MATERNAL LEC QUIZZES

Quiz 1 – ANAPHY REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

Puberty - is the stage of life at which secondary sex changes begin.
The beginning of breast development is referred to as – Thelarche
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) are secreted by the
Anterior Pituitary gland
Fourchette - is the site of episiotomy
Clitoris - is the center of sexual arrousal among woman
According to Tanner scae tool, Stage 4 occurs between ages 13 and 14, hair assumes the
normal appearance of an adult but is not so thick
and does no appear to the inner aspect of the upper thigh
Ampulla - is the site of fertilization
Fundus - is measured to determine the amount of uterine growth.
Isthmus - is the site of incision in ceasarean section delivery
Hermaphrodite/Hermaprodite - refers to infant with male and female sex organ
Luteinizing Hormone/ LH - is the hormone the causes the ovary to release grow,
mature and release egg from during ovulation.
Cross-dressing is an example of – Gender expression
Attraction to both sex (bisexual) is an example of – sexual orientation

TRUE OR FALSE
T - A major part of nursing care is to empower patients to feel control over their
bodies_____.
F - An intact hymen is a sign of virginity
F - The ovaries are attached to the fallopian tubes via ligaments
F - The first phase of the menstrual cycle is referred to as the secretory phase_____.
T - The copy of genetic materials is transferred by the parent's gametes to a third
one_____.
T - If the ovaries are removed before puberty or become nonfunctional it will prevent
maturation and maintenance of secondary sex characteristics _____.
F - After pregnany the uterus returns to its non pregnant state.
Quiz 2 – MENSTRUATION AND CONCEPTION
Out of the following, which hormone is not produced by the placenta? - Follicle-
stimulating hormone
The moment a woman first feels movement of the baby is referred to as – quickening
Presumptive signs - or subjective symptoms are experienced by the woman but
cannot be documented.
A woman in her first pregnancy is called a – Primigravida
A commonly used blood test to determine pregnancy is used to detect the presence of -
human chorionic gonadotropin / HCG
Fertilization usually occurs in the – Fallopian tube (or ampulla)
As a fetus grows, body organ systems develop from specific tissue layers called – Germ
layers
The substance lung surfactant is formed and excreted by the alveolar cells of the lungs
at about the 24th week of pregnancy.
Phase in a menstrual cycle where endometrium becomes thicker and takes the
appearance of rich, spongy velvet – Secretory Phase
In the union of sperm and ovum how many hours is the total critical time span during
fertilization? – 72 hours
The layer of the chorionic villi that produce HCG and Human Placental Lactogen –
Syncytiotrophoblast
Implantation takes place after fertilization approximately - 8 to 10 days

TRUE OR FALSE
T - Implantation of the blastocyte occurs approximately 8 to 10 days after fertilization.
T - Human chorionic gonadotropin is a placental hormone used to determine pregnancy
via either blood serum or urinalysis.
T - During the first 4 days, the stem cells are so undifferentiated that they have the
potential to become any cell.
T - The circulatory system is one of the first systems to become functional in
intrauterine life.
T - The length of a pregnancy is commonly measured from the first day of the last
menstrual period.
T - Pregnancy and puberty bring about more psychological changes than any other life
event for women.
T - A first void of the morning is the best time to perform a urine pregnancy test.
T - When establishing goals and outcomes with the patient concerning her pregnancy,
the plans should be individualized and realistic.

Quiz 3
TRUE OR FALSE
T - A first void of the morning is the best time to perform a urine pregnancy test
T - Rupture of bag of water is contraindicated to sexual intercourse during pregnancy.
F - Anorexia nervosa is an uncontrollable urge to overeat followed by induced vomiting
or purging.
T - A woman can continue working as long as the job does not involve standing and
sitting for long periods of time ,lifting heavy objects Excessive physical and emotional
strain exposure to toxic substances.
T - Coitus and orgasm does not causes rupture of membrane
F - Lack of intake of vitamin C may develop a megaloblastic anemia in mothers.
F - Protein is essential for growth and mineralization of the fetal skeleton without taking
any away from the maternal bones or teeth.
F - An orgasm might initiate preterm labor.
T - There is no travel restrictions for pregnant women
F - There is a strong correlation between poor oral care and preterm birth.
T - The circulatory system is one of the first systems to become functional in
intrauterine life.
T - Linoleic Acid is essential fatty acids necessary for new cell growth.
T - hen establishing goals and outcomes with the patient concerning her pregnancy, the
plans should be individualized and realistic.

Smoking - decreases the blood flow to placenta

Tetanus Immunization during pregnancy prevents – Tetanus neonatorum
A commonly used blood test to determine pregnancy is used to detect the presence of -
human chorionic gonadotropin/HCG
The best exercise during pregnancy is – walking
During long trips, the woman needs to rest every 2 hours to – improve circulation
A good resting or sleep position is the sim’s position
As a fetus grows, body organ systems develop from specific tissue layers called – Germ
layers
A teratogen is any factor, chemical or physical, that adversely affects the fertilized
ovum, embryo, or fetus.
Gynecoid pelvis - is the most suitable type of pelvis for childbirth.
The first sign of toxemia in pregnancy is – Increase in weight / weight gain
The client in her 28 weeks pregnancy pay a visit to the health center for her prenatal
check up. The frequency of her visit is every – four weeks

Quiz 4
T - To rise from the floor, roll over to the side first and then push up to avoid strain on
abdominal muscles.
F - Labor normally begins between 39 and 42 weeks of gestation.
T - The cephalic presentation occurs 96% of the time.
F - Always rise from the floor swiftly to prevent orthostatic hypotension.
T - The Dick-Read method is based on the premise that fear leads to tension, which can
lead to pain.
T - Tailor sitting is one method that is effective in preparing the perineal muscles for
delivery.
F - Dilatation refers to the widening of the vagina to permit passage of the fetus.
T - Molding is the overlapping of the skull bones along the suture lines, which facilitates
passage through the pelvis.
T - One technique to encourage relaxation in the Lamaze method is effleurage.
F - Unassisted birthing is a new, safe alternative to hospital birthing.
T - Pelvic rocking can help relieve a backache during pregnancy.
T - Labor contractions begin at a “pacemaker” point in the uterine myometrium.
True labor contractions starts in the back and sweeps forward accross the abdomen.
Preliminary sign of labor where woman may experience shortness of breath, increased
frequency in urination sciatic pain lightening (pain across her buttocks radiating
down her leg.
The relationship of the presenting part of the fetus to the level of the ischial spine is
referred to as station
Effleurage - gentle circular massage over abdominal to relieve pain
Jogging - can cause pelvic pain from relaxed symphysis pubis later in pregnancy.
Leboyer Method - birthing room is darkened so there is no sudden contrast in light, it
is kept pleasantly warm, not chilled.
The Bradley and Lamaze method of childbirth both encourage the use of a(n) coach
during labor
The Lamaze method of childbirth encourages the use of controlled breathing to reduce
pain during labor.
Engagement - refers to the settling of the presenting part of the fetus far enough into
the pelvis; it rests at the ischial spines.
Increase in energy 2 weeks before labor is due to boost in – adrenaline
After rupture of the membranes, there is a danger of – cord proplapse (and uterine
infection)
Uterine contraction is said to strong when the abdomen is boardlike
Kegel exercises - are an effective method for strengthening the pelvic floor.

Quiz 5 – COMPONENTS OF LABOR

Which of the following fetal positions is most favorable for birth? – Vertex
Presentation
A primigravida patient is admitted to the labor delivery area. Assessment reveals that
she is in the early part of the first stage of labor. Her pain is likely to be most intense: -
Around the pelvic girdle
Which of the following observations indicates fetal distress? - Fetal scapl pH of 7.14
A nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is
positive. The physician has documented the presence of a Goodell’s sign. The nurse
determines this sign indicates: - A softening of the cervix
At a prenatal visit at 36 weeks’ gestation, a client complains of discomfort with
irregularly occurring contractions. The nurse instructs the client to: - walk aoround
until they subside
A nurse in a labor room is assisting with the vaginal delivery of a newborn infant. The
nurse would monitor the client closely for the risk of uterine rupture if which of the
following occurred? - hypertonic uterine contractions
Labor is a series of events affected by the coordination of the five essential factors. One
of these is the passenger (fetus). Which are the other four factors? - Contractions,
passageway, placental position and function, psychological response
A pregnant woman at 32 weeks’ gestation complains of feeling dizzy and lightheaded
while her fundal height is being measured. Her skin is pale and moist. The nurse’s initial
response would be to: - Turn the woman on her left side.
A nurse-midwife is performing an assessment of a pregnant client and is assessing the
client for the presence of ballottement. Which of the following would the nurse
implement to test for the presence of ballottement? - Initiating a gentle upward tap
on the cervix
A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension probably exhibits which of the following
symptoms? - Proteinuria, headaches, double vision
A postpartum patient was in labor for 30 hours and had ruptured membranes for 24
hours. For which of the following would the nurse be alert? – Endometritis
A laboring client complains of low back pain. The nurse replies that this pain occurs
most when the position of the fetus is: - Occiput posterior
A client who is gravida 2, para 1 is admitted in labor. Her cervix is 100% effaced, and she
is dilated to 7 cm. Her fetus is at +4 station. The nurse is aware that the fetus’ head is: -
Visible at the vaginal opening
After completing a second vaginal examination of a client in labor, the nurse-midwife
determines that the fetus is in the right occiput anterior position and at (–1) station.
Based on these findings, the nurse-midwife knows that the fetal presenting part is: - 1
cm above the ischial spines
Which of the following is the most common kind of placental adherence seen in
pregnant women? – Accreta
A nurse is performing an assessment of a primipara who is being evaluated in a clinic
during her second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following indicates an abnormal
physical finding necessitating further testing? - Fetal heart rate of 180BPM
The physician asks the nurse the frequency of a laboring client’s contractions. The nurse
assesses the client’s contractions by timing from the beginning of one contraction: - to
the beginning of the next contraction
The nurse observes the client’s amniotic fluid and decides that it appears normal,
because it is: - Clear, almost colorless, and containing little whilte specks
Five hours after birth, a neonate is transferred to the nursery, where the nurse
intervenes to prevent hypothermia. What is a common source of radiant heat loss? -
Cool nursery walls
After doing Leopold’s maneuvers, the nurse determines that the fetus is in the ROP
position. To best auscultate the fetal heart tones, the Doppler is placed: - Below the
umbilicus at the right side