MOCK CLAT #16

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2020

MOCK CLAT #16

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (b) Refer to para 1 line 13th and 14th .
2. (c) Refer to para 2, line 17th and 18th.
3. (c) Refer to para 2, line no 19th and 20th.
4. (b) Refer to para 1, line no 2nd and 3rd.
5. (d) Without let means without being interfered with
which is hinting at.
6. (a) It will affect local media.
7. (c) Refer to para 1 2nd and 3rd line and 6th , 7th and 8th
line.(the author mention that india is only country)
8. (d) Refer to para 1 3rd, 4th and 5th line.
9. (c) Refer to para 1 , line 6th and 8th.
10. (a) Refer to para 2, line 6th and 7th.
11. (a) Refer to para 1, line 1st. and para 2, line 2nd and 3rd.
12. (d) Refer to para 3rd, it says that USSR could have been
the victim of atomic attack that would have let third
would war.
13. (b) Refer to para 2, line 3rd and 4th..
14. (c) Refer to para 4th.
15. (d) Refer to para 1st, line 1st.
16. (b) Refer to para 4th, line 6th and 7th.
17. (a) Refer to para 1, line 2nd.
18. (b) Refer to para 2nd, last line (6th line)
19. (c) Refer to para 2nd.
20. (a) Refer to para 3rd, line 1st and 2nd.
21. (d) Refer to para 4th, line 2nd , 3rd, 4th.
22. (b) The sentence is given in 5th para but is directly
connected to 4th para where it is written the Indian
machine tool industry needs help to able to produce
quality components at reduced costs.
23. (a) Refer to para 4th, line 2nd , 3rd and 4th line.
24. (b) Refer to para 2nd.
25. (d) The passage deals with only one main subject i.e.
Indian machine tool industry.
26. (d) Refer to para 1.
27. (a) Refer to line 1st of para 2nd.
28. (c) Refer to para 1st.
29. (b) Refer to para 2nd, line 1st and 2nd.
30. (d) Refer to para 3rd, line 1st and 2nd.
31. (c) Refer to para 3, 2nd and 3rd line and line 2nd “500,000
hectares of para 4th.
32. (b) all other options are mentioned except option (b).
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SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT
AFFAIRS
Hint (Q.33-Q.37): It was in the Indra Sawhney v.
Union of India (1992), that the concept of creamy
layer was evolved.
Article 16(4) says "Nothing in this article shall
prevent the State from making any provision for the
reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any
backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of
the State, is not adequately represented in the
services under the State."
[2] will be replaced by Uttarakhand.
The Government of Chhattisgarh took the route of
the ordinance to raise the quota in favour of
SC/ST/OBC besides the economically weaker
section of the general category to a total of 82 per
cent reservation in the state.
33. (d) is the correct answer.
34. (b) is the correct answer.
35. (c) is the correct answer.
36. (b) Is the correct answer.
37. (d) is the correct answer.
Hint (Q.38-Q.42): It has been the latest rule of WHO
to not name any disease based on its geographical
locations like the Middle East Respiratory Syndrone
or the Japanese Encephalitis etc. But it was used
earlier.
As per the WHO, “severe” should be used only for
those diseases that have a very high initial case
fatality rate.
The WHO, in consultation with the World
Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) and the Food
and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations
(FAO), has identified best practices for naming new
human diseases.
The name of the virus is novel Coronavirus or nCOV.
A month after Union Health Minister Dr Harsh
Vardhan asked the Delhi government to make
malaria and dengue notifiable diseases, the South
Delhi Municipal Corporation (SDMC) has initiated
the work to notify malaria in the capital.
38. (b) is the correct answer.
39. (c) is the correct answer.
40. (b) is the correct answer.
41. (c) is the correct answer.
42. (a) is the correct answer.
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MOCK CLAT #16
Hint (Q.43-Q.47): The helicopters, with anti-surface, At the 4th BIMSTEC summit in Kathmandu in 2018,
anti-submarine warfare, search and rescue missions Prime Minister Narendra Modi had invited members
capabilities, will prove to be a very potent weapon for a watersports meet in India. Bhopal’s historic
against rising Chinese presence in the Indian Ocean Bhoj Tal turned to be the pick for kayaking, canoeing,
Region. rowing, and sailing.
Sikorsky Aircraft will replace [3]. 53. (b) is the correct answer.
The name of the helicopters is MH 60 Romeo. 54. (a) is the correct answer.
The aircraft company is Lockheed Martin. 55. (d) is the correct answer.
The Centre has authorised companies to export 56. (c) is the correct answer.
military equipment to 42 countries across the world, 57. (c) is the correct answer.
including the UAE, Sweden and Singapore. 58. (c) The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral
43. (d) is the correct answer. Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is
44. (a) is the correct answer. an international organisation comprising seven
45. (b) is the correct answer. countries — India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar,
46. (c) is the correct answer. Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand — that fall in the
47. (d) is the correct answer. littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal. It
Hint (Q.48-Q.52): The Assisted Reproductive was formed in 1997
Technology (Regulation) Bill has been in the making Hint (Q.59-Q.62): The real GDP is falling in India as
since 2008. per the World Economic Outlook.
The Select Committee chaired by BJP Rajya Sabha Nominal GDP is the assessment of economic
MP Bhupender Yadav recommended that the “close production in an economy but includes the current
relatives” clause should be removed, and any prices of goods and services in its calculation.
“willing” woman should be allowed to become a India has recently overtaken the UK and France.
surrogate mother provided all other requirements are The top five countries rank-wise are USA, China,
met and the appropriate authority has cleared the Japan, Germany and India.
surrogacy. 59. (c) is the correct answer.
It has also recommended that divorced and widowed 60. (a) is the correct answer.
women aged between 35 and 45 years should be 61. (c) is the correct answer.
able to be a single commissioning parent. 62. (b) is the correct answer.
It has strongly backed the ban on commercial Hint (Q.63-Q.67): The index is based on five
surrogacy. categories – civil liberties; electoral process and
The Surrogacy Bill proposes to allow altruistic ethical pluralism; functioning of government; political
surrogacy to intending infertile Indian married participation; and political culture.
couples in the age groups 23-50 years (women) and [2] will be replaced by The Economist Intelligence
26-55 years (men). Unit.
It aims to regulate the field through registration of all India has been ranked 51st among 165 countries.
IVF clinics and sperm banks, segregation of ART India’s score of 7.23 places it in the “flawed
clinics and gamete banks etc. It also requires democracy” category, which also includes
national and state boards to be established for the Bangladesh (5.88).
purpose of regulation of the fertility market. The list has been topped by Norway, Iceland,
48. (a) is the correct answer. Sweden, New Zealand and Germany.
49. (b) is the correct answer. 63. (c) is the correct answer.
50. (a) is the correct answer. 64. (c) is the correct answer.
51. (d) is the correct answer. 65. (b) is the correct answer.
52. (b) In the late 1970s, only months after the birth of 66. (c) is the correct answer.
Louise Brown, the first ‘test tube baby’, Kolkata- 67. (b) is the correct answer.
based doctor Subhas Mukherjee announced the Hint (Q.68-Q.71): To boost infrastructure,
birth of the world’s second test tube baby. Sitharaman says 9,000 km of economic corridor will
Hint (Q.53-Q.58): For the first time, Bhopal will host be set up. “Chennai-Bengaluru expressway will also
the BIMSTEC watersports meet at Upper Lake from be started. Delhi-Mumbai expressway to be
March 2, where teams from seven countries will completed By 2023,” says FM.
participate. Railways will set up Kisan Rail through PPP model
This would be the maiden major mixed crew sailing so that perishable goods can be transported quickly.
expedition of the Indian Navy with a composition of Nirvik (Niryat Rin Vikas Yojana) scheme to provide
five naval officers including two women officers in the enhanced insurance cover and reduce premium for
vessels -- Mhadei and Tarini. small exporters.
The Bhutan National Assembly adopted the Bay of Insurance cover for bank depositors raised from Rs
Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and 1 lakh to Rs 5 lakh, says FM Nirmala Sitharaman.
Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) Convention on 68. (c) is the correct answer.
cooperation in combating international terrorism, 69. (c) is the correct answer.
trans-national organized crime and illicit drug 70. (c) is the correct answer.
trafficking. 71. (d) is the correct answer.
[2] will be replaced by the International Seminar on
Climate Smart Farming Systems.
In 2018, the summit was held at Kathmandu in
Nepal.

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MOCK CLAT #16
SECTION – C : LEGAL REASONING
72. (a) Passage says for more than 7 years consent is not
required thus in this case consent was required.
Therefore, correct answer is (a).
73. (b) According to PDP Bill, consent is required.
Therefore, answer would be unchanged.
74. (d) Passage says. “The DNA bill thus needs to replicate
the consent provision in the PDP”, therefore a can’t
be correct answer b can also not be correct answer
because of last paragraph of passage. Similarly, c
can also not be correct answer as passage mentions
“. Involuntary consent, tantamount to coerced
consent, seems to be integral to the DNA bill”.
Therefore, correct answer is (d).
75. (b) Correct answer is (b) and it could be interpreted from
the lines “The DNA bill and the PDP bill have to be
read concomitantly and harmonized in a manner
which would ensure robust and effective privacy
protection for DNA information.”
76. (a) Offences with punishment of more than seven years
of imprisonment or death penalty does not require
consent thus correct answer option is (a).
77. (a) According to PDP bill, consent is required every time
when person is asked for DNA. Thus, police is not
right and thus answer would be (a).
78. (b) In cases where a person can make an appeal to the
apex court, there is no need to apply for an SLP. The
closest alternative (c) is not the answer because the
passage doesn’t expressly talks about a right to
appeal.
79. (d) It has been clearly mentioned in the passage that the
given Article is not applicable on the orders passed
under Armed Forces Act. The closest alternative (c)
cannot be substantially derived from the passage.
80. (a) An SLP can only be allowed if there exists a
substantial question of law and also, SLP as a right
can only be used where there is either a substantial
question of law or instance of grave injustice.
81. (d) An SLP can be made by any individual may he be a
citizen of India or not. Thus, the citizenship is an
irrelevant issue.
82. (a) The statute makes it mandatory for all employers,
whether in the public or private sector to set up an
Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) in order to
enquire into complaints of sexual harassment at the
workplace, take preventive measures to ensure that
the work environment maybe be conducive to
women.
83. (a) As per the facts of the case, there is a single alleged
incident and not a series of incident, therefore only
principle I applies. Principal II will apply when there
is a series of incidents.
84. (a) The statute itself permits filing of complaints by
persons other than the aggrieved woman. The
principal does not mention anything about taking the
consent of the actual victim therefore, principal III
does not apply.
85. (c) Prevention of Sexual Harassment at Workplace Act
lays down that monetary compensation can also be
paid by the respondent to the complainant, which is
deducted from his salary or wages and this provision
is irrespective of anything contained in the service
rules. Stick to the passage.
86. (d) The Act provides that before initiating an enquiry, the
LCC or ICC has an option to settle the matter through
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conciliation only at the request of the aggrieved
woman, although no monetary compensation can be
a part of this process.
87. (a) State Domicile reservations have stood the test of
Article 14 in Dr. Pradip Jain's case, mainly on three
considerations. Firstly, since the State finances
these colleges, the state's taxpayers deserve a
reciprocal benefit. Secondly, the State's interest due
to the likelihood that the residents of the State would
settle and serve the people of the state. Thirdly,
based on the backwardness of a particular region.
(III) Is not in passage.
88. (b) These domicile reservations need to be carefully
scrutinized for the justification of backwardness
based on certain considerations. The domicile
should be limited to residents of backward regions
only and not be extended in general to every resident
of the State. This would also ensure that the fruits of
domicile would only be enjoyed by the ones who truly
deserve it and would fulfil the purpose of reducing
regional inequality.
89. (b) The manner in which states are introducing domicile-
based reservation is likely to compromise on the very
purpose of introducing common law admission test.
With this trend of increasing domicile reservations, it
seems difficult that the NLUs will be able to retain
their national character, sustain the high standard
and prominence which they have retained over
several years.
90. (b) The issue requires to be seriously considered by the
Government of India and also the legal fraternity. To
retain the glory which NLUs have attained, serious
steps and efforts are needed. The Government
should consider of introducing a policy so as to
balance the proportion, whereby more seats are
available based on merit. Domicile-based
reservations even if provided, should be curtailed to
a nominal percentage, so as not to affect the merit-
based admission through CLAT. The manner in
which states are introducing domicile-based
reservation is likely to compromise on the very
purpose of introducing common law admission test.
91. (c) An order of custody of minor children either under
the provisions of the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890
or the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 is
required to be made by the court treating the interest
and welfare of the minor to be of paramount
importance. It is not the better right of either parent
that would require adjudication while deciding their
entitlement to custody.
92. (d) Object and purpose of the Guardians and Wards Act,
1890 is not merely physical custody of the minor but
due protection of the rights of ward’s health,
maintenance and education. In considering the
question of welfare of minor, due regard has, of
course, to be given to the right of the father as natural
guardian but if the custody of the father cannot
promote the welfare of the children, he may be
refused such guardianship.
93. (b) Better financial resources of either of the parents or
their love for the child may be one of the relevant
considerations but cannot be the sole determining
factor for the custody of the child. Therefore, it can
be one of the many factors on which the court can
exercise its discretion and decide, but surely not the
sole factor of determination.
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94. (a) In the above passage, it has been mentioned that
though the provisions of the special statutes which
govern the rights of the parents or guardians may be
taken into consideration, there is nothing which can
stand in the way of the court exercising its parens
patriae jurisdiction (parent of the nature in law)
arising in such cases.
95. (a) In the above passage, it has been mentioned that a
bail order is only required to appreciate the concerns
of liberty of an accused and various factors (like
nature and gravity of charge, severity of the
punishment in the event of the conviction, danger of
accused absconding or fleeing, reasonable
apprehension of the witness being tampered with
and so on) and determine whether the accused
should be allowed bail or not. A bail order is not
required to determine the guilt of the accused.
96. (b) Self Explanatory.
97. (d) In the above passage it has been mentioned that in
Chinmayanand’s bail order, the High court
acknowledges this distinction and records the 'word
of caution' provided by the Supreme Court of India in
P. Chidambaram v. CBI whereby the court had
deprecated the practice of giving any finding on merit
while deciding bail application.
98. (a) Both statements are correct but (I) is the reason to
decide bail. Firstly, it has been made amply clear in
the passage given above that a bail order only has
to focus on the matters concerning the liberty of the
accused and not the merits of the case. Secondly,
the argument of lack of signs of resistance is bad in
law as the reaction varies from girl to girl.
99. (c) The first phrase ‘Whoever has sexual intercourse
with a person’ clearly shows that the offence needs
two participants. However, the offender is only the
married man who has sexual intercourse with a
married woman. Last line clarifies that the wife or the
woman is not even an abettor to the offence. The
phrase ‘without the consent or connivance of the
man’ shows that if the consent is there, the offence
will not be established. However, the use of the word
‘wife of another man’ shows that adultery applies
only if a married man has an intercourse with another
married woman.
100. (a) In the above passage, it has been mentioned that
Section 198 in the Code of Criminal Procedure
stipulates that it is only the husband who has the
right to file a criminal complaint and prosecute the
offence of adultery. In short, adultery is a crime, but
only if an unmarried man has sexual intercourse with
a married woman, and only if her husband withholds
his consent and decides to prosecute.
101. (a) Article 15(3) is meant to be a provision sanctioning
affirmative action, through which the State can take
steps to remove structural barriers that often operate
to deny women full and equal participation in society.
It was never meant to endorse a law that conferred
some superficial benefit on women, but did so on the
basis of the same stereotypes that were responsible
for those very barriers that the Constitution was
designed to remove.
102. (d) Whatever the status of these ideas in the 19th
century, they are clearly out of step with the founding
ideals of the Indian Constitution, which — among
other things — guarantee equality before law and
non-discrimination on account of sex. And in recent
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judgments, involving the employment of women as
bartenders or as make-up artists, the Supreme Court
has made clear that invidious sexual distinctions
founded on generalisations or stereotypes about the
nature, character and abilities of the sexes are
inconsistent with the Constitution.
103. (d) They are the consumers not because they are
parties to the contract of insurance but because they
are the beneficiaries of the policy taken out by the
insured. Moreover, they have the implicit approval of
Sunshine Freezers.
104. (d) The passage talks about the approval of the person
who buys a good or a consideration on behalf of the
consumer for availing the services.
105. (d) Smita is a consumer under the meaning of the Act.
Even though she is not availing the services but she
bought the washing machine for the purpose of
gifting.
106. (a) The laptop is being used by the person. He is
availing the services. The approval of the person
who may have bought the laptop is implicit as it is a
scholarship meant for the scholar. All the other
options lack in the sense that either there is no
approval from the original owner or there is no
consideration for the use of the services.
SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING
107. (d) Answer choice D is the most reasonable
explanation. When one considers that several years
passed between sightings before spotters began
seeing them with increasing regularity, the logical
conclusion is that, in some way, the spotters were
better able to see the asteroids. The writer makes no
mention of weather affecting the spotters' ability to
identify more asteroids, so answer choice A is not
the most reasonable. Offering more courses in
astronomy does not inevitably lead to more
astronomers; B is also incorrect. There is nothing in
this passage to suggest that there had been a period
of volcanic activity, the ash from which may have
blocked the view of the sky, so C is incorrect.
108. (a) After periods of relatively slow advances in the
discovery and accurate measurement of asteroids,
the pace of both increased rapidly. It would be fair to
predict that this pace would continue or increase. An
important idea in this passage is the revision of
current or previous understanding about objects in
the universe. Regardless of the scientific field, ideas
and theories are under continuing scrutiny as the
ability to examine objects becomes more advanced.
After all, humans for centuries believed that the
Earth was the center of the universe. Although the
other 3 answer choices are likely true, their truth
doesn't have an impact on the entirety of science.
109. (b) The passage mainly focuses on balancing. Choice A
is incorrect, as the balancing is more important than
the combat in the context of the passage. Choice C
is incorrect, as the passage suggests that these
muscles will be involved, but does not specifically
focus upon them. Choice D is incorrect, as nothing
in the passage mentions wrestling. Choice B is
correct, as this would test balance.
110. (c) Choice A is incorrect, as the passage is focused on
contemporary use of such machines, not their
history. Choice B is incorrect, as the passage is
concerned with various balancing exercises and
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MOCK CLAT #16
equipment and a general discussion of exercising
with partners would not be a natural extension of the
topic. Choice C is correct, as the passage could be
improved with more specific instructions for putting
its general principles into practice. Choice D is
incorrect, as age does not seem to be particularly
relevant to the point of the passage.
111. (b) The point of the passage is that several types of
beneficial exercise may be performed on the
equipment described. Choice A is incorrect, as the
cost of the bridge has nothing to do with its
effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect, as the
availability of bridges does not diminish their
effectiveness as exercise equipment. Choice B is
correct, as this discovery would undermine the
benefits of using the equipment.
112. (a) in the passage, the author gives an account of any
of his irrelevant word which comes out from his pen
or mouth and the reason for this is given in the
passage, as he feels hesitant to speak and this
hesitation ultimately taught him to control his
thoughts. So options (b), (c) and (d) are correct and
option (a) does not give the correct answer of not
speaking without thoughts.
113. (a) According to the passage, the author has not faced
any problem or being immune from any problem is
that, he never spoke any word without thoughts
which are mentioned clearly in the passage. So,
option (a) correctly gives the cause for this.
114. (d) According to the author, silence is the part of the
spiritual discipline of a votary of truth. Hence, it is
necessary in order to surmount the tendency to
overstate.
115. (c) The argument assumes that Democratic Alliance
voted against the Prime Minister's proposal only
because of political party differences, (c) contradicts
the fact by showing evidence that DA does, in fact,
support many proposals from this PM.
116. (d) The best approach for these kinds of questions is to
treaJ each question independently as a true/false
question. In this case, each of the three selections is
false. The first selection could be true based on the
information that some spouses have enrolled in the
programme, but it is possible that spouses might be
enrolled without being employees. Similarly, for II
and III and hence choice (d) is the right answer.
117. (a) This argument concerns the impact of the change in
cooking oil used by Fastfood King, and whether or
not this change had an adverse impact on sales. It is
given that sales of Fast Fries increased by 10
percent subsequent to the change. The issue is
whether or not this 10 percent increase compares
favorably to the increase one would expect taking
other factors into account, including in particular the
percentage increase enjoyed by Fast-food King’s
other offerings.
This statement indicates that Fast-food King’s total
food sales increased by less than 10 percent. As the
sales of Fast Fries increased at a higher rate of 10
percent, this strongly suggests that the change to
low-fat oil did not adversely impact the sales of Fast
Fries.
118. (d) The conclusion of the passage is that no police
officer should bet on sports. The premise is that
betting on sports is a form of gambling. In order for
this conclusion to follow logically from this premise,
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there must be an assumption identifying gambling as
something that no police officer should ever do. The
most effective way to strengthen the conclusion is to
show that this assumption is true.
This choice best strengthens the argument by
making explicit the assumption upon which the
conclusion is logically dependent.
119. (d) The conclusion is that "one will have a wider
selection of homes to choose from if one looks for a
home in Florida rather than in Texas." Why?
Because 15% of all homes in Florida are on the
market whereas only 7% of all homes in Texas are
on the market. This argument confuses percentages
with specific numbers. It is possible that 15% of the
number of homes in Florida is actually smaller than
7% of the number of homes in Texas. If the number
of homes in both states were the same, or if the
number of homes in Florida were greater than the
number in Texas, the argument would be stronger.
Choice E tells us that the number of homes in Florida
is greater, thus making the argument stronger.
120. (c) The pharmaceutical company claims that Dietol is
highly effective in helping people lose weight and
increase their physical endurance. However, since
the regular intake of Dietol was accompanied by
daily workouts under professional supervision, it is
unclear whether the results of the experiment should
be credited to the effects of Dietol or the rigorous
fitness program in which the subjects participated.
Thus, in order to evaluate the conclusion about the
effectiveness of Dietol, it would be useful to separate
these two effects and to see what result, if any, is
attributable to Dietol alone.
121. (d) The argument concludes that the prosecution of a
small number of people who download music
illegally will have a minimal impact on the overall
number of people who engage in illegal
downloading. The correct answer must relate
specifically to this issue and provide additional
insight as to whether it seems reasonable.
The argument concludes that the prosecution of a
small number of people who download music
illegally will have a minimal impact on the overall
number of people who engage in illegal
downloading. However, if the threat of prosecution
were enough to “alter the behavior” of others (i.e.,
deter them from illegally downloading music), the
actions of the recording industry could have a
significant impact on the number of people who
illegally download music.
122. (c) The conclusion of the argument is that the price of
chocolate will increase within six months. The basis
for that claim is that the wholesale price of cocoa has
increased. However, if the price of other ingredients
in the chocolate has dropped, the decrease could
offset the higher price of cocoa and render the
argument invalid. The only choice to address this is
(c).
123. (b) The conclusion of the argument is that "eating whole
grains can have an appreciable effect on cholesterol
levels." This assertion is based on the fact that some
people who ate three servings of whole grains every
day for six months had lower cholesterol than did
people who did not, even though their cholesterol
levels were the same before the study began. The
argument does not take into account, however, other
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MOCK CLAT #16
factors, such as exercise, that may have contributed
to the difference in cholesterol levels. Choice B asks
whether there is indeed another factor – exercise –
that should be taken into account.
124. (b) The author explains that devoted gamers
traditionally dictate the design of video games.
However, due to changes in the market, the author
argues that this system is no longer in the best
interest of the industry. Instead, to infuse new life into
the video game market, manufacturers should
simplify their games in order to attract non-gamers
into the gaming fold.
The first boldface portion is a situation that the author
believes to be true now. Due to changes in the
market, however, the author believes this situation
should not continue. The second boldface portion
provides evidence to support the author’s contention
that the best way to grow the gaming market is to
attract new gamers.
125. (d) Jim initially presents two premises: 1) it costs more
to make a penny and a nickel than their face value;
and 2) there is little that can be bought for a penny
or a nickel. He goes on to opine that the coins no
longer provide any necessary function to the
economy, then concludes with a proposal to remove
the coins from circulation and declare the basic unit
of American currency to be 10 cents. Mary responds
by implying that such a policy would be a "non-
starter" based on her assumptions of the practical
effects of trying to do so.
Mary’s response is based on her assumption that
Congress would not approve Jim’s proposal
because she assumes that it would be extremely
unpopular. She does not attack or even mention any
of Jim’s premises underlying his proposal.
126. (c) The owner of the coffee store makes three
statements citing evidence supporting his belief that
things are not going well at his store: 1) the store has
become a hangout for teenagers; 2) many of his
adult customers do not appear comfortable; and 3)
some of them have told him they will no longer
frequent the store. He then states that his goal is to
maximize his revenue and directs his store manager
to discourage the teenagers from frequenting his
store and to cultivate a more adult clientele. We can
reasonably infer that the owner believes that his
directive will help him achieve his goal of maximum
revenue. In response, the store manager makes no
attempt to refute the manager’s three statements,
but instead offers some new evidence which implies
that following the owner’s directive may work against
the owner’s goal of maximum revenue, further
implying that the status quo may be indeed be
compatible with that goal. By asserting that the
average teenager spends just as much money as the
average adult and that there are more new
customers than former customers, the manager is
presenting new evidence that implies that the current
situation is actually helping the owner achieve his
goal more than his directive would.
127. (d) The arguments of Jorge and Ruth can be analyzed as
follows: Jorge’s Argument: Premise: Rock music of
the 1960s was created by and for people who were
then in their teens and early twenties. Premise: You
were just an infant then [in the 1960s]. Conclusion:
You won’t be able to write well about the rock music
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of the 1960s. Ruth’s Argument: Premise: There are
living writers who write well about ancient Roman
culture, even though those writers are obviously not
a part of ancient Roman culture. Premise: Why
should my youth alone prevent me from writing well
about the music of a period as recent as the 1960s?
Conclusion: Your reasoning is absurd. Note that the
question stem asks you to identify how Ruth
responded. When two- speaker stimuli are combined
with Method of Reasoning questions, you are
typically asked to identify the reasoning of only one
of the speakers (often the second speaker).
However, you must still understand the argument of
the other speaker as the answer choices often refer
to it. Now let’s use the answer choices to discuss the
structure of the argument.
Answer choice (a): Ruth does not challenge Jorge’s
claim about her age. To the contrary, she seemingly
admits he is correct when she says “Why should my
youth alone...”
Answer choice (b): Although Ruth uses an example
that cites culture, she does not clarify a definition of
popular culture, and certainly not one left implicit in
Jorge’s argument.
Answer choice (c): This is a Half Right, Half Wrong
answer. The first part of the answer choice—“using
the example of classical culture”—does occur in
Ruth’s response, but she does not use that example
“in order to legitimize contemporary culture as an
object worthy of serious consideration.”
Answer choice (d): This is the correct answer. An
analogy is a comparison between two items. In
argumentation, analogies are often used to clarify
the relationship between the items or reveal a
fundamental truth about one of the items, as in “To
better understand the operating system of your
computer, think of it as the brain of your system.” The
use of “brain” in the preceding sentence is the
analogy. Analogies can be used to challenge a
position or support a position, but their strength often
rests on the relevant similarities between the two
items or scenarios. In the next chapter we will
discuss False Analogies, where an author uses an
analogy that is dissimilar enough to be non-
applicable. As referenced in this answer choice,
Ruth analogizes writing about Roman culture to
writing about the 1960s to show that it is not
unreasonable that someone who was an infant can
write about that time period. Jorge’s assumption is
that if a person was not a teen or older during the
1960s, then they cannot write well about the music
of that period. Since all elements described in the
answer choice occur and the answer describes the
method used by Ruth, this is the correct answer.
128. (d) The correct answer choice is (d). The heart of
Ingrid’s argument is that durability is measured by
how many times a song is recorded, and using this
standard, rock music songs are not as durable as
songs from the 1940s. Jerome admits that rock
music songs are not typically recorded multiple
times, but he then introduces a new way of judging
durability—one based on the continuing popularity of
the original recording. Answer choice (a): Jerome
does not misinterpret the claim. He starts off by
saying, “True, rock songs are usually recorded only
once,” and is a perfect characterization of part of
T49_MC16_ALL_02-2019-20 Page 6 of 8
MOCK CLAT #16
Ingrid’s statement. Answer choice (b): This is a good project the likeness of their subjects onto the canvas
example of an answer that might be kept as an initial and painted from there. - Supporting Premise Thus,
Contender. However, as you further consider the people who credit High Renaissance painters with
answer, you must identify the “contradiction” superior artistic skills are misguided. - The
mentioned in the answer choice. Does Jerome show Conclusion
that Ingrid’s claim must lead to a contradiction? No. BF2: Painting from a projected image requires only
Note that there is a difference between a speaker an insignificant amount of additional skill beyond that
contradicting an argument (as Jerome does here) needed to copy a picture outright. - Supporting Data
and a person making a statement that leads to an The statement reads in the following way:
internal contradiction (known as a self-contradiction.) Because scholars have documented that some High
An example of a self-contradiction would be: Renaissance painters used pinhole cameras to
“Everyone should join our country club. After all, it’s project the likeness of their subjects onto the canvas
an exclusive group that links many of the influential and painted from there, - BF1
members of the community.” The self-contradiction AND Because Painting from a projected image
occurs when the speaker says “Everyone should requires only an insignificant amount of additional
join” and then follows that by saying that it is “an skill beyond that needed to copy a picture outright. -
exclusive group.” Exclusive, by definition, means BF2
that some people are excluded. Answer choice (c): People who credit High Renaissance painters with
As discussed in answer choice (a), Jerome accepts superior artistic skills are misguided. - the position
the evidence presented by Ingrid. Because he does that the argument seeks to establish BF1 & BF2
not undermine the truth of the evidence used by each support the conclusion - the position that the
Ingrid, this answer is incorrect. Again, evidence is argument seeks to establish
another way to say “premise.” We know that Jerome Option (a) vs (d):
disagrees with Ingrid’s conclusion, but that does not (a) The first is a finding that has been used to
mean that he disagrees with her premise. Answer support a conclusion that the argument rejects;
choice (d): This is the correct answer. Jerome’s the second is a claim that supports that
standard for judging durability is the popularity of the conclusion.
original. This contrasts with Ingrid’s standard, which The argument does NOT reject the conclusion.
is the re-recording of the song. The point at issue is Rather, it supports the conclusion: - It's THE
the definition of durability. position that the argument seeks to establish
129. (b) The first is a prediction that is challenged by the (d) The first is evidence that forms the basis for the
argument; the second is a finding upon which the position that the argument seeks to establish;
argument depends. the second is a claim presented to solidify that
BF1: declining viewership will cause advertising position.
revenue to fall and networks will thus be 131. (d) Try yourself.
unable to spend the large sums necessary to 132. (b) Try yourself.
produce high quality programming. Hint (133 to 135): The information given in the
BF2: as a result, actually increase the numbers of question can be presented in the table as below.
hours per week that they watch television. Names University Subject
BF1: supports the network executive's conclusion Dr. Joshi Delhi History
while BF2 supports the Media Critic's Dr. Davar Osmania Geology
conclusion. Dr. Natrajan Gujarat Botany
We are looking for the answer choice, in Dr. Chaudhary Mumbai Zoology
which BF1 and BF2 are on opposite side. Dr. Zia Gujarat Physics
(a) The first is an inevitable trend that weighs 133. (c) Dr. Davar teaches Geology.
against the critic's claim; the second is the claim. 134. (a) Dr. Zia is from Gujarat university.
--> Wrong: BF1 and BF2 on same side 135. (d) Dr. Natrajan teaches in Guajrat University.
(b) The first is a prediction that is challenged by the
argument; the second is a finding upon which
the argument depends. --> Correct: BF1 and SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
BF2 on opposite side 136. (b) Total Secretaries in Finance Ministry = 960 ÷ 48 =
(c) The first clarifies the reasoning behind the 20
critic’s claim; the second demonstrates why that Number of male Secretaries in finance Ministry =
claim is flawed. --> Wrong: BF1 does not clarify 3
critic's claim. It clarifies execs claim × 20 = 12
3+2
(d) The first acknowledges a position that the Number of male officers from Communication and
8
technology executives accept as true; the information Technology Ministry = × 520 = 320
8+5
second is a consequence of that position. --> 12 3
Wrong: First part of the choice is correct - BF1 Therefore, required percentage = × 100 = ×
320 80
is premise to execs conclusion. Second part is 100 = 3.75%
wrong - BF2 goes against the exec's position. Hence, option (b)
130. (d) Many people praise High Renaissance painting for 137. (b) Number of Secretaries in Agriculture Ministry = 1080
creating very realistic images from observation, - ÷ 36 = 30
Fact Number of Secretaries in Human Resource
BF1: but scholars have documented that some High Development Ministry = 720÷ 45 = 16
Renaissance painters used pinhole cameras to

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MOCK CLAT #16
Number of Secretaries in Panchayati Raj ministry = No. of Spectators = 760,000. Average Realization
560 ÷ 40 = 14 per Spectator
30+16+14 60 = 396000000 / 760,000 = Rs 521
Therefore, required average = = = 20
3 3 144. (d) Ticket sales at Rs 50/ticket = 50 × 14, 000 = Rs 7
Hence, option (b)
lakh
138. (c) Total number of officers from Human Resource
Ticket sales at Rs 300/ticket = 300 × 14,000 = Rs
development Ministry = 720
42 lakh
Total number of Officers from Panchyati Raj and
The required difference = Rs 35 lakh
Communication and information
145. (c) Prize money = 7%; Sponsors = 40%. T.V. rights =
Technology Ministry = 560 + 520 = 1080
720 6 17%,
Therefore, required percentage = × 100 = × So the required %age = (7/57) × 100 =
1080 9
100 = 66.67% 12%(approx.)
Hence, Option (c) Hint (Q.146-Q.150):
139. (d) Number of Secretaries in Agriculture Ministry = 1080
÷ 36 = 30
Number of Secretaries in Human Resource
Development Ministry = 720 ÷ 45 = 16
Number of Male Secretaries in Agriculture Ministry =
8
× 30 = 16
8+7
Number of female Secretaries in Agriculture ministry
= 30 – 16 = 14
Number of male Secretaries in Human Resource
5
development Ministry = × 16 = 10
5+3
P1 = 56% of 200 = 112
Number of females Secretaries in human Resource
P2 = 63% of 200 = 126
department = 16 – 10 = 6
5 P3 = 56.5% of 200 = 113
Male Officers in Agriculture Ministry = × 1080 = P1 + P2 = 11% of 200 = 22
5+4
600 P1 + P3 = 8% of 200 = 16
Therefore, female Officers in Agriculture Ministry = Pl + P2 + P3 = 22% of 200 = 44
1080 – 600 = 480 x + 22 + 16 + 44 = 112
Number of male officers in human Resource or, x = 112 - 82 = 30
7 22 + 44 + y + k = 126
development Ministry = × 720 = 420
7+5
or, y + k = 60 ... (1)
Therefore, female Officers in Human Resource
z + k + 16 + 44 = 113
development Ministry = 720 – 420 = 300
or, z + k = 53 ... (2)
So, required difference = (16 + 10 + 600+420)- (14+
112 + y + k + z = 200
6 + 480 + 300) = 1046 – 800 = 246
or, y + z + k = 88 ... (3)
Hence, option (d)
From eqn (1), (2) and (3),
140. (b) Total number of students in Youth Ministry =
1080+720 k = 25, y = 35, z = 28
= 900 146. (c) 25
2
So, total number of secretaries = 900÷ 60 = 15 147. (c) Only P2 = 35
Hence, Option (b) Only P3 = 28
141. (c) Total profit = 14% of Rs 120 cr = 16.8 cr.; Required Ratio = 35/28 = 5 : 4
India’s share in profit = 3/6 × 16.8 cr = 8.4 cr 148. (a) Only P1 = 30
Tax deduction = 30% of 8.4 cr = 2.52 cr; Post tax Only P1 + P3 = 16
profit = 8.4 - 2.52 = Rs 5.9 cr 30
Required % = X 100 = 187.5%
16
142. (d) Operational cost = 63% of 120 cr = 75.6 cr;
149. (d) At most one paper = 30 + 28 + 35 = 93
25% to security = 75.6 × (25/100) = 18.9 cr 93
Avg. cost of a security personnel = 1890 lakh / Required % = x 100 = 46.5 %
200
17,000 = Rs 0.11 lakh. 150. (c) Passed in Paper P3 = 113
143. (b) Cash Inflow through Ticket Sales = 33% of 120 cr = Passed in paper P3 only = 28
39.6 cr.; Difference = 113 – 28 = 85

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