0258192a28625-Mock CLAT 17 Questions

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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021
MOCK CLAT #17

Candidate Name : _________________
Duration : 120 Minutes
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________
Date of Exam : _________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided,
with a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered
incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required
and in the spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The
candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face
criminal prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the
Test Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
MOCK CLAT #17
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions(Q.1-Q.32): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): One of the many ways in which Indian cities and towns tell women that they are
unwanted in public spaces is by the absence of a woman’s toilet. In metropolises like Mumbai and Delhi,
the number of toilets for men consistently outnumber those for women by a large margin; women’s toilets
in large toilet blocks remain locked, especially in the evenings (because what are women doing outside
the home after dark, anyway?). If they are unlocked, they are filthy — and sometimes even unsafe —
spaces that women venture into at the risk of ill-health and violence. The denial of a woman’s body and
its natural bodily urges, then, is not only a matter of cultural practices of shame, but it is written into the
design of a city itself. A new “period room” in a Mumbai slum, the first of its kind in a public toilet,
therefore, suggests a refreshing reimagination of the public space. The Thane Municipal Corporation’s
move is an attempt to inculcate menstrual hygiene, one that it wants to replicate in 120 community
toilets.
The “period room” includes a urinal, a jet spray, a toilet roll-holder, soap, running water, hooks to hang
clothes and a dustbin to dispose of menstrual waste — rare amenities in public toilets. For the women of
the Lokmanya Nagar slum, in which few families have the luxury of a private toilet, the structure offers
precious space and privacy. A study carried out by an NGO that assisted with the project found that 56
per cent of girl students in the area had no access to clean toilets in schools; nor did 18 per cent working
women at their workplace.
A “period room” that does not try to hide its function as a space for menstruating women might also,
hopefully, cut through the punishing taboo around periods. More importantly, it becomes a small step to
stake claim on the city — on behalf of its women.
1. How is the denial of a woman’s body and its natural bodily urges written into the design of the city itself?
(a) By making the women feel unwanted.
(b) By locking women’s toilets at night.
(c) By making more number of toilets for men.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
2. What does the author refer to in the phrase “refreshing reimagination”?

(a) Creation of a period room in a slum.
(b) Slums are areas of unhygienic people.
(c) Creation of a period room in place of a toilet for women.
(d) Mumbai Municipal Corporation’s attempt at honouring women.
3. What is the most suitable antonym for the word ‘replicate’?

(a) Copy (b) Emulate (c) Inculcate (d) Vary
4. Identify the tone of the author in the phrase “luxury of a private toilet”.
(a) Hypocrisy (b) Irony (c) Agony (d) Antagonism
5. Which of the following statements does not support the need for a period room in Mumbai?
(a) A study carried out by an NGO that assisted with the project found that 56 per cent of girl students in
the area had no access to clean toilets in schools.
(b) Women are able to claim stake to a city that belongs to them as well.
(c) There are fewer toilets for women than for men in Mumbai.
(d) Women’s toilets remain locked in the evenings.
6. Why is it so important to make period rooms in community toilets?

(a) Community toilets are mostly frequented by women.
(b) Community toilets are within the jurisdiction of the Municipal Corporation.
(c) Community toilets will accelerate the removal of taboo around menstruation.
(d) Community toilets are protected under the law.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 2 of 36

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): In November 2016, days after Donald Trump was elected US President, Facebook
Founder and CEO Mark Zuckerberg rejected the idea that content on the company’s platforms influenced
elections. “I think it’s a pretty crazy idea… Voters make decisions based on their lived experiences,” he
said. On January 6, after the US Capitol was stormed by Trump supporters, Facebook, Twitter, Snapchat
and Twitch suspended the president’s account to prevent him, ostensibly, from inciting more violence.
The move is too little, and coming after a mob egged on by the US President laid siege to the Capitol, it
is too late. In times when “lived experiences” are increasingly online, the social media giants have been
much too slow in acknowledging their responsibility and addressing real-world consequences.
Trump has a long record of sharing falsehoods and bigotry on social media, beginning with his assertions
that his predecessor Barack Obama was not born in the US, to sharing anti-Muslim and White
supremacist posts and videos. As recently as the Black Lives Matter protests last year, he tweeted,
“when looting starts, shooting starts”. Trump and his falsehoods, though, are only a part of a larger digital
ecosystem that has devalued facts, created “communities” of conspiracy theorists and, at times, even
contributed to violence. Long before the pro-Trump mob stormed the Capitol, WhatsApp and Facebook
have been used to pedal falsehoods and incite mobs in countries like Burma and Sri Lanka. These
outcomes are an unfortunate consequence of the algorithms and user experience and user interface that
follow a “persuasive design” model. In essence, the algorithm is meant to keep users glued to the
screen and get more of the same. For example, someone watching “flat earth” videos, or “the history of
forced conversion in India” or, more recently, the bizarre conspiracy theories about a film star’s suicide,
could well be led to something like a QAnon page (a group that believes Trump is saving the US
government from a corporate “deep state”) or to fake news that whips up prejudice against minority
groups.
While Big Tech has moved forward from complete denial of its culpability — under pressure from
governments and the threat of external regulation — and instituted some measures for fact-checking and
verifying sources, the fundamental structure of its platforms remains unaltered. Companies must confront
the challenge and address it at the level of the technology, urgently. But the responsibility for a political
discourse that respects facts and decency cannot just be on tech companies. Political parties, for
instance, need to be held accountable for their leaders’ and members’ conduct. Blocking a loudmouth or
despot or leader of a mob is hardly the answer.
7. Why is the move described as “too little” by the author?

(a) The damage has already been done.
(b) Trump is more popular than Biden and cannot be stopped even after suspending his social media
accounts.
(c) Mere suspension of Trump’s social media accounts will not remedy the violence and anarchy already
caused due to him and his supporters.
(d) Trump and his followers should have been in jail by now.
8. Which of the following supports Zuckerberg’s statement about voters?

(a) The lived experiences are increasingly being experienced online.
(b) Voters do not give social media that much importance.
(c) Voters are rational people who give daily experiences more importance.
(d) Social media platforms are merely for the purpose of entertainment.
9. Even though it is too little, why where Trump’s social media accounts suspended?
(a) Trump has a long record of sharing falsehoods on social media.
(b) Trump has no regard for the truth or public opinion.
(c) Trump wants to mobilise gangsters in his favour and wreak havoc in America.
(d) Previous fabricated social media posts of Trump have contributed to violence.

MOCK CLAT #17
10. What is the “persuasive design” model in the context of social media?
(a) Making the users believe in falsehoods using mild coercion.
(b) Providing users with similar content to their liking so they are kept hooked on.
(c) Social media being used as a tool to mobilise public opinion.
(d) Social media’s dark underbelly being exposed.
11. Which of the following is closest in meaning to ‘despot’?

(a) Dictator (b) Loudmouth (c) Glutton (d) Victim
12. Which of the following words is a suitable antonym of ‘culpable’?

(a) Guilty (b) Exculpatory (c) Culture (d) Innocent
Passage (Q.13-Q.19):External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar’s three-day visit to Sri Lanka was significant
not for any specific outcomes but for what was achieved in political and diplomatic messaging by both
sides. Jaishankar’s reminder in Colombo that the 13th Amendment is essential to ethnic reconciliation
came at a time when powerful Sri Lankan politicians close to President Gotabaya Rajapaksa and his
brother, Prime Minister Mahinda Rajapaksa, are calling for its scrapping. The cancellation of elections to
the provincial councils, apparently due to a spike in COVID-19 cases, is being viewed as a first step
towards this end. Jaishankar’s message, that India still sees the 1987 amendment — the constitutional
basis for the provincial councils — as central to addressing Tamil political aspirations came within days of
a statement by the DMK’s T R Balu, just as Tamil Nadu hits its election season, asking Prime Minister
Narendra Modi to ensure that the provincial council system remains intact. Sri Lankan Tamils themselves
no longer set that much store by India’s or Tamil Nadu’s pronouncements on their problems. Delhi’s
waning influence in Sri Lanka is an open secret. Yet, it would be a diplomatic and political
embarrassment for the Narendra Modi government if the 13th Amendment was indeed abolished.
Delhi’s other challenge in Sri Lanka at this point is to operationalise a 2019 agreement to develop along
with Japan a container terminal at Colombo Port, where China has a controlling stake in the adjoining
Colombo International Container Terminal. The India-Japan-Sri Lanka agreement had triggered a strike
at the port ahead of last year’s parliamentary election, resolved only after assurances from the Rajapaksa
brothers that it would not be handed over to foreign developers. During the EAM’s visit, the prime minister
and president sent out mixed signals amid calls not to let the port fall victim to geopolitical rivalries in the
Indian Ocean.
Sri Lanka, for its part, has two main demands from India at this time. One, it wants supplies of the anti-
COVID vaccine. Its other request for a $1 bn currency swap has been pending since last year. India has
already said it will prioritise vaccine supplies to its neighbours and should have no problem in accepting
Rajapaksa’s request quickly on humanitarian grounds — it can only help Delhi’s image in that country. As
for the currency swap, its use as a bargaining chip can last only as long as Colombo does not look
elsewhere for help.
13. What is the 13th amendment in reference to?

(a) The rights of Tamil people in India.
(b) The rights of Tamil Sri Lankans with respect to elections in provincial councils.
(c) The rights of Sinhala people of Sri Lanka.
(d) The rights of Tamils in India who have family in Sri Lanka.
14. Why do the Sri Lankan leaders want to scrap the 13th amendment?
(a) They do not want to address Tamil political aspirations in Sri Lanka.
(b) They do not want Sri Lankan politics to emulate India’s.
(c) They do not wish for intervention from India.
(d) They do not want ethnic reconciliation.

MOCK CLAT #17
15. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?
(a) The 13th amendment came out in 1987.
(b) The system of provincial councils is prevalent in India.
(c) S. Jaishankar’s visit to Sri Lanka did not have a specified outcome.
(d) India has accepted its diminishing influence over Sri Lanka.
16. What can be used as a bargaining chip by India?

(a) Sri Lanka’s need for the currency swap can be used as leverage by India.
(b) The need for the vaccine by Sri Lanka.
(c) The need for loans and other supplies by Sri Lanka.
(d) The currencies swap agreement that Sri Lanka wishes India to enter into.
17. What is the most suitable antonym for ‘waning’?

(a) Declining (b) Diminishing (c) Waxing (d) Alleviating
18. Which of the following is a synonym of ‘reconciliation’?

(a) Settlement (b) Congeniality (c) Amiability (d) Affability
19. The reference to ‘prime minister and president’ in the second paragraph of the passage is to:
(a) The Indian Prime Minister and the Sri Lankan President
(b) The Sri Lankan PM and the Indian President
(c) The Rajpaksa brothers
(d) The Chinese Premier and the Sri Lankan PM
Passage (Q.20-Q.25): The United States of America just about managed to retrieve itself from the
brink. Joe Biden’s 302-232 win in the US Congress against the outgoing Donald Trump team may have
come as a huge sigh of relief for a kind of global polity. Not just in Washington DC, which is, almost
unimaginably, still under curfew. Democratic-minded people across the world are invested in this.
A siege of the famed Capitol Hill of the ‘world’s oldest democracy’ is a rather unprecedented and
shocking level of mayhem, which does get described by the toll of four dead and a few more injured. That
we live in unusual times, what with the pandemic, need not be restated. But the unsettling effect on the
‘developed world’ is not something we have seen before.
Just how much a virus has unspooled the established world order, as obtained from the last century, is a
revelation that must be read with the scenes of those mobs. A semblance of order was restored, and a
Biden victory decisively certified. A relatively sobered Trump thereafter conceded defeat and agreed to
an ‘orderly transition’ on January 20, when Biden will formally take over as POTUS.
It came with trademark Trumpisms though—on how ‘facts bore out’ the reasons why he ‘disagreed with
the outcome of the elections’. Or him calling the rioters as “very special”, the fact that there were ones
who were still mesmerised by Trumpism, still willing to believe that his first term was the ‘greatest’ in US
history! That politics clearly lives. The speculation now is whether he would run again in 2024.
Whether Biden and Kamala Harris can bring America and its foreign policy out of the chaos of the Trump
era, only time will show. But for the world and for democracy itself, today’s events in America are a
lesson, an illustration of what a combination of demagoguery and ignorance can do to even a mighty
nation. And that what we need to come out of this is, again, simply, a belief in democracy.
20. What does the phrase ‘retrieve itself from the brink’ mean?
(a) To bury the hatchet (b) To be on enemy lines
(c) To give a hard time (d) To have a close shave
21. Why are democratic minded people across the world invested in the curfew in D.C.?
(a) It has had an unsettling effect on the ‘developed world’.
(b) America is the world’s oldest democracy.
(c) The events in DC are grave and shocking to everyone.

MOCK CLAT #17
(d) It is an illustration of what ignorance does to a powerful democratic nation, which if left unchecked
could be replicated in other democracies as well.
22. What is the meaning of the word ‘demagoguery’?

(a) Democracy (b) Rabble-rousing (c) Badmouthing (d) Appeal
23. How did the siege at Capitol Hill have an unsettling effect on the developed world?
(a) It has unspooled world order.
(b) It has aggravated the effect of the Pandemic.
(c) It has given a free hand to Trump supporters.
(d) The siege has led to dilution of faith in free and fair elections in a democracy.
24. What does the author refer to by the phrase ‘trademark Trumpism’?
(a) Trump’s continuous blabber on his social media accounts.
(b) Trump’s attempt to undermine Joe Biden’s victory.
(c) Trump’s statements justifying his defeat and that he did not win due to some conspiracy against him.
(d) Engagement in violence and protest despite a certified victory for Biden.
25. Why does Trump call the rioters at Capitol Hill ‘very special’?
(a) Trump is strengthened by their support towards him.
(b) Trump is known to favour violence.
(c) Trump is known to have soft corner for his supporters.
(d) They supported him despite his defeat and are therefore special.
Passage (Q.26-Q.32): A corporate war among pharmaceutical vaccine producers is the last thing a
Covid-weary population needs after tens of thousands of deaths and millions waiting impatiently to take a
safety jab. In this context, Adar Poonawalla, CEO of Serum Institute, which is partnering to produce the
AstraZeneca vaccine in India, had named three vaccines as efficient, while labelling others safe “just like
water”. Taking umbrage, Bharat Biotech CMD Krishna Ella hit back at “doubters” in a press conference,
claiming its vaccine Covaxin was ready for use.
By the same measure, the two companies must be congratulated for burying the hatchet on Tuesday. A
joint statement said it was more important “to save lives” and they promised to work together “for a
smooth rollout”. Meanwhile, there are concerns highlighted by patient groups that while efficacy data was
not available for Bharat Biotech’s Covaxin till December 30, it had been hurriedly given the go-ahead on
January 2. The health department would do well to be slow rather than sloppy in green-lighting
‘emergency-use’ vaccines.
Lives are at stake and the country’s mass immunisation programme is too big to go wrong. At the same
time, the demand for millions of doses cannot be met by one or two companies. Pricing issues too
between the government and the Serum Institute, which is going to market AstraZeneca’s Covishield,
have caused delays and it appears a large stock of 70 million doses has built up as the stalemate
continued. The spat has cost us precious time, when the country is struggling with over 10 million
infections.
Three days ago it appears the matter was resolved after Serum Institute agreed to sell a 100 million
doses to the government at a special price of Rs 200 a unit. When countries like the US and UK are fully
into their vaccination programme, it is not right that deployment and supply arrangements are held up
because of pricing issues. The companies involved cannot be allowed to profiteer; at the same time, the
government has to agree to spend the extra rupee to save lives.
26. What does the author refer to by the phrase ‘safety jab’?
(a) An injection of the vaccine. (b) A Covid free environment.
(c) A mask free environment. (d) A safe and effective vaccine.

MOCK CLAT #17
27. Why did Bharat Biotech CMD Krishna Ella take offense at Adar Poonawala’s comment?
(a) Bharat Biotech and the Serum Institute are engaged in a corporate war.
(b) Poonawala referred to Ella’s vaccine as safe like water, as water does not cure anything and is
potentially useless.
(c) Krishna Ella wants to promote his vaccine at the cost of Poonawala’s.
(d) The Serum Institute has been victorious in producing an efficient vaccine and CMD Ella is resentful of
the same.
28. How did the two companies bury the hatchet?

(a) They realised that a corporate war will only diminish their profits.
(b) They realised that corporate war is not something India needs right now.
(c) They issued a joint statement in favour of public interest.
(d) They promised not to be obstacles of one another.
29. Why should the health department be ‘slow rather than sloppy’?
(a) The health department should not favour one pharmacological company over another.
(b) Millions of lives are at stake due to the Pandemic and any ill effect of the vaccine will affect human life
directly.
(c) It is better to be safe rather than sorry.
(d) Prevention is always better than cure.
30. What does phrase ‘cost precious time’ mean?

(a) Unnecessary wait (b) Caused unnecessary expense
(c) Wasting time (d) None of the above
31. What is the most suitable antonym for the word ‘umbrage’?
(a) Offense (b) Annoyance (c) Anger (d) Reconciliation
32. The ‘stalemate’ as referred to in the passage is between:

(a) The central and state governments
(b) The government and Bharat Biotech
(c) Bharat Biotech and Serum Institute
(d) The government and Serum Institute

MOCK CLAT #17
SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
Directions (Q.33–Q.67): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.33-Q.38): Britain and the European Union struck a hard-fought trade agreement on 31 st Dec
2020, settling a bitter divorce that stretched over more than four years and setting the terms for a post-
Brexit future as close neighbours living apart.
The deal, which must be ratified by the British and European Parliaments, came together in Brussels
after 11 months of grinding negotiations, culminating in a last-minute haggle over fishing rights that
stretched into Christmas Eve, just a week before a year-end deadline.
Despite running to thousands of pages, the agreement leaves critical parts of the relationship to be
worked out later. And it will not prevent some disruption to trade across the English Channel, since British
exports will still be subjected to some border checks, adding costs for companies and causing potential
delays at ports.
But it is nonetheless a landmark in the long-running Brexit drama — the bookend to Britain’s departure
from the European Union in January and a blueprint for how the two sides will coexist after severing deep
ties built over a 47-year relationship. A failure to come to terms could have left Britain and the European
Union in a bitter standoff, poisoning relations for years to come.
“It was a long and winding road, but we have got a good deal to show for it,” said [1], the president of the
European Commission, the bloc’s executive arm. “This moment marks the end of a long voyage.”
Source: https://www.nytimes.com/2020/12/24/world/europe/brexit-trade-deal-uk-eu.html
33. Which of the following will replace [1] in the passage?

(a) Boris Johnson (b) Ursula von der Leyen
(c) Joseph Deiss (d) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
34. When was European Union founded?

(a) 1975 (b) 1947 (c) 1993 (d) 2000
35. How many countries are there in European Union after Brexit?
(a) 28 (b) 27 (c) 29 (d) 26
36. Where are is HQ of European Union located?

(a) Paris, France (b) Madrid, Spain
(c) Stockholm, Sweden (d) Brussels, Belgium
37. What was the foundational treaty of European Union?

(a) Treaty of Paris (b) Treaty of Maastricht
(c) Treaty of Rome (d) Treaty of Versailles
38. Which of the following countries does not constitute United Kingdom?
(a) Northern Ireland (b) Scotland (c) Wales (d) Norway
Passage (Q.39-Q.43): The decision of the Centre to not hold the Winter Session of parliament,
ostensibly on account of the COVID-19 pandemic, has been criticised by sections of the opposition.
Critics have said that the BJP government has done so to avoid discussions around the ongoing farmers
agitation, the economic crisis facing the country, the pandemic and the crisis on the China border.
Normally, there are three sessions – the [1] session, held from end of January to early April; the ……,
from July to August, and the ….. from November to December. So two sessions are related to the season
and one is related to the Budget. That is how the sessions are planned.
Union parliamentary affairs minister, [2] had cited concerns around COVID-19 as the primary reason for
not having the session. It was stated that several MPs and parliament officials who had attended the
Monsoon Session held over 10 days from September 14 had tested positive for the novel coronavirus.
Besides, three MPs and Union minister of state for railways also died after contracting the virus.
Source: https://thewire.in/government/parliament-winter-session-constitution-pdt-achary

MOCK CLAT #17

(a) Monsoon (b) Winter (c) Budget (d) Joint session

(a) Prahlad Patel (b) Giriraj Singh
(c) Mukhtar abbas Naqvi (d) Pralhad Joshi
41. Under which article of the constitution does Joint session or Joint sitting of Parliament is called?
(a) 108 (b) 109 (c) 111 (d) 112
42. Which session of the Parliament is the shortest of all?

(a) Budget (b) Winter (c) Summer (d) Monsoon
43. Which of the following statements regarding Money bills is correct?

SI: Money bills can be presented before Rajya Sabha.
SII: Money bills cannot be presented before the Joint sitting of the Parliament.
(a) Statement I is true but II is false.
(b) Statement II is true but I is false.
(c) Both the statements are true.
(d) Both the statements are false.
Passage (Q.44-Q.48): Nepal President, [1], dissolved the House of Representatives on the advice of
Prime Minister [2], who claimed that he had lost majority within the ruling party, Nepal Communist Party
(NCP). The next elections will be held in March-April 2021 – less than three years after the communist
electoral alliance got a majority in the polls.
“We have noted the recent political development in Nepal. These are internal matters for Nepal to decide
as per its democratic processes. As a neighbour and well-wisher, India will continue to support Nepal and
its people in moving forward on the path of peace, prosperity and development,” said Ministry of External
Affairs (MEA) spokesperson Anurag Srivastava at the weekly online briefing on Thursday.
Oli’s decision to go for snap elections was a result of a long-standing conflict with Pushpa ‘Prachanda’
Kamal Dahal over power-sharing in the party. It stemmed from the merger of Oli’s CPN-UML and
Prachanda’s CPN (Maoist Centre) to form the NCP after the 2017 victory.
Source: https://thewire.in/external-affairs/nepals-political-crisis-is-their-internal-matter-mea

(a) Ram Baran Yadav (b) Bidya Devi Bhandari
(c) Sher Bahadur Deuba (d) Chandrika Bandaranaike

(a) Madhav Kumar Nepal (b) Sushil Koirala
(c) Sher Bahadur Deoba (d) KP Sharma Oli
46. In which year did Nepal become a Federal Democratic Republic?

(a) 2008 (b) 2000 (c) 2004 (d) 2006
47. Who is the Indian ambassador to Nepal?

(a) Subramanyam Jaishankar (b) Vinay Mohan Kwatra
(c) Vikram Kumar Doraiswami (d) Ajay Bisaria
48. Which Paramilitary force guards the border between India and Nepal?
(a) Border Security Force (b) Into-tibetan Border Police
(c) Rashtriya Rifles (d) Sashastra Seema Bal

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.49-Q.53): A delegation from the Taliban arrived in the Qatar’s capital [1] to begin talks with
delegates from the Afghan republic in Kabul. The goal is to reach a peace accord to end the
world’s deadliest war.
The long-delayed talks come after an agreement in February between the US and the Taliban, which
included a conditional the United States troop withdrawal within 14 months, a controversial prisoner swap
and the Taliban’s promise to cut ties with Al-Qaeda.
The hope is that a political settlement could help reduce the likelihood of Afghanistan becoming a safe
haven for terrorists once the US withdraws its troops. But the peace talks, known as the intra-Afghan
negotiations, have a rocky road to success. Apart from fundamental differences on the type of post-
peace government and women’s rights, the challenge will be whether any agreement on a lasting
ceasefire can be reached until political progress is made.
Source: https://scroll.in/article/972562/before-the-us-and-taliban-can-strike-a-peace-deal-they-will-have-
to-confront-these-tricky-issues

(a) Doha (b) Al Khalifat (c) Manama (d) Dukhan
50. The U.S., together with its NATO allies, launched the United States invasion of Afghanistan. The mission
was code named as?
(a) Operation Blue Freedom (b) Operation Rolling Thunder
(c) Operation Barbarossa (d) Operation Enduring Freedom
51. Osama Bin Laden, who took the responsibility for the terrorist attacks of 9/11, belonged to which terrorist
organisation?
(a) Taliban (b) Al-queda
(c) Jaish-e-Mohammad (d) ISIS
52. In which of the following cities did Osama Bin Laden shot dead by the famous Navy Seals of USA?
(a) Kabul, Afghanistan (b) Kandahar, Afghanistan
(c) Lahore, Pakistan (d) Abbottabad, Pakistan
53. Who is the President of Afghanistan?
(a) Ashraf Ghani (b) Recep tayyip Erdogan
(c) Barham Salih (d) Khalifa Bin Zayed Al Nahyan
Passage (Q.54-Q.58): U.S. President Donald Trump signed into law a Bill which calls for establishing a
U.S. consulate in Tibet and building an international coalition to ensure that the next Dalai Lama is
appointed solely by the Tibetan Buddhist community without China’s interference.
The Tibetan Policy and Support Act of 2020 modifies and re-authorises various programmes and
provisions related to Tibet. The U.S. Senate last week unanimously passed the Bill despite [1] protest.
It authorises assistance to non-governmental organisations in support of Tibetan communities in Tibet;
and places restrictions on new Chinese consulates in the United States until a U.S. consulate has been
established in Lhasa, Tibet.
Beijing views the 14th Dalai Lama as a “separatist” working to split Tibet from China. Some of the
prominent measures approved by the U.S. Congress include imposing sanctions on Chinese officials,
including travel restrictions. Noting that the 14th Dalai Lama advocates the Middle Way Approach, which
seeks genuine autonomy for the six million Tibetans in Tibet, the new law says the Dalai Lama oversaw a
process of democratisation within the Tibetan polity and devolved his political responsibilities to the 23
elected representatives of the Tibetan people in exile in 2011.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/trump-signs-tibet-policy-to-preempt-chinese-move-
on-dalai-lamas-succession/article33435635.ece
54. During the 1959 Tibetan uprising, the Dalai Lama escaped to a country, where he currently lives in exile.
Name the Country.
(a) Nepal (b) Bhutan (c) Mongolia (d) India

MOCK CLAT #17
55. Which of the following country will replace by [1] in the passage?
(a) Tibet’s (b) India’s (c) China’s (d) Nepal’s
56. In which year the Dalai Lama was awarded the Noble Peace Prize?
(a) 1979 (b) 1989 (c) 1999 (d) 2009
57. Which of the following statements are correct?

SI:The Tibetan Policy and Support Act of 2020, authorises assistance to non-governmental organisations
in support of Tibetan communities in Tibet;
SII: It places restrictions on new Chinese consulates in the United States until a U.S. consulate has been
established in Lhasa.
(a) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.
(b) Statement II is correct but statement I is false.
(c) Both are correct.
(d) Both are false.
58. What is the currency of China known as?

(a) Yen (b) Renminbi (c) Togrog (d) Baht
Passage (Q.59-Q.63): The Centre has finally decided to bite the bullet by instituting major reforms in the
labour and agriculture sectors. The reforms were announced piggy-backing on the COVID-19 relief
package. Parliament has passed three bills on agriculture reform. This has evoked protests, largely in
Punjab and Haryana. Unfortunately, politics in India has been played in the name of the farmer. Parties
across the political spectrum have, at some point of time or other, advocated the reversal of the archaic
mandi system. However, some parties continue to decry the steps taken.
Taking recourse to Article 254 of the Constitution, the Punjab government has passed its own bills to
nullify some provisions of the central acts. Similar action by the Chhattisgarh and Rajasthan governments
seems to be on the anvil. Let us analyse the legal implications of this action and how it might impact
farmers in these states.
59. Agriculture is a subject of which of the following list under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of
India?
(a) Union List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) None of the above
60. Which article of the Constitution of India divides the legislative powers between the Union and the State?
(a) Article 245 (b) Article 246 (c) Article 248 (d) Article 252
61. Which of the following is not one of the bills against which the farmers are protesting?
(a) Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Act
(b) The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act
(c) The Farmers (Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price Assurance and Farm Services Act
(d) The Farmers Debt and borrowings Regulation Act.
62. Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) is established by:

(a) State Governments (b) NABARD
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs (d) Central Government
63. Which Minister resigned from his/her post against the three Farm Bills 2020 introduced by the Central
Government?
(a) Prakash Singh Badal (b) Harsimrat Kaur Badal
(c) Capt. Amarinder Singh (d) Manpreet Singh Badal

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.64-Q.67): The new SARS-CoV-2 variant was revealed to be the reason behind the rapid
surge in Covid-19 cases in South and East England. It is being referred to as VUI (Variant Under
Investigation) 202012/01, or the B.1.1.7 lineage.
The variant was identified in genomic surveillance by COVID-19 Genomics UK (COG-UK), a consortium
that analyses genome sequencing data from the UK. COG-UK is the largest contributor to the global
Covid-19 database GISAID.
The variant is the result of multiple mutations in the [1] of the novel coronavirus SARS-CoV-2, as well as
mutations in other genomic regions of the RNA virus. Preliminary analysis suggests that it is more
transmissible than previously circulating variants. COG-UK identified one of these mutations as “N501Y”,
in an area of the spike protein that binds to a key protein in the human cell, the ACE2 receptor. This was
an indication that the alterations may, theoretically, result in the virus becoming more infectious. “Efforts
are underway to confirm whether or not any of these mutations are contributing to increased
transmission,” the consortium said.
64. Which of the following will replace [1] in the above passage?
(a) RNA sequence (b) Spike protein (c) D-Cell (d) T-Cell
65. Name a clinical trial in which blood is transfused from recovered COVID-19 patients to a coronavirus
patient who is in critical condition?
(a) Plasma Therapy (b) Solidarity (c) Remdesivir (d) Hydroxychloroquine
66. From where coronavirus got its name?

(a) Due to their crown-like projections.
(b) Due to their leaf-like projections.
(c) Due to their surface structure of bricks.
(d) None of the above
67. The first case of novel coronavirus was identified in .....

(a) Beijing (b) Shanghai (c) Wuhan, Hubei (d) Tianjin

MOCK CLAT #17
SECTION – C :LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.68 – Q.105): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.68 – Q.73): Mid-August, the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (2019 Act) received
Presidential assent and came into effect. Notably, the 2019 Act, repeals the previous consumer
protection legislation which had been in effect since 1986 (1986 Act). While using the same phrase in its
preamble, “to provide for better protection of the interests of consumers”; the new act has substantially
enhanced the scope of protection afforded to consumers, by bringing within its purview advertising
claims, endorsements and product liability.
The definition of “consumer” under the 2019 Act includes those who make purchases online.
Endorsement of goods and services, normally done by celebrities, are also covered within the ambit of
the 2019 Act. In fact, an additional onus has been placed on endorsers, apart from manufacturers and
service providers, to prevent false or misleading advertisements. In contrast to the 1986 Act, the
definition of “goods” has been amended to include “food” as defined in the Food Safety and Standards
Act, 2006.
A significant addition to the 2019 Act is the introduction of “product liability” whereby manufacturers and
sellers of products or services have been made responsible to compensate for any harm caused to a
consumer by defective products, manufactured or sold, or for deficiency in services.
The definition of “unfair trade practices” has been enlarged to include electronic advertising which is
misleading, as well as refusing to take back or withdraw defective goods, or to withdraw or discontinue
deficient services, and to refund the consideration within the period stipulated or in the absence of such
stipulation, within a period of thirty days.
All these changes signify an attempt to create more transparency in the marketplace, through legislative
protection, with a view to ensure that consumer interests are above all else.
[Extracted from ‘Consumer Protection Act 2019: Enhancing Consumer Rights’ by SatvikVarma from Bar
& Bench https://www.barandbench.com/columns/consumer-protection-act-2019-enhancing-consumer-
rights#:~:text=Bar%20%26%20Bench&text=The%202019%20Consumer%20Protection%20Act,without%
20proposing%20adequate%20administrative%20safeguards.]
68. KiratVohli is a famous cricketer who endorses the energy drink ‘Bluebull’. The drink claims to increase
productivity, concentration and instantly uplift the consumer’s mood. X, an avid fan of Kirat buys the drink
and does not experience any of the claimed results. Does he have a case under the given Act?
(a) No, because he did not consume the Bluebull for long enough to experience its benefits
(b) No, because he does not fit the definition of ‘consumer’ under the Act
(c) Yes, because he was lied to
(d) Yes, because the product was fake
69. In the same case, if X bought Bluebull from Future Retail, a large wholesale shop after watching Kirat’s
advertisement on television, who is liable under the Act?
(a) Kirat and Bluebull Co.
(b) Kirat and Future Retail
(c) Bluebull Co.
(d) Kirat, Future Retail and Bluebull Co.
70. Birbal orders a veg biryani from an online food platform called Trimato. When he received the order, he
found that the biryani had pieces of chicken in it. He asked Trimato for a refund but they refused. Can
Birbal sue Trimato?
(a) No, because Biryani is a food item which is not covered under the Act
(b) Yes, because online food platforms are liable to give him a refund for the deficient services
(c) Yes, because it is Trimato’s fault that they gave him the wrong order
(d) No, because online food platforms do not fall in the purview of the Act

MOCK CLAT #17
71. To seek admission in a medical coaching institute, Farida was made to deposit a lump sum fee for two
years within the first six months. Farida decided to leave the course midway because the quality of
services provided at the institute was deficient and subpar. She asked for a refund of the remaining
amount. The institute refused. Based on your reading of the passage, can the institute be sued?
(a) Farida cannot sue the institute because education is not a service
(b) Farida can sue the institute because they misled her
(c) Farida cannot sue the institute because a student is not a consumer
(d) Farida can sue the institute for a refund
72. Donna and Steve were at a café in Glasgow. Steve ordered and paid for her drink. The cafe purchased
the product from the manufacturer. The ginger beer came in a Dark bottle, and the contents were not
visible from the outside. Donna drank some of the contents and Steve lifted the bottle to pour the
remainder of the ginger beer into the tumbler. The remains of a decomposed snail dropped out of the
bottle into the tumbler. Who is liable?
(a) No one
(b) The café
(c) The café and manufacturer
(d) The manufacturer
73. A Builder ‘ELF’ launched a residential project in Gurunagar. H, a Flat Purchaser entered into an
Agreement with ELF to purchase an apartment in the said project. ELF was to make all efforts to apply
for the Occupancy Certificate within 39 months from the date of agreement and offer possession of the
flat to H. ELF failed to apply for the Occupancy Certificate in the given time and also did not allow H a
refund on his payment. Subsequently H approached the National Consumer Forum. Based on your
reading of the passage, what do you think was held by the Court?
(a) ELF made deficiency of service by not applying for the Certificate in the requisite time
(b) H was entitled to seek refund of the money deposited along with compensation.
(c) ELF’s conduct constituted an ‘unfair trade practices’ under the Act
(d) All of the above
Passage (Q.74 – Q.77): The anti-defection law seeks to provide a stable government by ensuring that
legislators do not switch sides.
‘Aaya Ram Gaya Ram’ was a phrase that became popular in Indian politics after a Haryana MLA Gaya
Lal changed his party thrice within the same day in 1967. The anti-defection law sought to prevent such
political defections which may be due to reward of office or other similar considerations.
The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process by wh ich
legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on
a petition by any other member of the House. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he
either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership
on a vote. This implies that a legislator defying the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of
the House. The law applies to both Parliament and state assemblies.
However, the law is not without exceptions. Legislators may change their party without the risk of
disqualification in certain circumstances. The law allows a party to merge with or into another party
provided that at least two-thirds of its legislators are in favour of the merger. In such a scenario, neither
the members who decide to merge, nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.
The phrase ‘Voluntarily gives up his membership’ has a wider connotation than resignation. The law
provides for a member to be disqualified if he ‘voluntarily gives up his membership’. However, the
Supreme Court has interpreted that in the absence of a formal resignation by the member, the giving up
of membership can be inferred by his conduct.
[Extracted with minor revisions from ‘The Anti-Defection Law Explained’ by Vibhor Relhan in prsindia.org
https://www.prsindia.org/theprsblog/anti-defection-law-explained]

MOCK CLAT #17
74. Jayanti Lal is a minister of the Dilli Janta Party (DJP). The DJP brings out a bill which makes it difficult for
certain minorities to acquire citizenship. When the bill is up for voting, Jayanti Lal votes against the law.
Next day, he doesn’t come to the Parliament. Has he defected?
(a) Yes, because he defied the party by voting against the bill
(b) No, because as a legislator he has a choice in how to exercise his vote
(c) Yes, because he party policy is above his personal vote
(d) No, because he was never asked to vote in favour of the bill only
75. In the same situation, the party whip has asked the members of DJP to support this historic bill that would
strengthen the national character of their country. At the time of casting vote, Jayanti Lal abstains. Can
he be disqualified?
(a) Yes, because abstention amounts to violation of party policy
(b) Yes, because abstention amounts to defiance of the party whip
(c) Yes, because abstention is not allowed in the house
(d) Yes, because abstention is illegal
76. Sahul Sandhi is a member of the Indian National Party (INP). He asks Tony to leave DJP and offers him
a chance to contest elections from his constituency of Varanasi from INP. Tony offers a resignation letter
to the DJP head. DJP refuses to accept the resignation letter. Tony starts attending INP meetings while
still representing his old constituency in the Parliament. Is he in violation of the anti-defection law?
(a) Yes, because he started attending INP meetings even though his resignation from DJP was not
accepted
(b) Yes, because he started attending INP meetings before the next elections
(c) Yes, because his conduct shows that he has voluntarily given up the membership of his party
(d) Yes, because the act of sending a resignation shows that he likes INP better
77. What could be the possible drawbacks of the anti-defection law?

(a) Legislators are encouraged to change their parties frequently
(b) Legislators cannot change their policy even if the party policy goes against the concerns of the voters
in their constituency
(c) It makes legislators a tool in the hands of the Speaker of the house
(d) Legislators are forced to keep quiet on important issues and cannot give an opinion on any matter in
party meets
Passage (Q.78 – Q.82): In a recent matter on Workmen’s Compensation, an application for

compensation was filed by mother of the deceased, who worked as a lorry driver. The applicant
contended that when the lorry reached Surat, the deceased felt severe stomach pain and he was rushed
to the hospital for treatment, where he died on the same day. The claim for compensation was made after
seven years. A separate delay petition was also filed along with claim which pleaded that the delay was
because the applicants were illiterate, sick, poor and had to depend on intermediaries, who did not give
proper advice.
The Commissioner, while condoning the delay held that the applicant had a legal claim for compensation
and accordingly, passed an order for compensation of Rs 4,11,900 with interest against the respondents.
Subsequently, the respondents filed for an appeal. It was submitted that according to the Employee’s
Compensation Act, 1923 the claim for compensation ought to be filed within two years of the cause of
action.
In appeal, the Court observed that the Commissioner was not justified in condoning of delay and there
must be a sufficient cause and evidence to do so. More importantly, on the question of cause of death,
the Court noticed that in the post-mortem report, the final cause of death was shown as food poisoning.
Hence, considering this evidence, it was held that such death could not be said to be causally connected
with the work in which the deceased was engaged. The Court stated that, unless stomach pain had
causal connection or association with the work in which the deceased was employed, it cannot be
reckoned to be an accident to fasten liability on the employer for payment of compensation. Hence, the
decision was ordered to be set aside.

MOCK CLAT #17
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Unless injury complained of had connection with employment in which
deceased was engaged, he cannot make a legal claim for compensation; HC reiterates legal position’
published 29 Dec 2020 on scconline.com,
https://www.scconline.com/blog/post/2020/12/29/ker-hc-unless-injury-complained-of-had-connection-with-
employment-in-which-deceased-was-engaged-he-cannot-make-a-legal-claim-for-compensation-hc-
reiterates-legal-position/]
78. Soham had been employed with a mining company since 12 years. His job involved spending more than
12 hours a day deep into the Earth’s surface, mining for precious minerals. One day when he was on the
job, he suddenly collapsed and died on the spot. His co-workers revealed that he had been coughing a
lot since the past two weeks. Can a legal claim for compensation be made?
(a) No, because his death has no direct connection with his employment
(b) Yes, because mining is a harmful occupation which can cause long term health consequences
(c) No, because he had been coughing for more than two weeks which indicates he may have had some
other illness
(d) Yes, because the coughing can be attributed to spending so much of time in mines which may have
caused his death
79. Soham’s post mortem report revealed that his death was due to a terminal lung disease whose
symptoms include coughing. As per the doctor, the cause of such disease is usually ‘long-term exposure
to harmful chemical fumes and mineral dust’. Is the Company liable for payment of compensation?
(a) Yes, because his terminal lung diseases couldn’t be attributed to mining
(b) Yes, because his death could be attributed to long-term exposure to such compounds
(c) Yes, because mining is an occupation which involves ‘long-term exposure to harmful chemical fumes
and mineral dust’
(d) Yes, because his illness had no connection with the employment he was engaged in
80. X was a daily wage labourer employed in a construction site in Delhi since 1 st June 2014. One day, while
on the job, a large iron rod accidentally fell from an overhead lever from an adjoining construction site
and severely injured X’s leg. He was rushed to the hospital and in order to save the remaining body from
contracting infection, an amputation surgery was performed on 9 th June 2017 which was paid for by the
Company. X did not turn up for work from the next day. Is X eligible to be paid compensation?
(a) No, because his leg injury was not related to the construction work that he was employed in
(b) Yes, because his leg injury no had connection with his employment
(c) Yes, because his injury was caused due to his nature of work
(d) Yes, because his injury was associated with the work he was engaged in
81. X stayed in the hospital for 6 months after the surgery. Even after leaving the hospital, he had to undergo
physiotherapy and other therapies to get used to walking with one leg. He retained all the reports and
receipts of the same. X did not receive any money from anywhere and had no friends or family who could
take care of him. He decided to file a claim for compensation against the company on 13 th June 2019. Is
the Company liable to pay?
(a) Yes, because the injury was causally connected to X’s work
(b) Yes, because there was a sufficient cause of delay
(c) No, because the delay in filing the claim cannot be condoned
(d) No, because there was no sufficient cause of delay
82. Mohan is a traffic police officer. His occupation requires him to manage traffic while standing in the centre
of a busy road. The road is a hotspot for speeding and rash drivers so Mohan has to be extra cautious
and ensure public safety along with traffic management. Mohan was walking back home along the road
after his shift and met with an accident. Can he make a legal claim for compensation?
(a) Yes, because he met with an accident at the road where he was stationed
(b) Yes, because his accident could be attributed to his employment as a traffic police officer
(c) No, because he met with an accident after his shift was over and not while working
(d) No, because the traffic police department is not liable for his accident

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.83 – Q.88):Article 21 which guarantees personal liberty and protects against exploitation,
also includes the Right to Shelter as an implied fundamental right.
The debate around 'Right to shelter' has always been tabled in context with the poor or the vulnerable
class, because they are mostly exploited and neglected by the stake holders. Recently, the Karnataka
High Court directed the State to reconstruct the huts, which were burnt due to misinformation. Poor
migrant labours were evicted from their native shelters and the concerned huts were demolished. This
direction is not only a positive ray for those dwellers, but also another brick into the 'Shelter-
jurisprudence'.
The observations made by the Supreme Court in Chameli Singh v. State of U.P, is pertinent to note,
which was also referred by the Karnataka High Court during the course of hearing. The Supreme Court
had rightly observed that "Shelter for a human being, therefore, is not a mere protection of his life and
limb. It is a home where he has opportunities to grow physically, mentally, intellectually and spiritually.
Right to shelter, therefore, includes adequate living space, safe and decent structure, clean and decent
surroundings, sufficient light, pure air and water, electricity, sanitation and other civic amenities like roads
etc. so as to have easy access to his daily avocation.
In Oliga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation, the court observed that "An equally important facet of
that right is the right to livelihood because, no person can live without the means of living, that is, the
means of livelihood. Deprive a person of his right to livelihood and you shall have deprived him of his
life.”
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Reconstructing The “Right to Shelter”' by Areeb Uddin, published 14 Dec
2020 in livelaw.com
https://www.livelaw.in/columns/shelter-right-to-shelter-karnataka-high-court-article-21-shelter-
jurisprudence-supreme-court-jhuggies-167215]
83. The government placed 20 women in a shelter who were rescued from a trafficking racket. The owner of
the shelter had to conduct some repairs in the main building so he moved the women to the basement of
the building. The basement was a dark place with no electricity, windows or washroom. Is their right to life
being violated?
(a) No, because they have already been provided with shelter
(b) No, because the basement is temporary and the house provides decent living conditions
(c) Yes, because they do not have adequate living conditions
(d) Yes, because they are being deprived of basic sanitation facilities
84. Migrant labourers from a distant state had settled in the town of Singapura. Over the course of 10 years,
as the population grew, a slum colony developed in a public park complete with a makeshift school and
hospital. An eviction notice was passed and the labourers were asked to vacate the park. They were not
given any alternative housing. Is it a violation of Article 21?
(a) Yes, because right to life includes right to shelter
(b) Yes, because they cannot be asked to vacate without being provided with alternative shelter
(c) Yes, because they had been living there for more than 10 years so it was their legal dwelling
(d) No, because they were encroaching on a public space
85. In order to get the park vacated faster, the Municipality offered the slum dwellers housing in a new colony
being developed by the government of Singapura for below poverty line families. The slum dwellers
refused to move because most of them were employed in the construction areas near their present
dwellings, while other worked as house help in the residential areas surrounding the park. The new site
was in a remote, undeveloped part of the town. Can the Municipality force them to vacate the park?
(a) Yes, because their right to life is not being violated since they have been offered alternative housing
(b) Yes, because they are occupying a public space and creating nuisance
(c) No, because their right to shelter is being violated since they will have to move from their established
dwellings
(d) No, because their right to livelihood will be violated

MOCK CLAT #17
86. A government NGO provided safe homes for children in conflict with the law or those in need of
protection. Skill training was provided to make them self-dependent and fit to do small tasks like stitching,
cooking etc. However, over time the number of child residents in the house increased. So, those
residents who were above 18 years of age and had completed basic skills training were asked to vacate
to make space. Is it a violation of their right to shelter?
(a) No, because they have been imparted with skills that enable them to earn and live adequately
(b) No, because right to life exists to protect against exploitation
(c) No, because their personal liberty is being violated
(d) Yes, because if they are asked to vacate they will not have a roof over their heads
87. A dam was being constructed in a village ABC to generate hydro-electricity. The government ordered the
farmers to vacate their lands near the river for the construction of the dam. The farmers were offered
compensation for their lands at market rates. The farmers challenged this saying that their river lands are
important for agriculture which is their only source of income. Can they do so?
(a) Yes, because their right to livelihood is being violated
(b) Yes, because their right to shelter is being violated
(c) Yes, because proving compensation at market rates is not enough
(d) No, because their right to life is not being violated
88. Joginder, a habitual petty offender was sentenced to spend time in a juvenile correction home. The
juvenile home had a triple room occupancy system and shared bathrooms. There was also a spacious
library which had computers. Joginder asked for a personal laptop to attend a free online educational
course but, the same was refused. He says that it is a violation of his right to shelter
(a) No, because he has a home to protect his life and limb
(b) Yes, because a personal laptop is necessary for his right to education
(c) No, because he has adequate space to grow physically, mentally and spiritually
(d) Yes, because a personal laptop is necessary for growing mentally and intellectually
.
Passage (Q.89 – Q.92): The commercialization of traditional and modern sports has paved the way for
online platforms to increase engagement in these activities. There are a host of online games that are
available, from money games such as online poker and fantasy football or cricket, to casual games such
as Candy Crush and Temple Run, and then of course, e-sports such as Counter-Strike or FIFA.
The rise of fantasy sports raises questions about the legality of such activity, that is, whether it would
amount to gambling or betting. Under the Constitution of India, gambling and betting are State subjects,
with each state forming its own laws. Some states, such as Assam, Orissa, and Telangana, prohibit any
gaming activity for money. Other states permit gambling with respect to games of skill.
The expressions “gambling” and “game of skill” have been dealt with by a Constitution Bench of the
Supreme Court in the case of Dr. KR Lakshmanan v. State of Tamil Nadu & Anr. Following the earlier
decisions in RMD Chamarbaugwala & Anr. v. Union of India & Anr. and State of Andhra Pradesh v K
Satyanarayana & Ors, the Court held that gambling is the payment of consideration for a chance to win a
prize. A game may be of chance or of skill, or a combination of both elements. A game of chance is
determined entirely or largely by luck, whereas a game of skill depends on the players superior
knowledge, experience and adroitness. The Court concluded that though an element of chance exists in
a skill game, the element of skill predominates over the element of chance.The Court authoritatively held
that a ‘game of chance’ would fall within the vice of gambling and is prohibited as per state law, whereas
a ‘game of skill’ is distinguishable from gambling and enjoys protection under Article 19(1) (g) of the
Constitution.
Source – [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: “Legal Matrix of Online Fantasy sports in India”, by
Sachit Jolly & Priyanka MP, Bar and Bench, dated 24.11.2020]
https://www.barandbench.com/columns/legal-matrix-of-online-fantasy-sports-in-india-2

MOCK CLAT #17
89. Rohit wants to develop a Gaming App based on the concept of Fantasy Football which would involve
picking players from a real-life match from both sides and forming a team, if the team wins then the user
wins cash prizes amounting to more than INR 1 crore. Is the App that Rohit wants to develop legal?
(a) Yes, since the App being developed involves a Football game which is not a game of chance.
(b) No, since this App is based on a concept which allows its users to Gamble huge amounts of cash
amounting upto 1 crore.
(c) Yes, since the App allows gives freedom to the user to make his own team.
(d) No, since the App is based on the concept of gaming for money which is prohibited in several states.
90. Preeti is a part of an exclusive club which places bets on Horse Racing. Rita also wants to join the club
but she suspects that the club is not legal. Is it legal to form such clubs in India which places bets on
Horse Racing?
(a) No, it is illegal since betting for money is strictly prohibited under Indian law.
(b) Yes, it is legal since betting is a state subject and some states allow betting activity.
(c) No, it is illegal since betting on Horses for money involves a high degree of luck.
(d) Yes, it is legal since betting on horses is not illegal.
91. Riya and Rohan decide to play a friendly game of Rummy for INR 200, Riya is the undefeated champion
of Rummy since she uses certain memory tricks. Is the game of Rummy for stakes between Riya and
Rohan legal?
(a) No, since card games like Rummy depend highly on luck.
(b) Yes, since Riya and Rohan were part of a friendly game and the amount involved was not high.
(c) No, since several states like Telangana, Assam, Orissa etc have prohibited playing games for money
which makes it illegal.
(d) Yes, since playing Rummy for stakes in not prohibited by law.
92. Raghav develops an App ‘Casino – 8’ through this App the users can play casino game like Slots digitally
and also bet for money. The user spins the reels having different type of symbols and wins if he/she gets
the combination of winning symbols on the reel. Is the app being developed by Raghav legal in India?
(a) Yes, since the app being developed by Raghav is based on online gaming concept.
(b) No, since the users of the app are allowed to place bets for money.
(c) Yes, since the game of slots is not totally dependent of chance.
(d) No, since casino games are not regulated and not allowed on India.
Passage (Q.93 – Q.96):For Information like money spent on advertisements, accounts blocked,
audience targeted and other stats, can the Twitter handle of let’s say the Prime Minster – which is not
independent of his prime ministry – be considered a ‘body’ under the definition of ‘public authority’ in the
RTI Act?
Krishna Iyer, J. has defined ‘authority’ from the Law Lexicon by P.RamnathIyer to say that an “Authority is
a body having jurisdiction in certain matters of a public nature”. A Governments Twitter account has the
ability to affect the rights and liabilities of a user which may have far-reaching consequences, and thus be
considered an authority. An authority can also be an ‘instrumentality or agency’ of the State, provided
there is governmental ownership and/or control. In this case, the authority in the form of the
Governmental Twitter account is owned and controlled by the Government. Thus, the Governmental
account can also be considered as an ‘instrumentality or agency/ of the State.
A public authority, as has been held by the Supreme Court as a body which has public or statutory duties
to perform and which performs those duties and carries out its transactions for the benefits of the public
and not for private profit.
A public authority under the RTI Act, 2005 has been defined as follows –
“Public authority” means any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted
a. by or under the Constitution;
b. by any other law made by Parliament;
c. by any other law made by State Legislature;
d. by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government,

MOCK CLAT #17
And includes any –

- body owned, controlled or substantially financed ;
- (ii) non – Government organisation substantially financed,
Directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government”
Therefore the definition can be extended to include an official Twitter account that is owned and
controlled by the Government and is used for discharging public functions.
Source – [Extracted, with edits and revisions, from: Can a Twitter Account of the government be a ‘Public
Authority’ under the RTI Act? By RaghavAhooja, Live Law, dated 26.12.2020]
https://www.livelaw.in/columns/government-twitter-account-rti-public-authority-167664
93. Delhi Cricket Association (DCA) is an autonomous association formed by retired State and National level
Cricket players with the aim to support upcoming talented cricket players. The role of Government of NCT
of Delhi is limited to providing assistance in travel, transportation of sportsmen and sports managers for
matches across the country. Rajat files an RTI against DCA enquiring into the source of funding of the
Association and the salary of Sports Managers and Coaches. The RTI filed by Rajat was rejected and the
reason cited for rejection was that DCA does not fall under the category of a Public Authority under the
RTI Act. Rajat decides to file an appeal against this decision, will he be successful in his Appeal?
(a) Yes, DCA holds a preeminent position and has control over the selection of players to compete at
National level which affects the rights of the players.
(b) No, since DCA is an autonomous association which makes it fall outside the purview of RTI Act.
(c) No, since DCA was not formed by an act of the Legislature or of the State or Central Government.
(d) Yes, since DCA is a Public Authority under RTI Act.
94. ‘Ray of Hope’ is a NGO which helps and support the Senior Citizens in India and also runs an
autonomous Elder Care Home. The State Government, as part of its initiative to support the Senior
Citizens, provides subsidies in Electricity and Water bill to Elder Care Homes including the Elder Care
Home run by Ray of Hope. Will the NGO - Ray of Hope fall under the purview of the RTI Act?
(a) Yes, as the Elder Care Home run by it receives funding from the State Government in form of
Subsidies.
(b) No, as the Elder Care Home is run autonomously and there is no control of the Government.
(c) Yes, as Ray of Hope is a NGO receiving indirect funding from State Government which makes it fall
under the definition of Public Authority under the RTI Act.
(d) No, as Ray of Hope does not fulfil the essentials to be categorized as Public Authority under RTI Act.
95. The Central Government decided to undertake various initiatives in order to provide better Healthcare
facilities to its citizens. As part of this initiative the Government allotted 150 acres of land at a prime
location in Delhi to an autonomous trust for construction of a state of the art hospital with the best
medical amenities. The Trust is solely responsible for the administrative and policy decisions relating to
the Hospital. The salaries of the staff and the running cost of the Hospital is funded solely by the Trust.
The Central Government provides zero funding for running the Hospital and has no control over its
management. Will the Hospital fall under the category of a Public Authority under the RTI Act?
(a) It is a Public Authority since the hospital is set up as a part of a government initiative.
(b) It is not a Public Authority since the hospital is run by an autonomous trust.
(c) It is not a Public Authority since the government does not provide funding and has no control over the
management of the Hospital.
(d) It is a Public Authority since the trust has received funding from the Government.

MOCK CLAT #17
96. Isha is part of a Credit Co-operative Society which provides loans to its members at low interest rates.
The Co-operative society is registered under the Maharashtra Cooperative Societies Act, 1960. As per
the provisions of the act, the authority established under the act has the power to conduct audits and
enquire into the irregularities of a Co-operative society registered under the act. The Co-operative Society
does not receive any funding from the government and there is no say of the government in its
administration. Is the Co-operative Society bound to disclose information under the RTI Act?
(a) Yes, since the Co-operative Society is bound to disclose information for audits and enquiry by the
authority.
(b) No, since the government does not provide any funding directly or indirectly.
(c) No, since Co-operative Societies do not form a part of the definition of Public Authority under the RTI
act.
(d) Yes, since the Co-operative Society is registered under the Maharashtra Cooperative Societies Act,
1960.
Passage (Q.97 – Q.101): Bailment as defined in section 148 of the Indian contract act 1872 is the
delivery of goods by one person to another for some specific purpose, upon a contract that these goods
are to be returned when the specific purpose is complete. The person delivering the goods is known as
bailor and the person to whom goods are delivered is known as bailee. However, if the owner continues
to maintain control over the goods, there is no bailment.
Essentials of Contract of Bailment: (1) The existence of a valid contract is a foremost condition in
bailment which implies that goods are to be returned when the purpose is fulfilled. (2) The whole concept
of bailment revolves around the fact that the goods are delivered for a temporary period and bailee
cannot have permanent possession. Delivery of goods can be done through actual delivery or through
constructive delivery which means that doing something which has the effect of putting the goods in
possession of bailee or any other person authorized by him. (3) The bailee is bound to return the goods
to bailor after the purpose for which it was taken is over. If the person is not returning the goods then it
will not be bailment.
Bailee’s Liabilities: (1) Care to be taken by the bailee (Section 151 and 152) - The bailee is bound to take
as much care of goods bailed to him as a man of ordinary prudence would have under similar
circumstances and therefore, he will not be liable for any loss, destruction or deterioration of the thing
bailed if he has taken care. (2) The duty of the bailee to return the bailed goods (Section 160 and 161) -
Bailee is under the duty to return or deliver goods according to the bailor’s direction as soon as the time
for which goods were bailed has expired. (3) Bailee’s duty to deliver increase profit from the bailed goods
to the bailor (Section 161) - In the absence of any agreement, bailee is bound to deliver to the bailor any
increase in profit or any benefit which may have accrued from the goods bailed.
[Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/what-is-the-contract-of-bailment/ ]
97. Ram was running home for it was raining. He happened to meet Shyam on the way who offered him an
umbrella. Ram took the umbrella and kept it at his home. Decide
(a) This is a contract of bailment as goods have been given for a specific purpose.
(b) This is not a contract of bailment as goods have not been given for a specific purpose
(c) Shyam merely offered help to Ram. He did not intend to enter into a contract
(d) As essentials of a contract are not fulfilled, this cannot be construed to be a contract of bailment.
98. Please refer to the facts above. Ram upon returning the umbrella offered Shyam some money as reward
for his help. Shyam accepted the same. Decide
(a) This is a contract for bailment for all essentials of a contact are now fulfilled
(b) This is not a contract of bailment for both parties only intended to help each other
(c) This is a contract of bailment for goods were delivered for a specific purpose
(d) This is not a contract of bailment. Essentials of a valid contract have not been fulfilled.

MOCK CLAT #17
99. Radhey had given Raman a lighter when he needed to light a cigarette. When Raman went to give the
lighter back, Radhey asked Raman to get its handle repaired. Decide
(a) Radhey can do so since past consideration is valid consideration.
(b) Radhey cannot do so for a contract of bailment requires a bailee to supply goods in the same
condition as they were taken in
(c) Radhey can ask for the same. Raman got help and he needs to pay consideration for the help.
(d) Radhey cannot ask for the same as both of them are friends.
100. Upon giving a football to Jeevan to play, Raone asked him to get a puncture repaired and give it back.
Jeevan used to small repairs on his own usually. He also tried to fix the puncture and damaged the
same. Decide
(a) Jeevan is liable for the deterioration as he did not take reasonable care of the goods
(b) Jeevan is not liable for deterioration of the football. He took care of the football like he did with all
other things of his.
(c) Jeevan is liable for deterioration. He did not fulfill his bailee duties properly
(d) Jeevan is not a bailee as per the fact situation. Thus, he is not liable
101. Please refer to the facts above. Jeevan went to the repair shop and asked the owner to repair the
puncture in the football. However, the cloth of the football was also torn and Jeevan got that repaired too.
Decide
(a) Raone must pay for the cloth repair too as Jeevan paid for it out of his own pocket
(b) Raone may not pay for the cloth repair as Jeevan unauthorisedly used the goods
(c) Raone must pay for the improved football as he only had instructed Jeevan to get it repaired.
(d) Raone may not pay for the cloth for repairing the cloth was not part of the original contract
Passage (Q.102 – Q.105): The Delhi High Court refused to entertain a plea challenging the domicile
reservation in National Law School University of India University, Bangalore. The plea comes after the
Karnataka state government recently passed a state amendment allowing for 25% horizontal reservation
for Karnataka students in NLS. This plea was massively protested against by the national media and the
public in common.
One of the students giving CLAT in Delhi had filed a petition against the amendment at the Delhi High
Court. In refusing, the judges reasoned that the amendment act was passed by the State of Karnataka,
thus disallowing them to exercise any territorial jurisdiction over the matter. They also noted that NLS is in
Bangalore, Karnataka and that it is not appropriate for them to decide in the matter.
[Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/hc-refuses-to-entertain-plea-challenging-karnataka-
govts-decision-on-quota/article31984748.ece]
102. Asad owns a sweet shop in Hyderabad, Telangana. His sweets are famous for the particular flavor
throughout the country. With increasing popularity to his products, he decided to open franchises in
Chennai and other cities around the country. The sweets were made in Hyderabad and brought to these
stores for sale. Tamil Nadu state government had recently passed a state legislation about sanitary
measures in the manufacture of food products. Among them was the mandatory use of gloves, shower
caps and other protective gear by the cooks while making the food products. A few days back, Shankar
gets a viral video of the sweet-making process in Asad’s sweet shop. Being a fan of Asad’s sweets, he
was aghast when he found out that none of the cooks wore gloves. Aggrieved by it, he goes to the
Madras High Court for compensation. Will he win?
(a) No, the sweets were manufactured in Hyderabad, so the State law cannot be applied.
(b) The only issue in this case is of jurisdiction. Jurisdiction resides with the court in Hyderabad.
(c) Yes, the sweets being sold in Chennai would mean that the State law shall be applied.
(d) Compensation cannot be awarded in such an event. State law only provides for adoption of hygienic
measures but no penalty has been specified.

MOCK CLAT #17
103. Rohan is a college student living in Bangalore. Being an introvert, the only way he could belong in his
college atmosphere was if started doing drugs. Naturally he needed more money as days went on. So to
earn more pocket money he decided to start peddling marijuana in his neighborhood. He claimed that his
source was Modi from Kanpur. When he placed his first order to Modi, his father, Rohan Sr., receives the
package in Delhi accidently and comes to know of Rohan’s drug racket. Peddling marijuana is a
punishable offence under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances which was passed by the
Parliament in 1985. Charges are pressed against Rohan at the Delhi High Court.
(a) Yes, as the package was received in Delhi and therefore the concerned high court will have territorial
jurisdiction.
(b) Rohan who was in fact smuggling, so Modi should not be charged. Modi merely fulfilled the order
given to him. Thus, since the order was placed from Bangalore, Karnataka HC should have
jurisdiction.
(c) NDPS Act is a national act and the provisions will apply equally at all places. The petition may be
entertained at the Delhi HC.
(d) No, Modi hails from Kanpur, so he cannot be charged at the Delhi HC. The order was dispatched
from Kanpur so Lucknow HC should have jurisdiction.
104. At the initial hearing at the High Court, the petition is dismissed. Rohan Sr decides to appeal to the
Supreme Court. Can he take the case to the Supreme Court?
(a) Yes, Supreme Court should hear it as it is the final court of appeal in the country.
(b) No, Supreme Court cannot hear it as it is a question of jurisdiction which must be solved by the
concerned High Court only.
(c) Yes, Supreme Court is eligible to hear cases concerning national legislations and since NDPS Act is
a national legislation, SC cannot refuse.
(d) No, Supreme Court cannot hear it as Rohan cannot appeal. He should have filed a Special Leave
Petition instead.
105. The Parliament passes a bill to allow state governments to levy duties on use of agricultural lands for
industrial purposes. The state governments had to pass an additional act in their state legislatures to
make the duties legal. The state of Rajasthan, in dire need of agricultural land, imposes a 50% duty on
the value of the land. Industrialists based in Rajasthan file a complaint at the Rajasthan High Court,
claiming it is unjust to impose such amount of duties. Will the Industrialists win?
(a) No, it is a central legislation and the Rajasthan high court cannot rule on the case.
(b) Yes, it is a state legislation and Rajasthan High Court is the legitimate authority to hear the matter.
(c) The legislation was not passed by the Rajasthan legislature. Thus, the Rajasthan HC is not the
legitimate authority.
(d) Yes, the industrialists are based in Rajasthan, so they can claim at the Rajasthan High Court even if it
was a UP state legislation.

MOCK CLAT #17
SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.106-Q.137): Read and analyse the passages and answer the questions:-
Passage (Q.106-Q.111): Bruce: For too long politics has been dominated by a self-perpetuating, corrupt
elite, detached from the concerns of ordinary people. Populists – be they of the left or right – can give the
people a voice again. Democracy sometimes needs a shock to the system. Concern that democracy is
being eroded by populists can push decent people to re-engage with politics again. This could counter
demagogues who claim only they represent the people. Recent history is full of examples of “people
power” rising up against corrupt and tyrannical regimes. The phrase defined the peaceful movement that
toppled Filipino dictator Ferdinand Marcos in 1986; was applied to the uprisings that liberated eastern
Europe in 1989; and Ukraine’s resistance to corrupt, authoritarian governments. As governments become
more barefaced in their erosion of basic rights or their taste for corruption, perhaps a more positive form
of populism will keep them in check – recent events in Bucharest could be a taste of things to come.
Wayne: By its very nature, populism is based on quick fixes aimed at bringing easy solutions to appease
the disaffected masses. In the very short term that can work, but it never takes long before populist
economic policies go pear-shaped. Today’s populists are the inheritors of the 19th-century Luddites who
smashed up machinery in a vain attempt to turn back the Industrial Revolution. Globalisation is here to
stay and efforts to wish it away will be as unsuccessful as the Luddites were. Populism thrives on the
demonisation of the “other.” Internal or external enemies are essential for such regimes to survive,
especially when their unworkable economic model starts to collapse. Populists exploit fear of their chosen
scapegoat to clamp down on civil liberties, reject criticism as “treason” and remove the checks on their
power from opposition parties, the media or judiciary.
Source: Excerpts taken and curated from the website debatingeurope.eu
106. Which of the following resonates with the logic of Bruce?

(a) The rise of Robin Hood in England for wealth-redistribution among English commoners. He used to
rob the rich to distribute the loot among the poor folk.
(b) There should be a huge natural disaster in the world like a large scale earthquake or heavy cyclones
or flooding for the people to sit up to environment-protection.
(c) People don’t understand complex, high-sounding logic, but they should be given easily
understandable reason. This becomes popular and forms populism.
(d) Both a and b
107. Which of the following statements can be used by Wayne to strengthen his arguments?
(a) Donald Trump gave the call that he would build a wall to stop the Mexicans in his election manifesto
(b) In France, generations of politicians coming from the same elite schools have alternated in power
with little interaction with the public beyond the “grandesécoles” (elite education) bubble.
(c) In 1975, Indira Gandhi proclaimed emergency in India to crush protests against her Government as
armed rebellion
(d) After an economic collapse there is always an anti-austerity drive that is followed by the
establishment
108. Which of the following is the difference between the debating styles of Bruce and Wayne?
(a) Bruce is more concerned towards the carrying out of governance in the right way while Wayne is
more concerned towards the formation of governments to set a correct path of politics
(b) Bruce uses observation to form his arguments to describe his disfavor for the elite non-populist
governance, while Wayne uses examples to validate his arguments in favour of non-populist
governance
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b

MOCK CLAT #17
109. According to the Merriam-Webster dictionary, “a believer in the rights, wisdom, or virtues of the common
people” is the definition of populist. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) It strengthens the arguments of Bruce
(b) It strengthen the arguments of Wayne
(c) It weakens arguments of both
(d) It is a mere definition. It doesn’t have any effect on anyone’s argument
110. Which of the following can be inferred from the debate?

1. Wayne thinks that populists always support localization
2. Bruce thinks a populist government will not be corrupt
3. Bruce thinks populism can renew democracy
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
111. Here are some quotes –

1. “Populism is seen as dangerous because democracy is dangerous”
2. “Populism…has been redefined as the pathology of the simple minded masses”
3. “The modus operandi of populism is not to reason but to roar”
Which of the above should Bruce use?
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
Passage (Q.112-Q.115): Raindrops might be pumping bacteria into the sky, according to a recent study.
Scientists have known for a while that bacteria somehow make their way into the air, impelling cloud
formation, as well the transmission of some diseases. What they haven’t known is how.
This new study builds on previous research that looked at how droplets interact with porous surfaces,
said study author Cullen Buie, an Associate Professor at MIT.
The person in question worked on a tropical disease called melioidosis. Meliodosis occurs in parts of
Australia and Vietnam and is caused by bacteria that disperse into the air. Scientists knew that incidents
of people getting this infection went up after a rainfall, but they weren't sure exactly how rain was
involved. Buie’s study suggests a mechanism—bioaerosolization, or the suspension of particles that
contain living organisms like bacteria.
On certain surfaces, when droplets hit at kind of the right speed the droplets would trap air. That trapped
air would form small bubbles that would rise to the surface of the liquid and then burst, much like what
you would see if you drink a carbonated beverage.
In short, when a rain drop hits soil, small bubbles are formed. When the bubbles burst, they send soil into
the air with them. And those tiny bits of soil carry even tinier bacteria. Using high-speed cameras,
fluorescent imaging, and computer models, Buie and his colleagues were able to determine that a single
rain drop can transfer 0.01 per cent of bacteria on the soil surface to the atmosphere.
Once in the atmosphere, the bacteria can survive for upwards of an hour. In total, the researchers think
that rain transfers between 1.6 and 25 per cent of the total bacteria in the atmosphere—depending on
local soil types.
To get this result, Buie took five different soil types (to account for differences in density) and treated
them with particles of various sizes (including some benign bacteria). The synthetic particles were
already fluorescent, while the bacteria particles were treated with an agent to make them glow. The
researchers then exposed the soil samples to rain-like conditions, and the resulting aerosols were
collected on a nearby sampling plate. Buie's team found that sandy clay soils have best properties for
aerosol generation. Warmer temperatures also seem to propel bacteria more efficiently, though the
researchers are not sure why.

MOCK CLAT #17
Now that the study is gaining popularity Buie stresses that this isn’t something we should be concerned
about—the process of bacteria entering the air is one that has always occurred all around us. But now,
we can see it for ourselves—and understand how it works.
Source: https://www.popsci.com/raindrops-launch-bacteria-into-air/
112. What was the objective of the new study undertaken by Buie and his colleagues?
(a) To understand the interaction between water droplets and porous surfaces.
(b) To measure the amount of bacteria discharged into atmosphere through rain.
(c) To examine how rain droplets carried bacteria that were present in the soil.
(d) To understand the role of atmospheric bacteria in the transmission of diseases.
113. From the results of the experiment involving various soil types, it can be concluded that sandy clay soil:
(a) sent the least amount of bacteria into air owing to its low density.
(b) was ideal for aerosol generation owing to its high particle density.
(c) discharged more bacteria when exposed to warmer temperature.
(d) sent more bacteria into the atmosphere than any other soil type.
114. Which of the following explains the increased incidence of melidosis in the rainy season?
(a) Melidosis is caused by the suspension of the disease bearing bacteria in the particles in the air.
(b) Bacteria causing melidosis are dispersed into air via raindrops that interact with porous surfaces like
soil.
(c) The amount of the disease bearing bacteria present in the atmosphere increases with frequency of
rainfall.
(d) Porous surfaces release the disease bearing bacteria into the atmosphere on contact with water.
115. Based on the passage, which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the discharge of bacteria into
the atmosphere?
(a) Density of the soil (b) Climatic conditions
(c) Velocity of raindrops (d) Size of the bacteria
Passage (Q.116-Q.121): Attractive people are not like the rest of us. By nature of their good looks,
people treat them differently. And according to decades of psychology research, that can shape many
facets of their lives from their jobs, to their personalities, to how they see the world.
First, it might be helpful to define what “attractive” even means. There are a few things that are
universally associated with attractiveness, such as facial symmetry, facial shape, and clear skin, because
they may have evolved as shorthand for the health of a potential mate. Average-looking faces are also
usually considered more attractive, studies show.
Attractiveness doesn’t rest on the ability to see beauty, but to detect flaws. The fewer the flaws, the more
attractive someone appears to be, says Kristin Donnelly, a doctoral student in experimental psychology at
the University of California, San Diego. Other elements of attractiveness, such as body shape, weight,
and skin color, can be more subjective and influenced by culture. There are less physical things that can
make a person seem attractive, too, like a person’s confidence, smell, or voice.
Researchers have been looking into the effects of attractiveness for decades. The results show that
being considered attractive generally means that other people treat you better. “We assume attractive
people have positive equalities that have nothing to do with their physical attractiveness,” says Lauren
Human, an assistant professor of psychology at McGill University. This is some times called the halo
effect. Attractive people are generally assumed to be more intelligent, more trustworthy, and have better
social skills. We find them more interesting and pay more attention to attractive people, so we tend to get
a better sense of who they are as individuals. Good-looking people are more successful - they are paid
more at work and are promoted more quickly. They’re often happier, too.
Even parents treat cute babies better than ugly ones. It’s not that unattractive people are viewed more
negatively, Human says, they just aren’t viewed as positively as their prettier counterparts.
Source: https://www.vice.com/en/article/gvezeq/the-agony-and-the-ecstasy-of-being-incredibly-hot

MOCK CLAT #17
116. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) If you’re an attractive person going through the world, everyone is opening doors for you.
(b) If you’re an attractive person going through the world, everyone is throwing stones at you.
(c) If you’re an attractive person going through the world, everyone wants to take advantage of you.
(d) If you’re an attractive person going through the world, everyone knows you are not opening doors for
others.
117. If the statements in the given passage are true, then which of the following would also be true?
A. Attractive people are less happy in their relationships and even have short marriages.
B. Less attractive people are more likely to feel insecure or fear rejection.
(a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B
118. Which of the following best represents the main point of the given passage?
(a) Beautiful people have a brazen attitude because of all the attention they get.
(b) When you are not conventionally beautiful you work in the service of the lesser privileged.
(c) Beauty has a lot of positive things that come along with it.
(d) We are all treated the same as part of one human race.
119. Which of the following is an assumption on which the passage is based?

(a) We are all beautiful.
(b) Beauty lies in the eyes of the beholder.
(c) Good looking people have to work extra hard to be taken seriously.
(d) Everyone is not equally attractive.
120. Which of the following is an example of the halo effect?

(a) When an attractive employee performs one task and so is assigned leadership for another unrelated
task.
(b) When an employee gets away with showing up late, missing deadlines and otherwise
underperforming compared to his peers due to good looks.
(c) An employee gets a favourable appraisal only on the basis of his/her prima and proper
dressingsense.
121. Which of the following behaviours is unlikely of people based on what the author describes?
(a) People ask themselves, “What can I do to makethis attractive person my friend?”
(b) People often reflect, “What assumptions have I made based on the person’s looks”
(c) People often say, “The people who are beautiful have such a good heart and are so kind.”
(d) People comment, “S/he is beautiful and attractive, s/he will be so good at their job.”
Passage (Q.122-Q.126): Sampras: The requirement of being a living thing is that it must be made of
cells. The viruses do not pass this requirement for life. Moreover, living things grow. Viruses do not grow.
Therefore, viruses are not alive. There are some characteristics of viruses that put them on the
borderline— they have genetic material: DNA or RNA. It's not the same thing as a rock, but it's clearly not
the same thing as even bacteria, in terms of that self–sustaining and self–generated action. So, even
though they replicate, viruses are more like androids, which rely on host materials to build and power
themselves.
Agassi: Fundamental to the argument that viruses are not alive is the suggestion that metabolism and
self–sustaining replication are key definitions of life. Viruses are not able to replicate by itself
independently without the metabolic machinery of the cell. But, the only satisfactory definition of life lies in
the most critical property of genetic heredity: independent evolution. Life is the manifestation of a
coherent collection of genes that are competent to replicate within the niche in which they evolve. Viruses
fulfil this definition. In any case, their recognition as primarily pathogens is wrong. On the contrary, they
are most important as drivers of evolution, as transmitters of genetic material, as innovative agents.

MOCK CLAT #17
122. Which of the following can be inferred from Sampras‘s argument?

(a) Bacteria is a living organism.
(b) Bacteria do not have genetic material.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
123. Which of the following about viruses will Agassi and Sampras may agree upon?
(a) Viruses have genetic material.
(b) Viruses are made of cells.
(c) Viruses are capable of self–sustaining replication.
(d) Viruses can be categorised as living only if they can evolve independently.
124. Which of the following arguments is most closely paralleled by the pattern of reasoning displayed in the
argument by Sampras to conclude viruses are not alive?
(a) The major differentiating factor between plants and animals is that plants can produce their own food
through photosynthesis while animals have to rely on food sources. Corals are animals, therefore,
because they do not make their own food.
(b) Unlike living things, crystals do not grow by adding mass from within; instead, they grow when
matching molecules are deposited on the outside of the crystal surface. Therefore, crystals are not
alive.
(c) Like living organisms, fungi absorb food to use it for energy to make compounds they need to grow,
and they also use DNA to reproduce like all other living organisms. So, fungi are considered living.
(d) There are essential requirements to define whether or not an organism is alive, namely; the potential
for reproduction, the potential for growth and change, and passing on hereditary information to
offspring. Therefore, bacteria can be considered alive.
125. Which of the following is the point at issue between Sampras and Agassi?
(a) whether definition of life should include independent evolution as a necessary condition
(b) whether viruses have the ability to evolve independently
(c) whether viruses can replicate independently
(d) whether replication in viruses be considered proof of them being alive
126. Which of the following may not find support from Agassi?
(a) Viruses are not pathogens.
(b) Viruses are living organisms.
(c) Viruses can replicate.
(d) Viruses do have a metabolism system of their own.
Passage Q.127. A World Bank funded online game that bills itself as a 10 week crash course in
changing the world, offers young users points for completing 10 weekly challenges that call for “world
changing” skills like collaboration, creativity, sustainability and local insight in its target continent, Africa. It
aims to get people aware of and engaged in solving real problems that people face in developing
countries.
Source: https://www.foxnews.com/tech/world-banks-online-game-isnt-a-real-world-solution-critics-say
127. Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the accuracy of the achievement of
the main aim?
(a) Users need not complete all 10 weekly challenges to become aware of the problems facing people in
developing countries.
(b) Africa has one of the lowest ratios for number of internet connections per lakh people.
(c) In spite of being funded, the game charges $1.5 per user per 10 week course and thus has earned
more than $80,000 since it was launched.
(d) The 10 weekly challenges have no similarity to the real problems faced by people in developing
countries.

MOCK CLAT #17
Passage (Q.128-Q.130): A recent study was conducted by Lovely Professional University on the fitness
levels of people living in cold regions like Kashmir, Ladakh and Jammu and from hot regions like
Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Orissa. On a scale of 1 to 10, if 1 is the best and 10 is the least in fitness and
health, the former scored from 2 to 4 while the latter scored from 8 to 10, in matters of not just fitness, but
overall health itself.
128. Which of the following if true, would most weaken the conclusion?
(a) Kashmir, Ladakh and Jammu are more conducive to healthy eating than Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and
Orissa.
(b) Hot places make people sweat a lot, eliminating the toxins from their bodies.
(c) The people in Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Orissa don’t have enough money to subsist, compared with
those in the colder regions mentioned in the study.
(d) There is no correlation between climate and health.
129. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the conclusion?

(a) People need to exercise often in order to keep themselves warm in cold climates.
(b) There are more women than men in Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Orissa as compared to Kashmir,
Ladakh and Jammu.
(c) The population of places like Kashmir, Ladakh and Jammu is scarce compared with that of
Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Orissa.
(d) Warm climates are easier to live in than cold ones.
130. What is the conclusion that can be drawn from the above?
(a) People who live in cold regions are healthier than those living in hot climates.
(b) Cold climates induce people to exercise well.
(c) Cold climates are more conducive to healthy living than hot ones.
(d) Cold climates are easier on people than hot ones.
Directions (Q.131): In the question, four statements are given followed by four conclusions. One of
which definitely does not logically follow (or is not a possibility of occurrence) from the given statements.
That conclusion is your answer.
131. Statements: Some logics are reasons.

All reasons are arguments.
All arguments are fights.
No fight is a discussion.
Conclusions
(a) All discussion being logics is a possibility
(b) No discussion is an argument
(c) All logics being discussion is a possibility
(d) All reasons are fights
Directions (Q.132 and Q.133): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Given an input, a machine generates pass codes for six batches each day as follows:
Input: these icons were taken out from the sea.
Pass Codes:
Batch I : from sea the out taken were icons these
Batch II : from icons these were taken out the sea.
Batch III : from icons out sea the taken were these
Batch IV : from icons out sea these were taken the and so on.
First batch starts at 10.00 a.m. and each batch is for one hour. There is a rest period of one hour after the
end of the fourth batch.

MOCK CLAT #17
132. What will be the pass code for the batch at 3.00 p.m. if input is “four of the following five form a group”?
(a) a five following form four group the of
(b) a five following form group the of four
(c) a five following form four of the group
(d) a five following form four group of the
133. If the pass code for the batch at 1:00 p.m. on a day was “back go here people who settle want to”, what
was the pass code for the batch at 3:00 p.m. on that day?
(a) back go here people settle who want to
(b) back go here people to want settle who
(c) back go here people settle to want who
(d) Cannot be determined
134. In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. If two sevenths
of males are married, what fraction of the females is single?
(a) 2/7 (b) 1/3 (c) 3/7 (d) 2/3
135. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Following are the
conditions for selecting Marketing manager in an organisation.
The candidate must
(i) be a Graduate in any discipline with atleast 55% marks.
(ii) have secured atleast 40% marks in the selection interview.
(iii) have post qualification work experience of atleast five years in the marketing division of an
organization.
(iv) have secured atleast 45% marks in the selection examination.
(v) have a post Graduate degeree/diploma in Marketing-Management with atleast 60% marks.
Which of the following condition show candidate is not selected?

(a) Candidate is daughter of a renowned freedom fighter from another state
(b) Candidate has a post Graduate degree in Finance with 60% marks
(c) Candidate has completed his graduation with 80% marks
(d) Candidate does not own a house in Noida
Directions (Q.136): In these questions, a statement is given followed by four inferences A, B, C and D.
Which of these definitely follows from the given statements?
136. 'Soldiers serve their country.'

(a) Those who serve their country are soldiers
(b) Women do no serve their country because they are not soldiers
(c) Men generally serve their country
(d) Some men who are soldiers serve their country
137. A3P means A is mother of P. A4P means A is brother of P. A9P means A is husband of P. A5P means A
is daughter of P. Which of the following means that K is the mother-in-law of M and J is the brother-in-law
of M?
(a) M 9 N 3 K 4 J (b) M 9 N 5 K 3 J
(b) K 5 J 9 M 3 N (d) None of these

MOCK CLAT #17
SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.138 - Q.142): Refer to the line graph below and answer the questions that follow
Turnover in No. of distributors

Rank Company 2002 in
(in Rs. Cr) 2002 (in lakhs)
1. Wamay 472 3.65
2. Codimare 165 4.95
3. Nova 110 0.68
4. Balife 78 0.2
138. What is the average simple annual growth rate of turnover of direct selling business in India during
the given period?
(a) 42% (b) 60% (c) 78% (d) 137.5%
139. If Wamayand Nova were the only companies in the direct selling business in India till 1998 with the
Wamaymarket share three times that of Nova, then what is the percentage growth in Nova’s turnover
during the given period?
(a) 10% (b) 15.6% (c) 35% (d) 46.7%
140. Balifewas launched in 2000. Since then, the number of its distributors is increasing by 25% every
year and its turnover by 20%.Then what was the approximate ratio of Balife turnover to number of
distributors during its launching year?
(a) 36120 (b) 39820 (c) 42320 (d) 45720
141. Which of the following is definitely false?

(a) The ratio of turnover to number of distributors is maximum for Balife during 2002.
(b) Top four companies together have more than 80% of total number of distributors in the direct
selling business in India during 2002.
(c) There are not more than18 companies in direct selling business in India during 2002.
(d) None of these
142. During which year, the ratio of turnover to number of distributors shown maximum percentage
increase over the previous year?
(a) 1999 (b) 2000 (c) 2001 (d) 2002

MOCK CLAT #17
Directions (Q.143-Q.145): The figure below represents the total number of students and the number of
girls in college ABC for the five years from 2005-06 to 2009-10. During this period, the total number of
students increased from 100 to 700, while the number of girls increased from 50 to 400.
800
700
700
600 550
500
400 400
400
300 250
200
200 150
100 100
100 50
0
2005-06 2006-07 2007-08 2008-09 2009-10
Number of girls Total number of students
143. If K is defined as the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of students, then K was
maximum in the year
(a) 2005-06 (b) 2009-10 (c) 2007-08 (d) 2008-09
144. With reference to K as defined in question 3, it can be concluded that

(a) The value of K did not increase during the period from 2005-06 to 2006-07.
(b) The value of K did not decrease during the period from 2008-09 to 2009-10
(c) K remained constant during the period from 2007-08 to 2008-09
145. Difference in percentage point between the percentage increase in the number of girls and percentage
increase in the number of boys during in the given period is?
(a) 75% (b) 40% (c) 200% (d) 50%
Directions (Q.146-Q.150): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.
Profit made (in Rs. 000) by six persons in the different days of a week.
Day
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday Saturday
Person
P 9.5 8 7.6 12.3 14.35 13.7
Q 5.6 3.8 2.1 4.7 5 6.12
R 32.4 28.8 51 57 49.5 44.3
S 55 62.5 65.3 56.2 49.8 40
T 21.7 35.5 25.6 14.25 30 15.65
U 10.5 12 16.5 18 22.3 26.7
146. What is the average profit per day earned by ‘S’ in the given week?
(a) Rs. 54.8 (b) Rs. 62.5 (c) Rs. 54,800 (d) Rs. 6250
147. On which day, the profit of ‘P’ is maximum in percentage when compared to the previous day?
(a) Tuesday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday

MOCK CLAT #17
148. What is the ratio of the total profit earned by ‘Q’ and ‘R’ on Monday, Tuesday and Friday to the total profit
earned by ‘T’ and ‘U’ on same day?
(a) 440/471 (b) 471/440 (c) 417/440 (d) 440/417
149. By what percent were R’s profit on Wednesday is more than the T’s profit on Saturday?
(a) 69.3% approx. (b) 225.88% approx. (c) 135.32% approx. (d) 242.5% approx.
150. Who among the P,Q, R, S, T, and U always earn more profit than the previous day?
(a) P (b) R (c) T (d) U

MOCK CLAT #17
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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

MOCK CLAT #17

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions(Q.1-Q.32): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.

2. What does the author refer to in the phrase “refreshing reimagination”?

3. What is the most suitable antonym for the word ‘replicate’?

6. Why is it so important to make period rooms in community toilets?

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7. Why is the move described as “too little” by the author?

8. Which of the following supports Zuckerberg’s statement about voters?

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11. Which of the following is closest in meaning to ‘despot’?

12. Which of the following words is a suitable antonym of ‘culpable’?

13. What is the 13th amendment in reference to?

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16. What can be used as a bargaining chip by India?

17. What is the most suitable antonym for ‘waning’?

18. Which of the following is a synonym of ‘reconciliation’?

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22. What is the meaning of the word ‘demagoguery’?

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28. How did the two companies bury the hatchet?

30. What does phrase ‘cost precious time’ mean?

32. The ‘stalemate’ as referred to in the passage is between:

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SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS

33. Which of the following will replace [1] in the passage?

34. When was European Union founded?

36. Where are is HQ of European Union located?

37. What was the foundational treaty of European Union?

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39. Which of the following will replace [1] in the passage?

40. Which of the following will replace [2] in the passage?

42. Which session of the Parliament is the shortest of all?

43. Which of the following statements regarding Money bills is correct?

44. Which of the following will replace [1] in the passage?

45. Which of the following will replace [2] in the passage?

46. In which year did Nepal become a Federal Democratic Republic?

47. Who is the Indian ambassador to Nepal?

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49. Which of the following will replace [1] in the passage?

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57. Which of the following statements are correct?

58. What is the currency of China known as?

62. Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) is established by:

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66. From where coronavirus got its name?

67. The first case of novel coronavirus was identified in .....

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SECTION – C :LEGAL REASONING

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77. What could be the possible drawbacks of the anti-defection law?

Passage (Q.78 – Q.82): In a recent matter on Workmen’s Compensation, an application for

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