Respiratory
A client who uses over-the-counter phenylephrine
1. A client receiving salbutamol had experienced
elevation in the heart rate. This side effect is brought
about by:
a. the sympathetic stimulation effects of salbutamol
b. the parasympathetic stimulation effects of
salbutamol
c. the toxic effects of salbutamol
d. the desired effects of salbutamol
2. The nurse is caring for a client on anti-tubercular
medications. Which supplementary medications
would the nurse anticipate to be given to the client as
prophylaxis for the side effects of isoniazid?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Vitamin B6
c. Penicillin
d. Ethambutol
3. The nurse is teaching the mother of a 9-year-old
child with severe reactive airway disease. The child is
prescribed salmeterol by metered-dose inhaler every
12 hours. Which instruction should the nurse include
when discussing the medication with the mother?
a. Instruct the mother to perform and record a daily
salmeterol level.
b. Tell the mother to observe the child for a sore
throat and respiratory infection.
c. Inform the mother to notify the HCP if the child
vomits or becomes irritable
d. Recommend that the medication be refrigerated at
all times.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer theophylline
to a client. The latest blood level drawn is 12
mcg/mL. Which is the next appropriate action of the
nurse?
a. Administer the theophylline dose
b. Decrease the dose to half
c. Watch the client for decreased level of
consciousness
d. Withhold the dose and notify the physcian
5. Which teaching should the nurse emphasize to a
client taking the antihistamine, diphenhydramine
(Benadryl)?
a. "Increase your fluid intake to liquefy secretions."
b. "Take the medication with a glass of water."
c. "Watch out for signs of bleeding like bruising."
d. "Do not drive when you go home from the clinic."
6. The nurse should instruct a client who is taking an
expectorant to:
a. take antihistamine
b. restrict fluids
c. avoid vaporizers
d. increase fluids
7.
(Neo-Synephrine) nasal spray asks the nurse how the
medication works. The nurse's response would be:
a. It coats the nasal passages to reduce swelling.
b. It is absorbed after you swallow it to act as a
decongestant.
c. It helps to shrink the swelling in your nose by
tightening the blood vessels there.
d. It works to locally destroy invading organisms that
cause colds and flu.
8. The nurse is teaching a client with COPD how to
use a metered-dose inhaler. Which instructions by
the nurse is correct?
a. "Exhale fully first before placing the inhaler in your
mouth."
b. "Drink warm water after administering a dose of
inhaler."
c. "Place the inhaler between your tongue and upper
teeth."
d. Inhale fully first before placing the inhaler in your
mouth
9. The client is having an acute exacerbation of
asthma. The HCP has prescribed epinephrine
subcutaneously. Which intervention should the nurse
implement when administering this medication?
a. Perform a complete respiratory assessment.
b. Administer the medication using a tuberculin
syringe
c. Dilute the medication to a 5-ml bolus prior to
administering.
d. Monitor the chent's serum epinephrine level used
unless
10. It is a must to educate clients that nasal
decongestants should not
a. absolutely necessary to prevent:
b. rebound congestion
c. anaphylaxis Odry mouth
d. toxicity
11. Salbutamol (Ventolin) can be safely given to the
following, except:
a. A 10-year old patient with asthma
b. A 65-year old with COPD
c. A 24-year old with glaucoma
d. A 32-year old with emphysema
12. The nurse is caring for a client receiving
theophylline. Which activityd"hould the nurse
include in the plan of care?
a. Teach the client to take the medication at bedtime.
b. Teach the client to increase fluid intake.
c. Monitor the client for hypotension.
d. Monitor serum theophylline levels regularly.
13. The 28-year-old female client with chronic
reactive airway disease is taking montelukast
sodium. Which statement by the client indicates the
client teaching is effective?
a. I should not decrease the dose or suddenly stop
taking this medication."
b. "It is all right to take this medication if I am trying
to get pregnant."
c. "I will not drink coffee, tea or any type of cola
drinks."
d. "I will take this medication at the beginning of an
asthma attack."
14. Which of the following electrolytes should be
monitored on a client receiving
albuterol/salbutamol?
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Magnesium
15. The client with asthma asks the nurse, "Why
should I use the corticosteroid inhaler instead of
prednisone?" Which statement by the nurse is most
appropriate?
a. The inhaler costs less than the prednisone, which is
why it should be used."
b. "Prednisone is not on your insurance formulary and
the inhaler is."
c. The lungs are incapable of utilizing prednisone to
decrease inflammation."
d. 'The inhaler will not cause the systemic problems
that prednisone does.
16. Which of the following drugs is indicated for a
client whose sleep interrupted by an unproductive
cough?
a. Guaifenesin (Robitussin)
b. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
c. Dextromethorphan (Robitussin DM)
d. Ephedrine Sulfate Vicks)
17. A nurse is caring for a client receiving
streptomycin. Which assessment finding should the
nurse be alert for?
a. Hearing loss
b. Jaundice and hepatomegaly
c. Red-orange discoloration of the urine
d. Weakness of the lower extremities
18. The child with an acute asthma attack is
prescribed a 7-day course of prednisolone. The
mother asks the nurse, "Doesn't this medication
cause serious side effects?
a. Which statement is the nurse's best response?
b. "There may be serious side effects if your child
takes the medication for a long time." "Yes, this
medication does have serious side effects, but
your child needs the medication."
c. "The doctor would not have ordered a medication
that has serious side effects."
d. "A short-term course of steroids will not cause
serious side effects."
19. The 6-year-old child is experiencing an acute
exacerbation of reactive airway disease. The child
passed out and the parents brought the child to the
emergency department (ED). Which intervention
should the nurse implement first?
a. Administer IV methylprednisolone.
b. Administer albuterol via nebulizer.
c. Administer oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation
above 95%.
d. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine via a
tuberculin syringe
20. The nurse is caring for a client who has been
taking inhaled corticosteroids for more than a year.
Which assessment related to the side effects of the
drug should the nurse perform?
a. Obtain fecal occult blood test
b. Assess the client's deep tendon reflexes
c. Inspect the client's oral cavity
d. Monitor the client's heart rate
Cardio
1.A nurse is caring for a client who will undergo
surgery. The nurse administers Atropine sulfate to
the client as part of the pre-operative medications.
What is the purpose of administering atropine to this
client?
a. to decrease oral and bronchial secretions
b. to decrease the client's heart rate
c. to increase the client's heart rate
d. to dilate the client's airway
2.A client is admitted to the medical ward due to
generalized muscle weakness and ptosis. The
physician suspects myasthenia gravis and orders
Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) test for the client.
Which assessment finding would confirm the
diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
a. The client became weaker after administration of
Tensilon
b. The client's ptosis is gone after administration of
Tensilon
c. The client's urine output increases after
administration of Tensilon
d. The client sleeps after administration of Tensilon
3.In which group of patients would the healthcare
provider use caution in prescribing anticholinergic
medications?
a. Patients with hyperactive reflexes
b. Patients with Parkinson’s disease
c. Patients with myasthenia gravis
d. Patients with spasticity
4.The nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson's
disease who is receiving Carbidopa-
Levodopa. Which assessment finding would indicate does the nurse identify as effects of the medication?
that the drug has been effective? Select all that apply.
a. decreased heart rate and blood pressure  Tachycardia
b. increased musculoskeletal activity  Bronchodilation
c. increase in the frequency of the client's tremors  Bronchoconstriction
d. decrease in the frequency of the client's tremors  Bradycardia
 Vasoconstriction
5.Which manifestation characterized a client  Vasodilation
diagnosed with Myasthenia gravis?
a. forgetfulness 12.The nurse is caring for a client admitted in the
b. muscle weakness medical ward due to benign prostatic hypertrophy.
c. muscle spasms Upon reviewing the client's medications, the nurse
d. Hypertension notes that the client is prescribed with the alpha-1
blocker, tamsulosin. Which assessment parameter
6.Alpha1- selective adrenergic blocking agents are to would the nurse check to determine the effectiveness
be used with caution in what population of patients? of the drug?
a. Those with congestive heart failure a. pain level
b. Those with hypotension b. urine output
c. Those with respiratory distress c. heart rate
d. Those with hepatic disease d. blood pressure

7.The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with
Alzheimer's disease. Which medication does the
nurse anticipate to be given to the client?
a. pyridostigmine
b. epinephrine
c. tamsolusin
d. Donepezil
8. The nurse caring for a client with Multiple
Sclerosis has noted that the client is experiencing
spasms of the upper and lower extremities. Which
muscle relaxant does the nurse anticipate to be given
to the client to relieve the spasms?
a. Botox
b. Dantrolene
c. Succinylcholine
d. Baclofen
9.The nurse is caring for a client with shock. The
client is receiving nitroglycerin and dopamine drip.
The nurse notes redness in the IV insertion site and
suspects infiltration. Which drug would the nurse
anticipate to be given to the client?
a. Phentolamine
b. Dobutamine
c. Epinephrine
d. Atropine
10.The nurse is caring for a client receiving
propranolol, a non-selected beta adrenergic blocker.
Which adverse reaction related to the medication
should the nurse be alert for?
a. Hypertension
b. Urinary retention
c. Difficulty in breathing
d. Tachycardia
11.The nurse is caring for a client receiving an
indirect-acting cholinergic agonist. Which symptoms
13.A client with spinal cord injury is diagnosed with
neurogenic bladder atony. The client's physician
prescribed a cholinergic agonist, Bethanechol, to the
client. Which assessment finding would indicate that
the drug has been effective?
a. Decrease in blood pressure
b. Decrease in deep tendon reflex
c. Increase in urine output
d. Increase in skeletal muscle contraction
14.Which medication can cause an increase in heart
rate?
a. Diltiazem
b. Baclofen
c. Atropine
d. Carvedilol
15.The nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson's
disease who is receiving Carbidopa-Levodopa. Upon
reviewing the client's other medications, the nurse
would report to the physician when which of the
following medications is also taken by the client?
a. Folic acid supplement
b. Vitamin C supplement
c. Vitamin B6 supplement
d. Calcium and vitamin D supplement
16.Which adrenergic agonist is used to decrease
blood pressure?
a. Clonidine
b. Epinephrine
c. Ephedrine
d. Norepinephrine
17.A client with generalized anxiety disorder has
been prescribe with Metoprolol 25 mg once a day.
Which action of metoprolol is indicated for this
client?
a. decrease in heart rate
 b. decrease in blood pressure
c. decrease in pain sensation
d. decrease in respiratory effort
18.A client with hypovolemic shock is being managed
with an intravenous drip of norepinephrine
(Levophed). Which assessment finding does the nurse
identify as the desired effect of the drug?
a. Increase in blood pressure
b. Decrease in heart rate
c. Increase in respiratory rate
d. Decrease in body temperature
19.Which disorder is characterized by a decrease in
dopamine levels in the brain and increased
acetylcholine effects?
a. Parkinson's disease
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis
d. Alzheimer's Disease
20.The nurse is preparing to administer the drug
epinephrine. Which condition is epinephrine
indicated for? Select all that apply.
a. Status asthmaticus
b. Sleeplessness
c. Hypertension
d. Heart failure
e. Shock
Autonomic Nervous
1.In which group of patients would the healthcare
provider use caution in prescribing anticholinergic
medications?
a. Patients with Parkinson’s disease
b. Patients with myasthenia gravis
c. Patients with hyperactive reflexes
d. Patients with spasticity
2. Alpha1- selective adrenergic blocking agents are to
be used with caution in what population of patients?
Those with respiratory distress
Those with hepatic disease
Those with hypotension
Those with congestive heart failure
3. A client with spinal cord injury is diagnosed with
neurogenic bladder atony. The client's physician
prescribed a cholinergic agonist, Bethanechol, to the
client. Which assessment finding
would indicate that the drug has been effective?
a. Decrease in deep tendon reflex
b. Increase in skeletal muscle contraction
c. Decrease in blood pressure
d. Increase in urine output
4. The nurse caring for a client with Multiple
Sclerosis has noted that the client is experiencing
spasms of the upper and lower extremities. Which
muscle relaxant does the nurse anticipate to be
given to the client to relieve the spasms?
a. Succinylcholine
Baclofen
Botox
Dantrolene
5. The nurse is caring for a client receiving
propranolol, a non-selected beta adrenergic blocker.
Which adverse reaction related to the medication
should the nurse be alert for?
a. Urinary retention
b. Hypertension
c. Difficulty in breathing
d. Tachycardia
6. The nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson's
disease who is receiving Carbidopa-Levodopa. Upon
reviewing the client's other medications, the nurse
would report to the physician when which of the
following medications is also taken by the client?
a. Calcium and vitamin D supplement
b. Vitamin C supplement
c. Vitamin B6 supplement
d. Folic acid supplement
7. A client is admitted to the medical ward due to
generalized muscle weakness and ptosis. The
physician suspects myasthenia gravis and orders
Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) test for the client.
Which assessment finding would confirm the
diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
a. The client became weaker after administration of
Tensilon
b. The client's urine output increases after
administration of Tensilon
c. The client's ptosis is gone after administration of
Tensilon
d. The client sleeps after administration of Tensilon
8. A client with hypovolemic shock is being managed
with an intravenous drip of norepinephrine
(Levophed). Which assessment finding does the nurse
identify as the desired effect of the drug?
a. Increase in respiratory rate
b. Decrease in heart rate
c. Decrease in body temperature
d. Increase in blood pressure
9. The nurse is caring for a client receiving an
indirect-acting cholinergic agonist. Which symptoms
does the nurse identify as effects of the medication?
Select all that apply.
a. Vasodilation
b. Bronchodilation
c. Bronchoconstriction
d. Vasoconstriction
e. Bradycardia
10. The nurse is caring for a client with shock. The d. decrease in respiratory effort
client is receiving nitroglycerin and dopamine drip.
The nurse notes redness in the IV insertion site and 17. Which medication can cause an increase in heart
suspects infiltration. Which drug would the nurse rate?
anticipate to be given to the client? a. Atropine
a. Epinephrine b. Diltiazem
b. Phentolamine c. Baclofen
c. Atropine d. Carvedilol
d. Dobutamine 18. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with
Alzheimer's disease. Which medication does the
11. Which adrenergic agonist is used to decrease nurse
blood pressure? anticipate to be given to the client?
a. Ephedrine a. epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine b. pyridostigmine
c. Clonidine c. tamsolusin
d. Epinephrine d. Donepezil

12. The nurse is preparing to administer the drug 19. The nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson's
epinephrine. Which condition is epinephrine disease who is receiving Carbidopa-Levodopa.
indicated for? Select all that apply. Which assessment finding would indicate that the
a. Status asthmaticus drug has been effective?
b. Heart failure a. increased musculoskeletal activity
c. Shock b. decreased heart rate and blood pressure
d. Sleeplessness c. decrease in the frequency of the client's tremors
e. Hypertension d. increase in the frequency of the client's tremors

13. Which manifestation characterized a client
diagnosed with Myasthenia gravis?
a. forgetfulness
b. muscle weakness
c. muscle spasms
d. hypertension
14. Which disorder is characterized by a decrease in
dopamine levels in the brain and increased
acetylcholine effects?
a. Parkinson's disease
b. Alzheimer's Disease
c. Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis
d. Myasthenia gravis
15. The nurse is caring for a client admitted in the
medical ward due to benign prostatic hypertrophy.
Upon reviewing the client's medications, the nurse
notes that the client is prescribed with the alpha-1
blocker, tamsulosin. Which assessment parameter
would the nurse check to determine the effectiveness
of the drug?
a. pain level
b. blood pressure
c. urine output
d. heart rate
16. A client with generalized anxiety disorder has
been prescribe with Metoprolol 25 mg once a day.
Which action of metoprolol is indicated for this
client?
a. decrease in blood pressure
b. decrease in pain sensation
c. decrease in heart rate
20. A nurse is caring for a client who will undergo
surgery. The nurse administers Atropine sulfate to
the client as part of the pre-operative medications.
What is the purpose of administering atropine to this
client?
a. to dilate the client's airway
b. to decrease the client's heart rate
c. to decrease oral and bronchial secretions
d. to increase the client's heart rate
Nervous
1. When administering antianxiety medications to an
elderly client, which of the following actions by the
nurse is essential?
a. Suggest reduced doses.
b. Monitor Vital signs.
c. Taper dose before stopping.
d. Implement a fall prevention protocol.
2. Which of the following medications that treat
Alzheimer's disease causes slowing of the heart
rate and fainting episodes and are given to Restore
acetylcholine, by reducing its breakdown by
acetylcholinesterase?
a. Donepezil (Aricept).
b. Pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon)
c. Levodopa / Carbidopa (Sinemet)
d. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
3. A client arrives in the emergency room with a
tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Which of the
following measures should the nurse do, except?
 a. Gastric lavage with activated charcoal.
b. Maintain a patent airway.
c. Administration of an antipyretic.
4. The following are characteristics referring to
benzodiazepines. (Select all 4 that applies)
 High CNS depression
 Low suicidal potential
 Causes low respiratory depression
 High relative safety
 Can be reversed by an antagonist
 High abuse potential
5. The following are pharmacological effects of
chlorpromazine as a typical antipsychotic, except:
a. controls excitation, delusions and hallucinations
b. Decreasing the effects of central depressants and
sedative hypnotics
c. Hypotensive effects blocking the alpha 1 receptor
d. inhibits chemoreceptor trigger zone causing anti-
emetic effect
6. A nurse is instructing a client regarding
Carbidopa levodopa (Sinemet) for the treatment of
Parkinson's disease. The nurse tells the client that
which of the following is a side effect of the
medication?
a. Increased heart rate.
b. Itchiness of the skin.
c. Increased blood pressure.
d. Difficulty performing a voluntary movement.
7. Antidepressants generally exert influence by:
a. Changing the availability of dopamine
b. Changing the availability of selected
neurotransmitters
c. Altering the action of the cyproprotein (MAO)
d. Increasing the reuptake of norepinephrine
8. The following are drugs under the classification of
Tricyclic Antidepressants, except:
a. nortriptyline (Pamelor ®)
b. amitriptyline (Elavil®)
c. sertraline (Zoloft®)
d. imiprimine (Tofranil®)
9. A side effect of cholinergic administration is:
a. Diarrhea
b. Increase salivation
c. All of the above
d. Nausea
10. A client is prescribed with sertraline (Zoloft). To
guarantee a safe administration of the medication, a
nurse would administer the dose:
a. As needed only for depressions.
b. Early in the morning.
c. At bedtime.
d. Take on an empty stomach.
11. A client with depression who has been taking
amitriptyline for three months returns to the clinic
for a follow-up. The nurse observes the client in
which of the following symptoms?
a. Suicidal thoughts.
b. Neglect of responsibilities.
c. Loss of interest in personal appearance.
d. Lack of energy
12. Which of the following metabolic effects may be a
consequence of administration of adrenergic agents?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Metabolic acidosis
13. The nurse evaluates that carbidopa and levodopa
(Sinemet) is therapeutically effective if the client has:
a. Decreased tremors at rest
b. Increased tolerance to pyridoxine
c. Decreased Gl responses
d. Increased urinary output
14. The risk of experiencing serotonin syndrome
when SSRI's are given with monoamine oxidase
inhibitors such as phenelzine (Nardil). Serotonin
syndrome is best characterized in which of the
following?
a. Hypotension and urinary retention.
b. A productive cough and vomiting.
c. Muscle rigidity and high fever.
15. A nurse is instructing a client regarding
Carbidopa levodopa (Sinemet) for the treatment of
Parkinson's disease. The nurse tells the client that
which of the following is a side effect of the
medication?
a. Itchiness of the skin.
b. Difficulty performing a voluntary movement.
c. Increased heart rate.
d. Increased blood pressure.
16. Peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants are
used:
a. As adjuncts to general anesthesia
b. To treat neuromuscular diseases
c. To relieve spasms from trauma
d. To treat spinal trauma
17. The following are inhibitory neurotransmitters in
the body, except:
a. Serotonin
b. Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid
c. Dopamine
d. Acetylcholine
18. Drugs that mimic sympathetic activity are known
as:
a. Adrenergics
b. Anticholinergics
 c. Antiadrenergics
d. Cholinergics 26. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client
who will be taking phenobarbital (Luminal).
19. The following are examples of benzodiazepines The nurse would educate the client in which of the
that promotes the effectiveness of GABA, except: following that directly correlates with the safety of
a. Midazolam (Versed) the client?
b. Lorazepam (Ativan) a. Avoid using sleep aids while taking the medication.
c. Clonazepam (Klonopin) b. Take the medication with meals only.
d. Thiopental (Pentothal) c. Take the medication at the same time each day.
e. Alprazolam (Xanax) d. Decrease the dosage once with symptoms of
dizziness and lightheadedness.
20. These drugs relieve anxiety, insomnia and muscle
spasm and with higher relative safety among the 27. Which group of drugs mimics parasympathetic
sedative-hypnotics. activity?
a. Barbiturates a. Antiadrenergic agents
b. Local Anesthetics b. Cholinergic agents
c. Benzodiazepines c. Adrenergic agents
d. Antidepressants d. Anticholinergic agents

21. It is a Typical or First generation antipsychotic 28. A client taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid)
medication that is high in potency and is indicated started complaining of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea,
to patients exhibiting delusions, hallucinations and drowsiness, muscle weakness, tremor, blurred vision
even paranoia. and ringing in the ears. The lithium level is 2 mEq/L.
a. Chlorpromazide (Thorazine) The nurse interprets this value as:
b. Haloperidol (Haldol) a. Above normal level.
c. Quetiapine (Seroquel) b. Toxic level.
d. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) c. Below normal level.
d. Normal level.
22. The following are positive symptoms of psychosis
that your typical antipsychotics are usually indicated. 29. Joseph is child diagnosed with attention deficit
(Select all 4 that applies) disorder. Which of the following drugs is commonly
 Social withdrawal used for his condition?
 Decrease motivation and will a. Haloperidol (Haldol)
 Delusions b. phendimetrazine (Adipost)
 Disorganization of thought c. diethylpropion (Nobesine)
 Hallucinations d. methylphenidate (Ritalin)
 Anhedonia
 Paranoia 30. An over the counter Local Anesthetic drug that
has lesser allergic reactions and are used also in
23. When monitoring a client who is taking arrhythmias during emergencies. In
benzodiazepines, the nurse should be alert for which a. Zolpidem (Ambien)
CNS side effects? b. Meclizine (Dramamine)
a. Libido changes, edema, dystonia c. Lidocaine (Solarcaine)
b. Ataxia, sedation, dizziness d. Benzocaine (Anbesol)
c. Seizures, tremors, diaphoresis
d. Blurred vision, anorexia, dysarthria 31. It is the benzodiazepine of choice usually given as
an antidepressant.
24. Phenobarbital (luminal) is given to a client for a a. Aprazolam
short treatment of anxiety. Which of the following b. Diazepam
results would indicate a therapeutic serum range of c. Lorazepam
the medication? d. Thiopental sodium
a. 5-10 mcg/ml.
b. 15-40 mcg/ml. 32. Which of the classifications of Anti-depressants
c. 45-65 mcg/ml. that has no hypotension, no anticholinergic and no
cardiac toxicity and improves the mood of the
25. Cholinergics are contraindicated in: person.
a. Hypothyroidism a. Selective Norepineprhine Reuptake Inhibitors
b. Tachycardia (SNRIS)
c. Asthma b. Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCAS)
d. Hypotension c. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
 d. Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) interaction with other drugs such as epinephrine.
Which of the following is a sign of hypertensive
crisis?
a. Delay in ejaculation.
33. For which of the following medical conditions b. Diplopia.
would the nurse anticipate that an antianxiety agent c. Hair loss.
would not be indicated? d. Orthostatic hypotension.
a. Panic disorder
b. Alcohol detoxification 40. The nurse is giving instructions to a client
c. Parkinson's disease receiving Phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse concludes
d. Seizure disorders that the client has a sufficient knowledge if the client
states that:
34. A newly admit client has started taking a. "Wearing a medical alert tag is not required".
bupropion (Wellbutrin). The nurse monitors in b. "Have the serum phenytoin level taken before
which of the following side effects that would indicate giving the medication".
an overdosage of the medication? c. "I can take the medicine with milk".
a. Headache d. "Alcohol is permitted in while taking this
b. Seizure. medication".
c. Constipation.
d. Dizziness. 41. A client with myasthenia gravis has become
frequently complaining of weakness and fatigue.
35. A drug that acts in the CNS and are usually given The physician plans to identify whether the client is
to prevent withdrawal signs of smoking cessation responding to an overdose of the medication or a
that causes distressing dreams, nightmares and worsening of the disease. A tensilon test is
suicidal thoughts, which should be given with proper performed. Which of the following would indicate
health education. that the client is experiencing an overdose of the
a. Varenicline (Chantix) medication?
b. Dexmethylphenidate (Focalin) a. No change in the condition.
c. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) b. Complaints of muscle spasms.
d. Bupropion (Wellbutrin) c. Temporarily worsening of the condition.
d. Improvement of the weakness and fatigue.
36. An antidepressant that affects both serotonin and
norepineprhine (SNRI) and is usually used for 42. Cholinergic agents are used to:
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), fibromyalgias a. Facilitate tricyclic activity
and even chronic musculoskeletal pains b. Synergize neuromuscular blockers
a. Sertraline (Zoloft) c. Produce miosis
b. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) d. Facilitate neuromuscular blockade
c. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
d. Phenelzine (Nardil) 43. Adrenergic blockers are contraindicated in:
a. Obstructive airway disease
37. This are short Acting barbiturates that are b. Migraines
mainly used as a sedative and its action lasts for 2 c. Hypertension
hours d. Pheochromocytoma
a. Thiopental Sodium (Pentothal)
b. Pentobarbital (Nembutal) 44. The client asks the nurse why he is taking
c. Phenobarbitone (Luminal) bromocriptine (Parlodel). The nurse's reply is based
d. Amobarbital (Amytal) in the understanding that bromocriptine mimics the
effects of dopamine by:
38. A nurse provides instructions to a client taking a. Decreasing dopamine levels in the brain
fluoxetine (Prozac) a selective serotonin reuptake b. Decreasing the storage of dopamine peripherally
inhibitors (SSRI) antidepressant. The nurse tells the c. Activating dopamine receptors in the brain
client to take the medication: d. Inhibiting monoamine oxidase type B
a. At snack time.
b. Early in the morning. 45. This is a drug acting on CNS that is the gold
c. At bedtime. standard treatment for mood disorders or any
d. During lunch time. Bipolar disorder.
a. Varenicline (Chantix)
39. Patients taking MAOIs have the tendency to b. Atomoxetine (Strattera)
experience hypertensive crisis especially during an c. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
d. Lithium (Lithobid)
46. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is prescribed to an 8-
year-old child for the treatment of attention
deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The nurse
will most likely monitor which of the following
during the medication therapy?
a. Height and weight
b. Temperature and breath sound. CARDIO
c. Intake and output.
1. A type of diuretics that acts on the proximal
47. A client who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) convoluted tubules that are usually given and
for two months returns to the clinic for a follow indicated to decrease Intracranial Pressure.
up. The nurse determines that the medication is a. Osmotic Diuretics
effective if there is an absent display of? b. Loop Diuretics
a. Feelings of panic, fear, and uneasiness. c. Thiazide Diuretics
b. Thought broadcasting or delusions. d. Potassium Sparing Diuretics
c. Alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
d. Paranoid and suicidal thought process. 2. A type of Vasodilator drug that is usually given in
a tablet form and that is usually given as an
48. It is an Extrapyramidal side effect that is Antihypertensive.
common in first generation antipsychotic that is a. Amlodipine (Norvasc)
featured on patients exhibiting licking, sucking, b. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
chewing (twitching of the muscles around the mouth) c. Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur)
and lip smacking that occurs usually months to years d. Isosorbide dinitrate
after taking antipsychotics
a. Acute dystonia 3.Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs are
b. Acute dystonia contraindications when there is widening of QT
c. Tardive dyskinesia intervals of the patients ECG? (Select all that
d. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome applies)
 Class 1A Anti-arrhythmics
49. Diazepam (Valium) is prescribed to a client with  Class 1B Anti-arrhythmics
alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following  Class 1C Anti-arrhythmics
statements made by the client indicates an  Class II Anti-arrhythmics
understanding of the treatment regimen?  Class III Anti-arrhythmics
a. "This medication will cause a decrease platelet and  Class IV Anti-arrhythmics
white blood cell count in my blood".
b. "This medication causes a blurring of vision". 4. In viewing the medication records of the following
c. "I'll have my physician to lower my dosage once I group of clients, the nurse determines that which
started to feel okay". client be at greatest risk for developing hyperkalemia
d. "Drinking grapefruit can decrease the side effects and causes gynecomastia in males?
with this medication". a. Client receiving furosemide (Lasix)
b. Client receiving bumetamide (Bumex)
50. A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client c. Client receiving spironolactone (Aldactone)
who is prescribed with isocarboxazid (Marplan). The d. Client receiving hydrochlorothiazide (HZTZ)
nurse will tell the client to anticipate which of the
following side effects of this medication most 5. This are antiplatelet/anticoagulant drug that
especially when taking tyramine rich food? requires checking of not just Prothrombin Time but
a. Hypertensive Crisis also INR.
b. Extrapyramidal Side effects a. Clopidogrel
c. Seizures b. Enoxaparine
d. Orthostatic hypotension c. Heparin
e. Cardiotoxicity d. Warfarin
e. Dabigatran

6. Beta Blockers that are best given for patients

having respiratory concerns while managing
hypertension as well.
a. Propanolol (Inderal)
b. Atenolol (Tenormin)
c. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor)
 d. Metoprolol succinate (Toprol XL) 14. In Digoxin toxicity were the person exhibits signs
of severe bradycardia and AV block, which is usually
7. Which of the following is the priority intervention given to reverse its effects?
for the nurse prior to administering digoxin a. Protamine Sulfate
(Lanoxin)? b. Atropine Sulfate
a. Palpate pedal pulses for quality and strength c. Vitamin K
b. Monitor renal function lab values d. Naloxone
c. Auscultate the apical pulse for one full minute
d. Assess serum potassium levels 15. Which class of diuretics that is used to decrease
reabsorption of Na, Cl, and HCO3 in the Distal
8. These are centrally acting drugs that helps Convoluted Tubules?
manages hypertension by indirectly inhibiting alpha a. Osmotic Diuretics
1 receptors and can also be given to patients with b. Loop Diuretics
ADHD. c. Thiazide Diuretics
a. Prazosin (Minipress®) d. Potassium Sparing Diuretics
b. Clonidine (Catapress)
c. Carvedilol (Coreg) 16. Which of the following anticoagulants is used
d. Olmesartan (Benicar) prophylactically which binds with antithrombin III
e. Verapamil (Calan) and needs monitoring of the aPTT?
a. Heparin
9. Potassium Sparing diuretics like Aldactone works b. Lovenox
and acts directly on which part of the nephron? c. Coumadin
a. Proximal Convoluted Tubules d. Aspirin
b. Loop of henle
c. Distal Convoluted Tubules 17. Which of the following co-morbidities increase a
d. Collecting Ducts patients risk in developing digoxin toxicity?
a. Heart Failure
10. Which of the following serum abnormalities is b. Renal Failure
unique to loop diuretics? c. Dementia
a. Hypokalemia d. Gastritis
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hypernatremia 18. It is a classification of Cardiovascular Drugs,
d. Hypovolemia which among it that has a unique and rare adverse
effect causing Rhabdomyolysis?
11. A desired effect of aspirin when given as OTC at a. Anti-hyperlipidemics
an 80mg dose. b. Anti-platelets
a. Anti-platelet Effect c. Anti-coagulants
b. Analgesia
c. Antipyretic 19. Example of hypertensive drug that blocks alpha-1
d. All 3 are desired effects receptors that causes vasodilation and subsequent
reduction in blood pressure.
12. A patient who has recently started taking a. Doxazosin (Cardura)
rosuvastatin (crestor) and niacin (nicobid) reports all b. Clonidine (Catapress)
the following symptoms to the nurse. Which is the c. Propranolol (Inderal)
most important to communicate to the health care d. Metoprolol succinate (Toprol XL)
provider? e. Metoprolol succinate (Toprol XL)
a. Skin flushing after taking the medications
b. Dizziness when changing positions quickly 20. Which drug is considered as a long acting 2nd
c. Generalized muscle aches and pains Generation Beta Blockers?
Propanolol (Inderal)
13. This vasodilators Causes venodilation and Atenolol (Tenormin)
coronary arteriole dilation and is well absorbed Metoprolol succinate (Toprol XL)
through skin and mucous membranes. (Improves Metropolol tartrate (Lopressor)
cardiac output and reduces pulmonary edema &
ascites) 21. It is an common drug that is classified as 3rd
a. Nitroglycerin Generation Non-selective Betablockers
b. Isosorbide Mononitrate a. Atenolol (Tenormin)
c. Digitoxin b. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor)
d. Cardiac Glycosides c. Carvedilol (Coreg)
d. Metoprolol succinate (Toprol XL)
 30. Which of the following are considered as Non
22. Which among the drugs below are considered Selective Beta Blockers and also Class II
Non-Dihydropyridines which targets the heart? antiarrhythmic agents?
a. Diltiazem (Cardizem) a. Procainamide (Norpace)
b. Amlodipine (Norvasc) b. Propanolol (Inderal)
c. Nifedipine (Procardia) c. Adenosine (Adenocard)
d. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) d. Atenolol (Tenormin)
31. Positive inotropic action of cardiac drugs does
23. An alpha agonist that is centrally acting that which of the following?
aside from using for HTN, it may also be used to a. Decreased in HR
improve concentration and is indicated for ADHD b. Decreased in Cellular conduction
a. Doxazosin (Cardura) c. Increase Contractility
b. Clonidine (Catapres) d. Increased Conductivity
c. Niacin (Niaspan ER)
d. Carvedilol (Coreg) 32. Example of drug that block or inhibit the
connection between angiotensin II and the receptor
24. These are Dihydroperidne calcium channel that would cause vasoconstriction.
blockers that In low doses, can also be used to a. Losartan (Cozaar)
prevent uterine contractions. b. Lisinopril (Zestril)
a. Diltiazem c. Atenolol (Tenormin)
b. Amlodipine d. Doxazosin (Cardura)
c. Nifedipine e. Clonidine (Catapress)
d. Verapamil
e. Losartan 33. Which of the following is a serum abnormality
and common use of a diuretic thiazide?
25. What is NOT a common side effect of Calcium a. Hyperkalemia and common with increased ICP
Channel Blockers? b. Hyperglycemia and good for initial treatment of
a. Hypotension hypertension
b. Contipation c. Hyperchloremia and commonly given for HR
c. Myalgias d. Hypovolemia and lasts for six hours effect in edema

26. Which of the following is an antidote for 34.What is the anitidote for heparin?
Warfarin toxicity? a. Vitamin K
a. Atropine Sulfate b. Protamine Sulfate
b. Vitamin K c. Aminophylline
c. Protamine Sulfate d. Immunefab
d. Thiazide diuretic
34. Example of Antihypertensive drug that Blocks
27. Which of the following drugs below are example the creation of vasoconstrictor angiotensins, thereby
of an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARBS)? reducing hypertension by inhibiting the enzyme
a. Enalapril (Vasotec) released by the lungs
b. Olmesartan (Benicar) a. Losartan (Cozaar)
c. Diltiazem (Cardizem) b. Enalapril (Vasotec)
d. Nifedipine (Procardia) c. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor)
d. Prazosin (Minipress®)
28. Which of the following is NOT a predisposing
factor of Digoxin Toxicity? 35. The nurse administers IV nitroglycerine to a
a. Hypokalemia that is usually secondary to diuretics patient with an MI. In evaluating the effect of this
b. Renal and Liver Failure intervention, the nurse should monitor for:
c. Elevated Digoxin level, with narrow therapeutic a. Relief of Chest Discomfort
range b. A decreased Heart Rate
c. An increase in BP
29. It is an anti-arrythmic that is better given or
more effective for Ventricular tachycardias and
SVTs
a. Sodium Channel Blockers MIDTERM
b. Beta-Blockers
c. Potassium Channel Blockers 1. The client with osteoarthritis is prescribed the COX-2
d. Calcium Channel Blockers inhibitor celecoxib (Celebrex), a nonsteroidal anti-
inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which statement by the
client would warrant intervention by the nurse?
 - “I know I am overweight and need to lose 50
pounds.”
- “I walk 30 minutes at least three times a week.”
- “I am allergic to penicillin and aminoglycosides.”
- “I take aspirin daily to help prevent heart
disease.”
2. A gynecology surgery team is preparing for an
emergency caesarean section. The anesthesiologists asked
the circulating nurse to obtain a 20mL vial of Bupivacaine
0.5%. The nurse knows that Bupicavaine is a type of:
- Local anesthetic
- Intravenous general anesthetic
- Inhalation general anesthetic
- Preoperative sedative
- joints.”
3. Pedro who has been taking steroids for rheumatoid
arthritis over several years presents with a compression
vertebral fracture. This fracture is due to:
- Deterioration in rheumatoid arthritis
- The osteoporotic effect of the long-term steroid
use
- An entirely separate condition
- An excessively high dose of steroids
4. The child with an acute asthma attack is prescribed a 7-
day course of prednisolone. The mother ask the nurse,
“doesn’t this medication cause serious side effects?” which
statement is the nurse’s best response?
- There may be serious side effects if your child takes
the medication for a long time
- Yes, this medication does have serious side effects,
but your child needs this medication
- A short-term course of steroids will not cause
serious side effects
- The doctor would not have ordered a medication that
has serious side effects
- - 11 cc/hr
5. The doctor ordered Magnesium Sulfate 2gm/hour/IV.
Magnesium Sulfate come in 40gm/1000mL IV bottle. You
would set your pump at ____ mL/hour.
- 60mL/hour
- 50 mL/hour
- 55 mL/hour
- 53 mL/hour
6. The student nurse is preparing to administer the
following drug order: Gentamycin 1 gtt OS. She will
administer the drug in the patient’s:
- 60 mL/hr
- 50 mL/hr
- 55 mL/ht
- 53 mL/hr
7. Postoperatively, a client has been given Morphine 7 mg
IV. at the recovery room while the client is still asleep, the
nurse notes the vital signs as: PR: 66 RR: 12, and BP:
100/60. Which of the following is the priority action of the
nurse?
- Prepare atropine sulfate from the ‘E’cart
- Continue monitoring the client’s vital signs
- Administer Naloxone (Narcan)
- Get the ECG machine and obtain a long lead II
8. The extent to which drug is absorbed and transported to
target tissue is known as:
- Distribution
- Therapeutic drug levels
- Bioavailability
- Steady-state accumulation
9. In which group of patients would the healthcare
provider use caution in prescribing anticholinergic
medications?
- Patients with Parkinson’s disease
- Patients with cholinergic disease
- Patients who are breastfeeding
10. The client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis is
scheduled to have a steroid injection through an intra-
articular route. Which statement by the client indicates
the client understands the procedure?
- “The drug will be injected directly into my
- This procedure will cure my arthritis.”
- I will have to curl up like a Halloween cat.”
- I will have an injection in each of my hips.”
11. The client is postoperative from a cervical
laminectomy and is prescribed morphine sulfate by PCA
pump. Which instruction regarding pain control should
the nurse teach the client?
- Press the button on the pump when the client feels
pain
- Use the pain medication sparingly to prevent narcotic
addiction
- Have the significant other push the button on the
pump frequently
- Notify the nurse when needing pain medication
12. The physician ordered for Ms. Lancaster, your COPD
client: Theophylline (Aminophylline) 300mg in 10cc D5W
at 27 mg/hr. What volume per hour would you set the
infusion pump to deliver the correct dose?
- 7 cc/hr
- 9 cc/hr
- 13 cc/hr
13. A client with 3rd-degree burns all over the body was
brought to the ER. the client went to cardiopulmonary
arrest. Nila, the medication nurse for the code team,
prepares equipment and materials to establish a line for
which of the following route?
- Intravenous
- Intra-arterial
- Intraosseous
- Intramuscular
14. Which of the following is an expected effect of
anticholinergics?
- Decreased heart rate
- Diarrhea
- Increased gastric secretions
- Constipation
15. Nurse Paloma is taking care of a 46-year-old patient
admitted due to exacerbation of heart failure symptoms.
The morning BP of the patient was 170/100 mmHg. The
physician prescribed clonidine (Catapres) 200 mcg
sublingual. Paloma knows that this drug lowers blood
pressure by:
- Decreasing heart rate thereby reducing cardiac output
- Stimulating alpha-2 receptors resulting decreased
norepinephrine release
- Blocking alpha-1 receptors in the CNS
 - Blocking beta receptors in the blood vessels causing
vasodilation
16. A 12-year-old patient is brought to the emergency
department. The nurse learned that the child has ingested
60 mL of Paracetamol (Tempra) 250 mg/mL syrup. The
nurse prepares for the administration of which of the
following antidote?
- Acetylcysteine
- Aminophylline
- Naloxone
- acetaminophen
17. A 66-year-old patient is admitted due to acute
exacerbation of COPD. upon discharge, the physician
prescribed formoterol/budesonide (Symbicort) metered-
dose inhaler (MDI). which of the following health
teachings should the nurse emphasize regarding the use of
inhalers with budesonide, a corticosteroid?
- Fully exhale first prior to administering the
medication dose.
- Drink at least 2 liters of fluid per day.
- Keep the inhaler away from sunlight.
- Gargle with lukewarm water after using the
inhaler.
18. The nurse receives an order to give paracetamol 30 mg
qid. The nurse recognizes the abbreviation “qid” refers to
frequency of administration:
- Every 1 hour
- Four times a day
- Every 6 hours
- Once per day
19. Which of the following is an expected effect of
cholinergic agonists?
- Mydriasis
- Constipation
- Increased heart rate
- Increased salivation
20. Which statement is true regarding the
pharmacokinetic phase of drug administration?
- The immature liver or kidneys of th every young may
accelerate drug metabolism and excretion
- Medication absorption, distribution to tissues,
metabolism, and elimination from the body are
studied.
21. A 35-year-old client has been prescribed with
Prednisone 10 mg BID for one month. Which of the
following health teachings should be given by the nurse to
prevent Addisonian crisis?
- Taper the dose when discontinuing the medication
- Wear face mask when going outside
- Consult the physician regarding adjustment of insulin
doses
- Gargle with warm water after taking the medication
22. The client who has been using oxymetazoline nasal
spray for several weeks reports to the nurse that the spray
no longer seems to work to clear the nasal passages. Which
information should the nurse teach?
- “Alternate the oxymetazoline with a saline nasal
spray every 2 hours.”
- “Place the oxymetazoline nasal spray in a vaporizer
at night for the best results.”
- “This type of medication can cause rebound
congestion if used too long.”
- Increase the amount of sprays used until the desired
effect has been unreached.”
23. You are caring for a child who has been diagnosed
with a heart problem. Propranolol has been ordered for
this patient. What would be considered in calculating a
child’s dose?
- Child’s age in months and height
- Child’s body mass
- Child’s body weight and age
- Child’s age and body mass index
24. Renal impairment can prolong the half-life of the drug
being administered. What does this imply?
- Longer half-life could lead to decreased drug effect
due to prolonged protein binding
- Longer half-life could lead to the possibility of
drug accumulation and toxicity
- Prolonged half-life needs an increased in the strength
of the next dose
- It does not matter as long as the patient takes the
drug on time
25. Which of the following terms refer to drugs that
specifically blocks beta-2 receptors?
- Parasympathomimetics
- Adrenergic agonists
- Non-selective B2 adrenergic blockers
- Severe beta-2 antagonists
26. The male client diagnosed with urinary retention is
receiving bethanechol. Which intervention should the
nurse implement?
- Maintain hourly intake and output for the client.
- Have the client’s urinal readily availble.
27. The nurse receives the client in the postanesthesia care
unit (PACU) following a procedure requiring general
anesthesia. The most important assessment made by the
nurse relates to the client’s:
- Respiratory status
- Level of consciousness
- Vital signs
- Pain
28. The nurse is giving medications to patient. The patient
refuses to take an oral dose of Prednisone. What is the
nurse’s best response?
- “Your prescriber ordered that you must take this drug
twice a day.”
- “Can you tell me why you do not want to take the
medication?”
- “This drudge will help prevent constipation while
you are on bed rest.”
- Prednisone will manage the symptoms of your
asthma.”
29. A 24-year-old client is receiving morphine sulfate
round-the-clock for severe pain. Upon assessment, the
nurse noted that the client’s respiratory rate is 8 cycles per
minute. Based on a standing order, the nurse prepares and
administered Naloxone (Narcan) 2 mg IV. Based on the
pharmacodynamics of Naloxone, the nurse would
anticipate which of the following side effects?
- Decrease in tidal volume
- Increase in pain intensity
- Delay in morphine excretion
- Increase in client’s level of consciousness
30. The client diagnosed with COPD is prescribed
methylprednisolone IVP. Which laboratory test should the
nurse monitor?
- Hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (Hct)
- Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
- Blood glucose levels
- White blood cell (WBC) count.
31. A 43-year-old client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
has been prescribed with Naproxen 500 mg to manage his
arthritic pain. Aware of the possible gastric effects of
Naproxen, the nurse anticipates which of the following
medication groups will be administered to the client to
minimize the risk for gastric upset and bleeding?
- Beta blockers
- Proton pump inhibitors (PPI)
- NSAIDS
- anticholinergics
32. A client is receiving an enteric-coated anti-
inflammatory tablet for his ulcerative colitis. Considering
the form and purposed of the medication, the nurse
ensures to avoid.
- Administer the tablet with water
- Crushing the tablet before administration
- Mixing the drug with an antacid
- Administering the tablet with another medications
33. The principle of balanced anesthesia involves the
utilization of different pharmacologic agents with various
pharmacodynamics in a client who is for surgery. Which
of the following is NOT a rationale for such principle?
- To increase the respiratory capacity during
surgery
- To prevent possible medullary paralysis
- To decrease the probability of adverse effects to
occur
- To achieve adequate anesthesia while using lower
doses of medications
34. Tato is a 35-year-old client who underwent
cystolithotomy under spinal anesthesia. Post-operatively,
the nurse instructed him to lie flat on bed for 4-6 hours.
This teaching by the nurse is intended to prevent which of
the following?
- Numbness of lower extremities
- Decreased level of consciousness
- Spinal headache
- Respiratory depression
35. The doctor orders the following to Mrs. Jones:
Norepinephrine (Levophed) 12mcg/mind. The pharmacy
sends a premixed solution of 4mg Norepinephrine in
250mL 5% Dextrose/ what is the dilution of Levophed per
mL of 5% Dextrose?
- 24 mcg/mL
- 8 mcg/mL
- 16 mcg/mL
- 4 mcg/mL
36. Medications which blocks the action of acetylcholine
would have which of the following effects on the skeletal
muscles?
- Rigidity
- Decreased contractility
- Increased muscle tone
- Tremors
37. A code has been called for what the client experiencing
cardiac arrest. Which medication should the nurse
prepare to administer to the client?
- Digoxin IVP
- Lidocaine IVP
- Epinephrine IV push (IVP)
- …
38. Which of the following is an expected effect of
adrenergic blockers?
- Decreased blood pressure
- Mydriasis
- Increased force of cardiac contraction
- Bronchodilation
39. Among the different ways of administering spinal
block, epidural anesthesia differs to the rest is that:
- It causes less pain upon introduction
- It uses an indwelling anesthetic catheter
- It has lesser side effects
40. When providing care for a patient receiving alpha and
beta adrenergic agonists, which of the following would be
important to assess in order to prevent the systemic
overload of catecholamines?
- Allergic rhinitis
- Pheochromocytoma
- Hypotension
- Hypovolemia
41. Which of the following is an expected effect of beta-
adrenergic agonists?
- Hypotension
- Bronchodilation
- …
- …
42. The nurse is preparing to administer atropine sulfate,
an anticholinergic, as a preoperative medication to a
patient for abdominal surgery. Which of the following
correctly describes the purpose for administering the
drug?
- Relax skeletal muscles to prevent unnecessary
twitching
- Decrease oral secretions to prevent aspiration
- Decrease peristalsis to prevent GI disturbance
- Decrease urinary output to prevent dehydration
43. The nurse is preparing to administer the following
medications. Which medication should the nurse question
administering?
- Acetylsalicylic acid to a client receiving warfarin.
- Nabumetone to a client receiving digoxin
- Ibuprofen to a client receiving furosemide
- Ketorolac intramuscularly to a client on a morphine
(PCA)
44. Decongestants should not be used for more than three
(3) days to prevent:
- Rebound congestions
- Local hypertension
- Arrhythmias
- palpitations
45. A patient diagnosed with bronchial asthma has been
prescribed with Zafirlukast. Which of the following
describes the purpose of Zafirlukast, a leukotriene
receptor antagonist, in the management of patient with
asthma?
- Acute attack
- Prophylaxis
- Prevention of infection
46. A 66-year old patient is admitted due to acute
exacerbation of COPD. Thepatient is prescribed with
salbutamol/ipratropium (Combivent) through
nebulization. Which of the following is true regarding
salbutamol and ipratropium?
- Salbutamol is an adrenergic agonist that causes
bronchoconstriction.
- Salbutamol acts by blocking the cholinergic receptors
in the airway to prevent bronchoconstriction.
- Ipratropium is an adrenergic agonist that causes
bronchoconstriction.
- Ipratropium acts by blocking the cholinergic
receptors in the airway to prevent
bronchoconstriction.
47. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
the difference between narcotic and non-narcotic
analgesics?
- Narcotic analgesics can be mixed with non-
narcotic analgesics to achieve synergistic effects.
- Non-narcotic analgesics like NSAIDs are preferred
for moderate to severe pain.
- Narcotic analgesics cannot be given to elderly
clients.
- Narcotic analgesics may not cause CNS depression if
given with non-narcotic analgesics.
48. A 56-year-old patient with rheumatoidarthritis is
prescribed with Methotrexate, a DMARD, 10 mg every
Sunday. The client asks the nurse what is the drug for?
Which of the following responses of the nurse about
disease- modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) is
correct?
- "This drug acts on the opiate receptors of your brain
to decrease pain sensation."
- "This drug decreases the inflammation of your
joints."
- "This drug decreases the symptoms by slowing
down the progression of your rheumatoid
arthritis."
- "This drug is given to decrease the severity of your
arthritis pain by blocking prostaglandin."
49. The doctor writes an order for Lactulose 20 grams by
mouth BID. Pharmacy dispenses you with 10 gram/15 ml.
How many ml with you administer per dose?
- 20 ml/dose
- 7.5 ml/dose
- 30 ml/dose
- 15 ml/dose
50. The nurse administers an IV bolus of antibiotic
preoperatively as a loading dose. Which of the following is
a correct description of a loading dose?
Loading dose is a concentrated and high dose given over a
short time period
- Loading dose is a concentrated and high dose
given over a short period of time
- Loading dose is a continuous
51. What is an indication for use non- selective adrenergic
blocking agents?
- Malignant hyperthermia
- Essential hypertension
- Secondary hypertension
- Malignant hypertension
52. The client is prescribed albuterol metered-dose
inhaler. Which behavior indicates the teaching concerning
the inhaler is effective?
- The client connects the oxygen tubing to the inhaler
before administering the dose.
- The client exhales and then squeezes the canister
as the next inspiration occurs.
53. In taking a medication history, the nurse knows the
following statement to be true
- Over-the-counter drugs should not be included in a
medication history
- Patients allergic to fish may also be allergic to
contrast dyes used in radiology.
- Heavy smokers may require smaller doses if taking
medications
- Alcohol consumption decreases the action of
tranquillizers and CNS depressants
54. The nurse is administering medications to the clients
on a medical unit. Which medication should the nurse
question administering?
- Prednisone to a client diagnosed with polymyalgia
rheumatica.
- Chloroquine to a client with a butterfly rash.
- Neostigmine to a client diagnosed with myasthenia
gravis (MG)
- Pyridostigmine to a client in a cholinergic crisis.
55. The client diagnosed with osteoarthritis of the hands is
prescribed capsaicin cream. Which intervention should
the nurse discuss with the client concerning this
medication?
- Do not remove the cream for at least 30 minutes after
application.
- Wash the hands immediately after applying the
cream.
- Apply a heating pad to the affected area after
applying the cream.
- Remove cream immediately if burning of the skin
occurs.
56. A 45-year-old female was diagnosed with hypertension
and is prescribed with Propranolol. Considering the
propranolol is a non-selective beta blocker, which of the
following assessment data would alert the nurse?
- Previous hospital admission due to pulmonary edema
- Complaints of headache
- History of bronchial asthma
- History of angina pectoris

57.The nurse is administering 0900medications to clients
on a medicalunit. Which medication should be
administered first?
- Acetaminophen to a client with a headache
- Diazepam to a client with muscle spasms.
- Chlorzoxazone to a client on bedrest.
- Morphine sulfate ER to a client with low back pain.
58. The nurse is monitoring the nutritional intake of the
patient on multiple drug therapy. Laboratory results
revealed: Hypoalbuminemia. The nurse is concerned
about a low serum protein for all of the following reasons,
except:
- the patient will have difficulty transporting
medications
- most medications are bound to albumin in the serum
- excess free drug may result in an exaggerated
effect
- decreased free drug may result in reduced therapeutic
effect
59. A 35-year-old post-operative patient has been
prescribed with Ibuprofen 300 mg daily. Upon assessment,
the nurse noted that the patient had difficulty in
swallowing and would prefer an analgesic to be given
intravenously. The nurse knows which of the following
NSAIDs can be given through the client's preferred rout?
- Ketorolac
- Celecoxib
- Naproxen
- Aspirin
60. Mr. Kulas, 75-year-old comes to the clinic with
complaint of shortness of breath. During the assessment,
the nurse learns that he is an alcoholic who smokes a pack
of cigar a day. The nurse will assess the patient for
possible drug toxic effects primarily due to:
- increased lung capacity
- diminished liver function
- ineffective cardiac function
- spasticity of the colon
61. Metered-dose inhalers are used to deliver specific
amounts of medication. The nurse gives the patient which
of the following instructions?
- never shake the inhaler medication before use.
- hold the head back while inhalingthe medication.
- sit upright, exhale, then activate he inhaler as the
next inhalation begins.
- exhale while squeezing the canister to deliver the
medication.
62. Jenn came to the OPD clinic with complaints of
symptoms of rhinitis. The physician prescribed Jenn with
Pseudoephedrine, a decongestant. The nurse knows that
this drug works by:
- Blocking the histamine-1 receptors thereby reducing
congestion
- Increasing expectoration of mucus and phlegm
- Promoting vasoconstriction on the nasal blood
vessels
- Stabilizing mast cells to decrease allergic reactions
63. To an elderly client who is about to start taking
Aspirin daily, which of the following instructions should
be emphasized?
- Monitor blood glucose regularly
- Take the medication on an empty stomach
- May take with Calcium channel blockers
- Take the medication with food
64. Antonio is PACU nurse assigned to a post-
cholecystectomy patient. Upon assessment, he noted that
the client’s temperature has increased to 39.8 degree
Celsius from 37.6 degree Celsius 2 hours prior. Further
assessment, revealed the following: RR: 29 cpm, HR: 111
bpm, and muscular rigidity. Laboratory results revealed
serum potassium level of 6.1 mEq/L and elevation of
creating kinase. Based on the client’s condition, antonio
anticipates the administration of which of the following
medications?
- Aspirin
- Dantrolene
- Protamine
- Naloxone
65. The client asks the nurse to explain the action of
infiltration anesthesia. The nurse’s response is based on
the knowledge that infiltration anesthesia:
- Produces numbing to large, regional areas such as the
lower abdomen and legs
- Blocks sensation to an entire limb, or a large area of
the face
- Blocks a specific group of nerves in tissues closed
to the operative area
- Is applied only to mucous membranes to proved local
anesthesia
66. Jedax is 54-year-old male diagnosed with benign
prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). He came into the ER due to
complaints of difficulty in urinating. The physician
prescribed Jedax with Tamsulosin. As a nurse, you know
that this drug acts by:
- Constricting renal arteries resulting to decreased
urine formation
- Stimulating the cholinergic receptors that leads to
contraction of detrusor muscle
- Blocking beta receptors leading to vasodilation of
renal arteries
- Blocking alpha receptors that results to relaxation
of prostate and external sphincter
67. During a major surgery, the circulating nurse noted
that the client’s blood pressure is steadily dropping, and
muscle tone cannot be appreciated. According to Guedel’s
classification, the client is on what stage of anesthesia?
- Analgesia
- Excitement
- Delirium
- Medullary paralysis
68. The nurse is preparing to administer glycerin rectal
suppository to a patient with constipation. Which of the
following set of materials should the nurse prepare?
Kidney basin and asepto syringe
- 3-cc syringe and free needle
- Clean gloves and lubricating gel
- Medication cup and a glass of water
69. Which statement is correct regarding interviewing
techniques used by nurses to elicit patient information?
- Mirror-response questions are evaluative and
threatening
- Loaded questions should be avoided in an
information-gathering interview
- Close-ended questions allow the greatest freedom to
response
- Open-ended questions impose limitations on patient
responses
70. The physician orders 1.5 liters of Lactated Ringer’s
solution to be administered intravenously to your patient
over the next 12 hours. Calculate the rate of flow if the IV
tubing delivers 20 gtt/mL.
- 41 gtts
- 43 gtts
- 42 gtts
- 40 gtts
71. A client presents the emergency department with
severe hypertension. Following assessment and laboratory
examination, the physician diagnosed the client with
pheochromocytoma. The nurse anticipates which of the
following adrenergic blocker will be prescribed to the
patient?
- Phentolamine
- Metoprolol
- Labetalol
- Atenolol
72. The client is experiencing ventricular tachycardia and
has a weak, thready apical pulse. Which medication
should the nurse prepare to administer to the client to
increase the heart rate of the patient?
- Salbutamol
- Atropine
- Digoxin
- Dopamine
73. What is the best way for the nurse to make sure that
the right patient is receiving a prescribed drug when the
patient is alert and oriented?
- check the patient's wrist band
- have the patient state his or her name and birth
date
- ask the patient to state his or her name
- look at the patients chart
74. A client with reactive airway diseasehas been
prescribed with Theophylline. The latest serum
theophylline level is 26 mcg/mL (NRL: 10-20 mcg/mL).
Which of the following manifestations is consistent with
the laboratory
findings?
- Tachycardia
- Salivation
- Decreased level of consciousness
- Decreased respiratory rate
75. Ms. Jane Esturya, a new graduate nurse, has been
assigned to work on a medical-surgical unit. Many of the
patients under her care are receiving controlled drugs.
Jane prepares Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, to be
administered parenterally. The patient then informed her
that he doesn't need the shot. Jane has the legal
responsibility to:
- discard the drug while another nurse observes
and documents her action
- encourage the patient to take her medication since it
has already been prepared
- return the drug to the point of origin, such as the
hospital pharmacy
- save the drug in the syringe in case the patient needs
it later
76. Which of the following is considered as the most
dangerous adverse effect ofspinal anesthesia?
- Numbness of lower extremities
- Spinal headache
- Respiratory depression
- Decreased level of consciousness
77. To which client should the nursequestion
administering atropine, ananticholinergic?
- The 28-year-old client with severe diarrhea
- The 69-year-old client diagnosed with glaucoma.
QUESTION and ANSWER
1. Another name for an adrenergic agonist drug is
sympathomimetic drug. TRUE
2. Alpha selective adrenergic blocking agents are to be used
with cautio in what population of patients?
a. Those with hepatic disease
b. Those with hypotension
c. Those with congestive heart failure
d. Those with respiratory distress
3. An indication for the use of Duvoid is to diagnose and
treat esophageal varices. FALSE
4. Which of the drugs used to treat Alzheimer’s disease is
available in solution for swallowing ease?
a. Cognex
b. Reminyl
c. Aricept
d. Exelon
5. The nurse is providing patient education to a patient
taking an inderict-acting cholinergic agonist. What drug-to-
drug interaction would the nurse include in the patient
education?
a. NSAIDs
b. Direct-acting cholinergic agonist
c. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
d. Direct-acting cholinergic antagonist
6. In which group ompatients would the healthcare provider
use caution in prescribing anticholinergic medications?
a. Patients with spasticity
b. Patients with myasthenia gravis
c. Patients with Parkinson’s disease
d. Patients with hyperactive reflexes
7. What is the rationale for giving levodopa and carbidopa 5. A client is ordered 1 milligram of Diazepam. 2 milligram
together? tablets are available. How many tablets will you give? (1
Point)
a. The medications create a synergistic effect. 0.5 tablets
b. The carbidopa facilitates peripheral uptake of the
levodopa. 6. Factor(s) which effect a drug's volume of distribution: (1
c. The carbidopa prevents levodopa from crossing into the Point)
brain patient's gender
d. The carbidopa prevents levodopa from being broken patient's age
down in the periphery. presence of disease
all of the above
8. In teaching a patient about riluzole, which of the
following statement would indicate the need for additional 7.Why is it important for the nurse to know the dosage form
teaching? and route of administration for any specific medication? (1
Point)
a. “I should take my medication with breakfast and dinner.” this is not critical because it is evident by looking at the
b. “I will take my medication before meals” medication
c. “I will take my medication with a full glass of water” the most important thing is that the patient gets the
medication, regardless of the route of administration
9. Which of the following is the route of an administration some routes of administration don't work as well as others
of glatiramer? the same medication may come in different forms, requiring
different routes of administration
a. Oral
b. SC 8. The client is prescribed 45 ml of a medication to be taken
c. IM TID. At home, how many tablespoons should this client take
d. IV each day?* (1 Point)
6
8
7
9

AWAYAN QUIZ 9. One litre of Normal Saline is charted over 9 hours. The
1. The nurse sets the infusion pump for delivering the drop factor is 15. Calculate the number of drops per minute.
patient's Vancomycin at 50 cc/hr. What "right" of drug Round the answer to the nearest whole number. (1 Point)
administration is being accomplished? (1 Point) 30 gtts/min
Right Dose 29 gtts/min
2. It is the process by which drug acts at the cellular level to 28 gtts/min
achieve the desired effects. (1 Point) 27 gtts/min
Pharmacokinetics
Biotransformation 10. The physician has ordered Demerol 35mg, IM, q3h pro
Pharmacodynamics pain to be given to a client. The preflled syringe. (1 Point)
Drug interaction 0.35 ml
0.7 ml
3. Which of the following medication orders contains all of 1.0 ml
the essential parts needed for accurate drug 0.5 ml
administration? * (1 Point) 11. The onset of a drug would be expected top occur most
1-6-04, client's name, Demerol 100 mg, IM, g4H, pro pain, quickly after administration by which route? (1 Point)
physician's signature subcutaneous
1-5-04, morphine sulfate gr 1/6 stat physician's signature intramuscular
1-1-04, client's name, Imferon, 1 cc, sod, physician's signature intravenous
1-4-04, clients name, Lanoxin 0.125 mg. po, physician's oral
signature
12. The amount of time required for the body's elimination
4. A nurse is to give a combination of Demerol 50 mg and process to reduce the concentration of a drug to one-half
Vistaril 50 mg IM to a client. The Demerol is available in an what it was at initial administration is called the: (1 Point)
ampule labeled "100 mg/ml," and the Vistaril is available in onset of action
a multiple dose vial labeled "50 m/ml." What is the total peak plasma level
volume to be administered in the syringe? (1 Point) drug-half-life
2.5 ml plateau
1 ml
2 2 ml 13. When local medication is applied to the skin or the
1.5 ml mucous membranes, the nurse charts that it has been given:
(1 Point)
topically 0.5 cc
by inhalation 0.05 cc
subcutaneously
parenterally 22. A client tells the nurse, "This pill is a different color than
the one that I usually take at home." Which is the best
14. When a medication is injected into the body with a response by the nurse? (1 Point)
needle snd syringe, it is administered (1 Point) "I'll leave the pill here while I check with the doctor"
topically 'Go ahead and take your medicine:
inravenously "Maybe the doctor ordered a different
parenterally medication."
intramuscularly "I will recheck your medication orders"

15. A physician's order reads phenytoin (Dilantin) 0.2g orally 23. A 4 month old client has an order for D5 1/2 NS IV to run
twice daily. The medication label states 100 mg capsules. A a rate of 40 m/hr. While the unlicensed assistive person
nurse prepares how many capsule(s) to a administer one (UAP) is obtaining an 1?V. infusion pump, the nurse sets the
dose? drip rate at which of the following, using a Soluset with
(1 Point) micro drip tubing that has a drop factor of 60 gtts/ml? (1
2 capsules Point)
4 capsules 40
1 capsules 60
3 capsules 30
50
16. Medication orders are written with very specific criteria
and coincide with the 10 rights of medication 24. A client is ordered 200 milligrams of Amoxicillin
administration. What critical piece of information is missing trihydrate orally. 250 milligrams in 5 millilitres of Syrup is
from the following medication order? Amoxicillin 250 mg available. How many millilitres will you administer? (1
every 8 hours. (1 Point) Point)
dose 6
route 5
frequency of administration 4
trade name of the drug 3

17. The nurse asked the client for his name and birthdate 25. What is metabolism? (1 Point)
upon entering the room. What "right" of drug when drugs are used by the cells
administration is being accomplished? (1 Point) when drugs are broken down into smaller usable parts by
Right patient enzymes
18. The client has an order for dexamethasone (Decadron) 6 when drugs are moved through the body
mg IV push stat. Available is a vial of dexamethasone with a when drugs are excreted
concentration of 4 mg/ml. How many ml does the nurse
draw into the syringe to administer the dose? (1 Point) 26. The client is in the bathroom. When the nurse enters the
1.5 ml room to give her medication, the client asks hero leave the
2.5 ml pills on the bedside table. What should the nurse do? (1
1ml Point)
0.5 ml Tell the client she will return in a little while with the pills
2 ml Wait in the room until the client comes out of the bathroom
Go into the bathroom and give the client her pills
19. A secondary, or unintended, effect of a drug on the body Leave the medication on the bedside table.
is called as (1 Point)
drug interaction 27. which of the physiologic change influences the
side effect administration of medications to elderly clients? (1 Point)
toxic effect There is less complete and slower absorption from the
cumulative effect gastrointestinal tract causing delayed onset after
administration
20.A physician orders 1000 mL D5W to infuse at a rate of There is faster biotransformation of drugs in the liver, and
125 mL/hr. A nurse determines that it will take how many therefore, higher potency
hours for 1 L to infuse? (1 Point) There is increased proportion of lean body mass to fat, which
8 hours increases the potential for toxicity of fat-soluble drugs
There is an increase in real blood flow, resulting in rapid
21. The physician orders penicillin 50,000 units for a client. uptake of medications from the bloodstream
You have a available a10 ml vial labeled "100,000 units per
cc." How much will you give? (1 Point) 29. A client is ordered 35 milligrams of Codeine phosphate
1.0 cc by subcutaneous injection. 50 milligrams in 1 millilitre of
2.0 cc
liquid for SC Injection is available. How many millilitres will
you administer? (1 Point) 38. Drugs are classified according to different perspectives.
0.7 milliliters All that classifies except one; (1 Point)
antiemetic
30. Select the "rights" of medication administration. (3 antigen
Points) anti inefective
shift anesthetics
doctor
dose 39. The nurse comes to work and the nurse from the
time previous shift has prepared the medication by putting it in
documentation medicine cups, explaining that she had plenty of time and
wanted to help out. The oncoming nurse should:
31. What is the primary site for drug metabolism? (1 Point) Tell her thanks, that really helps
kidney Give the medication to the residents and document correctly
liver Look at the color and number of pills to make sure they are
GIT correct
Lungs Explain that you cannot give medications that you did not
prepare yourself
32. A 15 year year old client is admitted with dehydration
has an order for a bolus infusion of normal saline (NS) 500
ml IV over 1 hour. An infusion device is available that counts
the number of drops per minute delivered. The IV tubing
Pharma (Pre-test)
has a drop factor of 10 drops/ml. If the bolus is to infuse on
time, the nurse shouldest the drip rate to how many drops
per minute? (1 Point)
85 1.The nurse is caring for a client who has been taking inhaled
80 corticosteroids for more than a year. Which assessment
84 related to the side effects of the drug should the nurse
83 perform?
(1 Point)
33. The nurse is explaining a medication to a client when
the client states, "Will this medicine affect my baby? I may Assess the client’s deep tendon reflexes
be pregnant." How should the nurse reply? (1 Point)
"It is better to wait and see if you are pregnant before Monitor the client’s heart rate
worrying this medicine's effect on the baby"
"This may affect your baby. I will notify the physician." Obtain fecal occult blood test
"This medicine may have some very bad consequences for
your baby." Inspect the client’s oral cavity
"I do not think this medicine will affect your unborn baby." 2.Which medication is classified as a short-acting beta-2
agonist bronchodilator?
34. Giving the drug with food may ______ the absorption of (1 Point)
the drug. (1 Point)
Slows Salmeterol

35. A client is ordered 50 milligrams of Amoxicillin Ipratropium

trihydrate orally. 125 milligrams in 5 mililitres of Syrup is
available. How many millilitres will you administer? (1 Albuterol
Point)
2 mililiters Montelukast
3.The nurse is teaching a client with COPD how to use a
36. After giving a medication that frequently causes allergic metered-dose inhaler. Which instructions by the nurse is
responses, two symptoms the nurse should observe for is: (1 correct?
Point) (1 Point)
tachycardia and irregular heart rythm
skin rash and nausea “Inhale fully first before placing the inhaler in your mouth.”
headache and constipation
confusion and disorientation “Exhale fully first before placing the inhaler in your mouth.”

37. Two most important sites for drug elimination: (1 Point) “Place the inhaler between your tongue and upper teeth.”
pulmonary and liver
liver and gastrointestinal tract “Drink warm water after administering a dose of inhaler/”
kidney and liver 4.A client is admitted to the emergency department due to a
skin and liver severe asthma attack that is unresponsive to bronchodilators.
Which drug would the nurse anticipate to be given to the 10.The nurse is preparing to administer theophylline to a
client? client. The latest blood level drawn is 22 mcg/mL. Which is
(1 Point) the next appropriate action of the nurse?
(1 Point)
Hydrocortisone
Salbutamol Watch the client for decreased level of consciousness
Theophylline
Epinephrine Administer the theophylline dose

5.Which medication is classified as a xanthine derivative Decrease the dose to half

bronchodilator?
(1 Point) Withhold the dose and notify the physcian
11.Which medication is classified as a nasal decongestant?
Albuterol (1 Point)
Ipratropium
Fluticasone Salbutamol
Theophylline
Diphenhydramine
6.Which medication is classified as an antihistamine?
(1 Point) Pseudoephedrine

Phenylpropanolamine Guaifenessin
12.Which side effect of the antitubercular drug, Rifampicin,
Loratadine would the nurse teach the client to be alert for?
(1 Point)
Ventolin
Blurring of vision
Albuterol
7.The nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline. Weakness of the lower extremities
Which activity should the nurse include in the plan of care?
(1 Point) Jaundice and hepatomegaly

Teach the client to take the medication at bedtime.
Monitor the client for hypotension.
Monitor serum theophylline levels regularly.
Teach the client to increase fluid intake.
8.Which anti-asthma medications causes bronchodilation by
stimulating the beta receptors in the airway?
(1 Point)
Red-orange discoloration of the urine
13.Which teaching should the nurse emphasize to a client
taking the antihistamine, diphenhydramine (Benadryl)?
(1 Point)
“Increase your fluid intake to liquify secretions.”
“Watch out for signs of bleeding like bruising.”
“Do not drive when you go home from the clinic.”

Salmeterol “Take the medication with a glass of water.”

14.Which medication is classifies as an antitussive? Select all
Ipratropium that apply.
(1 Point)
Cromolyn
Codeine
Cetirizine
9.Which medication acts to liquefy the secretions in the Carbocysteine
airway so that it can be expectorated easily?
(1 Point) Dextromethorphan

Montelukast Loratadine

Acetylcysteine Guaifenessin
15.The nurse is caring for a client on anti-tubercular
Dextromethorphan medications. Which supplementary medications would the
nurse anticipate to be given to the client as prophylaxis for
Codeine the side effects of isoniazid?
(1 Point)
Vitamin B6 - Instruct the mother to perform and record a
daily salmeterol level
Ethambutol - Tell the mother to observe the child for a sore
throat and respiratory infection
Penicillin - Inform the mother to notify the HCP if the child
vomits or becomes irritable
Diphenhydramine
- Recommend that the medication be
16.Which medications are classified as anticholinergic
refrigerated at all times
bronchodilators? Select all that apply.
(1 Point) 4. The nurse is preparing to administer theophylline to
a client. The latest blood level drawn is 12 mcg/mL.
Hydrocortisone Which is the next appropriate action of the nurse?
- Administer the theophylline dose
Thiotropium - Decrease the dose to half
- Watch the client for decreased level of
Ipratropium consciousness
- Withhold the dose and notify the physician
Albuterol 5. Which teaching should the nurse emphasize to a
client taking the antihistamine, diphenhydramine
Salmeterol (Benadryl)?
- “Increase your fluid intake to liquefy secretions”
17.Which medication is classified as a leukotriene receptor
- “Take the mediation with a glass of water”
antagonist?Immersive Reader
(1 Point) - “Watch out for signs of bleeding like bruising”
- “Do not drive when you go home from the
Budesonide clinic”
6. The nurse should instruct a client who is taking an
Ipratropium expectorant to:
- Take antihistamine
Cromolyn - Restrict fluids
- Avoid vaporizers
Montelukast - Increase fluids
7. A client who uses over-the-counter phenylephrine
(Neo-Synephrine) nasal spray asks the nurse how
Pharma (Post-test) the medication works. The nurse’s response would
be:
1. A client receiving salbutamol had experienced - It coats the nasal passages to reduce swelling
elevation in the heart rate. This side effect is brought - It is absorbed after you swallow it to act as a
about by: decongestant
- The sympathetic stimulation effects of - It helps to shrink the swelling in your nose by
salbutamol tightening the blood vessels there
- The parasympathetic stimulation effects of - It works to locally destroy invading organisms
salbutamol that cause colds and flu
- The toxic effects of salbutamol 8. The nurse is teaching a client with COPD how to use
- The desired effects of salbutamol a metered-dose inhaler. Which instructions by the
2. The nurse is caring for a client on anti-tubercular nurse is correct?
medications. Which supplementary medications - “Exhale fully first before placing the inhaler in
would the nurse anticipate to be given to the client your mouth”
as prophylaxis for the side effects of isoniazid? - “Drink warm water after administering a dose of
- Diphenhydramine inhaler”
- Vitamin B6 - “Place the inhaler between your tongue and
- Penicillin upper teeth”
- Ethambutol - “Inhale fully first before placing the inhaler in
3. The nurse is teaching the mother of a 9-year-old your mouth”
child with severe reactive airway disease. The child 9. The client is having an acute exacerbation of asthma.
is prescribed salmeterol by metered-dose inhaler The HCP has prescribed epinephrine
every 12 hours. Which instruction should the nurse subcutaneously. Which intervention should the
include when discussing the medication with the nurse implement when administering this
mother? medication?
- Perform a complete respiratory assessment
 - Administer the medication using a tuberculin
syringe
- Dilute the medication to a 5-mL bolus prior to
administering
- Monitor the client’s serum epinephrine level
10. It is a must to educate clients that nasal
decongestants should not be used unless absolutely
necessary to prevent
- Rebound congestion
- Anaphylaxis
- Dry mouth
- Toxicity
11. Salbutamol (Ventolin) can be safely given to the
following except:
- A 10-year old patient with asthma
- A 65-year old with COPD
- A 24-year old with glaucoma
- A 32-year old with emphysema
12. The nurse is caring for a client receiving
theophylline. Which activity should the nurse
include in the plan of care?
- Teach the client to take the medication at
bedtime
- Teach the client to increase fluid intake
- Monitor the client for hypertension
- Monitor serum theophylline levels regularly
13. The 28-year-old female client with chronic reactive
airway disease is taking montelukast sodium. Which
statement by the client indicates the client teaching
is effective?
- “I should not decrease the dose or suddenly
stop taking this medication”
- “It is all right to take this medication if I am
trying to get pregnant”
- “I will not drink coffee, tea, or any type of cola
drinks”
- I will take this medication at the beginning of an
asthma attack”
14. Which of the following electrolytes should be
monitored on a client receiving
albuterol/salbutamol?
- Sodium
- Calcium
- Potassium
- Magnesium
15. The client with asthma asks the nurse, “Why should I
use the corticosteroid inhaler instead of
prednisone?” Which statement by the nurse is most
appropriate?
- “The inhaler costs less than the prednisone,
which is why it should be used”
- “Prednisone is not on your insurance formulary
and the inhaler is”
- “The lungs are incapable of utilizing prednisone
1. A nurse is caring for a client who will undergo surgery. The
to decrease inflammation”
nurse administers Atropine sulfate to the client as part of the
- “The inhaler will not cause the systemic
pre-operative medications. What is the purpose of
problems that prednisone does”
administering atropine to this client? (1 Point)
16. Which of the following drugs is indicated for a client
whose sleep interrupted by an unproductive cough?
- Guaifenesin (Robitussin)
- Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- Dextromethorphan (Robitussin DM)
- Ephedrine Sulfate (Vicks)
17. A nurse is caring for a client receiving streptomycin.
Which assessment finding should the nurse be alert
for?
- Hearing loss
- Jaundice and hepatomegaly
- Red-orange discoloration of the urine
- Weakness of the lower extremities
18. The child with an acute asthma attack is prescribed a
7-day course of prednisone. The mother asks the
nurse. “Doesn’t this medication cause serious side
effects?” Which statement is the nurse’s best
response?
- “There may be serious side effects if your child
takes the medication for a long time”
- “Yes, this medication does have serious side
effects, but your child needs the medication.”
- “The doctor would not have ordered a
medication that has serious side effects”
- “A short-term course of steroids will not cause
serious side effects”
19. The 6-year-old child is experiencing an acute
exacerbation of reactive airway disease. The child
passed out and the parents brought the child to the
emergency department (ED). Which intervention
should the nurse implement first?
- Administer IV methylprednisolone
- Administer albuterol via nebulizer
- Administer oxygen to maintain oxygen
saturation above 95%
- Administer subcutaneous epinephrine via
tuberculin syringe
20. The nurse is caring for a client who has been taking
inhaled corticosteroids for more than a year. Which
assessment related to the side effects of the drug
should the nurse perform?
- Obtain fecal occult blood test
- Assess the client’s deep tendon reflexes
- Inspect the client’s oral cavity
- Monitor the client’s heart rate
 o to decrease oral and bronchial secretions lower extremities. Which muscle relaxant does the nurse
o to decrease the client's heart rate anticipate to be given to the client to relieve the spasms?
o to increase the client's heart rate o Botox
o to dilate the client's airway o Dantrolene
o Succinylcholine
o Baclofen

2.A client is admitted to the medical ward due to generalized 9.The nurse is caring for a client with shock. The client is
muscle weakness and ptosis. The physician suspects receiving nitroglycerin and dopamine drip. The nurse notes
myasthenia gravis and orders Edrophonium chloride redness in the IV insertion site and suspects infiltration.
(Tensilon) test for the client. Which assessment finding would Which drug would the nurse anticipate to be given to the
confirm the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis? client?
o Phentolamine
o The client became weaker after administration of o Dobutamine
Tensilon o Epinephrine
o The client's ptosis is gone after administration of o Atropine
Tensilon
o The client's urine output increases after 10.The nurse is caring for a client receiving propranolol, a
non-selected beta adrenergic blocker. Which adverse
administration of Tensilon
reaction related to the medication should the nurse be alert
o The client sleeps after administration of Tensilon
for?
3.In which group of patients would the healthcare provider o Hypertension
use caution in prescribing anticholinergic medications? o Urinary retention
o Patients with hyperactive reflexes o Difficulty in breathing
o Patients with Parkinson’s disease o Tachycardia
o Patients with myasthenia gravis
11.The nurse is caring for a client receiving an indirect-acting
o Patients with spasticity
cholinergic agonist. Which symptoms does the nurse identify
4. The nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson's disease as effects of the medication? Select all that apply.
who is receiving Carbidopa-Levodopa. Which assessment o Tachycardia
finding would indicate that the drug has been effective? o Bronchodilation
o decreased heart rate and blood pressure o Bronchoconstriction
o increased musculoskeletal activity o Bradycardia
o increase in the frequency of the client's tremors o Vasoconstriction
o decrease in the frequency of the client's tremors o Vasodilation

5. Which manifestation characterized a client diagnosed with 12.The nurse is caring for a client admitted in the medical
Myasthenia gravis? (1 Point) ward due to benign prostatic hypertrophy. Upon reviewing
o forgetfulness the client's medications, the nurse notes that the client is
o muscle weakness prescribed with the alpha-1 blocker, tamsulosin. Which
o muscle spasms assessment parameter would the nurse check to determine
o hypertension the effectiveness of the drug?
o pain level
o urine output
6. Alpha1- selective adrenergic blocking agents are to be used o heart rate
with caution in what population of patients? o blood pressure
o Those with congestive heart failure
o Those with hypotension 13.A client with spinal cord injury is diagnosed with
o Those with respiratory distress neurogenic bladder atony. The client's physician prescribed a
o Those with hepatic disease cholinergic agonist, Bethanechol, to the client. Which
assessment finding would indicate that the drug has been
7. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Alzheimer's effective?
disease. Which medication does the nurse anticipate to be o Decrease in blood pressure
given to the client? (1 Point o Decrease in deep tendon reflex
o pyridostigmine o Increase in urine output
o epinephrine o Increase in skeletal muscle contraction
o tamsolusin
o donepezil 14.Which medication can cause an increase in heart rate? (1
Point)
8.The nurse caring for a client with Multiple Sclerosis has o Diltiazem
noted that the client is experiencing spasms of the upper and o Baclofen
o Atropine
 o Carvedilol Administer the morphine intramuscularly in the ventral
gluteal muscle.
15.The nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson's disease
who is receiving Carbidopa-Levodopa. Upon reviewing the o Dilute the MS to a 10-mL bolus with normal saline
client's other medications, the nurse would report to the and administer intravenous push
physician when which of the following medications is also
taken by the client? o Question the order because MS should not be
o Folic acid supplement administered to a client with an MI.
o Vitamin C supplement o Assess the client’s pain prior to administering the
o Vitamin B6 supplement medication orally
o Calcium and vitamin D supplement
2.A 30-year-old client with depression has attempted
16.Which adrenergic agonist is used to decrease blood suicide by overdosing on acetaminophen (Tylenol). The
pressure? (1 Point) nurse in the emergency department will anticipate that the
o Clonidine client’s treatment will consist of:
o Epinephrine o An intravenous infusion with normal saline to infuse
o Ephedrine at 1,000 mL per hour.
o Norepinephrine o The administration of acetylcysteine (Acetadote) by
intravenous infusion.
17.A client with generalized anxiety disorder has been o Preparation for cardioversion due to the impending
prescribe with Metoprolol 25 mg once a day. Which action
arrhythmia.
of metoprolol is indicated for this client? (1 Point)
o The assessment of liver enzymes to determine
o decrease in heart rate
hepatotoxicity
o decrease in blood pressure
o decrease in pain sensation 3.The client diagnosed with history of a gastric ulcer is
o decrease in respiratory effort having transient ischemic attacks (TIA) and is prescribed a
daily 325-mg aspirin. Which information is most important
18.A client with hypovolemic shock is being managed with
for the nurse to discuss with the client?
an intravenous drip of norepinephrine (Levophed). Which
assessment finding does the nurse identify as the desired
o Encourage the client to take the aspirin with food.
effect of the drug?
o Notify the health-care provider if ringing in the ears
o Increase in blood pressure
occurs.
o Decrease in heart rate
o Instruct the client to take an enteric-coated brand of
o Increase in respiratory rate
aspirin.
o Decrease in body temperature
o Explain that the client may experience black, tarry
19.Which disorder is characterized by a decrease in stools.
dopamine levels in the brain and increased acetylcholine
effects? 4.Oral corticosteroids are prescribed on a taper method in
o Parkinson's disease order to:
o Myasthenia gravis o achieve optimal serum levels
o Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis o ensure drug reliability
o Alzheimer's Disease o ensure compliance
o prevent hypoadrenal state
20.The nurse is preparing to administer the drug
epinephrine. Which condition is epinephrine indicated for?
Select all that apply. 5.The client diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease
o Status asthmaticus (IBD) has been prescribed the oral glucocorticosteroid
o Sleeplessness prednisone daily. The client has pyrosis. Which statement
o Hypertension would be the clinic nurse’s best response?
o Heart failure
o Shock o “What type of diet are you currently following?”
o “When do you take your prednisone?”
o “Have you had a change in your weight?”
o “Have you discussed this with your health-care
provider?”
1. The client is complaining of severe chest pain radiating
down the left arm and is nauseated and diaphoretic. The 6.The nurse should question the order of acetaminophen
HCP suspects the client is having a myocardial infarction (Tylenol) for which client?
(MI) and has ordered morphine sulfate (MS), a narcotic A client with cirrhosis of the liver
analgesic, for the pain. Which intervention should the nurse
implement? o A client with fever
o A client with breast cancer
 o A client who is taking warfarin (Coumadin)
7.The elderly client in the hospital is complaining of arthritic
pain. Which action should the nurse implement?
o Administer meloxicam (Mobic), an NSAID COX-2
inhibitor.
o Administer acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), a salicylate.
o Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol), a nonnarcotic
analgesic.
o Administer morphine intravenous push, a narcotic
analgesic.
8.The nurse is preparing to administer the nonsteroidal anti-
inflammatory drug (NSAID) ibuprofen (Motrin) to a client
diagnosed with pericarditis. Which intervention should the
nurse include in the plan of care?
(1 Point)
o Monitor the blood glucose level.
o Have the client sit upright for 30 minutes after
taking the medication.
o Instruct the client to drink a full glass of water.
o Administer the medication with food.
9.The client with asthma asks the nurse, “Why should I use
the corticosteroid inhaler instead of prednisone?” Which
statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?
“The inhaler costs less than the prednisone, which is why it
should be used.”
o “The inhaler will not cause the systemic problems
that prednisone does.”
o “The lungs are incapable of utilizing prednisone to
decrease inflammation.”
o “Prednisone is not on your insurance formulary and
the inhaler is."
10.The client with osteoarthritis is prescribed the COX-2
inhibitor celecoxib (Celebrex), a nonsteroidal anti-
inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which statement by the client
would warrant intervention by the
o “I take aspirin daily to help prevent heart disease.”
o “I am allergic to penicillin and aminoglycosides.”
o “I know I am overweight and need to lose 50
pounds.”
o “I walk 30 minutes at least three times a week.”
11.The parent of a 1-year-old child calls the clinic to ask
about medications that can be administered to reduce
fever. Which medication should the nurse discuss with the
parent?
o Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin), an antipyretic.
o Diphenhydramine (Benadryl), an antihistamine.
o Docosanol (Abreva), an anti-infective.
o Docusate sodium (Colace), a gastrointestinal agent.
12.The nurse is asked by a family member: “They’re giving
mom Motrin and she takes Advil. Hasn’t the wrong drug
been ordered?” The nurse will respond, knowing that:
o There has been an error in the order and the nurse
will contact the health care provider.
o There may be a reason for the health care provider
to order a different drug.
o Not all health care agencies buy the same generic
drugs and that may account for the difference.
o Motrin and Advil are trade names for the same
generic drug, ibuprofen.
13.The female client comes to the clinic with an injured
right ankle and has an abnormally large amount of
ecchymotic tissue. Which question would be most
appropriate for the nurse to ask the client concerning the
ecchymotic tissue?
o “Is there any chance you could be pregnant?”
o “Are you currently taking aspirin routinely?”
o “How long did you apply ice to the ankle?”
o “Do you take any antihypertensive medication?”
14.Prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes
mellitus who is using Humulin 70/30 daily. Which of the
following prescription changes does the nurse expect during
the therapy with the prednisone?
o An addition of an oral hypoglycemic medication.
o Increased dosage of prednisone.
o Increased dosage of humulin 70/30.
o Decreased dosage of humulin 70/30.
15.The client is scheduled to have his PRN analgesic at 8 pm.
When is the ideal time to administer PRN analgesics?
o before the patient starts to feel pain
o after every activity
o when the pain becomes already unbearable to avoid
addiction
o everytime the patient asks for it
16.The nurse prepares to administer a narcotic antagonist.
The planned effect of this drug is to:
o Stimulate cortical sites controlling consciousness and
cardiovascular function
o Accelerate metabolism of heroin and stimulate
respiratory centers
o Compete with narcotics for receptors controlling
respiration, thus reverses its effects
o Decrease analgesia and the comatose state induced
by heroin
17.The client with poison ivy is prescribed a dose pack of
the steroid prednisone. Which statement best describes the
scientific rationale for prescribing the dose pack?
o The steroid will help decrease the inflammation
secondary to poison ivy.
o The dose pack will ensure that the medication is
tapered as needed.
o The dose pack will gradually increase the dose of the
steroid taken daily.
 o The steroid will reduce the amount of redness that is
on the client’s skin.
18.The client postgastrectomy has a patient-controlled
analgesia (PCA) pump. Which data would require
immediate intervention by the nurse?
o The client complains that the pain is still a “3.”
o The client has serous drainage on the dressing.
o The client’s has a T 99.2, P 78, R 10, and BP 110/82
o The client splints the incision before trying to cough.
19.Which of the following drug could be safely given to an 8
year-old child having muscle pains and fever?
o Acetylsalicylic acid
o Tylenol
o Aspilets
o Celebrex
20.An anti-inflammatory agent is ordered to be given
intravenously to the client for pain. Which antiinflammatory
agent is administered parenterally?
o Ketorolac (Toradol, Acular)
o Ketoprofen (Oruvail)
o Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
o Celecoxib (Celebrex)
21.A client has a fever and is allergic to aspirin. Which
medication will the nurse anticipate administering to reduce
the client’s fever?
o Ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil)
o Ketorolac (Toradol)
o Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
o Celecoxib (Celebrex)
22.The client with osteoarthritis who is taking naproxen
(Flanax), a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID),
calls the clinic and reports having black, tarry stools. Which
action should the clinic nurse take?
o Ask if the client is taking any type of iron
preparation.
o Tell the client to not take any more of the Flanax.
o Instruct the client to bring a stool specimen to the
clinic.
o Explain that this is a side effect of the medication.
23.The client with a brain tumor is complaining of headache
that is a “5” on a scale of 1–10. The client’s Medication
Administration Record (MAR) has acetaminophen (Tylenol)
2 po PRN pain, hydrocodone (Vicodin) 2 po PRN pain,
morphine 4 mg IVP PRN pain, and lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg
IVP PRN. Which medication should the nurse prepare to
administer?
o Tylenol 2 tablets
o Vicodin 2 tablets
o Morphine 4 mg IVP
o Ativan 1 mg IV
24.The child with an acute asthma attack is prescribed a 7-
day course of the systemic corticosteroid prednisolone. The
mother asks the nurse, “Doesn’t this medication cause
serious side effects?” Which statement is the nurse’s best
response?
o “Yes, this medication does have serious side effects,
but your child needs the medication.”
o “The doctor would not have ordered a medication
that has serious side effects.”
o “A short-term course of steroids will not cause
serious side effects.”
o “There may be serious side effects if your child takes
the medication for a long time.”
25.The female client with osteoarthritis tells the clinic nurse
that she started taking the herb ginkgo. Which action should
the nurse take?
o Determine what medications the client is currently
taking
o Praise the client because this herb helps decrease
inflammation.
o Notify the health-care provider that the client is
taking ginkgo.
o Examine why the client thought she needed to take
herbs.
26.The client with osteoarthritis asks the nurse, “I saw on
the television that a medication called Celebrex was good
for osteoarthritis. What do you think about it?” Which
statement is the nurse’s best response?
o “This medication is very good at reducing the pain
and stiffness of osteoarthritis.”
o “This medication does not have the gastrointestinal
side effects of other NSAIDs.”
o “There are some concerns about that medication.
You should talk to your doctor.”
o “You should be cautious about information that you
see on the television.”
27.The client with osteoarthritis of the hands is prescribed
capsaicin (Capsin) cream, a nonopioid topical analgesic.
Which intervention should the nurse discuss with the client
concerning this medication?
o Wash the hands immediately after applying the
cream.
o Remove cream immediately if burning of the skin
occurs
o Apply a heating pad to the affected area after
applying the cream.
o Do not remove the cream for at least 30 minutes
after application
28.The client has been applying a topical hydrocortisone
cream to dry rough skin for more than 2 years. Which data
should the nurse assess for in the client?
 o Check for signs or symptoms of adrenal insufficiency.
o Assess for a buffalo hump and a moon face.
o Assess for thin, fragile skin in the area near the dry,
rough skin.
o Monitor the client’s serum blood glucose level
29. At 0900 the charge nurse observes the primary nurse
crushing an enteric-coated aspirin in the medication room.
Which action should the charge nurse implement?
o Take no action because this is an acceptable
standard of practice
o Correct the primary nurse’s behavior in the
medication room.
o Explain that enteric-coated medication should not
be crushed.
o Complete an adverse occurrence report on the
primary nurse
30.The client diagnosed with Addison’s disease is being
discharged. Which statement indicates the client needs
more discharge teaching?Immersive Reader
o . “I will be sure to keep my dose of steroid constant
and not vary.”
o “I may have to take two forms of steroids to remain
healthy.”
o “I will get weak and dizzy if I don’t take my
medication.”
o “I need to notify any new HCP of the medications I
take.”
The nurse informs a client receiving antibiotic therapy
that the drug being administered is the one more
efficacious for the client's infection. When the client asks
what this means, the nurse explains:
o It will have the desired response against the infection
o it is less toxic than other antibiotics
o It has fewer side effects than most other drugs.
o It is more potent that your other medication.
Some medications are in the form of a powdered drug
compressed into a small, hard disk. these medications can
sometimes be broken on a scored line; others are enteric-
coated. this type of drug preparation is a:
o lozenge
o capsule
o tablet
o pill
o o "Do you exercise regularly?"
Which process of drug therapy is the major responsibility
of the nurse?
o Administration
o Transcription
o Dispensing
o Prescription
What should the nurse do when a client has an allergy or
contraindication to a drug that a physician has
prescribed?
o Administer half of the dose now and the other half in
1 hour
o Hold the medication and contact the physician
o Give the medication and monitor closely for side
effects
o Contact the pharmacist and ask for advice
When is the best time to provide education to a client
about a new drug?
o When discharge plans are written
o When the first dose is administered
o Every time a medication is given
o When the health care provider is present
Which form of medication preparation is most likely to be
administered through parenteral route?
o Vials
o Capsule
o Suspension
o Tablet
The nurse is preparing to administer a drug to a pregnant
client. The nurse notes that the drug belongs to pregnancy
category A. Which action by the nurse is correct?
o Administer the drug to the client
o Clarify the order to the physician
o Withhold the medication and contact the physician
o Check fetal heart beat before administering the drug
The administration of a medication just under the skin is
called:
o intravenous
o subcutaneous
o intradermal
o intramuscular
What is the route of this medication?
o Enteral
o Inhalation
o Oral
o Parenteral
When completing a medication history, what should the
nurse ask the client?
o "Do you get up during the night to use the
bathroom."
o "Has your appetite changed lately?"
o "Are you allergic to anything?"
Which factor is most important for the nurse to assess
when evaluating the effectiveness of a client's drug
therapy?
o the client verbalizes compliance with the drug
o cost of the medication
 o evidence of therapeutic benefit
o the client verbalizes satisfaction with the drug
What is the main goal in pharmacology?
o Produce drugs with no adverse effects and no
interactions
o Create drugs that only work for one disease
o Obtain the maximum benefit with the minimum harm
to the client
o Achieve affordability of all drugs
What does the Controlled Substance Act do?
o Provide treatment and rehabilitation for drug users
o Prevent drug abuse and dependency
o categorize controlled substances
o identify drugs that can be sold only by prescription
What should the nurse ask the client to ensure the client is
receiving the right medication?
o Room number
o Name and date of birth
o Medical record number
o Social security number
Before administering a drug that can increase the urine
output to a client, what should the nurse assess?
o Blood sugar
o Oxygen saturation
o Blood pressure
o Heart rate
The name given to a drug by the drug manufacturer is
referred to as its:
o official name
o chemical name
o brand name
o generic name
The nurse is administering an antibiotic to her pediatric
patient. She checks the patient’s armband and verifies the
correct medication by checking the physician’s order,
medication kardex, and vial. Which "rights" of drug
administration is performed by the nurse? Select all that
apply.
o right dose
o right time
o right route
o right patient
o right drug
The nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a
patient through an oral route. Which assessment should
the nurse perform prior to the administration of the
medication?
o The client's ability to swallow
o The client's blood pressure
o The client's knowledge on the medication
o The side effects and adverse reactions
The nurse reviews a new drug prescribed to the client and
notes the the drug belongs to schedule II of controlled
substances. Which statement correctly describes the drug?
o The drug should not be given to the client
o The drug has a potential for abuse
o The drug has no potential for abuse
o The drug can be given anytime
What is the science that deals with the preparation, uses,
and effects of drugs?
o Pharmacodynamics
o Pharmacotherapeutics
o Pharmacology
o Pharmacokinetics
What is the primary reason for evaluating the
effectiveness of a drug after administration?
o It is required by law after administering high-risk
drugs.
o It confirms if the drug is achieving its intended
action.
o It is an optional step of the nursing process.
o It provides reassurance to the client.
A nurse is to give a client a medication for pain. The order
is for morphine 40 mg. The PDR states the normal dose is
10 mg. The nurse should:
o Administer the ordered amount
o administer the normal dose
o ask the head nurse if its safe to give the ordered
amount
o contact the physician concerning the written order
What is the generic name of this medication?
- … Telmisartan
Which route would subject the drug to undergo liver
metabolism before being distributed throughout the body?
o Intramuscular
o Oral
o Intravenous
o Inhalation
A sweetened and aromatic solutions of alcohol used as a
vehicle for medicinal agents is a (n):
o syrup
o elixir
o extract
o spirit