MOCK CLAT #22
LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
Part of the most Comprehensive Classroom Training, Prep Content & Test Series across the Nation.
From the producers of A.I.R. 2, 3 and 5 in CLAT 2019.
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2020
MOCK CLAT #22
ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (b) The ordinary megalomaniac does not have the
talent to realise his wish which Alexander the Great
had
2. (d) By wishing to be powerful and feared
3. (d) Excessive lover of power
4. (c) The nurturing of only one element in human nature
5. (c) Because it is a part of human nature
6. (d) Galileo and his telescope
7. (b) Its surface was covered with bumps and craters
8. (d) A device that magnifies distant objects
9. (a) A Dutch inventor's spyglass
10. (a) Developments
11. (c) The second sentence of the passage states that the
effects of impure water are much more
considerable than what might have been imagined.
From this it can be inferred that at times these
effects are underestimated. Hence, (C) should be
the correct answer.
A. Extreme option. The first sentence of the
passage states that perfectly pure water is
scarcely ever met but 'scarcely' does not mean
'never'.
B. The passage makes no mention of spring
water and we cannot use our knowledge of the
same to answer questions.
C. The first line of the second paragraph implies
that this is not the case.
12. (d) The last line of the second paragraph states that
soft water increases the quantity of extractive
matter obtained from malt. So, (D) cannot be
inferred from the passage and is the correct
answer.
A. Paragraph 1 states this.
B. This can be inferred from the information in
paragraph 1.
C. This can be inferred from the last Paragraph.
13. (d) The last line of the third paragraph states that if
perfectly pure water were not available, it would be
impossible to create certain colours.
A. The passage never mentions water-borne
diseases.
B. This is not implied by the passage. Even if
perfectly pure water were not available, the
quality of water may not necessarily be so bad
as to impact brewery operations.
C. Again 'impossible' is an extreme term. Same
asB.
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14. (a) Be careful this question is asking you something
about soft water and not hard water. The third
paragraph states that hard water should not be
used by a dyer because it alters the natural tints of
some colours. Thus it can be inferred that soft
water would not alter the natural tint of colours.
Hence,
A. should be the best answer.
B. The passage never states that hard water
makes the fabric hard.
C. The passage states, that hard water reduces
the brilliance of fabrics, but that does not mean
that soft water can increase this brilliance. It
may have no effect on the brilliance.
D. This is true of a painter and not of a dyer.
15. (d) The author has reiterated the underlying unity of
Indian spirit through the ages in the passage. He
has cited political examples which could have
broken the spirit of India, but failed. The author also
mentions in the first paragraph: 'it indicated the ...
peoples produced'. Hence, (D) is the correct
answer.
A. The author has mentioned various invaders
like the Huns, Scythians and so on.
B. The first paragraph talks of philosophy being
regarded as the 'goal of all the highest... activities'.
C. In the last paragraph, the author describes
political events as 'hurricanes' and goes on to
mention that the 'passivity of some centuries' is
temporary and did not have any impact on the
underlying spirituality of the country.
16. (d) In the last paragraph, the author reiterates the
fundamental unity of the country. It is also inferred
by his use of the term 'after a passivity of some
centuries'—he concedes that spiritual India
encountered a setback due to distractions of war—
however, the underlying unity will resurface. Hence,
(D) is the best option.
A. Not mentioned.
B. Author has not mentioned Indian philosophy as
a power—retained or lost.
C. Out of scope—author is discussing India's
contribution to philosophy and not to the
progress of mankind.
17. (b) The author has, in the passage, discussed the
philosophy of India. He has analysed the underlying
factors responsible for its incredible sustainability
through the ages, across political upheaval and
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MOCK CLAT #22
geographical boundaries. Hence, (B) is the best
answer.
A. The author never compares Indian philosophy
with anything.
B. The political invasions are mentioned by the
author to reiterate the sustainability factor of
philosophy.
C. The unity of India is not under discussion—as
per the first paragraph, the author has put
philosophy over and above everything else.
18. (a) The author never mentions that the goal of
philosophy is to bring together different people
Hence, (A) is the best answer. '
A. (B) Inferred from the first paragraph.
B. The second paragraph has mentioned
categorically that it has 'outlived' all political
changes.
C. The first paragraph talks of spirituality being an
integral part of philosophy.
19. (d) The point of the passage (the Japanese sword is
not just a fine weapon but something even more
special) is clearly established in the first two
sentences; the purpose of the passage is to explain
and support that point. The passage as a whole
describes the immense value of the Japanese
sword to both the samurai (the sword's owner) and
the Smith (its maker).
A. The sentence The sword is the soul of the
samurai' is referenced in the passage to
indicate its importance. The passage also talks
about the details of the tremendous effort that
is put into each sword, reflecting the
importance of each one. So, correct answer is
Statement IV.
20. (d) For an 'except' question , you should use the
process of elimination to identify and cross out
those details mentioned in the passage.
A. The passage does not state that most major
historians consider master smiths themselves
to be artists. Also, the Passage states that
"Master Smiths may not have been considered
artists in the classical sense', so the correct
answer is option (d).
21. (c) When looking for statements with which the author
could agree, be sure to avoid extreme words and
positions that go beyond the author's statements in
the passage. The passage says that every Master
Smith had a structural signature due to his own
secret forging process. Therefore,
A. if a physical signature is present on a blade,
that blade's structural signature could then be
associated with a Master Smith, whose master
status implies the creation of numerous
swords. So, the correct answer is Statement III.
22. (b) In the passage, the author states that every Master
Smith had a 'structural signature' due to his own
secret forging process. The word signature implies
the uniqueness of the Smith's process. Be careful
not to infer any additional information, particularly
when the question refers to a specific sentence or
phrase. So, the correct answer is Statement II.
23. (c) The second paragraph extends the idea introduced
in the first paragraph that the Japanese sword is
special and a unique work of art. In several places,
the second paragraph underscores the uniqueness
of individual Japanese swords. The first sentence
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mentions that 'no sword was created in exactly the
same way'. Later in the second paragraph, it is
mentioned that every Master Smith had a 'structural
signature1; finally the last sentence indicates that
'this effort made each blade as unique as the
samurai who wielded it'. So, the correct answer is
option (c).
24. (c) Refer to the first two lines of the second
paragraph'Master Smiths may not have been
considered artists in the classical sense, but
everyone of them took great care in how he created
a sword and no sword was created in exactly the
same way. The fact that no sword was created in
exactly the same way implies that each sword was
unique or the only one of its kind. Moreover, the
uniqueness of the blade of each sword is also
referred to in the last lines of the passage.
25. (c) The authors do not include massive stars in their
list of possible explanations for missing matter.
26. (c) An inference is drawn from the stated information.
This question refers to the first paragraph, where
the authors explain that the critical density of matter
needed to break the expansion and close the
universe is equivalent to three hydrogen atoms per
cubic meter. If the density is significantly less, then
the universe will not 'close' but continue to expand
indefinitely. So, the correct answer is Statement III.
27. (c) The authors did not change ideas about luminosity.
However, the authors changed their ideas about
both 3 rotational velocity and the distribution of
matter. So, the correct answer is option (c).
28. (b) Figuring out the author's primary concern depends
on a careful review of the passage as a whole. The
author's primary purpose in this passage is to
summarise the findings of their research,
29. (a) The region has similar rotational velocity and higher
luminosity.
SECTION - B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT
AFFAIRS
30. (b) The Forest Department of the Odisha State
Government conducted a census at Chilika lake to
count the number of dolphins at Gahirmatha Marine
Sanctuary.
31. (d) According to the report, the dolphin count came
down to 233 in 2020 from 259 in 2019. At the
census, 60 Irawaddy Dolphins and only two bottle
nose dolphin.
32. (c) is the correct answer.
33. (a) is the correct answer.
34. (a) The Ganges river dolphin is the national aquatic
animal of India and also selected as city animal for
the Indian city of Guwahati, found only in India and
neighbor countries.
35. (d) The Airports Authority of India (AAI) has initiated
the process to build India’s first three water
aerodromes in Andaman and Nicobar islands.
36. (b) The nearest land mass to Great Nicobar Island is
Sumatra, 145 km southeast; and the Myanmar
coast is roughly 280 km north of Landfall Island, the
northern- most island in the Great Andaman group.
37. (a) The Southernmost Point of India is INDIRA POINT
in the Nicobar District of Andaman and Nicobar
Islands.
38. (b) India's only active volcanoes is located in Barren
island of Andaman, which is also
the only confirmed active volcano in South Asia.
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MOCK CLAT #22
39. (d) Saddle Peak or Saddle Hill is located on North Andaman
Island in India's Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
40. (a) Union Cabinet has approved the Pesticide
Management Bill 2020 to promote the use of
organic pesticides in the country.
41. (b) A portion of the targets expressed in the Bill are: To 53.
guarantee the accessibility of value pesticides. To
forestall or limit the pollution of agrarian products
from the pesticide build-up. To make a mindfulness
among the ranchers and different clients of
pesticides about its protected and sensible use. 54.
42. (a) On February 12, 2020 the Union Cabinet approved
to table the Pesticide Management Bill, 2020 in
Parliament. The bill aims at making safe and 55.
effective pesticides for farmers. The main aim of the
bill is to replace the Insecticides Act, 1968.
43. (c) The Bill stipulates that any pesticide sold to a 56.
farmer, producer, distributor, retailer, pest control
operator or stockist must disclose the expected
safety, efficacy and performance of the pesticide 57.
under the given conditions. Under the Bill the
affected users are entitled to get compensation
under the provisions of the Consumer Protection
Act, 1986 in case of any damage to health or
environment caused by the use of such pesticides.
44. (c) In 2008, a Pesticide Management Bill was
approved by the Cabinet and introduced in the
Rajya Sabha. After that, it was referred to the 58.
standing committee on agriculture. During the first
term of the Modi government, a draft bill was
prepared by the in 2017-18.
45. (a) The right to protest peacefully is enshrined in the
Indian Constitution—Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the
freedom of speech and expression; Article 19(1)(b)
assures citizens the right to assemble peaceably 59.
and without arms. Article 19(1)(3) says this right is
subject to “reasonable restrictions” in the interest of
public order.
46. (b) The Constitution of India provides the right of
freedom, given in article 19 with the view of
guaranteeing individual rights that were considered 60.
vital by the framers of the constitution. According to 61.
the HC, their strikes are hampering the delivery of
justice system.
47. (b) The Constitution guarantees six fundamental rights
to Indian citizens as follows: (i) right to equality, (ii) 62.
right to freedom, (iii) right against exploitation, (iv)
right to freedom of religion, (v) cultural and
educational rights, and (vi) right to constitutional 63.
remedies.
48. (c) The Bar Council of India is a statutory body
established under the section 4 of advocates Act
1961 that regulates the legal practice and legal 64.
education in India.
49. (c) The Fundamental Rights can be suspended during
emergency by the President of India under Article
359 of the Indian Constitution. 65.
50. (c) On January 17, 2020, Government of India, Bru-
Reang representatives, Government of Tripura and
Mizoram signed an agreement in New Delhi to end
the refugee crisis of Bru-Reang community. Home 66.
Minister Amit Shah presided over the event.
51. (b) In Tripura, they are recognised as a Particularly 67.
Vulnerable Tribal Group. They are nomadic tribe.
52. (c) The stakeholders in the issue expect a package of 68.
Rs 600 crore from the Centre which
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includes:Plots of 2,500 sq ft for each Bru family in
addition to agricultural land, a stipend of Rs 5,000
per month and free ration for each family for the
next two years. Bru tribals would be included in
Tripura’s voter list.
(b) Back in 1997, about 30,000 Bru-Reang
tribals fled from Mizoram and took shelter
in Tripura’s refugee camps. These refugees were
said to have fled from Mizoram due to ethnic
tension.
(c) Reangs are the second largest tribal community
of Tripura. They are recognized as one of the 75
primitive tribes in India.
(a) The International Day of Happiness is celebrated
across the world every year on March 20. It was
initially founded and conceptualized in 2006.
(b) It was initially founded and conceptualized in 2006
by Jayme Illien CEO of the United Nations New
World Order project.
(c) In 2006, Illien first presented the new economic
theory, "happytalism", as a new economic system
for the 21st century and beyond, to replace old
world economic systems (from 5th to 20th century)
such as capitalism, communism, socialism,
mercantilism, colonialism, feudalism, racism, and
sexism, among others - all created more than 150-
1000 years ago.
(b) The 2020 International Day of Happiness campaign
theme is ‘Happiness For All, Together'”. To
celebrate, UNIDO Happiness, the UN secretariat for
the International Day Of Happiness, is calling on all
7.8 billion people and all 206 nations and territories,
to take the "Ten Steps to Global Happiness"
challenge and call to action.
(c) In 2012, the United Nations General Assembly
adopted UN resolution 66 281: International Day of
Happiness with the unanimous consensus of all
193 Member States, and the support of then UN
Secretary General Ban Ki moon, declaring March
20 as the international day of happiness.
(b) [1] will be replaced by Rs. 2000
(b) Section 29B of the Representation of the People
Act (RPA) entitles parties to accept voluntary
contributions by any person or company, except a
Government Company.
(c) Part XV of the Indian constitution deals with
elections, and establishes a commission for these
matters.
(a) Sukumar Sen (1898–1963) was an Indian civil
servant who was the first Chief Election
Commissioner of India, serving from 21 March 1950
to 19 December 1958.
(d) The Indian general election of 1951–52, held from
25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952, was the first
election to the Lok Sabha since India became
independent in August 1947.
(c) Indian National Defence University is a national
defence university of the Government of India at
Binola village in Gurgram district of Haryana state
in India that is being built.
(a) The Defence Minister will be the chancellor of INDU
and chairperson of the University Council.
(b) Indian National Defence University set up
in Gurgaon in Haryana.
(b) In the aftermath of Kargil war in 1999, the proposal
was taken seriously and the Vajpayee Government
Page 3 of 9
MOCK CLAT #22
set up a Committee on the (CONDU) headed by the
late K. Subrahmanyam.
SECTION – C : LEGAL REASONING
69. (d) The test is to establish the connection between
what the law allows and if the facts agree with the
same. Hence, if the circulation can be connected to
the powers of the State of Bombay they can tax
them.
70. (d) It would be allowed as they have created a real
relation between the manufacturing company which
is within the state territory’s limit.
71. (d) While making laws for another state is barred
territorial nexus is the exception to the rules under
245 wherein as long as the real connection is
established, it is allowed.
72. (c) The doctrine of territorial nexus states that any
state may be allowed to have extra territorial effect
of their legislature within the Indian Territory as long
as the two principles given are satisfied.
73. (d) Our constitution is of is the supreme law of the land
provides the basic meaning of federalism that is the
division of powers.
74. (d) Doctrine of territorial nexus provides for the dual
test of territorial connection and law by the state
legislature to have extra territorial application.
75. (b) The NGT is in essence, a civil court, empowered
therefore, only to impose liabilities of a civil nature.
The NGT itself has conceded to its lack of
jurisdiction over cases involving provisions of
criminal law. Imprisonment and imposition of fine is
punitive in nature and thus lies beyond the
jurisdiction of the NGT.
76. (c) In the case of M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath, the
Supreme Court iterated that the sine qua non of
criminal punishment is ‘a fair trial by a competent
court.’ Given that NGT is not the competent court,
and is far from being well-equipped to conduct a
trial, the Hon’ble Apex Court seems to have quite
patently erred in deciding the appeal in the Tanaji
Case, rendering the decision per incuriam.
77. (c) In the above passage, it has been mentioned that
the special status of the NGT, is that it has powers
restricted to the civil realm. Also, the NGT cannot
validly impose a fine or imprisonment. These
sanctions are punitive in nature.
78. (b) The NGT is in essence, a civil court, empowered
therefore, only to impose liabilities of a civil nature.
The NGT itself has conceded to its lack of
jurisdiction over cases involving provisions of
criminal law. Imprisonment and imposition of fine is
punitive in nature and thus lies beyond the
jurisdiction of the NGT.
79. (a) In the above passage, while striking down Section
13(2) of the Rent Control Act which provided for a
direct appeal before the Supreme Court against the
orders of the Rent Control Tribunal, the Supreme
Court held that the State Legislature has
transgressed its legislative power, the Court held.
The Chhattisgarh State Assembly lacked the
jurisdiction or the competence to enact any law that
affects the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
80. (d) Presidential assent cannot and does not validate an
enactment in excess of the legislative powers of the
State Legislature, nor validate a statutory provision,
which would render express provisions of the
Constitution otiose. Presidential assent cures
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repugnancy with an earlier Central Statute,
provided the State Legislature is otherwise
competent to enact the Statute.
81. (c) In the case discussed in the above passage, it was
contended before the Court that Section 13(2) of
the Rent Control Act does not confer on the
Supreme Court, jurisdiction it did not already
possess, but is only incidental to and/or extension
of its power under Article 136, is not sustainable in
law. The Court, however, rejected the said
contention and held that under Article 136 of the
Constitution, the Supreme Court does not act as a
regular court of appeal. The power of the Supreme
Court under Article 136 is not to be confused with
the appellate power ordinarily exercised by
appellate courts and Tribunals under specific
statutes
82. (c) In the above passage, while striking down Section
13(2) of the Rent Control Act which provided for a
direct appeal before the Supreme Court against the
orders of the Rent Control Tribunal, the Supreme
Court held that the State Legislature has
transgressed its legislative power, the Court held.
The Chhattisgarh State Assembly lacked the
jurisdiction or the competence to enact any law that
affects the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. There
is no mention of ousting the jurisdiction of the
subordinate courts.
83. (c) Mukta’s previous marriage has not yet ended into a
divorce. Therefore, her live in relationship with Yug
cannot warrant protection of the court)
84. (d) The marriage of Rajat has not yet come to an end.
Therefore, his live-in relationship cannot be
considered in the nature of marriage hence Meghna
still remains an unmaried woman and will retain the
custody of her child according to the law of Scindia)
85. (c) Neeru’s relationship with Peeru shall be considered
in the nature of marriage as Peeru had lawfully
obtained a divorce from his previous marriage.)
86. (d) Only such cases where the partners have not
obtained a divorce or are living unlawfully in a live-
in relationship are counted to not fall under the
nature of a marriage
87. (c) The husband has clearly withdrawn from the
society of Mridula cutting off all the ties. Thus,
Mridula has the grounds to file for RCR)
88. (b) The only reason the petition is not maintainable is
because there no valid marriage between Atul and
his mistress.)
89. (c) The petition will as there is reasonable excuse on
part of the wife to withdraw from the society of her
husband. Moreover, they had consensually
decided.)
90. (d) Refer to the para. Even option c may be true
however the same cannot be inferred from the
passage
91. (d) Attachment of property happens to the non-
complying party. The option c talks about the
‘complying party’
92. (a) Persons belonging to communities that already
have reservations such as Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes and the "creamy layer" of Other
Backward Classes are also not eligible for
reservation under this quota.
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MOCK CLAT #22
93. (c) The Amendment does not make such reservations
mandatory in State Government-run educational
institutions or State Government jobs.)
94. (b) The Amendment does not make such reservations
mandatory in State Government-run educational
institutions or State Government jobs.
95. (c) minority educational institutions are exempted from
this amendment.
96. (d) because by the law, if they choose to implement it,
the state governments are given the authority to
change the eligibility criteria and also to extend the
income limit further for candidates seeking
reservation under EWS category which will be valid
only in state-owned colleges and state
government's jobs as deemed fit for the respective
states.
97. (a) to fall under EWS umbrella, income is not the only
deciding factor. Families that own over 5 acres of
agricultural land, a house over 1,000 square feet, a
plot of over 100-yards in a notified municipal area
or over a 200-yards plot in a non-notified municipal
area cannot avail the reservation.
98. (a) The RTE Act is the first legislation in the world that
puts the responsibility of ensuring enrolment,
attendance and completion on the Government.
99. (b) the act requires all private schools to reserve 25%
of seats to children (to be reimbursed by the state
as part of the public-private partnership plan). Kids
are admitted into private schools based on
economic status or caste based reservations. It
also makes provisions for no tuition, donation or
capitation fees and no interview of the child or
parent for admission.
100. (d) The Act lays down specific responsibilities for the
centre, state and local bodies for its
implementation.
101. (d) The RTE Act ensures enrolment, attendance and
completion of education on the Government only for
children between age 6-14 years. Rohan does not
qualify to receive the benefit.
102. (c) The Act also provides that no child shall be held
back, expelled, or required to pass a board
examination until the completion of elementary
education.
103. (a) because the right to education falls under article 21.
And the benefits of Article 21 can be availed by
anyone on Indian soil, whether or not a citizen of
India.
SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING
104. (d) (a) The argument says nothing about decline.
(b) This is sad, but isn’t relevant.
(c) “Take a long time” — so what?
(d) Yep, exactly. This is our answer, because the
argument assumes that major investment is
the only way to make your standard of living
rise, which confused a sufficient with a
necessary condition.
The best answer is D. It’s critical that you
answer this question in advance. If you didn’t
notice the blatant sufficient/necessary error
before looking at the answer choices, you were
probably screwed.
105. (a) (a) Yeah, exactly. Just because Wagston’s staff is
dirty doesn’t mean everyone’s dirty.
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(b) No. It’s possible that any bribery is bad enough
to prove that Wagston’s staff is dirty. This
definitely isn’t as big of a problem as A was.
(c) No. On this question, it’s not horrible to
assume that “bribery” and “corruption” are
equal. It’s a much worse problem to accuse
everyone on the board of corruption because
of the actions of a possibly limited group.
(d) The argument doesn’t “presume without
providing justification” that Wagston’s staff is
corrupt. The argument provides evidence that
they engaged in bribery! Furthermore, the
argument didn't necessarily accuse all of
Wagston's staff.
The answer is A, because it’s not cool to call
the entire board corrupt on the basis of a few
wrongdoers on one board member’s staff.
106. (d) (a) No, the argument doesn’t confuse cause and
effect.
(b) No, the argument doesn’t throw up its hands
and say, “Therefore we’ll never know what
causes some phobias.”
(c) No, the argument isn’t circular. This would be
the answer if the argument had said “My daddy
can definitely beat up your daddy, because if
they got in a fight, my daddy would kick your
daddy’s ass.”
(d) Yep. This is exactly it. The speaker has
assumed that if George Burns can smoke
every day of his life without getting lung
cancer, then smoking and lung cancer are not
“invariably associated,” and therefore smoking
can’t cause lung cancer.
Our answer is (d).
107. (b) (a) This is describing the classic sufficient vs.
necessary flaw, which I didn’t spot in the
argument. I’m very highly attuned to this flaw,
because it is so common. So if I didn’t spot it
when I read the argument, then I am almost
sure it isn’t there.
(b) Yep. Because polar bears didn’t change,
therefore humans couldn’t have changed?
That’s WRONG ! Which makes this a great
answer.
(c) The problem with this answer is that it’s saying
“necessary” instead of “sufficient.” The
argument says ice ages weren’t sufficient to
change polar bear brains, therefore ice ages
weren’t sufficient to change human brains
either. This answer says ice ages were
necessary to change one species, but might
not be necessary for other species. That’s
different… the argument isn’t talking about
necessary conditions.
(d) The argument simply doesn’t do this.
Our answer is B, because it does the best job
of pointing out why the argument is silly.
108. (d) (a) This would actually support the argument. No
way.
(b) This would also support the idea that the rise in
the cancer rate is not due to synthetic
carcinogens.
(c) Since the argument is only about cancer,
toxicity only matters here to the degree that it
causes cancer. Other toxicity is irrelevant.
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MOCK CLAT #22
(d) It’s not the world’s easiest question, but this is
probably the answer. This answer says, “Sure,
there are both synthetic and nonsynthetic
carcinogens. But people are far more
frequently exposed to synthetic carcinogens…
so um, synthetic carcinogens might be the
culprit after all.” It’s not what we predicted, but
it’s a solid attack on the argument.
Our answer is (d), because it points out a
possible problem with the argument.
109. (d) (a) This just isn’t what we’re looking for.
(b) This would be the correct answer if the
argument had said, “The subsidy has helped
urban populations gain electricity, and
therefore it is a failure.” But that’s not what the
argument says.
(c) Not what we’re looking for.
(d) Exactly. A policy doesn’t have to help everyone
in the target population in order to be a
success unless it states that somewhere in the
policy itself.
110. (d) (a) The word “should” is never used in the
argument. I can’t see how this could possibly
be the flaw, because the author simply didn’t
do what (a) describes.
(b) I think this is probably the answer. The
novelist’s main problem seems to be the
assumption that authors will always know in
advance whether something is grammatical;
the novelist is failing to see the gray area.
(b)seems to point this out. It’s the best answer
so far.
(c) This would be the answer if the novelist had
made a grand, sweeping conclusion that
grammar references are useless to everyone.
But that’s not what the argument said. The
novelist’s conclusion was only about authors:
“Thus, grammar books are useless as
reference sources for authors.” So this answer
is a trap.
(d) Okay, now we have to figure out what the
difference is between B and E. I’m 99 percent
sure that the novelist’s mistake was ignoring
the middle ground. Both B and D seem to
describe that. (d)actually does a better job of
describing the flaw, because it says clearly,
“Ignores the possibility that there is a middle
ground.” Answer (b), on the other hand, says
the author has “inferred” one thing from the
other. I don’t think the author actually did that.
If he did, it would have sounded like, “Anyone
who doesn’t think a sentence is ungrammatical
must always think a sentence is grammatical.”
He didn’t actually say that, did he? Instead, he
just failed to consider, or “ignored,” the middle
ground. So our answer is (d).
111. (b) (a) I don’t think the argument does this, partially
because I don’t even know what it means. I’m
hoping to find something that I can understand,
and that matches my predicted flaw.
(b) Yep. This is a good description of the flaw of
taking disproof of an argument to mean
disproof of that argument’s conclusion, so it’s
almost certainly the correct answer.
(c) What? This is nonsensical. There can be all
sorts of good reasons for disbelieving a true
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statement. Example: If you were OJ’s friend,
but you didn’t know he was completely crazy,
then maybe you wouldn’t believe the
prosecutor when he told you OJ did it, even
though in retrospect you’d have to agree that
he obviously did it. Anyway (b) was exactly
what I predicted, so I don’t need to waste any
more time on C.
(d) Is it even a given fact that people’s perception
of their importance changed from century to
century? I’m not sure it is. Anyway this isn’t
what I was looking for. (b)is still the leader.
Our answer is (b).
112. (d) (a) The argument didn’t consider this possibility,
but why is this possibility even relevant? Just
because two historians sometimes agree
doesn’t strengthen or weaken the idea that
historians should interpret participant
observations rather than interpreting the events
themselves. This just isn’t relevant to the given
argument.
(b) Other scholars aren’t relevant here.
(c) Whether or not the specific mechanisms of
bias have been identified doesn’t matter. What
matters is, will bias be avoided by focusing on
participant observations?
(d) Yes! This answer choice doesn’t get into
specifics, but it does match up with our
objections at the top. The plan is stupid
because why on Earth would you think it will
eliminate bias?! The plan never provided a
shred of evidence that it would change the bias
situation at all… it was just one gigantic
assumption. Since A didn’t touch this issue, we
can happily pick (d).
113. (a) (a) Yes, the politician assumed that if the oil
barons weren’t the richest of all industrialists,
then we’d better let them get even richer. The
politician did employ a half-assed justification
for this, with the bit about the risky investments
that are required, but the problem with that
analysis is that the risky investments currently
are being made, so how could we conclude
that the regs are too tight? I like this answer,
because I feel like it points out the idiocy of the
argument.
(b) The politician is on the oil companies’ side, so
he definitely didn’t attack their character. Not
even close. If you picked this answer, it’s a
sure sign that you just aren’t reading carefully
enough. Slow down.
(c) I’m very familiar with the dreaded correlation-
therefore-causation flaw, but that’s not the flaw
present in this argument. (a)is still the best
answer.
(d) The argument actually doesn’t do this, because
it cites “recent data” rather than citing an
absence of evidence. No way.
114. (c) (a) This could only weaken the argument if we
were provided with an additional premise that
said, “The tax is not burdensome to the
average smoker.” Lacking that premise, this
answer choice isn’t a weakener. Actually, if
given the additional information that the tax is
burdensome to the average smoker, this
answer would become a strengthener. We
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MOCK CLAT #22
need to pick an answer choice that’s a clear
weakener, and this isn’t it.
(b) This isn’t relevant, because studies show that
“cigarette sales drop substantially in cities that
impose stiff tax increases on cigarettes.” It
doesn’t matter whether they would have been
more sensitive to a regular price increase than
to a tax hike. What matters is that they do, in
fact, curtail their purchases in response to the
hike.
(c) This could be it. If this is true, then smoking in
the mayor’s city might not decrease even if
cigarette sales decrease within city limits. The
city’s residents will just drive five minutes out of
town and avoid the tax. Hell, they’ll probably
smoke on the way there and on the way back!
(d) This is certainly true in real life, but real life isn’t
the point. The point is: Will smoking decrease
even if the education doesn’t work? The mayor
says it will, because the tax will drive down
cigarette sales. This answer doesn’t attack the
mayor’s logic.
Our answer is (c), because it illustrates how
the tax might drive down sales but still not reduce
smoking.
115. (d) (a) The argument is simply not about safety.
Please be careful to focus on the conclusion
that is actually being made in the argument.
The argument was about taste. Safety is
irrelevant.
(b) This would strengthen the argument. We’re
looking for a weakener.
(c) This wouldn’t weaken the argument because
the argument restricts itself to the issue of the
salinity level and taste of the groundwater.
Cars slipping on the roads is irrelevant.
(d) This isn’t exactly what we were looking for, but
it’s close enough. If Answer (d) is true, then the
salinity of the groundwater has increased from
90 mg/liter to 100 mg/liter in the past 20 years.
Groundwater is palatable up to 250 mg/liter, so
why would the author conclude that
groundwater is going to become unpalatable
“in the next few decades”? If the rate of
increase is just 10 mg every 20 years, then it
seems like we’ve got 300 more years before
we reach the point where the water is too salty.
I bet this is our answer.
116. (b) (a) This answer could hardly be worse. It’s simply
not related in any way to the practice of giving
new customers special treatment. How could
this possibly strengthen the argument?
(b) Ahh. I like this one. This one specifically
addresses the practice of playing favorites, and
says if you’re going to play favorites, you better
play favorites only with your most loyal
customers (i.e., not your brand-new ones). This
is a strong candidate.
(c) Well, no shit that would be prohibitively
expensive! Who said everybody should be
given stuff for free? The analyst certainly didn’t.
The analyst said new customers shouldn’t be
given special treatment, not that everybody
should be given free stuff. This one is simply
irrelevant.
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(d) This would weaken the argument, not
strengthen it.
Our answer is (b), because it’s the only one
that strengthened the argument.
117. (d) (a) This would strengthen the idea that kids find
aggressive behavior “more acceptable” after
playing video games. So it’s not our answer.
(b) This is fairly irrelevant, so it’s probably our
answer. Kids who don’t play video games? The
issue is, “Does playing violent games cause
kids to behave aggressively.” I don’t see how
kids who don’t play games matter much in
answering that question. Furthermore, even if it
were relevant, this could only weaken the
argument, because it shows that aggressive
behavior can happen without video games. If
(c) strengthens the argument, (b) will be our
answer.
(c) This would strengthen the argument because it
would provide a control group. Kids who play
games, but not violent ones, might have the
same amount of sugar or electronic stimulation
as the kids who played violent games. If they
have no increase in aggressive behaviour, that
strengthens the idea that violent games cause
aggressive behavior.
(d) Sure, if older children are also susceptible to
the effect, then it strengthens the idea that
younger children would also be susceptible to
the effect. This isn’t a terrific strengthener, but
it’s much better than (b), which actually
weakens.
118. (b) (a) This is nice, but irrelevant. We need to know
about the rarity.
(b) Okay, this proves that our stamp is rare. It
does have a printing error, so if it’s true that
stamps with printing errors are always confined
to a few individual stamps, then this bad boy
must be rare. I like it.
(c) No, who cares who owns what stamps.
Irrelevant.
(d) This might be true, but we needed to prove that
this stamp is rare in order to complete the
argument. This ain’t it.
We’re going with (b).
119. (b) The author mentions at the end of the second
paragraph that no employer or firm will be able to
exploit the opportunities present ingroups (c) and
(d) unless the government provides them with some
aid tocompensate for the low economic
advantages. Thus, (b)is the correctanswer.
(a) Extreme option. If even after the population
increase, the increased population can be
absorbed in group A, then this will not lead
tolower wages.
(c) The author merely uses the example of a
political party in the third paragraph. He does
not say that this is necessarily the case. Evenif
this is the case, the political party merely
decided whichactivities to undertake, and not
the wage rate as such.
(d) Charging high duties is not a way of wage
regulation; it can, in fact, have negative
consequences as explained in the passage.
120. (c) The last sentence of the third paragraph clearly
shows that workers in groups (a) and (b) could be
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MOCK CLAT #22
at a disadvantage were the government todecide
which economic opportunities should be exploited
by theseworkers. Thus, (c)is the correct answer.
(a) Since the government will impose duties on
these products, their prices will actually
increase.
(b) There will be no impact on the prices of these
products.
(d) There is nothing in the passage to suggest this.
Aor, at the most, group (b).
121. (a) As can be inferred from para 2, the author has
specifically mentionedthe relationship between
population and the wages the workers wouldearn. It
is only with increase in population that other groups
are evenconsidered. Hence, (a)is the correct
answer.
122. (b) The author has, in para 1, mentioned the
relationship between wages and the least
productive unit of labor. He then goes on to explain
theimpact that population has on the groups, the
effect of legislation onthem as well as the earning
capacity. Hence, (b)is the correct answer.
(a) &(c)The author has limited himself to analyzing
a situation the government might create by
changing priorities—the role of the government
or its policies are notdiscussed in isolation.
(d) The author has confined himself only to the
discussion of how wages are determined.
123. (b) The author is primarily stating that people should be
given credit fortheir achievements when they are
alive. Thus, (b)is the correctanswer.
(A), (C), and (d)are too specific; the author has a
broader agenda. Theuse of ‘every’ in (e) makes this
option extreme. Also, the author has aslightly
different agenda than just merely stating this fact;
the author isactually arguing against this fact.
124. (d) The author mentions the President of another
country to give anexample of a situation in which
the work of a person was appreciatedafter his
death. Hence, (d)is the correct answer.
(a) The use of ‘every’ makes this extreme.
(b) The author is not specifically concerned with
the case ofPierre Proudhon. He is stating a
more general observation.
(c) The passage makes no claim about ‘all’
countries.
125. (c) (c) clearly follows as the correct answer from the
last line of thepassage.
(a) The press is definitely responsible but there is
nothing in thepassage to suggest that the
press is ‘primarily’ responsible.
(b) The author never says that all of these
personalities have a streetnamed after them,
just that some of them do so Emma
Goldmanmay or may not have a street named
after her.
(d) Not supported by the information in the
passage.
126. (a) The first paragraph provides evidence that shows
how Astronomy ismore popular than some of the
other more useful sciences such asPhysics. The
second paragraph gives one reason for this
popularity.
Option (a)states this best and should be the correct
answer.
(b) The author never states that this is unfair
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(c) The author had a broader agenda than to do
just this
(d) The author isn’t really concerned with how
funds are being used
127. (c) The answer is clear in the lines—Indeed it should
be so, since no otherscience has ever received
such support from royalty, from the state andfrom
the private individual. (c)states this best and should
be thecorrect answer.
(a) While this is a fact, the passage does not use
this to explain whyAstronomy is the most
developed of all sciences.
(b) This is mentioned in P2 as an explanation for
the difference in importance attached to
astronomy and to other sciences. Thisdoes
not, however, explain why astronomy is the
most developedof all sciences.
(d) Again this is mentioned in P2 and, while this
may explain the popularity of Astronomy, it is
not the reason why Astronomy isthe most
developed of all sciences
128. (d) The correct answer can be found in the line—The
telephone, the electric transmission of power,
wireless telegraphy and the submarine cable
areinstances of immense financial returns derived
from the most abstruseprinciples of physics. Thus,
(d) is the correct answer.
(a) Opposite as stated in this line—there is no
doubt that in recent years astronomers have
had granted to them greateropportunities for
carrying on large pieces of work than
havebeen entrusted to men in any other
department of pure science
(b) The author, in fact, states the opposite in P2.
(c) Opposite, as stated in the last two sentences of
P2
129. (b) The author mentions in para 1 how there is much
discussion and debate on the inclusion of numbers
in primitive man’s life. He then goes on toelaborate
on the findings and concludes that numbers are
more a part ofhuman thought than any discovery or
experience. Hence, option (b)isthe correct answer.
(a) Mathematic as a subject is not discussed—out
of scope.
(c) Do not let this option confuse you. The
question at stake is theorigin and not the use of
numbers.
(d) The author never critiques anything in the
passage.
130. (d) The author has concluded the passage on the line
that numbers are to be considered ‘a part of human
thought’ rather than an experience orintentional
inclusion in the language. Hence, (d)is the correct
answer.
(a) Can be inferred from the first para
(b) Can be inferred from the second para
(c) Can be inferred from the first and the third
paras
131. (d) Inferred from para 3, the mathematicians do
recognize the fact that notribe has yet been found
which did not use numbers nor can it be denied that
numbers have been part of early language
expressions. With this knowledge, it then seems a
pointless exercise to research into its origin.
Hence, (d)is the correct answer.
T55_MC22_ALL_04-2020 Page 8 of 9
MOCK CLAT #22
132. (a) Inferred from para 3, the author talks of how Hence, the income from Passengers carriage is
numbers have always been a part of the language less than the average income in three years 2006-
skills of all primitive tribes researched till date. 07,2007-08 and 2008-09.
This is especially noted by all that even if the 68600
139. (a) Percentage = × 100 = 43.77 ≈ 44 %
156700
counting included only numbers 1, 2 and 3, the 97500 195
tribes were using it advantageously. Hence,option 140. (c) Ratio of total income = = = 195 ∶ 209
104500 209
(a)is the correct answer. [(24+18)−28]
141. (d) Total items = × 16 = 2.24 𝑙𝑎𝑘ℎ
(b) The word ‘conscious’ is misleading since the 100
8
inclusion of the numbers was instinctive rather 142. (b) TotalF= 16 × = 1.28 𝑙𝑎𝑘ℎ,
100
than planned. 1.28
I1= × 3 = 0.768
5
(c) The passage never states or implies this. 1.28
(d) While this may be true, it does not have any I2 = × 2 = 0.512
5
reference to the context here. ∴ 𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓 = 0.768 − 0.512 = 0.256 𝑙𝑎𝑘ℎ = 25600
Hint [133-135]: We prepare a table from the given 24 5 65
143. (c) I1sold by A= 16 × × ×
100 8 100
data as under:
= 1.56 lakh
Similarly,
𝐌𝐚𝐭𝐡𝐬 𝐆𝐞𝐨𝐠𝐫𝐚𝐩𝐡𝐲 𝐇𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐨𝐫𝐲 𝐏𝐨𝐥𝐢𝐭𝐢𝐜𝐚𝐥 𝐒𝐜𝐢𝐞𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐁𝐢𝐨𝐥𝐨𝐠𝐲 Total I1= 1.56 + 0.896 + 0.6912 + 1.44 + 0.4096 +
Diya  ×   × 0.384 = 5.3808 𝑙𝑎𝑘ℎ
5.3808
∴ Average = = 0.8968 𝑙𝑎𝑘ℎ = 89680
Megha   ×  × 7
6
4 64
144. (a) I1= 16 × × × = 0.4096,
100 7 100
Riya    × × Similary , I2= 0.2640
∴ Diff = 0.4096 – 0.2640 = 0.1456 lakh
Jay ×  ×   = 14560
145. (d) I1sold by A = 156000,
Ram × ×    I1sold by F = 38400
156000
∴ Reqd % = × 100 = 406.25%
38400
146. (c) Total average rainfall in all the years (from June to
133. (b) Megha is intelligent in Mathematics, Political Sc. 5155
September ) = = 859.166
6
And Geography. 1540
134. (c) Diya is intelligent in Mathematics and History but Average rainfall in August = = 256.66
6
not in Geography. 256.66
∴Reqd % = = 29.87 ≈ 30%
859.166
135. (d) Riya is intelligent in Mathematics. History and 190
Geography. 147. (b) Reqd % = × 100 = 12.33 %
1540
300
SECTION - E :QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES 148. (a) In the year 2006 → × 100 = 33.33
890
136. (b) Total income = Passenger + Goods carriage) 250
2006-07 → 62800 + 25800 = 88600 In the year 2007 → × 100 = 27.77
900
255
2007-08→ 30500 + 68600 = 99100 In the year 2008 → × 100= 28.97
880
2008-09 → 28800 + 68700 = 97500 90
2009-10 → 35500 + 69000 = 104500 In the year 2009 → × 100 = 27.14
700
265
2010-11 → 36100 + 80000 = 116100 In the year 2010 → × 100 = 29.60
99100−88600 895
Percentage increase in 2007-08 = ×100 280
88600 In the year 2011 → × 100 = 31.46
890
= 11.85% Hence , in the year 2006.
137. (c) Profit = income – expenditure 149. (d) is the correct answer.
Now, Profit2006-07= 88600 – 86000 = Rs. 2600 10
150. (b) In the year 2007 = × 100 = 16.66
Profit2007-08 = 99100 – 87500 = Rs.11600 60
10
Profit2008-09 = 97500 – 78500 = Rs.19000 2009 =
68
× 100 = 14.70
Thus, the year 2008-09 has maximum profit. 12
2010 = × 100 = 15.38
138. (c) Average income from Passengers in all years = 78
156700 Hence in the year 2007.
= 𝑅𝑠. 31340
5

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