
(asu) 19) One of the mechanisms by which vitamin C protects membrane is by
(asv)
(asw) A) Regenerating reduced -tocopherol
(asx) B) Reacting with proline
(asy) C) Reacting with peroxyl radicals
(asz) D) Both A and B are correct
(ata) E) Both A and C are correct
(atb) Ans E
(atc)
(atd)
(ate)
(atf)
(atg) 20) The ultimate electron acceptor of the mitochondrial electron transport system is
(ath)
(ati) A) Coenzyme Q
(atj) B) NADPH
(atk) C) O2
(atl) D) H2O
(atm) E) Both C and D are correct
(atn) Ans C
(ato)
(atp)
(atq) 21) The major sources of NADH that reduce Complex I of the ETC include
(atr)
(ats) A) Fatty acid oxidation
(att) B) CoQ
(atu) C) Pentose phosphate pathway
(atv) D) The citric acid cycle
(atw) E) Both A and D are correct
(atx) Ans E
(aty)
(atz)
(aua) 22) In Complex III, electrons are tranferred from UQH2 to
(aub)
(auc) A) O2
(aud) B) Coenzyme Q
(aue) C) Cytochrome c
(auf) D) FAD
(aug) E) NADH
(auh) Ans C
(aui)
(auj)
(auk) 23) ___________ is a metal cofactor of the cytochromes.
(aul)
(aum) A) Fe
(aun) B) S
(auo) C) Co
(aup) D) Zn
(auq) E) Ca
(aur) Ans A
(aus)
(aut)
(auu) 24) Carbon monoxide inhibits which of the following?
(auv)
(auw) A) NADH dehydrogenase
(aux) B) Ubiquinone
(auy) C) Cytochrome oxidase
(auz) D) Succinate dehydrogenase
(ava) E) None of above are correct
(avb) Ans C
(avc)
(avd)
(ave)
(avf)
(avg) 25) Which of the following is the best reducing agent?
(avh)
(avi) A) H2O
(avj) B) O2
(avk) C) FADH2
(avl) D) FMNH2
(avm) E) NADH
(avn) Ans E
(avo)
(avp)
(avq) 26) The final product of oxidative phosphorylation is ________.
(avr)
(avs) A) Water
(avt) B) ADP
(avu) C) NADPH
(avv) D) ATP
(avw) E) FMNH2
(avx) Ans D
(avy)
(avz)
(awa) 27) _____________ are hydrophobic molecules that dissipate ionic gradients.
(awb)
(awc) A) Uncouplers
(awd) B) Ionophores
(awe) C) Xenobiotics
(awf) D) Radicals
(awg) E) None of the above are correct
(awh) Ans B
(awi)
(awj)
(awk) 28) The return of ______ into the mitochondrion is coupled to the formation of ______.
(awl)
(awm) A) Ca+2/cAMP
(awn) B) Fe+2/CoQ
(awo) C) ADP/NADH
(awp) D) ADP/ CoASH
(awq) E) H+/ATP
(awr) Ans E
(aws)
(awt)
(awu) 29) The energy that is captured by the electron transport system is in the form of
(awv)
(aww) A) NADH
(awx) B) FADH2
(awy) C) ATP
(awz) D) Both A and B are correct
(axa) E) All of the above are correct
(axb) Ans D
(axc)
(axd)
(axe)
(axf) 30) Reducing power generated in the cytoplasm can be transferred into the mitochondrion by
which of the following processes?
(axg)
(axh) A) Glycerol phosphate shuttle
(axi) B) Malate-aspartate shuttle
(axj) C) The phosphate shuttle
(axk) D) A and B are correct
(axl) E) All of the above are correct
(axm) Ans D
(axn)
(axo)
(axp) 31) The cytochromes contain which type of prosthetic group?
(axq)
(axr) A) FADH
(axs) B) Heme
(axt) C) TPP
(axu) D) Zinc++
(axv) E) NAD +
(axw) Ans B
(axx)
(axy)
(axz) 32) The function of complex III is the transfer of electrons from
(aya)
(ayb) A) Coenzyme Q to Cyt c
(ayc) B) NADH to CoQ
(ayd) C) Succinate to UQ
(aye) D) CoQ to NADH
(ayf) E) UQ to succinate
(ayg) Ans A
(ayh)
(ayi)
(ayj) 33) Which of the following complexes contain copper?
(ayk)
(ayl) A) Complex I
(aym) B) Complex II
(ayn) C) Complex III
(ayo) D) Complex IV
(ayp) E) Complex V
(ayq) Ans D
(ayr)
(ays)
(ayt) 34) Which of the following acts as an allosteric inhibitor of complex IV?
(ayu)
(ayv) A) FMN
(ayw) B) NADH
(ayx) C) FADH2
(ayy) D) ATP
(ayz) E) ADP
(aza)
(azb) Ans D
(azc)
(azd)
(aze) 35) Which of the following is not a step in the ATP synthesizing process?
(azf)
(azg) A) ADP + Pi bind to the L site
(azh) B) ATP is synthesized as the L conformation converts to the T conformation
(azi) C) ATP is released as the T conformation converts to the O confirmation
(azj) D) The O conformation binds ADP and Pi
(azk) E) All of the above are correct
(azl) Ans D
(azm)
(azn)
(azo) 36) Nonshivering thermogenesis is regulated by which of the following?
(azp)
(azq) A) Norepinephrine
(azr) B) Thermogenin
(azs) C) UCP2
(azt) D) ATP
(azu) E) GTP
(azv) Ans A
(azw)
(azx)
(azy) 37) The primary function of catalase is to
(azz)
(baa) A) Detoxify peroxides
(bab) B) Reduce the disulfide group
(bac) C) Convert hydrogen peroxide to water
(bad) D) Generate ROS
(bae) E) Oxidize heme
(baf) Ans C
(bag)
(bah)
(bai) 38) How many ATP are generated during the oxidation of one NADH?
(baj)
(bak) A) 1
(bal) B) 2
(bam) C) 2.5
(ban) D) 3
(bao) E) 3.5
(bap) Ans C
(baq)
(bar)
(bas) 39) Which of the following would not be classified as a ROS?
(bat)
(bau) A) Oxygen
(bav) B) CH3O.
(baw) C) H-O-O.
(bax) D) Hydroxide ion
(bay) E) All of the above are ROS
(baz) Ans D
(bba)
(bbb)
(bbc)
(bbd)
(bbe) 40) The principal sources of electrons for the electron transport system is (are) which of the
following
(bbf)
(bbg) A) Glycolysis
(bbh) B) Citric acid cycle
(bbi) C) Fatty acid oxidation
(bbj) D) Both A and B are correct
(bbk) E) All of the above are correct
(bbl) Ans E
(bbm)
(bbn)
(bbo) 41) The statement aerobic organisms use oxygen to generate energy required to maintain
metabolic processes yet they risk damage caused by highly reactive oxygen molecules can be referred to
as:
(bbp) A) Oxidation
(bbq) B) Reactive oxygen species
(bbr) C) Oxygen paradox
(bbs) D) Metabolic damage
(bbt) E) Thermodynamic inconsistency
(bbu) Ans C
(bbv)
(bbw)
(bbx) 42) The ultimate waste products of aerobic cellular metabolism of oxygen include
(bby)
(bbz) A) Pyruvate
(bca) B) Ethyl alcohol
(bcb) C) Carbon dioxide
(bcc) D) Carbon monoxide
(bcd) E) A or B
(bce) Ans C
(bcf)
(bcg)
(bch) 43) According to the solid state model of electron transport electron transfer is efficient because
(bci)
(bcj) A) Electron transfer is the result of random collisions
(bck) B) There are short diffusion distances between components for mobile electron carriers
(bcl) C) UQ is abundant
(bcm) D) Cytochrome c diffuses rapidly
(bcn) E) Electron carriers are mobile
(bco) Ans B
(bcp)
(bcq)
(bcr) 44) How many protons are required to drive the phosphorylation of ADP by the mitochondrial
ATP synthase?
(bcs)
(bct) A) One
(bcu) B) Two
(bcv) C) Three
(bcw) D) Four
(bcx) E) Five
(bcy) Ans C
(bcz)
(bda)
(bdb)
(bdc)
(bdd) 45) A respiratory burst is initiated when NADPH reacts with oxygen to produce which of the
following?
(bde)
(bdf) A) Superoxide anion
(bdg) B) Water
(bdh) C) Hydrogen peroxide
(bdi) D) Hydroxyl radical
(bdj) E) Peroxide radical
(bdk) Ans A
(bdl)
(bdm)
(bdn) 46) Antimycin A inhibits cyt b in complex III. If this inhibitor is added to a suspension of
(bdo) mitochondria which of the following will increase in concentration?
(bdp)
(bdq) A) NADH
(bdr) B) Reduced cytochrome c1
(bds) C) Reduced cytochrome c
(bdt) D) NAD+
(bdu) E) A and D
(bdv) Ans A
(bdw)
(bdx)
(bdy)
(bdz)
(bea)
(beb)
(bec)
(bed)
(bee)
(bef)
(beg)
(beh)
(bei)
(bej)
(bek)
(bel)
(bem)
(ben)
(beo)
(bep)
(beq)
(ber)
(bes)
(bet)
(beu)
(bev)
(bew)
(bex)
(bey)
(bez)
(bfa)
(bfb)
(bfc) CHAPTER ELEVEN
(bfd) LIPIDS AND MEMBRANES
(bfe)
(bff) Extra Question) I made mention of an awe inspiring molecular precursor of cholesterol in class. I
said it's almost there, but just needs some electrons to move around and then it form the steroid nuclease.
The name of that molecule is....
(bfg) A) Cholyl-CoA
(bfh) B) Lanosterol
(bfi) C) Geranylpyrophosphate
(bfj) D) Squalene
(bfk) E) Farnesylphyrophosphate
(bfl) Ans D
(bfm)
(bfn)
(bfo) 1) Fatty acid groups are referred to as ________ groups.
(bfp)
(bfq) A) Acetyl
(bfr) B) Acyl
(bfs) C) Prenyl
(bft) D) Isoprenoid
(bfu) E) Isopentenyl
(bfv) Ans B
(bfw)
(bfx)
(bfy) 2) The double bonds in naturally occurring fatty acids are usually _______ isomers.
(bfz)
(bga) A) Cis
(bgb) B) Trans
(bgc) C) Both cis and trans
(bgd) D) Essential
(bge) E) Nonessential
(bgf) Ans A
(bgg)
(bgh)
(bgi) 3) The essential fatty acids are
(bgj)
(bgk) A) Arachidonic acid
(bgl) B) Linoleic acid
(bgm) C) Linolenic acid
(bgn) D) Both A and B are correct
(bgo) E) Both B and C are correct
(bgp) Ans E
(bgq)
(bgr)
(bgs) 4) Fatty acids react with alcohols to form _____.
(bgt) A) Amides
(bgu) B) Ethers
(bgv) C) Anhydrides
(bgw) D) Epoxides
(bgx) E) Esters
(bgy) Ans E
(bgz)
(bha)
(bhb) 5) Prostaglandins are involved in _________.
(bhc)
(bhd) A) Ovulation
(bhe) B) Inflammation
(bhf) C) Digestion
(bhg) D) Both A and B are correct
(bhh) E) All of the above are correct
(bhi) Ans D
(bhj)
(bhk)
(bhl) 6) The functions of fat include
(bhm)
(bhn) A) Insulation
(bho) B) Energy storage
(bhp) C) Waterrepellent properties
(bhq) D) Both A and B are correct
(bhr) E) All of the above are correct
(bhs) Ans E
(bht)
(bhu)
(bhv) 7) Waxes
(bhw)
(bhx) A) Are complex mixtures of nonpolar lipids
(bhy) B) Are esters formed from longchain fatty acids and longchain alcohols
(bhz) C) Contain hydrocarbons, sterols, and alcohols
(bia) D) Both A and B are correct
(bib) E) Both A and C are correct
(bic) Ans E
(bid)
(bie)
(bif) 8) Phospholipids are
(big)
(bih) A) Structural components of membranes
(bii) B) Surface active agents
(bij) C) Rich energy sources
(bik) D) Both A and B are correct
(bil) E) All of the above are correct
(bim) Ans D
(bin)
(bio)
(bip) 9) Phosphatidylcholine is sometimes referred to as ______.
(biq)
(bir) A) PIP2
(bis) B) Cephalin
(bit) C) Ceramide
(biu) D) Cardiolipin
(biv) E) None of the above are correct
(biw) Ans E
(bix) 10) The myelin sheath
(biy)
(biz) A) Surrounds nerve cell axons
(bja) B) Contains large amounts of cardiolipin
(bjb) C) Facilitates nerve impulse transmission
(bjc) D) Both A and B are correct
(bjd) E) Both A and C are correct
(bje) Ans E
(bjf)
(bjg)
(bjh) 11) All of the following are glycolipids except _________.
(bji)
(bjj) A) Sulfatides
(bjk) B) Cerebrosides
(bjl) C) Gangliosides
(bjm) D) Both A and B are correct
(bjn) E) None of the above are correct
(bjo) Ans E
(bjp)
(bjq)
(bjr) 12) The role of very low density lipoproteins is
(bjs)
(bjt) A) Scavenging the cholesterol from cell membranes
(bju) B) Transporting of lipids from liver to tissues
(bjv) C) Transporting of cholesterol esters to the liver
(bjw) D) Both A and B are correct
(bjx) E) All of the above are correct
(bjy) Ans B
(bjz)
(bka)
(bkb) 13) Which of the following statements concerning carotenoids is not true?
(bkc)
(bkd) A) Carotenoids are the only examples of the monoterpenes
(bke) B) The carotenes are hydrocarbon members of the carotenoids
(bkf) C) Xanthophylls are oxygenated derivatives of the carotenes
(bkg) D) Carotenoids are orangecolored pigments
(bkh) E) None of the above are true
(bki) Ans A
(bkj)
(bkk)
(bkl) 14) Which of the following molecules is not a lipid?
(bkm)
(bkn) A) Fatty acids
(bko) B) Steroids
(bkp) C) Isoprenoids
(bkq) D) Waxes
(bkr) E) All of the above are lipids
(bks) Ans E
(bkt)
(bku)
(bkv)
(bkw) 15) The basic structure of biological membranes is a consequence of the physical properties of
_______.
(bkx)
(bky) A) Proteins
(bkz) B) Phospholipids
(bla) C) Cholesterol
(blb) D) Water
(blc) E) None of the above are correct
(bld) Ans B
(ble)
(blf)
(blg) 16) A membrane’s fluidity is largely determined by the percentage of
(blh)
(bli) A) Phosphatidyl choline
(blj) B) Phosphatidylethanolamine
(blk) C) Fatty acids
(bll) D) Cardiolipin
(blm) E) Unsaturated fatty acids
(bln) Ans E
(blo)
(blp)
(blq) 17) In the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure
(blr)
(bls) A) Proteins form an inner layer between two layers of lipid
(blt) B) Proteins coat an inner layer of lipids
(blu) C) Proteins float in a lipid bilayer
(blv) D) Proteins are covalently bonded to the lipid bilayer
(blw) E) All of the above are true
(blx) Ans C
(bly)
(blz)
(bma) 18) Which of the following statements concerning the anion channel protein is not true?
(bmb)
(bmc) A) It plays an important role in carbon dioxide transport in blood
(bmd) B) It facilitates the chloride shift
(bme) C) Bicarbonate and chloride exchange occurs through the anion channel protein
(bmf) D) The Nterminal methionine residue of the anion channel protein is prenylated
(bmg) E) All of the above statements are true.
(bmh) Ans D
(bmi)
(bmj)
(bmk) 19) Energy requiring transport mechanisms include
(bml)
(bmm) A) Primary active transport
(bmn) B) Diffusion
(bmo) C) Facilitated diffusion
(bmp) D) Both A and B are correct
(bmq) E) Both A and C are correct
(bmr) Ans A
(bms)
(bmt)
(bmu)
(bmv) 20) In simple diffusion a solute
(bmw)
(bmx) A) Is propelled by random molecular motion
(bmy) B) Moves up its concentration gradient
(bmz) C) Moves across a membrane because of an input of free energy.
(bna) D) Both A and B are correct
(bnb) E) All of the above are correct
(bnc) Ans A
(bnd)
(bne)
(bnf) 21) Which of the following statements is not true?
(bng)
(bnh) A) Membrane potential is an electrical gradient across a membrane.
(bni) B) A decrease in membrane potential is referred to as membrane depoalarization.
(bnj) C) The term repolarization is defined as the reestablishment of the original membrane potential.
(bnk) D) The diffusion of potassium ions out of a nerve cell make the inside of the membrane
negative.
(bnl) E) The sodium channel in muscle and nerve cells is a voltagegated channel.
(bnm) Ans D
(bnn)
(bno)
(bnp) 22) In muscle cells, local depolarization caused by acetylcholine binding leads to the opening of
the voltage gated _____channels.
(bnq)
(bnr) A) Chloride
(bns) B) Potassium
(bnt) C) Proton
(bnu) D) Sodium
(bnv) E) Glucose permease
(bnw) Ans D
(bnx)
(bny)
(bnz) 23) The function of glucose permease is an example of
(boa)
(bob) A) Primary active transport
(boc) B) Secondary active trasnport
(bod) C) Facilitated diffusion
(boe) D) Simple diffusion
(bof) E) None of the above are true
(bog) Ans B
(boh)
(boi)
(boj) 24) 6 Fatty acids
(bok)
(bol) A) Have a double bond six carbon atoms from the carbonyl end of the chain
(bom) B) Have a double bond six carbon atoms from the methyl end of the chain
(bon) C) Have six double bonds in the molecule
(boo) D) Have three more double bonds than 3 fatty acids
(bop) E) Contain six trans double bonds in the molecule
(boq) Ans B
(bor)
(bos)
(bot) 25) Membrane receptors are transmembrane molecules or molecular complexes that
(bou)
(bov) A) Monitor and respond to changes in the cell’s environment.
(bow) B) Bind to hormones or neurotransmitters
(box) C) Are involved in embryonic and fetal development
(boy) D) Initiate an intracellular response when they bind an appropriate molecule
(boz) E) All of the above are correct
(bpa) Ans E
(bpb)
(bpc)
(bpd) 26) Patients with familial hypercholesterolemia
(bpe)
(bpf) A) Possess depressed levels of plasma cholesterol
(bpg) B) Have missing or defective LDL receptors
(bph) C) Are homozygous or heterozygous for a nonfunctional LDL receptor gene
(bpi) D) Have very high levels of serum cholesterol
(bpj) E) B, C and D are correct
(bpk) Ans E
(bpl)
(bpm)
(bpn) 27) Indicate which of the following compounds is a endocannabinoid.
(bpo)
(bpp) A) Oleic acid
(bpq) B) Arachidonic acid
(bpr) C) Anandamine
(bps) D) Prostaglandin
(bpt) E) 3 Fatty acids
(bpu) Ans C
(bpv)
(bpw)
(bpx) 28) Low fat diets deficient in essential fatty acids are characterized by which of the following?
(bpy)
(bpz) A) Poor wound healing
(bqa) B) Alopecia
(bqb) C) Dental caries
(bqc) D Ketone bodies
(bqd) E) Both A and B are correct
(bqe) Ans E
(bqf)
(bqg)
(bqh) 29) Which of the following structural features is not characteristic of TXA2 ?
(bqi)
(bqj) A) An ether ring
(bqk) B) One OH group
(bql) C) Two double bonds
(bqm) D) One double bond
(bqn) E) Is derived from arachidonic acid
(bqo) Ans D
(bqp)
(bqq)
(bqr)
(bqs) 30) Neutral fats belong to which of the following?
(bqt)
(bqu) A) Phospholipids
(bqv) B) Glycolipids
(bqw) C) Prostaglandins
(bqx) D) Triacylglycerols
(bqy) E) Free fatty acids
(bqz) Ans D
(bra)
(brb)
31) In addition to the prostaglandins and leukotrienes the autocrine regulators include:
(brc)
A)Arachidonic acid
B) Linoleic acid
C)Thromboxanes
D) Steroids
(brd) Ans C
(bre)
(brf)
32) Choose the lipid class that acts as surfactants.
(brg)
A)Triacylglycerols
B) Fatty acids
C) Waxes
D)Phospholipids
(brh) Ans D
(bri)
(brj)
33) Membrane proteins are linked to anchor molecules through a ___________ link
(brk)
A)Ether
B) Ester
C)Amide
D)Amino
E) Plasma
(brl) Ans C
(brm)
(brn)
34) Glycolipids differ from sphingolipids in that they contain no _________.
(bro)
A)Carbohydrate
B) Phosphate
C) Fatty acid
D)Choline
(brp) Ans B
(brq)
(brr)
(brs)
35) Which of the following is not likely to be a naturally occurring fatty acid
(brt)
A) C13H27COOH
B) C14H29COOH
C) C15H31COOH
D) C17H35COOH
E) C19H39COOH
(bru) Ans B
(brv)
(brw)
36) How many isoprene units does a diterpene contain?
(brx)
A)1
B) 2
C) 3
D)4
E) 5
(bry) Ans D
(brz)
(bsa)
37) The function of dolichols is to
(bsb)
A)Transport sugars in glycoprotein synthesis
B) Bind carbohydrate on the cell surface of bacteria
C) Bind to oxygenated carotenes
D)Serve as precursors of carotenoids
E) They are degradation products of steroids
(bsc) Ans A
(bsd)
(bse)
38) Plasma lipoproteins transport _______ through the blood from one organ to another.
(bsf)
A)Triacylglycerols
B) Phospholipids
C) Cholesteryl esters
D)Both A and C are correct
(bsg) Ans E
(bsh)
(bsi)
39) _________ are the principal transporters of cholesteryl esters to tissues.
(bsj)
A)Chylomicrons
B) Very low density lipoprotein
C) Intermediate density lipoprotein
D)Low density lipoprotein
(bsk) Ans D
(bsl)
(bsm)
(bsn)
40) Individuals with cystic fibrosis have a defective _______ ion channel in their epithelial membrane
(bso)
A)Water
B) Chloride
C) Potassium
D)Protein
E) Sodium
(bsp) Ans B
(bsq)
(bsr)
41) A consequence of replacing dietary fat content with sugars is
(bss)
A)No effect on body weight
B) An increase in body weight
C) A small loss of body weight
D)A large decrease in body weight
E) An initial loss of weight followed by a large increase in body weight
(bst) Ans B
(bsu)
(bsv)
42) Which of the following is not a consequence of a low fat diet?
(bsw)
A)Low levels of fat soluble vitamins
B) Low levels of essential fatty acids
C) Brittle hair
D)Poor would healing
E) Low blood pressure
(bsx) Ans E
(bsy)
(bsz)
(bta) 43) Phospholipase B hydrolyzes ______ ester bonds in phospholipids
(btb)
A)C1
B) C2
C) C3
D)Both C1 and C2
E) All of the above
(btc) Ans D
(btd)
(bte)
(btf) 44) Which of the following is not a function of phospholipases?
(btg)
A)Membrane remodeling
B) Signal transduction
C)Energy storage
D)Digestion
E) Toxic Phospholipases
(bth) Ans C
(bti)
(btj)
(btk)
(btl) 45) Membranes are rigid when they contain
(btm)
A)Large amounts of cholesterol
B) Large amounts of unsaturated fatty acids
C)Large amounts of saturated fatty acids
D)Large amounts of water
E) A and B
(btn) Ans C
(bto)
(btp)
(btq) 46) Flippase transfers _________ from the outer to inner membrane leaflet
(btr)
A)Phospholipids
B) Cholesterol
C) Triacylglycerols
D)Glycolipids
E) Water
(bts) Ans A
(btt)
(btu)
(btv)
(btw)
(btx)
(bty)
(btz)
(bua)
(bub)
(buc)
(bud)
(bue)
(buf)
(bug)
(buh)
(bui)
(buj)
(buk)
(bul)
(bum)
(bun)
(buo)
(bup)
(buq)
(bur)
(bus)
(but)
(buu)
(buv)
(buw)
(bux)
(buy)
(buz)
(bva) CHAPTER TWELVE
(bvb) LIPID METABOLISM
(bvc)
(bvd) 1) How many acetylCoA’s are required to synthesize one molecule of isopentenyl
pyrophosphate? 3
(bve)
(bvf)
(bvg) 2) ___________ is used to transport fatty acids into the mitochondria.
(bvh) A) Phytate
(bvi) B) Creatine
(bvj) C) Carnitine
(bvk) D) Acyl carrier protein
(bvl) E) Carrone
(bvm)
(bvn)
(bvo) 3) The boxidation of fatty acids requires_________.
(bvp) A) coenzyme A
(bvq) B) FAD
(bvr) C) NAD+
(bvs) D) Both A and C are correct
(bvt) E) All of the above
(bvu)
(bvv) The betaoxidation of fatty acids require two redox reactions, one hydration, one cleavage
reaction. ALL OF THE ABOVE
(bvw)
(bvx)
(bvy) 4) PropionylCoA, a product of the oxidation of oddchain fatty acids, is converted to succinyl
CoA.
(bvz)
(bwa)
(bwb)
5) Ruminant animals (cattle and sheep) derive a substantial amount of energy from the
oxidation of oddchain fatty acids.
(bwc)
(bwd)
(bwe) 6) The carbon atoms of cholesterol are derived from acetyl CoA.
(bwf)
(bwg)
(bwh) 7) The following reaction requires the presence of betahydroxyacylCoA dehydrogenase OR
(bwi) NAD+
(bwj)
(bwk) The following reaction requires the presence of _________.
(bwl) A) carnitine
(bwm) B) coASH
(bwn) C) NAD+
(bwo) D) FAD
(bwp) E) H2O
(bwq)
(bwr)
(bws)
(bwt)
(bwu)
(bwv)
(bww) 8) In animals the function of peroxisomal boxidation appears to be
(bwx) A) energy generation
(bwy) B) gluconeogenesis
(bwz) C) synthesis of very long fatty acids
(bxa) D) degradation of branch chain fatty acids
(bxb) E) shortening of very long fatty acid chains
(bxc)
(bxd)
(bxe) 9) The acetylCoA derived from glyoxysomal betaoxidation is converted to carbohydrate via A
AND B
(bxf)
(bxg) The acetylCoA derived from glyoxysomal boxidation is converted to carbohydrate via
(bxh) A) the glyoxylate cycle
(bxi) B) the citric acid cycle
(bxj) C) gluconeogenesis
(bxk) D) both A and B are correct
(bxl) E) both A and C are correct
(bxm)
(bxn)
(bxo)
10) Refsum’s disease results from a buildup of phytanic acid in nerve tissue.
(bxp)
(bxq)
(bxr) 11) Which of the following is not one of the ketone bodies?
(bxs) A) Acetoacetate
(bxt) B) betaHydroxybutyrate
(bxu) C) betaMethylglutarate
(bxv) D) Acetone
(bxw) E) None of the above
(bxx)
(bxy)
(bxz) 12) Most eicosanoids are derived from arachidonic acid.
(bya)
(byb)
(byc) .
13) Glycerol from the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols is transported by the blood to the liver
(byd)
(bye)
(byf) 14) The intermediates in fatty acid synthesis are linked through a ________linkage to ACP.
(byg) A) Acetal
(byh) B) Ether
(byi) C) Thioester
(byj) D) Amide
(byk) E) Ester
(byl)
(bym)
(byn) 15) Saturated fatty acids containing up to 16 carbon atoms are assembled in ________.
(byo) A) mitochondria
(byp) B) rough ER
(byq) C) smooth ER
(byr) D) peroxisomes
(bys) E) cytoplasm
(byt)
(byu)
(byv) 16) Fatty acid synthesis begins with the carboxylation of acetyl CoA to form
(byw) ________.
(byx) A) AcetoacetylCoA
(byy) B) ButyrylCoA
(byz) C) PropionylCoA
(bza) D) MalonylCoA
(bzb) E) None of the above.
(bzc)
(bzd) 17) All of the following are enzymatic activities found in fatty acid synthase except
(bze) The answer will be (Liboxygenase)
(bzf) For this answer, make sure to exclude the following because they’re true:
 Transfer of acetyl group of acetylCoA and malonyl group of malonylCoA to ACP
 Reactions are catalyzed by malonyl/acetyl transferase (MAT)
 Acetyl group is transferred from acetylCoA to a certainly side chain of betaketoacyl synthase (KS)
 KS catalyze reduction of acetoacetylACP to form betahydroxybutyrlACP
 Mat ks kr dh er ke
(bzg)
(bzh)
(bzi) 18) Desaturation of fatty acids involves all the following except none of the above.
(bzj) Include:
 AcylCoA molecules desaturated in ER membrane in presence of NADH and O2
 Cytochrome b5 reductase, cytochrome b5, and oxygen dependent desaturates function together as an
electron transport system and form double bonds in long chain fatty acids
 Lipoprotein and cytochrome b5 anchor proteins into ER membrane
 Longchain polyunsaturated acids are produced
 CYTOCHROME B5 AND DESATURARES
(bzk)
(bzl)
(bzm) 19) Which of the following types of fatty acid oxidation produces a dicarboxylic acid? Alpha
oxidation
(bzn)
(bzo)
(bzp) 20) The conversion of acetylCoA to malonylCoA is inhibited by ________.
(bzq) A) glucagon
(bzr) B) epinephrine
(bzs) C) palmitoylCoA
(bzt) D) All of the above are correct
(bzu) E) none of the above are correct
(bzv)
(bzw)
(bzx) 21) The conversion of acylCoA to acylcarnitine is inhibited by __________.
(bzy) A) MalonylCoA
(bzz) B) Citrate
(caa) C) AcetylCoA
(cab) D) Insulin
(cac) E) A and B
(cad)
(cae)
(caf) 22) In conjugation reactions a molecule’s solubility is increased by converting it into a
derivative that contains a watersoluble group .
(cag)
(cah) 23) Depending on an animal’s metabolic needs, fatty acids may be converted to triacylglycerols,
energy, or membrane synthesis.
(cai)
(caj)
(cak)
24) Membrane remodeling is when the fatty acid composition of the SER membrane changes
with unsaturated fatty acids replacing the original saturated fatty acids. This is accomplished by
phospholipases and acyltransferases, which allows cells to adjust the fluidity of their membranes .
(cal)
(cam)
(can) Extra Question) Membrane remodeling
(cao) A) Requires phospholipases (cap)
(caq) B) Requires acyl transferases (car)
(cas) C) Occurs only when cells are under
(cat)
stress
(cau) D) Both A and B are correct (cav)
(caw) E) All of the above are correct (cax)
(cay)
(caz)
(cba) 25) The conversion of phosphatidylethanolamine to phosphatidylcholine requires ______
(cbb) A) SAM
(cbc) B) Serine
(cbd) C) Base exchange enzyme
(cbe) D) Acyl carrier protein
(cbf) E) SAH
(cbg)
(cbh)
(cbi)
26) The sulfatides are synthesized when galactocerebrosides (galactocerebriose?) reacts with
3phosphoadenosine5’phosphosulfate.
(cbj)
(cbk)
(cbl) 27) __________ is the ratelimiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis.
(cbm) A) HMGCoA reductase phosphatase
(cbn) B) HMGCoA reductase kinase
(cbo) C) Mevalonate kinase
(cbp) D) Phosphomevalonate kinase
(cbq) E) None of the above is correct
(cbr)
(cbs)
(cbt) 28) The conversion of squalene to cholesterol requires ________.
(cbu) A) O2
(cbv) B) Isopentenyl pyrophosphate
(cbw) C) NADPH
(cbx) D) A and B
(cby) E) A and C
(cbz)
(cca)
(ccb) 29) Cholesterol is a precursor of _________.
(ccc) A) Testosterone.
(ccd) B) Estrogen.
(cce) C) Cortisol.
(ccf) D) Aldosterone.
(ccg) E) All of the above.
(cch) 30) Most bile acids are conjugated with glycine/taurine (H3 N +CH2CH2SO3 ).
(cci)
(ccj)
(cck) 31) Which of the following tissues cannot use fatty acids as a fuel?
(ccl) A) brain
(ccm) B) muscle
(ccn) C) heart
(cco) D) liver
(ccp) E) all tissues use fatty acids
(ccq)
(ccr)
(ccs) 32) Lipolysis is used to
(cct) A) Degrade triacylglycerols
(ccu) B) Prepare triacylglycerols for excretion
(ccv) C) Remove lipids from membranes
(ccw) D) Cleave fatty acids into 2 carbon units
(ccx) E) Convert fatty acids to glucose
(ccy)
(ccz)
(cda) 33) Oxidation of the carbon farthest from the carbonyl group of a fatty acid is called omega
oxidation .
(cdb)
(cdc)
(cdd) 34) In the process of thiolytic cleavage the following occurs:
1. An acetylCoA molecule is released
2. The other product, acylCoA, contains two fewer C atoms
(cde)
(cdf)
(cdg) 35) How many FADH2 molecules would be produced in the oxidation of palmitic acid? 7
(cdh)
(cdi)
(cdj) 36) The rate limiting step in fatty acid synthesis is
(cdk) A) condensation of acetylCoA and malonylCoA.
(cdl) B) formation of acetylCoA from acetate.
(cdm) C) formation of malonylCoA from malonate and coenzyme A.
(cdn) D) the reaction catalyzed by acetylCoA carboxylase.
(cdo) E) the reduction of the acetoacetyl group to a βhydroxybutyryl group.
(cdp)
(cdq)
(cdr) 37) Which of the following lipids have signaling functions? Steroids
(cds)
(cdt)
(cdu) 38) What form of oxidation is characteristic of branched chain fatty acids? Alphaoxidation
(cdv)
(cdw)
(cdx) 39) The metabolism of fatty acids is regulated in the short term by allosteric modulators,
covalent modification and hormones.
(cdy)
(cdz)
(cea)
(ceb)
(cec)
(ced) 40) The most important mechanism for degrading and eliminating cholesterol is the synthesis of
(cee) A) fatty acids
(cef) B) bile acids
(ceg) C) squalene
(ceh) D) taurine
(cei) E) isoprene
(cej)
(cek)
(cel) 41) The absorption of triglycerides and other lipid nutrients and their distribution to body tissues
is referred to as the exogenous pathway.
(cem)
(cen)
(ceo) 42) The pathway in which lipoproteins are transported from the liver to cells is referred to
endogenous pathway.
(cep)
(ceq)
(cer) 43) Which of the following is not a function of lipids?
(ces) Functions include:
1. Highly efficient and compact energy storage molecules
2. Essential components of biological membranes (phospholipids, cholesterol, sphingolipids)
3. Diverse membraneassociated molecules that have signaling or protective functions
(cet)
(ceu)
(cev) 44. The triacylglycerol cycle is a mechanism that regulates the level of fatty acids that are
available to the body for energy generation and synthesis of molecules such as phospholipids .
(cew)
(cex)
(cey) 45. The principal means of producing glycerol in the body is glyceroneogensis.
(cez)
(cfa)
(cfb) 46. The recycling rate of triacylglycerols to fatty acids is inhibited by insulin.
(cfc)
(cfd)
(cfe)
(cff)
(cfg)
(cfh)
(cfi)
(cfj)
(cfk)
(cfl)
(cfm)
(cfn)
(cfo)
(cfp)
(cfq)
(cfr)
(cfs)
(cft)
(cfu)
(cfv) CHAPTER FOURTEEN
(cfw) NITROGEN METABOLISM I: SYNTHESIS
(cfx)
(cfy) 1) The glutamate family of amino acids includes all of the following except _____.
(cfz) a. Glutamine
(cga) b. Arginine
(cgb) c. Lysine
(cgc) d. Proline
(cgd) e. None of the above are correct.
(cge)
(cgf)
(cgg) 2) Which of the following is an example of an excitatory neurotransmitter?
(cgh) a. serotonine
(cgi) b. Glycine
(cgj) c. Glutamine
(cgk) d. Glutamate
(cgl) e. none of the above
(cgm)
(cgn)
(cgo) 3) All of the following are referred to collectively as the branched chain amino acids except
_________.
(cgp) a. Valine
(cgq) b. Glycine
(cgr) c. Leucine
(cgs) d.Isoleucine
(cgt) e. None of the above are correct
(cgu)
(cgv)
(cgw) 4) Which of the following is an example of an inhibitory neurotransmitter?
(cgx) a. Glycine
(cgy) b. gammaAminobutyrate
(cgz) c. Glutamate
(cha) d. Both A and B are correct
(chb) e. All of the above are correct.
(chc)
(chd)
(che) 5) Glycine is used as a precursor molecule in the synthesis of all of the following except
_______.
(chf) a. glutathione
(chg) b. heme
(chh) c. purine bases
(chi) d. chlorophyll
(chj) e. carnitine
(chk)
(chl)
(chm) 6) In plants fixed nitrogen is assimilated into the amide group of glutamine.
(chn)
(cho)
(chp) 7) aKetoisovalerate is an intermediate formed during the synthesis of valine and leucine.
(chq)
(chr)
(chs)
(cht) 8) The group of molecules called the catecholamines include all of the following except
_________.
(chu) a. histamine
(chv) b.epinephrine
(chw) c.dopamine
(chx) d. norepinephrine
(chy) e. both A and C are correct
(chz)
(cia)
(cib) 9) Tryptophan is a precursor in the synthesis of NAD, NAD+ and serotonin.
(cic)
(cid)
(cie) 10) Chorismate is a precursor in the synthesis of all of the following tocopherols, qbiquinones,
plastoquinones.
(cif)
(cig)
(cih) 11) Chorismate is a precursor in the synthesis of all of the following except _______.
(cii) A.Phenylalanine (cij)
(cik) B.Tryptophan (cil)
(cim) C.Ubiquinone (cin)
(cio) D.Tyrosine (cip)
(ciq) E.Guanidoacetate (cir)
(cis)
(cit)
(ciu) 11) Molecules involved in histidine synthesis include phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP),
ATP, glutamine.
(civ)
(ciw)
(cix) 12) All of the following statements concerning folic acid are true: it is a vitamin B found in
beans, peas, broccoli, beets, spinach and sunflower seeds, it has a pteridine nucleus and p
aminobenzoic acid, linked to one or more glutamic acid residues, once absorbed by the body, it is
converted by dihydrofolate reductase to THF (tetrahydrofolate), its biologically active form
(ciy)
(ciz)
(cja) 13) SAM is a methyl donor in the synthesis of ______.
(cjb) a. melatonin
(cjc) b. creatine
(cjd) c. phosphatidylcholine
(cje) d. Both A and C are correct.
(cjf) e. all of the above are correct
(cjg)
(cjh)
(cji) 14) Amethopterin is a structural analogue of folate
(cjj)
(cjk)
(cjl) 15) The tranport of GSH out of cells serves all of the following functions except ______.
(cjm) a. protection of the plasma membrane.
(cjn) b. amino acid transport.
(cjo) c. transfer of sulfur atoms out of cells.
(cjp) d. formation of mercapturic acid derivatives of organic contaminants
(cjq) e. None of the above are correct
(cjr)
(cjs) 16) All of the following are purine bases except _____.
(cjt) a) Thymine
(cju) b) Hypoxanthine
(cjv) c) Guanine
(cjw) d) Adenine
(cjx) e) All of the above are purine bases.
(cjy)
(cjz)
(cka) 17) Deficiency of HGPRT causes LeschNyhan syndrome.
(ckb)
(ckc)
(ckd) 18) All of the following are directly involved in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleic acid except
_______.
(cke) a. thioredoxin
(ckf) b. NADPH
(ckg) c. ribonucleotide reductase
(ckh) d. thioredoxin reductase
(cki) e. HGPRT
(ckj)
(ckk)
(ckl) 19) Inorganic nitrogen is initially assimilated into which of the following amino acids?
glutamine
(ckm)
(ckn)
(cko) 20) The amino acids serine and alanine are preferentially used to synthesize glucose for export
from the liver
(ckp)
(ckq)
(ckr) 21) Nitrogen fixation requires iron and molybdenum as cofactors.
(cks)
(ckt)
(cku) 22) Onecarbon carriers in metabolism include
(ckv) a. biotin
(ckw) b. folate
(ckx) c. SAM
(cky) d. Both B and C are correct.
(ckz) e. All of the above are correct.
(cla)
(clb)
(clc) 23) Which of the following is an aketo acid/aamino acid pair used in transamination?
alphaketoglutarate/glutamate, oxaloacetate/aspartate, pyruvate/alanine
(cld)
(cle)
(clf) Extra Question) Which of the following is an a-keto acid/a-amino acid pair used in
transamination?
(clg) A. Pyruvate/leucine (clh)
(cli) B. Oxaloacetate/aspartate (clj)
(clk) C. Oxaloacetate/glutamate (cll)
(clm) D. a-ketoglutarate/aspartate (cln)
(clo) E. a-keto-b-
(clp)
hydroxybutyrate/phenylalanine
(clq)
(clr)
(cls) 24) In plants the pathway by which most ammonium ion is incorporated into organic molecules
requires?
(clt)
(clu)
(clv) 25) Asparagine is formed from aspartic acid and _________ .
(clw) a. SAM
(clx) b. glutamine
(cly) c. NH4+
(clz) d. Both A and C are correct
(cma) e. All of the above are correct.
(cmb)
(cmc)
(cmd) 26) The benzene ring of the aromatic amino acids is formed by the shikimate pathway
(cme)
(cmf)
(cmg) 27) The oxidation state of the methenyl group (CH=) is comparable to that of ____.
(cmh) a. methanol
(cmi) b. formaldehyde
(cmj) c. formate
(cmk) d. Both A and B are correct.
(cml) e. All of the above are correct.
(cmm)
(cmn)
(cmo) 28) The methylated product of guanidonoacetate is creatine.
(cmp)
(cmq)
(cmr) 29) The fixation of nitrogen requires _______.
(cms) a. FeMo protein
(cmt) b. Fe protein
(cmu) c. ferredoxin
(cmv) d. Both A and B are correct.
(cmw) e. All of the above are correct.
(cmx)
(cmy) 30) Most aminotransferaes utilize ________as the recipient aketo acid. alphaketoglutarate
(cmz)
(cna)
(cnb) 31) The primary energy source for enterocytes is: glutamine
(cnc)
(cnd)
(cne) Extra Question) One type of wax we discussed is used to protect your car. Name that wax
(cnf) A. Beeswax (cng)
(cnh) B. Melissyl cerotate (cni)
(cnj) C. jojoba (cnk)
(cnl) D. hydroxyoctacosanyl hydroxy
(cnm)
stearate
(cnn) E. all of the above (cno)
(cnp)
(cnq)
(cnr) 32) 16 ATP molecules are required to convert one mole of nitrogen to two ammonia molecules.
(cns)
(cnt)
(cnu) 33) The first step in nitrogen fixation is the transfer of electrons from NAD(P)H to ferredoxin
(cnv)
(cnw)
(cnx) 34) The major form of regulation of nitrogen fixation is the transcriptional control of 20
nitrogen fixation (nif) genes
(cny) 35) The first amino acid containing newly fixed nitrogen is glutamate
(cnz)
(coa)
(cob) 36) Which of the following are gasotransmitters? nitric oxide (NO), carbon monoxide (CO),
hydrogen sulfide (H2S), certain ROS
(coc)
(cod)
(coe) 37) Which of the following compounds are present in the normal process of nitrogen fixation?
(cof) N2, electrons, H+, NH4, ADP, Pi, H2
(cog)
(coh)
(coi)
38) Hydrogen sulfide is produced from cysteine
(coj)
(cok)
(col) 39) The six families of amino acids are glutamate, aromatic, serine, aspartate, pyruvate and
histidine
(com)
(con)
(coo) 40) Which of the following neurotransmitters are derived from amino acids? GABA (gamma
aminobutyric acid), catecholamines (dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine), serotonin,
histamine
(cop)
(coq)
(cor) 41) In ocean water phytoplankton growth is limited by temperature and low levels of nutrients
containing nitrogen and, to a lesser extent, phosphorus
(cos)
(cot)
(cou) 42) Hypoxic water is characterized by very low levels of dissolved oxygen (less than 2 mg/L)
(cov)
(cow)
(cox) 43) The ultimate products of mineralization of organic nitrogen is N2
(coy)
(coz)
(cpa) 44) The most common intracellular reducing agent is glutathione
(cpb)
(cpc)
(cpd) 45) In nitrogen fixation by microorganisms what gas other than ammonia is produced? hydrogen
gas
(cpe)
(cpf)
(cpg) 46) Which of the following are functions of glutathione? antioxidant molecule that quenches
superoxide, hydroxyl radicals, and peroxynirtile anions, cofactor for many antioxidant molecules,
protects cells from oxidative stress, has roles in DNA synthesis and repair, protein synthesis, and
leukotriene synthesis, protects cells from xenobiotics by forming GSH conjugates of these
molecules
(cph)
(cpi)
(cpj)
(cpk)
(cpl)
(cpm)
(cpn)
(cpo)
(cpp)
(cpq)
(cpr) CHAPTER FIFTEEN
(cps) NITROGEN METABOLISM II: DEGRADATION
(cpt)
(cpu) 1) In addition to urea humans also excrete waste nitrogen as uric acid
(cpv)
(cpw)
(cpx) 2) Stress proteins
(cpy) a. are produced only when cells are exposed to high temperatures
(cpz) b. only act as molecular chaperones
(cqa) c. are referred to as heat shock proteins
(cqb) d. Both A and C are correct
(cqc) e. none of the above are correct
(cqd)
(cqe)
(cqf) 3) The ammonia that is incorporated into urea molecules is produced in reactions catalyzed by all
of the following enzymes: Lamino acid oxidases, serine and threonine dehydratases, urease,
adenosine deaminase
(cqg)
(cqh)
(cqi) 4) NAcetylglutamate is an indicator of the cell’s concentration of glutamate (a source of
NH4+), is an allosteric activator of cabamoyl phosphate synthase I, is produced from glutamate
and acetylCoA
(cqj)
(cqk)
(cql) 5) Amino acids whose degradation yields acetylCoA include all of the following except
(cqm) ________.
(cqn) a. threonine
(cqo) b. glutamate
(cqp) c. glycine
(cqq) d. alanine
(cqr) e. cysteine
(cqs)
(cqt)
(cqu) 6) Homogentisate is an intermediate in the degradation of __________.
(cqv) a. threonine
(cqw) b. lysine
(cqx) c. arginine
(cqy) d. tryptophan
(cqz) e. tyrosine
(cra)
(crb)
(crc) 7) aKetoadipate is an intermediate in the degradation of lysine and tryptophan
(crd)
(cre)
(crf) 8) In addition to phenylalanine4monooxygenase the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine
requires O2 and tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4)
(crg)
(crh)
(cri)
(crj)
(crk)
(crl) 9) Amino acids whose degradation yields aketoglutarate include all of the following except
_________.
(crm) a. arginine
(crn) b. glutamine
(cro) c. leucine
(crp) d. histidine
(crq) e. None of the above are correct.
(crr)
(crs) 10) Glutamategsemialdehyde is an intermediate in the degradation of arginine and proline
(crt)
(cru)
(crv) 11) Amino acids whose degradation yields succinylCoA includes all of the following except
________.
(crw) a. Methionine
(crx) b. Isoluecine
(cry) c. Valine
(crz) d. Histidine
(csa) e. None of the above are correct
(csb)
(csc)
(csd) 12) Alkaptonuria is caused by a deficiency of homogentisate oxidase
(cse)
(csf)
(csg) 13) Albinism is caused by the absence of melanin
(csh)
(csi)
(csj) 14) The major route for protein degradation is ubiquitin proteasomal system and autophagy
lysosomal system
(csk)
(csl)
(csm) 15) Which of the following reactions require SAM?
(csn) a. Synthesis of dopamine
(cso) b. Synthesis of norepinephrine
(csp) c. Conversion of tryptophan to serotonin
(csq) d. Conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine
(csr) e. None of the above are correct.
(css)
(cst)
(csu) 16) The production of antibodies
(csv) a. occurs in B cells and is referred to as the humoral immunity response
(csw) b. occurs in T cells and is referred to as cellular immunity.
(csx) c. occurs in B cells and is referred to as cellular immunity.
(csy) d. occurs in T cells and is referred to as humoral immunity.
(csz) e. None of the above are correct.
(cta)
(ctb)
(ctc) 17) Which of the following are characteristics of Nterminal amio acid residue of longlived
proteins? sulfurcontaining, hydroxylcontaining or nonbulky hydrophobic amino acids at N
terminus
(ctd)
(cte)
(ctf) 18) Covalently bound chains with 4 or more ubiquitin monomers are required to transfer a
protein to the proteosome.
(ctg)
(cth) 19) Which of the following amino acids reacts with HOCl to form a nontoxic product during
respiratory bursts? Taurine
(cti)
(ctj)
(ctk) 20) The end product of uracil degradation is balanine
(ctl)
(ctm)
(ctn) 21) The end product of thymine degradation is _______.
(cto) a. urea
(ctp) b. NH4+
(ctq) c. allantoate
(ctr) d. balanine.
(cts) e. baminoisobutyrate
(ctt)
(ctu)
(ctv) 22) Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of uracil to dihydrouracil and
thymine to dihydrohymine
(ctw)
(ctx)
(cty) 23) The glucogenic amino acids include all of the following except leucine and lysine
(exclusively ketogenic)
(ctz)
(cua)
(cub) 24) Components of the transulfuration pathway include all of the following except _____.
(cuc) a. SAM
(cud) b. cysteine
(cue) c. homocysteine
(cuf) d. ATP
(cug) e. BH4
(cuh)
(cui)
(cuj) 25) In adenosine deaminase deficiency large concentrations of dATP result in the inhibition of
cellular immunity and humoral immune response
(cuk)
(cul)
(cum) 26) Which of the following tissues can only replenish citric acid cycle intermediates by the
purine nucleotide cycle? skeletal muscle
(cun)
(cuo)
(cup) 27) All of the following are directly involved in protein turnover except _______.
(cuq) a. hsp
(cur) b. calpains
(cus) c. cathepsin
(cut) d. proteosome
(cuu) e. None of the above are correct.
(cuv)
(cuw)
(cux) 28) PropionylCoA and LmethylmalonylCoA are intermediates in the conversion of ________
to succinylCoA
(cuy)
(cuz)
(cva) 29) The end products of the transulfuration pathway are sulfate and pyruvate
(cvb) 30) Methylmalonic acidemia results from a deficiency of methylmalonyl CoA mutase
(cvc)
(cvd)
(cve) 31) The main nitrogen storage molecule in animals is they don’t have one
(cvf)
(cvg)
(cvh) 32) Decomposers convert organic nitrogen to ammonia
(cvi)
(cvj)
(cvk) 33) In general, catabolism of amino acids begins with the removal of the amino group
(cvl)
(cvm)
(cvn) 34) In muscle excess amino groups are transferred to alphaketo glutarate (?) to produce
glutamate
(cvo)
(cvp)
(cvq) 35) Ammonia is transferred to the liver as the amide group of glutamine
(cvr)
(cvs)
(cvt) 36) Urea is synthesized in which organ? liver
(cvu)
(cvv)
(cvw) 37) In patients with alkaptonuria the urine is colored black
(cvx)
(cvy)
(cvz) 38) High phenylalanine blood levels from phenylketonuria results in damage to which organ?
brain
(cwa)
(cwb)
(cwc) 39) Which of the following conditions result in a buildup of aketoacids derived from branched
chain amino acids? maple syrup urine disease (branched chain ketoaciduria)
(cwd)
(cwe)
(cwf) 40) A buildup of uric acid is characteristic of which of the following diseases? gout
(cwg)
(cwh)
(cwi) 41) Autophagy is a mechanism whereby intracellular components are degraded, it is
eventually impeded in patients with Parkinson’s and Alzheimers, it also provides a recycling
mechanism, is involved in the regulation of development, and the destruction of invading
microorganisms
(cwj)
(cwk)
(cwl) 42) Phagocytosis is a pathway in which cells degrade extracellular material, it is stopped in
people with Tuberculosis
(cwm)
(cwn)
(cwo) 43) Proteosomal digestion of what type of protein does not require ubiquination
(cwp)
(cwq)
(cwr) 44) Autophagy is triggered by a large number of stressors, including ER stress (caused by
unfolded protein response), hypoxia, oxidative stress, nutrient deprivation, high temperature, and
viral infections
(cws)
(cwt)
(cwu) 45) The ultimate products of autophagy include degradation products (eg emino acids and
sugars) and residual bodies (eg lipofuscin granules)
(cwv)
(cww)
(cwx) 46) The major catabolic mechanism used by eukaryotic cells to maintain optimal function and
respond to changing environmental conditions is macroautophagy
(cwy)
(cwz)
(cxa)
(cxb)
(cxc)
(cxd)
(cxe)
(cxf)
(cxg)
(cxh)
(cxi)
(cxj)
(cxk)
(cxl)
(cxm)
(cxn)
(cxo)
(cxp)
(cxq)
(cxr)
(cxs)
(cxt)
(cxu)
(cxv)
(cxw)
(cxx)
(cxy)
(cxz)
(cya)
(cyb)
(cyc)
(cyd)
(cye)
(cyf)
(cyg)
(cyh)
(cyi)
(cyj)
(cyk)
(cyl)
(cym)
(cyn)
(cyo)
(cyp)
(cyq)
(cyr) CHAPTER SIXTEEN
(cys) INTEGRATION OF METABOLISM
(cyt)
(cyu) 1) The liver performs all of the following functions except
(cyv) A) Blood glucose regulation
(cyw) B) Processing of foreign molecules
(cyx) C) Storage of energy in the form of fat
(cyy) D) Synthesis of plasma protein
(cyz) E) Synthesis of urea
(cza)
(czb)
(czc) 2) During fasting and prolonged starvation, skeletal muscle
(czd) A) Protein is degraded to provide amino acids to the liver for gluconeogenesis
(cze) B) Released as fat into the blood for storage in adipose tissue
(czf) C) Is synthesized from blood lactate
(czg) D) Converts glutamine molecules to proline
(czh) E) None of the above are correct
(czi)
(czj)
(czk) 3) The cells that line the small intestine, which are responsible for the absorption of nutrients into
the body, are called
(czl) A) Adipocytes
(czm) B) Tubule cells
(czn) C) Hepatocytes
(czo) D) Enterocytes
(czp) E) Epithelial cells
(czq)
(czr)
(czs) 4) The functions of the kidney include all of the following except
(czt) A) Blood pH regulation
(czu) B) Body water regulation
(czv) C) Reabsorption of electrolytes, sugars, and amino acids from the urinary filtrate
(czw) D) Filtration of blood plasma which results in the excretion of watersoluble waste products
(czx) E) Production of urea from ammonia
(czy)
(czz)
(daa) 5) The most distinctive characteristic of living organisms is
(dab) A) Cellular structure
(dac) B) The autonomous capacity to sustain adequate operating conditions
(dad) C) Utilization of carbon compounds as food
(dae) D) Complex cellular mechanisms
(daf) E) Utilizing environmental materials as energy sources
(dag)
(dah)
(dai)
(daj)
(dak)
(dal)
(dam)
(dan) 6) A simple system for information flow is composed of three components : reception,
transduction and response. In multicellular organisms hormones play a role in which phase?
(dao) A) Reception
(dap) B) Transduction
(daq) C) Response
(dar) D) Hormones are not involved in the process of information flow
(das) E) Both A and B are correct
(dat)
(dau)
(dav) 7) In a metabolic steady state the rate of anabolic processes is approximately equal to:
(daw) A) Catabolic processes
(dax) B) Cellular energy needs
(day) C) Nutrient intake
(daz) D) Cellular repair and growth
(dba) E) B and C
(dbb)
(dbc)
(dbd) 8) In animals the vast majority of watersoluble hormones are
(dbe) A) Peptides
(dbf) B) Steroids
(dbg) C) Polypeptides
(dbh) D) Carbohydrates
(dbi) E) A and C
(dbj)
(dbk)
(dbl) 9) The molecules that mediate the growthpromoting actions of GH are referred to as the
(dbm) A) Interferons
(dbn) B) Mitogens
(dbo) C) Insulinlike growth factors
(dbp) D) Both B and C are correct
(dbq) E) None of the above are correct
(dbr)
(dbs)
(dbt) 10) Symptoms of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus include all of the following except
(dbu) A) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis
(dbv) B) Hypoglycemia
(dbw) C) Hyperlipoproteinemia
(dbx) D) Ketoacidosis
(dby) E) Polyuria
(dbz)
(dca)
(dcb) 11) Steroid hormones
(dcc) A) Are transported in blood attached to transport proteins
(dcd) B) Bind to intracellular receptors
(dce) C) Diffuse through the plasma membrane of target cells
(dcf) D) Both A and B are correct
(dcg) E) All of the above are correct
(dch)
(dci)
(dcj)
(dck)
(dcl) 12) Which of the following is not a major source of extracellular signal molecules?
(dcm) A) Steroids
(dcn) B) Modified amino acids
(dco) C) Carbohydrates
(dcp) D) Fatty acids
(dcq) E) Proteins
(dcr)
(dcs)
(dct) 13) The biological effects of atrial natriuretic factor appear to be mediated by ______.
(dcu) A) cAMP
(dcv) B) cGMP
(dcw) C) PIP2
(dcx) D) AG
(dcy) E) IP3
(dcz)
(dda)
(ddb) 14) In animals the ______ system has a primary responsibility for coordinating metabolism.
(ddc) A) Nervous
(ddd) B) Lymphatic
(dde) C) Hepatic
(ddf) D) Endocrine
(ddg) E) A and D
(ddh)
(ddi)
(ddj) 15) The IP3 receptor
(ddk) A) Binds cGMP
(ddl) B) Is associated with Gi
(ddm) C) Is a calcium channel
(ddn) D) Both B and C are correct
(ddo) E) All of the above are correct
(ddp)
(ddq)
(ddr) 16) A DNA segment that binds a hormonereceptor complex is called a _________.
(dds) A) DRE
(ddt) B) DAG
(ddu) C) EGF
(ddv) D) HRE
(ddw) E) IGF
(ddx)
(ddy)
(ddz) 17) Calmodulin is a
(dea) A) Transmembrane receptor
(deb) B) Calciumbinding protein
(dec) C) HSP
(ded) D) Plant hormone
(dee) E) A, B and C are correct
(def)
(deg)
(deh)
(dei)
(dej)
(dek) 18) Insulin resistance is
(del) A) A risk factor for Type I diabetes
(dem) B) A risk factor for Type II diabetes
(den) C) Caused by excessive production of ANF
(deo) D) Associated with damage to the adrenal gland
(dep) E) None of the above are correct
(deq)
(der)
(des) 19) Receptors for most water soluble hormones are located in what part of the cell?
(det) A) Plasma membrane
(deu) B) Endoplasmic reticulum
(dev) C) Nucleus
(dew) D) Cytoplasm
(dex) E) Nuclear membrane
(dey)
(dez)
(dfa) 20) Which of the following is not a second messenger molecule?
(dfb) A cGMP
(dfc) B) cAMP
(dfd) C) Calcium
(dfe) D) Steroids
(dff) E) Inostolphospholipid system
(dfg)
(dfh)
(dfi) 21) The most prominent mechanism to prevent excessive hormone syntheis is
(dfj) A) Desensitization
(dfk) B) Downregulation
(dfl) C) Feedback inhibition
(dfm) D) Target cell stimulation
(dfn) E) Sensitization
(dfo)
(dfp)
(dfq) 22) Enterocytes require large amounts of energy supplied by
(dfr) A) Glucose oxidase
(dfs) B) Fatty acid degradation
(dft) C) Lactose oxidation
(dfu) D) Glutamine
(dfv) E) Alanine
(dfw)
(dfx)
(dfy) 23) The organ responsible for processing most foreign molecules is
(dfz) A) Intestine
(dga) B) Stomach
(dgb) C) Liver
(dgc) D) Kidney
(dgd) E) Blood
(dge)
(dgf)
(dgg)
(dgh)
(dgi)
(dgj) 24) Insulinresistance is associated with all of the following except _______.
(dgk) A) Obesity
(dgl) B) Desensitizatioin
(dgm) C) Downregulation
(dgn) D) IDDM
(dgo) E) NIDDM
(dgp)
(dgq)
(dgr) 25) Biochemical signal molecules include _________
(dgs) A) Amino acids
(dgt) B) Fatty acid derivatives
(dgu) C) Steroids
(dgv) D) Peptides
(dgw) E) All of the above are true
(dgx)
(dgy)
(dgz) 26) Receptor tyrosine kinases are transmembrane receptors that bind ligands such as
(dha) A) Insulin
(dhb) B) Epidermal growth factor
(dhc) C) Platelet derived growth factor
(dhd) D) Insulin like growth factor
(dhe) E) All of the above
(dhf)
(dhg)
(dhh) 27) Which of the following molecules is a second messenger?
(dhi) A) TSH
(dhj) B) cGMP
(dhk) C) Proline
(dhl) D) Calcium
(dhm) E) Both B and D are correct
(dhn)
(dho)
(dhp) 28 The organ responsible for the regulation of blood pH is
(dhq) A) Liver
(dhr) B) Kidney
(dhs) C) Intestine
(dht) D) Brain
(dhu) E) Stomach
(dhv)
(dhw)
(dhx) 29) Most diabetic complications are the result of
(dhy) A) Glycation
(dhz) B) Hyperglycemia
(dia) C) Damage to the vascular system
(dib) D) Both A and B are correct
(dic) E) All of the above are correct
(did)
(die)
(dif)
(dig)
(dih)
(dii) 30) The principle target tissues of insulin include
(dij) A) Skeletal muscle
(dik) B) Liver
(dil) C) Adipose tissue
(dim) D) Both B and C are correct
(din) E) All of the above are correct
(dio)
(dip)
(diq) 31) Animals employing several mechanisms to prevent excessive hormone action and release.
Examples include which of the following?
(dir) A) Genetic regulation
(dis) B) Feedback inhibition
(dit) C) Desensitization
(diu) D) Down regulation
(div) E) All of the above are true
(diw)
(dix)
(diy) 32) Which of the following molecules do GPCRs not respond to?
(diz) A) Catecholamines
(dja) B) Oxytocin
(djb) C) Light
(djc) D) Dopamine
(djd) E) Insulin
(dje)
(djf)
(djg) 33) Which of the following is a role of PKB?
(djh) A) Stimulation of glycogen synthesis
(dji) B) Inhibition of lipolysis
(djj) C) Glucose transport into adipocytes
(djk) D) Activation of mTOR
(djl) E) All of the above are roles of PKB
(djm)
(djn)
(djo) 34) An example of a cytokine is
(djp) A) Epidermal growth factor
(djq) B) Interleukins
(djr) C) Interferons
(djs) D) Insulinlike growth factors
(djt) E) B and C
(dju)
(djv)
(djw) 35) The most serious acute symptom of type 1 diabetes is
(djx) A) Anemia
(djy) B) Ketoacidosis
(djz) C) Hypoglycemia
(dka) D) Insulin resistance
(dkb) E) Both A and C are correct
(dkc)
(dkd)
(dke)
(dkf)
(dkg) 36) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis can occur in type _____ Diabetes
(dkh) A) Type I
(dki) B) Type II
(dkj) C) Insulin dependent diabetes
(dkk) D) Is present in all forms of diabetes
(dkl) E) Is not a symptom of diabetes
(dkm)
(dkn)
(dko) 37) During periods of starvation muscle reduces its consumption of glucose. This spares its use
for which of the following organs?
(dkp) A) Liver
(dkq) B) Heart
(dkr) C) Kidneys
(dks) D) Brain
(dkt) E) Lungs
(dku)
(dkv)
(dkw) 38) Leptin is secreted by which of the following tissues?
(dkx) A) Brain
(dky) B) Liver
(dkz) C) Adipose tissue
(dla) D) Muscle
(dlb) E) Gasterintestinal tract
(dlc)
(dld)
(dle) 39) The brain consumes about _______% of the body’s energy.
(dlf) A) 10
(dlg) B) 20
(dlh) C) 30
(dli) D) 40
(dlj) E) 50
(dlk)
(dll)
(dlm) 40) The phosphatidylinositol cycle mediates the action of all of the following except ______.
(dln) A) Acetylcholine
(dlo) B) Insulin
(dlp) C) Glucagon
(dlq) D) Vasopressin
(dlr) E) GRH
(dls)
(dlt)
(dlu) 41) Metabolism of fructose in the liver rapidly depletes which of the following
(dlv) A) NADPH
(dlw) B) ATP
(dlx) C) Triose phosphate
(dly) D) AMP
(dlz) E) Glucose
(dma)
(dmb)
(dmc)
(dmd) 42) An autoimmune disease caused by the destruction of the insulin producing beta cells of the
pancreas is called
(dme) A) Hyperglycemia
(dmf) B) Dyslipidemia
(dmg) C) Glucosuria
(dmh) D) Type II diabetes
(dmi) E) Type I diabetes
(dmj)
(dmk)
(dml) 43) Extreme thirst and frequent urination in diabetics is directly caused by
(dmm) A) Osmotic diuresis
(dmn) B) Hyperglycemia
(dmo) C) Dyslipidemia
(dmp) D) Glucosuria
(dmq) E) Adipoisledimia
(dmr)
(dms)
(dmt) 44) Type II diabetes is uniquely characterized by:
(dmu) A) Hyperinsulinemia
(dmv) B) Depressed insulin levels
(dmw) C) Insulin resistance
(dmx) D) Depressed glucose levels
(dmy) E) A and C
(dmz)
(dna)
(dnb) 45) Which of the following carbohydrates is a major contributing cause of dyslipidemia non
alcoholic fatty liver disease?
(dnc) A) Glucose
(dnd) B) Ribose
(dne) C) Fructose
(dnf) D) Galactose
(dng) E) Xylose
(dnh)
(dni)
(dnj) 46) Urea synthesis is the responsibility of which organ of the body?
(dnk) A) Kidney
(dnl) B) Liver
(dnm) C) Intestine
(dnn) D) Stomach
(dno) E) Lung
(dnp)
(dnq)
(dnr)
(dns)
(dnt)
(dnu)
(dnv)
(dnw)
(dnx)
(dny)
(dnz)
(doa) CHAPTER SEVENTEEN
(dob) NUCLEIC ACIDS
(doc)
(dod) 1) The classic experiment that demonstrated that radioactively labeled viral DNA transforms
bacterial cells was performed by
(doe) a. Griffith
(dof) b. Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
(dog) c. Kossel and Levene
(doh) d. Hershey and Chase
(doi) e. Watson and Crick
(doj)
(dok)
(dol) 2) Which of the following describes the flow of genetic information as stated in the central
dogma of molecular biology?
(dom) a. RNA®Protein®DNA\
(don) b. DNARNAProtein
(doo) c. DNA®Protein®RNA
(dop) d. Protein®RNA®DNA
(doq) e. None of the above are correct
(dor)
(dos)
(dot) 3) The DNA “backbone” is composed of
(dou) a. An amide bond between deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base
(dov) b. A glycosidic bond between deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base
(dow) c. A phosphodiester bond between 3’ and 5’ hydroxyl groups of adjacent deoxyribose
residues
(dox) d. None of the above are correct
(doy)
(doz)
(dpa) 4) Nucleosomes are composed of all of the following except ________.
(dpb) a. H1
(dpc) b. H2
(dpd) c. H3
(dpe) d. H4
(dpf) e. H5
(dpg)
(dph)
(dpi) 5) There are approximately _________ human genes.
(dpj) a. 10,000
(dpk) b. 20,000
(dpl) c. 100,000
(dpm) d. 1,000,000
(dpn) e. 10,000,000
(dpo)
(dpp)
(dpq) 6) ______ are gene sequences that code for a gene product.
(dpr) a. Introns
(dps) b. Exons
(dpt) c. Nucleosomes
(dpu) d. Cruciforms
(dpv) e. Snurps
(dpw)
(dpx) 7) A genome is
(dpy) a. The sequence that contains the base sequence information necessary to code for a gene product
(dpz) b. The complete DNA base sequence in an organism
(dqa) c. The complementary pairing of purine and pyrimidine bases
(dqb) d. A base pair
(dqc) e. A newly synthesized RNA molecule
(dqd)
(dqe)
(dqf) 8) Protein synthesis is called
(dqg) a. Translation
(dqh) b. Transcription
(dqi) c. Replication
(dqj) d. A metabolome
(dqk) e. Proteone
(dql)
(dqm)
(dqn) 9) The entire set of proteins synthesized by a cell is called
(dqo) a. Metabolome
(dqp) b. Genome
(dqq) c. Proteome
(dqr) d. Epigenome
(dqs) e. Transcriptome
(dqt)
(dqu)
(dqv) 10) The polyamines assist in the compression of eukaryotic chromosome structure because they
(dqw) a. Contain functional groups that bond to DNA
(dqx) b. Assist in the formation of telomeres
(dqy) c. Possess positive charges that interact with the negative charges of DNA
(dqz) d. Promote chemical modification of the histones
(dra) e. None of the above are correct
(drb)
(drc)
(drd) 11) In nucleosome structure the histone ________ aids in stabilizing the wrapping of DNA
around the protein octomer.
(dre) a. H1
(drf) b. H2A
(drg) c. H2B
(drh) d. H3
(dri) e. H4
(drj)
(drk)
(drl) 12) Chromatin contains several levels of structure which include
(drm) a. Nucleosomes
(drn) b. 200 nm filaments
(dro) c. 30 nm fiber
(drp) d. Both B and C are correct
(drq) e. All of the above are correct
(drr)
(drs)
(drt)
(dru)
(drv)
(drw) 13) D loops and variable loops are found in _______
(drx) a. mRna
(dry) b. rRNA
(drz) c. tRNA
(dsa) d. hnRNA
(dsb) e. snRNA
(dsc)
(dsd)
(dse) 14) Which of the following are involved in the splicing of RNA molecules?
(dsf) a. Snurps
(dsg) b. snRNA
(dsh) c. rRNA
(dsi) d. Both A and B are correct
(dsj) e. None of the above are correct
(dsk)
(dsl)
(dsm) 15) The DNA strand that acts as a template during transcription is referred to as the ______
strand.
(dsn) a. Sense
(dso) b. Antisense
(dsp) c. Transcribed
(dsq) d. All of the above are correct
(dsr) e. None of the above are correct
(dss)
(dst)
(dsu) 16) Determine the mRNA sequence for the following DNA sequence 5’-GCCATTTCCCGTTA-
3’
(dsv) a. 5’-CGGTAAAGGGCAAT-3’
(dsw) b. 5’-CGGUAAAGGGCAA-3’
(dsx) c. 5’-TAACGGCAAATGGC-3’
(dsy) d. 5’-UAACGGCAAAUGGC-3’
(dsz) e. 5’-UAACGGGAAAUGGC-3’
(dta)
(dtb)
(dtc) 17) Which of the following does not contribute to the noncovalent interactions that stabilize the
helical strands of DNA
(dtd) a. Hydrophobic interactions
(dte) b. Phosphodiester binds
(dtf) c. Hydrogen bonds
(dtg) d. Base stacking
(dth) e. Hydration
(dti)
(dtj)
(dtk) 18) During a transition mutation which of the following bases would be substituted for cytosine?
(dtl) a. Thymine
(dtm) b. Adenine
(dtn) c. Guanine
(dto) d. Both B and C are correct
(dtp) e. All of the above are true
(dtq)
(dtr)
(dts)
(dtt)
(dtu)
(dtv) 19) The polyamines are a class of DNA binding molecules that include ______.
(dtw) a. Spermine
(dtx) b. Speruline
(dty) c. Spermidine
(dtz) d. Both A and C are correct
(dua) e. All of the above are correct
(dub)
(duc)
(dud) 20) _______ are structures that occur at the ends of chromosomes
(due) a. Cistrons
(duf) b. Telomeres
(dug) c. Cruciforms
(duh) d. Centromeres
(dui) e. Capsids
(duj)
(duk)
(dul) 21) HIV infection of a susceptible cell is initiated when the gp120 envelope protein binds the
_______ antigen
(dum) a. T4
(dun) b. C4
(duo) c. T2
(dup) d. C2
(duq) e. None of the above are correct
(dur)
(dus)
(dut) 22) HIV is a type of
(duu) a. Pox virus
(duv) b. Rhabdovirus
(duw) c. Herpes virus
(dux) d. Papilloma virus
(duy) e. Retrovirus
(duz)
(dva)
(dvb) 23) HIV possesses a ________ genome
(dvc) a. ssDNA
(dvd) b. dsDNA
(dve) c. ssRNA
(dvf) d. dsRNA
(dvg) e. None of the above are correct
(dvh)
(dvi)
(dvj) 24) Hydroxyapatite
(dvk) a. Is a calcium phosphate gel
(dvl) b. Binds to double stranded DNA
(dvm) c. Is used in column chromatography
(dvn) d. Both A and C are correct
(dvo) e. All of the above are correct
(dvp)
(dvq)
(dvr)
(dvs)
(dvt)
(dvu)
(dvv) 25) Southern blotting
(dvw) a. Is a technique used to identify specific genes
(dvx) b. Binds to double stranded DNA
(dvy) c. Is a chain terminating method
(dvz) d. Both A and B are correct
(dwa) e. All of the above are correct
(dwb)
(dwc)
(dwd) 26) The genetic variations observed in DNA fingerprinting are referred to as ______.
(dwe) a. RFLPSs
(dwf) b. RLFPs
(dwg) c. FRLPs
(dwh) d. DFLPs
(dwi) e. DLFPs
(dwj)
(dwk)
(dwl) 27) The extraction and purification of bacterial DNA involves the use of which of the following.
(dwm) a. RNase
(dwn) b. Lysozyme
(dwo) c. Phenol and chloroform
(dwp) d. Both A and B are correct
(dwq) e. All of the above are correct
(dwr)
(dws)
(dwt) 28) Palindromes
(dwu) a. Form cruciforms
(dwv) b. Contain inverted repeats
(dww) c. Are sequences that provide the same information whether they are read forward or backwards
(dwx) d. Play a role in the function of the restriction enzyme
(dwy) e. All of the above are correct
(dwz)
(dxa)
(dxb) 29) The denaturation of DNA is
(dxc) a. Promoted by the heat, low salt concentration, and extremes of pH
(dxd) b. Reversible
(dxe) c. Monitored by measuring the absorbance at 300nm
(dxf) d. Both A and B are correct
(dxg) e. All of the above are correct
(dxh)
(dxi)
(dxj) 30) The chain terminating method for sequencing DNA was developed by
(dxk) a. Maxam and Gilbert
(dxl) b. Frederick Sanger
(dxm) c. Watson and Crick
(dxn) d. Hershey and Chase
(dxo) e. None of the above are correct
(dxp)
(dxq)
(dxr)
(dxs)
(dxt)
(dxu)
(dxv) 31) In a transversion mutation
(dxw) a. A purine base is substituted for a pyrimidine base
(dxx) b. A pyrimidine base is substituted for a purine base
(dxy) c. A purine or pyrimidine base is framsehifted
(dxz) d. Both A and B are correct
(dya) e. All of the above are correct
(dyb)
(dyc)
(dyd) 32) A nucleoid is:
(dye) a. Supercoiled DNA attached to a protein core
(dyf) b. Negatively supercoiled DNA
(dyg) c. Positively supercoiled DNA
(dyh) d. Relaxed DNA
(dyi) e. Either B or C depending on the organism
(dyj)
(dyk)
(dyl) 33) Chromatin is:
(dym) a. Supercoiled DNA
(dyn) b. DNA complexed with histones
(dyo) c. Linear uncoiled DNA
(dyp) d. Relaxed DNA
(dyq) e. Genes
(dyr)
(dys)
(dyt) 34) Intergenic sequences are
(dyu) a. DNA segments that do not code for gene product
(dyv) b. Junk DNA
(dyw) c. DNA that codes for more than one product
(dyx) d. DNA which stabilizes the nucleosome
(dyy) e. Both A and B are correct
(dyz)
(dza)
(dzb) 35) Restriction enzymes
(dzc) a. Prevent DNA synthesis
(dzd) b. Prevent RNA synthesis
(dze) c. Prevent protein synthesis
(dzf) d. Cut DNA at specific base sequences
(dzg) e. Both A and B are correct
(dzh)
(dzi)
(dzj) 36) The hypochromic effect is
(dzk) a. The aggregation of chromatin into large clusters
(dzl) b. The shift of light absorption to longer wavelengths
(dzm) c. The formation of chromatin-histone complexes
(dzn) d. The conversion of B-DNA to Z-DNA
(dzo) e. The shift of light to shorter wavelengths
(dzp)
(dzq)
(dzr)
(dzs)
(dzt)
(dzu)
(dzv) 37) Which of the following is the largest and most complex structure?
(dzw) a. Genes
(dzx) b. Nucleotides
(dzy) c. Nucleosomes
(dzz) d. Chromosomes
(eaa) e. Chromatin
(eab)
(eac)
(ead) 38) Which of the following is not a function of RNA?
(eae) a. Regulation of gene expression
(eaf) b. Cell differentiation
(eag) c. Catalysis
(eah) d. Both A and C are functions of RNA
(eai) e. All of the above are functions of RNA
(eaj)
(eak)
(eal) 39) Which of the following statements is not true of mRNA?
(eam) a. Prokaryotic mRNAs are mainly polycistronic
(ean) b. Eukaryotic mRNAs are mainly monocisstronic
(eao) c. Eukaryotic mRNAs are extensively modified after synthesis
(eap) d. Prokaryotic mRNAs are immediately transmitted into protein without covalent modifications
(eaq) e. Prokaryotic mRNAs are capped with 7-methylguanosine
(ear)
(eas)
(eat) 40) Lysogeny is:
(eau) a. Cleavage of the cellular RNA
(eav) b. Infection of the host cell by a virus
(eaw) c. Integration of the virus genome into the host chromosome
(eax) d. Formation of the prophage from the viral coat
(eay) e. None of the above are correct
(eaz)
(eba)
(ebb) 41) A defect in which of the following HAR’s can result in microcephaly?
(ebc) a. ASPM
(ebd) b. FOXP2
(ebe) c. AMY 1
(ebf) d. LCT
(ebg) e. HAR1
(ebh)
(ebi)
(ebj) 42) The change of a single base pair in a DNA chain is referred to as:
(ebk) a. Transversion mutation
(ebl) b. Silent mutation
(ebm) c. Missense mutation
(ebn) d. Point mutation
(ebo) e. Nonsense mutation
(ebp)
(ebq)
(ebr)
(ebs)
(ebt)
(ebu)
(ebv) 43) A mutation caused by an alkylating agent is referred to as
(ebw) a. Transversion mutation
(ebx) b. Silent mutation
(eby) c. Missing mutation
(ebz) d. Point mutation
(eca) e. Nonsense mutation
(ecb)
(ecc)
(ecd) 44) A point mutation that converts the code for an amino acid to a premature stop signal is
referred to as
(ece) a. Transversion mutation
(ecf) b. Silent mutation
(ecg) c. Missing mutation
(ech) d. Point mutation
(eci) e. Nonsense mutation
(ecj)
(eck)
(ecl) 45) Which of the following is not an endogenous cause of DNA damage?
(ecm) a. Tautomeric shift
(ecn) b. Radiation
(eco) c. Deamination
(ecp) d. Depuration
(ecq) e. ROS induced oxidation
(ecr)
(ecs)
(ect) 46) Point mutations that occur in a population to any extent are referred to as
(ecu) a. Silent mutations
(ecv) b. Nonsense mutations
(ecw) c. Transition mutation
(ecx) d. Single nucleotide polymorphisms
(ecy) e. Missense mutation
(ecz)
(eda)
(edb)
(edc)
(edd)
(ede)
(edf)
(edg)
(edh)
(edi)
(edj)
(edk)
(edl)
(edm)
(edn)
(edo)
(edp)
(edq)
(edr)
(eds) CHAPTER EIGHTEEN
(edt) GENETIC INFORMATION
(edu)
(edv) 1) The replisome consists of all of the following proteins except _________.
(edw) A) DNA polymerase
(edx) B) DNA topoisomerase
(edy) C) Primase
(edz) D) Catabolic gene activator protein
(eea) E) Helicase
(eeb)
(eec)
(eed) 2) The experiment that demonstrated the mechanism whereby DNA is synthesized was
performed by
(eee) A) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
(eef) B) Watson and Crick
(eeg) C) Linus Pauling
(eeh) D) Messelson and Stahl
(eei) E) Maurice Wilkins
(eej)
(eek)
(eel) 3) The _____ are enzymes that catalyze the unwinding of duplex DNA.
(eem) A) Topoisomerases
(een) B) Helicases
(eeo) C) Ligases
(eep) D) Primases
(eeq) E) Unwindases
(eer)
(ees)
(eet) 4) SSB are
(eeu) A) A series of nucleases that degrade RNA primers
(eev) B) Substrates for DNA ligase
(eew) C) Proteins that bind to single-stranded DNA
(eex) D) Enzymes that catalyze Okazaki fragment formation
(eey) E) Molecules that bind to DNA
(eez)
(efa)
(efb) 5) The background rate of spontaneous mutations is approximately ________ mutations per gene
per million gametes
(efc) A) 0.01 to 0.1
(efd) B) 0.1 to 1
(efe) C) 1 to 10
(eff) D) 10 to 100
(efg) E) None of the above are correct
(efh)
(efi)
(efj) 6) DNA polymerase  is believed to be involved in
(efk) A) Eukaryotic DNA repair
(efl) B) Mitochondrial DNA replication
(efm) C) Chloroplast DNA replication
(efn) D) Prokaryotic DNA synthesis
(efo) E) Chloroplast DNA repair
(efp)
(efq) 7) Mutations are caused by all of the following except ________.
(efr) A) Depurinations
(efs) B) Radiation
(eft) C) Viruses
(efu) D) Oxidative Damage
(efv) E) None of the above are correct
(efw)
(efx)
(efy) 8) DNA molecules are copied or replicated by a _______ mechanism.
(efz) A) Conservative
(ega) B) Semiconservative
(egb) C) Dispersive
(egc) D) More than one answer is correct
(egd) E) All of the above are correct
(ege)
(egf)
(egg) 9) The tangling of DNA strands during replication is prevented by _________.
(egh) A) Topoisomerases
(egi) B) Helicases
(egj) C) Ligases
(egk) D) Primases
(egl) E) Unwindases
(egm)
(egn)
(ego) 10) The rate of DNA synthesis in eukaryotes is approximately_________ nucleotides per
________ per replication fork.
(egp) A) 10/ second
(egq) B) 50 / second
(egr) C) 100 / second
(egs) D) 50 / minute
(egt) E) 100/ minute
(egu)
(egv)
(egw) 11) In the eukaryotic cell cycle the M(itosis) phase occurs after the ______ phase.
(egx) A) Go
(egy) B) G1
(egz) C) G2
(eha) D) S
(ehb) E) None of the above are correct
(ehc)
(ehd)
(ehe) 12) _______ is a form of intermicrobial DNA transfer that occurs when bacteriophage
inadvertantly serve as carriers of bacterial DNA to the recipient cell.
(ehf) A) Transposition
(ehg) B) Conjugation
(ehh) C) Transformation
(ehi) D) Tranduction
(ehj) E) Recombination
(ehk)
(ehl)
(ehm)
(ehn) 13) The initiation of transcription involves the binding of RNA polymerase to a specific
sequence called a __________.
(eho) A) Delta repeat
(ehp) B) consensus sequence
(ehq) C) Promoter
(ehr) D) Primer
(ehs) E) Long terminal repeat
(eht)
(ehu)
(ehv) 14) All of the following gene products are coded for by constitutive genes except ______.
(ehw) A) Histone
(ehx) B) Aconitase
(ehy) C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(ehz) D) Lactose
(eia) E) rRNA
(eib)
(eic)
(eid) 15) The reassortment of DNA sequences is called
(eie) A) Duplication
(eif) B) Replication
(eig) C) Recombination
(eih) D) Decoding
(eii) E) Reconstitution
(eij)
(eik)
(eil) 16) _______ are tumors that arise in connective tissue.
(eim) A) Lymphomas
(ein) B) Leukemias
(eio) C) Carcinomas
(eip) D) Sarcomas
(eiq) E) None of the above are correct
(eir)
(eis)
(eit) 17) ______ is a protooncogene that codes for a GTP-binding protein.
(eiu) A) Sis
(eiv) B) Src
(eiw) C) Jun
(eix) D) Myc
(eiy) E) None of the above are correct
(eiz)
(eja)
(ejb) 18) ______ is a protooncogene that codes for platelet-derived growth factor.
(ejc) A) Sis
(ejd) B) Src
(eje) C) Jun
(ejf) D) Myc
(ejg) E) None of the above are correct
(ejh)
(eji)
(ejj)
(ejk)
(ejl)
(ejm) 19) _______ is a product of a delayed response gene.
(ejn) A) Cyclin
(ejo) B) Jun
(ejp) C) Fos
(ejq) D) AP-1
(ejr) E) Myc
(ejs)
(ejt)
(eju) 20) ______ is an enzyme that catalyzes a critical step in replicative transposition.
(ejv) A) Unwindase
(ejw) B) Replicase
(ejx) C) Resolvase
(ejy) D) Primase
(ejz) E) Catabolic gene activation protein
(eka)
(ekb)
(ekc) 21) DNA synthesis is called
(ekd) A) Transcription
(eke) B) Replication
(ekf) C) Translation
(ekg) D) Transformation
(ekh) E) Transposition
(eki)
(ekj)
(ekk) 22) _______ catalyzes the transcription of the precursor of the tRNAs and 5S rRNA.
(ekl) A) RNA polymerase I
(ekm) B) RNA polymerase II
(ekn) C) RNA polymerase III
(eko) D) RNA directed DNA polymerase
(ekp) E) None of the above are correct
(ekq)
(ekr)
(eks) 23) DNA transposition can cause gene ______.
(ekt) A) Duplication
(eku) B) Deletion
(ekv) C) Transcription
(ekw) D) Both A and B are correct
(ekx) E) All of the above are correct
(eky)
(ekz)
(ela) 24) Many promoters for RNA polymerase II contain a consensus sequence call the _______.
(elb) A) CAAT box
(elc) B) GC box
(eld) C) Pribnow box
(ele) D) TATA box
(elf) E) Okazaki box
(elg)
(elh)
(eli)
(elj)
(elk)
(ell)
(elm) 25) Place the following steps of general recombination in chronological order
(eln)
(elo) i. DNA ligase seals the cut ends
(elp) ii A second series of DNA strand cuts occurs opposite the first crossover strands
(elq) iii Two homologus DNA molecules become paired
(elr) iv DNA polymerase fills any gaps and DNA ligase seals the cut strands
(els) v Two of the DNA strands are cleaved
(elt) vi The two strand segments cross over
(elu)
(elv) A) i, iii, v, iv, ii, vi
(elw) B) iii, iv, vi, i, vi,iii
(elx) C) iv, ii, v, i, ii, iv
(ely) D) iii, v, vi, i, ii, iv
(elz) E) v, vi, i, ii, iv, iii
(ema)
(emb)
(emc) 26) Most of the carcinogenic effects of radiation are believed to be the result of _______.
(emd) A) Viruses
(eme) B) Transposition
(emf) C) ROS
(emg) D) Transduction
(emh) E) Alkylation
(emi)
(emj)
(emk) 27) DNA is synthesized in which of the following directions
(eml)
(emm) A) In the 5’  3’ direction on the leading strand and 3’ 5’ direction on the lagging strand
(emn) B) In the 3’  5” direction on the leading strand and the 5’ 3’ direction on the lagging strand
(emo) C) In the 5’  3’ direction on both DNA strands
(emp) D) The direction differs depending on the genes being duplicated
(emq) E) None of the above are correct
(emr)
(ems)
(emt) 28) All of the following play a role in DNA repair except ________.
(emu) A) Light
(emv) B) PR enzyme
(emw) C) Ribozymes
(emx) D) Endonuclease
(emy) E) Pol I
(emz)
(ena)
(enb) 29) In the absence of its inducer the lac operon remains repressed because of the binding of lac
repressor to the _______.
(enc) A) Promoter
(end) B) Regulatory gene
(ene) C) Catabolic gene activator protein
(enf) D) Operator
(eng) E) CAP site
(enh)
(eni)
(enj)
(enk)
(enl) 30) Eukaryotic gene expression is affected by all of the following except ______.
(enm) A) RNA processing
(enn) B) Translational control
(eno) C) Gene rearrangements
(enp) D) Transcriptional control
(enq) E) None of the above are correct
(enr)
(ens)
(ent) 31) The majority of genetic variations arise from
(enu) A) Mutations
(env) B) Genetic recombination
(enw) C) Base deletion
(enx) D) Tautomerism
(eny) E) Both A and B are correct
(enz)
(eoa)
(eob) 32) Topoisomerases
(eoc) A) Join DNA strands together
(eod) B) Prevent tangling of DNA strands
(eoe) C) Relieve torque in replicating DNA
(eof) D) Change the supercoiling of DNA
(eog) E) All of the above are correct
(eoh)
(eoi)
(eoj) 33) Type II topoisomerases
(eok) A) Produce double stranded breaks in DNA
(eol) B) Repilicate only the lagging strand
(eom) C) Repilicate only the leading strand
(eon) D) Relieve torque ahead of the replicating machinery
(eoo) E) Both A and B are correct
(eop)
(eoq)
(eor) 34) In higher eukaryotes replication begins with the
(eos) A) Origin of replication complex (ORC)
(eot) B) Assembly of pre-initiation replication complex (preRC)
(eou) C) Recruiting of the MCM complex to the replication site
(eov) D) Stabilizing of the DNA strands by replication protein A (RPA)
(eow) E) Attachment of DNA polymerase  to each DNA strand
(eox)
(eoy)
(eoz) 35) Light-induced repair will correct which of the following mutations
(epa) A) Deamination of adenine
(epb) B) Reversion of thymine dimers
(epc) C) Tautomerism of uracil
(epd) D) Removal of nucleotides
(epe) E) Breaks in the phosphodiester linkage
(epf)
(epg)
(eph)
(epi)
(epj)
(epk)
(epl) 36) In nucleotide excision repair
(epm) A) Single bases are removed and replaced
(epn) B) Bulky lesions are removed
(epo) C) Thymine dimers are replaced
(epp) D) Gaps are repaired by DNA polymerase
(epq) E) Nucleotides are removed and new ones insterted
(epr)
(eps)
(ept) 37) Insertion of viral DNA into a host cell’s genome is an example of
(epu) A) Transformation
(epv) B) Transduction
(epw) C) Conjugation
(epx) D) Site specific recombination
(epy) E) Myosis
(epz)
(eqa)
(eqb) 38) Genomic libraries are produced by
(eqc) A) Colony hybridization techniques
(eqd) B) Polymerase chain reactions
(eqe) C) Electroporation
(eqf) D) Shotgun cloning
(eqg) E) Cosmids
(eqh)
(eqi)
(eqj) 39) Homology modeling facilitates
(eqk) A) Protein structure prediction
(eql) B) Open reading frames synthesis
(eqm) C) Stop codons deletion
(eqn) D) Protein function
(eqo) E) Start codon initiation
(eqp)
(eqq)
(eqr) 40) Protooncogenes are
(eqs) A) Normal genes that code for transcription factors
(eqt) B) Normal genes that if mutated can promote carcinogenesis
(equ) C) Tumor supressor genes
(eqv) D) Growth factor receptor genes
(eqw) E) All of the above are correct
(eqx)
(eqy)
(eqz) 41) An exonuclease is an enzyme that
(era) A) Depolymerizes RNA only
(erb) B) Polymerizes DNA and RNA
(erc) C) Removes nucleotides from the end of a polynucleotide strand
(erd) D) Add nucleotides to the end of a polynucleotide strand
(ere) E) Depolymerizes DNA only
(erf)
(erg)
(erh)
(eri)
(erj)
(erk)
(erl) 42) Repair of DNA by the SOS system has a major disadvantage
(erm) A) Repair is slow
(ern) B) Repair is error prone
(ero) C) Repair cannot replace missing nucleotide sequences
(erp) D) Frequently fragments the DNA chain
(erq) E) C and D
(err)
(ers)
(ert) 43) A difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA polymerases is:
(eru) A) Polymerizes DNA from opposite ends of the DNA chain
(erv) B) Eukaryotic DNA polymerases do not remove RNA primers
(erw) C) Prokaryotic polymerases work with both DNA and RNA chains
(erx) D) Prokaryotic DNA polymerases do not require an RNA primer
(ery) E) There are no differences
(erz)
(esa)
(esb) 44) The average natural mutation rate for plants and animals is one mutation per ______
(esc) genes/generation.
(esd) A) 10,000
(ese) B) 50,000
(esf) C) 100,000
(esg) D) 1,000,000
(esh) E) 250,000
(esi)
(esj)
(esk) 45) ____________ repair occurs only on a strand actively being transcribed
(esl) A) Mismatch repair
(esm) B) Transcription coupling repair
(esn) C) Replication slippage
(eso) D) DNA
(esp) E) RNA
(esq)
(esr)
(ess) 46) __________ corrects replication proofreading errors.
(est) A) Mismatch repair
(esu) B) Transcription coupling repair
(esv) C) Reading repair
(esw) D) Transcription coupling repair factor
(esx) E) Isomerase repair factor
(esy)
(esz)
(eta)
(etb)
(etc)
(etd)
(ete)
(etf)
(etg)
(eth)
(eti)
(etj)
(etk) CHAPTER NINETEEN
(etl) PROTEIN SYNTHESIS
(etm)
(etn) 1) The ShineDalgarno sequence is a
(eto) A) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds IF3
(etp) B) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds 16S rRNA of the small ribosomal subunit
(etq) C) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds the 16S RNA of the large ribosomal subunit
(etr) D) Eukaryotic rRNA sequence that binds the AUG codon of mRNA
(ets) E) None of the above are correct
(ett)
(etu)
(etv) 2) The initiation phase of prokaryotic translation ends as the GTP molecule bound to ________
is hydrolysed to GDP and Pi
(etw) A) IF1
(etx) B) IF2
(ety) C) IF3
(etz) D) IF4
(eua) E) None of the above are correct
(eub)
(euc)
(eud) 3) During the elongation phase of prokaryotic translation the aminoacyltRNA must first bind
_________ before it can be positioned in the A site.
(eue) A) EFTs
(euf) B) EFTu
(eug) C) EFTsGDP
(euh) D) EFTsGTP
(eui) E) EFTuGTP
(euj)
(euk)
(eul) 4) ________ is an enzymatic activity that hydrolyses the bond linking the completed polypeptide
chain and the P site tRNA
(eum) A) RF1
(eun) B) EFG
(euo) C) Peptidyl transferase
(eup) D) Ribosomal esterase
(euq) E) Signal peptidase
(eur)
(eus)
(eut) 5) Prominent prokaryotic posttanslational modifications include all of the following except
__________.
(euu) A) Glycosylation
(euv) B) Methylation
(euw) C) Proteolytic processing
(eux) D) Prenylation
(euy) E) Phosphorylation
(euz)
(eva)
(evb)
(evc)
(evd)
(eve)
(evf) 6) In prokaryotes most of the control of protein synthesis occurs at the level of ______.
(evg) A) Translation
(evh) B) Transcription
(evi) C) Replication
(evj) D) Reverse transcription
(evk) E) Posttranslational modification
(evl)
(evm)
(evn) 7) The enzymatic activities coded by the lac operon include all of the following except:
(evo)
(evp) A) Thiogalactoside transacylase
(evq) B) Lactose transferase
(evr) C) Galactosidase
(evs) D) Galactose permease
(evt) E) None of the above are correct
(evu)
(evv)
(evw) 8) Translocation in eukaryotes requires _____, which is a GTP binding protein.
(evx) A) eEF1
(evy) B) eEF2
(evz) C) eEF3
(ewa) D) eEF4
(ewb) E) None of the above are correct
(ewc)
(ewd)
(ewe) 9) In eukaryotic translation the 40S complex binds the 60S subunit to form the _______
initiation complex.
(ewf) A) 80S
(ewg) B) 88S
(ewh) C) 90S
(ewi) D) 100S
(ewj) E) 108S
(ewk)
(ewl)
(ewm) 10) ________ provides the energy needed to move the ribosome along the mRNA.
(ewn) A) ATP
(ewo) B) GTP
(ewp) C) UTP
(ewq) D) TTP
(ewr) E) All of the above are correct
(ews)
(ewt)
(ewu) 11) Polypeptides containing signal peptides are called ________.
(ewv) A) Zymogens
(eww) B) Preproproteins
(ewx) C) Proproteins
(ewy) D) All of the above are correct
(ewz) E) None of the above are correct
(exa)
(exb)
(exc)
(exd)
(exe) 12) Phosphorylated dolichol, a polyisoprenoid found in ER membrane, is involved in
(exf) A) Polypeptide synthesis
(exg) B) Proteolytic cleavage reactions
(exh) C) Lipophillic modification reactions
(exi) D) Hydroxylation reactions
(exj) E) Glycosylation reactions
(exk)
(exl)
(exm) 13) All of the following are involved in signal peptide processing except
(exn) A) Ribosomal polypeptide translocation factor
(exo) B) SRP receptor protein
(exp) C) Docking protein
(exq) D) Translocon
(exr) E) Stop transfer signal
(exs)
(ext)
(exu) 14) The phrase “global control” refers to
(exv) A) Large alterations in mRNA translation patterns
(exw) B) Large alterations in mRNA synthesis patterns
(exx) C) Specific changes in rRNA synthesis
(exy) D) Specific changes in mRNA synthesis
(exz) E) Changes in transcript localization patterns
(eya)
(eyb)
(eyc) 15) Translational frameshifting
(eyd) A) Results in the synthesis of more than one polypeptide from a single mRNA
(eye) B) Has been observed in cells infected by retroviruses
(eyf) C) Is the result of a +1 or –1 change in the reading frame of an mRNA
(eyg) D) Both A and C are correct
(eyh) E) All of the above are correct
(eyi)
(eyj)
(eyk) 16) All of the following statements concerning eukaryotic mRNA are true except
(eyl) A) Only a small portion of mRNA enters the cytoplasm
(eym) B) Most hnRNA is processed into mRNA
(eyn) C) Export of mRNA through muclear pores is carefully controlled
(eyo) D) mRNA export usually requires a 5’cap and a 3’poly A tail
(eyp) E) None of the above are correct
(eyq)
(eyr)
(eys) 17) Eukaryotic mRNA stability involves
(eyt) A) Reversible adenylation
(eyu) B) The length of poly (A) tails
(eyv) C) The binding of specific proteins to certain mRNA sequences
(eyw) D) The action of various nucleases
(eyx) E) All of the above are correct
(eyy)
(eyz)
(eza)
(ezb)
(ezc)
(ezd) 18) _______ are a group of molecules that mediate protein folding.
(eze) A) Hsp 70s
(ezf) B) Chaparonins
(ezg) C) Docking protein
(ezh) D) Both A and B are correct
(ezi) E) All of the above are correct
(ezj)
(ezk)
(ezl) 19) The mRNA that codes for ________ possesses an iron response element.
(ezm) A) Collagen
(ezn) B) Elastin
(ezo) C) Globin
(ezp) D) Ferritin
(ezq) E) Thiogalactoside transacetylase
(ezr)
(ezs)
(ezt) 20) Chloramphenicol is an antibiotic that
(ezu) A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase
(ezv) B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to the 30S subunit
(ezw) C) Interferes with aminoacyltRNA binding via binding to 30S subunit
(ezx) D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase
(ezy) E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation
(ezz)
(faa)
(fab) 21) Cycloheximide is an antibiotic that
(fac) A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase
(fad) B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30s subunit
(fae) C) Interferes with aminoacyltRNA binding via binding to the 30S subunit
(faf) D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase
(fag) E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation
(fah)
(fai)
(faj) 22) Tetracycline is an antibiotic that
(fak) A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase
(fal) B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30S subunit
(fam) C) Interferes with aminoacyltRNA binding to the 30S subunit
(fan) D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase
(fao) E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation
(fap)
(faq)
(far) 23) Erythromycin is an antibiotic that
(fas) A) Inhibits prokaryotic peptidyl transferase
(fat) B) Causes mRNA misreading via binding to 30S subunit
(fau) C) Interferes with aminoacyltRNA binding via binding to the 30S subunit
(fav) D) Inhibits eukaryotic peptidyl transferase
(faw) E) Inhibits prokaryotic peptide chain elongation
(fax)
(fay)
(faz)
(fba)
(fbb)
(fbc) 24) Which of the following antibiotics would be most toxic for humans
(fbd) A) Tetracycline
(fbe) B) Chloramphenicol
(fbf) C) Streptomcyin
(fbg) D) Cycloheximide
(fbh) E) Erythromycin
(fbi)
(fbj)
(fbk) 25) Ribonucleoprotein particles
(fbl) A) Contain an mRNA
(fbm) B) Contain several types of protein
(fbn) C) Are found only in prokaryotes
(fbo) D) Both A and B are correct
(fbp) E) All of the above are correct
(fbq)
(fbr)
(fbs) 26) _________ is a translation factor that possesses a unique histidine residue that can be
modified to form dipthamide
(fbt) A) IF2
(fbu) B) EFTu
(fbv) C) EFTs
(fbw) D) eEF1
(fbx) E) eEF2
(fby)
(fbz)
(fca) 27) Hydroxylation is a posttranslational modification that
(fcb) A) Requires ascorbic acid
(fcc) B) Is catalyzed by several mixed function oxidases
(fcd) C) Is required for the structural integrity of globin
(fce) D) Both A and B are correct
(fcf) E) All of the above are correct
(fcg)
(fch)
(fci) 28) In prokaryotes posttranslational methylation reactions are associated with
(fcj) A) Signal transduction
(fck) B) Chemotaxis
(fcl) C) SAdenosylmethionine
(fcm) D) All of the above are correct
(fcn) E) None of the above are correct
(fco)
(fcp)
(fcq) 29) The halflives of prokaryotic mRNA usually varies between
(fcr) A) 1 and 3 seconds
(fcs) B) 1 and 3 minutes
(fct) C) 1 and 3 hours
(fcu) D) 3 and 10 hours
(fcv) E) None of the above are correct
(fcw)
(fcx)
(fcy)
(fcz)
(fda) 30) Peptidyl transferase is an enzymatic activity that
(fdb) A) Catalyzes the release of polypeptides from the ribosomes
(fdc) B) Is found in an rRNA component of ribosomes
(fdd) C) Catalyzes the nucleophilic attack of the A site amino group on the carbonyl carbon of the P
side amino acid
(fde) D) Catalyses peptide bond formation
(fdf) E) All of the above are correct
(fdg)
(fdh)
(fdi) 31) Energy for ribosome function is provided by
A)ATP
B) GTP
C) Phosphoenolpyruvate
D)Hydrolysis of pyrophosphate
(fdj)
(fdk)
(fdl) 32) Unlike the protein synthesis mechanism in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells, mitochondria
have _______ stop codes.
A)1
B) 2
C) 3
D)4
E) 5
(fdm)
(fdn)
(fdo) 33) An analysis of the wobble hypothesis suggests that a minimum of _______ RNA’s are
required to translate all 61 codons plus one for a start codon.
A)22
B) 32
C) 16
D)62
E) 30
(fdp)
(fdq)
(fdr) 34) Translation begins with
A)Elongation
B) Initiation
C) Termination
D)Targeting
E) tRNA synthesis
(fds)
(fdt)
(fdu) 35) Which of the following is a type of posttranslational modification?
A)Removal of signal peptides
B) Carboxylation
C) Methylation
D)Phosphorylation
E) All of the above
(fdv)
(fdw)
(fdx) 36) Protein synthesis requires _____ high energy phosphate bonds per peptide bond.
A)1
B) 2
C) 3
D)4
E) 5
(fdy)
(fdz)
(fea) 37) An amino acid coded for by a stop signal is
A)Pyrrolysine
B) Lysine
C) Cysteine
D)Selenocysteine
E) Both A and D are correct
(feb)
(fec)
(fed) 38) In eukaryotes which of the following amino acids is often hydroxylated after protein
synthesis?
A)Proline
B) Tyrosone
C) Arginine
D)Methionine
E) All of the above
(fee)
(fef)
(feg) 39) Which of the following amino acids is sometimes carboxylated after protein synthesis in
eukaryotes
A)Glutamate
B) Aspartate
C) Phenylalanine
D)Lysine
E) Arginine
(feh)
(fei)
(fej) 40) Prokaryotes exclusively use which of the following translational control mechanisms?
A)Negative translational control of ribosomal proteins
B) Global controls
C) RNA specific controls
D)Allosteric modifications of ribosomes
E) Energy depletion
(fek)
(fel)
(fem) 41) Which of the following is a synonymous codon with UCU?
(fen) A) AAU
(feo) B) UCA
(fep) C) GAU
(feq) D) AAA
(fer) E) CUG
(fes)
(fet)
(feu)
(fev)
(few) 42) Protein synthesis in bacteria involves six functional centers. Which of the following is not
one of those centers?
A)Decoding center
B) Aminase transfer center
C) Pepidyl transfer center
D)GTPase associated region
E) A site
(fex)
(fey)
(fez) 43) The peptide emerging from the exit tunnel first encounters a molecular factor called
A)Trigger factor
B) Signal factor
C) Linkage chaperone
D)Psite
E) Translation factor
(ffa)
(ffb)
(ffc) 44) Eukaryotic initiation begins with the assembly of ________________.
A)Preinitiation complex
B) Capbinding complex
C) Polybinding complex
D)48S Initiation complex
E) Translational initiation complex
(ffd)
(ffe)
(fff) 45) Which of the following compounds is referred to as the twentyfirst amino acid
A)Selenocysteine
B) Glucolysine
C) Cysteine
D)Dehydroxyalinine
E) DLysine
(ffg)
(ffh)
(ffi) 46) During synthesis of secreted proteins; binding of the ribosome to the ER membrane is
mediated by
A)The translocon
B) SRP and SRP receptor protein
C) Signal peptidase
D)Cotranslational transfer
E) Posttranslational translocation
(ffj)
(ffk)
(ffl)
(ffm)
(ffn)
(ffo)
(ffp)
(ffq)
(ffr)
(ffs)
(fft)
(ffu)
(ffv) Introduction to Biochemistry Spring 2012 Exam 1 February 17, 2012
(ffw)Select the best answer for each question. Each question is graded at 2 out of 100 points.
(ffx)
(ffy) 1. The role of an enzyme in an enzymecatalyzed reaction is to:
(ffz)
(fga) A) ensure that the product is more stable than the substrate.
(fgb) B) make the freeenergy change for the reaction more favorable.
(fgc) C) decrease the rate at which substrate is converted into product.
(fgd) D) ensure that all the substrate is converted to product.
(fge) E) do none of the above.
(fgf)
(fgg) 2. An octapeptide composed of four repeating glycylalanyl units has:
(fgh)
(fgi) A) two free amino and two free carboxyl groups.
(fgj) B) a single free amino group on an alanyl residue.
(fgk) C) two free carboxyl groups, both on glycyl residues.
(fgl) D) a single free amino group on an alanyl residue and a single free carboxyl group on a glycyl residue.
(fgm) E) a single free amino group on a glycyl residue and a single free carboxyl group on an alanyl residue.
(fgn)
(fgo) 3. Titration of valine by a strong base, for example NaOH, results in two pKs. The titration reaction occurring at pK2
(pK2 = 9.62) is:
(fgp)
(fgq) A) —COOH + OH  —COO + H2O.
(fgr) B) —COOH + —NH2  —COO+ —NH2+.
(fgs) C) —COO + —NH2+  —COOH + —NH2.
(fgt) D) —NH3+ + OH  —NH2 + H2O.
(fgu) E) —NH2 + OH  —NH+ H2O.
(fgv)
(fgw) 4. To the right is a plot of V0 vs. [S] for a specific allosteric enzyme under different conditions.
(fgx)
(fgy) Which of the following best describes the graph?
(fgz)
(fha) A) Curve 3 represents the effect of a positive modulator added to #2.
(fhb) B) Line 4 is valid exclusively for curves 1 and 2.
(fhc) C) Curve 1 represents maximum inhibition.
(fhd) D) Adding a positive modulator to #2 would result in curve 1.
(fhe) E) Adding a positive modulator to #1 would result in curve 2.
(fhf)
(fhg) 5. Proteins often have regions that show specific, coherent patterns of folding or function. These regions are called:
(fhh)
(fhi) A) cassettes. B) sites. C) units. D) peptides. E) none of the above answers.
(fhj)
(fhk) 6. The pH of a aqueous solution that contains 0.036% (wt/wt) HCl is closest to:
(fhl) (The MW of HCl = 36 g/mole and the density of the solution is 0.95 g/ml)
(fhm)
(fhn) A) pH 1 B) pH 2 C) pH 3 D) pH 4 E) pH 5
(fho)
(fhp) 7. All of the following are considered "weak" interactions in proteins except:
(fhq)
(fhr) A) van der Waals forces. D) peptide bonds.
(fhs) B) hydrogen bonds. E) hydrophobic interactions.
(fht) C) ionic bonds.
(fhu)
(fhv) 8. In an  helix, the R groups on the amino acid residues:
(fhw)
(fhx) A) are found on the outside of the helix spiral. D) cause only righthanded helices to form.
(fhy) B) generate the hydrogen bonds that form the helix. E) alternate between the outside and the inside of the
helix.
(fhz) C) stack within the interior of the helix.
(fia)
(fib) 9. Which of the following compounds has the largest negative value for the standard freeenergy change (G'°) upon
hydrolysis?
(fic)
(fid) A) acetic anhydride D) glutamine
(fie) B) lactose E) glycerol 3phosphate
(fif) C) glucose 6phosphate
(fig)
(fih) 10. The reaction A + B  C has a G'° of –20 kJ/mol at 25 °C. One can predict that:
(fii)
(fij) A) when A and B are mixed, the reaction will proceed rapidly toward formation of C.
(fik) B) C will rapidly break down to A + B.
(fil) C) at equilibrium, the concentration of B will exceed the concentration of A.
(fim) D) at equilibrium, the concentration of C will be less than the concentration of A.
(fin) E) None of the above is true.
(fio)
(fip) 11. Which of the following statements is true of enzyme catalysts?
(fiq)
(fir) A) They increase the stability of the product of a desired reaction by allowing ionizations, resonance, and
isomerizations not normally available to substrates.
(fis) B) To be effective they must be present at the same concentration as their substrates.
(fit) C) They increase the equilibrium constant for a reaction, thus favoring product formation.
(fiu) D) They lower the activation energy for the conversion of substrate to product.
(fiv) E) They bind to substrates, but are never covalently attached to substrate or product.
(fiw)
(fix) 12. Consider an acetate buffer, initially at the same pH as its pKa (4.76). When sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is mixed
with this buffer, the:
(fiy)
(fiz) A) pH remains constant.
(fja) B) pH rises more than when an equal amount of NaOH is added to unbuffered water at pH 4.76.
(fjb) C) ratio of acetic acid to sodium acetate in the buffer falls.
(fjc) D) pH rises more than when an equal amount of NaOH is added to an acetate buffer initially at pH 6.76.
(fjd)
(fje) 13. Which of the following parts of the IgG molecule is involved in effector functions?
(fjf)
(fjg) A) heavy chain B) light chain C) Fab D) Fc E) variable domain
(fjh)
(fji) 14. A good transitionstate analog:
(fjj)
(fjk) A) is too unstable to isolate. C) binds to the enzyme more tightly than the substrate.
(fjl) B) binds covalently to the enzyme. D) binds very weakly to the enzyme.
(fjm)
(fjn) 15. In a plot of l/V against 1/[S] for an enzymecatalyzed reaction, the presence of a competitive inhibitor will alter the:
(fjo)
(fjp) A)Vmax. D) curvature of the plot.
(fjq) B) intercept on the l/V axis. E) pK of the plot.
(fjr) C) intercept on the l/[S] axis.
(fjs)
(fjt) 16. Which of the following parts of the IgG molecule are not involved in binding to an antigen?
(fju)
(fjv) A) heavy chain B) light chain C) Fab D) Fc E) variable domain
(fjw)
(fjx) 17. The standard freeenergy changes for the reactions below are given.
(fjy) Phosphocreatine  creatine + Pi G'° = –43.0 kJ/mol
(fjz) ATP  ADP + Pi G'° = –30.5 kJ/mol
(fka) What is the overall G'° for the following reaction?
(fkb) Phosphocreatine + ADP creatine + ATP
(fkc)
(fkd) A) –12.5 kJ/mol D) +73.5 kJ/mol
(fke) B) +12.5 kJ/mol E) G'° cannot be calculated without Keq'
(fkf) C) –73.5 kJ/mol
(fkg)
(fkh)
(fki) 18. Which of the following describes the overall threedimensional folding of a polypeptide?
(fkj)
(fkk) A) primary structure D) quaternary structure
(fkl) B) secondary structure E) none of the above
(fkm) C) tertiary structure
(fkn)
(fko) 19. Consider the transport of glucose into an erythrocyte by facilitated diffusion. When the glucose concentrations are 5
mM on the outside and 0.1 mM on the inside, the freeenergy change for glucose uptake into the cell is: (These values may
be of use to you: R = 8.315 J/mol∙K; T = 298 K; 9 (Faraday constant) = 96,480 J/V; N = 6.022  1023/mol.)
(fkp)
(fkq) A) less than 2 kJ/mol. C) about 30 kJ/mol.
(fkr) B) about 10 kJ/mol. D) impossible to calculate without knowledge of the membrane potential.

(fks)
(fkt) 20. At the isoelectric pH of a tetrapeptide:
(fku)
(fkv) A) the amino and carboxyl termini are not charged.
(fkw) B) two internal amino acids of the tetrapeptide cannot have ionizable R groups.
(fkx) C) the total net charge is zero.
(fky) D) there are four ionic charges.
(fkz) E) only the amino and carboxyl termini contribute charge.
(fla)
(flb) 21. The benefit of measuring the initial rate of a reaction, V0, is that at the beginning of a reaction:
(flc)
(fld) A) changes in [S] are negligible, so [S] can be treated as a constant.
(fle) B) [ES] can be measured accurately.
(flf) C) V0 = Vmax.
(flg) D) changes in Km are negligible, so Km can be treated as a constant.
(flh) E) varying [S] has no effect on V0.
(fli)
(flj) 22. Which of the following statements about proteins is false?
(flk)
(fll) A) Primary structure determines tertiary structure.
(flm) B) Globular proteins are generally very compact.
(fln) C) Proteins are sometimes conjugated with carbohydrates or fats.
(flo) D) Polar amino acid side chains generally are arranged on the surface where they interact with water.
(flp) E) None of the above answers.
(flq)
(flr) 23. Micelles
(fls)
(flt) A) are composed of hydrophobic lipids D) contain glucagon
(flu) B) are cells found in the nervous system E) none of the above
(flv) C) can polymerize
(flw)
(flx) 24. The G'° for the complete oxidation of glucose is 2,840 kJ/mol. The complete oxidation of 1 mole glucose within
the hepatocyte produces 35 moles of ATP under optimal conditions. What is the efficiency of the cellular oxidation of
glucose when the G'° for ATP formation is 30.5 kJ/mol.?
(fly)
(flz) A) 54.3%. B) 37.6%. C) 22.0%. D) 66.7%. E) not enough information given.
(fma)
(fmb)
(fmc) 25. The chirality of an amino acid results from the fact that its  carbon:
(fmd)
(fme) A) is a carboxylic acid. D) is in the L absolute configuration in naturally occurring
proteins.
(fmf) B) is bonded to four different chemical groups. E) has no net charge.
(fmg) C) is symmetric.
(fmh)
(fmi)
(fmj)
(fmk) 26. Three buffers are made by combining a 1 M solution of acetic acid with a 1 M solution of sodium acetate in the
ratios shown below.
(fml) 1 M acetic acid
1 M sodium acetate
(fmm)
(fmn) Buffer 1: 10 mL 90 mL
(fmo) Buffer 2: 50 mL 50 mL
(fmp) Buffer 3: 90 mL 10 mL
(fmq)
(fmr) Which of these statements is true of the resulting buffers?
(fms)
(fmt) A) pH of buffer 1 > pH of buffer 2 > pH of buffer 3
(fmu) B) pH of buffer 1 < pH of buffer 2 < pH of buffer 3
(fmv) C) pH of buffer 1 = pH of buffer 2 = pH of buffer 3
(fmw) D) The problem cannot be solved without knowing the value of pKa.
(fmx)
(fmy) 27. Which of the following statements about cystine is correct?
(fmz)
(fna) A) Cystine is formed through a peptide linkage between two cysteines.
(fnb) B) Cystine forms when the —CH2—SH R group is oxidized to form a —CH2—S—S—CH2— disulfide bridge
between two cysteines.
(fnc) C) Two cystines are released when a —CH2—S—S—CH2— disulfide bridge is reduced to —CH2—SH.
(fnd) D) Cystine is an example of a nonstandard amino acid, derived by linking two different standard amino acids.
(fne) E) Cystine is formed by the oxidation of the carboxylic acid group on cysteine.
(fnf)
(fng) 28. Which amino acid has a guanidino group.
(fnh)
(fni) A) histidine. D) tyrosine.
(fnj) B) proline. E) none of the above aanswers.
(fnk) C) phenylalanine.
(fnl)
(fnm) 29. The standard reduction potentials (E'°) for the following half reactions are given.
(fnn) Fumarate + 2H+ + 2e–  succinate E'° = +0.031 V
(fno) FAD + 2H+ + 2e–  FADH2 E'° = –0.219 V
(fnp)
(fnq) If you mixed succinate, fumarate, FAD, and FADH2 together, all at l M concentrations and in the presence of
succinate dehydrogenase, which of the following would happen initially?
(fnr)
(fns) A) Succinate would become oxidized, FAD would become reduced.
(fnt) B) Succinate would become oxidized, FADH2 would be unchanged because it is a cofactor, not a substrate.
(fnu) C) Both fumarate and succinate would become oxidized; both FAD and FADH2 would become reduced.
(fnv) D) Fumarate would become reduced, FADH2 would become oxidized.
(fnw) E) No reaction would occur, because all reactants and products are already at their standard concentrations.
(fnx)
(fny) 30. Thermodynamics:
(fnz)
(foa) A) describes the path of a chemical reaction.
(fob) B) defines the possibility of a chemical reaction.
(foc) C) defines the rate of a chemical reaction.
(fod) D) all of the above answers.
(foe) E) none of the above answers.
(fof)
(fog) 31. For the reaction A  B, G'° = –60 kJ/mol. The reaction is started with 10 mmol of A; no B is initially present.
After 24 hours, analysis reveals the presence of 2 mmol of B, 8 mmol of A. Which is the most likely explanation?
(foh)
(foi) A) B formation is kinetically slow; equilibrium has not been reached by 24 hours.
(foj) B) A and B have reached equilibrium concentrations.
(fok) C) Formation of B is thermodynamically unfavorable.
(fol) D) The result described is impossible, given the fact that G'° is –60 kJ/mol.
(fom) E) None of the above answers.
(fon) 32. Which of the following is true about the properties of aqueous solutions?
(foo)
(fop) A) Hydrogen bonds form poorly in aqueous solutions.
(foq) B) Charged molecules are generally insoluble in water.
(for) C) An increase in pH from 5.0 to 6.0 reflects an increase in the hydroxide ion concentration ([OH–]) of 20%.
(fos) D) A decrease in pH from 8.0 to 6.0 reflects a decrease in the proton concentration ([H+]) by a factor of 100.
(fot) E) None of the above answers.
(fou)
(fov) 33. Energy transduction occurs in living cells primarily by _________ reactions.
(fow)
(fox) A) cleavage D) rearrangement
(foy) B) condensation E) None of the above answers
(foz) C) group transfer
(fpa)
(fpb) 34. For the reaction A  B, the Keq' is 104. If a reaction mixture originally contains 1 mmol of A and no B,
which of the following is true?
(fpc)
(fpd) A) At equilibrium, there will be far more A than B.
(fpe) B) The reaction will definitely proceed toward B at a very high rate.
(fpf) C) G'° for the reaction will be large and positive.
(fpg) D) The rate of the reaction may be immeasurably small.
(fph) E) None of the above answers
(fpi)
(fpj) 35. Which of the following functional groups on mononucleotide units are hydrogen bond acceptors?
(fpk)
(fpl) A) keto, enol and imino. D) all of the above.
(fpm) B) keto, enol and amino. E) none of the above.
(fpn) C) imino, amino and keto.
(fpo)
(fpp) 36. An allosteric interaction between a ligand and a protein is one in which:
(fpq)
(fpr) A) two different ligands can bind to the same binding site.
(fps) B) the binding of the ligand to the protein is covalent.
(fpt) C) multiple molecules of the same ligand can bind to the same binding site.
(fpu) D) the binding of a molecule to a binding site affects the binding of an additional molecule to the
same site.
(fpv) E) the binding of a molecule to a binding site affects the binding properties of another site on the
protein.
(fpw)
(fpx) 37. Phosphoric acid is tribasic, with pKas of 2.14, 6.86, and 12.4. The ionic form that predominates at pH 8.2
is:
(fpy)
(fpz) A) H3PO4. D) PO43–.
(fqa) B) H2PO4–. E) None of the above answers.
(fqb) C) HPO42–.
(fqc)
(fqd) 38. The term specific activity differs from the term activity in that specific activity:
(fqe)
(fqf) A) is the activity (enzyme units) of a specific protein.
(fqg) B) is the activity (enzyme units) in a milligram of protein.
(fqh) C) is measured only under optimal conditions.
(fqi) D) refers to proteins other than enzymes.
(fqj) E) None of the above answers.
(fqk)
(fql) 39. The structure to the right is not:
(fqm)
(fqn) A) a monosaccharide D) a ketose
(fqo) B) an aldose E) aldopentose
(fqp) C) a β anomer
(fqq)
(fqr)
(fqs)
(fqt) 40. D glucose and D galactose are
(fqu)
(fqv) A) 2 epimers D) anomers
(fqw) B) 3 epimers E) enantiomers
(fqx) C) 4 epimers
(fqy)
(fqz) For Questions 41 and 42 please use oligosaccharide structure to right:
(fra)
(frb) 41. This oligosaccharide
(frc)
(frd) A) contains glucose and fructose only
(fre) B) contains galactose and fructose
(frf) C) contains galactose, glucose and fructose
(frg) D) is a reducing trisaccharide
(frh) E) is commonly found in mammals
(fri)
(frj) 42. This oligosaccharide
(frk)
(frl) A) is completely hydrolysed by α galactosidase to give hexoses only
(frm) B) is completely hydrolysed by β fructosidase to give hexoses only.
(frn) C) a mixture of α galactosidase and α glucosidase to give hexoses only.
(fro) D) All of the above.
(frp) E) None of the above.
(frq)
(frr) 43. The branched form of starch is called amylopectin. If there are 63 branches in a molecule of amylopectin, how many
reducing and non reducing ends are there?
(frs)
(frt) A) 1 and 1 D) 64 and 1
(fru) B) 62 and 1 E) 1 and 64
(frv) C) 1 and 62
(frw)
(frx) 44. D glucose glucosoxidase D glucolactone + H2O2 100 µL of blood is analyzed for glucose using the above method,
→
H2O2 was measured spectrophotometrically and found to be 5 x 107 moles. The concentration of glucose is
(fry)
(frz) A) 5M D) 0.5mM
(fsa) B) 5mM E) 5µM
(fsb) C) 0.5M
(fsc)
(fsd) 45. The reference compound for naming D and L isomers of sugars is:
(fse)
A) fructose.
B) glucose.
C) glyceraldehyde.
D) ribose.
E) sucrose.
(fsf)
(fsg) 46. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal(1  4)Glc, we know that:
(fsh)
A) C4 of glucose is joined to C1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
B) the compound is a Denantiomer.
C) the galactose residue is at the reducing end.
D) the glucose is in its pyranose form.
E) the glucose residue is the  anomer.
(fsi)
(fsj)
(fsk)
(fsl)
(fsm)
(fsn)
(fso)
(fsp) 47. Which of the following statements about starch and glycogen is false?
(fsq)
A) Amylose is unbranched; amylopectin and glycogen contain many (1  6) branches.
B) Both are homopolymers of glucose.
C) Both serve primarily as structural elements in cell walls.
D) Both starch and glycogen are stored intracellularly as insoluble granules.
E) Glycogen is more extensively branched than starch.
(fsr)
(fss)48. The melting points of three fatty acids 1) C12:0 2) C16:1Δ9C 3) C18:2 Δ9,12C are compared . The range of melting
points from highest to lowest are
(fst)
(fsu) A) 1, 2, 3 D) 3, 1, 2
(fsv) B) 2, 1, 3 E. 2, 3, 1
(fsw) C) 3, 2, 1
(fsx)
(fsy) 49. The term amphipathic means:
(fsz)
(fta) A) branched, with at least two branch points.
(ftb) B) having one region that is positively charged and one region that is negatively charged.
(ftc) C) different on the inside and outside of the lipid bilayer.
(ftd) D) having one region that is polar and one that is nonpolar.
(fte) E) having two different types of bonds.
(ftf)
(ftg)50. Which of the following statements about membrane lipids is true?
(fth)
A) Glycerophospholipids are found only in the membranes of plant cells.
B) Glycerophospholipids contain fatty acids linked to glycerol through amide bonds.
C) Lecithin (phosphatidylcholine), which is used as an emulsifier in margarine and chocolate, is a sphingolipid.
D) Some sphingolipids include oligosaccharides in their structure.
(fti) Triacylglycerols are the principal components of erythrocyte membranes.

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(a) glycogen (j)

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