NURSEZONE REVIEW CENTER NURSING

06/05/10 NURSING PRACTICE II

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING AND CARE OF THE MOTHER AND CHILD
SITUATION: Nurse Macarena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently attends to FAMILY
PLANNING CLIENTS AND INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions pertain to meeting the nursing needs of this
particular population group.
1. Daphne, 19 years old, asks nurse Macarena how pregnancy can be prevented through tubal ligation. Which
would be the best answer?
a. prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes will lead to permanent closure of the vagina
b. sperm cannot enter the uterus because the cervical entrance is blocked
c. sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fallopian tubes are blocked
d. the ovary no longer releases ova as there is no where for them to go
2. The Dators are a couple undergoing testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when:
a. woman has no uterus
b. a woman has no children
c. a couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year
d. a couple has wanted a child for 6 months
3. Another client named Cindy is diagnosed as having endometriosis. This condition interferes with fertility because:
a.endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes
b.the uterine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen
c. the endometrial lining becomes inflamed leading to narrowing of the cervix
d.the inflammation of the endometrium causes release of substance P which kills the sperm
4. Cindy submits herself to Fatima Medical Center and is scheduled to have a hysterosalpingogram. Which of the
following instructions would you give her regarding this procedure?
a. menstruation will be irregular for few months as an effect of the dye but it is just normal
b. the sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors present
c. the woman may experience some itchiness in the vagina as an after effect
d. cramping may be felt when the dye is inserted
5. Cindy’s cousin on the other hand, knowing Nurse Macarena’s specialization asks what artificial insemination by donor
entails. Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse Macarena?
a. donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus of cervix
b. donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into each ovary
c. artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal patency
d. the husband’s sperm is administered intravenously weekly

SITUATION: Nurse Dee-Lan was a graduate of Our Lady of Fatima University. He started working as a nurse just right
after he passed and topped the board exam. She was assigned to take care of a group of patients across the lifespan.
6. Pain in geriatric clients require careful assessment because they:
a. experienced reduced sensory perception
b. have increased sensory perception
c. are expected to experience chronic pain
d. have increased pain sensitivity
7. Administration of aminoglycosides to the older persons requires careful patient assessment because older people:
a. are more sensitive to drugs
b. have increased hepatic, renal and gastrointestinal function
c. have increased sensory perception
d. mobilize drugs morer rapidly
8. Elder clients are often at risk of having impaired skin integrity. One factor is that they often experience urinary
incontinence. The elderly patient is at higher risk for urinary incontinence because of:
a. increased glomerular filtration c. decreased bladder capacity
b. decreased elasticity of blood vessels d. dilated urethra
9. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON sign of infection among the elderly?
a. decrease breath sounds with crackles c. pain
b. increase body temperature d. restlessness, confusion,
irritability
10. Prioritization is important to test a nurse’s good judgement towards different situations. Priorities when caring for the
elderly trauma patient:
a. circulation, airway, breathing c. airway, breathing, disability
(neurologic)
b. disability (neurologic), airway, breathing d. airway, breathing, circulation
11. The nurse assessing newborn babies and infants during their hospital stay after birth will notice which of the following
symptoms as a primary manifestation of Achalasia?
a. olive shaped mass on abdomen
b. failure to pass meconium during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth
c. the skin turns yellow and then brown over the first 48 hours of life
d. effortless and non-projective vomiting
12. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just been diagnosed as having a partial placenta previa. She is stable and has
minimal spotting and is being sent home. Which of these instructions to the client may indicate a need for further
teaching?
a. maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges c. call if contractions occur
b. avoid intercourse for three days d. stay on left side as much as possible
when lying down
13. Ms. Anna, a review assistant of the greatest nursing review center in the Philippines has been rushed to the hospital
with ruptured membrane. Which of the following should the nurse check first?
a. check the presence of infection c. check the maternal heart rate

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b. assess for prolapse of the umbilical cord d. assess the color of the amniotic
fluid
14. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing a plastic-coated diaper. If a topical medication was to be prescribed and it
was to go on the stomach or buttocks, the nurse would teach the caregivers to:
a. avoid covering the area of the topical medication with the diaper
b. avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper
c. put the diaper on as usual
d. apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside of the diaper
15. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the success of relationship used in delivering nursing
care?
a. type of illness of the client c. effective communication
b. transference and counter-transference d. personality of the participants
16. Grace sustained a laceration on her leg from automobile accident. Why lacerations of lower extremities are potentially
more serious among pregnant women than other?
a. lacerations can provoke allergic response due to gonadotropic hormone release
b. a woman is less able to keep the laceration clean because of her fatigue
c. healing is limited during pregnancy so these will not heal until after birth
d. increase bleeding can occur from uterine pressure on leg veins
17. You are the nurse assigned to work with a child with acute glomerulonephritis. By following the prescribed treatment
regimen, the child experiences a remission. You are now checking to make sure that the child does not have a
relapse. Which finding would most lead you to the conclusion that a relapse is happening?
a. elevated temperature, cough, sore throat, changing complete blood count (CBC) with
differential
b. a urine dipstick measurement of 2+ proteinuria or more for 3 days, of the child found to
have 3-4+ proteinuria plus edema
c. the urine dipstick showing glucose in the urine for 3 days, extreme thirst, increase in urine
output, and a moon face
d. temperature of 37.8 degrees (100 degrees F), flank pain, burning frequency, urgency on
voiding and cloudy urine
18. The painful phenomenon knows as “black labor” occurs in a client whose fetus is in what position?
a. brow position c. breech position
b. right occipito-anterior position d. left occipito-posterior position

SITUATION: With the increasing documented cases of CANCER the best alternative to treatment still remains to the
PREVENTION. The following condition applies.
19. Which of the following is the primary focus of prevention of cancer?
a. elimination of conditions causing cancer c. treatment at early stage
b. diagnosis and treatment d. early detection
20. In the prevention and control of cancer, which of the following activities is the most important function of the
community health nurse?
a. conduct community assembles
b. referral to cancer specialist those clients with symptoms of cancer
c. use the nine warning signs of cancer as parameters of our process of detection, control and
treatment modalities
d. teach woman about proper/ correct nutrition
21. Who among the following are recipients of the secondary level of care for cancer cases?
a. those under early case detection c. those scheduled for surgery
b. those under post care treatment d. those under going treatment
22. Who among the following are recipients of the tertiary level of care for cancer cases?
a. those under early treatment c. those under early detection
b. those under supportive care d. those scheduled for surgery
23. Being a community health nurse, you have the responsibility of participating in protecting the health of the people.
Consider this situation: vendors selling bread with their bare hands. What should you say/ do?
a. “Miss, may I get the bread myself because you have not washed your hands”
b. All of these
c. “Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps/ bread tong”
d. “Miss, your hands are dirty. Wash your hands first before getting the bread”

SITUATION: The following questions refer to common clinical encounters experienced by an entry level nurse.
24. A female client asks the nurse about the use of cervical cap. Which statement is correct regarding the use of the
cervical cap?
a. it may affect Pap smear results c. it does not require the use of
spermicide
b. it does not need to fitted by the Physician d. it must be removed within 24 hours
25. The major components of the communication process are:
a. verbal, written and nonverbal
b. speaker, listener, and reply
c. facial expression, tone of voice and gestures
d. message, sender, channel, receiver and feedback
26. The school nurse notices a child who is wearing old, dirty, poor-fitting clothes, is always hungry, has no lunch money,
and is always tired. When the nurse asks the boy his tiredness, he talks of playing outside until midnight. The nurse
will suspect that this child is:
a. Being raised by a parent of low intelligence quotient (IQ)
b. an orphan
c. a victim of child neglect
d. the victim of poverty

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SITUATION: Mike, 16 years old has been diagnosed to have AIDS; he worked as an entertainer in a cruise ship;
27. Which method of transmission is common to contact AIDS?
a. syringe and needles c. sexual contract
b. body fluids d. transfusion
28. Causative organism in AIDS is one of the following:
a. fungus c. retrovirus
b. bacteria d. parasites
29. You are assigned in a private room of Mike. Which procedure should be of outmost importance;
a. alcohol wash c. washing isolation
b. universal precaution d. gloving technique
30. What primary health teaching would you give to Mike:
a. daily exercise c. reverse isolation
b. prevent infection d. proper nutrition
31. Exercise precaution must be taken to protect health worker dealing with the AIDS patients. Which among these must
be done as priority?
a. boil used syringe and needles c. label personal belonging
b. use gloves when handling specimen d. avoid accidental wound

SITUATION: Michelle is a 6 year old preschooler. She was reported by her mother to have measles but she is at home.
32. Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning Red, the rash appears on the skin in invasive stage prior to eruption behind the
ears. As a nurse, your physical examination must determine complication especially:
a. otitis media c. inflammatory conjunctiva
b. bronchial pneumonia d. membranous laryngitis
33. To render comfort measure is one of the priorities. This includes care of the skin, eyes, ears, mouth and nose. To
clean the mouth, your antiseptic solution in some form of which one below?
a. water c. alkaline
b. sulfur d. salt
34. As a public health nurse, you teach mother and family members the prevention of complication of measles. Which of
the following should be closely watched?
a. temperature fails to stop c. inflammation of the
nasopharynx
b. inflammation of the conjunctiva d. ulcerative stomatitis
35. Source of infection of measles is secretion of nose and throat of infected person. Filterable virus of measles is
transmitted by:
a. water supply c. food
digestion
b. droplet d. sexual contact
36. Method of prevention is to avoid exposure to an infected person. Nursing responsibility for rehabilitation of patient
includes the provision of:
a. terminal disinfection c. immunization
b. injection of gamma globulin d. comfort measures

SITUATION: Sexually transmitted diseases are important to identify during pregnancy because of potential effect on the
pregnancy, fetus or newborn. The following questions pertain to STDs.
37. Ms. Frankierosaurus is promiscuous woman in Manila submits herself to the clinic of certain examinations. She is
experiencing Based on your learnings vaginal irritation, redness and a thick cream cheese vaginal discharge. As a
nurse, you will suspect that Ms. Frankierosaurus is having what disease?
a. Gardnerella vaginalis c. Treponema
pallidum
b. Candida albicans d. Morillasis
38. As a knowledgeable nurse, you know that the doctor may prescribe a certain medications for Ms. Frankierosaurus.
What is the drug of choice for Frankierosaurus’ infection?
a. Haloperidol c. Benzanthine
penicillin
b. Cotrimazole d. Monillasis
39. You know that the causative agent of Frankierosaurus’ infection is:
a. Monistat candida c. Albopictus
candidiasis
b. Candida albicans d. Monistat candidiasis
40. The microorganism that causes Frankierosaurus’ infection is a:
a. Bacteria c. fungus
b. protozoa d. virus
41. Another client in the Maternal Clinic was Ms. Celbong. Her doctor examined Ms. Celbong’s vaginal secretions and
found out that she has Trichomoniasis infection. Trichomoniasis is diagnosed through which of the following method?
a. vaginal secretions are examined on a wet slide that has been treated
with potassium hydroxide
b. vaginal speculum is used to obtain secretions from the cervix
c. a litmus paper is used to test is the vaginal secretions are infected with
trichomoniasis
d. vaginal secretions are examined on a wet slide treated with zephiram
solution
42. Daphne who is on her first trimester of pregnancy is also with Trichomoniasis. You know that the drug of choice for
Daphne is:
a. Flagyl c. Monistat
b. Clotrimazole d. Zovirax

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43. Syphilis is another infection that may impose risk during pregnancy. Since we are under the practice of health
science, you know that syphilis is caused by:
a. Treponema syphilis c. Chlamydia
trachomatis
b. Neisseria gonorrheae d. Treponema
pallidum
44. What type of microorganism is the causative agent of syphilis?
a. spirochete c. bacteria
b. fungus d. protozoan
45. Under the second level of prevention, you know that one of the focuses of care is the screening of disease. What is
the screening test of syphilis?
a. VDRL c. PSA
b. Western blot d. ELISA
46. Jasrisch-Herxheimer reaction may be experienced by the client with syphilis after therapy with benzathine penicillin G.
The characteristic manifestation of Jasrisch-Herxheimer reaction are:
a. rashes, itchiness, hives and pruritus
b. confusion, drowsiness and numbness of extremities
c. sudden episode of hypotension, fever, tachycardia, and muscle aches
d. episodes of nausea and vomiting, with bradypnea and bradycardia
47. A pregnant woman is in the clinic for consultation with regards to STDs. She inquiries about venereal warts and asks
you about its specific lesion appearance. Which of the following is your correct response to the client?
a. Why are you asking about it? You might be a prostitute woman.
b. True lesion appear as cauliflower like lesions
c. It appears as pinpoint vesicles surrounded by erythema
d. The lesions can possibly obstruct the birth canal
48. Based on your past learnings in communicable diseases, you know that the causative agent of venereal warts is:
a. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Human papilloma
b. Candida moniliasis d. Staphylococcus
aureus
49. As a nurse in charge for this woman, you anticipate that the doctor will prescribe what medication for this type of
infection?
a. Podophyllium (Podofin) c. Monistat
b. Flagyl d.
Trichloroacetic acid
50. Crypcautery may also be used to remove large lesions. The healing period after crypcautery may be completed in 4-6
weeks but may cause some discomforts to the woman. What measures can alleviate these discomforts?
a. kegel’s exercise c. tropical steroids
b. cool air d. sitz bath and
lidocaine cream
51. In order to prevent acquiring sexually transmitted diseases, what is the best way to consider?
a. condom use c. vasectomy
b. withdrawal d. abstinence

SITUATION: The Gastrointestinal System is responsible for taking in and processing nutrients for all parts of the body,
any problem can quickly affect the body systems and, if not adequately treated, will affect the overall growth and
development. The following questions are about the gastrointestinal disorders in a child.
52. Mr. and Ms. Alcaras brought their son in the hospital for check up. The child has failure to thrive and was diagnosed
with pyloric stenosis. Which among the following statements are the characteristic manifestations of pyloric stenosis?
a. vomiting in the early morning
b. bile containing vomitus immediately after meal
c. sausage shaped mass in the abdomen
d. projectile vomiting with no bile content
53. The exact cause of pyloric stenosis is unknown, but multifactoral inheritance is the likely cause. Being knowledgeable
about this disease, you know that pyloric stenosis is more common in which gender?
a. male c. incidence is equal for both sexes
b. female d. none of the above
54. To rule out pyloric stenosis, the definitive diagnosis is made by watching the infant drink. After the infant drinks, what
will be the characteristic sign that will describe pyloric stenosis?
a. an olive-size lump can be palpated
b. there is gastric peristalsis eaves from left to right across the abdomen
c. a hypertrophied sphincter can be seen on ultrasound
d. a tingling sensation is felt on the lower extremities
55. Shee Jan Long, a 10 month old infant was admitted to the hospital for severe abdominal pain. The doctor found out
that the distal ileal segment of the child’s bowel has invaginated into the cecum. The nurse will suspect what disease
condition?
a. intussusception c. hirschprung’s disease
b. pyloric stenosis d. diarrhea
56. In intussusception, children suddenly draw up their legs and cry as if they are in severe pain and possibly vomit.
Another manifestation of such disease is the presence of blood in the stool. What is the characteristic of client’s stool
with intussusception?
a. coffee ground c. currant jelly stool
b. black and tarry d. watery stool
57. A 4 year old child is hospitalized because of persistent vomiting. As a nurse, you must monitor the child closely for:
a. diarrhea c. metabolic alkalosis
b. metabolic acidosis d. hyperactive bowel sounds

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58. A nurse is monitoring for signs of dehydration in a 1 year old child who has been hospitalized for diarrhea. The nurse
prepares to take the child’s temperature and avoids which method of measurement?
a. tympanic c. rectal
b. axillary d. electronic
59. A home care nurse provides instruction to the mother of an infant with left palate regarding feeding. Which statement
if made by the mother indicated a need for further instructions?
a. “I will use nipple with a small hole to prevent choking”
b. “I will stimulate sucking by rubbing the nipple on the lower lip”
c. “I will allow the infant time to swallow”
d. “I will allow the infant to rest frequently to provide time to swallowing what has been placed in the mouth”
60. An infant has just returned to the nursing unit following a surgical repair of a cleft lip located at the right side of the lip.
The nurse places the infant in which most appropriate position?
a. on the right side c. prone
b. on the left side d. supine
61. A clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant seen in the clinic. The nurse notes that a diagnosis of esophageal atresia
with tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is suspected. The nurse expects to note which most likely sign of this condition
documented in the record?
a. severe projectile vomiting c. choking with feeling
b. coughing at night time d. incessant crying

SITUATION: Human development is one of the important concepts that a nurse should learn to be able to deal
appropriately with their clients’ development stages.
62. Which statement best describes when fertilization occurs?
a. when the spermatozoa passes into the ovum and the nuclei fuse into a single cell
b. when the ovum is discharged from the ovary near the fimbriated end of the fallopian tube
c. when the embryo attaches to the uterine wall
d. when the sperm and ova undergo developmental changes resulting in a reduction in the number of chromosomes
63. A pregnant client asks you about fetal development. At approximately what gestational age does the fetus’ single
chambered heart begin to pump its own blood cells through main blood vessels?
a. 10 weeks c. 5 weeks
b. 8 weeks d. 2 weeks
64. At 17 weeks gestation, a fetus isn’t considered to be ballotable. Ballotement means that:
a. the examiner feels rebound movement of the fetus
b. the examiner feels movement
c. the client feels irregular, paleness uterine contraction
d. the client feels fetal movement
65. Which hormone stimulates the development of the ovum?
a. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) c. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
b. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) d. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
66. How long is the gestational period of a full term pregnancy?
a. ranging from 245 days to 259 days c. more than 294 days
b. around 5, 554 hours to 5, 880 hours d. average of 256 to 294 days
67. An 18 year old woman in her 18th week of pregnancy is being evaluated. Which positive sign of pregnancy should the
nurse expect to be present?
a. fetal heart tones detectable by Doppler stethoscope
b. fetal movement detectable by palpation
c. visualization of the fetus by ultrasound examination
d. fetal heart tones detectable by a fetoscope
68. During her prenatal visit, a 28 year old client expresses concern about nutrition during pregnancy. She wants to know
what foods she should be eating to ensure the proper growth and development of her baby. Which step should the
nurse take first?
a. give the client a sample diet plan for 2, 400 calorie diet
b. emphasize the importance of avoiding salty and fatty foods
c. instruct the client to continue to eat a normal diet
d. assess the client’s current nutritional status by taking a diet history
69. A nurse is teaching a class about the reproductive system. She explains that fertilization most often takes place in the:
a. ovary c. uterus
b. fallopian tube d. vagina
70. A large number of neural tube defects may be prevented if a pregnant woman includes which supplement in her diet?
a. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin E d. Vitamin B9
71. A 22 year old client is at 20 weeks gestation. She asks the nurse about the development of her fetus at this stage.
Which of the following developments occur at 20 weeks gestation?
a. the pancreas starts producing insulin and the kidneys produce urine
b. the fetus follows a regular schedule of turning, sleeping, sucking and kicking
c. swallowing reflex has been mastered and the fetus sucks its thumb
d. surfactant forms in the lungs

SITUATION: Developing countries such as the Philippines from high infant and child mortality rates. Thus, as a
management to the existing problem, the WHO and UNICEF launched the IMCI.
72. A 6 months old baby Len was brought to the health center because of fever and cough for 2 days. She weighs 5 kg.
Her temperature is 38.5 taken axillary. Further examination reveals that she has general danger sign. Most probably
baby Len has:
a. severe complicated measles d. measles
b. fever, no malaria e. measles with eye or mouth complication
c. very severe febrile disease

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73. The dosage of Vitamin A supplement given to baby Len would be:
a. 100,000 IU c. 200,000 IU
b. 10,000 IU d. 20,000 IU
74. Using the IMCI chart, this child can be managed with:
a. treat child with Paracetamol and follow up in 2 days if the fever persist
b. give the first dose of antibiotic, give Vit. A, apply gentian violet for mouth ulcers and refer urgently to the hospital
c. give 100, 000 IU of Vitamin A
d. give Vitamin A, apply gentian violet for mouth ulcers and follow up in 2 days
75. The following are signs of severe complicated measles:
a. clouding of the cornea d. A and B only
b. deep or extensive mouth ulcers e. All of the above
c. pus draining from the eyes
76. If the child is having 2 ½ weeks ear discharges, how would you classify and treat the child:
1. green 5. dry the ear by wicking
2. yellow 6. 5 days antibiotic
3. pink 7. urgent referral with first dose of antibiotic
4. red
a. 4, 7 b. 2, 5, 6 c. 1, 5 d. 3, 7 e. 2, 5
77. The following are treatments for acute ear infections:
a. dry the ear by wicking d. A and C only
b. give antibiotics for 5 days e. All of the above
c. follow up in 5 days
78. A child with ear problem should be assessed for the following, except:
a. ear pain d. is there any fever?
b. if discharge is present for how long e. None of the above
c. ear discharge
79. If the child does not have ear problem, using IMCI, what should you do as a nurse?
a. go to the next question, check for malnutrition c. check for tender swelling behind the ear
b. check for ear pain d. check for ear discharge
80. An ear discharge that has been present for more than 14 days can be classified as:
a. Complicated ear infection c. Chronic ear infection
b. Acute ear infection d. Mastoiditis
81. An ear discharge that has been present for more than 14 days can be classified as:
a. Complicated ear infection c. Chronic ear infection
b. Acute ear infection d. Mastoiditis
82. If the child has severe classification because of ear problem, what would be the best thing that you should do as a
nurse?
a. dry the ear by wicking c. refer urgently
b. give an antibiotic for 5 days d. instruct mother when to return immediately

SITUATION: Primary Health Care (PHC) is defined by the WHO as essential health care mode universally accessible to
individuals, families and communities.
83. The WHO held a meeting in this place where Primary Health Care was discussed. What is this place?
a. Alma Ata c. Vienna
b. Russia d. Geneva

SITUATION: The national objective for maintaining the health of the Filipinos is a primary responsibility of the DOH.
84. The following are mission of the DOH except:
a. ensure accessibility d. quality of life of all Filipinos
b. quality of health care e. none of the above
c. health for all Filipinos
85. The basic principle to achieve improvement in health includes all but:
a. universal access to basic health services must be ensured
b. the health and nutrition of vulnerable groups must be prioritized
c. performance of the health sector must be enhanced
d. support the frontline workers and the local health system
e. none of the above
86. Which of the following is not a primary strategy to achieve health goals?
a. support of local health system development d. support the frontline workers
b. development of national standards for health e. none of the above
c. assurance of health care for all
87. According to the WHO, health is:
a. state of complete physical, mental and social well being not merely the absence of disease
b. a science and art of preventing disease and prolonging life
c. a science that deals with the optimum level of functioning of the individual, family and community
d. all of the above
88. Assistance in physical therapy of a trauma patient is a:
a. primary level of prevention c. tertiary level of prevention
b. secondary level of prevention d. none of the above
89. Local health boards were established at the provincial, city and municipal levels. At the municipal level, the chairman
of the board is the:
a. rural health physician c. mayor
b. governor’ d. chairman of the committee on health
90. The emphasis of community health nursing is on:
a. treatment on health problems
b. preventing health problems and promoting optimum level of health

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c. identification and assessment of health problems
d. illness end of the wellness-illness continuum
91. In asking the mother about her child’s problem, the following communication skills should be used except:
a. use words that the mother understands d. ask checking question
b. give time for the mother to answer the questions e. none of the above
c. listen attentively
92. Which of the following is the principal focus of the CARI program of the Department of Health?
a. Teach other community health workers how to assess patients
b. Mortality reduction through early detection
c. teach mothers how to detect signs and where to refer
d. enhancement of health team capabilities
93. You were able to identify factors that lead to respiratory problems in the community where your health facility serves.
Your primary role therefore in order to reduce morbidity due to pneumonia is to?
a. seek assistance and mobilize the BHWs to have a meeting with mothers
b. refer cases to hospitals
c. make home visits to sick children
d. teach mothers to recognize early signs and symptoms of pneumonia
94. Which of the following is the most important responsibility of a nurse in the prevention of unnecessary deaths from
pneumonia and other severe disease?
a. weighing of the child
b. provision of careful assessment
c. taking of the temperature of the sick child
d. giving of antibiotics
95. A 4 months old child was brought to your clinic because of cough and colds. Which of the following is your primary
action?
a. teach the mother how to count her child’s breathing
b. refer to the doctor
c. assess the patient using the chart on the management of children with cough
d. give cotrimoxazole tablet or syrup
e. all of the above
96. In respiratory to the care concerns to children with severe disease, referral to the hospitals is of the essence
especially if the child manifests which of the following?
a. stopped feeling well
b. fast breathing
c. wheezing
d. difficulty to awaken

SITUATION: Elvira Magalpok is a 26 year old woman you admitted to a birthing room. Her husband is in the Army and
assigned overseas, so he is not with her. Although her sister lives only two blocks from the hospital, Elvira doesn’t want
her called. She asks if she can talk to her mother on the telephone instead. As you finish assessing contractions, she
screams with pain and shouts, “Ginagawa ko na ang lahat ng makakaya ko! Kailan ba matatapos ang paghihirapo kong
ito?”
97. Elvira didn’t recognize for over an hour that she was in labor. A sign of true labor is:
a. sudden increase in energy from epinephrine release
b. “nagging” but constant pain in the lower back
c. urinary frequency from increased bladder pressure
d. left sacroanterior with full flexion
98. Elvira asks you which fetal position and presentation are ideal. Your best answer would be:
a. right occipitoacnterior full flexion c. right occipitoposterior with no flexion
b. left transverse anterior in moderate flexion d. left sacroanterior with full flexion
99. Elvira is having long and hard uterine contractions. What length of contractions would you report as abnormal?
a. any length over 30 seconds c. a contraction that peaks at 20 seconds
b. a contraction over 70 seconds in length d. a contraction shorter than 60 seconds
100. You assess Elvira’s uterine contractions. In relation to the contraction, when does a late deceleration begin?
a. forty five seconds after the contraction is over c. after every tenth or more contraction
b. thirty seconds after the start of a contraction d. after a typical contraction ends