Vivekananda School of Law and Legal Studies (VSLLS)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ’s)

For Practice
Land and Real Estate Laws
(LLB 505, 9th Semester)

Name of the Subject Teachers

Mr.Narender Kumar (Subject Convener)
Dr. Prakash Sharma
Ms. Chitwan
Dr. Payal Jain

UNIT-1
Q1. What is the Ryotwari System?
A. Under this system, every registered holder is recognized as its owner. The owner
cultivator or peasant proprietor is responsible directly to the government for the
payment of land revenues and other dues.
B. Under this system, land is held (owned) jointly by a collective body of village.
C. Under this system, one person known as zamindar owns a village and is responsible for
the payment of land revenues to the government.
D. This body collects land revenues from the owners or cultivator peasants and is
responsible to the government.

Q2. What is the Mahalwari System?

A. Under this system, every registered holder is recognized as its owner. The owner
cultivator or peasant proprietor is responsible directly to the government for the
payment of land revenues and other dues.
B. Under this system, land is held (owned) jointly by a collective body of village.
C. Under this system, one person known as zamindar owns a village and is responsible for
the payment of land revenues to the government.
D. This body collects land revenues from the owners or cultivator peasants and is
responsible to the government.

Q3. What is the Zamindari System?

A. Under this system, every registered holder is recognized as its owner. The owner
cultivator or peasant proprietor is responsible directly to the government for the
payment of land revenues and other dues.
B. Under this system, land is held (owned) jointly by a collective body of village.
C. Under this system, one person known as zamindar owns a village and is responsible for
the payment of land revenues to the government.
D. This body collects land revenues from the owners or cultivator peasants and is
responsible to the government.
Q4. Why did the need for land reforms arise?
A. There was no cultured civilization.
B. Agriculture in Indian Subcontinent was suffering due to the lack of workers in this
sector.
C. The landlords grew richer, the intermediaries continued to flourish, the state was
deprived of its share of legitimate increase in revenue and the cultivator tenants were
in hand to mouth existence.
D. There was no land available for agriculture.

Q5. What were Land Reform measures under the British Raj?
A. They were the most organized, fair and just reforms introduced in India.
B. The land tenure systems which the British imposed in India were only variants of
feudal and semi-feudal land ownership, depriving the actual cultivators of all their
traditional rights and parasitism (favoritism) flourished.
C. This system existed in West Bengal, some parts of U.P., Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
Now this system has been abolished.
D. This system facilitates cooperative farming to get maximum yield from land. The small
holdings of peasant cultivators can be combined for this purpose. The main drawback
with this system is that it encourages absentee landlordism.

Q6. Land reforms have been on the agenda of rural reconstruction since independence, what
are included in this?
A. Abolition of zamindars, tenancy reforms and the reconstruction of the land ownership
system, ceiling on holdings, consolidation of holding and co-operative farming.
B. The land tenure systems which the British imposed in India were only variants of feudal
and semi-feudal land ownership, depriving the actual cultivators of all their traditional
rights and parasitism (favoritism) flourished.
C. This system existed in West Bengal, some parts of U.P., Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
Now this system has been abolished.
D. This system facilitates cooperative farming to get maximum yield from land. The small
holdings of peasant cultivators can be combined for this purpose. The main drawback
with this system is that it encourages absentee landlordism.

Q7. Main advantage of PERMANENT SETTLEMENT under British Raj?

A. The Zamindars did not stay in the estate but in cities- acted like pumps sucking the
wealth of rural India.
B. Cultivators were in the constant fear of ejectment
C. Zamindars were not interested in any improvements on the Land
D. Secured fixed and stable income for the State (monsoon or no monsoon)

Q8. Main disadvantage of PERMANENT SETTLEMENT under British Raj?

 A. State turned out to be the biggest looser-any increase in cultivation did not benefit the
State
B. It was felt that Zamindars due to security of land holdings would introduce new and
innovative, methods of cultivation which in turn would increase the productivity.
C. Cornwallis hoped that the settlement would create a class of royal Zamindars who
would defend the rule of the East India Company
D. It was hoped that the Zamindars would act as the natural leaders of the peasants

Q9. Reasons for abolition of Zamindari System?

A. Intermediary tenures like zamindaris, jagirs, inams, etc. which prevailed over nearly 40
% of the cultivated land have been abolished.
B. These intermediaries were responsible for the payment of land revenues to the
government.
C. The zamindars and other intermediaries were merely rent receivers and were not
bothered about the improvements in land. They extorted high rents and exploited the
poor tenants.
D. The concentration of land ownership in the hands of a parasitic class who played no
positive role in production while the vast mass of small peasants, who were the actual
cultivators, were divorced from the ownership of land.

Q10. What was challenged in Kameshwar Singh V State of Bihar AIR 1951 Pat 91?
A. The Bihar Legislature enacted the Bihar Abolition of Zamindaris Act 1948
B. It received the assent of the Governor General on 6-7-1949
C. This was done under the Government of India Act 1935 before the Constitution came
into force on and from 26th January 1950
D. the validity of the Bihar Abolition of Zamindari Act as being violative of Art 14 – as
under the Act the formula for the payment of Compensation to the Zamindars was not
equal.(the bigger the zamindar the lower the compensation)

Q11. What is Ceiling on land holdings?

A. Ceiling on land holdings refers to the fixation of maximum size of a holding that an
individual cultivator or a household may possess. Beyond this maximum limit, all land
belonging to the landlords is taken away by the government to be redistributed among
the landless labourers.
B. Under this system, land is held (owned) jointly by a collective body of village.
C. Under this system, one person known as zamindar owns a village and is responsible for
the payment of land revenues to the government.
D. This body collects land revenues from the owners or cultivator peasants and is
responsible to the government.

Q12. Consider the following statements relating to the size of land holdings in Indian
agriculture :
1) The marginal and small holdings in Indian agriculture constitute more than 40% of the net
sown area .

2) Any holding of size more than 5 hectares is considered a large holding .

3) The average size of agricultural holdings has reduced with the passage of time .

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2, and 3

Q13. As part of Zamindari abolition, which of the following activities were covered under the
definition of personal cultivation ?

1) Self- supervision to agricultural operations

2) Cultivation by members of the family

3) Supervision by any member of the family of Zamindar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2, and 3

Q14. How was the Distributing Ceiling-Surplus Land to Beneficiaries done?

A. the National Guidelines stipulate that priority should be given to landless agricultural
workers, particularly those belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
B. With the introduction of land ceiling legislation in 1972,ceiling on land holdings was
introduced in 19 States and 3 Union Territories.
C. The 1972 national guidelines recommended ceiling limits ranging from 10-18 acres
for irrigated land with two crops,
D. 27 acres for irrigated land with one crop and 54 acres for dry land.
Q15. Factors which went against consolidation?

A. Scientific methods of cultivation become possible on consolidated holdings

B. Time effort and money wasted in moving from one farm to the other is saved.
C. The farmer feels encouraged to spend money on the improvement of his land
D. Fear of displacement among tenants and sharecroppers and lack of up to date land
records.

Q16. Methods of consolidation that existed in India?

A. Voluntary consolidation & Compulsory Consolidation

B. Temporary consolidation
C. Part time consolidation
D. In-door consolidation

Q17.Difficulties faced during consolidation

A. Excess time taken.

B. Illegal method
C. Lack of records, Lack of trained staff, Expenditure, Opposition by farmers, Difference
in the Land Value & Corruption.
D. The process of consolidation has been progressing very slowly in India.

Q18. What was the Bhoodan Movement?

A. Bhoodan means voluntary donation of land on charitable grounds.

B. The profounder of the movement Vinova Bhave thought that the landless persons
have a right on the land which is owned by others in bulk.
C. It started the Bhoodan Movement as early as in 1952.
D. All of the Above.

Q19. 1. Which of the following was included as part of the land reforms initiated in India?

a. Abolition of intermediaries
b. Tenancy reforms
c. Reorganization of agriculture
d. All the above

Q20. Impact of Land Reforms in India?

A. Changing over to market-oriented farming

B. End of feudalism
 C. Leasing in of land by big owners
D. Emergence of modern entrepreneurs
E. Reduction of poverty
F. All of the above

Q21. What was the The First Amendment?

A. Inserted Art 31 A and Art 31B

B. Added the Ninth Schedule retrospectively.
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B

Q22. What was upheld in Shankari Prasad Singh Deo V Union of India AIR 1951 SC 458?

A. Upheld the validity of the 1st Ammendment

B. Court made a distinction between ordinary legislative power and amending power .
C. Fundamental rights are within the reach of the amending process.
D. All of the Above

Q23. Constitution Fourth Amendment Act deals with?

A. added a new clause 2A in article 31

B. Which made it clear that unless the ownership of the property is transferred to the
State or state owned or State controlled Corporation, there is no question of payment
of Compensation. The adequacy of the compensation was made non justiciable.
C. Ceiling on land holdings was the next land reform being carried out and the State
could not pay compensation.
D. All of the above

Q24. Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act 1956 deals with?

A. List I entry 33 omitted

B. List II entry 36 and 42 omitted
C. List III Entry 42 “Acquisition and Requisition of property”
D. All of the above.

Q25. What led to the 17th amendment?

A. Purushothaman v. State of Kerela AIR 1962 SC 723 & Karimbil Kunhikoman v. State
of Kerela AIR 1962 SC 723
B. Constitutional validity of Kerela Agrarian Relations Act 1961 was challenged
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B

Q26. What led to Constitution (Twenty Fourth Amendment) Act 1971?

 A. Purushothaman v. State of Kerela AIR 1962 SC 723
B. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab AIR 1967 SC 1643
C. Karimbil Kunhikoman v. State of Kerela AIR 1962 SC 723
D. None of the Above

Q27. Which one was the Bank Nationalization Case?

A. R.C.Cooper v. UOI AIR 1970 SC 564

B. Purushothaman v. State of Kerela AIR 1962 SC 723
C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab AIR 1967 SC 1643
D. Karimbil Kunhikoman v. State of Kerela AIR 1962 SC 723

Q28. What was inserted by 25TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?

A. ARTICLE 31 C
B. ARTICLE 31 A
C. ARTICLE 31 B
D. None of the above

Q29.What was challenged in Keshwanand Bharti v. State of Kerela AIR 1973 SC 1461?

A. The Constitutional validity of the 24th 25th and 29th Amendment were challenged by
an aggrieved landholder from Kerala whose rights were adversely affected by the
Kerala Land Reforms Act 1963 as amended in 1969 and included in the ninth
schedule by the Constitution (Twenty ninth amendment)Act 1972.
B. The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is limited , that such limitations
are inherent and implied and the power of amendment does not extend to altering the
basic structure and essential features of the Constitution.

Choose from the options given below

1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Both A & B
4) Neither A nor B

Q30. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by:
A. First Amendment
B. Eighth Amendment
C. Ninth Amendment
D. Forty Second Amendment
Q31. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, which of the following elements were declared as the
‘Basic Structure’ by the Supreme Court.

1.Supremacy of the Constitution

2.Federal character of the constitution
3.Rule of law

Select the correct code:

a) 1, 2
b)2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3

Q32. What was 44th Amendment known for?

A. 44th amendment act of 1978 abolish the right to property as a fundamental right by
repealing article 19(1) (f) and article 31 from part III.
B. Provided for the saving of laws providing for acquisition of Estates etc. Added 9th
schedule to Protect the land reforms and other laws included in it from judicial review
and added article 31Aand 31B for the same.
C. Affirmed the power of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution including
fundamental rights.
D. Made it compulsory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional amendment
bill.

Q33. Present position of ‘Right to Property’?

A. Right to property was a fundamental right caused confrontations between the

Supreme Court and the Parliament.
B. Article 19(1)(f)
C. article: 300A ‘No person shall be deprived of his property save by Authority of law’
D. article 32
Q34. Golak Nath Case dealt with:

A. amendment will be covered under article 13

B. parliament has limited powers
C. Judicial review
D. All of the Above

Q35. Supreme Court judgement in I.R. Coelho case 2007:

A. all acts regulations and laws included in ninth schedule after 24 April 1973 are
challenged in the court if they violated fundamental rights guaranteed under article
14, 15, 19 and 21 or the basic structure of constitution.
B. It empowered the state acquire or requisition The property of a person on two
conditions, it should be for public purpose & it should be provided for payment of
compensation to the owner.
C. Supreme Court judgements directing government to pay compensation or declare laws
as void and unconstitutional.
D. Obligation of the state to pay compensation for acquisition or acquisition of private
property.

Q36. Right to property in India:

A. Legal right or constitutional right.

B. Not a fundamental right.
C. Not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution
D. All of the above

Q37. Which of the following states has the highest irrigation coverage?

a. Punjab
b. Karnataka
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Uttarakhand

Q38. Which of the following was a part of the green revolution strategy?

a. High yielding variety seeds

b. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides
c. Irrigation
d. All the above

Q39. What caused Controversy between Supreme Court and the Parliament?

A. Guaranteed to every person, whether citizen or non-citizen, right against deprivation

of his property. It provided that no person shall be deprived of his property except by
authority of law.
B. Right to property was a fundamental right caused confrontations between the
Supreme Court and the Parliament.
C. Obligation of the state to pay compensation for acquisition or acquisition of private
property.
D. Supreme Court judgements directing government to pay compensation or declare
laws as void and unconstitutional.

Q40. Who started the Zamindari system?

(a) John Shore

(b) L. Cornwallis

(c) Lord Minto

(d) William Bentinck

Q41. Which of the following statements is not true about Zamindari system?

(a) It was implemented in Bengal.

(b) In it the landowner was made the land owner.

(c) In this, the Zamindar gave 80% of the total tax to the British and kept 20%.

(d) Before independence, this practice was applicable to the area of 19% of India.
Q42. Land reform is covered under.

(a) Central list

(b) State list

(c) Concurrent list

(d) None of the above

Q43. Which of the following does not come under land reform?
(a) Consolidation

(b) Cooperative farming

(c) Drip irrigation

(d) All of the above

Q44. Who started the Mahalwari system?

(a) William Bentinck

(b)L. Cornwallis

(c) Sir John Shore

(d) None of these

Q45. In which two places Mahalwari system was started?

(a) Punjab and Haryana

(b) Bengal and Bihar

(c) Agra and Awadh

(d) Maharashtra and Jammu Kashmir

Q46. The Green Revolution has led to marked increase in:
1. Productivity of wheat
2. Productivity of pulses
3. Regional inequalities
4. Inter-person inequalities

Choose the correct option

a) 1 and 2 are correct

b) 3 and 4 are correct
c) 1, 3 and 4are correct
d) All are correct

Q47. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly:

a) Blue Revolution -Fish production
b) Golden revolution -Horticulture
c) Round Revolution -Tomato Production
d) Yellow Revolution -Oilseed and edible oil

Q48. Colonial Revenue Administration objects:

A. To extract and carry maximum

B. To create a reliable social support base for the empire
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B

Q49. The Main Intermediary System Prevalent in India

A. Ryotwari System
B. Mahalwari System
C. Zamindari System
 D. All of the above

Q50. What was challenged in State of West Bengal vs Bela Banerjee?

A. West Bengal Land Development and Planning Act, 1948 challenged.

B. Punjab security and land tenure act
C. Land Acquisition Act, 1894
D. Ninth schedule

UNIT-2

1. The United Nation’s Commission on Sustainable Development (CSD) was started by

the UN General Assembly in the year.
A) 1995
B) 1994
C) 1993
D) 1992

2. Which of the option is not incorporated as sustainable development parameters?

A) Gender disparity and diversity
B) Inter and Intra-generation equity
C) Carrying capacity
D) None of the above
3. Which of the following is/are not an objective (s) of sustainable development?
a. Continue to implement the family planning program
b. Maintain a dynamic balance of arable land (not less than 123 million hectares) and
implement an agricultural development strategy
c. Maintain a dynamic balance of water resources by reducing water consumption for
every unit of gross development product growth and agricultural value added
d. To bring about a gradual and sometime catastrophic transformation of environment
4. Which of the following cities can be called megalopolis?
(A) Chennai
(B) Kochi
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Mumbai
5. Which of the following is not a reason behind the growth of cities?
(A) Trade & Commerce
(B) Hygienic outlook of people
(C) Industrialism
(D) Development of transport

6. Consider the following statement (s) related to the parameters of sustainable

development refer to the guiding principles.

I. Help in understanding the concept of sustainable development

II. Point the problems associated with it

III. Help to take active policy measures

Code:

a. Both I & II
b. Bot II & III
c. Both I & IV
d. I, II & III

7. The idea of sustainable development was conceived in early:

a. 1950
b. 1960
c. 1970
d. 1980

8. What does mean “Agenda 21”?

a. It’s an agreement between 20 developing countries of the world on climate change
b. It’s a free trade agreement between 7 developed countries of the world
c. Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the United Nations
with regard to sustainable development
d. None of the above

9. Which of the following is not one of the features of urban community?

(A) Complex life
(B) Glamour in life
(C) Agriculture area
(D) Materialistic

10. ______________________ refers to refurbishing or replacement of old buildings &

new use of previously developed land in urban areas.
(A) Urban planning
(B) Urban recycling
(C) Urbanism
(D) None of the above
11. Detailed studies are carried out on a comprehensive basis in _______________ plan.
(A) Master
(B) Outline
(C) Statutory
(D) Conceptual

12. What is the full form of JnNURM?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru Nation Urban Renewal Mission
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urbanization Renew Mission
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru Nation Urbanization Renew Mission

13. Which one of the following is a feature of an urban area?

(A) A minimum population of 500
(B) At least 75% of the male main working population engaged in agricultural pursuits
(C) A population density of at least 400 persons per sq. km.
(D) None of the above
14. The mobility of people and goods can be maximized by -
(A) Minimizing travel time
(B) Provide adequate frequency of service, capacity, safety & reliability
(C) Minimizing travel cost
(D) All of the above

15. Which of the following doctrine is related to Land Acquisition aspect?

a. Sustainable Development
‘b. Public Trust Doctrine’
C. Eminent Domain
d. None of these

16. In the history of Modern India, the eminent Doctrine was challenged

a. During the time When the Bank were nationalised

b. During the time When the land reform was initiated
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

17. What is the main purpose of Land Acquisition under The Right to Fair
Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and
Resettlement Act, 2013

a) Defence Purpose

b) Public Purpose

c) Private Purpose

d) Government Use
Purpose

18. When the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition,
Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 come into

a) 1st October, 2013

b) 1st January, 2014

c) 31st December, 2013

d) 1st April, 2013

19.The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition,

Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 has effect

a) Retrospective

b) Prospective

c) Both Retrospective and Prospective

d) None of Above

20.The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition,

Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 replaces which law

a) Land Revenue Act

b) Land Holding Act

c) None of the above

d) Land Acquisition Act

21. Urgency Provision has been defined under which section of LARR Act, 2013
a. Sec. 17
b. Sec. 23
c. Sec. 40
d. Sec. 5

22. The LARR Act, 2013 is NOT applicable when

a. Land is acquired for national or state highway projects

b. Land is acquired under some acts such as Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, Atomic
Energy Act, 1962, the Railways Act, 1989 etc.

c. Government acquires the land for use of Public sector companies (PSUs)
 d. Government acquires the land for ultimate purpose of transferring it to private partners.
1. Either a
2. a& b both
3. c & d
4. All of the above

23. What is Public Purpose as per LARR Act, 2013

a. Strategic use by the armed forces, paramilitary, state police for national security
b. Infrastructure projects except private hospitals, private education institutions and
private hotels
c. Projects related to industrial corridors, mining, national investment and manufacturing
zone, sports, healthcare, tourism and space programmes
d. Land for ultimate purpose of transferring it to private partners.

1. Either a & b
2. c alone
3. c & d
4. a, b & c
24. In case of interstate land acquisition, the central government can form a …………. for
reviewing and monitoring the implementation of rehabilitation and resettlement
schemes.

a. National Monitoring Committee

b. Rehabilitation and Resettlement Scheme
c. Social Impact Assessment scheme
d. Expert Group

25. SIA is mandatory for all projects except:

(i) in cases of urgency

(ii) for irrigation projects where an Environmental Impact Assessment is required.
(iii) In case of Government Use
(iv) Development of Education Institutions

Ans. A. (i) only

B. (i) & (ii)

C. (i), (ii) & (iii)

D. All of the above
 26. Which section of LARR Act, 2013 defines public purpose?

a) Section 3 (za) defines public purpose and means the activities specified under section 2
subsection (1) of LARR Act, 2013

b) Sec. 2

c) Sec. 3 (m)

d) Sec. 4

27. Consent of How Much People is required for Private Project under New Land
Acquisition Law
a) 80%
b) 50%

c) 30%

d) 40%

28. Consent of How Much People is required for PPP Project under New Land
Acquisition Law
a) 50%
b) 20%

c) 70%

d) 100%

29. Which type of land can’t be acquired under New Land Acquisition Law unless it is for
defence or emergency caused by natural calamity

a) Urban Land

b) Industrial Land

c) Multi-cropped, irrigated land

d) None of above
30.Land should be returned to original owner or the State Land Bank if not used in years for the
purpose for which it is acquired

a) Two

b) Five

c) Ten

d) None of Above

31. Social Impact Assessment (SIA) has to be carried out in consultation with the representatives of

a) Central Government

b) State Government

c) Panchayati Raj Institutions

d) All of the above

32. What is first stage of Land Acquisition Act, 1894?

a) Notification under Section 4

b) Reference to Court

c) Social Impact Assessment (SIA)

d) None of above

33. Objections are invited from all persons interested in land within days from
the date of notification

a) 120

b) 60

c) 30

d) 4
5

34. The objections will be valid on one or more of the following grounds:

a) That the purpose for which the land is proposed for acquisition is not a public purpose.

b) That the land is not or less suitable than another piece of land for the said purpose. ‘

c) That the area under acquisition is excessive.

d)All of Above
Answer

35. Who are responsible for Preparing of Rehabilitation and Resettlement Scheme?
a. Administrator
b. Rehabilitation Officers
c. Collector of Land
d. Specialist officers

36. Land acquisition process under 1894 Act shall be deemed to have lapsed under which
section of the LARR Act, 2013?
a. Sec. 25 of the LARR Act
 b. Sec. 23 of the LARR Act
c. Sec. 24 of the LARR Act
d. Sec. 29 of the LARR Act

37. What is Award of solatium?

a. Solatium amount equivalent to the compensation amount
b. Solatium amount equivalent to one hundred per cent of the compensation amount.
c. Solatium amount equivalent to market rate of the compensation amount
d. Solatium amount equivalent to collector determined.

38. Which section of the Act lays down the preparation of the social impact Assessment
study?
a. Section 3
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
d. Section 6
39. Notice will be issued under which Section for filling of Claim

a) Section 5

b) Section 7

c) Section 9

d) Section
11

40. Which section provides the determination of market value of land made by the
Collector?
a. Section 27
b. Section 25
c. Section 26
d. None of the above

41. Collector has to consider which of the following while determine Compensation

a)Part of the property is proposed for acquisition in such a manner that the remainder
depreciates in value.

b) When the land notified for acquisition has standing crops or trees.

c)If the person interested has to change his place of residence or business then the
excess rent payable for the new premises is also considered for compensation.

d) All of the Above

 42. Application for the reference to Court under The Right to Fair Compensation and
Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013
should be made with
We
ek from the date of declaration of Award

a) Five

b) Seven

c) Ten

d) Six

43. Special provisions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes mentioned under
which provision of the LARR Act, 2013
a. Sec. 44
b. Sec. 42
c. Sec. 41
d. Sec. 43

44. Justice Singhvi and Justice Mukhopadhyaya categorically affirmed that no state having
acquired land for public purpose (in this case for golf-cum hotel resort) could subsequently
transfer the land to private entities for private use; that this amounted to ‘diversification’ of
public purpose;
a. M/s. Royal Orchid Hotels Ltd v. G. Jayram Reddy (2011)
b. Uday Ram Sharma v.. UOI AIR 1968 SC 1168
c. Kashmiri Lal v.. State of Punjab AIR 1984 P& H 87
d. Roshnara Begum v.. UOI AIR 1996 Del. 206

45. Whether the Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Bill 2015 has passed
by:

a. Passed by Rajya Sabha only pending in Lok Sabha

b. Passed by Lok Sabha Pending in Rajya Sabha
c. Passed by both the Houses of the Parliament, pending for President’s assent
d. Either a & b
Ans. B

46. In which of the landmark case the Supreme Court upheld that the Right to Fair
Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act,
2013, under which land acquisition proceedings initiated under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894
are deemed to have lapsed where the award has been made five years or more prior to the
commencement of 2013 Act, and possession of the land is not taken or compensation has not
been paid.
a. Pune Municipal Corporation & Anr v. Harakchand Misirimal Solanki & Ors, January 24,
2014
b. Bajirajirao t. kote v. state of Maharashtra, 1995 AIR SC
c. Dev Sharan & Ors v. State Of U.P.& Ors on 7 March, 2011
d. None of the above

47. When the new Land Ceiling Policy was passed.

a. 1962
b. 1972
c. 1971
d. 1961

48. What was the purpose of the Government of India enacted The Urban Land (Ceiling
and Regulation) Act, 1976

a. to regulate urban land prices and promote low-income housing in an effort to

socialize urban land exempting central and state land,
b. other public, religious or educational organizations along with LIC Companies.
Including acquiring vacant land holdings of individuals or companies
c. Limiting the size of the future living quarters to be built and Regulating the
transfer of urban property.
d. All of the above

49. What is Ceiling on Land Holding?

a. It means fixing maximum size of land holding that an individual/family can own.
Land over and above the ceiling limit, called surplus land.
b. if the individual/family owns more land than the ceiling limit, the surplus land is
taken away (with or without paying compensation to original owner)
c. This surplus land was
a. distributed among small farmers, tenants, landless labourers or
b. handed over to village panchayat or
c. Given to cooperative farming societies.
d. All of the above
e.
50. When was Delhi Development Authority created with a purpose of :
f. The Delhi Development Authority (DDA) was created in 1957 under the
provisions of the Delhi Development Act "to promote and secure the
development of Delhi .
g. DDA was created in 1962 for planning, development and construction of
Housing Projects, Commercial Lands, Land Management as well as providing
public facilities like roads, bridges, drains, Underground water reservoir,
 Community Centers, Sports Centers, Green Belts etc. within the area of NCR.
h. Both of the above
i. None of the above

UNIT: 3

1. What does RERA stand for, in the context of real estate regulation law?

a. Real Estate (Development and Regulation) Act

b. Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act
c. Real Estate (Regulation) Act
d. Real Estate (Development ) Act

2. Can the period of registration granted to a real estate project by the Regulatory Authority be
extended?

a. Never
b. May be
c. Yes, only when force majeure is proved
d. Yes, even without prove of force majeure.

3. Does the RERA Act, 2016 cover all Indian states/union territories?

a. Yes
b. No, not all except West Bengal and Nagaland
c. No, except Jammu and Kashmir
d. Does not cover all Union Territories

4. What are the objectives of RERA, 2016?

a. For Regulation of Real Estate Sector
b. To promote transparency and reduce red tape in the sale of real estate projects and plans
c. Only (a) and not (b)
d. Both (a) and (b)
5. In case of non-compliance with the guidelines by the allottee, Where is/are the penalties and
punishments?

a. Section 68
b. Section 69 and 70
c. Section 68 and 69
d. Section 68,69 and 70

6. RERA has been enacted under Concurrent List.

a. Concurrent List
b. State List
c. Both (a) and (c)
d. None of the above

7. Land, Rights over Land, Land Improvements, fall under:

a. Concurrent List
b. State List
c. Both (a) and (c)
d. None of the above

8. Is every state will have to form its own rules and regulator (RERA), based on the Act’s
guidelines?

a. Yes
b. No
c. Not necessary
d. None of the above

9. In what situation registration is not required?

a. Where the area of land proposed to be developed does not exceeds 500 square meters or no
of apartments does not exceed 8 in number.
b. The promoter has already received completion certificate for a real estate project prior to
commencement of this Act.
c. for the purpose of renovation or repair or re-development which does not involve
marketing, advertising selling or new allotment of any apartment, plot or building.
d. All of the above.

10. Is RERA Act, 2016 governs both residential and commercial real estate transaction?

a. Yes
b. No

11. There is builder who will complete the real estate project in 20 phases. Is it mandatory to
register for each phases separately?

a. No
b. Single registration is enough
c. Yes, under RERA Act, each phase is considered a stand-alone real estate project
d. None of the above

12. What percentage of amounts for real estate project from allottees should be deposited in a
separate account?

a. 65%
b. 70%
c. 60%
d. 80%

13. Who are the certified authority for withdraw of amount by the promoter?

a. Engineer and Architect

b. Engineer, Architect, Chartered Accountant
c. Chartered Accountant
d. Engineer, Chartered Accountant.

14. What is the time limit for getting accounts audited by promoter?

a. after 6 months
b. within 7 months
c. within 6 months after the end of the financial year .
d. 1 year

15. What is the time limit for grant of registration by the authority?

a. after 3 months
b. within 2 months
c. within 30 days
d. 1 year

16. Registration once granted can be revoked on:

a. Authority does it only on suo moto proceedings

b. on receiving any complaint or suo moto both
c. Authority does not have power to revoke registration
d. Only on receiving complaint

17. What acts lead to revocation of registration by RERA?

a. Promoter makes default in doing anything under Act/Rules/Regulations.

b. Promoter violates any terms or conditions of approval given by competent authority.
c. Only (a)
d. Both (a) and (b).

18. Does RERA allow channel partners or brokers to deal sale process?

a. Yes, but the promoter need to register them

b. No
c. There is no mechanism for registration of channel partners or brokers
d. Broker is required to register but not the channel partner

19. Are the civil courts and consumer forums barred from entertaining disputes under the Act?

a. Only consumer forums are barred

b. Only civil court is barred from suits and not proceedings
c. Civil courts are barred, however, consumer forums (National, State or District) have not
been barred from the ambit of the Act.
d. None of the above.

20. Does the definition of promoter include public bodies like development authorities and
housing boards?

a. No, only private bodies

b. No, only Housing boards
c. Yes, both public and private bodies
d. No

21. Is the rate of interest paid by either party i.e. promoter as well as allottee is same?

a. No
b. No, allottee is required to pay higher rate of interest
c. Yes, the rate of interest shall be same
d. Yes, the rate of interest is decided by the appropriate government in the Rules

22. Does advertisement include solicitation by emails and SMS?

a. No
b. No, only through SMS
c. Yes, and includes any medium
d. No, and covers only emails.

23. Does the RERA Act, 2016 covers real estate agents?

a. No, only promoters

b. No, only builders
c. Yes, and rules are decided by central government
d. Yes, and rules are decided by appropriate government.

24. Which provision(s) discusses about the disclosures to be made on the website of the
Regulatory Authority?

a. Section 4 and 5
b. Section 5 and 7
c. Section 4 and 8
d. Section 4 and 11

25. Can the promoter collect any amount of money towards booking of the
apartment/garage/plot?

a. Yes, under Section 7

b. Yes, under Section 13
c. Yes, under Section 12
d. Yes, under Section 14

26. Is agreement to sale binding upon promoter and allottee?

a. Yes, under Section 13(1)

b. Yes, under Section 13(4)
c. Yes, under Section 12(3)
d. Yes, under Section 13(2)

27. What is the period for which the promoter is liable for any structural defects etc. in the
project/apartment/garage?

a. 5 yrs, under Section 14(2)

b. 3 yrs, under Section 11(4)
c. 5 yrs, under Section 13(2)
d. 3 yrs, under Section 15(2)

28. Is there any provision(s) under RERA Act, 2016 that speaks about the rights and duties of
allottees?
a. Yes, Chapter II under Section 13
b. No
c. Yes, Chapter V under Section 13
d. Yes, Chapter IV under Section 19

29. Can the Authority is empowered to delegate any of its functions?

a. No, under Section 81 only “such powers and functions”

b. Yes, it can with prior approval of state government
c. Yes, Chapter VIII under Section 84
d. Yes, Chapter VII under Section 79

30. Can an offence which provides for imprisonment be compounded?

a. No
b. Yes, under section 70
c. Yes, Chapter VIII under Section 83
d. Yes, Chapter VII under Section 75

31. Who has power to make rules under Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986?

a. Ministry of Urban Development

b. Delhi Development Authority
c. Central Government
d. Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi

32. Is the Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986 is binding on apartment owners, tenants etc.?
a. No
b. Yes, under section 70
c. Yes, Chapter VI under Section 24
d. Yes, Chapter VII under Section 75

33. The common profits of the property shall be distributed among, and the common expenses
shall be charged to, the apartment owners according to the percentage of the undivided interest
of the apartment owners in the common areas and facilities. Is this statement correct?

a. Not covered in Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986

b. Yes, under section 19
c. Yes, Chapter V under Section 24
d. Yes, Chapter VII under Section 75

34. There shall be an Association of Apartment Owners for the administration of the affairs in
relation to the apartments and the property appertaining thereto and for the management of
common areas and facilities. Can there be more than one Association of Apartment Owners for
a given block or pocket?

a. Yes
b. Yes, proviso under section 15 prohibits constitution of more than one Association of
Apartment Owners for a given block or pocket.
c. Yes, Chapter IV under Section 23
d. Yes, Chapter II under Section 7

35. Deed of Apartment and every endorsement thereon relating to the transfer of the apartment
shall be deemed to be a document which is compulsorily registrable under:

a. Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986 (15 of 1986)

b. Registration Act, 1908 (16 of 1908)
c. Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986 (18 of 1986)
d. Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986 (17 of 1986)

36. Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986 is applicable on lease hold land provided:

a. The lease for such land is for a period of thirty years or more
b. The lease for such land is for a period of twenty-five years or more
c. The lease for such land is for a period of sixty years or more
d. The lease for such land is for a period of thirty-five years or more

37. Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986 is applicable to:

a. Whole of Delhi State

b. Whole of India, except Jammu and Kashmir
c. Whole of NCR
d. Whole of the Union territory of Delhi

38. common expenses” means-

(i) all sums lawfully and unlawfully assessed against the apartment owners by the Association
of Apartment Owners for meeting the expenses of administration, maintenance, repair or
replacement of the common areas and facilities;
(ii) expenses not declared as common expenses by the provisions of this Act or by the bye-
laws, or agreed upon by the Association of Apartment Owners.

a. Both (i) and (ii)

b. Only (i)
c. Only (ii)
d. None of the above
39. Under Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986, an apartment is heritable and transferable.

a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. None of the above

40. No apartment owner shall do any work which would be prejudicial to the soundness or
safety of the property or reduce the value thereof or impair any easement or hereditament or
shall add any material structure or excavate any additional basement or cellar without first
obtaining the consent of all the other apartment owners. Is it correct?

a. Yes
b. No

41. Can an apartment owner be exempted from liability for contribution by waiver of the use
of the common areas and facilities?

a. Yes, under section 29

b. Yes, under section 70
c. No, Chapter V under Section 20
d. Yes, Chapter VII under Section 75

42. Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986 consists of:

a. 6 Chapters and 28 sections

b. 6 Chapters and 27 sections
c. 7 Chapters and 27 sections
d. 7 Chapters and 28 sections
43. “common areas and facilities”, in relation to a multi-storeyed building, means-
(i) the land on which such building is located and all easements, rights and appurtenances
belonging to the land and the building;
(ii) the foundations, columns, girders, beams, supports, main walls, roofs, halls, corridors,
lobbies, stairs, stairways, fire-escapes and entrances and exits of the building;
(iii) not the basements, cellars, yards, gardens, parking areas, shopping centers, schools and
storage spaces;
(iv) the premises for the lodging of janitors or persons employed for the management of the
property;
(v) installations of central services, such as, power, light, gas, hot and cold water, heating,
refrigeration, air conditioning, incinerating and sewerage;
(vi) not the elevators, tanks, pumps, motors, fans, compressors, ducts and in general all
apparatus and installations existing for common use;
(vii) such other community and commercial facilities as may be prescribed;
(viii) all other parts of the property necessary or convenient to its existence, maintenance and
safety, or normally in common use.

a. Only (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vii), and (viii)

b. Only (i), (ii), (iv), (v), and (vii)
c. Only (ii), (iv), (v), and (vii)
d. All of the above

44. Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986 provides exclusive ownership and possession of the
apartment so allotted, sold or otherwise transferred to him.

a. Yes, under section 5

b. Yes, under section 4
c. Yes, under section 3
d. Yes, under Section 4, however, save as otherwise provided under section 6.

45. The promoter shall file in the office of the competent authority, and deliver to the concerned
allottee or transferee, a certified copy of each Deed of Apartment as registered under:
a. Section 12
b. Section 11
c. Section 13
d. Section 14.

46. Who is tasked to frame model bye-laws under Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986?

a. The Apartment Owners

b. The Association of Apartment Owners
c. The Registrar, Group Housing Society
d. The Administrator

47. Where the apartment owner is not in the occupation of the apartment owned by him, the
common expenses payable by such apartment owner may be recovered from the person in the
occupation of the apartment.

a. True, as per the section 19(2)

b. False
c. Partially True
d. True, as per the section 18(2)

48. Every rule made under this Act shall be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each
House of Parliament, while it is in session, for a total period of:

a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
49. All agreements, divisions and determinations lawfully made by the Association of
Apartment Owners in accordance with the provisions of this Act and the bye-laws shall be
deemed to be binding on all apartment owners.

a. True, as per the section 20(2)

b. True, as per the section 23(4)
c. Partially True, as per section 25(1)
d. True, as per the section 24(2)

50. Delhi Apartment Ownership Act, 1986 provides for:

(i) the ownership of an individual apartment in a multi-storeyed building
(ii) an divided interest in the common areas and facilities appurtenant to such apartment; and
(iii) interest heritable and transferable and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

a. Only (i) and (iii)

b. Only (i), and (ii)
c. Only (ii) and (iii)
d. All of the above

UNIT-4
Q1. The concept Joint tenants are relating to…..
a) Unity of title and possession
b) Title
c) Possession
d) None
Q.2 Tenants in common denotes...
a) Unity of possession
b) Unity of title and possession
c) None
Q3. Can a suit for eviction be filed against the tenant by the landlord, if the monthly rent is
Rs. 2,500/- ?
 a) Yes
b) No
c) May be
d) None
Q4. How can premises be sublet by a tenant?
a) By written consent given by the landlord
b) By written consent given by the Tenant
c) No consent is required
d) None
Q5. What will be the status if any subletting done by the tenant without written consent of
landlord?
a) Legal
b) Illegal
c) None
Q6. The court has the right to strike off the defense of the tenant under section 15 if...

a) If no rent is deposited as per order of the court under section 15 (2)

b) If rent is paid
c) None

Q.7 what do the term “sufficient cause” means?

a) good and reasonable cause

b) satisfaction of court about conduct of a person
c) none
d) both

Q.8 what do the term “bona-fide payment” mean?

a) Payment tendered genuinely and in good faith generally with the actual belief that the
person to whom payment is being made is the actual owner or has valid right and title
to the particular thing/property.
b) good faith
c) actual belief
d) None

Q.9 what are the grounds on which delay can be condoned for non-deposit of rent within
the statutory time?

a) Sufficient Cause
b) good faith
c) both
d) none
Q 10. Whether condonation of delay under section 15(7) is directory or mandatory?

a) Santosh Mehta v. Om Parkash, 1980 SCR (3) 325

b) D.C. Bhatia and Others. v. Union of India, 1995 1 SCC 104
c) None

Q. 11 Santosh Mehta v. Om Parkash, 1980 SCR (3) 325 also deals with….
a) Whether extension of time period by controller for depositing rent is allowed?
b) Whether condonation of delay under section 15(7) is directory or mandatory?
c) None
d) Both
Q. 12 D.C. Bhatia and Ors. v. Union of India, 1995 1 SCC 104 deals with….
a) Objective of Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958 is not only to protect weaker section but also
to give protection to land lord.
b) Weaker section
c) Land Lord
d) Both

Q. 13 If the rent is fixed by controller i.e. Rs. 3100. Can you file a suit?
a) No
b) Yes
c) May be
d) None
Q14. S.P.Arora v. Ajit Singh, 1970 RCR 628 deals with …
a) Clause (C) and (k) of Section 14 (1) of Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958.
b) Section 14
c) Section 14 (3)
d) None
Q. 15 whether the suit filed by the appellant / Plaintiff was barred under section 50 of Delhi
Rent Control Act, 1958. Which case highlighted this issue ……?
a) Jatinder Pal Singh v. Harinder Singh Jaggi, AIR Online 2018 DEL 1764
b) D.C. Bhatia and Others. v. Union of India, 1995 1 SCC 104
c) None
Q. 16 what are the ‘common reasons’ of eviction?
a) Non-payment of rent,
b) Habitual late payment of rent,
c) Damage to the property,
d) Disrupting other tenants and Holdover etc. or Specified under section 14.
e) All

Q. 17 what are the key steps for the Formal Eviction Process? (In Brief)
 i. Terminate the lease with proper notice
ii. When the tenant doesn’t leave, file an action with the local eviction court
iii. Attend a hearing
iv. Win the judgment
v. Hire
vi. Reclaim possession of the unit
vii. Change the locks
a) All are appropriate
b) Not appropriate
c) Partially arranged
d) None
Q. 18 How to Evict a Tenant in India?
a) Stage I - Send a Notice to the Tenant to Vacate
b) Stage II - File an Eviction Suit
c) Stage III - Final Eviction Notice
d) Not valid
e) Stage1, 2 & 3
Q. 19 The question as to whether the lockdown would entitle tenants to claim waiver or
exemption from payment of rent or suspension of rent, is bound to arise in thousands of cases
across the country relating to…..
a) Ramanand & Others v. Dr Girish Soni & Another (2020)
b) D.C. Bhatia and Others. v. Union of India, 1995 1 SCC 104
c) None
Q. 20 where the premises are used in a manner contrary to any condition imposed on the
landlord by the Government or Delhi Development Authority or Municipal Corporation of
Delhi, the landlord will be entitled to recovery of the possession under Section 14(1) (k) of the
1958 Act and that Section 14(11) of the 1958 Act enables the Controller to give another
opportunity to the tenant to avoid an order of eviction. This is relating to….
a) Dr. K. Madan v. Krishnawati, (1996) 6 SCC 707
b) Veera Rai v. S.P. Rao, 2000 (1) RCR (Rent) 621
c) None
Q21. The provisions of the rent control legislations are not to be interpreted with a hyper-
technical approach, which indirectly causes frustration of the mischief. This was held in….
a) Veera Rai v. S.P. Rao, 2000 (1) RCR (Rent) 621
b) E. Palanisamy v. Palanisamy (D) by LRs and Others, 2003 (1) SCC 123
c) None

Q22. Section 2(e) of the Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958 defines the term ‘landlord’; this
definition is fairly comprehensive and is stated in the widest possible amplitude. It not only
includes the owner but also the person who collects the rent on behalf of the owner, and
moreover this definition includes the legal representatives of the owner of the premises, as has
been held……
a) Dr. K. Madan v. Krishnawati, (1996) 6 SCC 707
b) Pukhraj Jain v. Padma Kashyap, AIR 1990 SC 1133
 c) D.C. Bhatia and Others. v. Union of India, 1995 1 SCC 104
d) None
Q23. Even a person holding a general power of attorney, and thus, empowered to collect the
rent on behalf of the owner of the premises, will come within the ambit of the expression
‘landlord’. This was held in….
a) Imtiaz Ali v. Nasim Ahmed, AIR 1987 Delhi 36
b) D.C. Bhatia and Others. v. Union of India, 1995 1 SCC 104
c) Dr. K. Madan v. Krishnawati, (1996) 6 SCC 707
d) None
Q24. Even a clerk empowered to collect rent comes within the periphery of the expression
‘landlord’. This was held in …..
a) Emperor v. Dattatraya Sitaram, AIR 1948 Bom 239
b) Veera Rai v. S.P. Rao, 2000 (1) RCR (Rent) 621
c) None
d) Both
Q25. In the case of Gomti Devi v. Om Prakash & Another, 15 (1979) DLT 291, it was held
that…
a) The landlord-tenant relationship can be proved by oral evidence and documentary
evidence is not necessary.
b) oral evidence and documentary evidence are necessary
c) only documentary evidence
d) none
Q26. “landlord” means a person who, for the time being is receiving, or is entitled to receive,
the rent of any premises, whether on his own account or on account of or on behalf of, or for
the benefit of, any other person or as a trustee, guardian or receiver for any other person or who
would so receive the rent or be entitled to receive the rent, if the premises were let to a tenant;
a) Section 2 (a)
b) Section 2 (b)
c) Section 2 (d)
d) Section 2 (e)
Q28. Tenancy is not created by payment of rent or by estoppel or by waiver. This is relating
to….
a) Satjit Singh v. Skipper Towers (P) Ltd., 79 (1999).
b) Gomti Devi v. Om Prakash & Another, 15 (1979) DLT 291
c) None

Q29. (Effect of Holding Over) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, holds that there has to be
an offer and a definite consent or in other words a bilateral contract; this question of binding
bilateral contract between the parties, in fact, has to be decided according to the facts and
circumstances of each case.
a) Section 116
b) Section 115
c) Section 118
 d) Section 119
Q30. If the son of the tenant pays the rent and consequently, the rent receipt is issued in the
name of the tenant and his son, this by itself will not make the son of the tenant a co-tenant.
This was held in…
a) Gomti Devi v. Om Prakash & Another, 15 (1979) DLT 291
b) Kailash Kumar v. Dr. R.K. Kapoor, 1994 (2) RCR 36
c) Both
d) None
Q31. A tenant may obtain lease of certain premises for the benefit of his joint family, that is
keeping in view the benefit the lease will obtain on the large number of the family members of
the tenant; but the provisions of the 1958 Act do not take this factor into account when they
provide for the eviction of the tenant on an allotment of a residence to him. All members of the
family of the tenant must be evicted along with the tenant when another accommodation is
allotted to the tenant. This was held in..
a) Hemraj v. Jagdish Singh, 1967 PLR (Delhi Section) 142
b) Gomti Devi v. Om Prakash & Another, 15 (1979) DLT 291
c) Kailash Kumar v. Dr. R.K. Kapoor, 1994 (2) RCR 36
d) Both
Q32 Standard rent is defined under…….of the Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958.
a) Section 5
b) Section 6
c) Section 7
d) None
Q. 33 Grounds of eviction are provided under…..
a) Section 10
b) Section 11
c) Section 14
d) Section 16

Q34. Protection of tenant against eviction is provided under…

a) Section 14
b) Section 13
c) Section 11
d) None
Answer: a
Q35. Right to recover immediate possession of premises to accrue to a widow is provided
under….
a) Section 14 D
b) Section 14 A
c) Section 14 C
d) Section 14
Q36. Notice of creation and termination of sub-tenancy is provided under…
a) Section 16
b) Section 17
c) Section 22
d) None
Q37. Which chapter deals with the Summary Trial of Certain Applications under the Delhi
Rent Control Act, 1958?
a) Chapter III-A
b) Chapter 2
c) Chapter 4
d) None
Q38. Powers of Controller is defined under……of the Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958.
a) Section 36
b) Section 35
c) Section 40
d) Section 44
Q39. When a notice is sent by the landlord vide a registered post, and the same is returned back
with an endorsement of “refused”, then it will be presumed that the notice has been served.
This was held in ….
a) Jagdish Singh v. Natthu Singh, AIR 1992 SC 1604
b) Hemraj v. Jagdish Singh, 1967 PLR (Delhi Section) 142
c) Gomti Devi v. Om Prakash & Another, 15 (1979) DLT 291
d) None
Q40. If the wife allows her husband to continue business from the tenanted premises, then it
does not amounts to sub-letting. This was held in…
a) Krishnawati v. Hans Raj, (1974) 1 SCC 289
b) Gomti Devi v. Om Prakash & Another, 15 (1979) DLT 291
c) None
d) Both
Q. 41 The initial purpose for which premises were let on rent was to run a grocery shop. The
tenant instead of using it for grocery shop started running a bookshop therein. The Supreme
Court held that, this cannot afford a valid ground for ordering eviction. This was held in….
a) Rattan Lal v. Asha Rani, JT 1988 (4) SC 83
b) Krishnawati v. Hans Raj, (1974) 1 SCC 289
c) Both
d) None
Q42. Right to recover immediate possession of premises to accrue to certain persons is
relating to………
a) Section 14-A
b) Section 14-B
 c) Section 15
d) Section 16
Q43. Recovery of possession for repairs and re-building and re-entry is relating to…..
a) Section 20
b) Section 19
c) Section 23
d) Section 25
Q44. It was held that, the tenancy would not be ipso facto determined and the tenant would
continue to be the tenant of the other co-owner, and thus, the other co-owner can claim eviction
from his part of the concerned tenant. This was held in…..
a) Pramod Kumar Jaiswal & Others v. Bibi Husn Bano & Others, AIR 2005 SC 2857
b) Krishnawati v. Hans Raj, (1974) 1 SCC 289
c) Gomti Devi v. Om Prakash & Another, 15 (1979) DLT 291
d) None
Q 45. The mere fact that the premises were in the exclusive possession of a person would not
make him a lessee and that exclusive possession coupled with interest in the property could
only make him a lessee. This was held in……
a) M.N. Clubwala v. Fida Hussain Saheb, AIR 1965 SC 610
b) Satjit Singh v. Skipper Towers (P) Ltd., 79 (1999).
c) None
d) Both
Q46. When a notice is sent by the landlord vide a registered post, and the same is returned back
with an endorsement of “refused”, then it will be presumed that the notice has been served.
This was held in……
a) Jagdish Singh v. Natthu Singh, AIR 1992 SC 1604
b) Satjit Singh v. Skipper Towers (P) Ltd., 79 (1999).
c) None
d) Both
Q47. Section 6 of the Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958 deals with….
a) Standard rent
b) Fair Rent
c) Revision of rent
d) None
Q48. Section 8 of the Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958 deals with….
a) Notice of increase of rent
b) Controller to fix standard rent
c) Limitation of liability of middlemen
d) None
Q49. Section 14 of the Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958 deals with….
a) Protection of tenant against eviction
b) Controller to fix standard rent
c) Both
 d) None
Q50. Section 15 of the Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958 deals with….
a) When a tenant can get the benefit of protection against eviction
b) Restrictions on sub-letting
c) Both
d) None

Answer Key
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
(UNIT 1)

Q1. Answer: (a)

Q2. Answer: (b)
Q3. Answer: (c)
Q4. Answer: (c)
Q5. Answer: (b)
Q6. Answer: (a)
Q7. Answer: (d)
Q8. Answer: (a)
Q9. Answer: (d)
Q10. Answer: (d)
Q11. Answer: (a)
Q12. Answer: (b)
Q13. Answer: (d)
Q14. Answer: (a)
Q15. Answer: (d)
Q16. Answer: (a)
Q17. Answer: (c)
Q18. Answer: (d)
Q19. Answer: (d)
Q20. Answer: (f)
Q21. Answer: (c)
Q22. Answer: (d)
Q23. Answer: (d)
Q24. Answer: (d)
Q25. Answer: (c)
Q26. Answer: (b)
Q27. Answer: (a)
Q28. Answer: (a)
Q29. Answer: (a)
Q30. Answer: (a)
Q31. Answer: (a)
Q32. Answer: (a)
Q33. Answer: (c)
Q34. Answer: (d)
Q35. Answer: (a)
Q36. Answer: (d)
Q37. Answer: (a)
Q38. Answer: (d)
Q39. Answer: (b)
Q40. Answer: (b)
Q41.Answer: (c)
Q42. Answer: (b)
Q43. Answer: (c)
Q44. Answer: (a)
Q45. Answer: (a)
Q46. Answer: (d)
Q47. Answer: (c)
Q48. Answer: (c)
Q49. Answer: (d)
Q50. Answer: (a)

MCQ ANSWERS OF UNIT-II

Q1. Answer (D)

Q2. Answer (D)
Q3. Answer (D)
Q4. Answer (D)
Q5. Answer (B)
Q6. Answer (D)
Q7. Answer (D)
Q8. Answer (C)
Q9. Answer (C)
Q10. Answer (B)
Q11. Answer (C)
Q12. Answer (C)
Q13. Answer (C)
Q14. Answer (D)
Q15. Answer (C)
Q16. Answer (B)
Q17. Answer (B)
Q18. Answer (B)
Q19. Answer (A)
Q20. Answer (D)
Q21. Answer (C)
Q22. Answer (B)
Q23. Answer (D)
Q24. Answer (A)
Q25. Answer (B)
Q26. Answer (A)
Q27. Answer (A)
Q28. Answer (C)
Q29. Answer (C)
Q30. Answer (B)
Q31. Answer (C)
Q32. Answer (A)
Q33. Answer (C)
Q34. Answer (D)
Q35. Answer (A)
Q36. Answer (C)
Q37. Answer (B)
Q38. Answer (B)
Q39. Answer (D)
Q40. Answer (C)
Q41. Answer (D)
Q42. Answer (D)
Q43. Answer (C)
Q44. Answer (A)
Q45. Answer (B)
Q46. Answer (A)
Q47. Answer (B)
Q48. Answer (D)
Q49. Answer (D)
Q50. Answer (A)

MCQ ANSWERS (UNIT-III)

Q1. Answer: (a)

Q2. Answer: (c)

Q3. Answer: (a)

Q4. Answer: (d)

Q.5. Answer: (a)

Q6. Answer: (a)

Q7. Answer: (b)

Q8. Answer: (a)

Q9. Answer: (d)

Q10. Answer: (a)

Q11. Answer: (c)

Q12. Answer: (b)

Q13. Answer: (b)

Q14. Answer: (c)

Q15. Answer: (c)

Q16. Answer: (b)

Q17. Answer: (d)

Q18. Answer: (a)

Q19. Answer: (c)

Q20. Answer: (c)

Q21. Answer: (c)

Q22. Answer: (c)

Q23. Answer: (d)

Q24. Answer: (d)

Q25. Answer: (b)

Q26. Answer: (d)

Q27. Answer: (a)

Q28. Answer: (d)

Q29. Answer: (a)

Q30. Answer: (b)

Q31. Answer: (c)

Q32. Answer: (c)

Q33. Answer: (b)

Q34. Answer: (b)

Q35. Answer: (b)

Q36. Answer: (a)

Q37. Answer: (d)

Q38. Answer: (d)

Q39. Answer: (a)

Q40. Answer: (a)

Q41. Answer: (c)

Q42. Answer: (b)

Q43. Answer: (a)

Q44. Answer: (d)

Q45. Answer: (d)

Q46. Answer: (d)

Q47. Answer: (a)

Q48. Answer: (a)

Q49. Answer: (a)

Q50. Answer: (a)

Answer Key
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION
(UNIT 4)

Q1. Answer: (a)

Q2. Answer: (a)
Q3. Answer: (b)
Q4. Answer: (a)
Q5. Answer: (b)
Q6. Answer: (a)
Q7. Answer: (d)
Q8. Answer: (a)
Q9. Answer: (a)
Q10. Answer: (a)
Q11. Answer: (d)
Q12. Answer: (d)
Q13. Answer: (a)
Q14. Answer: (a)
Q15. Answer: (a)
Q16. Answer: (e)
Q17. Answer: (a)
Q18. Answer: (e)
Q19. Answer: (a)
Q20. Answer: (a)
Q21. Answer: (b)
Q22. Answer: (b)
Q23. Answer: (a)
Q24. Answer: (a)
Q25. Answer: (a)
Q26. Answer: (d)
Q27. Answer: (d)
Q28. Answer: (a)
Q29. Answer: (a)
Q30. Answer: (b)
Q31. Answer: (a)
Q32. Answer: (b)
Q33. Answer: (c)
Q34. Answer: (a)
Q35. Answer: (a)
Q36. Answer: (b)
Q37. Answer: (a)
Q38. Answer: (a)
Q39. Answer: (a)
Q40. Answer: (a)
Q41.Answer: (a)
Q42. Answer: (a)
Q43. Answer: (a)
Q44. Answer: (a)
Q45. Answer: (a)
Q46. Answer: (a)
Q47. Answer: (a)
Q48. Answer: (a)
Q49. Answer: (a)
Q50. Answer: (a)