MCQ Workbook PDF

100’s of Multi-choice ques�ons for A-level Physics covering all
core topics, with mark schemes. Suitable for all exam boards.
Mo�on graphs and SUVAT (5 marks)
Q1.An object is dropped from a cliff. How far does the object fall in the third second?
Assume that g = 10 m s–2.
A 10 m
B 20 m
C 25 m
D 45 m
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.A car accelerates uniformly from rest along a straight road. Which graph shows the
variation of displacement x of the car with time t?
A B C D
(Total 1 mark)
Page 2 of 243
Q3.
What is the relationship between the distance y travelled by an object falling freely from rest
and the time x the object has been falling?
A y is proportional to x2
B y is proportional to √x
C y is proportional to
D y is proportional to
(Total 1 mark)
Q4. A lunar landing module is descending to the Moon’s surface at a steady velocity
of 10.0 m s–1. At a height of 120 m a small object falls from its landing gear.
Assuming that the Moon’s gravitational acceleration is 1.60 m s–2, at what speed,
in m s–1 does the object strike the Moon?
A 22.0
B 19.6
C 16.8
D 10.0
(Total 1 mark)
Page 3 of 243
Q5.
A perfectly elastic rubber ball falls vertically from rest and rebounds from the floor. Which
one of the following velocity-time, v–t, graphs best represents the motion from the momentof
release to the top of the first rebound?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 4 of 243
Mo�on graphs and SUVAT mark scheme
M1.C
[1]
M2.B
[1]
M3.A
[1]
M4.A
[1]
M5.D
[1]
Page 5 of 243
Newton’s Laws of motion (9 marks)
Q1.Which of the following statements is correct?
The force acting on an object is equivalent to
A its change of momentum.
the impulse it receives per

B
second.
C the energy it gains per second.
D its acceleration per metre.
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.Two masses hang at rest from a spring, as shown in the diagram. The string separating
the masses is burned through.
Which of the following gives the accelerations of the two masses as the string
breaks? acceleration of free fall = g
acceleration of acceleration of
1 kg mass upwards in 2 kg mass downwards
m s–2 in
m s–2
A 3g 1g
B 2g 2g
C 2g 1g
D 1g 1g
(Total 1 mark)
Page 6 of 243
Q3.A ball is released so that it falls vertically. The graph shows how the resultant force
acting on the ball changes with time.
Which one of the following is represented by the area under the graph?
A distance travelled
B gain in kinetic energy
C acceleration
D impulse
(Total 1 mark)
Q4.Which one of the following is a possible unit of impulse?
A Ns–1
B kg ms–1
C kg ms–2
D sN–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q5.A golf club strikes a stationary golf ball of mass 4.8 × 10–2 kg and the ball leaves the club
with a speed of 95 m s–1. If the average force exerted on the ball is 7800 N, how long are the
ball and club in contact?
A 5.8 × 10–4 s
B 1.2 × 10–2 s
C 0.51 s
D 0.58 s
(Total 1 mark)
Page 7 of 243
Q6.Which one of the following has the same unit as the rate of change of momentum?
A work
B energy
C acceleration
D weight
(Total 1 mark)
Q7.A firework rocket is fired vertically into the air and explodes at its highest point.
What are the changes to the total kinetic energy of the rocket and the total
momentum of the rocket as a result of the explosion?
total kinetic energy

total momentum of
of
rocket
rocket
A unchanged unchanged
B unchanged increased
C increased unchanged
D increased increased
(Total 1 mark)
Q8.The graph shows how the force acting on a rocket varies with time.
Page 8 of 243
Which one of the following is represented by the area under the graph?
A distance travelled
B gain in kinetic energy
C change in velocity
D change in momentum
(Total 1 mark)
Q9.An object is accelerated from rest by a constant force F for a time t. Which graphs
represent the variation of time with the change in the kinetic energy and the
change in momentum of the object?
Kinetic energy Momentum
Page 9 of 243
A
(Total 1 mark)
Page 10 of 243
Newton’s Laws of Motion mark scheme
M1.B
[1]
M2.C
[1]
M3.D
[1]
M4.B
[1]
M5.A
[1]
M6.D
[1]
M7.C
[1]
Page 11 of 243
M8.D
[1]
M9.A
[1]
Page 12 of 243
Moments (4 marks)
Q1.A uniform square block is sliding with uniform speed along a rough surface as
shown in the diagram.
The force used to move the block is 200 N. The moment of the frictional force
acting on the block about the centre of gravity of the block is
A 150 N m, clockwise
B 150 N m, anticlockwise
C 300 N m, clockwise
D 300 N m, anticlockwise
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.A car wheel nut can be loosened by applying a force of 200 N on the end of a bar
of length 0.8 m as in X. A car mechanic is capable of applying forces of 500 N
simultaneously in opposite directions on the ends of a wheel wrench as in Y.
X Y
What is the minimum length l of the wrench which would be needed for him to
loosen the nut?
A 0.16 m
B 0.32 m
C 0.48 m
D 0.64 m
(Total 1 mark)
Page 13 of 243
Q3. In the system shown a light rigid beam, pivoted at X, is held in position by a string
which is fixed at Y. The beam carries a load of 200 N. The load is moved towards X.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A The tension in the string increases
B The compression force in the beam increases
C The moment of the load about X increases
D The magnitude of the vertical component of the reaction at X increases
(Total 1 mark)
Q4.The diagram shows a uniform door hanging from two hinges 2.5 m apart.
Page 14 of 243
The moment of the couple that the hinges exert on the door is
A 150 N m
B 200 N m
C 250 N m
D 500 N m
(Total 1 mark)
Page 15 of 243
Moments mark scheme
M1.A
[1]
M2.B
[1]
M3.D
[1]
M4.A
[1]
Page 16 of 243
Work, Energy and Power (5 marks)
Q1.A firework rocket is fired vertically into the air and explodes at its highest point.
What are the changes to the total kinetic energy of the rocket and the total
momentum of the rocket as a result of the explosion?
total kinetic energy

total momentum of
of
rocket
rocket
A unchanged Unchanged
B unchanged Increased
C increased Unchanged
D increased Increased
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.Which of the following is not a unit of power?
A N m s–1
B kg m2 s–3
C J s–1
D kg m–1 s–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q3.A car exerts a driving force of 500 N when travelling at a constant speed of72 km
h–1 on a level track. What is the work done in 5 minutes?
A 3.0 × 106 J
B 2.0 × 106 J
C 2.0 × 105 J
D 1.1 × 105 J
(Total 1 mark)
Page 17 of 243
Q4.An electric motor of input power 100 W raises a mass of 10 kg vertically at a
steady speed of 0.5 m s–1. What is the efficiency of the system?
A 5%
B 12%
C 50%
D 100%
(Total 1 mark)
Q5. Which one of the following could not be used as a unit of force?
A ATm
B W s–2
C kg m s–2
D J m–1
(Total 1 mark)
Page 18 of 243
Work, Energy and Power mark scheme
M1.C
[1]
M2.D
[1]
M3.C
[1]
M4.C
[1]
M5. B
[1]
Page 19 of 243
Momentum (9 marks)
Q1. Which of the following is a possible unit for rate of change of momentum?
A Ns
B N s–1
C kg ms–1
D kg ms–2
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.Trolley T1, of mass 2.0 kg, collides on a horizontal surface with trolley T2, which is
also of mass 2.0 kg. The collision is elastic. Before the collision T1 was moving
at 4.0 m s–1 and T2 was at rest.
Immediately after the collision
A T1 is at rest and T2 moves at 4.0 m s–1.

B T1 will rebound from T2 at 4.0 m s–1.
C T1 and T2 will both move at 2.8 m s–1.
D T1 and T2 will both move at 1.4 m s–1.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 20 of 243
Q3. A body X, moving with a velocity v, collides elastically with a stationary body Y of equal
mass.
Which one of the following correctly describes the velocities of the two bodies
after the collision?
velocity of X velocity of Y
C –v 0
D 0 v
(Total 1 mark)
Q4. A rail truck X travels along a level track and collides with a stationary truck Y.
The two trucks move together at the same velocity after the collision.
Which line, A to D, in the table states how the total momentum and the total
kinetic energy of the trucks change as a result of the impact.
total momentum total kinetic energy
A Unchanged unchanged
B Unchanged decreases
C Decreases decreases
D Decreases unchanged
(Total 1 mark)
Page 21 of 243
Q5. A railway truck of mass 8000 kg travels along a level track at a velocity of 2.5
ms–1 and collides with a stationary truck of mass 12000 kg. The two trucks move
together at the same velocity after the collision.
What is the change in momentum of the 8000 kg truck due to the impact?
A 8000 N s
B 12000 N s
C 20000 N s
D 25000 N s
(Total 1 mark)
Q6.The diagram shows the graph of force on a car against time when the car of mass 500
kg crashes into a wall without rebounding.
A The area under the graph is equal to the initial momentum of the car
B Momentum is not conserved in the collision
C Kinetic energy is conserved in the collision
D The average force exerted on the car is 10 × 104 N

(Total 1 mark)
Page 22 of 243
Q7.A body falls freely, with negligible air resistance. What quantity of the body is its
rate of change of momentum?
A Mass
B Power
C kinetic energy
D Weight
(Total 1 mark)
Q8.Water of density 1000 kg m–3 flows out of a garden hose of cross-sectional area
7.2 × 10–4 m2 at a rate of 2.0 × 10–4 m3 per second. How much momentum is
carried by the water leaving the hose per second?
A 5.6 ×10–5 N s
B 5.6 × 10–2 N s
C 0.20 N s
D 0.72 N s
(Total 1 mark)
Q9. Two ice skaters, initially at rest and in contact, push apart from each other.
Which line, A to D, in the table states correctly the change in the total momentum
and the total kinetic energy of the two skaters?
A Unchanged increases
B Unchanged unchanged
C Increases increases
D Increases unchanged
(Total 1 mark)
Page 23 of 243
Momentum mark scheme
M1. D
[1]
M2.A
[1]
M3.D
[1]
M4. B
[1]
M5.B
[1]
M6.A
[1]
Page 24 of 243
M7.D
[1]
M8.B
[1]
M9. A
[1]
Page 25 of 243
Vectors and Scalars (8 marks)
Q1.Which one of the following pairs contains one vector and one scalar quantity?
A Displacement Acceleration
B Force Kinetic energy
C Power Speed
D Work Potential energy
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
A velocity
B kinetic energy
C force
D momentum
(Total 1 mark)
Q3. Which line, A to D, in the table shows correctly whether the moment of a
force, and momentum, are scalar or vector quantities?
moment of force momentum
A scalar scalar
B scalar vector
C vector scalar
D vector vector
(Total 1 mark)
Page 26 of 243
Q4.Two forces of 6 N and 10 N act at a point. Which of the following could not be the
magnitude of the result?
A 16 N
B 8N
C 5N
D 3N
(Total 1 mark)
Q5.The rectangular objects, A, B, C and D are each 2 cm long and 1 cm high. Which
one of the bodies is in equilibrium?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 27 of 243
Q6.A pivoted metre rule is supported in equilibrium horizontally by a thread inclined at
30° to the vertical.
The three forces acting on the rule are:
its weight W;
the tension T in the thread;
the reaction force R at the pivot.
Which one of these diagrams, drawn to scale, represents the magnitudes and
directions of these three forces?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 28 of 243
Q7.Coplanar forces of 5 N, 4 N and 3 N act on an object. Which force, in N, could not
possibly be the resultant of these forces?
A 0
B 4
1
C
2
1
D
6
(Total 1 mark)
Q8.A small sphere, of mass m and carrying a charge Q, is suspended from a thread
and placed in a uniform horizontal electric field of strength E. When the sphere
comes to rest the thread makes an angle θ with the vertical and the tension in it
is T, as shown in the diagram. W is the weight of the sphere and F is the electric
force acting on it.
Under these conditions, which one of the following equations is incorrect?
A T sin θ = EQ
B T = mg cosθ + EQ sinθ
C T2 = (EQ)2 + (mg)2
D mg = EQ tanθ
(Total 1 mark)
Page 29 of 243
Vectors mark scheme
M1.B
[1]
M2.B
[1]
M3. D
[1]
M4.D
[1]
M5.B
[1]
M6.B
[1]
M7.D
Page 30 of 243
[1]
M8.D
[1]
Page 31 of 243
Materials (6 marks)
Q1.
Measurements are made to determine the tension, length and mass per unit
length of a string stretched between two supports. The percentage uncertainties
in these measurements are shown below.
Percentage
Quantity
uncertainty
Length 0.80%
Tension 4.0%
Mass per unit length 2.0%
A stationary wave is formed on the string.
What is the percentage uncertainty in the calculated value of the frequency of the
first harmonic?
A 1.8%
B 3.8%
C 6.8%
D 13%
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.
The table contains information on four wires. It shows the stiffness of each wire
and the maximum strain energy stored in the wire when extended to the breaking
point.
Assume each wire has the same initial dimensions and obeys Hooke’s law.
Which wire extends the least before reaching the breaking point?
Maximum strain
Stiffness / N m–1
energy / J
A 4.0 1
B 9.0 1
C 16 3
D 25 3
(Total 1 mark)
Page 32 of 243
Q3.
Two separate wires X and Y have the same original length and cross-sectional
area.
The graph shows the extension ∆L produced in X and Y when the tensile force
F applied to the wires is increased up to the point where they break.
Which statement is incorrect?
For a given extension more energy is stored in X than

A
in Y.
The Young modulus of the material of wire Y is greater
B
than that of wire X.
C Both wire X and wire Y obey Hooke’s law.
D Wire X has a greater breaking stress than wire Y.

(Total 1 mark)
Q4.
A steel wire W has a length l and a circular cross-section of radius r. When W
hangs vertically and a load is attached to the bottom end, it extends by e.
Another wire X made from the same material has the same load attached to it.
Which length and radius for X will produce an extension of ?
Length of X Radius of X
A 0.5l 2r
B l 4r
C 2l 2r
D 4l 4r
(Total 1 mark)
Page 33 of 243
Q5.
What cannot be used as a unit for the Young modulus?
A N m–2
B Pa
C kg m–2 s–2
D kg m–1 s–2
(Total 1 mark)
Q6.
What is the name given to a material that breaks without deformation when a
force is applied to it?
A Plastic
B Brittle
C Stiff
D Elastic
(Total 1 mark)
Page 34 of 243
Materials mark scheme
Q1.
B
[1]
Q2.
B
[1]
Q3.
B
[1]
Q4.
D
[1]
Q5.
C
[1]
Q6.
B
[1]
Page 35 of 243
Electric Circuits (35 marks)
Q1.
Which is equivalent to the ohm?
A J C–2 s–1
B J C–2 s
C Js
D J s–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.
Which graph shows the variation of the resistance with temperature for an ntc
thermistor?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Page 36 of 243
Q3.
The cell in the following circuit has an emf of 2.0 V and an internal resistance of
1.0 Ω.
The digital voltmeter reads 1.6 V. What is the resistance of R?
A 0.4 Ω
B 1.0 Ω
C 2.0 Ω
D 4.0 Ω
(Total 1 mark)
Q4.
The circuit shown is used to supply a variable potential difference (pd) to another
circuit.
Which graph shows how the pd supplied V varies as the moving contact C is
moved from position P to position Q?
Page 37 of 243
A
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q5.
Which resistor arrangement has the greatest value of resistance?
Page 38 of 243
A
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q6.
A pd V is applied across a resistor. Another identical resistor is then connected
in series with it and the same pd V is applied across the combination.
A The total resistance is doubled.
B
The pd across one resistor is .
The current in the resistors is
C
halved.
The power dissipated in one resistor
D
is halved.
(Total 1 mark)
Q7.
When a constant potential difference (pd) is applied across the ends of a uniform
wire there is a current I in the wire.
The wire is replaced by one made from the same material, but of double the
length and double the diameter. The same pd is applied across the ends.
What is the new current?
A 4I
B 2I
(Total 1 mark)
Page 39 of 243
Q8.
The cell in the following circuit has an emf (electromotive force) of 6.0 V and an
internal resistance of 3.0 Ω. The resistance of the variable resistor is set to 12 Ω.
How much electrical energy is converted into thermal energy within the cell in 1
minute?
A 0.48 J
B 29 J
C 45 J
D 144 J
(Total 1 mark)
Q9.
In the circuit shown below, each of the resistors has the same resistance.
A voltmeter with very high resistance is connected between two points in the
circuit.
Page 40 of 243
Between which two points of connection would the voltmeter read zero?
A Q and U
B P and T
C Q and W
D S and U
(Total 1 mark)
Q10.
A metal wire has a length l and a cross-sectional area A. When a potential
difference V is applied to the wire, there is a current I in the wire.
What is the resistivity of the wire?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 41 of 243
Q11.
The diagram shows a network of resistors connected between the terminals P
and Q.
The resistance of each resistor is shown.
What is the effective resistance between P and Q?
A R
B 2R
C 3R
D 4R
(Total 1 mark)
Q12.
When the temperature of a copper wire increases, its ability to conduct electricity
A remains the same.
B increases.
C decreases.
remains the same at first and then

D
increases.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 42 of 243
Q13.
A mains transformer has a primary coil of 2500 turns and a secondary coil of 130
turns.
The primary coil is connected to a mains supply where Vrms is 230 V.
The secondary coil is connected to a lamp of resistance 6.0 Ω.
The transformer is 100% efficient.
What is the peak power dissipated in the lamp?
A 12 W
B 24 W
C 48 W
D 96 W
(Total 1 mark)
Q14.
The National Grid is used to transfer electrical energy from power stations to
consumers.
What conditions for the transmission voltage and the transmission current give
the most efficient transfer of energy through the National Grid?
Transmission voltage Transmission current
A High High
B High Low
C Low High
D Low Low
(Total 1 mark)
Page 43 of 243
Q15.
In this resistor network, the emf of the supply is 12 V and it has negligible internal
resistance.
What is the reading on a voltmeter connected between points X and Y?
A 0V
B 1V
C 3V
D 4V
(Total 1 mark)
Q16.
The mean power dissipated in a resistor is 47.5 μW when the root mean square
(rms) voltage across the resistor is 150 mV.
What is the peak current in the resistor?
A 2.3 × 10−4 A
B 4.5 × 10−4 A
C 2.3 × 103 A
D 4.5 × 103 A
(Total 1 mark)
Page 44 of 243
Q17.
The figure shows a light dependent resistor (LDR) and fixed resistor R connected
in series across a cell. The internal resistance of the cell is negligible.
Which row shows how the readings on the ammeter and the voltmeter change
when the light intensity incident on the LDR is increased?
Ammeter reading Voltmeter reading
A decreases increases
B decreases decreases
C increases increases
D increases decreases
(Total 1 mark)
Page 45 of 243
Q18.
The table shows the resistivity, length and cross-sectional area of wires P and Q.
cross-sectional
resistivity length
area
wire P ρ L A
wire Q L
The resistance of wire P is R.
What is the total resistance of the wires when they are connected in parallel?
(Total 1 mark)
Q19.
The combined resistance of n identical resistors connected in parallel is Rn.
Which statement correctly describes the variation of Rn as n increases?
A Rn decreases linearly as n increases

B Rn decreases non-linearly as n increases
C Rn increases linearly as n increases
D Rn increases non-linearly as n increases
(Total 1 mark)
Page 46 of 243
Q20.
In the circuit below, the potential difference across the light emitting diode (LED)
is 1.8 V when it is emitting light.
The current in the circuit is 20 mA.
What is the value of the resistor R?
A 80 Ω
B 90 Ω
C 150 Ω
D 160 Ω
(Total 1 mark)
Q21.
Which graph shows how power dissipated P varies with current I in a component
that obeys Ohm’s law?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 47 of 243
Q22.
A wire has a resistance R.
What is the resistance when both the length and radius of the wire are doubled?
C 2R
D 4R
(Total 1 mark)
Q23.
A battery of negligible internal resistance and an emf of 12 V is connected in
series with a heating element. The heating element has a resistance of 6.5 Ω
when in operation.
What is the energy transferred by the heating element when operating for 5
minutes?
A 111 J
B 390 J
C 6650 J
D 23 400 J
(Total 1 mark)
Page 48 of 243
Q24.
The current in the cell is 10 A as shown.
What is the current in the 2.0 Ω resistor?
A 0.35 A
B 2.86 A
C 3.50 A
D 7.14 A
(Total 1 mark)
Q25.
Three cells each have an emf ε = 1.5 V and an internal resistance r = 0.6 Ω.
Which combination of these cells will deliver a total emf of 1.5 V and a maximum
current of 7.5 A?
Page 49 of 243
A
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q26.
A voltmeter is used to measure potential difference for a component X.
Which row gives the position and ideal resistance for the voltmeter?
Position Ideal resistance
A in series with X infinite
B in series with X zero
C in parallel with X infinite
D in parallel with X zero
(Total 1 mark)
Page 50 of 243
Q27.
A gas containing doubly-charged ions flows to give an electric current of 0.64 A
How many ions pass a point in 1.0 minute?
A 2.0 × 1018
B 4.0 × 1018
C 1.2 × 1020
D 2.4 × 1020
(Total 1 mark)
Q28.
The two resistors shown are both uniform cylinders of equal length made from
the same conducting putty.
The diameter of Y is twice that of X. The resistance of Y is R.
What is the total resistance of the combination?
B 3R
C 4R
D 5R
(Total 1 mark)
Page 51 of 243
Q29.
A mobile phone operates at a constant power of 200 mW
It has a 3.7 V lithium-ion battery that has a charge capacity of 9400 C
What is the time taken for the battery to discharge completely?
A 2 hours
B 48 hours
C 120 hours
D 140 hours
(Total 1 mark)
Q30.
1.0 kilowatt-hour (kW h) is equivalent to
A 6.3 × 1018 eV
B 6.3 × 1021 eV
C 2.3 × 1022 eV
D 2.3 × 1025 eV
(Total 1 mark)
Q31.
A student carries out an experiment to determine the resistivity of a metal wire.
She determines the resistance from measurements of potential difference
between the ends of the wire and the corresponding current. She measures the
length of the wire with a ruler and the diameter of the wire using a micrometer.
Each measurement is made with an uncertainty of 1%
Which measurement gives the largest uncertainty in the calculated value of the
resistivity?
A current
B diameter
C length
D potential difference
(Total 1 mark)
Page 52 of 243
Q32.
The circuit shows a cell with negligible internal resistance connected in a circuit
with three resistors, an ammeter and a voltmeter.
Which row shows the readings on the ammeter and voltmeter?
Current / A Voltage / V
A 0.075 0.75
B 0.075 1.50
C 0.150 0.75
D 0.150 1.50
(Total 1 mark)
Page 53 of 243
Q33.
A circuit consists of two identical cells, a resistor, an ammeter and a voltmeter.
The cells each have an emf of 3.0 V and the resistor has a resistance of 12 Ω
The cells have negligible internal resistance.
Which row shows the readings on the voltmeter and ammeter?
Voltage / V Current / A
A 3.0 0.25
B 3.0 0.50
C 6.0 0.25
D 6.0 0.50
(Total 1 mark)
Page 54 of 243
Q34.
The graph shows how the potential difference V across an electrical component
varies with current I in the component.
A tangent has been drawn on the curve at point P for a current of I2.
What is the resistance of the electrical component when the current in the
component is I2?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 55 of 243
Q35.
A circuit consists of a cell, a thermistor, a fixed resistor and two ammeters.
The cell has a constant electromotive force and negligible internal resistance.
Readings from the two ammeters are taken.
Which row describes what happens to the current in each ammeter when the
temperature of the thermistor decreases?
Current in ammeter A1 Current in ammeter A2
A Decreases Unchanged
B Decreases Increases
C Increases Decreases
D Increases Unchanged
(Total 1 mark)
Page 56 of 243
Electric Circuits mark scheme
Q1.
B
[1]
Q2.
C
[1]
Q3.
D
[1]
Q4.
C
[1]
Q5.
C
[1]
Q6.
D
[1]
Q7.
B
[1]
Q8.
B
[1]
Q9.
A
[1]
Q10.
B
Page 57 of 243
[1]
Q11.
B
[1]
Q12.
C
[1]
Q13.
C
[1]
Q14.
B
[1]
Q15.
B
[1]
Q16.
B
[1]
Q17.
D
[1]
Q18.
B
[1]
Q19.
B
[1]
Q20.
C
[1]
Page 58 of 243
Q21.
A
[1]
Q22.
B
[1]
Q23.
C
[1]
Q24.
B
[1]
Q25.
D
[1]
Q26.
C
[1]
Q27.
C
[1]
Q28.
D
[1]
Q29.
B
[1]
Q30.
D
[1]
Q31.
Page 59 of 243
B
[1]
Q32.
B
[1]
Q33.
A
[1]
Q34.
C
[1]
Q35.
A
[1]
Page 60 of 243
Waves (35 marks)
Q1.
A ray of light is incident on a glass–air boundary of a rectangular block as shown.
The refractive index of this glass is 1.5

The refractive index of air is 1.0
The angle of incidence of the light at the first glass–air boundary is 44°
What is the path of the ray of light?
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.
A layer of liquid of refractive index 1.6 covers the horizontal flat surface of a
glass block of refractive index 1.5. A ray of light strikes the boundary between
them at an angle such that it travels along the boundary afterwards.
How does the ray strike the boundary?
A it travels in glass at an angle of 70° to the boundary
B it travels in glass at an angle of 20° to the boundary
it travels in the liquid at an angle of 70° to the

C
boundary
it travels in the liquid at an angle of 20° to the
D
boundary
(Total 1 mark)
Page 61 of 243
Q3.
Two points on a progressive wave are one-eighth of a wavelength apart. The
distance between them is 0.5 m, and the frequency of the oscillation is 10 Hz.
What is the minimum speed of the wave?
A 0.2 m s–1
B 10 m s–1
C 20 m s–1
D 40 m s–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q4.
A diffraction pattern is formed by passing monochromatic light through a single
slit. If the width of the single slit is reduced, which of the following is true?
Intensity of
Width of central
central
maximum
maximum
A unchanged decreases
B increases increases
C increases decreases
D decreases decreases
(Total 1 mark)
Q5.
Which of the following waves cannot be polarised?
A Radio
B Ultrasonic
C microwave
D Ultraviolet
(Total 1 mark)
Page 62 of 243
Q6.
For waves on a water surface, the following graph shows how the displacement
y of a water particle in the surface varies with the time t.
What are the quantities z and s?
z s
A frequency amplitude
B period half-amplitude
C wavelength half-amplitude
D period amplitude
(Total 1 mark)
Q7.
What is the correct order of increasing photon energy in the electromagnetic
spectrum?
1 is least energy, 4 is greatest energy.
Radio waves γ rays Visible light Infrared
A 1 4 3 2
B 4 1 2 3
C 1 4 2 3
D 4 1 3 2
(Total 1 mark)
Page 63 of 243
Q8. Two radio transmitters emit waves at a frequency of 1.4 MHz. A stationary wave is set
up between the two transmitters due to the superposition of the radio waves.
What is the minimum distance between two nodes in the stationary wave?
A 107 m
B 214 m
C 428 m
D 857 m
(Total 1 mark)
Q9.
A parallel beam of monochromatic light is directed normally at a plane
transmission grating which has N slits per metre. The second order diffracted
beam is at angle θ to the zero order transmitted beam.
The grating is then replaced by a plane transmission grating which has 2N slits
per metre.
With the first grating, the first order beam is at

A angle 0.5θ to the zero order transmitted
beam.
With the second grating, the first order beam
B is at angle 0.5θ to the zero order transmitted
beam.
With the second grating, the first order beam
C is at angle θ to the zero order transmitted
beam.
With the second grating, the second order
D beam is at angle θ to the zero order
transmitted beam.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 64 of 243
Q10.
A diffraction grating has 500 lines per mm. When monochromatic light is incident
normally on the grating the third-order spectral line is formed at an angle of 60°
from the normal to the grating.
What is the wavelength of the monochromatic light?
A 220 nm
B 580 nm
C 960 nm
D 1700 nm
(Total 1 mark)
Q11.
When a parallel beam of monochromatic light is directed at two narrow slits, S1
and S2, interference fringes are observed on a screen.
Which line in the table gives the changes that will increase the spacing of the
fringes?
Distance from slits to

Slit spacing
screen
A halved halved
B halved doubled
C doubled halved
D doubled doubled
(Total 1 mark)
Page 65 of 243
Q12.
Two loudspeakers emit sound waves.
Which line in the table gives the correct frequency condition and the correct
phase condition for the waves from the loudspeakers to be coherent?
Frequency condition Phase condition
A same frequency variable phase difference
constant frequency
B constant phase difference
difference
constant frequency
C in phase
difference
D same frequency constant phase difference

(Total 1 mark)
Q13.
Which of the following statements about the behaviour of waves is incorrect?
A All waves can be diffracted.
All waves can be made to undergo

B
superposition.
C All waves can be refracted.
D All waves can be polarised.

(Total 1 mark)
Page 66 of 243
Q14.
The graph shows how the vertical height of a travelling wave varies with distance
along the path of the wave.
The speed of the wave is 20cm s–1.
What is the period of the wave?
A 0.1s
B 0.2s
C 5.0s
D 10.0s
(Total 1 mark)
Q15.
A progressive wave of frequency 150 Hz travels along a stretched string at a
speed of 30 m s−1.
What is the phase difference between two points that are 50 mm apart on the string?
A zero
B 90°
C 180°
D 360°
(Total 1 mark)
Page 67 of 243
Q16.
The graph shows how the displacement of a particle performing simple harmonic
motion varies with time.
Which statement is not correct?
A
The speed of the particle is a maximum at time
B
The potential energy of the particle is zero at time
C
The acceleration of the particle is a maximum at time
D The restoring force acting on the particle is zero at time T

(Total 1 mark)
Q17.
When light of wavelength 5.0 × 10–7 m is incident normally on a diffraction grating
the fourth-order maximum is observed at an angle of 30°.
What is the number of lines per mm on the diffraction grating?
A 2.5 × 102
B 2.5 × 105
C 1.0 × 103
D 1.0 × 106
(Total 1 mark)
Page 68 of 243
Q18.
A stationary wave is set up on a stretched string of length l and diameter d.
Another stationary wave is also set up on a second string made from the same
material and with the same tension as the first.
What length and diameter are required for the second string so that both strings
have the same first-harmonic frequency?
Length of second string Diameter of second string
A 2l 2d
B l 2d
C 2d
D l
(Total 1 mark)
Q19.
Which statement is not correct for ultrasound and X-rays?
A Both can be refracted
B Both can be diffracted
C Both can be polarised
D Both can be reflected

(Total 1 mark)
Q20.
Light of wavelength 500 nm is passed through a diffraction grating which has 400
lines per mm.
What is the angular separation between the two second-order maxima?
A 11.5°
B 23.1°
C 23.6°
D 47.2°
(Total 1 mark)
Page 69 of 243
Q21.
A uniform wire, fixed at both ends, is plucked in the middle so that it vibrates at
the first harmonic as shown.
What is the phase difference between the oscillations of the particles at P and
Q?
A zero
(Total 1 mark)
Q22.
Intensity maxima are produced on a screen when a parallel beam of
monochromatic light is incident on a diffraction grating. Light of a longer
wavelength can be used or the distance from the diffraction grating to the screen
can be increased.
Which row gives the change in appearance of the maxima when these changes
are made independently?
Distance from grating

Longer wavelength
to screen increased
A closer together more widely spaced
B more widely spaced more widely spaced
C more widely spaced closer together
D closer together closer together
(Total 1 mark)
Page 70 of 243
Q23.
The diagram shows a ray of light travelling in air and incident on a glass block of
refractive index 1.5
What is the angle of refraction in the glass?
A 22.5°
B 23.3°
C 33.1°
D 59.4°
(Total 1 mark)
Q24.
Which row shows the change in velocity, frequency and wavelength of an
electromagnetic wave as it travels from an optically less dense to an optically
more dense medium?
Velocity Frequency Wavelength
A decreases decreases unchanged
B increases unchanged increases
C decreases unchanged decreases
D increases increases unchanged
(Total 1 mark)
Page 71 of 243
Q25.
Which statement is correct about the properties of an unpolarised
electromagnetic wave as it passes through a polariser?
A The wave remains unchanged.
B The wave does not pass through the polariser.
C The wave’s electric field oscillates along the direction of travel.
D The intensity of the wave is reduced.

(Total 1 mark)
Q26.
Which row correctly shows electromagnetic radiations in order of decreasing
wavelength?
A gamma > ultraviolet > microwave
B ultraviolet > gamma > microwave
C microwave > ultraviolet > gamma
D gamma > microwave > ultraviolet

(Total 1 mark)
Q27.
An object of mass 0.15 kg performs simple harmonic motion. It oscillates with
amplitude 55 mm and frequency 0.80 Hz
What is the maximum value of its kinetic energy?
A 5.7 × 10–3 J
B 11 × 10–3 J
C 0.57 J
D 11 J
(Total 1 mark)
Page 72 of 243
Q28.
Which graph shows how the gravitational potential energy Ep of a simple
pendulum varies with displacement s from the equilibrium position?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 73 of 243
Q29.
The diagram shows part of the path of a ray of light through a right-angled prism.
The prism is made of glass of refractive index 1.5

The incident light ray is parallel to the face XY. The ray is refracted towards the
face XY.
What is the path of the ray after it is incident on face XY?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 74 of 243
Q30.
A body performs simple harmonic motion.
What is the phase difference between the variation of displacement with time
and the variation of acceleration with time for the body?
A 0
B
rad
C
rad
D π rad
(Total 1 mark)
Q31.
A diffraction grating is illuminated normally with light of wavelength 6.5 × 10–7 m
When a screen is 1.5 m from the grating, the distance between the zero and first-
order maxima on the screen is 0.30 m
What is the number of lines per mm of the diffraction grating?
A 3.3 × 10–6
B 3.3 × 10–3
C 3.0 × 102
D 3.0 × 105
(Total 1 mark)
Page 75 of 243
Q32.
An electromagnetic wave enters a fibre-optic cable from air. On entering the
cable, the wave slows down to three-fifths of its original speed.
What is the refractive index of the core of the fibre-optic cable?
A 0.67
B 1.33
C 1.50
D 1.67
(Total 1 mark)
Q33.
Light from a point source passes through a single slit and is then incident on a
double-slit arrangement. An interference pattern is observed on the screen.
What will increase the fringe spacing?
A increasing the separation of the single slit and the

double slit
B increasing the width of the single slit
C decreasing the distance between the double slits and

the screen
D decreasing the separation of the double slits
(Total 1 mark)
Page 76 of 243
Q34.
Two points on a progressive wave have a phase difference of rad

The speed of the wave is 340 m s–1
What is the frequency of the wave when the minimum distance between the two
points is 0.12 m?
A 240 Hz
B 470 Hz
C 1400 Hz
D 2800 Hz
(Total 1 mark)
Q35.
In the diagram, P is the source of a wave of frequency 50 Hz
The wave travels to R by two routes, P → Q → R and P → R. The speed of the

wave is 30 m s−1
What is the path difference between the two waves at R in terms of the
wavelength λ of the waves?
A 4.8λ
B 8.0λ
C 13.3λ
D 20.0λ
(Total 1 mark)
Page 77 of 243
Waves mark scheme
Q1.
D
[1]
Q2.
D
[1]
Q3.
D
[1]
Q4.
C
[1]
Q5.
B
[1]
Q6.
D
[1]
Q7.
A
[1]
Q8.
A
[1]
Q9.
C
[1]
Q10.
B
Page 78 of 243
[1]
Q11.
B
[1]
Q12.
D
[1]
Q13.
D
[1]
Q14.
B
[1]
Q15.
B
[1]
Q16.
D
[1]
Q17.
A
[1]
Q18.
C
[1]
Q19.
C
[1]
Q20.
D
[1]
Page 79 of 243
Q21.
A
[1]
Q22.
B
[1]
Q23.
C
[1]
Q24.
C
[1]
Q25.
D
[1]
Q26.
C
[1]
Q27.
A
[1]
Q28.
D
[1]
Q29.
D
[1]
Q30.
D
[1]
Q31.
Page 80 of 243
C
[1]
Q32.
D
[1]
Q33.
D
[1]
Q34.
A
[1]
Q35.
C
[1]
Page 81 of 243
Particle nature of light (EM radiation /Quantum effects):
20 marks
Q1.
The graph shows how the maximum kinetic energy Ek of photoelectrons emitted
from a metal surface varies with the reciprocal of the wavelength λ of the incident
radiation.
What is the gradient of this graph?
A c
B h
C hc
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.
Which of the following classes of electromagnetic waves will not ionise neutral
atoms?
What is the reason for this?
A ultraviolet
B X radiation
C gamma radiation
D microwave
(Total 1 mark)
Page 82 of 243
Q3.
The intensity of a monochromatic light source is increased. Which of the
following is correct?
Energy of an emitted Number of photons

photon emitted per second
A increases increases
B increases unchanged
C unchanged increases
D unchanged unchanged
(Total 1 mark)
Q4.
Experiments on which of the following suggested the wave nature of electrons?
electron diffraction by a crystalline

A
material
B β− decay
C line spectra of atoms
D the photoelectric effect

(Total 1 mark)
Page 83 of 243
Q5. Which graph best shows the relationship between the momentum p and the
wavelength λ for photons?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q6.
The diagram shows the four lowest energy levels for an electron in an atom. P,
Q, R and S represent, to scale, the relative energy values of these energy levels.
An electron transition from level R to level Q is accompanied by the emission of

a photon of visible light.
Which electron transition would be accompanied by the emission of a photon of

infrared radiation?
A S to R
B S to Q
C Q to P
D R to P
(Total 1 mark)
Page 84 of 243
Q7.
Electromagnetic radiation incident on a metal surface can cause electrons to be
emitted.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Every photon incident on the surface causes

A
an electron to be emitted.
All the emitted electrons have the same
B
energy.
The range of energy of the emitted electrons
C
depends on the intensity of the radiation.
If the incident radiation is of a single
frequency, the number of electrons emitted
D
per second increases if the intensity of the
radiation increases.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 85 of 243
Q8.
An atom in the inner coating of a fluorescent tube absorbs a photon of ultraviolet
radiation. This causes excitation of the atom from its ground state. A photon of
visible light is then emitted.
Which energy level diagram represents this process?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 86 of 243
Q9.
The values of the lowest three energy levels in a particular atom are shown in
the table.
The diagram shows these levels together with the ground state of the atom.
When an electron moves from level 3 to level 1, radiation of frequency 6.2 × 1014
Hz is emitted.
What is the frequency of the radiation emitted when an electron moves from level
2 to level 1?
A 2.3 × 1014 Hz
B 3.5 × 1014 Hz
C 4.6 × 1014 Hz
D 8.3 × 1014 Hz
(Total 1 mark)
Page 87 of 243
Q10.
The diagram shows an energy level diagram for a hydrogen atom.
Electrons with energy 13.0 eV collide with atoms of hydrogen in their ground
state.
What is the number of different wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation that

could be emitted when the atoms de-excite?
A 0
B 3
C 6
D 7
(Total 1 mark)
Q11.
In an experiment to demonstrate the photoelectric effect, a charged metal plate
is illuminated with light from different sources. The plate loses its charge when
an ultraviolet light source is used but not when a red light source is used.
What is the reason for this?
A The intensity of the red light is too low.
The wavelength of the red light is too

B
short.
C The frequency of the red light is too high.
The energy of red light photons is too

D
small.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 88 of 243
Q12.
Which graph best shows the relationship between photon energy E and
wavelength λ of a photon of electromagnetic radiation?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Page 89 of 243
Q13.
A beam of light of wavelength λ is incident on a clean metal surface and
photoelectrons are emitted. The wavelength of the light is halved but energy
incident per second is kept the same.
Which row in the table is correct?
Maximum kinetic
Number of
energy of the
photoelectrons
emitted
emitted per second
photoelectrons
A Increases Unchanged
B Decreases Increases
C Increases Decreases
D Decreases Unchanged
(Total 1 mark)
Q14.
When light of a certain frequency greater than the threshold frequency of a metal
is directed at the metal, photoelectrons are emitted from the surface.
The power of the light incident on the metal surface is doubled.
Which row shows the effect on the maximum kinetic energy and the number of
photoelectrons emitted per second?
Number of photoelectrons
Maximum kinetic energy
emitted per second
A remains unchanged remains unchanged
B doubles remains unchanged
C remains unchanged doubles
D doubles doubles
(Total 1 mark)
Page 90 of 243
Q15.
Line X on the graphs below shows how the maximum kinetic energy of emitted
photoelectrons varies with the frequency of incident radiation for a particular
metal.
Which graph shows the results for a metal Y that has a higher work function than
X?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Page 91 of 243
Q16.
Photons of wavelength 290 nm are incident on a metal plate. The work function
of the metal is 4.1 eV
What is the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons?
A 0.19 eV
B 4.3 eV
C 6.9 eV
D 8.4 eV
(Total 1 mark)
Q17.
Which row correctly shows electromagnetic radiations in order of decreasing
wavelength?
A gamma > ultraviolet > microwave
B ultraviolet > gamma > microwave
C microwave > ultraviolet > gamma
D gamma > microwave > ultraviolet

(Total 1 mark)
Page 92 of 243
Q18.
The diagram shows an energy-level diagram for a hydrogen atom.
Electrons, each having a kinetic energy of 2.0 × 10–18 J, collide with atoms of
hydrogen in their ground state. Photons are emitted when the atoms de-excite.
How many different wavelengths can be observed with incident electrons of this
energy?
A 1
B 3
C 6
D 7
(Total 1 mark)
Page 93 of 243
Q19.
Which row links both the photoelectric effect and electron diffraction to the
properties of waves and particles?
Photoelectric
Electron diffraction
effect
A Particle property Particle property
B Wave property Wave property
C Particle property Wave property
D Wave property Particle property
(Total 1 mark)
Q20.
A particle of mass m has a kinetic energy of E.
What is the de Broglie wavelength of this particle?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 94 of 243
Mark schemes
Q1.
C
[1]
Q2.
D
[1]
Q3.
C
[1]
Q4.
A
[1]
Q5.
C
[1]
Q6.
A
[1]
Q7.
D
[1]
Q8.
D
[1]
Q9.
C
[1]
Q10.
C
[1]
Page 95 of 243
Q11.
D
[1]
Q12.
D
[1]
Q13.
C
[1]
Q14.
C
[1]
Q15.
A
[1]
Q16.
A
[1]
Q17.
C
[1]
Q18.
B
[1]
Q19.
C
[1]
Q20.
D
[1]
Page 96 of 243
Particle physics (32 marks)
Q1.
An electron collides with a neutral atom and ionizes it. Which of the following
describes the particles present after the collision?
A An electron and an excited atom.
B An excited atom containing an excess electron.
C Two electrons and a positive ion.
Two electrons and a neutral atom in the ground

D
state.
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.
The graph of neutron number against proton number shows three nuclei P, Q
and R.
Which row identifies an isotope of P and the nucleon number of this isotope of
P?
Isotope of P Nucleon number of

isotope of P
A Q y+1
B Q x+y+1
C R x+y+1
D R x+1
(Total 1 mark)
Page 97 of 243
Q3.
In a nuclear reaction is bombarded by neutrons. This results in the capture
of one neutron and the emission of one proton by one nucleus of . The
resulting nucleus is
(Total 1 mark)
Q4.
What is the quark structure for antiprotons?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q5.
Which of the following is not made of quarks?
A kaon
B muon
C neutron
D pion
(Total 1 mark)
Page 98 of 243
Q6.
Which equation shows the process of annihilation?
A π− + π → γ
B
C β− + p → γ
D γ + γ → β+ + β−
(Total 1 mark)
Q7.
Which of the following is not true?
A Each meson consists of a single quark and a single

antiquark.
B Each baryon consists of three quarks.
C
The magnitude of the charge on every quark is
A particle consisting of a single quark has not been

D
observed.
(Total 1 mark)
Q8.
The nucleus of captures a proton and emits an α particle. What is the
product nucleus?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Page 99 of 243
Q9.
Which nucleus has a smaller value of specific charge than the nucleus ?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q10.
A calcium ion is formed by removing two electrons from an atom of . What
is the specific charge of the calcium ion?
A 3.2 × 10–19 C kg–1
B 2.9 × 10–18 C kg–1
C 4.8 × 106 C kg–1
D 4.8 × 107 C kg–1

(Total 1 mark)
Q11.
Electron capture can be represented by the following equation.
p + e– → X + Y
Which row correctly identifies X and Y?
X Y
A p K–
B e– e+
C n Ve
D n π0
(Total 1 mark)
Page 100 of 243

Q12.
What are the numbers of hadrons, baryons and mesons in an atom of 7 Li?
3
hadrons baryons mesons
A 7 3 3
B 7 4 4
C 7 7 0
D 10 7 0
(Total 1 mark)
Q13.
What of the following is a hadron of zero charge?
A neutrino
B photon
C proton
D neutron
(Total 1 mark)
Q14.
Which sequence of radioactive emissions results in the formation of an isotope of
the original element?
A one α particle and one β− particle
B one α particle and two β− particles
C two α particles and one β− particle
D two α particles and two β− particles

(Total 1 mark)
Page 101 of 243

Q15.
Which statement concerning the forces between particles is incorrect?
Leptons experience the weak

A
interaction.
Leptons experience the strong
B
interaction.
Hadrons experience the weak
C
interaction.
Hadrons experience the strong
D
interaction.
(Total 1 mark)
Q16.
When bombarded with an α particle the nuclide changes into another
nuclide with the emission of a neutron and γ radiation.
What are the correct values for the nucleon number and proton number of the
nuclide which is formed?
Nucleon number Proton number
A 29 14
B 29 12
C 28 14
D 27 12
(Total 1 mark)
Q17.
Which of the following statements about muons is incorrect?
A A muon is a lepton.
B A muon has a greater mass than an electron.
If a muon and an electron each have the same de

C Broglie wavelength then they each have the same
momentum.
A muon with the same momentum as an electron
D
has a larger kinetic energy than the electron.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 102 of 243

Q18.
Which line correctly classifies the particle shown?
Quark
Particle Category
combination
A neutron baryon ūd
B neutron meson udd
C proton baryon uud
D positive pion meson ud̄

(Total 1 mark)
Q19.
Which of the following nuclei has the smallest specific charge?
(Total 1 mark)
Q20.
Which line does not give the correct exchange particle for the process?
Process Exchange particle
A gravitational attraction W boson
electrostatic repulsion
B virtual photon
of electrons
C strong interaction pion
D β− decay W boson
(Total 1 mark)
Page 103 of 243

Q21.
An atom of gains 3 electrons.
What is the specific charge of the ion?
A 1.80 × 107 C kg–1
B –1.80 × 107 C kg–1
C 4.19 × 107 C kg–1
D –4.19 × 107 C kg–1

(Total 1 mark)
Q22.
The Rutherford scattering experiment led to
A the discovery of the electron.
B the quark model of hadrons.
C the discovery of the nucleus.
D evidence for wave-particle duality.

(Total 1 mark)
Page 104 of 243

Q23.
Which diagram represents the process of beta-plus decay?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q24.
What interactions are involved in the production of a strange particle and its
decay into non-strange particles?
Production Decay
A strong weak
B strong strong
C weak strong
D weak weak
(Total 1 mark)
Page 105 of 243

Q25.
An iodine nucleus decays into a nucleus of Xe−131, a beta-minus particle and
particle Y.
Which is a property of particle Y?
A It has a lepton number of +1
B It is an antiparticle
C It is negatively charged
D It experiences the strong interaction
(Total 1 mark)
Q26.
Which row shows the correct interactions experienced by a hadron or a lepton?
Particle Strong interaction Weak interaction
A Hadron Yes Yes
B Lepton Yes Yes
C Hadron Yes No
D Lepton Yes No
(Total 1 mark)
Page 106 of 243

Q27.
The partially completed diagram represents electron capture.
Which row identifies the exchange particle Q and the quark structure of particle
R?
Quark structure of particle

Particle Q
R
A W– uuu
B W+ dud
C W+ uuu
D W– dud
(Total 1 mark)
Q28.
Two gamma photons are produced when a muon and an antimuon annihilate
each other.
What is the minimum frequency of the gamma radiation that could be produced?
A 2.55 × 1016 Hz
B 5.10 × 1016 Hz
C 2.55 × 1022 Hz
D 5.10 × 1022 Hz
(Total 1 mark)
Page 107 of 243

Q29.
The ∑0 baryon, composed of the quark combination uds, is produced through the
strong interaction between a π+ meson and a neutron.
π+ + n → ∑0 + X
What is the quark composition of X?
A us̅
B ud
C ud̅
D uds̅
(Total 1 mark)
Q30.
Fluoride ions are produced by the addition of a single electron to an atom of
fluorine .
What is the magnitude of specific charge of the fluoride ion?
A 3.2 × 10–26 C kg–1
B 8.4 × 10–21 C kg–1
C 5.0 × 106 C kg–1
D 4.5 × 107 C kg–1
(Total 1 mark)
Page 108 of 243

Q31.
The decay of a neutral kaon K0 is given by the equation
K0 → X + Y + v̅e
What are X and Y?
X and Y
A e+ and e–
B μ+ and e–
C π+ and e–
D π– and e+
(Total 1 mark)
Q32.
undergoes a series of decays to produce .
How many alpha decays are involved in this decay series?
A 5
B 6
C 8
D 10
(Total 1 mark)
Page 109 of 243

Particle Physics mark scheme
Q1.
C
[1]
Q2.
B
[1]
Q3.
B
[1]
Q4.
D
[1]
Q5.
B
[1]
Q6.
B
[1]
Q7.
C
[1]
Q8.
C
[1]
Q9.
A
[1]
Q10.
C
[1]
Page 110 of 243

Q11.
C
[1]
Q12.
C
[1]
Q13.
D
[1]
Q14.
B
[1]
Q15.
B
[1]
Q16.
C
[1]
Q17.
D
[1]
Q18.
C
[1]
Q19.
D
[1]
Q20.
A
[1]
Page 111 of 243

Q21.
B
[1]
Q22.
C
[1]
Q23.
A
[1]
Q24.
A
[1]
Q25.
B
[1]
Q26.
A
[1]
Q27.
B
[1]
Q28.
C
[1]
Q29.
A
[1]
Q30.
C
[1]
Page 112 of 243

Q31.
C
[1]
Q32.
C
[1]
Page 113 of 243

Further Mechanics (26 marks)
Q1.
A bob of mass 0.50 kg is suspended from the end of a piece of string 0.45 m
long.
The bob is rotated in a vertical circle at a constant rate of 120 revolutions per
minute.
What is the tension in the string when the bob is at the bottom of the circle?
A 5.8 N
B 31 N
C 36 N
D 40 N
(Total 1 mark)
Page 114 of 243

Q2.
The diagram shows the graph of force on a car against time when the car of
mass 500 kg crashes into a wall without rebounding.
A The area under the graph is equal to the initial momentum of the car
B Momentum is not conserved in the collision
C Kinetic energy is conserved in the collision
D The average force exerted on the car is 10 × 104 N

(Total 1 mark)
Q3.
The diagram shows a strobe photograph of a mark on a trolley X, moving from
right to left, in collision with another trolley Y which had no mark on it.
After the collision both trolleys are in motion together.
Which one of the following is consistent with the photograph?
A Trolley Y has the same mass as trolley X and was initially stationary
B Trolley Y had a smaller mass than X and was moving from right to left
C Trolley Y had the same mass and was initially moving left to right at the
same speed as trolley X
D Trolley Y had the same mass and was initially moving left to right at a
higher speed than trolley X
(Total 1 mark)
Page 115 of 243

Q4.
A body X, moving with a velocity v, collides elastically with a stationary body Y of
equal mass.
Which one of the following correctly describes the velocities of the two bodies
after the collision?
velocity of X velocity of Y
C –v 0
D 0 v
(Total 1 mark)
Page 116 of 243

Q5.
A body is accelerated from rest by a constant force.
Which one of the following graphs best represents the variation of the body’s
momentum p with time t?
(Total 1 mark)
Q6.
Water of density 1000 kg m–3 flows out of a garden hose of cross-sectional area
A 5.6 × 10–5 N s
B 5.6 × 10–2 N s
C 0.20 N s
D 0.72 N s
(Total 1 mark)
Page 117 of 243

Q7.
A gas molecule of mass m in a container moves with velocity v. If it makes an
elastic collision at right angles to the walls of the container, what is the change in
momentum of the molecule?
A zero
B mv
C mv
D 2 mv
(Total 1 mark)
Q8.
Two ice skaters, initially at rest and in contact, push apart from each other.
Which line, A to D, in the table states correctly the change in the total momentum
and the total kinetic energy of the two skaters?
A unchanged increases
B unchanged unchanged
C increases increases
D increases unchanged
(Total 1 mark)
Page 118 of 243

Q9.
The graph shows how the resultant force, F, acting on a body varies with time, t.
What is the change in momentum of the body over the 5 s period?
A 2N s
B 8N s
C 10N s
D 12N s
(Total 1 mark)
Q10.
An object moving at constant speed in a circle experiences a force that is
A in the direction of motion.
B outwards and at right angles to the direction of motion.
C inwards and at right angles to the direction of motion.
D opposite to the direction of motion.

(Total 1 mark)
Page 119 of 243

Q11.
Water of density 1000 kg m–3 flows out of a garden hose of cross-sectional area
A 5.6 ×10–5 N s
B 5.6 × 10–2 N s
C 0.20 N s
D 0.72 N s
(Total 1 mark)
Q12.
Trolley T1, of mass 2.0 kg, collides on a horizontal surface with trolley T2, which
is also of mass 2.0 kg. The collision is elastic. Before the collision T1 was moving
at 4.0 m s–1 and T2 was at rest.
Immediately after the collision
A T1 is at rest and T2 moves at 4.0 m s–1.

B T1 will rebound from T2 at 4.0 m s–1.
C T1 and T2 will both move at 2.8 m s–1.
D T1 and T2 will both move at 1.4 m s–1.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 120 of 243

Q13. A car of mass 580 kg collides with the rear of a stationary van of mass 1200 kg.
Following the collision, the van moves with a velocity of 6.20 m s–1 and the car
recoils in the opposite direction with a velocity of 1.60 m s–1.
What is the initial speed of the car?
A 5.43 m s–1
B 11.2 m s–1
C 12.8 m s–1
D 14.4 m s–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q14. An object is accelerated from rest by a constant force F for a time t. Which graphs
represent the variation of time with the change in the kinetic energy and the change
in momentum of the object?
Kinetic energy Momentum
D
(Total 1 mark)
Page 121 of 243

Q15.
The graph shows how the force F applied to an object varies with time t.
What is the momentum gained by the object from t = 0 to t = 10 s?
A 18 kg m s–1
B 32 kg m s–1
C 40 kg m s–1
D 58 kg m s–1
(Total 1 mark)
Page 122 of 243

Q16.
A bullet of mass 10 g is fired with a velocity of 100 m s–1 from a stationary rifle of
mass 4.0 kg. Consider the rifle and bullet to be an isolated system.
What are the recoil velocity of the rifle and the total momentum of the rifle and
bullet just after firing?
Recoil velocity / Total momentum /

m s–1 kg m s–1
A 0.25 0
B 0.25 1.0
C 0.40 0
D 0.40 1.0
(Total 1 mark)
Q17.
The graph shows how the resultant force F on a football, which is initially at rest,
varies with time t.
Which graph shows how the momentum p of the football varies with time t?
Page 123 of 243

A
(Total 1 mark)
Q18.
A simple pendulum consists of a bob of mass m on the end of a light string of

length l.
The bob is released from rest at X when the string is horizontal. When the bob
passes through Y its velocity is ʋ and the tension in the string is T. Which one of
the following equations gives the correct value of T?
A T = mg
B T=
C T + mg =
D T − mg =
(Total 1 mark)
Page 124 of 243

Q19.
For a particle moving in a circle with uniform speed, which one of the following
statements is correct?
A The kinetic energy of the particle is constant.
B The force on the particle is in the same direction as the direction of motion
of the particle.
C The momentum of the particle is constant.
D The displacement of the particle is in the direction of the force.

(Total 1 mark)
Q20.
A particle travels at a constant speed around a circle of radius r with centripetal
acceleration a. What is the time taken for ten complete rotations?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q21.
A The displacement of the particle is in the direction of the force.
B The force on the particle is in the same direction as the direction of motion
of the particle.
C The momentum of the particle is constant.
D The kinetic energy of the particle is constant.

(Total 1 mark)
Page 125 of 243

Q22.
A particle of mass m moves in a circle of radius r at a uniform speed with
frequency f.
What is the kinetic energy of the particle?
C 2π2 mf2r2
D 4π2 mf2r2
(Total 1 mark)
Q23.
statements is incorrect?
A There is no displacement of the particle in the direction of the force.
B The force on the particle is always perpendicular to the velocity of the

particle.
C The velocity of the particle is constant.
D The kinetic energy of the particle is constant.

(Total 1 mark)
Page 126 of 243

Q24.
A 0.20 kg mass is whirled round in a vertical circle on the end of a light string of
length 0.90 m.
At the top point of the circle the speed of the mass is 8.2 m s–1. What is the
tension in the string at this point?
A 10 N
B 13 N
C 17 N
D 20 N
(Total 1 mark)
Q25.
A body of mass 0.50 kg, fixed to one end of a string, is rotated in a vertical circle
of radius 1.5 m at an angular speed of 5.0 rad s–1. What is the maximum tension
in the string?
A 5.0 N
B 9.0 N
C 14 N
D 24 N
(Total 1 mark)
Q26.
A ball of mass 0.30 kg is attached to a string and moves in a vertical circle of
radius 0.60 m at a constant speed of 5.0 m s–1.
Which line, A to D, in the table gives the correct values of the minimum and
maximum tension in the string?
Minimum tension / Maximum tension /

N N
A 2.5 5.4
B 6.7 9.6
C 13 13
D 9.6 15
(Total 1 mark)
Page 127 of 243

Further Mechanics mark scheme
Q1.
D
[1]
Q2.
A
[1]
Q3.
A
[1]
Q4.
D
[1]
Q5.
B
[1]
Q6.
B
[1]
Q7.
D
[1]
Q8.
A
[1]
Q9.
C
[1]
Q10.
C
Page 128 of 243

[1]
Q11.
B
[1]
Q12.
A
[1]
Q13.
B
[1]
Q14.
A
[1]
Q15.
D
[1]
Q16.
A
[1]
Q17.
D
[1]
Q18.
D
[1]
Q19.
A
[1]
Q20.
D
[1]
Page 129 of 243

Q21.
D
[1]
Q22.
C
[1]
Q23.
C
[1]
Q24.
B
[1]
Q25.
D
[1]
Q26.
D
[1]
Page 130 of 243

Electric Fields (35 marks)
Q1.
A conducting sphere holding a charge of +10 μC is placed centrally inside a
second uncharged conducting sphere.
Which diagram shows the electric field lines for the system?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 131 of 243

Q2.
A particle of mass m and charge q is accelerated through a potential difference
V over a distance d.
What is the average acceleration of the particle?
(Total 1 mark)
Q3.
The diagram shows two particles at distance d apart. One particle has charge
+Q and the other –2Q. The two particles exert an electrostatic force of
attraction, F, on each other. Each particle is then given an additional charge +Q
and their separation is increased to distance 2d.
Which of the following gives the force that now acts between the two particles?
A an attractive force of
B a repulsive force of
C an attractive force of
D a repulsive force of
(Total 1 mark)
Page 132 of 243

Q4.
The diagram shows a charge –Q being moved from point X to point Y between
two charged parallel plates separated by a distance d.
Which one of the following graphs best illustrates how the magnitude of force F
on the charge varies with distance as it moves towards Y?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 133 of 243

Q5.
The diagram shows a small negative charge at a point in an electric field, which
is represented by the arrowed field lines.
Which of the following statements, about what happens when the charge is
displaced, is correct?
When the negative charge is displaced
A to the left the magnitude of the electric force on it

decreases.
B to the right its potential energy increases.
C along the line PQ towards Q its potential energy

decreases.
D along the line PQ towards P the magnitude of the

electric force on it is unchanged.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 134 of 243

Q6.
Two fixed parallel metal plates X and Y are at constant potentials of + 100 V
and + 70 V respectively. An electron travelling from X to Y experiences a
change of potential energy ΔEp.
Which line, A to D, in the table shows correctly the direction of the electrostatic
force F on the electron and the value of ΔEp?
Direction of F ΔEp
A towards X + 30 eV
B towards Y – 30 eV
C away from X + 30 eV
D away from Y – 30 eV
(Total 1 mark)
Q7.
Two identical positive point charges, P and Q, separated by a distance r, repel
each other with a force F. If r is decreased so that the electrical potential energy
of Q is doubled, what is the force of repulsion?
A 0.5 F
B F
C 2F
D 4F
(Total 1 mark)
Page 135 of 243

Q8.
Two horizontal parallel plate conductors are separated by a distance of 5.0 mm
in air. The lower plate is earthed and the potential of the upper plate is +50 V.
Which line, A to D, in the table gives correctly the electric field strength, E, and
the potential, V, at a point midway between the plates?
electric field strength E / Vm−1 potential V / V
A 1.0 × 104 upwards 25
B 1.0 × 104 downwards 25
C 1.0 × 104 upwards 50
D 1.0 × 104 downwards 50

(Total 1 mark)
Q9.
Two identical positive point charges, P and Q, are separated by a distance of 4.0
m.
The resultant electric potential at point M, which is mid-way between the
charges, is 25.0 V.
What would be the resultant electrical potential at a point 1.0 m closer to P?
A 8.3 V
B 12.5 V
C 33.3 V
D 37.5 V
(Total 1 mark)
Page 136 of 243

Q10.
The repulsive force between two small negative charges separated by a distance
r is F.
What is the force between the charges when the separation is reduced to ?
C 3F
D 9F
(Total 1 mark)
Q11.
Two point charges, X and Y, exert a force F on each other when they are at a
distance d apart.
When the distance between them is 20 mm, the force they exert on each other is
0.5 F.
What is the distance d?
A 7 mm
B 14 mm
C 15 mm
D 28 mm
(Total 1 mark)
Q12.
Which one of the following cannot be used as a unit for electric field strength?
A J m–1 C–1
B J A–1 s–1m–1
C N A–1 s–1
D J C m–1
(Total 1 mark)
Page 137 of 243

Q13.
The diagram shows two charges, +4 µC and –16 µC, 120 mm apart. What is the
distance from the +4 µC charge to the point between the two charges where the
resultant electric potential is zero?
A 24 mm
B 40 mm
C 80 mm
D 96 mm
(Total 1 mark)
Q14.
An electron and a proton are 1.0 × 10–10 m apart. In the absence of any other
charges, what is the electric potential energy of the electron?
A +2.3 × 10–18J
B –2.3 × 10–18J
C +2.3 × 10–8J
D –2.3 × 10–8J
(Total 1 mark)
Q15.
The force between two charged particles
A is always attractive
B can be measured in C2 F–1 m–1
C is directly proportional to the distance between them
D is independent of the magnitude of the charges

(Total 1 mark)
Page 138 of 243

Q16.
The distance between two point charges of + 8.0 nC and + 2.0 nC is 60 mm.
At a point between the charges, on the line joining them, the resultant electric
field strength is zero. How far is this point from the + 8.0 nC charge?
A 20 mm
B 25 mm
C 40 mm
D 45 mm
(Total 1 mark)
Q17.
The diagram shows the path of an α particle deflected by the nucleus of an atom.
Point P on the path is the point of closest approach of the α particle to the
nucleus.
Which one of the following statements about the α particle on this path is
correct?
A Its acceleration is zero at P.
B Its kinetic energy is greatest at P.
C Its speed is least at P.
D Its potential energy is least at P.

(Total 1 mark)
Page 139 of 243

Q18.
Two charges, each of + 0.8 nC, are 40 mm apart. Point P is 40 mm from each of
the charges.
What is the electric potential at P?
A zero
B 180 V
C 360 V
D 4500 V
(Total 1 mark)
Q19.
Which path, A to D, shows how an electron moves in the uniform electric field
represented in the diagram?
Page 140 of 243

(Total 1 mark)
Q20.
A small sphere, of mass m and carrying a charge Q, is suspended from a thread
and placed in a uniform horizontal electric field of strength E. When the sphere
comes to rest the thread makes an angle θ with the vertical and the tension in it
is T, as shown in the diagram. W is the weight of the sphere and F is the electric
force acting on it.
Under these conditions, which one of the following equations is incorrect?
A T sin θ = EQ
B T = mg cosθ + EQ sinθ
C T2 = (EQ)2 + (mg)2
D mg = EQ tanθ
(Total 1 mark)
Page 141 of 243

Q21.
The diagram shows a negative ion at a point in an electric field, which is
represented by the arrowed field lines.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes what happens when
the ion is displaced?
When the negative ion is displaced
A to the left the magnitude of the electric force on it decreases.
B to the right its potential energy increases.
C along the line PQ towards Q its potential energy decreases.
D along the line PQ towards P the magnitude of the electric force on it is

unchanged.
(Total 1 mark)
Q22.
A positive ion has a charge−to−mass ratio of 2.40 × 107 C kg–1. It is held
stationary in a vertical electric field.
Which line, A to D, in the table shows correctly both the strength and the
direction of the electric field?
Electric field Direction

strength / V m–1
A 4.09 × 10–7 upwards
B 4.09 × 10–7 downwards
C 2.45 × 106 upwards
D 2.45 × 106 downwards

(Total 1 mark)
Page 142 of 243

Q23.
The diagram shows two point charges of magnitude +Q and −2Q placed a
distance r apart.
What is the electric potential at point P, a distance r to the right of the −2Q
charge?
(Total 1 mark)
Q24.
The electric potential at a distance r from a positive point charge is 45 V. The
potential increases to 50 V when the distance from the point charge decreases
by 1.5 m. What is the value of r?
A 1.3m
B 1.5m
C 7.9m
D 15m
(Total 1 mark)
Page 143 of 243

Q25.
The diagram shows the field lines in a region of an electric field created by a
positive charge.

When moving from X to Y
A the electric potential is constant.

B the electric potential increases.
C the electric potential decreases.
D the electric potential changes from positive to negative.
(Total 1 mark)
Q26.
The diagram shows four point charges, each +Q, at the corners of a square of
side 2a.
Page 144 of 243

What is the electric field strength at P, the centre of the square?
A Zero
(Total 1 mark)
Q27.
Two parallel metal plates are separated by a distance d and have a potential
difference V across them. Which expression gives the magnitude of the
electrostatic force acting on a charge Q placed midway between the plates?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 145 of 243

Q28.
Two fixed parallel metal plates P and Q are at constant electrical potentials of
+100 V and +70 V respectively. A proton travelling from P to Q experiences a
force F due to the electric field between P and Q, and a change of potential
energy of ΔEp.
Which line, A to B, in the table gives the direction of F and the value of ΔEp?
Direction of F ΔEp
A towards P +30 eV
B towards Q +30 eV
C towards Q −30 eV
D towards P −30 eV
(Total 1 mark)
Q29.
An electron moving with constant speed enters a uniform electric field at right
angles to the direction of the field.
What is true about the force acting on the electron?
A It is at right angles to the direction of the field.
It is in the opposite direction to the direction

B
of the field.
It causes the electron to continue in the same
C
direction with its speed increasing steadily.
It causes the electron to continue in the same
D
direction with its speed decreasing steadily.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 146 of 243

Q30.
A parallel-plate capacitor is fully charged and then disconnected from the power
supply.
A dielectric is then inserted between the plates.
Which row correctly identifies the charge on the plates and the electric field
strength between the plates?
Charge Electric field strength
A Stays the same Increases
B Increases Decreases
C Increases Increases
D Stays the same Decreases
(Total 1 mark)
Q31.
Two parallel metal plates of separation a carry equal and opposite charges.
Which graph best represents how the electric field strength E varies with the
distance x in the space between the two plates?
Page 147 of 243

A
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q32.
An electron moves through a distance of 0.10 m parallel to the field lines of a
uniform electric field of strength 2.0 kN C–1.
What is the work done on the electron?
A zero
B 1.6 × 10–17 J
C 3.2 × 10–17 J
D 1.6 × 10–21 J
(Total 1 mark)
Page 148 of 243

Q33. Four positive charges are fixed at the corners of a square as shown.
The total potential at the centre of the square, a distance d from each charge, is
Three of the charges have a charge of +Q
What is the magnitude of the fourth charge?
B Q
C √2Q
D 2Q
(Total 1 mark)
Q34.
A charged spherical conductor has a radius r. An electric field of strength E
exists at the surface due to the charge.
What is the potential of the spherical conductor?
A r2 E
B r E2
D rE
(Total 1 mark)
Page 149 of 243

Q35.
Two identical spheres exert a gravitational force F on each other. What is the
gravitational force between two spheres, each twice the mass of one of the
original spheres, when the separation of their centres is twice the original
separation?
A F
B 2F
C 4F
D 8F
(Total 1 mark)
Page 150 of 243

Electric fields mark schemes
Q1.
C
[1]
Q2.
A
[1]
Q3.
A
[1]
Q4.
C
[1]
Q5.
D
[1]
Q6.
A
[1]
Q7.
D
[1]
Q8.
B
[1]
Q9.
C
[1]
Q10.
D
[1]
Page 151 of 243

Q11.
B
[1]
Q12.
D
[1]
Q13.
A
[1]
Q14.
B
[1]
Q15.
B
[1]
Q16.
C
[1]
Q17.
C
[1]
Q18.
C
[1]
Q19.
A
[1]
Q20.
D
[1]
Page 152 of 243

Q21.
D
[1]
Q22.
A
[1]
Q23.
A
[1]
Q24.
D
[1]
Q25.
C
[1]
Q26.
A
[1]
Q27.
B
[1]
Q28.
C
[1]
Q29.
B
[1]
Q30.
D
[1]
Page 153 of 243

Q31.
A
[1]
Q32.
C
[1]
Q33.
D
[1]
Q34.
D
[1]
Q35.
A
[1]
Page 154 of 243

Magnetic Fields (35 marks)
Q1.
The magnetic flux through a coil of 5 turns changes uniformly from 15 × 10−3 Wb
to 7.0 × 10−3 Wb in 0.50 s. What is the magnitude of the emf induced in the coil
due to this change in flux?
A 14 m V
B 16 m V
C 30 m V
D 80 m V
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.
The graph shows how the magnetic flux, Φ, passing through a coil changes with
time, t.
Which one of the following graphs could show how the magnitude of the emf, V,
induced in the coil varies with t?
(Total 1 mark)
Q3.
The output electromotive force (emf) of a simple ac generator can be increased
by any of the four factors listed.
Which one of these factors should not be changed if the frequency of the output
is to remain unaffected when the emf is increased?
A the area of the coil

B the number of turns on the coil
C the speed of rotation
D the strength of the magnetic field
(Total 1 mark)
Page 155 of 243

Q4.
Using the circuit shown, and with the switch closed, a small current was passed
through the coil X. The current was slowly increased using the variable resistor.
The current reached a maximum value and was then switched off.
The maximum reading on the microammeter occurred when
A the small current flowed at the start.
B the current was being increased.
C the current was being switched off.
D the current in X was zero.

(Total 1 mark)
Q5.
Different magnetic fields are present in the two chambers shown. A particle
enters the first chamber at a velocity of 80 m s–1 and is deflected into a circular
path of radius 200 mm
In the second chamber it follows a circular path of radius 100 mm
Page 156 of 243

The particle leaves the second chamber at a speed of
A 20 m s–1
B 40 m s–1
C 80 m s–1
D 160 m s–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q6.
A beam of positive ions enters a region of uniform magnetic field, causing the
beam to change direction as shown in the diagram.
What is the direction of the magnetic field?
A out of the page and perpendicular to it
B into the page and perpendicular to it
C in the direction indicated by +y
D in the direction indicated by -y

(Total 1 mark)
Page 157 of 243

Q7.
A section of current-carrying wire is placed at right angles to a uniform magnetic
field of flux density B. When the current in the wire is I, the magnetic force that
acts on this section is F.
What force acts when the same section of wire is placed at right angles to a
uniform magnetic field of flux density 2B when the current is 0.25 I?
C F
D 2F
(Total 1 mark)
Q8.
A transformer with 3000 turns in its primary coil is used to change an alternating
pd from an rms value of 240 V to an rms value of 12 V.
When a 60 W, 12 V lamp is connected to the secondary coil, the lamp lights at

normal brightness and a rms current of 0.26 A passes through the primary coil.
Which line, A to D, in the table gives correct values for the number of turns on
the secondary coil and for the transformer efficiency?
number of turns on the

efficiency
secondary coil
A 150 96%
B 60 000 96%
C 150 90%
D 60 000 90%
(Total 1 mark)
Page 158 of 243

Q9.
A transformer has 1150 turns on the primary coil and 500 turns on the secondary
coil.
The primary coil draws a current of 0.26 A from a 230 V ac supply. The current
in the secondary coil is 0.50 A. What is the efficiency of the transformer?
A 42%
B 50%
C 84%
D 100%
(Total 1 mark)
Q10.
A rectangular coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field.
When the coil is rotated at a constant rate, an alternating emf ε is induced in it.
The variation of emf ε, in volts, with time t, in seconds, is given by
ε = 20 sin (100 πt)
Which line, A to D, in the table gives the peak value ε0 and the frequency f of the
induced emf?
ε0 / V f / Hz
A 10 50
B 10 100
C 20 50
D 20 100
(Total 1 mark)
Page 159 of 243

Q11.
A horizontal straight wire of length 40 mm is in an east-west direction as shown
in the diagram. A uniform magnetic field of flux density 50 mT is directed
downwards into the plane of the diagram.
When a current of 5.0 A passes through the wire from west to east, a horizontal
force acts on the wire. Which line, A to D, in the table gives the magnitude and
direction of this force?
magnitude / mN direction
A 2.0 north
B 10.0 north
C 2.0 south
D 10.0 south
(Total 1 mark)
Page 160 of 243

Q12.
A vertical conducting rod of length l is moved at a constant velocity v through a
uniform horizontal magnetic field of flux density B.
Which line, A to D, in the table gives a correct expression for the induced emf for
the stated direction of the motion of the rod?
direction of motion induced emf
A vertical
B horizontal at right angles to the field Blv
C vertical Blv
D horizontal at right angles to the field
(Total 1 mark)
Page 161 of 243

Q13.
The diagram shows a vertical square coil whose plane is at right angles to a
horizontal uniform magnetic field B. A current, I, is passed through the coil, which
is free to rotate about a vertical axis OO'.
A The forces on the two vertical sides of the coil are equal and opposite.
B A couple acts on the coil.
C No forces act on the horizontal sides of the coil.
D If the coil is turned through a small angle about OO' and released, it will
remain in position.
(Total 1 mark)
Q14.
The diagram shows a clockwise current I in a circular coil placed in a uniform
magnetic field B with the plane of the coil perpendicular to the magnetic field.
Page 162 of 243

What is the effect on the coil of the interaction between the current and the
magnetic field?
A It rotates about the axis with the top moving out of the
page.
B It rotates about the axis with the top moving into the
page.
C It causes an increase in the diameter of the coil.
D It causes a decrease in the diameter of the coil.
(Total 1 mark)
Q15.
A rectangular coil of area A has N turns of wire. The coil is in a uniform magnetic
field, as shown in the diagram.
When the coil is rotated at a constant frequency f about its axis XY, an
alternating emf of peak value ε0 is induced in it.
What is the maximum value of the magnetic flux linkage through the coil?
C π f ε0
D 2π f ε0
(Total 1 mark)
Page 163 of 243

Q16.
When a magnet is dropped through an aluminium ring an emf is induced. A data
logger connected to the ring records the variation of the induced emf ε with time t
as shown below.
In a second experiment, the magnet is dropped from a greater height.
Which one of the following graphs best represents the induced emf in the second
experiment?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 164 of 243

Q17.
The path followed by an electron of momentum p, carrying charge –e, which
enters a magnetic field at right angles, is a circular arc of radius r.
What would be the radius of the circular arc followed by an α particle of

momentum 2p, carrying charge +2e, which entered the same field at right
angles?
B r
C 2r
D 4r
(Total 1 mark)
Q18.
The diagram shows a rigidly-clamped straight horizontal current-carrying wire
held mid-way between the poles of a magnet on a top-pan balance. The wire is
perpendicular to the magnetic field direction.
The balance, which was zeroed before the switch was closed, read 161 g after
the switch was closed. When the current is reversed and doubled, what would be
the new reading on the balance?
A −322 g
B −161 g
C zero
D 322 g
(Total 1 mark)
Page 165 of 243

Q19.
A lamp rated at 12 V 60 W is connected to the secondary coil of a step-down
transformer and is at full brightness. The primary coil is connected to a supply of
230 V. The transformer is 75% efficient.
What is the current in the primary coil?
A 0.25 A
B 0.35 A
C 3.75 A
D 5.0 A
Q20.
An electron follows a circular path when it is moving at right angles to
A a uniform magnetic field.
B a uniform electric field.
C uniform electric and magnetic fields which are perpendicular.
D uniform electric and magnetic fields which are in opposite directions.

(Total 1 mark)
Q21.
Four rectangular loops of wire A, B, C and D are each placed in a uniform
magnetic field of the same flux density B. The direction of the magnetic field is
parallel to the plane of the loops as shown.
When a current of 1 A is passed through each of the loops, magnetic forces act
on them. The lengths of the sides of the loops are as shown.
Which loop experiences the largest couple?
Page 166 of 243

A B C D
(Total 1 mark)
Q22.
Which one of the following statements is the main reason for operating power
lines at high voltage?
A Transformers are never perfectly efficient.

High voltages are required by many industrial users of
B
electricity.
C Electrical generators produce alternating current.
For a given amount of transmitted power, increasing the
D
voltage decreases the current.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 167 of 243

Q23.
A vertical conducting rod of length l is moved at a constant velocity v through a
uniform horizontal magnetic field of flux density B.
Which of the rows gives a correct expression for the induced emf between the
ends of the rod for the stated direction of the motion of the rod?
Induced
Direction of motion
emf
A Vertical
Horizontal at right angles to

B
the field
Blv
C Vertical Blv
Horizontal at right angles to

D
the field
(Total 1 mark)
Page 168 of 243

Q24.
The primary coil of a step-up transformer is connected to a source of alternating
pd.
The secondary coil is connected to a lamp.
Which line, A to D, in the table correctly describes the ratios of flux linkages and
currents through the secondary coil in relation to the primary coil?
Secondary magnetic flux linkage Secondary current

Primary magnetic flux linkage Primary current
A <1 <1
B >1 <1
C >1 >1
D <1 >1
(Total 1 mark)
Q25.
A train is travelling at 20 m s–1 along a horizontal track through a uniform
magnetic field of flux density 4.0 × 10–5 T acting vertically downwards.
What is the emf induced between the ends of an axle 1.5 m long?
A 3.0 × 10–6V
B 5.3 × 10–4V
C 1.2 × 10–3V
D 7.5 × 105V
(Total 1 mark)
Page 169 of 243

Q26.
The diagram shows a coil placed in a uniform magnetic field. In the position
shown, the angle between the normal to the plane of the coil and the magnetic
field is is rad.
Which line, A to D, in the table shows the angles through which the coil should
be rotated, and the direction of rotation, so that the flux linkage becomes (i) a
maximum, and (ii) a minimum?
Angle of rotation / rad
(i) for maximum flux linkage (ii) for minimum flux linkage
A clockwise anticlockwise
B
anticlockwise clockwise
C clockwise anticlockwise
D anticlockwise clockwise
(Total 1 mark)
Page 170 of 243

Q27.
The diagram shows a horizontal conductor of length 50 mm carrying a current of
3.0 A at right angles to a uniform horizontal magnetic field of flux density 0.50 T.
What is the magnitude and direction of the magnetic force on the conductor ?
A 0.075 N vertically upwards

B 0.075 N vertically downwards
C 75 N vertically upwards
D 75 N vertically downwards
(Total 1 mark)
Q28.
The graph shows how the flux linkage, NΦ, through a coil changes when the coil
is moved into a magnetic field.
The emf induced in the coil
A decreases then becomes zero after time t0.
increases then becomes constant after time

B
t0.
C is constant then becomes zero after time t0.
D is zero then increases after time t0.

(Total 1 mark)
Page 171 of 243

Q29.
Charged particles, each of mass m and charge Q, travel at a constant speed in a
circle of radius r in a uniform magnetic field of flux density B.
Which expression gives the frequency of rotation of a particle in the beam?
(Total 1 mark)
Q30.
A rectangular coil of area A has N turns of wire. The coil is in a uniform magnetic
field of flux density B with its plane parallel to the field lines.
The coil is then rotated through an angle of 30° about axis PQ.
Page 172 of 243

What are the correct initial value and correct final value of the magnetic flux
linkage?
Initial magnetic flux Final magnetic flux

linkage linkage
A 0
BAN
B 0 BAN
C BAN
BAN
D BAN BAN
(Total 1 mark)
Q31.
A horizontal straight wire of length 0.30 m carries a current of 2.0 A
perpendicular to a horizontal uniform magnetic field of flux density 5.0 × 10–2 T.
The wire ‘floats’ in equilibrium in the field.
What is the mass of the wire?
A 8.0 × 10–4 kg
B 3.1 × 10–3 kg
C 3.0 × 10–2 kg
D 8.2 × 10–1 kg
(Total 1 mark)
Page 173 of 243

Q32.
Two charged particles, P1 and P2, follow circular paths as they move at right
angles to the same uniform magnetic field. Both particles are travelling at the
same speed.
The radius of the path travelled by P1 is twice the radius of the path travelled by
P2.
The mass of P1 is m and its charge is q.
What is the mass of P2 and the charge of P2?
Mass of P2 Charge of P2
A 2m q
B 2m 2q
C m q
D m 2q
(Total 1 mark)
Q33.
A coil with 20 circular turns each of diameter 60 mm is placed in a uniform
magnetic field of flux density 90 mT.
Initially the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field lines as shown
in Figure X.
The coil is rotated about a vertical axis by 90° in a time of 0.20 s so that its plane
becomes parallel to the field lines as shown in Figure Y.
Assume that the rate of change of flux linkage remains constant.
Page 174 of 243

What is the emf induced in the coil?
A zero
B 1.3 mV
C 25 mV
D 100 mV
(Total 1 mark)
Q34.
A horizontal copper wire of mass 4.0 × 10−3 kg and length 80 mm is placed
perpendicular to a horizontal magnetic field of flux density 0.16 T. The magnetic
force acting on the wire supports the weight of the wire.
How many electrons are passing a point in the wire in each second?
A 1.9 × 1018
B 1.9 × 1019
C 1.9 × 1020
D 1.9 × 1021
(Total 1 mark)
Q35.
A transformer has an efficiency of 80%
It has 7000 turns on its primary coil and 175 turns on its secondary coil. When
the primary of the transformer is connected to a 240 V ac supply, the secondary
current is 8.0 A
Page 175 of 243

What are the primary current and secondary voltage?
Primary Secondary
current / mA voltage / V
A 250 6.0
B 160 6.0
C 250 9600
D 160 9600
(Total 1 mark)
Page 176 of 243

Magnetic fields mark scheme
Q1.
D
[1]
Q2.
D
[1]
Q3.
C
[1]
Q4.
C
[1]
Q5.
C
[1]
Q6.
A
[1]
Q7.
B
[1]
Q8.
A
[1]
Q9.
C
[1]
Q10.
C
Page 177 of 243

[1]
Q11.
B
[1]
Q12.
B
[1]
Q13.
A
[1]
Q14.
C
[1]
Q15.
A
[1]
Q16.
D
[1]
Q17.
B
[1]
Q18.
A
[1]
Q19.
B
[1]
Q20.
A
[1]
Page 178 of 243

Q21.
B
[1]
Q22.
D
[1]
Q23.
B
[1]
Q24.
B
[1]
Q25.
C
[1]
Q26.
D
[1]
Q27.
A
[1]
Q28.
C
[1]
Q29.
A
[1]
Q30.
A
[1]
Page 179 of 243

Q31.
B
[1]
Q32.
D
[1]
Q33.
C
[1]
Q34.
B
[1]
Q35.
A
[1]
Page 180 of 243

Gravitational Fields – 35 marks
Q1.
A planet has a radius half the Earth’s radius and a mass a quarter of the Earth’s
mass. What is the approximate gravitational field strength on the surface of the
planet?
A 1.6 N kg–1
B 5.0 N kg–1
C 10 N kg–1
D 20 N kg–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.
A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit at height R above the surface of a
uniform spherical planet of radius R and density ρ.
What is the force of gravitational attraction between the satellite and the planet?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Page 181 of 243

Q3.
The gravitational field strength on the surface of a planet orbiting a star is 8.0 N
kg–1. If the planet and star have a similar density but the diameter of the star is
100 times greater than the planet, what would be the gravitational field strength
at the surface of the star?
A 0.0008 N kg–1
B 0.08 N kg–1
C 800 N kg–1
D 8000 N kg–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q4.
An object on the surface of a planet of radius R and mass M has weight W.
What would be the weight of the same object when on the surface of a planet of
radius 2R and mass 2M?
C W
D 2W
(Total 1 mark)
Page 182 of 243

Q5.
The diagram shows two points, P and Q, at distances r and 2r from the centre of
a planet.
The gravitational potential at P is −16 kJ kg−1. What is the work done on a 10 kg

mass when it is taken from P to Q?
A – 120 kJ
B – 80 kJ
C + 80 kJ
D + 120 kJ
(Total 1 mark)
Q6.
The Earth moves around the Sun in a circular orbit with a radius of 1.5 × 108 km.
What is the Earth’s approximate speed?
A 1.5 × 103ms–1
B 5.0 × 103ms–1
C 1.0 × 104ms–1
D 3.0 × 104ms–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q7.
Which one of the following statements about gravitational fields is incorrect?
A Moving a mass in the direction of the field lines reduces its potential
energy.
B A stronger field is represented by a greater density of field lines.
C Moving a mass perpendicularly across the field lines does not alter its
potential energy.
D At a distance r from a mass the field strength is inversely proportional to r.

(Total 1 mark)
Page 183 of 243

Q8.
When a space shuttle is in a low orbit around the Earth it experiences
gravitational forces FE due to the Earth, FM due to the Moon and FS due to the
Sun. Which one of the following correctly shows how the magnitudes of these
forces are related to each other?
mass of Sun = 1.99 × 1030 kg

mass of Moon = 7.35 × 1022 kg
mean distance from Earth to Sun = 1.50 × 1011 m
mean distance from Earth to Moon = 3.84 × 108 m
A FE > FS > FM
B FS > FE > FM
C FE > FM > FS
D FM > FE > FS
(Total 1 mark)
Q9.
A small mass is situated at a point on a line joining two large masses m1 and m2
such that it experiences no resultant gravitational force. Its distance from the
centre of mass of m1 is r1 and its distance from the centre of mass of m2 is r2.
What is the value of the ratio ?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Page 184 of 243

Q10.
Which one of the following gives a correct unit for ?
A N m−2
B N kg−1
C Nm
D N
(Total 1 mark)
Q11.
Mars has a diameter approximately 0.5 that of the Earth, and a mass of 0.1 that
of the Earth. The gravitational potential at the Earth’s surface is −63 MJ kg–1.
What is the approximate value of the gravitational potential at the surface of
Mars?
A −13 MJ kg–1
B −25 MJ kg–1
C −95 MJ kg–1
D −320 MJ kg–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q12.
Two satellites P and Q, of equal mass, orbit the Earth at radii R and 2R
respectively. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A P has less kinetic energy and more potential energy than Q.
B P has less kinetic energy and less potential energy than Q.
C P has more kinetic energy and less potential energy than Q.
D P has more kinetic energy and more potential energy than Q.

(Total 1 mark)
Page 185 of 243

Q13.
Two stars of mass M and 4M are at a distance d between their centres.
The resultant gravitational field strength is zero along the line between their
centres at a distance y from the centre of the star of mass M.
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q14.
The gravitational field strengths at the surfaces of the Earth and the Moon are
9.8 N kg–1 and 1.7 N kg–1 respectively. If the mass of the Earth is 81 × the mass
of the Moon, what is the ratio of the radius of the Earth to the radius of the
Moon?
A 3.7
B 5.8
C 14
D 22
(Total 1 mark)
Page 186 of 243

Q15.
The following data refers to two planets, P and Q.
Radius / km Density / kg m–3
planet P 8000 6000
planet Q 16 000 3000
The gravitational field strength at the surface of P is 13.4 N kg–1.

What is the gravitational field strength at the surface of Q?
A 3.4 N kg–1
B 13.4 N kg–1
C 53.6 N kg–1
D 80.4 N kg–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q16.
A satellite orbiting the Earth moves to an orbit which is closer to the Earth.
Which line, A to D, in the table shows correctly what happens to the speed of the
satellite and to the time it takes for one orbit of the Earth?
Speed of satellite Time For One Orbit Of

Earth
A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases
(Total 1 mark)
Page 187 of 243

Q17.
A uniform electric field of electric field strength E is aligned so it is vertical. An ion
moves vertically through a small distance Δd from point X to point Y in the field.
There is a uniform gravitational field of field strength g throughout the region.
Which line, A to D, in the table correctly gives the gravitational potential

difference, and the electric potential difference, between X and Y?
Gravitational
Electric potential
potential
difference
difference
A gΔd EΔd
B gΔd
C EΔd
(Total 1 mark)
Q18.
Which one of the following statements about gravitational potential is correct?
A gravitational potential can have a positive value
B the gravitational potential at the surface of the Earth is zero
C the gravitational potential gradient at a point has the same numerical value
as the gravitational field strength at that point
D the unit of gravitational potential is N kg–1

(Total 1 mark)
Page 188 of 243

Q19.
A spacecraft of mass m is at the mid-point between the centres of a planet of
mass M1 and its moon of mass M2. If the distance between the spacecraft and
the centre of the planet is d, what is the magnitude of the resultant gravitational
force on the spacecraft?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q20.
In the equation X = , X represents a physical variable in an electric or a

gravitational field, a is a constant, b is either mass or charge and n is a number.
Which line, A to D, in the table provides a consistent representation of X, a and
b according to the value of n?
The symbols E, g, V and r have their usual meanings.
n X a b
A 1 E charge
B 1 V mass
C 2 g G mass
D 2 V G charge
(Total 1 mark)
Page 189 of 243

Q21.
The diagram shows an isolated binary star system. The two stars have equal
masses, M, and the distance between their centres is r.
The point P is half-way between the two stars.

What is the gravitational field strength at P?
A zero
B −
C −
D −
(Total 1 mark)
Page 190 of 243

Q22.
X and Y are two stars of equal mass M. The distance between their centres is d.
What is the gravitational potential at the mid-point P between them?
(Total 1 mark)
Q23.
The gravitational constant, G, is a constant of proportionality in Newton’s law of
gravitation. The permittivity of free space, ε0, is a constant of proportionality in
Coulomb’s law.
When comparing the electrostatic force acting on a pair of charged particles to

the gravitational force between them, the product ε0G can appear in the
calculation.
Which is a unit for ε0G?
A C2 kg–2
B C2 m–2
C F kg2 N–1 m–2
D it has no unit
(Total 1 mark)
Page 191 of 243

Q24.
A geosynchronous satellite is in a constant radius orbit around the Earth. The
Earth has a mass of 6.0 × 1024 kg and a radius of 6.4 × 106 m.
What is the height of the satellite above the Earth’s surface?
A 1.3 × 107 m
B 3.6 × 107 m
C 4.2 × 107 m
D 4.8 × 107 m
(Total 1 mark)
Q25.
Two stars of mass M and 4M are at a distance d between their centres.
The resultant gravitational field strength is zero along the line between their
centres at a distance y from the centre of the star of mass M.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 192 of 243

Q26.
The graph shows how the gravitational potential varies with distance between
two planets, K and L, that have the same radius.
Which statement is correct?
A The mass of L is greater than the mass of K.
B The gravitational field strength at the surface of L is greater

than that at the surface of K.
C The escape velocity from planet L is greater than that from
planet K.
D More work must be done to move a mass of 1 kg from the
surface of K to a distant point, than 1 kg from the surface of
L.
(Total 1 mark)
Q27.
The distance between the Sun and the Earth is 1.5 × 1011 m
What is the gravitational force exerted on the Sun by the Earth?
A 3.5 × 1022 N
B 1.7 × 1026 N
C 5.3 × 1033 N
D 8.9 × 1050 N
(Total 1 mark)
Page 193 of 243

Q28.
Two fixed parallel metal plates P and Q are at constant electrical potentials of
+100 V and +70 V respectively. A proton travelling from P to Q experiences a
force F due to the electric field between P and Q, and a change of potential
energy of ΔEp.
Which line, A to B, in the table gives the direction of F and the value of ΔEp?
Direction of F ΔEp
A towards P +30 eV
B towards Q +30 eV
C towards Q −30 eV
D towards P −30 eV
(Total 1 mark)
Page 194 of 243

Q29.
Satellites X and Y orbit the Earth at distances R and 4R respectively, as shown
in the diagram.
A The speed of Y is greater than the speed of X
The time period of Y is greater than the time

B
period of X.
The potential energy of Y is greater than the
C
potential energy of X.
The gravitational force acting on Y is less
D
than the gravitational force acting on X.
(Total 1 mark)
Q30.
The radius of a planet is R. The gravitational potential at the surface of the planet
due to its mass is −4000 J kg−1.
What is the gravitational potential at a distance 2R from the centre of the planet?
A −1000 J kg−1
B −2000 J kg−1
C −4000 J kg−1
D −8000 J kg−1
(Total 1 mark)
Page 195 of 243

Q31.
The distance between the Sun and Mars varies from 2.1 × 1011 m to 2.5 × 1011
m.
When Mars is closest to the Sun, the force of gravitational attraction between
them is F.
What is the force of gravitational attraction between them when they are furthest
apart?
A 0.71F
B 0.84F
C 1.2F
D 1.4F
(Total 1 mark)
Q32.
An electron on the surface of the Earth is placed in an electric field of strength
5000 N C−1.
What is for the electron?
A 1.1 × 10−14
B 2.9 × 10−10
C 3.4 × 109
D 9.0 × 1013
(Total 1 mark)
Page 196 of 243

Q33.
The Earth can be assumed to be a uniform sphere of radius R.
What is the mean density of the Earth?
(Total 1 mark)
Q34.
A spacecraft of mass 1.0 × 106 kg is in orbit around the Sun at a radius of 1.1 ×
1011 m
The spacecraft moves into a new orbit of radius 2.5 × 1011 m around the Sun.
What is the total change in gravitational potential energy of the spacecraft?
A –6.76 × 1014 J
B –3.38 × 1014 J
C 3.38 × 1014 J
D 6.76 × 1014 J
(Total 1 mark)
Page 197 of 243

Q35.
Which graph shows the relationship between the time period T and the orbital
radius r of a planet in orbit around the Sun?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 198 of 243

Gravitational Fields mark scheme – 35 marks
Q1.
C
[1]
Q2.
A
[1]
Q3.
C
[1]
Q4.
B
[1]
Q5.
C
[1]
Q6.
D
[1]
Q7.
D
[1]
Q8.
A
[1]
Q9.
C
[1]
Q10.
A
Page 199 of 243

[1]
Q11.
A
[1]
Q12.
C
[1]
Q13.
B
[1]
Q14.
A
[1]
Q15.
B
[1]
Q16.
C
[1]
Q17.
A
[1]
Q18.
C
[1]
Q19.
C
[1]
Q20.
C
[1]
Page 200 of 243

Q21.
A
[1]
Q22.
C
[1]
Q23.
A
[1]
Q24.
B
[1]
Q25.
B
[1]
Q26.
D
[1]
Q27.
A
[1]
Q28.
C
[1]
Q29.
A
[1]
Q30.
B
[1]
Page 201 of 243

Q31.
A
[1]
Q32.
D
[1]
Q33.
A
[1]
Q34.
D
[1]
Q35.
C
[1]
Page 202 of 243

Nuclear radiation (19 marks)
Q1.
A nucleus of a particular element decays, emitting a series of α and β− particles.
Which of the following series of emissions would result in an isotope of the

original element?
A 1 α and 1 β−
B 1 α and 2 β−
C 2 α and 1 β−
D 2 α and 2 β−
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.
undergoes a series of decays to produce .
How many alpha decays are involved in this decay series?
A 5
B 6
C 8
D 10
(Total 1 mark)
Q3.
After 64 days the activity of a radioactive nuclide has fallen to one sixteenth of its
original value. The half-life of the radioactive nuclide is
A 2 days.
B 4 days.
C 8 days.
D 16 days.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 203 of 243

Q4.
The graph shows how the binding energy per nucleon varies with the nucleon
number for stable nuclei.
What is the approximate total binding energy for a nucleus of ?
A 1.28 pJ
B 94.7 pJ
C 103 pJ
D 230 pJ
(Total 1 mark)
Page 204 of 243

Q5.
In the Rutherford scattering experiment most α particles passed through the foil
undeflected.
What is a correct deduction from this result?
Most of the mass of an atom is within the

A
nucleus.
The diameter of the nucleus is much less
B
than the diameter of the atom.
C The nucleus has a positive charge.
D The charge of the atom is neutral.

(Total 1 mark)
Q6.
Which of the following is equal to ?
A 1.19
B 1.25
C 1.33
D 1.40
(Total 1 mark)
Page 205 of 243

Q7.
Which graph best shows how the radius R of an atomic nucleus varies with the
nucleon number A?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q8.
β particles are emitted from a radioactive source in a school laboratory.
What is correct for these particles?
A A strong magnetic field will not deflect them.
B They are absorbed by aluminium.
C They do not damage human tissue.
Their range in air is shorter than that of α

D
particles.
(Total 1 mark)
Page 206 of 243

Q9.
A radioactive source contains a nuclide which has a half-life of 12 hours. A
detector placed near the source records an average count rate of 180 counts per
minute. The average background count rate is 20 counts per minute.
What will be the average count rate after 24 hours?
A 40 counts per minute
B 45 counts per minute
C 50 counts per minute
D 60 counts per minute

(Total 1 mark)
Q10.
is an unstable nuclide in a radioactive decay series. It decays by emitting
an α particle. The next two nuclides in the series emit β− particles.
What nuclide is formed after these three decays have taken place?
(Total 1 mark)
Q11.
Cobalt-60 has a half-life of 5.27 years.
What is the total activity of 1.0 g of cobalt-60?
A 4.2 × 1013 Bq
B 2.2 × 1014 Bq
C 2.5 × 1015 Bq
D 1.3 × 1021 Bq
(Total 1 mark)
Page 207 of 243

Q12.
Uranium-236 undergoes nuclear fission to produce barium-144, krypton-89 and
three free neutrons.
What is the energy released in this process?
Binding energy per

Nuclide
nucleon / MeV
7.5
8.3
8.6
A 84 MeV
B 106 MeV
C 191 MeV
D 3730 MeV
(Total 1 mark)
Q13.
The radius of a nucleus of the iron nuclide is 4.35 × 10–15 m.
What is the radius of a nucleus of the uranium nuclide ?
A 2.69 × 10–15 m
B 2.89 × 10–15 m
C 6.55 × 10–15 m
D 7.05 × 10–15 m
(Total 1 mark)
Page 208 of 243

Q14.
A pure sample of nuclide X containing N nuclei has an activity A.
The half-life of X is 6000 years.
A pure sample of nuclide Y containing 3N nuclei has an activity 6A.
What is the half-life of nuclide Y?
A 1000 years
B 3000 years
C 12 000 years
D 18 000 years
(Total 1 mark)
Q15.
Nobelium-259 has a half-life of 3500 s.
What is the decay constant of nobelium-259?
A 8.7 × 10–5 s–1
B 2.0 × 10–4 s–1
C 1.7 × 10–2 s–1
D 1.2 × 10–2 s–1

(Total 1 mark)
Q16.
When a nucleus of the radioactive isotope decays, a β– particle and an
electron antineutrino are emitted.
How many protons and neutrons are there in the resulting daughter nucleus?
Number of protons Number of neutons
A 28 65
B 29 65
C 29 36
D 30 35
(Total 1 mark)
Page 209 of 243

Q17.
The radius of a uranium nucleus is 7.75 × 10–15 m
What is the radius of a nucleus?
A 1.10 × 10–18 m
B 3.91 × 10–16 m
C 2.86 × 10–15 m
D 3.12 × 10–15 m
(Total 1 mark)
Q18.
During a single fission event of uranium-235 in a nuclear reactor the total mass
lost is 0.23 u. The reactor is 25% efficient.
How many events per second are required to generate 900 MW of power?
A 1.1 × 1014
B 6.6 × 1018
C 1.1 × 1020
D 4.4 × 1020
(Total 1 mark)
Q19.
An iodine nucleus decays into a nucleus of Xe−131, a beta-minus particle and
particle Y.
Which is a property of particle Y?
A It has a lepton number of +1
B It is an antiparticle
C It is negatively charged
D It experiences the strong interaction
(Total 1 mark)
Page 210 of 243

Page 211 of 243
Nuclear radiation mark scheme (19 marks)
Q1.
B
[1]
Q2.
C
[1]
Q3.
D
[1]
Q4.
D
[1]
Q5.
B
[1]
Q6.
B
[1]
Q7.
C
[1]
Q8.
B
[1]
Q9.
D
[1]
Q10.
D
[1]
Page 212 of 243

Q11.
A
[1]
Q12.
C
[1]
Q13.
D
[1]
Q14.
B
[1]
Q15.
B
[1]
Q16.
C
[1]
Q17.
C
[1]
Q18.
C
[1]
Q19.
B
[1]
Page 213 of 243

Thermodynamics – 22 marks
Q1.
A raindrop of mass m falls to the ground at its terminal speed v. The specific
heat capacity of water is c and the acceleration of free fall is g. Given that 25% of
the energy is retained in the raindrop when it strikes the ground, what is the rise
in temperature of the raindrop?
(Total 1 mark)
Q2.
At a certain temperature, the root-mean-square speed of the molecules of a fixed
volume of an ideal gas is c. The temperature of the gas is changed so that the
pressure is halved. The root-mean-square speed of the molecules becomes
D 2c
(Total 1 mark)
Page 214 of 243

Q3.
The graph shows the variation of pressure p with temperature θ for a fixed mass
of an ideal gas at constant volume.
What is the gradient of the graph?
A 0.341
B 0.395
C 2.93
D 5.00
(Total 1 mark)
Q4.
In the diagram the dashed line X shows the variation of pressure, p, with
absolute temperature, T, for 1 mol of an ideal gas in a container of fixed volume.
Which line, A, B, C or D shows the variation for 2 mol of the gas in the same
container?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 215 of 243

Q5.
A car of mass M travelling at speed V comes to rest using its brakes. Energy is
dissipated in the brake discs of total mass m and specific heat capacity c. The
rise in temperature of the brake discs can be estimated from
(Total 1 mark)
Page 216 of 243

Q6.
The diagram shows the p-V diagram of an ideal hot-air engine. WX and YZ are
isothermal changes.
Which line of the table below correctly indicates the nature of the work done on
or by the air in each part of the cycle?
WX XY YZ ZW
A zero by zero on
B by zero on zero
C zero on zero by
D on zero by zero
(Total 1 mark)
Q7.
A fixed mass of an ideal gas initially has a volume V and an absolute
temperature T. Its initial pressure could be doubled by changing its volume and
temperature to
A V/2 and 4T
B V/4 and T/2
C 2V and T/4
D 4V and 2T
(Total 1 mark)
Page 217 of 243

Q8.
The average mass of an air molecule is 4.8 × 10–26 kg
What is the mean square speed of an air molecule at 750 K?
A 3.3 × 105 m2 s–2
B 4.3 × 105 m2 s–2
C 6.5 × 105 m2 s–2
D 8.7 × 105 m2 s–2
(Total 1 mark)
Page 218 of 243

Q9.
X and Y are two gas bottles that are connected by a tube that has negligible
volume compared with the volume of each bottle.
Initially the valve W is closed.
X has a volume 2V and contains hydrogen at a pressure of p.

Y has a volume V and contains hydrogen at a pressure of 2p.
X and Y are both initially at the same temperature.
W is now opened. Assuming that there is no change in temperature, what is the

new gas pressure?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 219 of 243

Q10.
One mole of gas occupies a volume V at a pressure p and Celsius temperature
θ.
The graphs, A to D, show variation of pV with θ.

Line X is for one mole of nitrogen and line Y is for one mole of oxygen.
Relative molecular mass of nitrogen = 28

Relative molecular mass of oxygen = 32
Which graph is correct?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Page 220 of 243

Q11.
A fixed mass of gas occupies a volume V. The temperature of the gas increases
so that the root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is doubled.
What will the new volume be if the pressure remains constant?
C 2V
D 4V
(Total 1 mark)
Q12.
The temperature of a hot liquid in a container falls at a rate of 2 K per minute just
before it begins to solidify. The temperature then remains steady for 20 minutes
by which time all the liquid has all solidified.
What is the quantity ?
C 10 K–1
D 40 K–1
(Total 1 mark)
Page 221 of 243

Q13.
Which of the following is not used as valid assumption when deriving the
equation
P= Nm (crms)2 in the simple kinetic theory of gases?
The molecules suffer negligible change of

A momentum on collision with the walls of the
container.
Attractive forces between molecules are
B
negligible.
The duration of a collision is negligible
C
compared with the time between collisions.
The volume of the molecules is negligible
D
compared with the volume of the gas.
(Total 1 mark)
Q14.
An ice cube of mass 0.010 kg at a temperature of 0 °C is dropped into a cup
containing 0.10 kg of water at a temperature of 15 °C.
What is the maximum estimated change in temperature of the contents of the

cup?
specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg−1 K−1

specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.4 × 105 J kg−1
A 1.5 K
B 8.7 K
C 13.5 K
D 15.0 K
(Total 1 mark)
Page 222 of 243

Q15.
Specimens P and Q of the same gas exert the same pressure. P is at a
temperature of 280 K and contains 1020 molecules per unit volume. The
temperature of Q is 350 K.
What is the number of molecules per unit volume in Q?
A 0.09 × 1020
B 0.75 × 1020
C 0.80 × 1020
D 1.25 × 1020
(Total 1 mark)
Q16.
Two flasks X and Y are filled with an ideal gas and are connected by a tube of
negligible volume compared to that of the flasks. The volume of X is twice the
volume of Y.
X is held at a temperature of 150 K and Y is held at a temperature of 300 K
What is the ratio ?
A 0.125
B 0.25
C 4
D 8
(Total 1 mark)
Page 223 of 243

Q17.
A student measures the power of a microwave oven. He places 200 g of water at
23 °C into the microwave and heats it on full power for 1 minute. When he
removes it, the temperature of the water is 79 °C.
The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg–1 K–1.
What is the average rate at which thermal energy is gained by the water?
A 780 W
B 840 W
C 1.1 kW
D 4.6 kW
(Total 1 mark)
Q18.
A continuous stream of water falls through a vertical distance of 100 m.
Assume no thermal energy is transferred to the surroundings.
The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg–1 K–1.
What is the temperature difference of the water between the top and bottom of
the waterfall?
A 0.023 K
B 0.23 K
C 2.3 K
D 4.3 K
(Total 1 mark)
Page 224 of 243

Q19.
The diagram shows a gas particle about to collide elastically with a wall.
Which diagram shows the correct change in momentum Δmv that occurs during
the collision?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 225 of 243

Q20.
A transparent illuminated box contains small smoke particles and air.
The smoke particles are observed to move randomly when viewed through a
microscope.
What is the cause of this observation of Brownian motion?
A Smoke particles gaining kinetic energy by the

absorption of light.
B Collisions between smoke particles and air molecules.
C Smoke particles moving in convection currents caused

by the air being heated by the light.
D The smoke particles moving randomly due to their
temperature.
(Total 1 mark)
Q21.
Which one of the graphs below shows the relationship between the internal
energy of an ideal gas (y-axis) and the absolute temperature of the gas (x-axis)?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 226 of 243

Q22.
The graph shows the relation between the product pressure × volume, pV, and
temperature, θ, in degrees celsius for 1 mol of an ideal gas for which the molar
gas constant is R.
Which one of the following expressions gives the gradient of this graph?
D R
(Total 1 mark)
Page 227 of 243

Thermodynamics mark scheme
Q1.
D
[1]
Q2.
C
[1]
Q3.
A
[1]
Q4.
A
[1]
Q5.
C
[1]
Q6.
B
[1]
Q7.
B
[1]
Q8.
C
[1]
Q9.
C
[1]
Q10.
D
Page 228 of 243

[1]
Q11.
D
[1]
Q12.
A
[1]
Q13.
A
[1]
Q14.
B
[1]
Q15.
C
[1]
Q16.
C
[1]
Q17.
A
[1]
Q18.
B
[1]
Q19.
B
[1]
Q20.
B
[1]
Page 229 of 243

Q21.
A
[1]
Q22.
D
[1]
Page 230 of 243

Oscillations (SHM) – 23 marks
Q1.
A particle oscillates with undamped simple harmonic motion. Which one of the
following statements about the acceleration of the oscillating particle is true?
A It is least when the speed is greatest.
B It is always in the opposite direction to its velocity.
C It is proportional to the frequency.
D It decreases as the potential energy increases.

(Total 1 mark)
Q2.
A body is in simple harmonic motion of amplitude 0.50 m and period 4π seconds.
What is the speed of the body when the displacement of the body is 0.30 m?
A 0.10ms−1
B 0.15ms−1
C 0.20 m s−1
D 0.40 m s−1
(Total 1 mark)
Q3.
Which one of the following statements is true when an object performs simple
harmonic motion about a central point O?
A The acceleration is always away from O.
B The acceleration and velocity are always in opposite directions.
C The acceleration and the displacement from O are always in the same
direction.
D The graph of acceleration against displacement is a straight line.

(Total 1 mark)
Page 231 of 243

Q4.
A body moves with simple harmonic motion of amplitude A and frequency
What is the magnitude of the acceleration when the body is at maximum

displacement?
A zero
B 4π2Ab2
C Ab2
D
(Total 1 mark)
Page 232 of 243

Q5.
The top graph is a displacement/time graph for a particle executing simple
harmonic motion. Which one of the other graphs shows correctly how the kinetic
energy, Ek, of the particle varies with time?
(Total 1 mark)
Page 233 of 243

Q6.
A body moves in simple harmonic motion of amplitude 0.90 m and period 8.9 s.
What is the speed of the body when its displacement is 0.70 m?
A 0.11 m s–1
B 0.22 m s–1
C 0.40 m s–1
D 0.80 m s–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q7.
A particle of mass 5.0 × 10–3 kg performing simple harmonic motion of amplitude
150 mm takes 47 s to make 50 oscillations. What is the maximum kinetic energy
of the particle?
A 2.0 × 10–3 J
B 2.5 × 10–3 J
C 3.9 × 10–3 J
D 5.0 × 10–3 J
(Total 1 mark)
Q8.
An object of mass 0.15 kg performs simple harmonic motion. It oscillates with
amplitude 55 mm and frequency 0.80 Hz
What is the maximum value of its kinetic energy?
A 5.7 × 10–3 J
B 11 × 10–3 J
C 0.57 J
D 11 J
(Total 1 mark)
Page 234 of 243

Q9.
A mass on the end of a spring undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion. At
which point(s) is the magnitude of the resultant force on the mass a minimum?
A at the centre of the oscillation
B only at the top of the oscillation
C only at the bottom of the oscillation
D at both the top and bottom of the oscillation

(Total 1 mark)
Q10.
Which graph shows how the velocity v of a body moving with simple harmonic
motion varies with its displacement x?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q11.
A body moves with simple harmonic motion of amplitude A and frequency .

What is the magnitude of the acceleration when the body is at maximum
displacement?
A zero
B 4π2Ab2
C Ab2
D
(Total 1 mark)
Page 235 of 243

Q12.
A body moves with simple harmonic motion of amplitude 0.90 m and period 8.9
s. What is the speed of the body when its displacement is 0.70 m?
A 0.11 m s–1
B 0.22 m s–1
C 0.40 m s–1
D 0.80 m s–1
(Total 1 mark)
Q13.
A particle of mass 0.20 kg moves with simple harmonic motion of amplitude 2.0
× 10–2 m. If the total energy of the particle is 4.0 × 10–5J, what is the time period
of the motion?
D
(Total 1 mark)
Q14.
A particle of mass m oscillates in a straight line with simple harmonic motion of
constant amplitude. The total energy of the particle is E. What is the total energy
of another particle of mass 2m, oscillating with simple harmonic motion of the
same amplitude but double the frequency?
A E
B 2E
C 4E
D 8E
(Total 1 mark)
Page 236 of 243

Q15.
Which line, A to D, in the table gives the amplitude and frequency of a body
performing simple harmonic motion whose displacement x at time t is given by
the equation x = P cos Qt?
Amplitude Frequency
B P 2πQ
C P
D 2P
(Total 1 mark)
Q16.
A particle of mass 5.0 × 10–3 kg, moving with simple harmonic motion of
amplitude 0.15 m, takes 47 s to make 50 oscillations.
What is the maximum kinetic energy of the particle?
A 2.0 × 10–3 J
B 2.5 × 10–3 J
C 3.9 × 10–3 J
D 5.0 × 10–3 J
(Total 1 mark)
Q17.
For a body performing simple harmonic motion, which one of the following
A The maximum kinetic energy is directly proportional to the frequency.
B The time for one oscillation is directly proportional to the frequency.
C The speed at any instant is directly proportional to the displacement.
D The maximum acceleration is directly proportional to the amplitude.

(Total 1 mark)
Page 237 of 243

Q18.
Which one of the following statements is true when an object performs simple
harmonic motion about a central point?
The acceleration is always directed away from the

A
central point.
The acceleration and velocity are always 180° out of
B
phase.
The velocity and displacement are always in the same
C
direction.
Acceleration and displacement are always 180° out of
D
phase.
(Total 1 mark)
Q19.
The graph shows how the displacement of a particle performing simple harmonic
motion varies with time.
Which statement is not correct?
A
The speed of the particle is a maximum at time
B
The potential energy of the particle is zero at time
C
The acceleration of the particle is a maximum at time
D The restoring force acting on the particle is zero at time T

(Total 1 mark)
Page 238 of 243

Q20.
A particle oscillates with undamped simple harmonic motion.
The acceleration of the particle
is always in the opposite direction to its

A
velocity.
B decreases as the potential energy increases.
C is proportional to the frequency.
D is least when the speed is greatest.

(Total 1 mark)
Q21.
The frequency of a body moving with simple harmonic motion is doubled. If the
amplitude remains the same which of the following is also doubled?
A The time period.
B The total energy.
C The maximum velocity.
D The maximum acceleration.

(Total 1 mark)
Q22.
Which one of the following gives the phase difference between the particle
velocity and the particle displacement in simple harmonic motion?
A rad
B rad
C rad
D 2π rad
(Total 1 mark)
Page 239 of 243

Q23.
Which one of the following gives the phase difference between the particle
velocity and the particle displacement in simple harmonic motion?
A rad
B rad
C rad
D 2π rad
(Total 1 mark)
Page 240 of 243

Oscillations mark scheme (23 marks)
Q1.
A
[1]
Q2.
C
[1]
Q3.
D
[1]
Q4.
C
[1]
Q5.
D
[1]
Q6.
C
[1]
Q7.
B
[1]
Q8.
A
[1]
Q9.
A
[1]
Q10.
B
Page 241 of 243

[1]
Q11.
C
[1]
Q12.
C
[1]
Q13.
D
[1]
Q14.
D
[1]
Q15.
C
[1]
Q16.
B
[1]
Q17.
D
[1]
Q18.
D
[1]
Q19.
D
[1]
Q20.
D
[1]
Page 242 of 243

Q21.
C
[1]
Q22.
B
[1]
Q23.
B
[1]
Page 243 of 243

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100’s of Multi-choice ques�ons for A-level Physics covering all

The force acting on an object is equivalent to

A its change of momentum.

the impulse it receives per

C the energy it gains per second.

D its acceleration per metre.

B gain in kinetic energy

Q4.Which one of the following is a possible unit of impulse?

total kinetic energy

B gain in kinetic energy

Kinetic energy Momentum

A The tension in the string increases

B The compression force in the beam increases

C The moment of the load about X increases

D The magnitude of the vertical component of the reaction at X increases

total kinetic energy

Q2.Which of the following is not a unit of power?

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Immediately after the collision

A T1 is at rest and T2 moves at 4.0 m s–1.

total momentum total kinetic energy

Which one of the following statements is correct?

B Momentum is not conserved in the collision

C Kinetic energy is conserved in the collision

D The average force exerted on the car is 10 × 104 N

total momentum total kinetic energy

B Force Kinetic energy

D Work Potential energy

Q2.Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

moment of force momentum

The three forces acting on the rule are:

Under these conditions, which one of the following equations is incorrect?

Mass per unit length 2.0%

A stationary wave is formed on the string.

Which statement is incorrect?

For a given extension more energy is stored in X than

C Both wire X and wire Y obey Hooke’s law.

D Wire X has a greater breaking stress than wire Y.

Which length and radius for X will produce an extension of ?

The digital voltmeter reads 1.6 V. What is the resistance of R?

Which statement is incorrect?

A The total resistance is doubled.

What is the new current?

What is the resistivity of the wire?

The resistance of each resistor is shown.

What is the effective resistance between P and Q?

A remains the same.

remains the same at first and then

What is the peak power dissipated in the lamp?

Transmission voltage Transmission current

What is the reading on a voltmeter connected between points X and Y?

What is the peak current in the resistor?

Ammeter reading Voltmeter reading

The resistance of wire P is R.

Which statement correctly describes the variation of Rn as n increases?

A Rn decreases linearly as n increases

The current in the circuit is 20 mA.

What is the value of the resistor R?

What is the current in the 2.0 Ω resistor?

Position Ideal resistance

A in series with X infinite

B in series with X zero