bộ đề thi thử môn anh 2017

SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO NAM ĐỊNH ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔNTIẾNG ANH
TRƯỜNG THPT A HẢI HẬU NĂM HỌC: 2016 – 2017

Thờigian: 60 phút (khôngkểthờigiangiaođề)
Sốcâuhỏi: 50 câu
PART A: PHONETICS
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation of
the underlined words in each of the following questions.
1. A. volunteer B. position C. community D. introduce
2. A. domestic B. eliminate C. encourage D. equality
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the
main stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. aware B. address C. access D. affect
4. A. documentary B. politician C. popularity D. laboratory
PART B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions.
5.I think that up to now there has not been a real ________ between men and women.
A. equal B. equally C. equality D. equalize
6. Of the two new secretaries, one is competent and ____ is not.
A. another B. other C. the other D. the second
7. Air pollution, the greenhouse effect and global warming ___________ a negative impact on the environment.
A. have B. make C. do D. take
8. _________, he remained optimistic.
A. As he was badly wounded B. Badly wounded as he was
C. Though badly wounded he was D. As badly wounded he was
9. There ______________ a child and three women in the car when the bomb ____________ off.
A. were / went B. was / went C. was / was going D. had been / went
10. The police _______ a good deal of criticism over their handling of the demonstration.
A. came in for B. got through to C. came down with D. went in for
11. When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty ______ paintings were destroyed, including two by Picasso.
A. worthless B. priceless C. valueless D. useless
12. Has he made ______ her after their quarrel yet?
A. up for B. up with C. off with D. up of
13. The thieves ___________ in because the front door was open so they just walked in.
A. can’t have broken B. needn’t have broken C. didn’t need to break D. shouldn’t have broken
14. ___________ you to be offered that job, you would have to move to another city.
A. Provided that B. Should C. Were D. Had
15. My new glasses cost me _______ the pair I bought last month.
A. more than three times B. three times as much as C. more three times than D. as much three times as
16. “Why are you in such a hurry?” “The librarian said it was important that I ______ this book immediately.”
A. returned B. was returning C. had returned D. return
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicatethe most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges
17. John and Tony are on the way home. John is inviting Tony to have lunch at his house this Saturday. Select the most
suitable response to fill in the blank:
John: “I'm having some friends over for lunch this Saturday. Would you like to join us?” - Tony: “_______”
A. Can I take a rain check? B. Come on. It's your turn.
C. Thanks, but I mustn't. D. As a matter of fact, I do.
18. Linda attended Michael’s enjoyable birthday party last Sunday and thanked him for it. Select the most suitable response to
fill in the blank:
Linda: “It was very kind of you to invite us to your party.” - Michael: “__________.”
A. It’s my pleasure B. No, thanks C. Ok, that’s’ great D. Good idea, thanks
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
19. The researcher mixed the (A) two ingredients, poured the (B) mixture into a petri dish, (C) draw out a measured amount,
and carefully applied it (D) to another dish.
20.Hawaii has (A) such many amazing (B) beaches that everyone (C) wants to live (D) there.
21. She is one of five women (A) to win the award (B) for devoting her whole life (C) for (D) looking after the poor.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
22. It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger one.
A. urgent B. unavoidable C. unnecessary D. vital
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23. Their migration may be halted if fog, clouds, or rain hides the stars.
A. postponed B. spoiled C. stopped D. endangered
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
24. The club meet on the last Thursday of every month in a dilapidated palace.
A. neglected B. regenerated C. furnished D. renovated
25. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. virtually D. comparatively
PART C: READING
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 41 to 50.
Few people now question for the reality if global warming and its effects on the world’s climate. Many scientists
(26)________ the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in the world’s temperatures and are convinced that ,
more than ever before, the Earth is at (27) ______ from the force of the wind, rain and sun. According to them, global
warming is making extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more (28)_ and causing sea levels all
around the world to (29)_____ . Environmental groups are putting pressure on governments to take action to reduce the
amount of carbon dioxide which is given off by factories and power plants, thus attacking the problem at its source. They are
in favour of more money being spent on research into solar, wind and wave energy devices, which could then replace
existing power stations. Some scientists, (50)__, believe that even if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and other gases
into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to wait several hundred years to notice the results. Global warming , it seems,
is to stay.
26. A. give B. put C. take D. have
27. A. threat B. danger C. risk D. harm
28. A. strike B. strong C. severe D. heavy
29. A. raise B. arise C. lift D. rise
30. A. because B. however C. despite D. although
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for
each of the blanks from 51 to 60.
For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to
relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks
also provide considerable environmental benefits.
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to
breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in
11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect:
building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more
quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials,
cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island
Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings,
roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the
positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people
would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of
years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container
gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up
the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They
also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent
buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in
the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and
herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop
gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment.
31: Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigatebelongs to which of the following word groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
32: Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that _______.
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
33: Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and
rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.

D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
34: The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except _______.
A. increased space for private relaxation B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers D. improved air quality
35: According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they _______.
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
36: The author’s tone in the passage is best described as _______
A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative
37: It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that _______.
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer
38. According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that ________________
A. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas
B. building materials absorb more of the sun’s heat than organic surfaces
C. building materials release the sun’s heat more quickly than organic surfaces
A. B and C B. A and B C.A D. A, B, and C
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 61 to 70.
The White House, the official home of the United States president, was not built in time for George Washington to live
in it. It was begun in 1792 and was ready for its first inhabitants. President and Mrs. John Adams, who moved in on November
1, 1800. When the Adams’s moved in, the White House was not yet complete, and the Adams’s suffered many inconveniences;
for example, the main staircase was incomplete, which hindered movement from floor to floor, and the future laundry yard was
merely a pool of mud, so wet laundry was hung in the unfinished East Room to dry. Thomas Jefferson, the third president,
improved the comfort of the White House in many respects and added new architectural features such as the terraces on the
east and west ends.
When the British forces burned the White House on August 24, 1814, President Madison was forced to leave. All the
remained after the fire was the exterior walls, the interior was completely destroyed. It was not until December of 1817 that the
following president, James Monroe, was able to move into a rebuilt residence. Since then, the White House has continued to
be modified but has been continuously occupied by each succeeding U.S president.
39 : Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this text?
A. George Washington’s life in the White House. B. The Early History of the White House.
C. The burning of the White House. D. Presidential Policies of Early U.S. Presidents.
40: The word “ inhabitants” in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to_____________
A. modifications B. moves C. celebrations D. residents
41: It can be inferred from the passage that John Adams was_____________
A. the first president of the United States. B. the second president of the United States.
C. the third president of the United States. D. the fourth president of the United States.
42: What of the White House was not yet complete when the Adams’s moved in?
A. main staircase B. laundry yard C. pool D. A and B
43: The author most likely discusses the “ staircase” in paragraph 1 in order to _______________
A. show the elegance of the new White House
B. explain the architectural features added by Jefferson.
C. provide an example of an inconvenience in the White House.
D. demonstrate what had to be rebuilt after the fire.
44: According to the passage, when James Monroe came to the White House, it had been_____________
A. repressed B. reconstructed C. relocated D. reserved
45: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses:
A. the details of the destruction of the White House by the British.
B. James Monroe’s policies as presidents.
C. modifications by presidents who followed.
D. other presidents who were unable to occupy the White House.
PART D: WRITING
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
46. She said, “John, I’ll show you round my city when you’re here.”
A. She made a trip round her city with John. B. She promised to show John round her city.
C. She planned to show John round her city. D. She organized a trip round her city for John.
47. It was a mistake for her to marry Peter.

A. She and Peter weren’t married in the right way.
B. She shouldn’t have married Peter.
C. Peter didn’t want to get married, so it was his mistake.
D. She ought to think again before she marries Peter.
48. People say that he did it for his own sake.
A. He is said to do it for his own sake. B. He is said that he did it for his own sake.
C. He is said to have done it for his own sake. D. It is said to do it for his own sake.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
49. The man is my father. I respect his opinions most.
A. The man whose opinions I respect most is my father.
B. The man is my father the opinions of whom I respect most.
C. The man I respect whose opinions most is my father.
D. The man, whose opinions I respect most, is my father.
50. Harry broke his leg. He also injured his shoulder.
A. Harry not only broke his leg but he also injured his shoulder.
B. Not only Harry broke his leg but also injured his shoulder.
C. Not only did Harry break his leg but he also injured his shoulder.
D. Harry not only broke his leg but injured his shoulder.
************************************************** The end ***********************************************************
ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 12 (Nămhọc 2016-2017)
Thờigianlàmbài: 60 phút
Which word has the different stress from the rest?
1. A. polite B. walking C. keenness D. signal
2. A. carefully B. physical C. September D. general
3. A. application B. mathematics C. university D. secondary
Which word has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest?
4. A. amazing B. vacancy C. state D. campus
5. A. divide B. primary C. service D. science
Choose the word - A, B, C or D - that best fits each blank in the following passage.
If you want to do your best in an exam, you should be relaxed and so one of the best things to do is
to take regular (6)_____ even if they are only for a few minutes. During revision time, you (7)_____
take some time off to go for a walk or play your favorite sport. It is a mistake to take up all physical
activities. Exercise can help you to relax. You should (8)_____ at least twenty minutes doing something
different every day. Parents don’t like it when their children spend (9)_____ on the phone, but in fact,
chatting to a friend is very good for you but parents think that children are (10) _____ time and money;
but research says talking to friends gives you a chance to relax,and this will make the time you spend
studying more efective.
6. A. trips B. pauses C. holidays D. breaks
7. A. shall B. should C. have D. will
8. A. use B. relax C. spend D. waste
9. A. seconds B. times C. days D. hours
10. A. losing B. spending C. missing D. wasting
Choose the word or phrase - A, B, C or D - that needs correcting for the sentence to be correct
11. He hardly neversaysanything at the local meeting.
A B C D
12. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial cities today.
A B C D
13. The bridge, building just last year, is now in bad condition.
A B C D
Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D)that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
14. 'Sorry madam, looking after the garden is not my duty.'
A. He promised to look after the garden.
B. He apologized for not looking after the garden.
C. He asked me if looking after the garden was his duty.
D. He said that he was not responsible for looking after the garden.
15. It is said that Galileo invented the telescope.
A. Galileo said that the telescope was invented by him
B. The telescope is said to have been invented by Galileo
C. People say that the telescope was invented by Galileo
D. Galileo is said to have invented the telescope
16. The students have to learn many words. They are very difficult
A. The students who are very difficult have to learn many words.
B. The students being very difficult have to learn many words.
C. The students have to learn many words which are very difficult
D. The students whom have to learn many words being very difficult.
Choose the best option to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in
each of the following questions.
17. The research, contrary to common belief, revealed some rather unexpected results.
A. impressive B. surprising C. predictable D. positive
18. The headmaster advised that all the students should attend the class regularly.
A. freely B. unusually C. commonly D. completely
Choose the best option to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in
19. The wonderful diversity of our region’s wildlife is now coming under threat.
A. shortage B. shortcoming C. variety D. advantage
20. Why are you making fun of her? Anyone can make a mistake.
A. laughing at B. fooling C. pulling her leg D. making her funny
Read the passage and choose the best answers.
World Wildlife Fund (WWF) safeguards hundreds of species around the world, but we focus species
attention on our flagship species: giant pandas, tigers, endangered whales and dolphins, rhinos, elephant,
marine turtles and great apes. These species not only need species measures and extra protection in order
to survive, they also serve as “umbrella” species: helping them helps numerous other species that live in
the same habitats.
In addition to our flagship animals, we work to protect numerous species in peril around the world that
live within our priority eco-rigions. Laree predators like snow leopards and grizzly bears, migratory
species like whooping cranes and songbrids, and a host of other species facing threats also benefit from
WWF’ s conservation efforts. Our wildlife trade experts at “traffic” work to ensure that trade wildlife
products, doesn’t harm a species, while also fighting against illegal and unsustainable trade.
WWF is known for acting sound science. Science leads and guides us strategies and approaches, from
the way to restore tigers in viable, breed population to decide which areas need protection the most.
[predator: carnivore]
21.What does WWF stand for?
A. World Wildlife Food. B. World Wildlife Formation.
C. World Wildlife Fund. D. World Website Fund.
22.How many species do we pay much attention to?
A. 5 B. 8 C. 7 D. 9
23.What is the meaning of the world habitats in pharagraph 1?
A. The place where animals or plants are normally found.
B. The place where animals or plants can drink and sleep.
C. The place where animals or plants can eat find their enemy.
D. The place where animals can find and keep their body warm.
24.What can science help us in safeguarding endangered species?
A. Find the way to kill all species easily.
B. Lead and guide strategies and approaches.

C. Discover another habitat of animal.
D. Search for a food source for animals.
25.Which of the following is not stated in the passage?
A. WWF safeguards hundreds of species around the world.
B. WWF is known for acting on sound science.
C. these above species need extra protection so as not to be extinct.
D. All species are so fierce that scientists can’t take care of them.
Choose the best option to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
exchanges.
26. Dave and Judy are talking about Jane’s driving test.
-Dave: "Did Jane pass her driving test?" -Judy: "________"
A. No, she wasn't. B. Not at all. C. I hope not. D. I'm afraid not.
27. Peter is talking to a passer-by.
- Peter: "Excuse me, can you tell me where I can catch a bus to London, please?"
- Passer-by: "____________"
A. Sorry, I'm new here myself. B. Sure, go ahead.
C. OK. Here's your ticket. D. Yes, please.
Choose the best option to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
28. You must read the instructions. You won't know how to use this machine without reading them.
A. You will know how to use this machine unless you read the instructions.
B. Without reading the instructions, the use of this machine won't be known.
C. Unless you read the instructions, you won't know how to use this machine.
D. Reading the instructions, so you will know how to use this machine.
29. My parents are busy at work. However, they try to find time for their children.
A. My parents are so busy at work that they cannot find time for their children.
B. Busy at work as my parents are, they try to find time for their children.
C. My parents are too busy at work to find time for their children.
D. My friends rarely have time for their children because they are busy at work.
Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
30.By the end of this year my father ________ in this company for 12 years.
A. has been working B. will work
C. will have been workingD. will be working
31.The worker was _______ his boss expected, so he was offered a raise.
A. more hard-working B. as hard-working than
C. more hard-working than D. more hard-working as
32. Conservation is the protection of the _________ environment.
A. nature B. natural C. naturally D.naturalize
33. In Britain it is ____________ for children to attend school between the ages of five and sixteen.
A. enforced B. compulsory C. obliged D. made
34. We should take some measures …………….endangered animals.
A. to protect B. to know C. to sell D. to enact
35.John is _______ only child in his family so his parents love him a lot.
A. a B. an C. the D. no article
36. She applied ___________ the new post of training officer.
A. for B. in C. on D. with
37. My form teacher is the person _________ advice I always ask for.
A. who B. whom C. whose D. that
38. 'You got home late last night.' 'The Morgan insisted ________ for dinner.'
A. on our staying B. for us to stay C. that we were staying D. about us staying
39. Students have to pay __________ fees when they attend public schools.
A. teaching B. education C. learning D. tuition
40. They were late for work because their car _____ down.

A. got B. put C. cut D. broke
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 41 to 50
BASKETBALL
1 Although he created the game of basketball at the YMCA in Springfield, Massachusetts, Dr. James A
Naismith was a Canadian. Working as a physical education instructor at the International YMCA, now
Springfield College, Dr. Naismith noticed a lack of interest in exercise among students during the
wintertime. The new England winters were fierce, and the students balked at participating in outdoor
activities. Naismith determined a fast-moving game that could be played indoors would fill a void after
the baseball and football seasons had ended.
2 First, he attempted to adapt outdoor games such as soccer and rugby to indoor play, but he soon
found them unsuitable for confined areas. Finally, he determined that he would have to invent a game.
3 In December of 1891, Dr. Naismith hung two old peach baskets at either end of the gymnasium at
the school, and, using a soccer ball and nine players on each side, organized the first basketball game.
The early rules allowed three points for each basket and made running with the ball violation. Every
time a goal was made, someone had to climb a ladder to retrieve the ball.
4 Nevertheless, the game became popular. In less than a year, basketball was being played in both the
United States and Canada. Five years later, a championship tournament was staged in New York City,
which was won by the Brooklyn Central YMCA.
5 The teams had already been reduced to seven players, and five became standard in 1897 season. When
basketball was introduced as a demonstration sport in the 1904 Olympic Games in St. Luis, it quickly
spread throughout the world. In 1906, a metal hoop was used for the first time to replace the basket, but
the name basketball has remained.
(Source: Barron’s TOEFL PBT &iBT, by Pamela J. Sharpe, Ph.D)
41: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Dr. James Naismith B.The development of basketball
C. The YMCA athletic program D. The Olympic Games in St. Luis in 1904
42: Why did Naismith decide to invent basketball?
A. He was tired of baseball and football
B. He did not like soccer or rugby.
C. He wanted his students to exercise during the winter.
D. He could not convince his students to play indoors
43: The word "fierce" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. long B. boring C. extreme D. dark
44: Soccer and rugby are the example of ________.
A. outdoor games B. old peach baskets C. indoor play D. confined areas
45: The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to
A. seasons B. areas C. indoors D. games
46: The word "staged" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. replaced B. organized C. run D. remained
47: The author mentions all of the following as typical of the early game of
basketball EXCEPT__________.
A. nine players were on a team
B. the ball had to be retrieved from the basket after each score
C. three points were scored for every basket
D. running with the ball was not a foul
48: The word in the LAST paragraph that means "lessened" is _______.
A. became B. remained C. reduced D. introduced
49: In which paragraph does the author discuss the first basketball championship tournament?
A. Paragraph 2 B. Paragraph 3 C. Paragraph 5 D. Paragraph 4
50: Which sentence is TRUE about the basketball game, according to the reading passage?
A. The basketball game became popular before 1891.
B. There were five players on each side in 1897.

C. The name of basketball has been changed since 1906.
D. There were nine players on each side in 1904 season.
SỞ GD-ĐT NAM ĐỊNH ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2017

TRƯỜNG THPT AN PHÚC MÔN TIẾNG ANH
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 1::A. wanted B. stopped C. decided D. hated
Question 2: A. pleasure B. tasting C. sleep D. subject
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. advance B. polo C. crossbar D. goalie
Question 4: A. pollution B. computer C.currency D. Allowance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: A basic knowledge of social studies, such as history and geography, are considereda basic
part of the education of every child.
A. basic B. history C. are D. child
Question 6: Many young people lack skills, good education, and financial to settle in the urban areas
where many jobs are found.
A. lack B. finacial C. urban areas D. are found
Question 7: Our brains are incredibly agile machines, and it’s hard to think of anything they do more
efficient than recognize faces.
A. are B. anything C. efficient D. recognize
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 8:You look angry. He kept you waiting, _______ ?.
A. don’t you B. didn’t you C. doesn’t he D. didn’t he
Question 9: Volunteers spend a lot of time_________the elderly in their neighborhood to settle their
lives.
A. help B. to help C. helping D. on helping
Question 10: The more demanding the job is, ______ I like it.
A. more B. most C.the more D. the most
Question 11: John wanted to know ______ in my family.
A. there were how many people B. how many people were there
C. were there how many people D. how many people there were

Question 12: Neil Armstrong, the first person_________on the moon, reported that the surface was fine
and powdery.
A. set foot B. to set foot C. setting foot D. that set foot
Question 13: Tom is getting ever keener on doing research on ______.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
Question 14:Many plant and animal species are now on the_________ of extinction.
A. danger B. border C. verge D. margin
Question 15:Remember to bring with you your school certificate and letters of________from your
teachers or your previous employers when you come to the interview.
A. assignment B. invitation C. recommendation D. advertisement
Question 16:The government has_______measures to promote the development of the economy.
A. made B. taken C. carried D. Achieved
Question 17: _______, he walked to the station.
A. Despite being tired B. Although to be tired
C. In spite being tired D. Despite tired
Question 18: The government should________ family planning programmes to reduce overpopulation.
A.carry on B. account for C. turn in D. carry out
Question 19: I saw him hiding something in a_________bag.
A. plastic small black B. small plastic black
C. black small plastic D. small black plastic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the italic word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20:Water and fresh air are very necessary for every living thing.
A. essential B. difficult C. expensive D. wasteful
Question 21: Too many people were unemployed, andthe economy got into trouble.
A. out of order B. out of work C. out of question D. out of sight
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the italic word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22:He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D.understanding
Question 23:Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same
region.
A. restrain B. remain unstable C. fluctuate D. stay unchangedMark the
letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about Anne‘s new blouse.
Diana: -That blouse suits you perfectly, Anne. Anne: -______
A.Never mind. B.Don‘t mention it. C. Thank you. D.You‘re welcome.
Question 25: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.
Porter: - Shall I help you with your suitcase? Mary: - ______
A. Not a chance. B.That‘s very kind of you.
C. I can‘t agree more. D. What a pity!
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30
Teaching English as a foreign language can be a great way to travel the world and earn money at
the same time. However, some graduates actually like the idea of (31) _____ a career in teaching
English long-term, and there are numerous courses at various (32) _____ of teaching, from the fast-track
TEFL to a diploma or masters.
To find the right course a good place to start is TEFL.com - a website with lots of relevant
information and helpful advice, including a comprehensive list of institutions in the UK offering TEFL
courses. The site also offers a job search facility to assist qualified students (33) ______ finding work.

When deciding which course to take, the best bet is to look at what your needs are. If you want a
career in teaching English then definitely find one designed for that purpose, like (34)________ MA or
diploma; but if you want to travel around the world, then do a shorter course which will supply you with
teaching skills.
Some countries, like Japan, will employ people without a teaching qualification as (35) _____ as
the teacher is a native speaker of English. However, most countries do now expect a qualification.
(Adapted from “Earn after you learn” by Kate Harvey)
Question 26: A. tracking B. pursuing C. hunting D. chasing
Question 27: A. levels B. categories C. groups D. classes
Question 28: A. to B. for C. at D. in
Question 29: A. a B. an C. the D. no article
Question 30: A. far B. soon C. long D. well

Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication.
Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a
language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for
letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression.
Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally;
spelling, however, cannot.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A
wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while
shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.
Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the
fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn,
and instruct people.
While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express
human thoughts and feelings.
Question 31. The word "these" in paragraph1 refers to ________.
A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute
C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions
Question 32. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _________.
A. there are many forms of communication in existence today
B. verbalization is the most common form of communication
C. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication
D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language
Question 33. How many different forms of communication are mentioned here?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11
Question 34: The word "wink" in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as
A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly
C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side
Question 35. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally
EXCEPT for _________.
A. spelling B. ideas C. whole words D. expressions
Question 36. Who would be MOST likely to use Morse code?
A. A scientist B. An airline pilot C. A spy D. A telegrapher
Question 37. What is the best title for the passage?
A. The Important of Sign Language B. The Many Forms of Communication
C. Ways of Expressing Feelings D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication
Trang 10/5 – Mã đề thi

01
Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world’s universities, came from
very inauspicious and humble beginning.
This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims
landed at Plymouth. Included in the puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period
were more than 100 graduates of England’s prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these
universities graduates in the New Word were determined that their sons would have the same
educational opportunities that they themselves had had, Because of this support in the colony for an
institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college
in October of 1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was
in an area called Newetowne, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the
site of t he present-day university.
When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of
Charlestowne, died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to
the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General
Court named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the
bequest may not have been large, particularly by today’s standard, but it was more than the General
Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the college.
Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that
in addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of four
students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire
teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.
Question 38: The main idea of this passage is that_________.
A.Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities.
B.What is today a great university started out small
C.John Harvard was key to the development of a great university
D.Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts
Question 39: The passage indicates that Harvard is _______________
A. One of the oldest universities in the world B. the oldest university in the world
C. one of the oldest universities in America D. the oldest university in America
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the Massachusetts
colony were__________.
A.Rather well educated B.rather rich
C. rather supportive of the English government D. rather undemocratic
Question 41: The pronoun “they” in the second paragraph refers to_____.
A.Oxford and Cambridge universities B. university graduates
C. sons D.educational opportunities
Question 42: The “ English cousin” in the second paragraph refers to a_______.
A.City B. relative C. person D. court
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard?
A.What he died of B. Where he came from
C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard
Question 44: The word “fledgling” in the third paragraph could be best replaced by which of the
following?
A.Newborn B. flying C. winged D. established
Question 45: The passage implies that_______.
A.Henry Dunster was an ineffective president
B.Someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster
C.Henry Dunster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty
D.The position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early ears

01
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46..Some events were cancelled. Thousands of people attended the festival.
A. No matter how many people attended the festival, some events were cancelled
B. In spite some cancelled events, thousands of people attended the festival.
C. As some events were cancelled, thousands of people attended the festival.
D. Despite the cancellation of some events, thousands of people attended the festival.
Question 47. Anne jogs every morning. It is very good for her health.
A. Anne jogs every morning and is very good for her health.
B. Anne jogs every morning, which is very good for her health.
C. Anne jogs every morning and then it is very good for her health.
D. Anne jogs every morning that it is very good for her health.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 48:The picnic was cancelled because it rained.
A. If it hadn't rained, the picnic wouldn't have been cancelled.
B. If it hadn't rained, the picnic wouldn't be cancelled.
C. If it didn't rain, the picnic wouldn't have been cancelled.
D.If it didn't rain, the picnic wouldn't be cancelled.
Question 49: I‘m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B.Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
Question 50:“If I were you, I wouldn’t read the job advertisement and position description carelessly.”
Helen said.
A. Helen recommended that I take no notice of the job advertisement and position description.
B. Helen advised me on reading the job advertisement and position description carelessly.
C. Helen advised me against reading the job advertisement and position description carelessly.
D. I was blamed for not reading the job advertisement and position description carefully by Helen.
Keys
1. B 11.D 21.B 31.D 41.B
2. A 12.B 22.C 32.C 42.A
3. A 13.A 23.D 33.C 43.C
4. C 14.C 24.C 34.A 44.A
5.C 15.C 25.B 35.A 45.D
6.B 16.B 26.B 36.D 46.D
7.C 17.A 27.A 37.B 47.B
8.D 18.A 28.D 38.D 48.D
9.C 19.D 29.B 39.D 49.B
10.C 20.A 30.C 40.A 50.C

SỞ GD&ĐT NAM ĐINH ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

TRƯỜNG THPT B HẢI HẬU Năm học 2016 – 2017
(Đề gồm 06 trang) MÔN TIẾNG ANH 12

01
(Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút không kể thời gian phát đề)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words whose pronunciation is
different from the others in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. walked B. helped C. missed D. arrived
Question 2: A. population B. nation C. question D. station
Question 3: A. reduction B. popular C. agreement D. romantic
Question 4: A. previously B. developing C. behavior D. believable
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5. United States is aimed at develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for
A B
the principle of
C
equal rights and self-determination of peoples.
D
Question 6. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial
cities today.
A B C D
Question 7. Metals can be beaten into thin sheets, melted and poured into molds, or drawing into fine
wire.
A B C
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 8. By this time next summer, you _____ your study.
A. complete B. will complete C. are completing D. will have completed
Question 9. Jack asked Jil ______ interested in any kinds of sports.
A. if she were B. if were she C. if was she D. if she was
Question 10. : _______, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Difficult as the homework was B. Thanks to the difficult homework
C. As though the homework was difficult D. Despite the homework was difficult
Question 11.We live in a large house in ______ middle of the village.
A. a B. an C. the D. No article
Question 12. I couldn't believe that they were brothers. They were as different as_______.
A. Mars from Jupiter B. chalk and cheese C. salt and sugar D. milk from honey
Question 13. My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that ______it is at night, _____ he plays his
music!
A. the less / the more loud B. the less / less
C. the more late / the more loudlier D. the later / the louder
Question 14. I would be very rich now ________ working long ago.
A. if I gave up B. if I wouldn’t give up C. were I to give up D. had I not given up
Question 15. Boys! Put your toys ______. It is time to go to bed. Don't stay _____ late.
A. off / on B. away / up C. down / off D. around/ for
Question 16. I'm sorry! I didn't break that vase on______
A. time B. purpose C. intention D. my mind
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Question 17. Parts of the country are suffering water _______ after the unusually dry summer.
A. shortage B. supply C. thirst D. hunger
Question 18. You should study hard to _____ your classmates.
A. catch sight of B. feel like C. get in touch with D. keep pace with
Question 19. Jane really loves the ______ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. nice brown wooden B. nice wooden brown C. wooden brown nice D. brown wooden nice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Tom is talking to his new friend, Laura, after her performance.
- Tom: “ You are a great dancer. I wish I could do half as well as you.
- Laura: “ _______. I’m an awful dancer”.
A. You’re too kind B. That’s a nice compliment
C. You’ve got to be kidding D. Oh, thank you very much
Question 21. - Mubarak: ''Did you enjoy the movie yesterday?"
- Mark: "_______________ "
A. Certainly, I'd be glad to. B. Yes, it is warmer than today.
C. Not really. I couldn't follow the story. D. No, I dislike moving.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is closet in meaning
Question 22. Scarcely had she arrived home when the quake happened.
A. As soon as the quake took place, she arrived home.
B. The quake took place before she arrived home.
C. Hardly the quake happened when she arrived home.
D. No sooner had she arrived home than the quake happened.
Question 23. People say that he did it for his own sake.
A. He is said to do it for his own sake.
B. He is said that he did it for his own sake.
C. He is said to have done it for his own sake.
D. It is said to do it for his own sake.
Question 24. “I have found a new flat,” said Ann.
A. Ann told that she had found a new flat.
B. Ann said to me that she had found a new flat.
C. Ann said that she has found a new flat.
D. Ann said me that she had found a new flat
Question 25: She heard the news about her friend’s death. She broke down
A. She broke down while she was hearing the news about her friend’s death.
B. Having broke down, She heard the news about her friend’s death.
C. She broke down the moment she heard the news about her friend’s death.
D. She broke down the moment when she heard the news about her friend’s death.
Question 26: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
B. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 27. What may happen if John does not arrive in time?

01
A. turn up B. count on C. keep away D. go along
Question 28. Thanks to better health care, there are more and more centenarians nowadays.
A. children who die at birth
B. children whose parents can't afford their schooling
C. people who live 100 years or more
D. people who suffer from fatal diseases
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive B.complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate
Question 30. It's discourteous to ask Americans questions about their age, marriage or income.
A. impolite B. polite C. unacceptable D. rude
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Tim Samaras is a storm chaser. His job is to find tornadoes and follow them. When he gets close
to a tornado, he puts a special tool (31) ______ a turtle probe on the ground. This tool measures things
like a twister’s temperature. Humidity, and wind speed. With this information, Samaras can learn what
causes tornadoes to develop. If meteorilogists understand this, they can warn people (32) _____ twisters
sooner and save lives.
How does Samaras hunt tornadoes? It’s not easy. First, he has to find one. Tornadoes are too small to
see using weather satellites. So Samaras can’t rely on these tools to find a twister. (33) ______, he waits
for tornadoes to develop.
Once Samaras sees a tornado, the chase begins. But a tornado is hard to follow. Some tornadoes change
(34) _____ several times – for example, moving east and then west and then east again. When Samaras
finally gets near a tornado, her puts the turtle probe on the ground. Being this close to a twister is (35)
______. He must get away quickly.
(Source: Reading Explorer)
Question 31. A. called B. known C. made D. meant
Question 32. A. with B. about C. at D. for
Question 33. A. Rather B. Still C. Instead D. Yet
Question 34. A. progression B. movement C. dimension D. direction
Question 35. A. terrify B. terrifying C. terrified D. terrifies
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices.
For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports,
the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines,
when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their
employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million
telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as
significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a
few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of
many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force
scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet
developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept
the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are
concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in

01
the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area,
they never really get away from the office.
Question 36: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. The advantages of telecommuting. B. A definition of telecommuting.
C. An overview of telecommuting D. The failure of telecommuting.
Question 37: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week. B. More than 8 million
C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today. D. Fewer than last year.
Question 38: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT____.
A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision
C. the lack of interaction with a group. D. The work place is in the home.
Question 39: The word “them” in line 11 refers to____.
A. systems B. telecommuters C. executives D. responsibilities
Question 40: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees____.
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
Question 41: The word “reluctant” in line 13 can best be replaced by ____.
A. opposite B. willing C. hesitate D. typical
Question 42: When Business Week published “The Portable Executive”, it implied that….
A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.
B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting.
C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic.
D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work.
correct answer to each of the following questions from 43 to 50
The White House, the official home of the United States president, was not built in time for
George Washington to live in it. It was begun in 1792 and was ready for its first inhabitants. President
and Mrs.John Adams, who moved in on November 1, 1800. When the Adamses moved in, the White
House was not yet complete, and the Adamses suffered many inconveniences; for example, the
main staircase was incomplete, which hindered movement from floor to floor, and the future laundry
yard was merely a pool of mud, so wet laundry was hung in the unfinished East Room to dry. Thomas
Jefferson, the third president, improved the comfort of the White House in many respects and added new
architectural features such as the terraces on the east and west ends.
When the British forces burned the White House on August 24, 1814, President Madison was forced to
leave.All the remained after the fire was the exterior walls, the interior was completely destroyed.It was
not until December of 1817 that the following president, James Monroe, was able to move into a rebuilt
residence. Since then, the White House has continued to be modified but has been continuously
occupied by each succeeding U.S president.
Question 43. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this text?
A. George Washington’s life in the White House.
B. The Early History of the White House.
C. The burning of the White House.
D. Presidential Policies of Early U.S.Presidents.
Question 44. Why did George Washington not live in the White House?
A. It had been burned by the British.
B. He did not like the architectural features.
C. He did not want to suffer the inconveniences that the Adamses had suffered.
D. Construction had not yet been completed.
Question 45. The word “inhabitants” in line 2 is closest meaning to:

01
Question 46. It can be inferred from the passage that John Adams was:
A. the first president of the United States.
B. the second president of the United States.
C. the third president of the United States.
D. the fourth president of the United States.
Question 47. What of the White House was not yet complete when the Adamses moved in?
Question 48. The word “ forces” in line 9 could best be replaced by:
A. military B.effort C. power D. energy
Question 49. According to the passage, when James Monroe came to the White House, it had been:
Question 50. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses:
---------- THE END----------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words whose pronunciation is
different from the others in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. walked B. helped C. missed D. arrived
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra ngữ âm (phụ âm cuối)
- Cấp độ: Nhận biết
Question 2: A. population B. nation C. question D. station
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra ngữ âm (phụ âm t)
Question 3: A. reduction B. popular C. agreement D. romantic
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra nhấn âm (từ ba âm tiết)
Question 4: A. previously B. developing C. behavior D. believable
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra nhấn âm (từ bốn âm tiết)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs

01
Question 5. United States is aimed at develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for
A B
the principle of
C
- Nội dung: dạng của động từ
- Cấp độ: Thông hiểu
Question 6. Question 11: Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large,
industrial cities today. A B C D
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra sự hòa hợp giữa chủ ngữ và động từ
Question 7. Metals can be beaten into thin sheets, melted and poured into molds, or drawing into fine
wire.
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra cấu trúc song song

Question 8. By this time next summer, you _____ your study.
A. complete B. will complete C. are completing D. will have completed
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra thì
Question 9. Jack asked Jil ______ interested in any kinds of sports.
A. if she were B. if were she C. if was she D. if she was
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra dạng trực tiếp gián tiếp
- Cấp độ: thông hiểu
Question 10. _______, we tried our best to complete it.

A. Difficult as the homework was B. Thanks to the difficult homework
C. As though the homework was difficult D. Despite the homework was difficult
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra liên từ
Question 11.We live in a large house in ______ middle of the village.
A. a B. An C. The D. No article
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra mạo từ
Question 12. I couldn't believe that they were brothers. They were as different as_______.
A. Mars from Jupiter B. chalk and cheese C. salt and sugar D. milk from honey
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra proverb
- Cấp độ: nhận biết
Question 13. My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that ______it is at night, _____ he plays his
music!
A. the less / the more loud C. the less / less
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra cấu trúc so sánh kép
Question 14. I would be very rich now ________ working long ago.
A. if I gave up B. if I wouldn’t give up C. were I to give up D. had I not given up
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra cấu trúc câu điều kiện
Question 15. Boys! Put your toys ______. It is time to go to bed. Don't stay _____ late.
A. off / on B. away / up C. down / off D. around/ for
01
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra cụm từ cố định
Question 16. I'm sorry! I didn't break that vase on______
A. time B. purpose C. intention D. my mind
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra từ vựng
Question 17. Parts of the country are suffering water _______ after the unusually dry summer.
A. shortage B. supply C. thirst D. hunger
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra từ trong văn cảnh
Question 18. You should study hard to _____ your classmates.
A. catch sight of B. feel like C. get in touch with D. keep pace with
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra cụm từ cố định
Question 19. Jane really loves the ______ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. nice brown wooden B. nice wooden brown C. wooden brown nice D. brown wooden nice
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra trật tự tính từ
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. Tom is talking to his new friend, Laura, after her performance.
- Tom: “ You are a great dancer. I wish I could do half as well as you.
- Laura: “ _______. I’m an awful dancer”.
A. You’re too kind B. That’s a nice compliment
C. You’ve got to be kidding D. Oh, thank you very much
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra kỹ năng giao tiếp
Question 21. – Mubarak: ''Did you enjoy the movie yesterday?"
- Mark: "_______________ "
A. Certainly, I'd be glad to. B. Yes, it is warmer than today.
C. Not really. I couldn't follow the story. D. No, I dislike moving.
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra kỹ năng giao tiếp
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is closet in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 22. Scarcely had she arrived home when the quake happened.
A. As soon as the quake took place, she arrived home. B. The quake took place before she arrived home.
C. Hardly the quake happened when she arrived home. D. No sooner had she arrived home than the quake
happened.
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra cấu trúc đảo ngữ
- Cấp độ: Vận dụng cao
Question 23. People say that he did it for his own sake.
A. He is said to do it for his own sake. B. He is said that he did it for his own sake.
C. He is said to have done it for his own sake. D. It is said to do it for his own sake.
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra cấu trúc câu bị động

- Cấp độ: Vận dụng cao
Question 24. “I have found a new flat,” said Ann.
A. Ann told that she had found a new flat.
B. Ann said to me that she had found a new flat.
C. Ann said that she has found a new flat.
D. Ann said me that she had found a new flat
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra câu trực tiếp, gián tiếp

01
- Cấp độ: vận dụng
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 25: She heard the news about her friend’s death. She broke down
A. She broke down while she was hearing the news about her friend’s death.
B. Having broke down, She heard the news about her friend’s death.
C. She broke down the moment she heard the news about her friend’s death.
D. She broke down the moment when she heard the news about her friend’s death.
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra cấu trúc MĐ chỉ thời gian : (lúc mà- the moment)
- Cấp độ: vận dụng cao
Question 26: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
B. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra liên từ
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 27. What may happen if John does not arrive in time?
A. turn up B. count on C. keep away D. go along
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra từ loại
Question 28. Thanks to better health care, there are more and more centenarians nowadays.
A. children who die at birth
B. children whose parents can't afford their schooling
C. people who live 100 years or more
D. people who suffer from fatal diseases
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 29. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate
Question 30: It's discourteous to ask Americans questions about their age, marriage or income.
A. impolite B. polite C. unacceptable D. rude
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Tim Samaras is a storm chaser. His job is to find tornadoes and follow them. When he gets close
to a tornado, he puts a special tool (31) ______ a turtle probe on the ground. This tool measures things
like a twister’s temperature. Humidity, and wind speed. With this information, Samaras can learn what
causes tornadoes to develop. If meteorilogists understand this, they can warn people (32) _____ twisters
sooner and save lives.
How does Samaras hunt tornadoes? It’s not easy. First, he has to find one. Tornadoes are too
small to see using weather satellites. So Samaras can’t rely on these tools to find a twister. (33) ______,
he waits for tornadoes to develop.

01
Once Samaras sees a tornado, the chase begins. But a tornado is hard to follow. Some tornadoes change
(34) _____ several times – for example, moving east and then west and then east again. When Samaras
finally gets near a tornado, her puts the turtle probe on the ground. Being this close to a twister is (35)
______. He must get away quickly.
(Source: Reading Explorer)
Question 31:
A. called B. known C. made D. meant
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra nghĩa của từ trong văn cảnh
Question 32:
A. with B. about C. at D. for
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra cụm động từ
Question 33:
A. Rather B. Still C. Instead D. Yet
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra các liên từ
- Cấp độ: nhận bíêt
Question 34:
A. progression B. movement C. dimension D. direction
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra nghĩa của từ trong văn cảnh
Question 35:
A. terrify B. terrifying C. terrified D. terrifies
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices.
For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports,
the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines,
when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their
employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million
telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as
significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its
cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of
many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force
scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet
developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept
the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are
concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in
the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area,
they never really get away from the office.
Question 36: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. The advantages of telecommuting. B. A definition of telecommuting.
C. An overview of telecommuting D. The failure of telecommuting.
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra ý chính của văn bản
Question 37: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week. B. More than 8 million
C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today. D. Fewer than last year.
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra thông tin cụ thể

01
Question 38: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT____.
A. the opportunities for advancement. B. the different system of supervision
C. the lack of interaction with a group. D. The work place is in the home.
Question 39: The word “them” in line 11 refers to____.
A. systems B. telecommuters C. executives D. responsibilities
- Nội dung: Xác định tham chiếu
Question 40: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees____.
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
Question 41: The word “reluctant” in line 13 can best be replaced by ____.
A. opposite B. willing C. hesitate D. typical
- Nội dung: Đoán nghĩa từ mới qua ngữ cảnh
Question 42: When Business Week published “ The Portable Executive “, it implied that….
A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.
B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting.
C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic.
D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work.
The White House, the official home of the United States president, was not built in time for
George Washington to live in it. It was begun in 1792 and was ready for its first inhabitants. President
and Mrs.John Adams, who moved in on November 1, 1800. When the Adamses moved in, the White
House was not yet complete, and the Adamses suffered many inconveniences; for example, the
main staircase was incomplete, which hindered movement from floor to floor, and the future laundry
yard was merely a pool of mud, so wet laundry was hung in the unfinished East Room to dry. Thomas
Jefferson, the third president, improved the comfort of the White House in many respects and added new
architectural features such as the terraces on the east and west ends.
When the British forces burned the White House on August 24, 1814, President Madison was forced to
leave.All the remained after the fire was the exterior walls, the interior was completely destroyed.It was
not until December of 1817 that the following president, James Monroe, was able to move into a rebuilt
residence. Since then, the White House has continued to be modified but has been continuously
occupied by each succeeding U.S president.
Question 43. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for this text?
A. George Washington’s life in the White House.
B. The Early History of the White House.
C. The burning of the White House.
D. Presidential Policies of Early U.S.Presidents.
- Nội dung: Kiểm tra ý chính của văn bản
- Cấp độ: Vận dụng
Question 44. Why did George Washington not live in the White House?
A. It had been burned by the British.
B. He did not like the architectural features.

01
C. He did not want to suffer the inconveniences that the Adamses had suffered.
D. Construction had not yet been completed.
Question 45. The word “inhabitants” in line 2 is closest meaning to:
Question 46. It can be inferred from the passage that John Adams was:
A. the first president of the United States.
B. the second president of the United States.
C. the third president of the United States.
D. the fourth president of the United States.
Question 47. What of the White House was not yet complete when the Adamses moved in?
Question 48. The word “ forces” in line 9 could best be replaced by:
A. military B.effort C. power D. energy
Question 49. According to the passage, when James Monroe came to the White House, it had been:
Question 50. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses:
- Cấp độ: Vận dụng
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM
______________ 2017
ĐỀ THAM KHẢO Môn: TIẾNG ANH
( Đề thi có _6_ trang ) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. vacancy B. expand C. applicant D. category
Question 2: A. interview B. question C. minute D. suitable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. verbal B. signal C. attract D. common
Question 4: A. recommend B. curriculum C. economics D. engineering
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: By the end of the 21st century, scientists _____ a cure for the common cold.
01
A. will find B. will have been finding
C. will be finding D. will have found
Question 6: Last Sunday was _____that we took a drive in the country.
A. so beautiful day B. such a beautiful day
C. so a beautiful day D. such beautiful day
Question 7: It is necessary that children _____ of their old parents
A. takes care B. take care C. to take care D. took care
Question 8: He asked me _____.
A. since when I’m waiting B. how long I have been waiting
C. since when I waited D. how long I had been waiting
Question 9: _____ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.
A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived
C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived
Question 10: A book may be evaluated by a reader or professional writer to create a book _____.
A. review B. reviewing C. reviewer D. reviewed
Question 11: Many applicants find a job interview _____ if they are not well-prepared for it.
A. impressive B. threatening C. stressful D. time-consuming
Question 12: Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of _____ devices.
A. labor-saving B. time-consuming
C. environment-friendly D. pollution-free
Question 13: “Can you _____ me a favor, Bill?” Peter said.
A. make B. do C. put D. get
Question 14: In my attempt to win a place at university, I am _____a lot of study pressure.
A. in B. behind C. under D. beneath
Question 15: “Do you _____your new roommate, or do you two argue?”
A. keep in touch with B. get used to
C. on good terms with D. get along with
Question 16: He still hasn’t really _____ the death of his mother.
A. got over B. recovered C. got on D. got from
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: Two friends David and Tom are talking about their last driving test. Select the most
suitable response to complete the exchange.
- David: “I failed my driving test yesterday.”
- Tom: “_____”
A. You should try your hand at it. B. I wish that we could talk about it.
C. Oh well. You’re in a good company. D.You want to pass the test. Dream on!
Question 18: - John : “What kind of job would you like ?
- Tim : “_____ “
A. All of them are B.Anything to do with computers
C. I heard it was very good D. Anytime after next week
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 19: In most countries, compulsorymilitary service does not apply to women.
A. beneficial B. superior C. mandatory D. constructive
Question 20: The students are advised to concentrate on their studying.
A.pay attention to B. remember C. be interested in D. resemble
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 21: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental

01
improvements.
A. something suffering B. something sad
C. something enjoyable D. something blue
Question 22: How on earth could they do away with a lovely old building like that and put a car park
there instead?
A. keep B. eliminate C. decrease D. squander
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 23: It was not until the endof prehistoric times that the first wheeled vehiclesappearing.
A. not until the end B. prehistoric C. appearing D. the first
Question 24: I like the fresh air and green trees of the village which I spent my vacation last year.
A. which B. green trees C. the fresh air D. my vacation
Question 25: Foreign students who are doing a decision about which school to attend may not know
exactly where the choices are located.
A. about which B. are doing C. to attend D. the choices
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 26: They couldn’t climb up the mountain because of the storm.
A. The storm made it incapable of climbing up the mountain.
B. Their climbing up the mountain was unable due to the storm.
C. The storm discouraged them from climbing up the mountain.
D. The storm made them impossible to climb up the mountain.
Question 27: “Why don’t you participate in the volunteer work in summer?" said Sophie.
A. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer
B. Sophie suggested my participating in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
Question 28: If you practise harder you will have better results.
A. The harder you practise, the best results you will have.
B. The more hardly you practise, the better results you will have.
C. The harder you practise, the better results you will have.
D. The hardest you practise, the most results you will have.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
Question 29: A waitress served us. She was very impolite and impatient.
A. The waitress who served us was very impolite and impatient
B. The waitress which served us., was very impolite and impatient.
C. The waitress, who served us , was very impolite and impatient.
D. The waitress whom served us , was very impolite and impatient.
Question 30: The plane couldn’t take off. It was raining heavily.
A. It was raining heavily, but the plane couldn’t take off.
B. Although it was raining heavily, the plane could take off.
C. The heavy rain prevented the plane from taking off.
D. The plane couldn’t take off despite it was raining heavily.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

01
Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The maximum class size
is twelve (31)_________ the average is ten. We use modern methods (32)_________ teaching and
learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only be
successful in improving your English; however, if you work hard and practise speaking English as much
as you can. You will take a short (33)_________ in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can
put you in a (34)_________ at the most suitable level.
The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (35)_________ of situations at the advanced
knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk to native
speakers. In addition, you will develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing articles and
reports, and note-taking from books and lectures.
Question 31: A. and B. or C. on D. but
Question 32: A. of B. in C. on D. for
Question 33: A. course B. exam C. test D. lesson
Question 34: A. form B. course C. grade D. class
Question 35: A. variety B. amount C. number D. lot
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster.
According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which
ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will
fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious
in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very
supportive of their child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to
concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers
twice a week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the
trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is
unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians,
and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so
they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston
is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.
Question 36: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to ______.
A. help their child to become a genius B.push their child into trying too much
C. make their child become a musician D. neglect their child’s education
Parents’ ambition for their children is not wrong if they ______.

Question 37:
A. understand and help their children sensibly B. force their children into achieving success
C. themselves have been very successful D. arrange private lessons for their children
Question 38: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians B. Educational psychologists
C. Their children. D. Unrealistic parents.
Question 39: The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. "surprised at" B. "extremely interested in"
C. "completely unaware of" D. "confused about"
Question 40: The word "They" in the passage refers to ______.
A. Michael’s parents B. violin lessons
C. parents in general D. concerts
Question 41: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT _____.
A. Winston’s father B. Winston’s mother

01
C. Michael’s mother D. Michael’s father
Question 42: The word "unwilling" in the passage mostly means ______.
A. "not wanting to do something" B. "eager to do something"
C. "not objecting to doing anything" D. "getting ready to do something"
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
It’s often said that we learn things at the wrong time. University students frequently do the minimum
of work because they’re crazy about a good social life instead. Children often scream before their piano
practice because it’s so boring.They have to be given gold stars and medals to be persuaded to swim, or
have to be bribed to take exams. But the story is different when you’re older.
Over the years, I’ve done my share of adult learning. At 30, I went to a college and did courses in
History and English. It was an amazing experience. For starters, I was paying, so there was no reason
to be late – I was the one frowning and drumming my fingers if the tutor was late, not the other way
round. Indeed, if I could persuade him to linger for an extra five minutes, it was a bonus, not a nuisance.
I wasn’t frightened to ask questions, and homework was a pleasure not a pain. When I passed an exam, I
had passed it for me and me alone, not for my parents or my teachers. The satisfaction I got was entirely
personal.
Some people fear going back to school because they worry that their brains have got rusty. But the joy
is that, although some parts have rusted up, your brain has learnt all kinds of other things since you were
young. It has learnt to think independently and flexibly and is much better at relating one thing to
another. What you lose in the rust department, you gain in the maturity department.
In some ways, age is a positive plus. For instance, when you’re older, you get less frustrated.Experience
has told you that, if you’re calm and simply do something carefully again and again, eventually you’ll
get the hang of it. The confidence you have in other areas – from being able to drive a car, perhaps –
means that if you can’t, say, build a chair instantly, you don’t, like a child, want to destroy your first
pathetic attempts. Maturity tells you that you will, with application, eventually get there.
I hated piano lessons at school, but I was good at music. And coming back to it, with a teacher who
could explain why certain exercises were useful and with musical concepts that, at the age of ten, I could
never grasp, was magical. Initially, I did feel a bit strange, thumping out a piece that I’d played for my
school exams, with just as little comprehension of what the composer intended as I’d had all those years
before. But soon, complex emotions that I never knew poured out from my fingers, and suddenly I could
understand why practice makes perfect.
Question 43: It is implied in paragraph 1 that ______.
A. young learners are usually lazy intheir class
B. teachers should give young learners less homework
C. parents should encourage young learners to study more
D. young learners often lack a good motivation for learning
Question 44: The phrase “For starters” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “______”.
A. For beginners B. At the beginning
C. At the starting point D. First and foremost
Question 45: In paragraph 3, the word “rusty” means ______.
A. impatient because of having nothing to do
B. not as good as it used to be through lack of practice
C. covered with rust and not as good as it used to be
D. staying alive and becoming more active
Question 46: The phrase “get there” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. have the things you have long desired B. receive a school or college degree
C. arrive at an intended place with difficulty D. achieve your aim with hard work
Question 47: All of the following are true about adult learning EXCEPT ______.
A. experience in doing other things can help one’s learning
B. young people usually feel less patient than adults
C. adult learners have fewer advantages than young learners

01
D. adults think more independently and flexibly than young people
Question 48: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that maturity is a positive plus in the learning process
because adult learners ______.
A. pay more attention to detail than younger learners
B. are less worried about learning than younger learners
C. have become more patient than younger learners
D. are able to organize themselves better than younger learners
Question 49: It is implied in the last paragraph that when you learn later in life, you ______.
A. should expect to take longer to learn than when you were younger
B. can sometimes understand more than when you were younger
C. find that you can recall a lot of things you learnt when younger
D. are not able to concentrate as well as when you were younger
Question 50: What is the writer’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To encourage adult learning B. To describe adult learning methods.
C. To show how fast adult learning is. D. To explain reasons for learning.
THE END
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA
TẠO NĂM 2017
Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI THỬ NGHIỆM Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 01
Họ, tên thí sinh: .......................................................................

Số báo danh: ............................................................................
MarktheletterA,B,C,orDonyouranswersheettoindicatethewordwhoseunderlinedpartdiffers
fromtheotherthreeinpronunciationineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 1: A. landed B. filled C. suited D.
Question 2: A. think B. three C. that wicked
D. thank
MarktheletterA,B,C,orDonyouranswersheettoindicatethewordthatdiffersfromtheother
threeinthepositionofprimarystressineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 3: A. supply B. propose C. agree D. garden
Question 4: A. available B. absolutely C. certificate D. appropriate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
Question 5: The bridge was hitting by a large ship during a sudden storm last week.
A B C D
Question 6: The man to who I sold my house wasa cheat.
A B C D
Question 7: Air pollution together with littering are causing many problems in our large industrial
cities today.
A B C D
Question 8: I’ll show you around the city when you________ to visit me.
A.are coming B.will come C.come D. will be coming
Question 9: ________ giraffe is the tallest of all animals.
A.some B.a C.an D.the
01
Question 10: Of the two books, this one is ________.
A. the more interesting B. more interesting
C. the most interesting D. as interesting as
Question 11: John asked me________ in English.
A. what does this word mean B. what that word meant
C. what did this word mean D. what that word means
Question 12: Next month, I________Dereck for 20 years.
A.have known B. will have been knowing
C.will have known D. will know
Question 13: While studying, he was financially dependent________ his parent.
A.in B.from C.on D.by
Question 14: These quick and easy ________ can be effective in the short term, but they have a cost.
A.solve B.solvable C.solvability D.solutions
Question 15: A person of________ age may suffer from defects of vision.
A.every B.any C.some D. certain
Question 16:If we want to________ up with them, we’d better hurry.
A.come B.approach C.arrive D.catch
Question 17: We think you are________ your time looking for a job in this town. There’s not much to
do here.
A.losing B.spending C.wasting D.missing

01
Question 18:If traffic moves at low speeds, the number of accidents is________.
A.put away B.pulled back C.turned off D. cut down
Question 19: Babara turned________the TV because she was tired________listening to the news.
A.down/ for B.off/ of C.up/with D. off/in
each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Laura’s aunt, Mary, is visiting her family on Christmas evening. She phones and asks her
aunt:
- Laura: “When would you like to have dinner?”
- Mary : “ ”
A. How about at a Chinese restaurant? B. No, thank you. I’m full.
C. How about six o’clock? D. Anywhere you can go.
Question 21: David met Jason on Christmas day.
- David: “Happy Christmas?”
- Jason: “ ”
A. Same for you! B. The same to you!
C. You are the same! D. Happy Christmas with you!
MarktheletterA,B,C,orDonyouranswersheettoindicatethewordCLOSESTinmeaningtothe
underlinedwordineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 22: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A.from time to time B.time after time C.again and again D.rapidly
Question 23: I didn’t go to work this morning. I stayed at home due to the morning rain.
A.thanks to B.on account of C.in spite of D.in addition to
MarktheletterA,B,C,orDonyouranswersheettoindicatetheword(s)OPPOSITEinmeaningto
theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 24: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance in the countryside; therefore, farmers often sell
them at low price.
A.excess B.sufficiency C.small quantity D. large quantity
Question 25: Pure water is often a fairly rare commodity that requires significant energy to produce.
A.contaminated B.clean C.unadulterated D.flawless
MarktheletterA,B,C,orDonyouranswersheettoindicatethesentencethatisclosestinmeaning
toeachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 26: “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?”said Henry’s boss.
A. Henry’s boss asked him not to do his job with care.
B. Henry’s boss criticized him for not doing his job.
C. Henry’s boss suggested doing the job more carefully.
D. Henry’s boss criticized him for doing his job carelessly.
Question 27: I only realised how dangerous the situation had been when I got home.
A. Only when I got home did I realise how dangerous the situation had been.
B. When I got home, I was realizing how dangerous the situation had been.
C. Just after I got home, I only realised how dangerous the situation had been.
D. Only when did I get home that I realise how dangerous the situation had been.
Question 28: If only I had taken that job in the bank.
A. I regret not take that job in the bank.
B. I don’t take that job in the bank.
C. I regret not taking that job in the bank.
D. I wish I took that job in the bank.
MarktheletterA,B,C,orDonyouranswersheettoindicatethesentencethatbestcombineseach
pairofsentencesinthefollowingquestions.
Question 29: The demand was so great. They had to reprint the book immediately.
A. They demanded that the book be reprinted immediately.
B. The book would be reprinted immediately since the demand was great.
C. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.
D. They demanded to reprint the book immediately.
Question 30: He did not work hard. He failed the exam.
A. Even though he failed the exam, he didn't work hard.
B. If he had worked hard, he would have passed the exam.
C. Unless he had worked hard, he would have failed the exam.
D. However hard he worked, he failed the exam.
ReadthefollowingpassageandmarktheletterA,B,C,orDonyouranswersheettoindicatethe
correctwordorphrasethatbestfitseachofthenumberedblanksfrom31to35.
Engineers have dreaming of an underwater link between Britain and France (31) ____ 1802 . Finally in
1994 the Channel Tunnel ( nicknamed “ The Chunnel “ by the English ) was ( 32) _____ opened .
This fifteen billion dollar project took seven years to (33) ____. It is about 50 km long and built 45
metres under the seabed . The trains which go through the Chunnel can travel at up 300 km/h due to the
(34) _____ electrical system .
The journey from London to Paris via the Chunnel takes just three hours . It is also (35) _____ for
drivers since they can load their cars onto the trains . They don’t need to book in advance , as trains
departevery few minutes .
Question31: A. from B.during C. since D. ago

Question32:A. officially B. regularly C. correctly D. typically
Question33:A. perform B. achieve C. deal with D. complete
Question34:A. forward B. advanced C. higher D. increased
Question35:A. benefit B. handy C. advantage D. spare
correctanswertoeachofthequestionsfrom36to42.
Most people think that lions only come from Africa. This is understandable because in fact most
lions come from there but this has not always been the case. If we went back ten thousand years we
would find that there were lions roaming vast sections of the globe. However now, unfortunately only a
very small section of lions’former habitat remains.
Asiatic lions are sub-species of African lions. It is almost a hundred thousand years since the
Asiatic lions split off and developed as a sub-species. At one time the Asiatic lion was living as far west
as Greece and they were found from there, but I a band that spreads eat through various countries of the
Middle East, all the way to India. In museums now you can see Greek coins that have clear images of the
Asiatic lion on them. Most of them are dated at around 500B.C. However, Europe saw its last Asiatic
lion roaming free to thousand years ago. Over the next nineteen hundred years the numbers of Asiatic
lions in the other areas declined steadily, but it was only in the nineteenth century that they disappeared
from everywhere but in India.
The Gir sanctuary in India was established especially to protect the Asiatic lion. There are now
around three hundred Asiatic lions in India and almost all of them are in this sanctuary. However, despite
living in a sanctuary, which makes them safe from hunters, they still face a number of problems that
threaten their survival. One of these is the ever-presented danger of disease. This is what killed more
than a third of Africa’s Serengeti lions in 1994, and people are fearful that something similar could
happen in the Gir Sanctuary and kill off many of the Asiatic lions there.
Question 36: According to the passage, many people believe that lions come from _______.
A. Europe B. India C. Middle East D. Africa
Question 37: Ten thousand years ago ________.
A. lions did not live in small forests
B. lions came mainly from Africa
C. Lions roamed much more that nowadays
D. There were much more lion habitats than nowadays
Question 38: The phrase “split off” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to “________”.
A. spotted animals B. divided
C. developed into different species D. change the original species
Question 39: According to the passage, nowadays we can find the Asiatic lion_________.
A. Nowhere in the world
B. Only in Greek museums
C. In Africa and India
D. Only in India
Question 40: The Asiatic lion ________.
A.was looking for food mainly in the Middle East
B.was searching for food in a wide range of countries
C.was searching for good mainly in Indian and Africa
D. was looking for food mainly in India
Question 41: According to the author, the Gir sanctuary.
A.protects the Asiatic lion from hunters and diseases
B.cannot reduce the Asiatic lion’s risk of catching diseases
C.can make the Asiatic lion become weak
D. is among many places where the Asiatic lion is well protected
Question 42: How many Africa’s Serengeti lions died of disease in 1994?
A. 1/3 B.2/3 C. 500 D. 10,000
correctanswertoeachofthequestionsfrom43to50.
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the
contributions of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formedUnited
States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an
important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century,
Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail
Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great political influence over her husband, John,
the second President of the United States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During
these centuries, women remained invisible in history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female
authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur
historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use
of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by
keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women’s
organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and
souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest collections of women’s
history in the United States one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College,
and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable
materials for later Generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth Century,
most of the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of History, just as much of
mainstream American history concentrated on “great men.” To demonstrate that women were making
significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote
biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were
involved in public life as reformers, activists working for women’s right to vote, or authors, and were
not representative at all of the great of ordinary woman. The lives of ordinary people continued,
generally, to be untold in the American histories being published.
Question 43:What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The role of literature in early American histories.
B. The place of American women in written histories.
C. The keen sense of history shown by American women.
34
D.The “great women” approach to history used by American historians.
Question 44:In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that
________.
A. a woman’s status was changed by marriage
B. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored
C. only three women were able to get their writing published
D. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women
Question 45:The word “they” in the 2nd paragraph refers to________.
A. efforts B. authors C. counterparts D. sources
nd
Question 46: In the 2 paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point
out?
A. They put too much emphasis on daily activities.
B. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
C. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
D. They were printed on poor-quality paper.
Question 47:On the basis of information in the third paragraph, which of the following would most
likely have been collected by nineteenth-century feminist organizations?
A. Newspaper accounts of presidential election results.
B. Biographies of John Adams.
C. Letters from a mother to a daughter advising her how to handle a family problem.
D. Books about famous graduates of the country’s first college.
Question 48:What use was made of the nineteenth-century women’s history materials in the Schlesinger
Library and the Sophia Smith Collection?
A. They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia.
B. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century.
C. They provided valuable information for twentieth-century historical researchers.
D.They were shared among women’s colleges throughout the United States.
Question 49: In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of
nineteenth-century “great women” EXCEPT ________.
A. authors B. reformers
C. activists for women’s rights D. politicians
Question 50:The word “representative” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. typical B. satisfied C. supportive D. distinctive
DAI AN HIGH SCHOOL

ENGLISH12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question1:A. investigate B.supervisor C. contaminate D.convenient(K)
Question 2:A.postpone B.specialize C.purpose D.summarize(K)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 3: A.pasture B.mature C.manufacture D.agriculture(K)
Question 4:A. feat B.seat C.meat D.threaten(K)
following questions
35
Question 5: Peter has been admitted to ________School of Medicine at ________Mid Western
University .
A.Ø / a B.The / the C.Ø / Ø D.The / Ø(K)
Question 6: If an area is________, all the trees there are cut down or destroyed . (A)
A.endangered B.contaminated
C.deforested D.polluted
Question 7: I’ll lend you the money and you________pay me back till next month. (K)
A.needn’t B.mustn’t C.must D.need
Question 8: There is _________ in my room. (A)
A.an old wooden square table B.an old square wooden table
C.a square old wooden table D.a square wooden old table
Question 9: She is a friendly person. She gets_________all her neighbours . (K)
A.up well with B.down well with
C.on well with D.off with
Question 10: Hardly __________attack people. (C)
A.have snakes B.do snakes C.snakes have D.snakes do
Question 11:Many species of wildlife are _______ of extinction.(C)
A.at danger B. on the side C.on the verge D.at the risk
Question 12:The strike was _________ owing to a last- minute agreement with the management.(C)
A.called off B.broken up C.set up D.put down
Question 13: Franklin D. Roosevelt was ____________ the great force of radio and the opportunity it
provided for taking government policies directly to the people.(A)
A.as the first president he understoo fully
B. the first president to understand fully
C.the first president fully understood
D. the first president that, to fully understand
Question 14:When a reader reads an interesting book slowly and carefully, he ____________it.(C)
A.reviews B. chews and digests C. dips into D. swallows
Question 15:In the primary school, a child is in the ______ simple setting. (C)
A.comparison B.comparative C. comparatively D. comparable
Question 16:By 2050, medical technology ____________ many current incurable diseases.(C)
A. has conquered B.will conquerC. will have conquered D. is conquering
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: “ Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?”
A. Yes, you can use it B. Not at all. I’ve finished my job (C)
C. Of course not. I still need it now D. Yes, It’s all right
Question 18: Peter: “ I can’t open the top of this orange juice”
Jack: “____________ “(A)
A.Have Mark do . B.Make Mark to do
C.Mark have to do. D. Have Mark done
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19:Polluted water and increased water temperatures have driven many species to the verge of
extinction .
A.contaminated B.enriched C.purified D.strenghthened(C)
Question 20:I didn’t go to work this morning.I stayed at home due tothe morning rain(C)
A.thanks to B.on account of C.in spite of D.in addition to
36
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21:We still find the incident inexplicable. (C)
A. impossible to explain B.unexplained
C.easy to explain D.without clear explanation
Question 22:To be honest, I go to the museums once in a blue moon . (A)
A.seldom B.once in a while
C.from time to time D.very often
Question 23:Our class is going to have a two-days trip next month.(C)
A B C D
Question 24:Although both of themare trying to get the scholarship, she has the highest grades(A)
A B C D
Question 25:It is time the government helped the unemployment to find some jobs (C)
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in meaning
Question 26: Although I was tired, I didn’t sleep.(A)
A. Despite of being very tired, I didn’t sleep.
B.No matter how tired I was, I didn’t sleep.
C.Inspite of I was tired, I didn’t sleep.
D.No matter how I was tired, I didn’t sleep.
Question 27: “ Sorry, I’m late” said the boy to the teacher. (K)
A.The boy apologized the teacher for being late.
B.The boy apologized to the teacher for not being late.
C.The boy apologized to the teacher to being late.
D.The boy apologized to the teacher for being late.
Question 28: It was a mistake of you to buy that car. (A)
A. You shouldn’t buy that car.
B. You should have bought that car.
C. You shouldn’t have bought that car
D. You should buy that car.
Question 29:He didn’t smoke. He didn’t drink. (K)
A. He neither smokes nor drinks.
B.He neither smoked nor drank.
C. He neither smoked or drank.
D. He either smoked or drank
Question 30:They didn’t have breakfast. That’s why they are hungry now. (C)
A.If they had breakfast, they wouldn’t be hungry now.
B. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn’t be hungry now.
C. If they had had breakfast, they wouldn’t have been hungry now.
D. If they had breakfast, they would have been hungry now.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Wild animals and wild places where they live are seriously (31)______ almost everywhere. One species
has become (32)_______ in each year of this century, but many hundreds are now in (33)______. Lack
37
of (34) ______ would lead to the rapid advance of the process of extinction. Already many kinds of wild
animals have been so reduced in number that their role in the ecosystem is forgotten.
But even more important, perhaps, the individual kinds of animals and plants, whole habitats are
in danger of vanishing: marshes are being drained, and the world forests, especially the tropical forests
are being cut down to (35)_______man’s need of timber and paper.
Question 31. A. protected B. used C. rescued D. threatened(C)
Question 32. A. valuable B. extinct C. endangered D. dangerous(K)
Question 33. A. beauty B. preservation C.danger D. peace(K)
Question 34. A. attention B.care C. look D. ignorance(C)
Question 35. A. reduce B. help C.satisfyD. supply(C)
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become
extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the
jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will
become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have
been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in
material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to
the problem of extinction. Animals, such as Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are
valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to
ensure their survival and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an
effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then
charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also
depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols
to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott
of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent
animals from being hunted and killed.
Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage?(A)
A. the Bengal tiger B. international boycott
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
Question 37. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “alarming” in the first
paragraph?(C)
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
Question 38. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast_______. (A)
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast D. specific and general information
Question 39. What does the word “This” in the first paragraph refers to in the passage? (K)
A. Bengal tigers B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
Question 40. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in the second paragraph?
(C)
A. set aside B. combine C. organized D. taken off
Question 41. What does the term “international boycott” in the second paragraph refer to? (C)
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas
B.a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animal survival
D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
Question 42. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude? (A)
38
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D. surprised
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50 .
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living
things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are
rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he
can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to
withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large
animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat.
Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled
forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are
not emaciated.
Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the
word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could
survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter
of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the
ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150
degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 43: The title for this passage could be .(C)
A. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” B. “Desert Plants”
C. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Life Underground”
Question 44: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as .
(A)
A. water is an essential part of his existence
B. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things
C. very few lager animals are found in the desert
D. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
Question 45: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT(K)
A. many large animals B. water-loving animals
C. moist-skinned animals D. the coyote and the bobcat
Question 46: According to the passage, creatures in the desert .(C)
A. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
B. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world
C. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest
D. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest
Question 47: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals
EXCEPT .(K)
A. they dig home underground B. they sleep during the day
C. they are watchful and quiet D. they are noisy and aggressive
Question 48: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means .(C)
A. “living or growing in natural conditions, not kept in a house or on a farm”
B. “large and strong, difficult to control or deal with”
C. “thin and weak because of lack of food and water”
D. “able to get what one wants in a clever way, especially by tricking or cheating”
Question 49: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that
(A)
A. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
B. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees
C. they live in an accommodating environment
39
D. they are less healthy than animals living in other places
Question 50: We can infer from the passage that .(A)
A. desert life is colorful and diverse B. living things adjust to their environment
C. healthy animals live longer lives D. water is the basis of desert life
SỞ GD& ĐT NAM ĐỊNH KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
TRƯỜNG THPT GIAO THUY Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề:139
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1:A. chemistry B. indicate C. application D. identify
Question 2:A. decided B. cooked C. laughed D. practised
Question 3:A. effort B. office C. comment D. express
Question 4:A. communicate B. reservation C. dictation D. occasion
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and
zoology at Jonhs Hopkins University, and received her master degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by
the U.S Fish and Widlife Service, where she works most of her life. Carson's book, Under the Sea
Wind, was publish in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was re-issued in
1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the
ocean's surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and
language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources.She had voluminous
correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the
limitations of her non-technical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how
much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the
food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the
chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her
findings were flawed. However, she work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President's Science
Advisory Committee.
Question 5: The word "reckless" is closest in meaning to........
A. continuous B. irresponsible C. unnecessary D. limited
Question 6: According to the passage, silent spring is mainly a(n)........to environment.
A. warning B. attack C. discussion D. illustration
Question 7: Which of the following is least accurate to describe The Sea Around Us?
A. Poetic B. Well-researched C. Highly technical D. Fascinating
Question 8: We can guess that in 1952, the book Under the Sea Wind was.......
A. praised a lot B. less popular C. sold more than before D. outdated
Question 9: In the passage, what did Carson chiefly study at Jonhs Hopkins University?
A. History B. Oceanography C. Literature D. Zoology
Question 10: The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work......
A. at the Fish and Wildlife Service B.as a researcher C. as a writer D. at college
Question 11: What can be inferred about the company that eventually bought Carlson's process?
40
A. It became smaller B. It became successful
C. It went bankrupt D. It didn’t use Carlson's machine
Question 12: When publishing her first book, Carson was closest to the age of.......
A. 29 B. 34 C. 26 D. 45
Although only a small percentage of the electromagnetic radiation that is emitted by the Sun is
ultraviolet (UV) radiation, the amount that is emitted would be enough to cause severe damage to most
forms of life on Earth were it all to reach the surface of the Earth. Fortunately, all of the Sun’s ultraviolet
radiation does not reach the Earth because of a layer of oxygen, called the ozone layer encirclingthe
Earth in the stratosphere at an altitude of about 15 miles above the Earth. The ozone layer absorbs much
of the Sun’s ultraviolet radiation and prevents it from reaching the Earth.
Ozone is a form of oxygen in which each molecule consists of three atoms (O 3) instead of the two
atoms (O2) usually found in an oxygen molecule. Ozone forms in the stratosphere in a process that is
initiated by ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. UV radiation from the Sun splits oxygen molecules with
two atoms into free oxygen atoms, and each of these unattached oxygen atoms then joins up with an
oxygen molecule to form ozone. UV radiation is also capable of splitting up ozone molecules; thus,
ozone is constantly forming, splitting, and reforming in the stratosphere. When UV radiation is absorbed
during the process of ozone formation and reformation, itis unable to reach Earth and cause damage
there.
Recently, however, the ozone layer over parts of the Earth has been diminishing. Chief among the
culprits in the case of the disappearing ozone, those that are really responsible, are the
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). CFCs meander up from Earth into the stratosphere, where they break
down and release chlorine. The released chlorine reacts with ozone in the stratosphere to form chlorine
monoxide (ClO) and oxygen (O2). The chlorine then becomes free to go through the cycle over and over
again. One chlorine atom can, in fact, destroy hundreds of thousands of ozone molecules in this
repetitious cycle, and the effects of this destructive process are now becoming evident.
Question 13: The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses........
A. how electromagnetic radiation is created
B. the causes of the destruction of ozone molecules
C. where chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) come from
D. the negative results of the cycle of ozone destruction
Question 14: The word "encircling" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to........
A. raising B. attacking C. surrounding D. rotating
Question 15: According to the passage, ultraviolet radiation from the Sun........
A. is only a fraction of the Sun's electromagnetic radiation
B. creates electromagnetic radiation
C. always reaches the Earth
D. is causing severe damage to the Earth's ozone layer
Question 16: The pronoun "it" in paragraph 2 refers to........
A. process B. radiation C.formation D. damage
Question 17: It is stated in the passage that the ozone layer........
A. shields the Earth from a lot of ultraviolet radiation
B. reaches down to the Earth
C. reflects ultraviolet radiation
D. enables ultraviolet radiation to reach the Earth
Question 18: The word "culprits" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Leaders B. Guilty parties C. Group members D. Detectives
Question 19: According to the passage, what happens after a chlorine molecule reacts with an ozone
molecule?
41
A. The ozone breaks down into three oxygen atoms. B. The two molecules combine into one
molecule.
C. Two different molecules are created. D. Three distinct molecules result.
Question 20: If you think carefully before making your decision, you will avoid to get into trouble
later.
A. making B. to get C. carefully D. later
Question 21: The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have
become extinct have increased.
A. species B. extinct C. industrialized D. have
Question 22: He comes from a remote and mountainous area locating in the south.
A. comes from B. remote and mountainous C. the south D. locating
Question 23: A (n)........child means a child who behaves badly and saddens his parents.
A. insubordinate B. hard-working C. obedient D. active
Question 24: When I........to visit her yesterday, she.......a party.
A. come - was prepared B. came - prepared
C. came - was preparing D. came - has prepared
Question 25: If I.......that there was a test yesterday, I would not be punished now.
A. knew B. have known C. had known D. would know
Question 26: Only when I saw him yesterday.......how old he is now.
A. that I realized B. I did realize C. did I realize D. I realized that
Question 27: If you finish the report, please give it to your supervisor. He will read........and make any
necessary changes.
A. over B. with C. through D. out
Question 28: : He had already learned the news. I........the trouble to phone him about it.
A. could have taken B. mustn't have taken C. should have taken D. needn’t have
taken
Question 29: : ........the students go to college in their teens every year.
A. A plenty of B. A good many of C. A lots of D. A good many
Question 30: John often says he _______ boxing because it _______ a cruel sport.
A. does not like / is B. did not like / were C. not liked / had been D. had not
liked / was
Question 31: Everyone likes........when they have got some success.
A. to be congratulating B. to congratulate
C. to be congratulated D.being congratulated
Question 32: Mary as well as his friends.......their hometown recently.
A. returned B. have returned C. has returned D. returns
Question 33: Bill and Ted.........each other straight away and became firm friends.
A. let in B. took to C. held together D. took after
Question 34: It looks like they're going to succeed........their present difficulties.
A. because of B. even though C. yet D. despite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 35: She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students.
A. tactful B. firm C. outspoken D. strict
Question 36: Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars
according to brightness.
42
A. categorize B. shine C. diversify D. record
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 37: In big cities, animals should be kept under control.
A. out of hand B. out of order C. out of dispute D. out of
discipline
Question 38: The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now.
A. changeable B. objective C. constant D. ignorant
correct word or phrase that best fits each o f the numbered blanks from 39 to 43.
Teaching English as a foreign language can be a great way to travel the world and earn money at the
same time. However, some graduates actually like the idea of ...(8)... a career in teaching English long-
term, and there are numerous courses at various ...(9)... of teaching, from the fast track TEFL to a
diploma or masters.
To find the right course a good place to start is http://www.TEFL.com - a website with lots of relevant
information and helpful advice, including a comprehensive list of institutions in the UK offering TEFL
courses. The site also offers a job search facility to assist qualified students ...(10)... finding work.
When deciding which course to take, the best bet is to look at what your needs are. If you want a
career in teaching English then definitely find one designed for that ...(11)..., like an M.A. or diploma;
but if you want to travel around the world, then do a shorter course which will supply you with teaching
skills.
Some countries, like Japan, will employ people without a teaching qualification as ...(12)... as the
teacher is a native speaker of English. However, most countries do now expect a qualification.
Question 39:A. pursuing B. chasing C. hunting D. tracking
Question 40:A. levels B. groups C. categories D. classes
Question 41:A. for B. at C. to D. in
Question 42:A. purpose B. aim C. function D. use
Question 43:A. far B. soon C. well D. long
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question 44: Although my father's always busy, he often helps me with my homework.
A. My father's always busy, and he often helps me with my homework.
B. My father's always busy, so he often helps me with my homework.
C. My father's always busy because he often helps me with my homework.
D. My father’s always busy, but he often helps me with my homework.
Question 45: As soon as he arrived at the airport, he called home.
A. Calling home, he said that he had arrived at the airport.
B. He arrived at the airport sooner than he had expected.
C. He arrived at the airport and called me to take him home.
D. No sooner had he arrived at the airport than he called home.
Question 46: We had to put off our wedding until September.
A. Our wedding until September had to be postponed.
B. It was not until September that our wedding had to be put off.
C. Not until September did we have to put off our wedding.
D. Our wedding had to be postponed until September.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 47: They spent more money. They had to work harder.
A. The more they spent money, the harder work they had to.
B. The more money they spent, the more harder they had to work.
43
C. The more money they spent, the harder they had to work.
D. The more they spent money, the more hard they had to work.
Question 48: I don't remember the man. You met him at the canteen last week.
A. I don’t remember the man whom you met at the canteen last week.
B. I don’t remember the man that you met him at the canteen last week.
C. I don't remember the man whom you met him at the canteen last week.
D. I don’t remember the man whose you met at the canteen last week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pet.
Peter: "How lovely your cats are!"
Linda: "............"
A. I love them, too B. Really? They are
C. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so D. Can you say it again
Question 50-: David's computer is out of order. He asks his mother.
David: "Is it right if I use your computer, mom?"
Mom: "............"
A. I don't care B. I accept it C. Oh, forget it D. Sure, go
ahead
BIỂU ĐIỂM VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT MÃ 139
STT ĐÁP ÁN STT ĐÁP ÁN

1 D 26 C
2 A 27 C
3 D 28 D
4 B 29 D
5 B 30 A
6 A 31 D
7 C 32 C
8 C 33 B
9 D 34 D
10 C 35 A
11 B 36 A
12 B 37 B
13 D 38 A
14 C 39 A
15 A 40 A
16 B 41 D
17 A 42 A
18 B 43 D
19 C 44 D
20 B 45 D
21 D 46 D
22 D 47 C
23 A 48 A
24 C 49 C
25 C 50 D
44
SỞ GD-ĐT NAM ĐỊNH ĐỀ THPTQG THAM KHẢO
TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG VĂN THỤ
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of these other in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. practical B. tradition C. fashion D. pattern
Question 2: A. parks B. countries C. girls D. regions
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. desert B. nature C. ocean D. agree
Question 4: A. politics B. algebra C.creation D. violent
correct answer for each of the blanks.
Question 5: Because vitamins contained in a wide variety of foods, people seldom lack most of them.
A B C D
Question 6: After flax is washed, dry, beaten, and combed, fibers are obtained for use in making fabric.
A B C D
Question 7: People in the word differ in his beliefs about the cause of sickness and health.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 8: When you _______him, give him my best wishes.
A.will visit B. would visit C. visit D. have visited
Question 9: I hope that your dream will one day _______true.
A.come B. be C. make D. get
Question 10: He spent a year in India and loves spicy food. _______ the food is, _______ he likes it.
A. The hotter / the more and more B. The hotter / the more
C. The more and more hot / the more D. The hottest / the most
Question 11: I can’t recall_______that old movie, but maybe I did many years ago.
A.having seen B. to have seen C. too see D. having been seen
Question 12: We _______ today and I got into trouble because I hadn't done it.
A. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked
C. have our homework checking D. had checked our homework
Question 13: _______a language family is a group of languages with a common origin and similar
vocabulary, grammar, and sound systems.
A.What linguists call B. It is called by linguists
C. Linguists call it D. What do linguists call
Question 14: We took _______of the fine weather an spent the day on the beach.
A.chance B. advantage C. occasion D. effect
Question 15: Scientists and engineers have invented devices to remove _________ from industrial
wastes
A. pollutions B. pollute C. polluting D. pollutants
Question 16: It _______ rains whenever I go out without my umbrella.
A. continually B. typically C. rapidly D. invariably
Question 17: He considers shares to be a good ___________ investment.
A. long-time B. long-term C. long-age D. long-run
Question 18: He is doing very badly but he tries to ___________ appearances.
45
A.hold on B. stick on C. keep up D. make out
Question 19: Please________ your cigarette. I am going to get choked
A. cut down B. blow out C. put aside D. put out
Question 20: Mary: “Congratulation on your new home! It’s wonderful.’’
Peter: “_____________”
A. you’re welcome B. Thank you C. It’s OK D. Really
Question 21: "Did you hear about the robbery the other day?" _______
A. Oh, no! B. Yes, it was great. C. No, what happened? D. Oh, sure. Thanks.
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I prefer to talk to people face to face rather than to talk on the phone.
A. in person B. facing them C. looking at them D. seeing them
Question 23: Moving to a new town brought about many changes in his life
A. prevented B. speeded up C. resulted in D. resulted from
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24: A ship called the Titanic sank after hitting an iceberg in the Atlantic Ocean.
A. drowned B. floated C. overflowed D. destroyed
Question 25: The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guess
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
Question 26: Without his help, we would all have died.
A.We died because he didn’t help us.
B. He did not help us, so we died.
C. If it hadn’t been for his help, we would all have died.
D. If he had helped us, we wouldn’t have died.
Question 27: “Why don’t you meet the manager to talk about these problems, Peter?” said Mary
A. Mary suggested Peter to meet the manager to talk about those problems.
B. Mary suggested that Peter to meet the manager to talk about those problems.
C. Mary suggested that Peter meets the manager to talk about those problems.
D. Mary suggested that Peter meet the manager to talk about those problems.
Question 28: It’s possible that the last person to leave didn’t lock the door.
A. The last person to leave left the door unlocked.
B. The last person to leave should have left the door unlocked.
C. The last person to leave must have left the door unlocked.
D. The last person to leave might have left the door unlocked.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that can combine a pair of
sentences in each of the following questions.
Question 29: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
D.Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 30: This is Mr Brown. His son won the first prize in the talent show last week.
A. This is Mr Brown, who son won the first prize in the talent show last week.
46
B. This is Mr Brown, whose son won the first prize in the talent show last week.
C. This is Mr Brown, whom his son won the first prize in the talent show last week.
D. This is Mr Brown, in the talent show last week whose son won the first prize
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
In Korea, in former days the marriage between a man and woman represented the joining of two
families, rather than the joining of two individuals. The event was often called Taerye (Great Ritual),
and people from all over the village or neighborhood participated. The ceremonies and events
surrounding the actual marriage were long and (31) _____. Professional matchmakers paired up likely
candidates for marriage, with the new couple often meeting for the first time at their wedding. The
families considered many factors in the decision, consulting with fortune tellers for predictions about
the couple's future life together. During the Chosun period, people married (32) _____ their early
teens, with the girl often being several years older than the boy.
The groom usually traveled to the house of the bride for the ceremony, then stayed there for three
days (33) _____ taking his new bride to his family's home. The actual ceremony involved many
small rituals, with many bows and symbolic gestures. The competitors were expected to control
their emotions and remain somber.
(34) _____ Koreans have kept several aspects of the traditional ceremony, most modern
ceremonies resemble Western marriage ceremonies more than traditional Korean ones. However,
many folk villages and museums across the country regularly perform ceremonies to (35) ______
the traditions alive.
Question 31: A. difficult B. unmeaningful C. short D.

elaborate
Question 32: A. in B. for C. on D.
from
Question 33: A. ago B. before C. then
D. soon
Question 34: A. If only B. As though C. As D. Although
Question 35: A. grip B. catch C. hold D. keep
We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed – ability teaching. On the contrary,
both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in
streaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can
have a bad effect on both the bright and the not – so – bright child. After all, it can be quite discouraging
to be at the bottom of the top grade!
Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only
one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the
full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that
mixed – ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning.
In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the
opportunity to learn to co – operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to
cope with personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and
evaluate, and to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers.
Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes they work on individual tasks and assignments,
and they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is
47
appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order
to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced work; it does not matter what age the child is.
We expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain
this goal.
Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed – ability class.
B. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work.
C. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different intellectual
abilities.
D. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full.
Question 37: Which of the following statements can best summarize the main idea of the passage?
A. Children, in general develop at different rates.
B. Bright children do benefit form mixed – class teaching.
C. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not – so – bright pupils.
D. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class.
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching abilities.
B. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others,
C. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers.
D. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability.
Question 39: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to__________.
A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities
B. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching
C. offer advice on the proper use of the school library
D. argue for teaching bright and not – so – bright pupils in the same class
Question 40: In the passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed – ability teaching” is_______
A. critical B. questioning C. approving D. objective
Question 41: The phrase “held back” in paragraph 1 means_________
A. forced to study in lower classes B. prevented from advancing
C. made to remain in the same classes D. made to lag behind
Question 42: According to the passage, “streaming pupil” ________.
A. is the act of putting pupils into classes according to their academic abilities
B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience
C. is quite discouraging
D. will help the pupils learn best
No one can calculate the quantity of solid waste that has been dumped in the world’s oceans, but
the total certainly exceeds many millions of tons. For example, from 1880 to 1895, 75 percent of the
solid waste from New York City was dumped untreated into the Atlantic Ocean. Although it is now
prohibited by law, the dumping of solid waste, including wastewater sludge, industrial waste, and high-
level radioactive waste were common in the United States until 1970. Cruise ships and huge floating
fishing factories still regularly dispose of their solid waste products directly into the ocean.
The earth naturally recycles water and refreshes the land in what is called the hydrological cycle.
The hydrological cycle not only renews the supply of water, but cleans it as well. The process begins as
heat from the sun causes sea water, 97 percent of the earth’s total water reserve, to evaporate and form
clouds. Because water evaporates at lower temperatures than most pollutants, the water vapor that rises
48
from the seas is relatively pure and free of the contaminants, which are left behind. Next, water returns
to us as rain, which drains into streams and rivers and rushes toward the sea.
Chemicals, petroleum products, and other dangerous substances such as radioactive materials
remain in the ocean, polluting it permanently. The polluted ocean water kills fish or makes them
dangerous to eat, posing health problems for those who consume them. It kills the tiny sea creatures that
are the source of food for larger fish, sharks, and whales. It also spoils a source of great beauty and
pleasure when some solid waste is thrown onto beaches during storms. Discharged petroleum products
are frequently found on beaches and they not only ruin the beach, the petroleum residue kills hundreds
of shore birds. Nonpoint pollutants are dumped into lakes, rivers, and streams that may be far away from
any ocean. However, these pollutants flow, eventually, into the oceans. They can come from a variety of
sources, from road salt to agricultural pesticides. One source of nonpoint pollution is runoff from
farming, including fertilizers, manure, and pesticides. Another source is industrial runoff, including
heavy metals, phosphorous, and many other chemicals. Urban runoff (oils, salts, various chemicals) and
atmospheric fallout of airborne pollution are other sources of nonpoint pollutants that reach the oceans.
This includes water and waste from sinks, toilets, washing machines and bathtubs. The problem with
this type of waste is that it provides massive amounts of nutrients for water plants such as algae, so that
they grow rapidly. This sudden growth causes concentration or algae blooms, which use up the oxygen
in the water. As the oxygen level of the water declines, many organisms suffer and die, and the ocean
ecosystem is radically altered. This can be prevented by the installation of waste treatment plants that
prevent waste from entering the sea, but such facilities do not exist in many poorer countries.
Question 43: What can be inferred about the waste dumped into the world’s oceans?
A. It’s mainly household waste B. Much of it was not treated
C. It is billions of tons D. It is primary industrial waste
Question 44: As can be inferred from the passage, which of the following was NOT disposed into the
ocean?
A. waste from dead plants B. waste from cruise ships
C. wastewater sludge D. radioactive waste
Question 45: Which of the following is NOT referred to as use of hydrological cycle?
A. refreshing the land B. separating water from used liquid
C. cleaning water D. renewing the water supply
Question 46: Which of the following has similar meaning to the word “contaminants” in the second
paragraph?
A. pollutants B. rushes C. sea water D. vapor
Question 47: What does the word “which” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. rain water B. the earth C. sea water D. water vaporizer
Question 48: Why are chemicals, petroleum products and radioactive materials mentioned in the
passage?
A. as untreated waste B. as industrial substances
C. as raw sewage D. as dangerous pollutants
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT an example of farming runoff?
A. manure B. pesticide C. road salt D. fertilizer
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. It is expensive to build waste treatment plants
B. developing countries do not need waste treatment plant yet
C. the environment of develop countries is more polluted than that of poor countries
D. the environment of industrial countries is more polluted than that of agricultural countries
49
KEY
1B 2A 3D 4C 5A 6B 7B 8C 9A 10B
11A 12B 13A 14B 15D 16D 17B 18C 19D 20B
21C 22A 23C 24B 25B 26C 27D 28D 29D 30B
31D 32A 33B 34D 35D 36C 37D 38A 39D 40C
41B 42A 43B 44A 45B 46A 47A 48B 49C 50A
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN

LÊ HỒNG PHONG
ĐỀ THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Môn: Tiếng Anh - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút.
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. catastrophe B. propose C. become D. survive
Question 2. A. appalled B. ragged C. designed D. injured
Question 3: A. compete B. finish C. expect D. invent
Question 4: A. develop B. attractive C. advertise D. construction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 5. The threat of being dismissed do not worry me any more because I have started my own
A B C D
business.
Question 6. The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star.
A B C D
Question 7. The judge asked the suspect to explain reason why he was present at the place of the crime .
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 8: To be admitted to a university, you will have to fill in the _______ form.
A. apply B. application C. applied D. applying
Question 9: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by ______ rocking chair.
A. a beautiful old European wooden B. an old beautiful wooden European
C. a wooden old beautiful European D. an old wooden European beautiful
Question 10: The climate of China is similar in many ways to ____________.
A. the United States B. which of the United States
C. that of the United states D. this of the United States
Question 11: Nowadays students would prefer history _________ in more practical ways.
A. to be teaching B. teach C. be taught D. to be taught
Question 12: I read the essay again and again ______ avoiding making spelling mistakes.
A. in view of B. with a view to C. by means of D. in terms of
Question 13. Such questions provide a useful means of _____________ students’ interest.
A. expressing B. encouraging C. stimulating D. providing
Question 14. We took part in a sponsored walk ______________ to support the poor.
A. organized B. organizing C. that organized D. had organized
50
Question 15. _______ in 1636, Harvard is one of the most famous universities in the United States.
A. Founding B. Founded C. Being founded D. It was founded
Question 16. Jane appears ________ some weight. Has she been ill?
A. having lost B. having been lost C. to have lost D. to have been lost
Question 17. Minh was the winner and he was _________ a set of CDs for studying English.
A. awarded B. announced C. welcomed D. responded
Question 18: _______ is the activity of doing special exercises regularly in order to make your muscles
grow bigger.
A. Wrestling B. Bodybuilding C. Weightlifting D. Badminton
Question 19. If she ______ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. hasn’t been B. wasn’t C. weren’t D. hadn’t been
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
Question 20: "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!" -"____________."
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. I like you to say that
C. Certainly. Do you like it, too? D. Yes, of course. It's expensive.
Question 21: “I have a terrible headache.” “………………”
A. Maybe I’m not going to the doctor’s. B. Not very well. Thanks
C. Maybe you should take a rest. D. Not bad. I’m not going to the doctor.
Question 22: New evidence proving Evans was innocent was uncovered at the eleventh hour.
A. just in time B. too late
C. at eleven o’clock D. at the eleventh hour of the day
Question 23: She's always moaning. It really gets on my nerves.
A. stretches my nerves B. makes my nerve stressful
C. annoys me D. make me angry
Question 24: "Don't be such a pessimist. I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!"
A. optimist B. feminist C. hobbyist D. activist
Question 25: "Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight. "
A. put forward B. look up C. slow down D. turn down
Question 26: The heavy downpour brought their picnic to an abrupt end.
A. Their picnic didn’t end in the heavy downpour.
B. The heavy downpour ended when they brought me to their picnic.
C. Their picnic ends abruptly because of the heavy downpour.
D. They had to cut short their picnic because of the heavy downpour.
Question 27: The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.
B. When the figures were re-checked they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
C. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.
D. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were checked.
Question 28: The reforms will not succeed unless they are carefully planned.
A. The reforms will succeed unless they are not carefully planned.
B. The reforms will not succeed provided that they are carefully planned.
C. Careful planning is crucial to the success of the reforms.
D. The success of the reforms result in careful planning.
51
Question 30: They wanted to apologize for their behaviour. That’s why they paid for the dinner.
A. They paid for the dinner after they apologized for their behaviour.
B. Their behaviour was so terrible that they had to pay for the dinner.
C. Being so disappointed at their behaviour, they wanted to pay for the dinner.
D. They paid for the dinner because they felt regretful about their behaviour.
correct word for each of the blanks from 31 to 35.
Some time ago, scientists began experiments to find out (31)_____ it would be possible to set up
a “village” under the sea. A special room was built and lowered into the water of Port Sudan in the Red
Sea. For 29 days, five men lived (32) ____ a depth of 40 feet. At a much lower level, another two divers
stayed for a week in a smaller “house”. On returning to the surface, the men said that they had
experienced no difficulty in breathing and had (33) _____ many interesting scientific observations. The
captain of the party, Commander Cousteau, spoke of the possibility of cultivating the seabed. He said
that some permanent stations were to be set up under the sea, and some undersea farms would provide
food for the growing population of the world.
The divers in both “houses” spent most of their time (34) _____ the bottom of the sea. On four
occasions, they went down to 360 feet and observed many extraordinary forms of the marine life, some
of which had never been seen before. During their stay, Commander Cousteau and his divers reached a
depth of 1,000 feet and witnessed a gathering of an immense (35)_____ of crabs which numbered,
perhaps, hundreds of millions. They also found out that it was possible to move rapidly in the water in a
special vessel known as a “diving saucer”.
Question 31. A. what B. which C. how D. whether
Question 32. A. at B. in C. on D. from
Question 33. A. exercised B. made C. caught D. done
Question 34. A. exploring B. enquiring C. inquiring D. imploring
Question 35. A. pack B. flock C. school D. herd
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of
time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in
the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory
storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to
the STM, also known as the working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most
accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can
remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of
information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that
one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information
together. By organizing information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory
being passed on to long term storage.
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many
people engage in “rote rehearsal”. By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a
memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no
52
interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear.
When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it
aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a
phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to
pass information from the short term to long term memory. A better way is to practice “elaborate
rehearsal”. This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed
along with other pre-existing long term memories.
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be
done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term
memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by
prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be
retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
Question 36: According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long term memory.
B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D. They enter via the nervous system.
Question 37: The word “elapses” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. passes B. adds up C. appears D. continues
Question 38: All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the
_________.
A. STM B. long term memory C. sensory storage area D. maintenance area
Question 39: Why does the author mention a dog’s bark?
A. To give an example of a type of memory
B. To provide a type of interruption
C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans
D. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell
Question 40: How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A. By organizing it B. By repeating it C. By giving it a name D. By drawing it
Question 41: The author believes that rote rotation is ________.
A. the best way to remember something C. ineffective in the long run
B. more efficient than chunking D. an unnecessary interruption
Question 42: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. encoding B. STM C. semantics D. information
Application for admission to the Graduate School at this university must be made on forms provided by
the Director of Admission. An applicant whose undergraduate work was done at another institution
should request that two copies of undergraduate transcripts and degrees be sent directly to the Dean of
the Graduate School. Both the application and the transcripts must be on file at least one month prior to
the registration date, and must be accompanied by a nonfundable ten-dollar check or money order to
cover the cost of processing the application.
Students who have already been admitted to the Graduate School but were not enrolled during
the previous semester should reapply for admission using a special short form available in the office of
the Graduate School. It is not necessary for students who have been denied admission to resubmit
transcripts; however, new application forms must accompany all requests for reconsideration.
Applications should be submitted at least eight weeks in advance of the section in which the student
wished to enroll. Students whose applications are received after the deadline may be considered for
admission as non-degree students, and may enroll for six credit hours. Non-degree status must be
changed prior to the completion of the first semester of study however.
53
An undergraduate student of this university who has senior status and is within ten credit hours
of completing all requirements for graduation may register for graduate work with the recommendation
of the chairperson of the department and the approval of the Dean of the Graduate School.
Question 43: What is the author's main point?
A. How to apply to the Graduate School. B. How to obtain senior status
C. How to register for graduate coursework D. How to make application for graduation.
Question 44: Where would this passage most probably be found?
A. In a university catalog B. In a travel folder
C. In a newspaper D. In a textbook
Question 45: According to this passage, where would a student secure application forms for admission
to the university?
A. From the chairperson of the department
B. From the Dean of the Graduate School
C. From the institution where the application work was done
D. From the Director of Admission
Question 46: Which of the following documents must be on file thirty days before the registration date?
A. Two copies of recommendation from former professors
B. A written approval of the Dean of the Graduate School.
C. One set of transcripts and an English proficiency score.
D. Two copies of undergraduate courses and grades, an application form, and an application fee.
Question 47: The author uses the word "nonfundable" in the first paragraph to refer to _________.
A. a process B. an application C. a check D. a date
Question 48: The phrase "in advance of" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. into B. on the other side C. after the end of D. prior to
Question 49: The author makes all of the following observations about non-degree students EXCEPT
____
A. they may be admitted after deadline
B. they may enroll for six credit hours
C. they must change their status during the first semester
D. they need not submit transcripts
Question 50: The word 'status" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. information B. classification C. payment D. agreement
THE END
54
ĐÁP ÁN THI THỬ TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017
Môn: Tiếng Anh - Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút.
Question 1. A. catastrophe B. propose C. become D. survive
Question 2. A. appalled B. ragged C. designed D. injured
Question 3: A. compete B. finish C. expect D. invent
Question 4: A. develop B. attractive C. advertise D. construction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 5. The threat of being dismissed do not worry me any more because I have started my own
A B C D
business.
Question 6. The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star.
A B C D
Question 7. The judge asked the suspect to explain reason why he was present at the place of the
crime . A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 8: To be admitted to a university, you will have to fill in the _______ form.
A. apply B. application C. applied D. applying
Question 9: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by ______ rocking chair.
A. a beautiful old European wooden B. an old beautiful wooden European
C. a wooden old beautiful European D. an old wooden European beautiful
Question 10: The climate of China is similar in many ways to ____________.
A. the United States B. which of the United States
C. that of the United states D. this of the United States
Question 11: Nowadays students would prefer history _________ in more practical ways.
A. to be teaching B. teach C. be taught D. to be taught
Question 12: I read the essay again and again ______ avoiding making spelling mistakes.
A. in view of B. with a view to C. by means of D. in terms of
Question 13. Such questions provide a useful means of _____________ students’ interest.
A. expressing B. encouraging C. stimulating D. providing
Question 14. We took part in a sponsored walk ______________ to support the poor.
A. organized B. organizing C. that organized D. had organized
Question 15. _______ in 1636, Harvard is one of the most famous universities in the United States.
A. Founding B. Founded C. Being founded D. It was founded
Question 16. Jane appears ________ some weight. Has she been ill?
A. having lost B. having been lost C. to have lost D. to have been lost
Question 17. Minh was the winner and he was _________ a set of CDs for studying English.
A. awarded B. announced C. welcomed D. responded
Question 18: _______ is the activity of doing special exercises regularly in order to make your muscles
grow bigger.
A. Wrestling B. Bodybuilding C. Weightlifting D. Badminton
Question 19. If she ______ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. hasn’t been B. wasn’t C. weren’t D. hadn’t been
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
55
Question 20: "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!" -"____________."
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. I like you to say that
C. Certainly. Do you like it, too? D. Yes, of course. It's expensive.
Question 21: “I have a terrible headache.” “………………”
A. Maybe I’m not going to the doctor’s. B. Not very well. Thanks
C. Maybe you should take a rest. D. Not bad. I’m not going to the doctor.
Question 22: New evidence proving Evans was innocent was uncovered at the eleventh hour.
A. just in time B. too late
C. at eleven o’clock D. at the eleventh hour of the day
Question 23: She's always moaning. It really gets on my nerves.
A. stretches my nerves B. makes my nerve stressful
C. annoys me D. make me angry
Question 24: "Don't be such a pessimist. I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!"
A. optimist B. feminist C. hobbyist D. activist
Question 25: "Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight. "
A. put forward B. look up C. slow down D. turn down
Question 26: The heavy downpour brought their picnic to an abrupt end.
A. Their picnic didn’t end in the heavy downpour.
B. The heavy downpour ended when they brought me to their picnic.
C. Their picnic ends abruptly because of the heavy downpour.
D. They had to cut short their picnic because of the heavy downpour.
Question 27: The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.
A. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.
B. When the figures were re-checked they came to light the mistake in the accounts.
C. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.
D. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were checked.
Question 28: The reforms will not succeed unless they are carefully planned.
A. The reforms will succeed unless they are not carefully planned.
B. The reforms will not succeed provided that they are carefully planned.
C. Careful planning is crucial to the success of the reforms.
D. The success of the reforms result in careful planning.
Question 30: They wanted to apologize for their behaviour. That’s why they paid for the dinner.
A. They paid for the dinner after they apologized for their behaviour.
B. Their behaviour was so terrible that they had to pay for the dinner.
C. Being so disappointed at their behaviour, they wanted to pay for the dinner.
D. They paid for the dinner because they felt regretful about their behaviour.
56
correct word for each of the blanks from 31 to 35.
Some time ago, scientists began experiments to find out (31)_____ it would be possible to set up
a “village” under the sea. A special room was built and lowered into the water of Port Sudan in the Red
Sea. For 29 days, five men lived (32) ____ a depth of 40 feet. At a much lower level, another two divers
stayed for a week in a smaller “house”. On returning to the surface, the men said that they had
experienced no difficulty in breathing and had (33) _____ many interesting scientific observations. The
captain of the party, Commander Cousteau, spoke of the possibility of cultivating the seabed. He said
that some permanent stations were to be set up under the sea, and some undersea farms would provide
food for the growing population of the world.
The divers in both “houses” spent most of their time (34) _____ the bottom of the sea. On four
occasions, they went down to 360 feet and observed many extraordinary forms of the marine life, some
of which had never been seen before. During their stay, Commander Cousteau and his divers reached a
depth of 1,000 feet and witnessed a gathering of an immense (35)_____ of crabs which numbered,
perhaps, hundreds of millions. They also found out that it was possible to move rapidly in the water in a
special vessel known as a “diving saucer”.
Question 31. A. what B. which C. how D. whether
Question 32. A. at B. in C. on D. from
Question 33. A. exercised B. made C. caught D. done
Question 34. A. exploring B. enquiring C. inquiring D. imploring
Question 35. A. pack B. flock C. school D. herd
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of
time elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in
the first place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory
storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to
the STM, also known as the working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most
accepted theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can
remember approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of
information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that
one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information
together. By organizing information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory
being passed on to long term storage.
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many
people engage in “rote rehearsal”. By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a
memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no
interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear.
When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it
aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a
phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to
pass information from the short term to long term memory. A better way is to practice “elaborate
rehearsal”. This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed
along with other pre-existing long term memories.
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be
done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term
memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by
prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be
retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
57
Question 36: According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long term memory.
B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D. They enter via the nervous system.
Question 37: The word “elapses” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. passes B. adds up C. appears D. continues
Question 38: All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the
_________.
A. STM B. long term memory C. sensory storage area D. maintenance area
Question 39: Why does the author mention a dog’s bark?
A. To give an example of a type of memory
B. To provide a type of interruption
C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans
D. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell
Question 40: How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A. By organizing it B. By repeating it C. By giving it a name D. By drawing it
Question 41: The author believes that rote rotation is ________.
A. the best way to remember something C. ineffective in the long run
B. more efficient than chunking D. an unnecessary interruption
Question 42: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. encoding B. STM C. semantics D. information
Application for admission to the Graduate School at this university must be made on forms provided by
the Director of Admission. An applicant whose undergraduate work was done at another institution
should request that two copies of undergraduate transcripts and degrees be sent directly to the Dean of
the Graduate School. Both the application and the transcripts must be on file at least one month prior to
the registration date, and must be accompanied by a nonfundable ten-dollar check or money order to
cover the cost of processing the application.
Students who have already been admitted to the Graduate School but were not enrolled during
the previous semester should reapply for admission using a special short form available in the office of
the Graduate School. It is not necessary for students who have been denied admission to resubmit
transcripts; however, new application forms must accompany all requests for reconsideration.
Applications should be submitted at least eight weeks in advance of the section in which the student
wished to enroll. Students whose applications are received after the deadline may be considered for
admission as non-degree students, and may enroll for six credit hours. Non-degree status must be
changed prior to the completion of the first semester of study however.
An undergraduate student of this university who has senior status and is within ten credit hours
of completing all requirements for graduation may register for graduate work with the recommendation
of the chairperson of the department and the approval of the Dean of the Graduate School.
Question 43: What is the author's main point?
A. How to apply to the Graduate School. B. How to obtain senior status
C. How to register for graduate coursework D. How to make application for graduation.
Question 44: Where would this passage most probably be found?
A. In a university catalog B. In a travel folder
C. In a newspaper D. In a textbook
Question 45: According to this passage, where would a student secure application forms for admission
to the university?
A. From the chairperson of the department
58
B. From the Dean of the Graduate School
C. From the institution where the application work was done
D. From the Director of Admission
Question 46: Which of the following documents must be on file thirty days before the registration date?
A. Two copies of recommendation from former professors
D. Two copies of undergraduate courses and grades, an application form, and an
application fee.
Question 47: The author uses the word "nonfundable" in the first paragraph to refer to _________.
A. a process B. an application C. a check D. a date
Question 48: The phrase "in advance of" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. into B. on the other side C. after the end of D. prior to
Question 49: The author makes all of the following observations about non-degree students EXCEPT
____
A. they may be admitted after deadline
B. they may enroll for six credit hours
D. they need not submit transcripts
Question 50: The word 'status" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. informationB. classification C. payment D. agreement
THE END
ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017

Bài thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài ; 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề.
Question 1: A. pleasure B. sleep C. people D. keep
Question 2: A. opened B. played C. proved D. regarded
Question 3: A. apply B. visit C. appear D. attend
Question 4: A. intervention B. necessary C. intellectual D. productivity
Question 5: The professor together with his three students have been called to court.
A B C D
Question 6: Williams not only took three showers a day and washed his clothes twice.
A B C D
Question 7: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
59
Question 8: By the age of ten, Helen _______ Braille as well as the manual alphabet and even learned
to use the typewriter
A. mastered B. has mastered C. had mastered D. was mastering
Question 9: Allison was ______ first person to arrive at the party.
A. a B. the C. Ø D. an
Question 10: My neighbor is driving me mad! It seems that _____ it is at night, _____ he plays his
music!
A. the less / the more loud B. the less / less
Question 11. Benald wanted to know ______
A. where I had been those days B. where had I been those days
C. where I had been those day D. where I have been those days
Question 12. Mr. Pike ____________the most famous archaeologist in our city.
A. says to be B. is said to be C. is said that D. said to be
Question 13: He tried his best and finally he _______ to persuade all club members.
A. defeated B. succeeded C. won D.managed
Question 14: Some experienced firefighters and rangers say that in late Autumn, forests may easily
_____ fire.
A. become B. catch C. turn D. get
Question 15: A: “Are you interested in scuba diving?” - B: “A lot. Undersea life is _____.”
A. fascinating B. fascinate C. fascinates D. fascinated
Question 16. Without ___ all the resources necessary for life would be damaged, wasted or destroyed.
A. destruction B. conversation C. extinction D. biodiversity
Question 17. Unlike football, a water polo game is ___ into quarters.
A. played B. divided C. separated D.cut
Question 18. Johnny sometimes _______ his grandparents in the countryside.
A. calls on B. keeps off C. takes in D. goes up
Question 19. They decided to _______ their journey till the end of the month because of the epidemic.
A. take up B. turn round C. put off D. do with
each of the following exchange.
Question 20: Two friends Mary and Anna are talking about Mary’s new hair
- Anna: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary! “
- Mary: “___________.”
A. Thank you very much. I am afraid B. You are telling a lie
C. Thank you for your compliment D. I don't like your sayings
Question 21: Harry is talking to Kate before going to the cinema.
- Harry: “Are you ready, Kate? There’s not much time left.”
- Kate: “Yes, just a minute. ________!”
A. No longer B. I’m coming C. I’d be OK D. I won’t finish
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
Question 22: Books are a primary means for dissemination of knowledge and information.
A. attempt B. distribution C. invention D. variety
Question 23: The teacher wrote that my essay contained too much superfluous information.
A. major B. modest C. problematic D. unnecessary
60
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 24: For those living along the coast, one unusual phenomenon capable of catastrophic
destruction is the tsunami.
A. harmless B. disastrous C. terrific D. wonderful
Question 25: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.
A. publicly said B. openly criticized
C. publicly supported D. strongly condemned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 26: We narrowly avoided an accident with a coach by managing to stop quickly.
A. If the coach hadn't stopped so suddenly, we wouldn't have had the accident.
B. The gap we had left between us and the coach was too narrow to avoid an accident.
C. It was such a narrow road that we nearly had an accident with a coach.
D. We would have had a collision with a coach if we hadn't come to a stop so swiftly
Question 27: “You're always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
Question 28. It was a mistake of you to lose your passport.

A. You shouldn't have lost your passport. B. There must be a mistake in your passport.
C. You needn't have brought your passport. D. Your passport must be lost.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combine each
Question 29. David drove so fast. It was very dangerous.

A. David drove so fast, which was very dangerous.
B. David drove so fast and was very dangerous.
C. David drove so fast, then was very dangerous.
D. David drove so fast that was very dangerous.
Question 30: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
B. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice.
D. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Most people think of computers as very modern inventions, products of our new technological
age. But actually the idea for a computer had been worked out over two centuries ago by a man
___(1)___ Charles Babbage. Babbage was born in 1791 and grew up to be a brilliant mathematician. He
drew up plans for several calculating machines which he called "engines". But despite the fact that he
___(2)___ building some of these, he never finished any of them. Over the years people have argued
___(3)___ his machines would ever work. Recently, however, the Science Museum in London has
finished building ___(4)___ engine based on one of Babbage's designs. ___(5)___ has taken six years to
complete and more than four thousand parts have been specially made.
61
Whether it works or not, the machine will be on show at a special exhibition in the Science
Museum to remind people of Babbage's work.
Question 31: A. called B. known C. written D. recognized
Question 32: A. missed B. started C. made D. wanted
Question 33: A. until B. why C. whether D. though
Question 34: A. the B. a C. an D. some
Question 35: A. It B. He C. One D. They
Elizabeth Blackwell was born in England in 1821 and emigrated to New York City when she
was ten years old. One day she decided that she wanted to become a doctor. That was nearly impossible
for a women in the middle of the nineteenth century. After writing many letters seeking admission to
medical schools, she was finally accepted by a doctor in Philadelphia. So determined was she that she
taught school and gave music lessons to earn money for her tuition.
In 1849, after graduation from medical school, she decided to further her education in Paris. She
wanted to be a surgeon, but a serious eye infection forced her to abandon the idea.
Upon returning to the United States, she found it difficult to start her own practice because she
was a woman. By 1857, Elizabeth and her sister, also a doctor, along with another female doctor,
managed to open a new hospital, the first for women and children. Besides being the first female
physician in the United States and founding her own hospital, she also established the fisrt medical
school for women.
( Adapted from “ Toefl preparation guide ” by Michael A. pyle, M.A. and Mary Ellen
Munoz Page, M.A.)
Question 36: Which of following best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Elizabeth Blackwell overcame serious obstacles to become the fisrt woman doctor in the United
States.
B. Elizabeth Blackwell had to abandon her plans to become a doctor because of an eye infection.
C. Elizabeth Blackwell even taught music to pay for her medical studies.
D. Elizabeth Blackwell founded the first medical school for women.
Question 37: Why couldn’t Elizabeth Blackwell realize her dream of becoming a surgeon?
A. She couldn’t get admitted to medical school.
B. She decided to further her education in Paris.
C. A serious eye infection halted her quest.
D. It was difficult for her to start a practice in the United States.
Question 38: What main obstacle almost destroyed Elizabeth’s chances for becoming a doctor”
A. She was a woman.
B. She wrote too many letters.
C. She couldn’t graduate from medical school.
D. She couldn’t establish her hospital.
Question 39: All of the following are “firsts” in the life of Elizabeth Blackwell EXCEPT
A. She became the first female physician in the United States.
B. She was the first woman surgeon in the United States.
C. She and several other women founded the first hospital for women and children.
D. She established the first medical school for women.
Question 40: How old was Elizabeth Blackwell when she graduated from medical school?
A. 10 B. 21 C. 28 D. 36
Question 41: The word “ abandon ” in line 7 is closest in meaning to
A. Undertake B. give up C. continue D. look into
Question 42: Why was it nearly impossible for Elizabeth Blackwell to get into medical school?
A. She had a serious eye infection.
62
B. She had a little or no money to pay tuition.
C. She wanted to be part of a profession that no woman had ever entered before.
D. Her family didn’t want her to be a doctor.
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made
enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat.
Some reseach has shown that perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and fourty
percent of cancer is related to the diet as well, especialy cancer of the colon. People of different cultures
are more prone to contract certain illnesses because of the characteristic foods they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized
that nitrates and nitrites ( commonly used to preserve color in meat ) as well as other food additives
caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all
the time to know which ingredients on the packaging labels of processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry,
and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows. Sometimes similar drugs are
administered to animals not for medicinal purposes, but for fiancial reasons. The farmers are simply
trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug
Administration ( FDA ) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances
we ingest. Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these
substances to food without our knowledge.
( Adapted from “ Toefl preparation guide ” by Michael A. pyle, M.A. and Mary Ellen Munoz
Page, M.A.)
Question 43: How has science done a disservice to people?
A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.
B. It has caused a lack of information concerning the value of food.
C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our
food.
D. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables.
Question 44: The word “ prone” in line 4 probably means___________
A. Supine B. unlikely C. healthy D. predisposed
Question 45: What are nitrates used for?
A. They preserve flavor in packaged foods.
B. They preserve the color of meats.
C. They are the objects of research.
D. They cause the animals to become fatter.
Question 46: FDA means___________
A. Food Direct Additives
B. Final Difficult Analysis
C. Food and Drug Administration
D. Federal Dairy Additives
Question 47: The word “ These” in line 8 refers to___________
A. Meats B. colors C. researchers D. nitrates and nitrites
Question 48: In line 8, the word “ carcinogenic” can be best replaced by______________
A. Trouble-making B. color-retaining C. money-making D. cancer-causing
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons.
63
B. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living
animals.
C. Researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than forty-five
years.
D. Food many cause forty percent of the cancer in the world.
Question 50: In line 2, the word “ fit” is closest meaning to___________
A. Athletic B. suitable C. tasty D. adaptable
THE END
SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO NAM ĐỊNH ĐỀ THI THỬ

THPTQG NĂM 2017
TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN Môn: Tiếng Anh
(Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)
(Đề thi gồm 4 trang)
ĐỀ
ĐỀ NGHỊ
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
(C) Question 1: A. supposed B. promised C. raised
D. posed
(K) Question 2: A. chores B. teacher C. school D.
chopsticks
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs
from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
(K) Question 3: A. enjoy B. science C. knowledge D.
sudden
(K) Question 4: A. independence B. education C. interview D.
entertainment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
(C) Question 5: Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our
large, industrial cities today.
A B C D
(C)Question 6: It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before
attempting to pass the exam
A B
C D
(K) Question 7: Some fishes live at enormous depths that they are almost complete blind.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
(K)Question 8: Since I ………… a child, I have liked to solve maths puzzles.
64
A. am B. was C. have been D. had
been
(C) Question 9: My friend’s uncle has been ……………. MP (Member of Parliament) for
five years.
A. a B. an C. the D. ϴ
(C) Question 10: The girl ……………….. is my neighbor.
A. talks to the lady over there B. is talking to the lady over there
C. was talking to the lady over there D. talking to the lady over there
(A) Question 11: …………….., he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. Although tired B. In spite tiredness C. Despite tired D. No
matter how tired
(K) Question 12: I am not capable of finishing this project alone, ……………?
A. are I B. aren’t I C. am I D. am not I
(K) Question 13: Gestures such as waving and handshaking are ……….. forms of
communication.
A. direct B. regular C. verbal D. non-verbal
(K) Question 14: Please complete the ………….. form and return it to us.
A. application B. applicant C. applicable D. applying
(C)Question 15: Whenever something goes wrong, everyone ………. it on me.
A. blames B. charges C. insists D. accuses
(C) Question 16: A/ An……….. species is a species which is likely to become extinct.
A. protected B. endangered C. dangerous D.
vulnerable
(A) Question 17: ‘Who wrote the poem?’ – ‘It is said ………… written by one of the
Bronte sisters.’
A. to be B. to being C. to have been D. to having been
(C) Question 18: When it started to snow, he …………… his overcoat.
A. turned over B. got in C. took off D. put on
(A) Question 19: It’s no good pretending; you’ve got to ……………. reality.
A. get down to B. bargain for C. come up against D. face up to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable
response to complete each of the following sentences.
(K) Question 20: Two friends Jack and Jean are talking about Jean’s coat.
- Jack: ‘Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!’
- Jean: ‘………………….’
A. Certainly. Do you like it, too? B. I like you to say that
C. Yes, of course. It’s expensive D. Thanks. My mother bought it for
me
(K) Question 21: John and Mary are talking to each other about what they are going to eat.
- John: ‘Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti, or something different?’
- Mary: ‘……………………………’
A. I’m afraid not B. Anything will do C. Never mind D. Yes, please
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
(C) Question 22: Animals are being rapidly eliminated by man’s ever increasing
encroachment.
A. terrified B. destroyed C. attacked D. approached
(A) Question 23: I was working for a trucking company and the owner wanted me to do
extra work on top of my job as a mechanic.
A. including B. next to C. except for D. in addition to
65
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
(C) Question 24: For a decade, Brazilai has studied centenarians, looking for genes that
contribute to longevity.
A. who are vegetarians B. who want to be fruitarians
C. who are extraordinary D. who live to be less than 100
(A) Question 25 To be honest, I go to the museums once in a blue moon.
A. very often B. seldom C. from time to time D. once in
a while
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is
closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
(HA) Question 26: No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back.
A. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone.
B. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back.
C. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately.
D. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back.
(A) Question 27: Whenever she went to Paris, she bought a new dress.
A. She never went to Paris to buy a new dress.
B. She never went to Paris without buying a new dress.
C. She never bought a new dress without going to Paris.
D. She never bought a new dress when she went to Paris.
(HA) Question 28: If he had studied harder, he would have passed his exams.
A. He studied hard and passed his exams. B. He failed to pass the exam though he
studied hard.
C. He failed his exam since he refused to study hard. D. He needed to study harder and
passed the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
(A) Question 29: She was very kind. She lent me some money.
A. It was very kind for her to lend me some money. B. She was very kind of lending
me some money.
C. It was very kind of her to lend me some money. D. She was kind enough in
lending me some money.
(A) Question 30: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the
window.
A. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
B. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people want to be fashionable, but they don’t
want to look exactly (31) ……….. everybody else. Not all clothes are suitable for work or school,
perhaps because they are not (32) ………… enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the
wrong size, and find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a little bit overweight. Very
(33) ……….. clothes make you feel slim, but when they have shrunk in the washing machine, then
you have the same problem! If you buy light cotton clothes, they might not be (34) ….. enough for
winter. If your shoes are not waterproof, and if you aren’t (35) ….. for the cold, you might look
good, but feel terrible.
66
(C) Question 31: A. alike B. like C. similar D.
same
(C) Question 32: A. formal B. strict C. uniform
D. suited
(A) Question 33: A. lose B. lost C. loose D.
loosened
(K) Question 34: A. warm B. cold C. hot
D. cool
(C) Question 35: A. worn B. clothed C. dressed D.
fitted
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Most people go to a doctor in their town or suburbs. But people in the Australian
outback can’t get a doctor quickly. The nearest doctor is sometimes hundreds of kilometers away so
they have to call him on a two-way radio. This special doctor is called the ‘flying doctor’. He visits
sick people by plane for a special examination.
When someone is sick, the doctor has to fly to the person’s home. His plane lands on a
flat piece of ground near the person’s house. Sometimes the doctor has to take the patient to hospital.
Flying doctors take about 8,600 people to hospital each year.
However, most of the time the person isn’t very sick, and the doctor doesn’t have to
visit. He can give advice on the radio from the office at the flying doctor center. He can tell the
patient to use some medicine from a special medicine chest. There is one of these chests in every
home in the outback. Each bottle, tube and packet in the chest has a number. The doctor often says
something like this, ‘Take two tablets from bottle number 5 every four hours.’
A man called John Lynn started the Royal Flying Doctor service in 1927. He had only
one plane. Today there are 14 flying –doctor centers, 29 planes, 14 full-time doctors and several
part-time doctors, nurses and dentists.
(K) Question 36: The flying doctors mentioned in this article treat their parents
………………
A. in clinics B. by old methods C. over great distances D. by
telepathy
(C) Question 37: Which happens first?
A. The doctor flies to the sick person’s home.
B. The sick person or his family calls the doctor on a two-way.
C. The plane lands near the patient’s house.
D. The doctor treats the sick person on a two-way radio.
(A) Question 38: From the article, we can assume that Australia has quite number of
…………….
A. remote areas B. good highways C. mountainous regions D. strange
animals
(A) Question 39: The doctor can treat the sick person by radio from his office when the
patient …………..
A. has a special medicine chest B. has got a two-way radio
C. is not very sick D. feels very tired
(C) Question 40: ………….. of the doctors at the center work full-time.
A. All B. Some C. None D. Most
(A) Question 41: The word ‘outback’ mostly means …………….
A. a large field of the Aborigines B. an isolated island
C. a vast and remote area D. a far-off forest
67
(HA) Question 42: The writer of this passage shows a/an ………. attitude to the flying-
doctor service.
A. critical B. supportive C. curious D. indifferent
indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Application for admission to the Graduate School at this university must be made on forms
provided by the Director of Admission. An applicant whose undergraduate work was done at
another institution should request that two copies of undergraduate transcripts and degrees be sent
directly to the Dean of the Graduate School. Both the application and the transcripts must be on file
at least one month prior to the registration date, and must be accompanied by a nonrefundable ten-
dollar check or money order to cover the cost of processing the application.
Students who have already been admitted to the Graduate School but were not enrolled
during the previous semester should reapply for admission using a special short form available in the
office of the Graduate School. It is not necessary fot students who have previously been denied
admission to resubmit transcipts; however, new applilcation forms must accompany all requests for
reconsideration. Applications should be submitted at leat eight weeks in advance of the session in
which the student wishes to enroll. Students whose applications are received after the deadline may
be considered for admission as non-degree students, and may enroll for six credit hours. Non-degree
status must be changed prior to the completion of the first semester of study however.
An undergraduate student of this university who has senior status and is within ten credit
hours of completing all requirements for graduation may register for graduate work with the
reccommendation of the chairperson of the department and the approval of the Dean of the Graduate
School.
(HA) Question 43: What is the author’s main point?
A. How to apply the Graduate School. B. How to obtain senior status.
C. How to register for graduate coursework. D. How to make application for
graduation.
(A) Question 44: Where would this passage mostly probably be found?
A. In a university catalog. B. In a travel book. C. In a newspaper. D. In a textbook.
(A) Question 45: According to the passage, where would a student secure application forms
for admission to the university?
A. From the chairperson of the department. B. From the Dean of the Graduate
School.
C. From the Institution where the undergraduate work was done. D. From the Director of
Admission.
(C) Question 46: Which of the following documents must be on file thirty days before the
registration date?
A. Two copies of recommendation from former professors.
D. Two copies of undergraduate courses and graduates, an application form, and an
application fee.
(HA) Question 47: The phrase in advance of’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning
to ..............
A. into B. on either side of C. after the end of D. prior to
(A) Question 48: The author makes all of the following observations about non-degree
students EXCEPT................
A. they may be admitted after the deadline. B. They may enroll for six credit hours.
D. they need not submit transcripts.
68
(C) Question 49: Students who have already been admitted to the Graduate School .............
A. never need to apply for readmission
B. must reapply if they have not been registered at the university during the previous
semester.
C. must reapply every semester
D. must reapply when they are within ten credit hours of graduation
(C) Question 50: What special rule applies to undergraduate students?
A. They may not register for graduate work.
B. They must pass an examination in order to register for gradudate work.
C. They may receive special permission to register for graduate work.
D. They may register for graduate work at any time.
******** THE END********
SỞ GD- ĐT NAM ĐỊNH ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT THI THPT

TRƯỜNG THPT Ý YÊN Năm học 2016- 2017
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word

whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
Question 1:A. proofs B. books C. points D. days
Question 2:A. invited B. attended C. celebrated D. displayed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
Question 3:A. begin B. visit C. consist D. include
Question 4:A. industryB. injection C. influence D. introduce
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the

underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: It took me a very long time to recover off the shock of her death
A B C D
Question 6: Tom said that he had seen John the day before but John didn’t see
him
A B C D
69
Question 7: He apologized with me for arriving late.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: Working for 12 hours a day ________ her very tired.
A. makes B. made C. make D. making
Question 9 : It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species'
declines and habitat _______ and degradation are the leading threats.
a. destroy b. destructive c. destructor d.

destruction
Question 10: We’ve nearly run …….money.We’ve got very little left.
A. out of B. off C. away of D.

out with
Question 11: Jamie prefers working at home _________ working in an office.
A. more B. that C. than D. to
Question 12 : __________ had he entered the office than he realized that he

had left his wallet at home.
A. Hardly B. Scarcely C. No sooner D. Not only
Question 13: . ……………..by your father?
A. Did that book write B . Did that book written
C. Was that book written D. Was that book be writing
Question 14: He keeps working …………….. feeling unwell.
A. although B. because of C. because D. in

spite of
Question 15: The man …………….part in the robbery refused to give any
information.
A. taken B. taking C. to take D. who take
70
Question 16: Our English lessons are becoming---------------------------------
A. difficult and difficult B. the more difficult
C. more difficult and more difficult D. more and more difficult
Question 17: The salary of a bus worker is much higher ……..teacher.
A. than a B. than that of a C. comparing to the D. in

comparison with the
Question 18: There was ..................... accident yesterday at ................... corner

of .................... street.
A. a/ the/ the B. an/ a/ a C. an/ the/ the D. the/
X/ X
Question 19: You_____________use this chemical without gloves . It will burn
your skin
A. don’t have to B. mustn’t C. needn’t D. must
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most

suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: David: “ You’ve got a beautiful dress!” Helen: “ …………. . ”
A. I do B. Thanks for your compliment
C. You too D. OK
Question 21: Mary: “ I’ve got an interview for a job tomorrow.” – Peter: “
………..”
A. Thank you B. Same to you C. Good luck D. See you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)

CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 22: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the
interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. be related to B. be interested inC. pay all attention to D. express

interest to
Question 23: Let's wait here for her; I'm sure she'll turn up before long.
71
A. arrive B. return C.enter D. visit

OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 24: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be

smart
Question 25: Solar energy is not only plentiful but also infinite.
A. without limit B. boundless C. limited D.

indefinite
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence

that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: He started working as a teacher five years ago.
A. He has been working as a teacher for five years.
B. He has worked as a teacher since five years.
C. He is working as a teacher since five years.
D. He had been working as a teacher for five years
Question 27: Tom is going to Mary’s birthday and I’m, too.
A. Tom is going to Mary’s birthday, but I’m not.
B. Neither Tom nor I am going to Mary’s birthday.
C. Either Tom or I am going to Mary’s birthday.
D. Both Tom and I are going to Mary’s birthday
Question 28: '' Where did you go last night''? she said to her boyfriend.
A. She asked her boyfriend where did he go last night.
B. She asked her boyfriend where he went the night before.
C. She asked her boyfriend where had he gone the night before.
72
D. She asked her boyfriend where he had gone the night before.

that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Question 30 : Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very
well.
A. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.
B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.
C. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.
D. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your

answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of
the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The 23rd Southeast Asian Games (also known as the 2005 SEA Games) was a
biannual multi-sport event held in the Philippines from November 27, 2005 to
December 5, 2005. The games were (31) _____ by 11 countries locating in
Southeast Asia.
The first gold (32) ____ of the games was awarded to Singapore on
November 25th when the Water Polo team came out unbeaten in the round-robin
tournaments, with the Philippine team taking the (33) _____ medal and the
Malaysian team taking the bronze.
The Games were also considered both a spectacular event and a valuable
chance for athletes to gain competition experience and preparation (34)____ the
upcoming Asian Games and Olympic Games. It was purposed created to (35)
73
___ friendship, solidarity and understanding among neighboring countries in the
region.
Question 31: A. participating B. participated C. participation D. to

participate
Question 32: A. prize B. award C. medal D. present
Question 33: A. diamond B. metal C. wood D.

silver
Question 34: A. to B. of C. for

D. about
Question 35: A. strong B. strengthen C. strength

D. to strengthen

answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from
36 to 42.
Historically parents have played a major role in choosing marriage partners for their children, and the
custom continues in the world’s developing countries today. Parental influence is greatest when the parents have
a large stake in whom their child marries. Traditionally, marriage has been regarded as an alliance between two
families, rather than just between the two individuals. Aristocratic families could enhance their wealth or acquire
royal titles through a child’s marriage. Marriage was also used as a way of sealing peace between former
enemies, whether they were kings or feuding villagers.
The most extreme form of parental influence is an arranged marriage in which the bride and groom have
no say at all. For instance, in traditional Chinese practice, the bride and groom meet for the first time on their
wedding day. In some upper-caste Hindu marriages, children are betrothed at a very young age and have no
voice in the decision. In a less extreme form of arranged marriage, parents may do the matchmaking, but the
young people can veto the choice. Some small cultures scattered around the world have what social scientists
call preferential marriage. In this system, the bride or groom is supposed to marry a particular kind of person—for
example, a cousin on the mother’s or father’s side of the family.
In many traditional societies, marriage typically involved transfers of property from the parents to their
marrying children or from one set of parents to the other. These customs persist in some places today and are
part of the tradition of arranged marriages. For example, in some cultures the bride’s parents may give property
(known as a dowry) to the new couple. The practice of giving dowries has been common in countries such as
Greece, Egypt, India, and China from ancient times until the present. It was also typical in European societies in
the past. Although the giving of dowries has been part of the norms of marriage in these cultures, often only
those people with property could afford to give a dowry to the young couple.
Families use dowries to attract a son-in-law with desirable qualities, such as a particularly bright man from a
poor but respectable family or a man with higher status but with less money than the bride’s family has. In
societies in which the giving of dowries is customary, families with many daughters can become impoverished by
the costs of marriage. For this reason, in Europe in earlier times some families sent “extra” daughters to
convents. In India and China, where it is expected that every woman will marry, families have sometimes tried to
limit the number of daughters born to them
74
Question 36.Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Bride and Groom in Early Marriages B. Marriages in Ancient China
C. Arranging Marriages by Historical Parents D. Marriages in Traditional Societies
Question 37. According to paragraph 1, marriage is traditionally considered
A. an agreement between two families B. a concession of parents to their child
C. love between the bride and groom D. an agreement between the bride and groom
Question 38.The word “feuding” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ………. .
A. criticizing B. negotiating C. quarrelling D. discussing
Question 39. The phrase “have no voice” in paragraph 2 mostly means………….. .
A. cannot speak aloud B. have no right to express one’s opinion
C. have a serious sore-throat D. have lost one’s voice
Question 40. The word “persist” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to…………...
A. refuse to stay B. continue to exist C. fail to exist D. go on insisting
Question 41. According to the passage, Indian and Chinese families have sometimes tried to limit the number of
daughters born to them because they ……….
A. do not want to be impoverished by the costs of marriage
B. do not want to send their daughters to convents
C. need their sons-in-law to enhance their wealth
D. it is difficult to find their daughters suitable husbands
Question 42. Which of following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Marriage was also used as a way of sealing peace between former enemies.
B. In some upper- caste Hindu marriages, children are betrothed at a very young age.
C. In some cultures the bride’s parents may give property to the new couple.
D. Families use dowries to attract a daughter- in- law with desirable qualities.
43 to 50.
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as
an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to
thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and
move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your
life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by
assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings
that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with
children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you
know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which
ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not,
there are diversity occupations – building inspector, supervisor, and real estate agent – that involve a great deal of
time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields in
concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand,
many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country.
If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as
insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your
experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative
associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not.
Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less
obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly
75
paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and
skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one.
Question 43. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
Question 44. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ____
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change
over time.
Question 45. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not
want to live in a big city ?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
Question 46. It can be inferred from the paragraph 4 that
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
Question 47. The word “that” in paragraph 5 refers to
A. occupation B. the traveling life C. a flight attendant D. commission
Question 48. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 5?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
Question 49. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
Question 50. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
SỞ GD- ĐT NAM ĐỊNH ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT THI THPT

TRƯỜNG THPT Ý YÊN Năm học 2016- 2017
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word

whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
Question 1:A. proofs B. books C. points D. days
Question 2:A. invited B. attended C. celebrated D. displayed
76
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the
Question 3:A. begin B. visit C. consist D. include
Question 4:A. industryB. injection C. influence D. introduce
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the

underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: It took me a very long time to recover off the shock of her death
A B C D
Question 6: Tom said that he had seen John the day before but John didn’t see
him
A B C D
Question 7: He apologized with me for arriving late.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: Working for 12 hours a day ________ her very tired.
A. makes B. made C. make D. making
Question 9 : It is reported that humans are the main reason for most species'
declines and habitat _______ and degradation are the leading threats.
a. destroy b. destructive c. destructor d.

destruction
Question 10: We’ve nearly run …….money.We’ve got very little left.
A. out of B. off C. away of D.

out with
Question 11: Jamie prefers working at home _________ working in an office.
A. more B. that C. than D. to
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Question 12 : __________ had he entered the office than he realized that he
had left his wallet at home.
A. Hardly B. Scarcely C. No sooner D. Not only
Question 13: . ……………..by your father?
A. Did that book write B . Did that book written
C. Was that book written D. Was that book be writing
Question 14: He keeps working …………….. feeling unwell.
A. although B. because of C. because D. in

spite of
Question 15: The man …………….part in the robbery refused to give any
information.
A. taken B. taking C. to take D. who take
Question 16: Our English lessons are becoming---------------------------------
A. difficult and difficult B. the more difficult
C. more difficult and more difficult D. more and more difficult
Question 17: The salary of a bus worker is much higher ……..teacher.
A. than a B. than that of a C. comparing to the D. in

comparison with the
Question 18: There was ..................... accident yesterday at ................... corner

of .................... street.
A. a/ the/ the B. an/ a/ a C. an/ the/ the D. the/
X/ X
Question 19: You_____________use this chemical without gloves . It will burn
your skin
A. don’t have to B. mustn’t C. needn’t D. must
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most

suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: David: “ You’ve got a beautiful dress!” Helen: “ …………. . ”
78
A. I do B. Thanks for your compliment
C. You too D. OK
Question 21: Mary: “ I’ve got an interview for a job tomorrow.” – Peter: “
………..”
A. Thank you B. Same to you C. Good luck D. See you

CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 22: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the
interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. be related to B. be interested inC. pay all attention to D. express

interest to
Question 23: Let's wait here for her; I'm sure she'll turn up before long.
A. arrive B. return C.enter D. visit

OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 24: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be optimistic B. be pessimistic C. be confident D. be

smart
Question 25: Solar energy is not only plentiful but also infinite.
A. without limit B. boundless C. limited D.

indefinite

that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: He started working as a teacher five years ago.
A. He has been working as a teacher for five years.
B. He has worked as a teacher since five years.
79
C. He is working as a teacher since five years.
D. He had been working as a teacher for five years
Question 27: Tom is going to Mary’s birthday and I’m, too.
A. Tom is going to Mary’s birthday, but I’m not.
B. Neither Tom nor I am going to Mary’s birthday.
C. Either Tom or I am going to Mary’s birthday.
D. Both Tom and I are going to Mary’s birthday
Question 28: '' Where did you go last night''? she said to her boyfriend.
A. She asked her boyfriend where did he go last night.
B. She asked her boyfriend where he went the night before.
C. She asked her boyfriend where had he gone the night before.
D. She asked her boyfriend where he had gone the night before.

that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Question 30 : Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very
well.
A. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well.
B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions.
C. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions.
D. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well.
80
answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of
the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The 23rd Southeast Asian Games (also known as the 2005 SEA Games) was a
biannual multi-sport event held in the Philippines from November 27, 2005 to
December 5, 2005. The games were (31) _____ by 11 countries locating in
Southeast Asia.
The first gold (32) ____ of the games was awarded to Singapore on
November 25th when the Water Polo team came out unbeaten in the round-robin
tournaments, with the Philippine team taking the (33) _____ medal and the
Malaysian team taking the bronze.
The Games were also considered both a spectacular event and a valuable
chance for athletes to gain competition experience and preparation (34)____ the
upcoming Asian Games and Olympic Games. It was purposed created to (35)
___ friendship, solidarity and understanding among neighboring countries in the
region.
Question 31: A. participating B. participated C. participation D. to

participate
Question 32: A. prize B. award C. medal D. present
Question 33: A. diamond B. metal C. wood D.

silver
Question 34: A. to B. of C. for

D. about
Question 35: A. strong B. strengthen C. strength

D. to strengthen

36 to 42.
Historically parents have played a major role in choosing marriage partners for their children, and the
custom continues in the world’s developing countries today. Parental influence is greatest when the parents have
a large stake in whom their child marries. Traditionally, marriage has been regarded as an alliance between two
families, rather than just between the two individuals. Aristocratic families could enhance their wealth or acquire
81
royal titles through a child’s marriage. Marriage was also used as a way of sealing peace between former
enemies, whether they were kings or feuding villagers.
The most extreme form of parental influence is an arranged marriage in which the bride and groom have
no say at all. For instance, in traditional Chinese practice, the bride and groom meet for the first time on their
wedding day. In some upper-caste Hindu marriages, children are betrothed at a very young age and have no
voice in the decision. In a less extreme form of arranged marriage, parents may do the matchmaking, but the
young people can veto the choice. Some small cultures scattered around the world have what social scientists
call preferential marriage. In this system, the bride or groom is supposed to marry a particular kind of person—for
example, a cousin on the mother’s or father’s side of the family.
In many traditional societies, marriage typically involved transfers of property from the parents to their
marrying children or from one set of parents to the other. These customs persist in some places today and are
part of the tradition of arranged marriages. For example, in some cultures the bride’s parents may give property
(known as a dowry) to the new couple. The practice of giving dowries has been common in countries such as
Greece, Egypt, India, and China from ancient times until the present. It was also typical in European societies in
the past. Although the giving of dowries has been part of the norms of marriage in these cultures, often only
those people with property could afford to give a dowry to the young couple.
Families use dowries to attract a son-in-law with desirable qualities, such as a particularly bright man from a
poor but respectable family or a man with higher status but with less money than the bride’s family has. In
societies in which the giving of dowries is customary, families with many daughters can become impoverished by
the costs of marriage. For this reason, in Europe in earlier times some families sent “extra” daughters to
convents. In India and China, where it is expected that every woman will marry, families have sometimes tried to
limit the number of daughters born to them
Question 36.Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Bride and Groom in Early Marriages B. Marriages in Ancient China
C. Arranging Marriages by Historical Parents D. Marriages in Traditional Societies
Question 37. According to paragraph 1, marriage is traditionally considered
A. an agreement between two families B. a concession of parents to their child
C. love between the bride and groom D. an agreement between the bride and groom
Question 38.The word “feuding” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ………. .
A. criticizing B. negotiating C. quarrelling D. discussing
Question 39. The phrase “have no voice” in paragraph 2 mostly means………….. .
A. cannot speak aloud B. have no right to express one’s opinion
C. have a serious sore-throat D. have lost one’s voice
Question 40. The word “persist” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to…………...
A. refuse to stay B. continue to exist C. fail to exist D. go on insisting
Question 41. According to the passage, Indian and Chinese families have sometimes tried to limit the number of
daughters born to them because they ……….
A. do not want to be impoverished by the costs of marriage
B. do not want to send their daughters to convents
C. need their sons-in-law to enhance their wealth
D. it is difficult to find their daughters suitable husbands
Question 42. Which of following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Marriage was also used as a way of sealing peace between former enemies.
B. In some upper- caste Hindu marriages, children are betrothed at a very young age.
C. In some cultures the bride’s parents may give property to the new couple.
D. Families use dowries to attract a daughter- in- law with desirable qualities.
43 to 50.
82
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as
an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to
thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and
move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your
life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by
assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings
that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do you want to work with
children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or wrong answers; only you
know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which
ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not,
there are diversity occupations – building inspector, supervisor, and real estate agent – that involve a great deal of
time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields in
concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand,
many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country.
If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as
insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your
experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative
associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not.
Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less
obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly
paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and
skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one.
Question 43. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
Question 44. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to ____
A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change
over time.
Question 45. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not
want to live in a big city ?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
Question 46. It can be inferred from the paragraph 4 that
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid.
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career.
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion.
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career.
Question 47. The word “that” in paragraph 5 refers to
A. occupation B. the traveling life C. a flight attendant D. commission
Question 48. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 5?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
Question 49. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future.
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling.
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully.
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future.
83
Question 50. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NAM ĐỊNH
TRƯỜNG THPT XUÂN TRƯỜNG C ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút ( không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi gồm 04 trang
Họ và tên:.................................................................................
Số báo danh:............................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. visits B. speaks C. speeds D. dates
Question 2: A. initiate B. maintain C. install D. reunite
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the
main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. deforestation B. compulsory C. iltellectual D. philosopher
Question 4: A. diverse B. neglect C. acquire D. rival
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 5: It is time the government helped the unemployment to find some jobs.
A B C D
Question 6: Earthworms belong to the family of segmented worms whose body is dividing into a series of
A B C D
segments.
Question 7: Mostly medical doctors have had some training in psychology and psychiatry.
A B C D
Read the following sentences and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase for each of the blanks.
Question 8: I’m _____________ from 6 am till midnight.
A. on duty B. on work C. in duty D. for work
Question 9: Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t………….as usual.
A. ring off B. get off C. go off D. take off
Question 10: The harder you try, _____________ .
A. the most you achieve B. you achieve the more
C. the more you achieve D. the better achieve you have
Question 11: Preparing for a job interview can be very _____ .
A. stress B. stressful C. stressed D. stressing
Question 12: It was so foggy that the climbers couldn’t _____ the nearby shelter.
A. break out B. make out C. take out D. run out
Question 13: My wife has her hair ______ at the hairdresser’s every other month.
A. done B. to do C. do D. doing
Question 14: I ______ a more interesting film than the one I saw last night.
A. have never seen B. had never seen C. never saw D. have never been seeing
Question 15: Could you tell me _____?
A. what is the weather like today B. what the weather is like today
84
C. what is the weather today D. what the weather is today
Question 16: Final year students ____________ attend lectures. It’s optional.
A. mustn’t B. don’t have to C. shouldn’t D. ought to
Question 17: The polar bear’s ___________ depends on its ability to catch fish.
A. survival B. survive C. surviving D. Survivor
Question 18: _________ advised on what and how to prepare for the interview, he might have got the job.
A. If he had B. Unless he had been C. If he had been D. If he hadn’t been
Question 19: _______ is the existence of a wide variety of plant and animal species living in their natural environment. .
A. Biodiversity B. Conservation C. Globe D. Individual
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
exchanges.
Question 20: Cindy met Mary at a birthday party.
- Cindy: "Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!" - Mary: "______"
A. Yes, all right. B. Thanks, Cindy. I had it done yesterday.
C. Never mention it. D. Thanks, but I'm afraid.
Question 21: John has to go out but it is raining heavily.
John: “Can I borrow your umbrella for a while, Peter?” Peter: “________”
A. With pleasure B. Ready C. Welcome D. Yes, I can
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions
Question 22: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of the crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Question 23: 3. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Training for the Olympics requires an enormous amount of work: athletes who want to compete must work
extremely hard.
A. very large B. small C. unusual D. very common
Question 25: I feel under the weather today. I’m tired and I don’t want to do anything.
A. sick B. happy C. sad D. healthy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 26: I took Jim to the zoo so that he could see the puma.
A. Because Jim saw the puma, I took him to the zoo.
B. Although I took Jim to the zoo, he could see the puma.
C. Taking Jim to the zoo, Jim could see the puma.
D. Jim was taken to the zoo in order to see the puma.
Question 27: After many years of hard work, he retired.
A. After he has worked hard for many years, he retired.
B. After he had worked hard for many years, he retired.
C. After he worked hard for many years, he retired.
D. After he retired, he had worked hard for many years.
Question 28: The doctor advised Mr. Pike to take up a new hobby.
A. The doctor said, "A new hobby is not good for Mr. Pike."
B. The doctor wanted Mr. Pike not to have any new hobby.
C. The doctor said, "You should start a new hobby, Mr. Pike."
D. The doctor said to Mr. Pike, "You should stop your present hobby."
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each of sentences in the
Question 29: Bill said something at the meeting. It offended all the workers.
A. Whatever Bill said at the meeting offended all the workers.
B. What Bill said at the meeting offended all the workers.
C. Bill said what at the meeting offended all the workers.
D. Bill said at the meeting something and offended all the workers.
85
Question 30: These citizens are very poor. Therefore, they rely mostly on wildlife products for their livelihood.
A. Because their living conditions poor, these people rely mostly on wildlife products for their livelihood .
B. Because they are poor living conditions, these people rely mostly on wildlife products for their livelihood .
C. Because their living conditions are poor, these people rely mostly on wildlife products for their livelihood .
D. Because their living conditions was poor, these people rely mostly on wildlife products for their livelihood .
Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they need for such everyday (31)
………… as reading a newspaper or managing their money. It also give them the specialized training they may need to
prepare for a job or career. For example, a person must meet certain educational requirements and obtain a license or
certificate before he can practice laws or medicine. Many fields such as computer operation (32)………. police work; require
satisfactory completion of special training courses
Education is also important because it helps people get more out of life. It increases their knowledge and understanding of
the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and enjoyable such as the skills needed (33)……..
in a sport, paint a picture or play a musical instrument. Such education becomes increasingly important as people gain more
leisure time.
Education also helps people adjust to change. This has become (34)………. because social changes today take place with
increasing speed and affect the lives of more and more people .Education can help a person understand these changes and
provide him (35)………. the skills for adjusting to them.
Question 31: A. action B. activities C. jobs D. works
Question 32: A. or B. or else C. otherwise D. because of
Question 33: A. participate B. take part in C. to participate D. to take part in
Question 34: A. critical B. primary C. necessary D. major
Question 35: A. to B. for C. in D. with
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 36 to 42.
For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back to an empty house. Some deal
with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all of them have something in common. They spend part of each day
alone. They are called “latchkey children”. They are children who look after themselves while their parents work. And their
bad condition has become a subject of concern.
Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, “We had a school rule against wearing
jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached. I was constantly telling them to put the keys inside
shirts. There were so many keys; it never came to my mind what they meant.” Slowly, she learned that they were house keys.
She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect working couples and
single parents were having on their children. Fear was the biggest problem faced by children at home alone. One in three
latchkey children the Longs talked to reported being frightened. Many had nightmares and were worried about their own
safety.
The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They may hide in a shower stall, under a
bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume up. It’s hard to get statistics on latchkey children, the Longs
have learned. Most parents are slow to admit that they leave their children alone.
Question 36: The phrase “an empty house” in the passage mostly means ………
A. a house with nothing inside B. a house with no people inside
C. a house with too much space D. a house with no furniture
Question 37: One thing that the children in the passage share is that ………
A. they all watch TV B. they all wear jewelry
C. they spend part of each day alone D. they are from single- parent families
Question 38: The phrase “latchkey children” in the passage means children who …………
A. look after themselves while their parents are not at home
B. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves
C. are locked inside houses with latches and keys
D. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere
Question 39: The main problem of latchkey children is that they ……..
A. watch too much television during the day
B. are growing in numbers
C. suffer a lot from being left alone
D. are also found in middle- class families
86
Question 40: Why did a lot of kids have chains around their necks with keys attached?
A. Schools didn’t allow them to wear jewelry, so they wore keys instead.
B. They would use the keys to enter their houses when they came home.
C. They were fully grown and had become independent.
D. They had to use the keys to open school doors.
Question 41: Lynette Long learned of latchkey children’s problems by……….
A. talking to them B. visiting their homes
C. interviewing their parents D. delivering questionnaires
Question 42: What is the most common way for latchkey children to deal with fears?
A. Talking to the Longs B. Hiding somewhere
C. Lying under a TV D. Having a shower
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 43 to 50.
Women in Britain are better off today than they used to be. At the beginning of the 19 th century, women seem to have
almost no rights at all. They could not vote, or even sign a contract. Their marriages were arranged by their parents. They
were once kept at home and if they were allowed to work, they were never given responsible jobs. It is strange to think that,
as far as we know, most women were happy with that situation.
Today the position is quite different. Women now can vote and choose their own husbands. In 1970, a law was passed to give
them an equal share of property in the case of divorce, and in the same year the Equal Pay Act gave them the right to get
equal payment with men for work of equal value.
Despite these changes, there is no doubt that there are still great differences in status between men and women. Many
employers seem to ignore the Equal Pay Act. It is also more difficult for a woman to get promotion than a man does.
There is sex distinction in England although it has not been as serious as it was. More and more women go out to work, earn
more money, get high positions in the society, and live independently. However, there are two great problems to solve. The
first problem is men's attitude. They always think that women are lower in rank and are the weaker sex. We do not know
exactly how long it will take them to change their mind. And the other problem which is much more difficult is women's
attitude. They should be ready to struggle to change their fate.
Question 43: At the beginning of the 19th century, British women ______.
A. seemed to have almost no rights at all B. had the right to choose their husbands
C. were better off than today D. had the right to vote
Question 44: The word “They” in the first paragraph refers to ______.
A. women’s marriages B. women’s children
C. British women D. women’s rights
Question 45: The word “responsible” in the first paragraph can best be replaced with ______.
A. interesting B. important C. boring D. careful
Question 46: Which of the followings is TRUE about women’s position today?
A. It is the same as in the past. B. It is quite different from the past.
C. It is worse than the past. D. It is a bit better than the past
Question 47: The Equal Pay Act was passed in ______.
A. 1960 B. 1970 C. 1971 D. 1962
Question 48 : The word “doubt” in the third paragraph can best be replaced with ______.
A. equality B. evidence C. mistake D. disbelief
Question 49: What, according to the reading passage, is men's attitude?
A. They consider women to be equal to them. B. They consider women the stronger sex.
C. They always look up women. D. They consider women the weaker sex.
Question 50: What should women do to eliminate sex distinction?
A. They should suffer with pleasure.
B. They should struggle to change their fate.
C. They should change men’s mind.
D. They should earn more money.
THE END.
87
Câu Đáp Câu Đáp Câu Đáp Câu Đáp Câu Đáp
án án án án án
1 C 11 B 21 A 31 B 41 A
2 A 12 B 22 C 32 A 42 B
3 A 13 A 23 D 33 C 43 A
4 D 14 A 24 B 34 C 44 C
5 C 15 B 25 D 35 D 45 B
6 C 16 B 26 D 36 B 46 B
7 A 17 A 27 B 37 C 47 B
8 A 18 C 28 C 38 A 48 D
9 C 19 A 29 A 39 C 49 A
10 C 20 B 30 C 40 B 50 A
88

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO NAM ĐỊNH ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔNTIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT A HẢI HẬU NĂM HỌC: 2016 – 2017

PART B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR

Trang 1/5 – Mã đề thi 01

Trang 2/5 – Mã đề thi 01

Trang 3/5 – Mã đề thi 01

************************************************** The end ***********************************************************

Trang 5/5 – Mã đề thi 01

Trang 6/5 – Mã đề thi 01

Trang 7/5 – Mã đề thi 01

SỞ GD-ĐT NAM ĐỊNH ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA 2017

Trang 8/5 – Mã đề thi 01

Trang 9/5 – Mã đề thi 01

Trang 10/5 – Mã đề thi

Trang 11/5 – Mã đề thi

SỞ GD&ĐT NAM ĐINH ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA

(Đề gồm 06 trang) MÔN TIẾNG ANH 12

Trang 14/5 – Mã đề thi

Trang 15/5 – Mã đề thi

Trang 16/5 – Mã đề thi

---------- THE END----------

Trang 17/5 – Mã đề thi

- Nội dung: Kiểm tra cấu trúc song song

Question 10. _______, we tried our best to complete it.

- Nội dung: Kiểm tra cấu trúc câu bị động

Trang 19/5 – Mã đề thi

Trang 20/5 – Mã đề thi

Trang 21/5 – Mã đề thi

Trang 22/5 – Mã đề thi

Trang 24/5 – Mã đề thi

Trang 25/5 – Mã đề thi

Parents’ ambition for their children is not wrong if they ______.

Trang 26/5 – Mã đề thi

Trang 27/5 – Mã đề thi

Họ, tên thí sinh: .......................................................................

Trang 29/5 – Mã đề thi

Question31: A. from B.during C. since D. ago

DAI AN HIGH SCHOOL

BIỂU ĐIỂM VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

STT ĐÁP ÁN STT ĐÁP ÁN

Question 31: A. difficult B. unmeaningful C. short D.

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN

ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017

Question 28. It was a mistake of you to lose your passport.

Question 29. David drove so fast. It was very dangerous.

SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO NAM ĐỊNH ĐỀ THI THỬ

SỞ GD- ĐT NAM ĐỊNH ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT THI THPT

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word

Question 2:A. invited B. attended C. celebrated D. displayed

Question 4:A. industryB. injection C. influence D. introduce

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

A. makes B. made C. make D. making

a. destroy b. destructive c. destructor d.

A. out of B. off C. away of D.

Question 11: Jamie prefers working at home _________ working in an office.

A. more B. that C. than D. to

Question 12 : __________ had he entered the office than he realized that he

A. Hardly B. Scarcely C. No sooner D. Not only

Question 13: . ……………..by your father?

A. Did that book write B . Did that book written

C. Was that book written D. Was that book be writing

Question 14: He keeps working …………….. feeling unwell.

The end *********