Zenith Tutorials Phy 102 PDF Series

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ZENITH TUTORIALS WORLDWIDE ………..

Making the complex


simple………

ZENITH TUTORIALS PHY 102 PDF SERIES


1. When an ebonite red is rubbed with fur, it has (a) no charge at all (b) a negative charge (c) a
positive charge (d) negative and positive. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
2. Calculate the force acting on an electron of charge 1.6 ×10−19 coulombs placed in an electric
field of intensity 108 volt /m (a) 1.2 ×10−5 (b) 1.6 ×10−11 N (c) 1.6 ×10−9 N (d) 1.2 ×10−6 N .
THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
3. The heat produced in a conductor carrying an electric current is (a) inversely proportional to the
current and resistance (b) directly proportional to the current, resistance and time (c) inversely
proportional to the square of the resistance current and time (d) directly proportional to the square
of current resistance and time. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
4. What is the electric potential energy between two protons each of charge (q) and at a distance of
q
r apart (permittivity of free space ¿ ε 0) (a) 4 π ε 0 q2 r (b) (d) q 2 4 π ε 0 r 2. THE
4 π ε0 r
CORRECT OPTION IS C
5. The purpose of a di-electric material in parallel plate capacitor is to (a) increase its capacitance
(b) decrease its capacitance (c) insulate the plates from each other (d) increase the magnitude
field between the plate. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
6. Which of the following is required to convert a milli-ammeter to an ammeter (a) a high resistance
in parallel (b) a high resistance in series (c) a low resistance in parallel (d) a low resistance in
series. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
7. Which of the following will convert milli-ammeter to a voltmeter (a) a low series resistance (b) a
low parallel resistance (c) a high series resistance (d) a high parallel resistance. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS C
8. Sound wave can be diffracted because they are (a) longitudinal (b) transverse (c) stationary (d)
they cannot be diffracted (d) none. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
9. Which of the following phenomenon cannot be explained by the wave theory of light? (a)
refraction (b) interference (c) diffraction (d) polarization (d) photo-electric effect. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS D
10. A convex lens of focal length 0.20 m is placed at a distance of 0.30 m from illuminated object.
The string is moved until a clear image of the object is seen on the screen. Then without moving
object or image, the lens is moved towards the screen to a new position, where a small image is
seen on the screen. The distance through which the lens has been moved in metres is (a) 0.9 (b)
0.6 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.4 (e) 0.3. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
11. A wave whose frequency is 0.4 Hz travels 54 m in 9 sec, the distance between the adjacent crest
is (a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 10 (e) 25. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
12. The image of an object on the retina of a human eye is (a) erect and magnifies (b) inverted and
virtual (c) inverted and real (d) virtual and diminished (e) erect and real. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS C
13. A coil of 19 turns and cross-sectional area 5 c m2 is at right angle to a flux density 2 ×10−2 T
which is reduced to zero in 10 sec . Find the flux change and induced e.m.f (a)
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1.0 ×10−4 Wb∧1.0 × 10−5 V (b) 2.0 ×10−3 Wb∧10−4 V (c) 2.5 ×10−3 Wb∧2.31 V (d)
2.3 ×102 Wb∧0 V . THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
14. A 100 turns coil whose resistance is 6 Ω enclosed an area of 80 c m 2, how rapidly should a
magnetic field parallel to the axis change in order to reduce the current of 1milliampere in the
coil? (a) 0.25 T s−1 (b) 0.0075 T s−1 (c) 0.150 T s−1 (d) 3.00 T s−1. THE CORRECT OPTION
IS B
15. A transformer connected to a 120 V a.c. power line has 200 turns in its primary winding land
50 turns in its secondary winding. The secondary is connected to a 100 Ω light bulb. How much
current is drawn from the 120 V power line? (a) 0.25 A (b) 0.231 A (c) 0.075 A (d) 0.15 A .
THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
16. How much energy is stored in a 20−mtt coil when it carries a current of 0.2 A ? (a) 4 ×10−4 J
(b) 2 ×10−3 J (c)( 3 ×10−5 J (d) 7.5 ×10−2 J . THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
17. What should the curent in the coil be in order that it contains 1 J of energy (a) 2 A (b) 5 A (c) 8 A
(d) 10 A . THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
18. The invisible parts of the spectrum of white light consist of different colours (a) red, orange,
yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet (b) infra-red, ultraviolet and blue (c) indigo and green (d)
violet and red (e) UV and infrqared. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
19. For correcting long-sightedness in a human eye, we will require (a) converging lens (b) diverging
lens (c) microscope (d) periscope (e) plane glass sheet. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
20. If the magnification of a virtual image formed by an object 10 cm from a convex lens is 3, then
the focal length of the lens is (a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 16 cm (d) 19 cm (e) 20 cm . THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
21. Image formed by a diverging lens are always (a) diminishing, virtual and inverted (b) diminished,
inverted and real (c) diminished, virtual and erect (d) magnified, virtual and erect (e) magnified,
real and inverted. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
22. In the normal use of a simple microscope, a person sees an (a) inverted, virtual and magnified
image (b) erect, virtual and magnified (c) erect, real and magnified (d) inverted, real and
magnified (e) inverted, real, same size as the object. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
23. Which of the following statement is correct about a long-sighted boy who doesn’t put on glasses
(a) he cannot see distant object clearly (b) waves of light from a close object are focused on the
retina (c) eyeball is too long (d) parallel rays of light are focused behind his retina. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS D
24. When white light is dispersed by a spectrometer, the component having the shortest wavelength is
(a) orange (b) green (c) violet (d) red (e) blue THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
25. Spectrum of sunlight is said to be impure when (a) it is made of only three colours (b) it has no
red colour in it (c) the different colour in it overlap (d) it doesn’t contain white light (e) none.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
26. If light falls on a rough surface, the type of reflection produced is called (a) regular (b) diffused
(c) parallel (d) perpendicular (e) none. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
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27. Which of the following expressions gives a linear magnification produced by a concave mirror of
v 2v
radius of curvature r , if u , v are the object and image distances respectively (a) −1 (b) −1
r r
u 2u v
(c) −1 (d) −1 (e) −1. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
r r u
28. ____________ is the point where parallel lights close to the axis converge to the focus (a)
principal axis (b) conjugated focus (c) principal focus (d) centre of curvature. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS C
29. Which of the following arrangement in the sequence shown can be used to obtain a pure spectrum
of white light (a) source, slit, converging lens, prism and converging lens screen (b) source, slit,
diverging lens, prism and screen (c) source, converging lens, prism, diverging lens, screen (d)
source, slit, diverging lens, converging lens and screen (e) source, slit, diverging lens and screen.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
30. The resistance of a platinum wire at ice and steam points are 0.75 Ω and 1.05 Ω . determine the
temperature at which the resistance of the wire is 0.90 Ω (a) 43 0 C (b) 69.90 C (c) 500 C (d)
87 0 C . THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
31. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the image formed by a plane mirror (i)
the magnification produced is 1 (ii) the image distance is the same as the object distance (iii) the
image is real (iv) the image is laterally inverted (a) i only (b) ii only (c) iii only (d) i, ii, iii & iv.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
32. Which of the following quantities is a vector (a) electric potential (b) electric charge (c) electrical
capacitance (d) electric field. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
33. Which of the following is not a suitable dielectric material (a) brass (b) paraffin wax (c) glass (e)
ebonite. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
34. 25 Joule of energy is stored in a capacitor of capacitance 2 μF . The voltage across the
capacitance terminals is? (a) 2 ×103 volts (b) 5 ×103 volts (c) 7 ×10 2 volts (d) 1.5 ×103 volts .
THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
35. An object is oscillating in simple harmonic motion with amplitude of 15 cm and a period of 2 sec
. Find the magnitude of its velocity? (a) 0.315 m/ s (b) 0.471 m/s (c) 0.325 m/ s (d) 0.2 m/ s .
THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
36. Calculate the electrostatic force between two electrons separated by a distance of 1 A 0 (electronic
charge ¿ 1.6 ×10−19 C ) (a) 2.3 ×10−4 N (b) 2.043 ×10−8 N (c) 1.06 ×105 N (d) 3.9 ×10−11 N .
THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
37. If a sample of radioactive decaying material has a half-life of 14days. What fraction of the
1 1 1 1
original radioactive nuclei will remain after 42days? (a) (b) (c) (d) . THE
8 16 32 64
CORRECT OPTION IS A
38. 4 g of a radioactive material of half-life of 10days is spilled on a laboratory floor. How long
would it take to disintegrate 3.5 g of the material? (a) 10days (b) 20days (c) 30days (d) 40days.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
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39. The half-life of a radioactive material is 3days. In what time will the activity of the specimen
1
decay to of the original value (a) 5days (b) 10 days (c) 12days (d) 15days (e) 30days. THE
32
CORRECT OPTION IS D
40. The half-life of a radioactive substance of mass 100 g is 30 min. What part of the original mass is
64 100 100
left after 3hours? (a) 100 g (b) g (c) g (d) g. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
100 64 32
41. A simple pendulum has a period of 512seconds. When the length is shortened by 2 m, the period
is 128 sec . Calculate the original length of the pendulum (a) 1.5 m (b) 2.0 m (c) 2.1 m (d) 3.0 m.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
42. Determine the frequency of a simple pendulum of length 3.0 m displaced at a place where the
acceleration due to gravity is 9.70 m/s 2 (a) 0.723 Hz (b) 0.232 Hz (c) 0.432 Hz (d) 0.29 Hz .
THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
43. Calculate the speed of sound in a uniform steel rod of young modulus 2.0 ×1011 N /m 2 and
density 7800 Kg/m3 (a) 2.25 ×10 4 m/ s (b) 2.25 ×103 m/s (c) 2.05 ×102 m/s (d)
5.06 ×103 m/ s . THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
44. A 200 g mass is attached to spring to perform S.H.M horizontally with amplitude of 4 cm. The
force constant of the spring is 25 N /m. What is the time for one complete oscillation? (a)
0.562 sec (b) 2.0 Hz (c) 1.78 Hz (d) 1.78 sec . THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
45. A transparent rectangular block 5.0 cm thick is placed on a black dot. The dot when viewed from
above is seen 3.0 cm from the top of the block. Calculate the refractive index of the material of
2 3 3 5 5
the block (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) . THE CORRECT OPTION IS E
5 5 2 3 2
14
46. Light of frequency 6.0 ×10 Hz travelling in air is transmitted through the glass of refractive
index 1.5. Calculate the frequency of the light in the glass (a) 4.0 × 1014 Hz (b) 6.0 ×1014 Hz (c)
7.5 ×1014 Hz (d) 9.0 ×10 14 Hz (e) 2.1 ×1014 Hz. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
47. An object is placed directly below a glass block of thickness 3.0 cm. Calculate the lateral
displacement of the object if the refractive index of the glass is 1.5 (a) 1.0cm (b) 1.5 cm (c)
2.0 cm (d) 2.5 cm. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
48. A concave mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm has an object placed at 15 cm from its pole. What
will be the magnification of the image formed? (a) 4.0 (b) 2.0 (c) 1.33 (d) 1.5 (e) 0.25. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
49. When a ray of light passes from water to glass it is (a) bent away from the normal (b) bent
towards the normal (c) totally internally reflected (d) absorbed by the glass (e) broken into a pure
spectrum. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
50. Suppose light is incident on air at 500 on a plane water surface and the refractive index ( n ) for
water is 1.33. The refraction angle in the water is (a) 40 0 (b) 380 (c) 45 0 (d) 350 (e) 300 (f) 200 .
THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
51. The speed of light in a glass block of refractive index 1.5 is (a) 25 ×108 m/s (b) 2.5 ×108 m/s
(c) 2.0 ×108 m/s (d) 2.4 × 108 m/ s (e) 2.2 ×108 m/s . THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
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52. Which of the following rays produces vitamin in the skin (a) gamma (b) infra-red (c) ultraviolet
(d) beta (e) all of the above. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
53. Which of the following is applicable in a printing machine? (a) plane mirror (b) transparent
mirror (c) curved mirror (d) concave mirror (e) none of the above. THE CORRECT OPTION
IS A
54. An object 0.5 cm high is placed 8 cm from a convex lens of 10 cm focal length. Find the position
and the size of the image (a) 40 cm, 2.5 cm virtual (b) 40 cm, 2.5 cmreal (c) 2.5 cm ,25 cm
virtual (d) 2.5 cm , 40 cm diminished. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
55. An object is placed 5 cm from a diverging lens of focal length 20 cm . Calculate the image
position and magnification (a) 20 cm ,−2 (b) 60 cm , 4 virtual (c) 60 cm , 4 , real (d) 20 cm ,2 ,
real. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
56. Find the focal length of a magnifying glass that produces an erect image magnified 3 times that of
an object 4 cm away from the lens (a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 6 cm . THE CORRECT
OPTION IS D
57. Calculate the electrostatic force between two electrons separated by a distance 10−10 m. (Take the
electronic charge to be 1.6 ×110−19 C ) (a) 2.3 ×10−4 N (b) 2.304 ×10−8 N (c) 1.06 ×105 N (d)
3.9 ×10−11 N . THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
58. An object is placed at zero (0) between the focal point and the pole of a diverging lens, if f is the
focal point on the other side of the lens, the image formed is (a) between f and 0 (b) between 0
and p (c) between p and f (d) between f and 2f (e) beyond 2f. THE CORRECT OPTION IS E
59. An object is placed in front of a converging lens of focal length 10 cm and the image is real and
twice the size of the object. How far is the object from the lens (a) 5 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 10 cm (d)
20 cm (e) 25 cm (f) 30 cm (g) 35 cm. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
60. The eye defect in which the rays from infinity to the eye converge before the retina can be
corrected by a (a) convex mirror (b) concave mirror (c) diverging lens (d) converging lens (e)
plano diverging mirror. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
61. The angle of deviation of light of various colours through a glass prism decreases in the order of
(a) blue – orange – red (b) red – blue – orange (c) blue – red – orange (d) red – orange – blue (e)
orange – blue – red. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
62. Primary colours are (a) blue, green, yellow (b) orange, blue, yellow (c) blue, green, red (d)
yellow, white, black. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
63. A simple microscope forms an image twice the size of an object, if the focal length of the lens of
the microscope is 10 cm. How far is the object from the lens? (a) 2 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 10 cm (d)
50 cm (e) 20 cm (f) 25 cm (g) 30 cm. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
64. A lens that is thinner in the middle is known as (a) diverging lens (b) converging lens (c) plano
convex lens (d) none of the above. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
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65.

Calculate the effective capacitance in the section above (a) 20 μF (b) 30 μF (c) 40 μF (d)
50 μF . THE CORRECT OPTION IS A

66.

Find the effective capacitance in the diagram above (a) 2 μF (b) 3 μF (c) 4 μF (d) 5 μF .
THE CORRECT OPTION IS C

67. A 2 μF and 3 μF capacitors are connected in series, what is their equivalent capacitance (a)
0.8 μF (b) 1.0 μF (c) 1.2 μF (d) 1.4 μF . THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
68. A potential difference of 500 V is applied to the combination of 2 μF and 3 μF in series. Find the
charge on each capacitor (a) 2 ×10−3 C (b) 6 ×10−4 C (c) 6.09 ×10−3 C (d) 7.5 ×10−5 C . THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
69. Physical properties shared by sound waves and radiowaves are i. both can be polarized ii. Both
can be reflected iii. Both can be diffracted (a) i, ii and iii (b) ii and iii (c) iii only (d) i and ii (e) i.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
70. Which of the following statement(s) about sound waves is not correct (a) can be diffracted (b) can
be polarized (c) can be reflected (d) travel faster in solids than in liquids (e) can travel in air.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
71. Which of the following groups of electromagnetic waves is in order of increasing frequency? (a)
gamma ray → ultraviolet ray → radio waves (b) gamma ray → visible light → ultraviolet ray (c)
visible light → infrared radiation → microwaves (d) microwaves → ultraviolet rays → X-rays
(e) radio waves → visible light → infrared radiation. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
72. When light enters glass from air (a) its frequency decreases and velocity also increases (b) its
wavelength decreases and its velocity also decreases (c) its frequency increases and its velocity
also increases (d) its wavelength increases and its velocity increases (e) none of the above. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
73. Which of the following statements is not correct for interference to occur between two sets of
waves? (a) each set must have a constant wavelength (b) the two sets must have the same
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wavelength (c) the two sets must not be polarized or must have corresponding polarization (d) the
waves must be transverse (e) the waves must have similar amplitude. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS D
74. A body R can only set another body X into resonance if (a) R and X have equal amplitude of
vibration (b) R can set X vibrating (c) X can set R vibrating (d) if the frequency of vibration of R
equals the natural frequency of X (e) if X is set into forced vibration by R. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS D
75. Which of the following waves is an electromagnetic wave? (a) sound waves (b) echoes (c) water
waves (d) heart beat (e) X – ray. THE CORRECT OPTION IS E
76. The speed of a radio signal is 3 ×108 m/s . What is the frequency, if the wavelength is 3 ×102 m
(a) 106 Hz (b) 10−6 Hz (c) 10−3 Hz (d) 103 Hz (e) 10 Hz. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
77. The change of direction of a wavefront due to a change in velocity is called (a) resonance (b)
refraction (c) reflection (d) compression (e) interference. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
78. The frequency of sound that is produced in a tooth wheel siren is (a) constant (b) decreased by
increasing the speed of rotation (c) dependent only on the number of teeth (d) can only be found
using a audio frequency generator (e) obtained by the product of the speed of rotation and the
number of teeth. THE CORRECT OPTION IS E
79. The images formed by convex mirrors are (a) inverted, real and diminished (b) erect, virtual and
diminished (c) erect, virtual and magnified (d) inverted, virtual and diminished (e) erect, real &
magnified. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
80. The image of an object on the retina of human eye is (a) erect and magnified (b) virtual and
diminished (c) inverted & virtual (d) erect & real (e) inverted & real. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS E
81. Which of the following is used for controlling the amount of light entering the eye? (a) cornea (b)
pupil (c) iris (d) optic nerves (e) ciliary muscle. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
82. The angle of deviation of light of various colour through a glass prism decreases in the order of
(a) blue → orange → red (b) red → blue → orange (c) blue → red → orange (d) red → orange
→ blue (e) orange → blue → red. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A

83.

In the diagram above, the kinetic energy is maximum at point (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS C

84. The kinetic energy is minimum at point (a) 1, 2 (b) 1, 3 (c) 1, 4 (d) 2, 3 (e) 1, 5. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS E
85. The points of maximum potential energy are (a) 2, 3 (b) 1, 5 (c) 3, 4 (d) 2, 5 (e) 1, 4. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
86. The point of minimum potential energy is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS C
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87. A body moving with S.H.M has an amplitude of 10 cm and a frequency of 100 Hz. Find the
period of oscillation (a) 0.5 sec (b) 0.01 sec (c) 0.25 sec (d) 0.32 sec (e) 0.352 sec . THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
88. The range of audibility of sound extends from ___________ to ____________ (a) 10 Hz to
20 Hz (b) 20 Hz to 20 KHz (c) 20 Hz to 20 Hz (d) 20 KHz to 100 KHz (e) none. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
89. Sounds produced below 20 Hz are regarded as (a) ultrasonic (b) ultrasofic (c) infrasonic (d)
peptosonic. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
90. Sound at frequencies above 20 KHz are (a) ultrasonic (b) megasonic (c) peptosonic (d) fransonic
(e) secotonic. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
91. Some metals and alloys which obey ohms law are (a) ohmic conductors (b) non-ohmic
conductors (c) alloys (d) insulators. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
92. Conductance of a conductor can be referred to as (a) the reciprocal of the resistance (b) the
reciprocal of temperature (c) the distance through conductance (d) the resistance of the diode.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
93. Which of the following properties is not associated with sound waves (a) refraction (b)
interference (c) polarization (d) reflection. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
94. What is the unit of power of lens? (a) metre (b) resonant (c) centimetre (d) dioptre (e) watt. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS D
95. Which of the following is an electromagnetic wave (a) sound wave (b) water wave (c) X – ray (d)
sonic wave (e) ripples in tank. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
96. Which of these rays in the electromagnetic waves has the longest wavelength (a) X – ray (b) UV
– rays (c) infrared (d) radio waves. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
97. A wave is transporting energy from left to right, the particles of the medium are moving back and
forth, the wave is (a) longitudinal (b) transverse (c) radio waves (d) cosmic waves. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS A
98. Consider a simple harmonic motion, the velocity of the mass will be minimum when the (a) P. E
is minimum (b) displacement of the mass is maximum (c) displacement of the mass is minimum
(d) K. E is maximum. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
99. The equation of a wave is y=0.4 sin ( π ( 0.5 x−200 t ) ) where x and y are in metres and t in
seconds. Find the velocity of the wave (a) 0.4 cm/s (b) 0.4 mm/s (c) 0.4 m/ s (d) 0.4 cm/s.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
100. The unit of illumination is (a) lumen (b) lux (c) candela ¿ m 2 (d) candela. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS B
101. Which of the following is NOT the properties of the image formed by a concave lens? (a) virtual
(b) erect (c) real (d) diminished. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
102. When a beam of light passes through an optical fibre (a) all the rays of light entering the fibre are
totally reflected even at every small angle of incidence (b) some of the rays are refracted from the
cone to the cladding (c) the bright beam coming out of the fibre is due to high refractive index of
the core (d) the bright beam coming out of the fibre is due to the total internal reflection at the
core cladding interface. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
103. A laser is used for sending a signal along a monomode fibre and this is because (a) the light
produced from the laser is faster than any other source of light (b) the laser has a very narrow
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wavelength (c) the core has a very low refractive index to laser light (d) the electric signal can be
transferred quickly using a laser. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
104. Which of these is positively charged? (a) gamma ray (b) proton (c) electron (d) neutron. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
105. Which of these radiations has the largest mass? (a) α −¿ particle (b) positron (c) negatron (d)
β−¿ particle. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
106. Which of these radiations consists of electromagnetic waves (a) α −¿ particles (b) β−¿ particles
(c) γ −¿ rays (d) none. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
107. Which of these radiations has the highest penetrating power (a) α −¿ particle (b) γ −¿ ray (c)
β−¿ particle (d) X – rays. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
108. Which of these radiations has the strongest ionizing power (a) α −¿particles (b) β−¿ particles (c)
γ −¿ particles (d) none. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
109. The four main types of radiation which must be dealt with in health physics are (a) α particle,
β−¿ particles, neutron and X – rays (b) β−¿ particles, protons, electrons and γ −¿ ray (c) γ −¿
ray, electron, proton and nucleon (d) none. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
110. Which of the following is true? (a) if a β – particle is emitted, both mass and atomic number
remain constant. (b) if an α −¿ particle is emitted, the mass number decreases by 2 and atomic
number decreases by 4 (c) if an α −¿ particle is emitted the mass number decreases by 4 and the
atomic number decreases by 2 (d) both mass and atomic number decrease by 2. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS C
111. Which of the following is not true? (a) gamma rays and X – rays like the visible, infrared and UV
light are part of E.M spectrum (b) while gamma rays and X – rays produce all kinds of hazard,
they differ in origin (c) gamma rays originate in the nucleus (d) X – rays originate from the
nucleus. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
112. Which of the following rays are originated from the nucleus of an atom (a) UV – rays (b) infrared
rays (c) X – rays (d) γ −¿ rays. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
113. The charges on the atomic scale of proton, electron and neutrons are respectively (a) +1 , 0 ,−1
(b) +1 ,−1 , 0 (b) −2 ,−1 , 0 (d) 0 , 1 ,−1. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
114. By whom was natural radioactivity discovered (a) Henry Becquerel (b) John Mathias (c) Joseph
John Thompson (d) Faraday. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
115. What is the shortest wavelength of X – ray that can be produced by an electron accelerated by
60 KV (a) 20.7 cm (b) 20.7 mm (c) 20.7 nm (d) 20.7 pm. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
116. The largest point of the background radiation exposure comes from (a) diagnostic X – rays (b)
naturally occurring sources of radiation and radioactivity in the environment (c) nuclear weapons
fallout (d) industrial radiography. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
117. Which of the following is NOT formed of the four basic types of ionizing radiation? (a) UV –
pollution (b) radio waves (c) neutron (d) γ −¿ rays. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
118. When a cell is damaged by radiation (a) it always causes death to the cell (b) it may repel the
damage and operate normally (c) it induces radiation poisoning (d) there will be a high
probability of cancer. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
119. The mechanism that causes damage to cell from radiation exposure is (a) excitation (b) cancer (c)
ionization (d) tumor. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
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120. Man made sources of radiation includes the following EXCEPT (a) diagnostic radiology (b)
incalceration technique (c) cosmic radiation (d) use of radio isotopes in hospitals. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS C
121. What atomic property determines the chemical behaviour of an element (a) isotopy (b) atomic
number (c) mass number (d) allotropy. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
122. A nurse count 78 heartbeat in one minute, what are the period and frequency of the heart
oscillation? (a) 1.3 sec ¿ 0.77 Hz (b) 2.5 sec ¿ 0.3 Hz (c) 3.8 sec ¿ 2.9 Hz (d) 1.77 sec ¿ 2.95 Hz.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
123. The time required for one complete back and forth (wave cycle) is called (a) frequency (b) period
(c) amplitude (d) speed. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
124. A bird beats his wings up and down with a frequency of 80 Hz . Determine the period of the
wings beat? (a) 0.01 sec (b) 0.25 sec (c) 0.75 sec (d) 0.95 sec. THE CORRECT OPTION IS
A
125. A physics teacher jumps on a bathroom scale whose spring constant is 222 N /m, the jump causes
the scale to vibrate back and forth, if the physics teacher mass is 48 kg. Find the period of
oscillation? (a) 1.5 sec (b) 2.92 sec (c) 3.53 sec (d) 5.21 sec . THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
126. A plane progressive wave is represented by the equation y=2sin(2000 πt ¿−0.5 π )¿, calculate
the amplitude, frequency and wavelength (a) 2 m, 1000 Hz ,12.57 m (b) 2 m, 1500 Hz ,3.21 m
(c) 1.5 m, 250 Hz , 6 m (d) 4 m, 600 Hz , 50 m. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
127. All the particles contained in the nucleus of an atom are collectively called (a) isotope (b) nuclide
(c) nucleon (d) atomic number. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
128. Which of the following determines the atomic mass of an atom (a) proton (b) nucleon (c) electron
(d) all of the above. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
129. For a neutral atom, a particle that determines the ability of the atom is (a) proton (b) neutron (c)
electron (d) none of the above. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
130. A uranium radioisotope consisting of 235 mass number and 92 atomic number emits 4 alpha
particles and 3 beta particles. The mass number and atomic number of the resulting element are
(a) 219 and 87 (b) 223 and 87 (c) 84 and 223 (d) 219 and 81. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
131. Calculate the half-life when the K constant is 0.01 per day (a) 69.3 sec (b) 69.3 min (c)
69.3 days (d) 69.3 yrs. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
132. In a photoelectric experiment, the maximum energy emitted by a monochromatic light source is
1.4 ×10−19 J with work function of 19 electron volt, the wavelength in ( m ) of the incident length
is (a) 4.5 × 10−7 (b) 6.5 ×10−7 (c) 5.5 ×10−7 (d) 6.25 ×10−8 m . THE CORRECT OPTION IS
D
133. If the frequency of an emitted X – ray is 1.6 ×1016 Hz when the charge is 1.6 ×10−19 J , the
accelerating potential is (a) 6.6 V (b) 66.3 V (c) 663 V (d) 6630 V . THE CORRECT OPTION
IS B
134. In which of the following arrangements is the wavelength in an increasing order (a) gamma ray,
infrared ray, X – ray and radio wave (b) gamma ray, X – ray, infrared and radio wave (c) radio
wave, X – ray, gamma wave and infrared ray (d) infrared ray, radio waves, X – ray and gamma
ray. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
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135. The type of bias formed when P type of semi-conductor is connected to the negative terminal and
n – type is connected to the positive terminal (a) forward bias (b) positive bias (c) negative bias
(d) reverse bias. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
136. Which of the following is a typical application of diode (a) smooter (b) clipper (c) storing charger
(d) modulator. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
137. The concentration of holes – electron pair in an intrinsic semi-conductor material is
8.42 ×1012 perc m3. If the hole and electron mobility are 1800 and 3800 c m2 / s in germanium,
the resistivity of the material in ohms is (a) 3000 (b) 669.65 (c) 700.61 (d) 265. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS D
138. In the photoelectric effect, the maximum energy of the photon electron is? (a) proportional to the
intensity of illumination (b) directly proportional to the frequency of the source of illumination
(c) depends on the work function (d) depends on the atomic mass of the metal (e) depends on the
distance from the metal. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
139. What is diode? (i) it is a non-ohmic device (ii) it is a ohmic device (iii) it is a low resistance in
one direction and high resistance in the other direction (a) i only (b) i and ii only (c) ii and iii only
(d) i and iii only. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
140. Molecular spectra contains more lines than atomic spectra because? (a) there are more atoms in
the molecules (b) molecules have more energy than atoms (c) molecules have more translational
degree of freedom (d) molecules can be raised in higher energy level (e) molecules have
vibrational and rotational degree of freedom. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B

141. In a radioactive sample, the rate of radioactive decay ( dNdt ) is (a) λt (b) −λN (c) λ N 2
(d) λN .

THE CORRECT OPTION IS B


142. Given that a neutron mass is 1.0087 V and the proton mass to be 1.0073 V and the mass of the
carbon nucleus 12 6
❑ C is 12.0040 V . the binding energy ❑❑in V of the carbon nucleus is given as
(a) 2.016 (b) 12.096 (c) 9.080 (d) 0.0092 (e) 0.010. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
143. If the energy carried by a photon having yellow light is 2.5 eV . Calculate the approximate
frequency? (a) 2.5 ×1014 Hz (b) 6.03 ×1014 Hz (c) 3.21 ×1011 Hz (d) 5.31 ×1011 Hz (e)
1.8 ×1010 Hz. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
144. Calculate the electron velocity for an accelerating potential of 8100 V . (mass of electron
¿ 9.1 ×10−31 kg) (a) 2.54 × 106 m/ s (b) 5.34 ×10 7 m/ s (c) 5.1 ×105 m/s (d) 2.85 ×107 m/ s (e)
16.28 ×105 m/s . THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
145. A proton and α −¿ particle are both accelerated from rest by the same potential difference. The
ratio of the velocities reached is? (a) 1 : √ 2 (b) √ 2:1 (c) 1 :4 (d) 2 :1 (e) 1 :2. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS D
146. The permittivity unit is (a) Farad /m (b) Coulomb/m (c) Farad /m2 (d) Coulomb /m 2. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS A
147. Which of the following devices is not an application of the p−n junction diode (a) transformer
(b) rectifier (c) detector (d) clamper. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
148. A silicon atom has a valency of (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
149. An intrinsic semi-conductor is one whose (a) charge carriers are formed from doping (b) charge
carriers are mainly in the majority (c) charge carriers are mainly in the minority (d) number of
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holes is equal to number of electrons (e) number of holes is greater than number of electrons.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
150. Which of the following is not a semi-conductor (a) silicon (b) gallium arsenide (c) germanium (d)
zinc sulphide. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
151. The most commonly used semi-conductor material is (a) silicon (b) germanium (c) mixture of
silicon and germanium (d) all of the above (e) . THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
152. In which solid material do conduction and valence band overlap (a) insulator (b) conductor (c)
semi-conductor (d) resistor (e) none. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
153. In which of the following semi-conductors are holes minority carrier (a) extrinsic (b) intrinsic (c)
p-type (d) n-type. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
154. Which of the following is the poorest conductor of electricity (a) aluminium (b) nichrome (c)
copper (d) Au. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
155. An intrinsic semi-conductor is one who charge carriers are (a) formed from doping (b) mainly in
the majority (c) mainly in the minority (d) equally generated. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
156. Which of the following is not a semi-conductor (a) carbon (b) silicon (c) germanium (d) silicon
carbide. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
157. A capacitor is used in the following devices except (a) water pumping machine (b) electric iron
(c) ceiling fan (d) television (e) none. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
158. Which of the following is/are correct of the total energy of a body performing S.H.M (i)
maximum at the region of maximum displacement (ii) minimum at the starting point (iii) depends
on the maximum displacement (iv) constant at any point along the path of the motion (a) i and iii
only (b) ii only (c) i and ii only (d) iii and iv only. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
159. Consider a S.H.M such as a released mass attached to a spring, the velocity of the motion of the
mass will be minimum when the (a) P.E is minimum (b) displacement of the mass is maximum
(c) displacement of the mass is minimum (d) K.E is maximum. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
160. The second harmonic of a string 1.5 m long and fixed at both ends is 80 Hz , the speed of
transverse wave in the string is (a) 120 m/s (b) 12 m/s (c) 102 m/s (d) 2 ,/s . THE CORRECT
OPTION IS A
161. Light of frequency 6 ×10 14 Hz travelling in air is transmitted through glass of refractive index
1.5. Calculate the frequency of the light in the glass (a) 4.0 × 1014 Hz (b) 6.0 ×1014 Hz (c)
7.5 ×1014 Hz (d) 9.0 ×10 14 Hz . THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
162. The following are parts of spectrometer except (a) collimeter (b) telescope (c) mirror (d) vernier
scale. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
163. Minimum deviation occurs when ray of light passes through the prism (a) symmetrically (b)
assymetrically (c) longitudinally (d) transverse. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
164. The angle of prism at which grazing emergence is attained for grazing incidence is called (a)
emergence angle (b) incident angle (c) limiting angle (d) reflected angle. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS A
165. The following devices use plane mirrors in their operation except (a) binoculars (b) telescope (c)
sextant (d) kaleidoscope. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
166. Which of the following is correct for an object placed beyond the centre of curvature of a concave
mirror (a) real, inverted and diminished (b) virtual, erect and diminished (c) real, inverted and
magnified (d) virtual, erect and magnified. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
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167. The following are the uses of capacitors except (a) smoothing circuit (b) oscillating circuit (c)
rectification (d) igniting system. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
168. What is the resistance of a multiplier required to convert a milliameter which gives a full scale
deflection at 20 mA to a voltmeter capable of measuring a p.d of 10 V . The resistance of the
milliameter is 5.0 Ω (a) 495 Ω (b) 500 Ω (c) 5 Ω (d) 0.02 Ω . THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
169. The resistance of a wire depends on (a) length of the wire (b) diameter of the wire (c) resistivity
of the wire (d) all. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
170. A R-L-C circuit consists of 22 ohms resistor, 0.5 H inductor, 0.000001 F capacitor and V rms of
120 V with a frequency of 50 Hz. The impedance of the circuit is (a) 318.27 Ω (b) 110.3 Ω (c)
162.7 Ω (d) none of the above. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
171. A series resonance circuit is used for (a) resonance wave tube (b) oscillating radio wave (c)
minimizing circuit heat (d) turning radio receiver. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
172. How much energy is stored in a 40 mH inductor when it carries current of 0.5 A (a) 0.005 J (b)
0.04 J (c) 0.08 J (d) 0.00002 J . THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
173. The time required for 1 complete BACK AND FORTH vibration is (a)amplitude (b)frequency (c)
period (d) wavelength. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
174. A particle executing simple harmonic motion (S.H.M) has a frequency of 50 H 3and an amplitude
of 8.0cm. calculate the maximum velocity of its motion (a)2.51m/s (b)2.5rad/s (c)25.1m/s
(d)25.1rad/s. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
175. If in a simple pendulum, the length of the inextensible string is increased by a factor of four, what
1
effect will this have on the period (a) 4 (b) π /2 (c) (d) 2. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
4
176. What is the length of a simple pendulum whose period is 3 seconds at a place where the
acceleration due to gravity is 9.7 m/ s2 (a)4.0m (b)8.2m (c)4.42m (d)2.21m. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS D
177. What is the angular speed of a body vibrating at 50cycles per second? (a) 200 πrad /s (b)
100 πrad /s (c)50 πrad /s (d) 400 πrad /s . THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
178. A tall thin tree swings back and forth in the breeze with a period of 44seconds. Determine the
frequency of the back and forth motion (a) 0.023sec (b) 0.023min (c) 0.023m (d)0.023Hz. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS D
179. A LAUTECH PDS student found out from a simple pendulum experiment that 20oscillations
were completed in 38seconds. What is the period of oscillation of the pendulum (a) 19.0sec (b)
190.0sec (c) 1.9sec (d) 10.9sec. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
180. The audible range of frequency called audio range extends from ________ to ________ (a)
2KHz to 20KHz (b) 20Hz to 200Hz (c) 2Hz to 20Hz (d) 20Hz to 20KHz. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS D
181. A turning fork of frequency 360Hz is sounded together with one of 364Hz. How many beats are
heard? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
182. ULTRASONIC sounds are those whose frequencies are (a) greater than 20KHz (b) less than
20KHz (c) less than 20Hz (d) equal to 20Hz. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
183. One of the two identical turning forks with natural frequency 256Hz one is loaded so that 4 beat
per second are heard when they are sounded. What is the frequency of the loaded turning fork (a)
260Hz (b) 252Hz (c) 248Hz (d) 264Hz. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
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184. How many beats are heard assuming two vibrating strings have fundamental frequencies of
160Hz and 322Hz respectively (a) 2 beats (b) 162 beats (c) 4 beats (d) 128 beats. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS A
185. The acceleration of the body moving with SHM is given by a=−25 x , x is the displacement
from the equilibrium position, for amplitude of 0.02m. The maximum acceleration will be (a)
0.2 m/s 2 (b) 0.25 m/s 2 (c) 5 m/s 2 (d) 0.5 m/s 2. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
186. The motion of moving speed of a talking drum can be rightly described as (a) translational
(b) random (c) rotational (d) oscillatory. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
187. A nurse counts 78 heartbeats in 1minute. The period and frequency of the hearts oscillation are
(a) 1.3Hz and 0.77sec (b) 0.77sec and 1.30Hz (c) 0.77Hz and 1.30sec (d) 1.30sec and 0.77Hz.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
188. A particle of mass 0.25Kg vibrates with a period of 2.0sec. If its greatest displacement is 0.4m.
What is its maximum K.E.? (a) 0.2J (b) 0.2m/s (c) 0.2N (d) 0.2j. THE CORRECT OPTION IS
A
189. The period of a simple pendulum Q is 1.50sec. Calculate the period of another simple pendulum
R which makes 500 vibrations in the same time Q takes to execute 400 vibrations (a) 1.50sec (b)
1.25sec (c) 0.50sec (d) 0.85sec. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
190. A ZENITH Tutorial Student found out from a simple pendulum experiment that 39 oscillations
were completed in 78 seconds. What is the period of oscillation of the pendulum? (a) 200Hz (b)
200sec (c) 2Hz (d) 2seconds. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
191. A music compact disc does 45revolutions in one minute. Calculate its angular velocity in rad/sec
(a) 15 π (b) 45 π (c) 1.5 π (d) 0.75 π . THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
192. Consider a simple harmonic motion, say as described by a mass-string system. The velocity of the
mass will be minimum when the (a) displacement of the mass is maximum (b) displacement of
the mass is minimum (c) P.E. is minimum (d) K.E. is maximum. THE CORRECT OPTION IS
A
193. Which of the following is inversely proportional to angular velocity? (a) speed (b) period (c)
frequency (d) force. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
194. The speed of sound in a uniform steel rod of young modulus 4 ×1012 N /m2 and density of
8 g/c m3 is (a) 6 ×10 12 m/s (b) 2.236 ×10 4 m/s (c) 16 ×1012 m/s (d) 2.0 ×1012 m/s. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
195. A 1.5m long taunt horizontal string is held at one end, its linear density is 0.24 Kg/m and it is
subjected to a tension of 250N. Find the velocity of the transverse wave in the string (a)
23.67 m/s (b) 42.75 m/ s (c) 32.27 m/s (d) 42.23 m/ s. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
196. What is the velocity of sound wave in air, given that the density of air is 1.29 Kg/m3 at STP and
specific heat capacity ratio for air is 1.40 while the density of mercury is 13,600 Kg/m3 (a)
331 m/s (b) 289 m/s (c) 460 m/ s (d) 240 m/s . THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
197. The frequency of the fundamental note emitted by a metal string of mass 20g and length 80cm
under a tension of 160N is (a) 25 H 3 (b) 50 H 3 (c) 100 H 3 (d) 150 H 3. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS B
30 πx
(
198. What is the frequency of a progressive wave given by y=7.0 sin 300 πt −
19 ) (a)100 H 3

(b) 120 H 3 (c)140 H 3 (d) 150 H 3. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D


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199. A metal string of mass 0.95g and length 60cm is under a tension of 120N. Determine the speed of
transverse wave in the string (a) 2.357 H 3 (b) 23.57 H 3 (c) 235.7 H 3 (d) 2357 H 3. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS C
200. What does 0.25 represent in the wave equation y=0.25sin 0.7 (k −50 H ) (a)wavelength (b)
frequency (c) distance (d) amplitude. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
201. A wire of length 5m has a mass of 2g with one end of the wire attached to the other turning fork
of frequency 100 H 3 while the other end goes over a frictionless pulley and supports a mass of
3.0kg, the speed of the transverse wave in the wire is (a) 271.1 ms (b) 172.1 m/s (c) 127.1
m/s (d) 271.1 m/s. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
202. In which of the following media is the speed of sound greatest? (a) Water (b) air at 00 C (c) air at
1000 C (d) steel. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
203. The equation of a wave is y=0.4 sin [ π ( 0.5 x−200 t ) ] where x and y are in meters and t is in
second. Find the velocity of the wave (a) 0.4cm/s (b) 0.4mm/s (c) 0.4m/s (d)0.4km/s. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS D
204. A wave whose frequency is 0.4 H 3 travels 54 m in 9ecsonds. The distance between adjacent
crests is (a) 30m (b) 20m (c) 15m (d) 25m. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
205. A hunter at 408m from a cliff fires a gun and hears an echo 2.4seconds later, what is the speed of
sound (a) 400m/s (b) 380 m/s (c)680m/s (d) (d) 340 m/s . THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
206. Two sound waves are travelling through a container of unknown gas. Wave A has a wavelength
of 1.2m wave B has wavelength of 3.6m. The frequency of wave B must be ________ The
frequency of wave A (a) one-ninth (b) one-third (c) the same (d) 3times lager than. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
207. How far from a wall should a boy stand in order to hear the echo of his clap 0.9s later (a)36.7m
(b) 74.2m (c) 148.5m (d) 207.5m. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
208. If the peak of a wave measures 300cm,the peak above the still water is (a) 1.50m (b) 300cm
(c) 3.00m (d) 6.00m. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
209. A certain wave has a speed of 20m/s . If the frequency of the wave is 0.25 H 3, calculate the
distance between successive crests of the waves (a) 40m (b) 100m (c) 80m (d) 50m. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS C
210. Most people can detect frequency as high as 20 KHz . Assuming the speed of sound in air is
345 m/s determine the wavelength of the sound corresponding to this upper range of audible
hearing (a) 0.0173nm (b) 0.0173mm (c) 0.0173cm (d) 0.0173m. THE CORRECT OPTION IS
D
211. A ripple tank dipper makes 8 water waves in a time of 2seconds. When it is just about to make
the ninth wave, the first wave has travelled 48cm from the dipper. What is the frequency of the
wave (a) 0.25Hz (b) 4Hz (c) 0.25Hz (d) 4KHz. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
212. Calculate the speed of sound in a uniform steel of young modulus 2.0 ×1012 N /m2 and density of
8 g/c m3 (a) 1.3 ×108 m/s (b) 1.6 ×10 4 m/s (c) 1.6 ×108 m/s (d) 1.3 ×10 4 m/ s. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
213. A plane progressive wave is represented by the equation y=4 sin ⁡(200 πt −0.5 x ). Calculate the
frequency (a) 0.1Hz (b) 0.1MHz (c) 0.1KHz (d) 0.1GHz. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
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90 πx
(
214. The wavelength of a progressive wave represented by equation y=7.0 sin 500 πt −
17 )
is (a)

17 17 19 19
cm (b) cm (c) cm (d) cm. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
45 22.5 17 15
215. Which of the following is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum? (a) radio waves (b)gamma
rays (c) cosmic rays (d) microwave. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
216. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is most energetic (a) infra – red rays (b)X – rays
(c) ultraviolet rays (d) gamma rays R. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
217. Which of the following cannot be plane polarized (a) X – rays (b) visible – light (c)sound wave
(d) light wave. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
218. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is least energetic? (a) infra – red rays (b)X – rays
(c) ultraviolet rays (d) gamma ray. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
219. Which of the following is most deviated (a) blue (b) red (c) indigo (d) yellow. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS C
220. Which of the following types of waves cannot be propagated through vacuum (a) radio (b) water
(c) light (d) gamma- rays. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
221. Which of these rays in the electromagnetic spectrum has the longest wavelength? (a) X –rays (b)
ultraviolet rays (c) infrared rays (d) radio waves. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
222. A wave is transporting energy from left to right. The particles of the medium are moving back
and forth in a leftward and rightward direction. This type of wave is known as a (a)transverse (b)
electromagnet (c) longitudinal (d) mechanical. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
223. A transverse wave is transporting energy from east to west. The particles of the medium will
move (a) north to south only (b) both northward and southward (c) east to west (d) both
eastward and west ward. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
224. Sound waves can be diffracted because they are (a) transverse (b) longitudinal (c)
electromagnetic (d) polarized. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
225. Sound and water waves are classified as MECHANICAL waves and they cannot be propagated in
one of the following (a) air (b) water (c) steel (d) vacuum. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
226. Which of the following waves is an electromagnetic wave? (a) Sound wave (b) water wave (c) X
– rays (d) heart beats. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
227. The following types of waves are transverse except (a) light waves (b) radio waves
(c) sound waves (d) X – rays. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
228. Which of the following statements about sound is not true? (a) sound is a longitudinal wave (b)
sound can be refracted and reflected like light (c) sound travels through a vacuum (d) sound
travels faster in a steel than in air. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
229. A SOUND wave is a MECHANICAL wave, not an electromagnetic wave. This means that (a)
particles of the medium move perpendicularly to the direction of energy transport (b) a SOUND
wave transports its energy through a vacuum (c)particles of the medium regularly and repeatedly
oscillate about rest position (d) a medium is required in order for SOUND waves to transport
energy. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
230. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of MECHANICAL waves? (a) They consist of
DISTURBANCES or OSCILLATIONS of a medium (b)they transport energy (c) they travel in a
direction which is at RIGHT ANGLE to the direction of the particles of the medium (d) they are
created by a vibrating source. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
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231. Of the following, which is different from the others? (a) X – rays (b) gamma rays (c)cathode rays
(d) ultraviolet rays. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
232. If a source of sound is moving, a stationary listener will hear a sound of different frequency. This
is called (a) Doppler effect (b) resonance (c) ultrasound (d) rarefaction . THE CORRECT
OPTION IS A
233. Which of the following properties is not associated with sound waves? (a) diffraction
(b)interference (c) polarization (d) refraction. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
234. The apparent increase or decrease in frequency when a source of sound moves towards or away
from a stationary observer is known as (a) beats (b) resonance (c) Doppler Effect (d)
interference. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
235. The amplitude of a sound wave determines its (a) frequency (b) pitch (c) loudness
(d) intensity. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
236. The portion of the spectrum which most produces the sensation of heat is the portion where we
have (a) X – rays (b) infrared (c) ultraviolet (d) gamma rays. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
237. The primary colours are (a) orange, red and yellow (b) blue green and red (c) blue, green and
yellow (d) yellow, blue and red. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
238. The characteristic of sound produced by different musical instruments, which differentiate one
instrument from the other, is the (a) quality of the note (b) pitch of the note (c) loudness of the
note (d) intensity of the note. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
239. An echo is due to (a) interference of sound waves (b) reflection of sound waves (c) superposition
of sound waves (d) diffraction of the sound waves. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
240. Which of the following phenomenon cannot be explained by the wave theory of light?
(a)refraction (b) compton effect (c) diffraction (d) interference. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
241. The change of direction due to a change in velocity is called (a) resonance (b) reflection (c)
diffraction (d) refraction. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
242. A body X can only set another S into resonance if (a) X and S have equal amplitudes of vibration
(b) X can set S vibrating (c) S can set X vibrating (d) the frequency of vibration of X equals the
natural frequency of S. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
243. Any line or section in an advancing wave in which all the particles are in the same phase is called
(a) wavelength (b)wave crest (c) wave trough (d) wave front. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
244. A TRANSVERSE wave is transporting energy from east to west. The particles of the medium
will move (a) north to south only (b) both northwards and southwards (c) east to west only (d)
both eastwards and westwards. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
245. In which of the following material media would sound travel fastest (a) gas (b) water (c)oil (d)
metal. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
246. A police car has an 800Hz siren. It is travelling at 35.0m/s on a day when the speed of sound
through air is 340m/s. The car approaches and passes an observer who is standing along the
roadside. What change of frequency does the observer hear? (a) 65Hz (b)892Hz (c) 166Hz (d)
240Hz. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
247. What frequency does a stationary observer hear when a train approaches her with a speed of
30m/s. The frequency of the train horn is 0.600KHz and the speed of sound is 340m/s (a) 551Hz
(b) 600Hz (c) 653Hz (d) 658Hz. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
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248. You are moving at 120 kmlh towards a stationary train. The train blows its whistle at 0.400 k H 3
.Take the speed of sound to be 340 m/s what frequency do you hear? (a) 444 H 3(b)439 H 3(c)
364 H 3 (d) 364 H 3. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
249. A siren emitting sound of frequency100 H 3 approaches a stationary observer at half the speed of
sound. The observer hears the frequency of (a) 500 H 3 (b) 600 H 3(c) 700 H 3 (d) 800 H 3. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS A
250. A train travelling away from you at 120 kmlh blows its whistle, and you hear a tone of 0.4 k H 3 .
Take a speed of sound to be 340 mls. What frequency does the whistle actually produce? (a)
444 H 3(b)439 H 3 (c)304 H 3 (d)309 H 3. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
251. A 60w light bulb whose luminous efficiency is 14 lm/ w is suspended 2m over a table. What is
the illumination of the table directly under the bulb (a) 66.8 lux (b) 210 lux (c)30 lux (d)
16.7 lux . THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
252. The unit of luminance is the (a) lumen (lm) (b) candela (cd) (c) candela per square meter (cdm -2)
(d) lux per square metre (lxm-2). THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
253. The unit of illumination is (a) lumen (b) lux (c) candela per metre square (d) candela. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
254. The intensity at a distance of 6.0m from a source that is radiating equally in all directions is
6.0 ×10−10 w m−2 what is the power emitted by the source? (a) 2.1 ×10−8 (b)2.7 ×10−7 (c)
2.1 ×10−6 (d) 2.7 ×10−5. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
255. A certain factory whistle can be heard up to a distance of 2.5Km. Assuming that the acoustic
output of the whistle is uniform in all directions, how much acoustic power is emitted by the
whistle. The intensity is 1.0 ×10−12 w /m2 (a) 0.019 mW (b) 0.020 mW (c) 0.20 mw (d)
0.19 mw . THE CORRECT OPTION IS
256. Two people are talking at a distance of 30m from where you are, and you measure the sound
intensity as 1.1 ×10−7 w /m2 . Another student is 4.0m away from the talkers. Calculate a
reasonable estimate for the sound intensity the other student measures (a) 6.2 ×10−8 w / m 2 (b)
1.5 ×10−6 w/ m2 (c) 8.3 ×10−8 w/m 2 (d) 7.8 ×10−7 N /m 2. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
257. A lamp is suspended 4m over a large table. How much greater is the illumination directly under
the lamp as compared with the illumination at a point on the table 1.3m to one side (a)
E1=1.62 E2 (b) E1=0.8 E 2 (c) E1=1.16 E 2 (d) E1=2 E2 . THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
1 1
258. In a plot of against for a converging lens how can f be determined from the graph (a)
u v
f= the slope of the graph (b) f= reciprocal of the slope (c) f= reciprocal of intercept on either axis
(d) f= intercept on either side . THE CORRECT OPTION IS B

259. An object is placed 20 cm from a diverging lens of focal length 15cm. calculate its magnification
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.34 (c) 0.43 (d) 0.24. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
260. A simple microscope forms an image twice the size of the object. If the focal length of the
microscope is 10cm, how far is the object from the lens (a) 2cm (b) 5cm( c) 10cm(d) 20cm. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
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261. An object forms an image three time is own size when placed 10.72cm from the pole of spherical
mirror. What is the focal length if the image is real?(a)7.5cm (b) 15cm (c) 8.04cm (d) 9.5cm. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS C
262. A boy standing in front of a plane mirror and 3 meters from it walks 2 meters farther away from
the mirror. How far is his image now from him? (a) 10m (b) 20cm(c) 5cm (d) 3m. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS A
263. An object is placed in front of a converging lens of focal length 10cm and the image is real and
twice the size of the object. How far is the object from the lens?. (a) 5cm (b) 15cm (c) 10cm (d)
20cm. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
264. An object is placed 30cm from a converging lens. If the real image formed is 90.0cm front the
object. What is the focal length? (a) 20.0cm (b) 15cm (c) 20.5cm (d) 60cm. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS C
265. An object is placed 12cm from a converging lens to produce a magnified real image that is four
times the size of the object. Calculate the focal length of the lens (a) 16cm (b) 9.6cm (c) 2.0cm (d)
17.0cm. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
266. A simple microspore forms an image twice the size of the object. If the focal length of the lens of
the microscope is 10cm. how far is the object from the lens? (a) 10cm (b) 15cm (c) 20cm (d) 5cm.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
267. An astronomical telescope has an eyepiece of focal length 5.0cm. if the angular magnification in
normal adjustment is 10. The distance between the objective and the eye piece in cm is (a) 50
(b)45 (c) 10 (d) 55. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
268. An object is placed at a distance of 7.0cm from a mirror and a virtual image which is magnified
eight times is produced, what is the focal length of the mirror? (a) 8cm (b) 16cm (c) 4cm (d)
12cm. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
269. An astronomical telescope has an eye lens of focal length 20mm. in normal adjustment, when the
image of a distance object is at infinity. The separation of the lens is 500mm. The angular
magnification of the telescope under this condition is (a) 26 (b) 24 (c) 22 (d) 25. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
270. The focal length of combination of converging lens of focal length 10cm and a diverging lens of
focal length 20cm that are in contact is (a) 40cm (b) 35cm (c) 20cm (d) 10cm. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS C
271. A double convex lens has a focal length of 8cm. how far from an insect 3mm long should the lens
be held in order to produce an erect image 5mm long (a) 3.6cm (b) 8cm (c) 3.2cm (d) 12.8cm.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
272. A magnifying glass of focal length 6.0cm is used to view an object by a person whose near point is
25cm. If he holds the glass close to the eye, determine the best position of the object and the linear
magnification produced by the lens (a) 4.84cm, 5.2 (b) 2.42cm, 2.6 (c) 8.40cm, 5.2 (d) 6.12cm,
5.2. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
273. When two plane mirrors are inclined at angle 45 0 to each other face to face, the number of image
formed by them is (a) 13 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 7, THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
274. Find the number of image formed between two parallel plane mirrors (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) infinite (d) 3.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
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simple………

275. An object is placed in front of a mirror. If the mirror is rotated through an angle of θ the image is
θ
rotated through an angle of (a) θ (b) 2θ (c) (d) 90−θ. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
2
276. A boy in a barber's shop sits between two parallel mirrors. The number of images formed by him
is (a) infinite (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 10. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
277. What is the critical angle of a medium of refractive index 1.60? (a) 38.70 (b) 320 (c) 580 (d) 51.30.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
278. A ray of light is incident in water at an angle 300 on a water-glass surface. Calculate the angle of
refraction in the glass if a ∩ g=1.5 , a ∩ w =1.33 ¿ (a) 26.30 (b) 46.20 (c) 36.30 (d) 16.30.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
279. What is the critical angle for an air-glass surface (a ∩ g=1.5) (a) 14.80 (b) 48.4 0 (c) 41.8 0 (d)
44.8 0. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
280. Calculate the critical angle for an air-water surface ( a ∩ w =1.33 ¿ (a) 48.8 0 (b)38.80 (c)
0 0
28.8 (d) 38.3 . THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
281. A ray of light is incident in water at an angle 700 on a water- glass surface. Calculate the angle of
refraction in the glass a ∩ g=1.5 , a ∩ w =1.33 ¿ (a) 66.4 0 (b)53.70 (c) 72.50 (d) 40.80. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
282. A ray of light is incident in water at an angle 300 on a water-air plane surface. Find the angle of
4
refraction in the air (n for water = ) (a) 41.8 0 (b) 24.80 (c) 44.3 0 (d) 35.30. THE CORRECT
3
OPTION IS A
283. A 700 prism is made of glass whose refractive index for a certain light is 1.50. At what angle of
incident will minimum deviation occur (a) 350 (b) 590 (c) 48 0 (d) 45 0. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS B
284. A ray of light is incident at 600 at an air-glass plane surface. Find the angle of refractive in the
glass (n for glass=1.5) (a) 25.30 (b) 35.30 (c)15.30 (d) 30.30. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
285. At what angle of incidence will minimum derivation occur by a 600 prism made of glass whose
refractive index for a certain light is 1.60? (a) 30.10 (b) 32. 50 (c) 30.10 (d) 32.50. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS C
286. The critical angle of glass is 42 0. The approximate refractive index of this glass is (a) 1.50 (b) 1.30
(c) 1.80 (d) 2.40. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
4
287. A fish is 8m below the surface of a pond. If the refractive index of water is , what is the apparent
3
depth of the fish below the surface of the pond.(a) 10cm (b) 6m (c) 1.5m (d) 1.33m. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
288. Light from a luminous point on the lower face of a rectangular glass slab, 2.0cm thick, strikes, the
upper face and the totally reflected rays outlined a circle of 3.2cm radius on the lower face. What
is the refractive index of the glass? (a) 1.20 (b) 1.60 (c) 1.50 (d) 1.30. THE CORRECT OPTION
IS B
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4 3
289. If the refractive index of air-water (a ∩ w ) is air-glass (a ∩ g )is . Find the refractive index of
3 2
16 9 7 2
water-glass interface (a) (b) (c) (d) . THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
7 8 9 9
290. A 45 0 prison is made of glass whose refractive index for a certain light is 1.72. At what angle of
incidence will minimum deviation occur? (a) 53.10 (b) 22.60 (c) 300 (d) 41.16 0. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS D
291. Calculate the angle of minimum deviation for a ray which is refracted through an equiangular
prism of refractive index 1.4 (a) 290 (b) 600 (c) 990 (d) 90 0. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
292. A coin placed below a rectangular glass block of thickness 9cm and refractive index 1.5 is viewed
vertically above the block. The apparent displacement of the coin is (a) 3cm (b) 5cm (c) 6cm (d)
8cm. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
293. A lens that is thinner at the middle and thicker at the edge is (a) Diverging (b) converging (c)
plane-convex (d) converging meniscus. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
294. The distance between the optical centre and the principal focus of a lens is called (a) focal length
(b) radius of curative (c) diameter (d) principal focus. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
295. An eye defect that results from off-axis objects coupled with different magnification of different
zones of the lens is called (a) spherical aberration (b) astigmatism (c) far and never point (d) coma.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
296. The ability of a wave to spread around corners is called (a) polarization (b) dispersion (c)
diffraction (d) reflection. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
297. The image of an object on the retina of a human eye is (a) erect and magnified (b) inverted and
virtual (c) inverted and real (d) virtual and diminished. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
298. A diverging mirror is used as a driving mirror because it (a) produces a real image (b) has only one
focus (c) reflects more than other types of mirror (d) has a wide field of view. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS D
299. For a converging lens to be used as magnifying lens the object must be placed (a) between C and F
(b) between F and lens(c) at C(d) beyond F. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
300. Which of the following statement is not true about compound microscope? (a) The final image
formed is inverted (b) The two lenses used are concave (c) The two lenses used are convex (d) The
final image formed is virtual. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
301. A person can focus object only when they lie between 50cm and 300cm from his eye. What
spectacle should he use to increase his maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity (a) plane
mirror (b) diverging (c) converging lens (d) plane-lens. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
302. Which of the following is not the property of the image formed by a concave lens?
(a) erect image (b) virtual image (c) real image (d) diminished image. THE CORRECT OPTION
IS C
303. What part of camera corresponded to the iris of the eye (a) the film (b) the shutter (c) the
diaphragm (d) the lens. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
304. Total internal reflection will not occur when light travels from (a)water to air (b) glass to air (c)
glass to water (d) water to glass. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
305. The following devices use plane mirrors in their operations, except (a) periscope (b) sextant (c)
kaleidoscope (d) binoculars. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
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306. The amplitude of a sound wave determines its (a) frequency (b) pitch (c) loudness (d) intensity.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
307. In a pin hole camera, when the hole is large, the image formed is (a) bright and blurred (b) small
and bright (c) bright and sharp. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
308. In which of the following device is total internal reflection not applicable (a) optical fibre (b)
prism binocular (c) periscope (d) mirage. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
309. When light enters glass from air (a) its frequency decreases and its velocity decrease (b) its
wavelength decreases and its velocity decreases (c) its frequency increase and its velocity increase
(d) its wavelength increases and its velocity increases. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
310. Convex mirrors can be used as (a) dental mirrors (b) head lamp reflectors (c) reflecting telescope
(d) inside driving mirrors. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
311. In an astronomical telescope (normal adjustment) the final image is virtual and formed at infinity
because the (a) objective lens has a shorter focal length than the eye piece (b) objective lens has a
longer focal length than the eye piece (d) distance between the objective and eye piece is equal to
the sum of their focal lengths. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
312. The electric field intensity of a point 4cm away from a charge of magnitude IμC is (a)
5.62 ×10−6 N C−¿¿ (b)5.62 ×10−6 N C−¿¿ (c)5 ×105 N C−¿ ¿ (d) 5 ×10−5 N C−¿¿. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
312. The force between two point charges +2 μc∧+4 μC separated by a distance 4m is (a)
−3
4.5 × 10 N attractive (b)4.5 × 10 repulsive
−3
(c) −3
9 ×10 N , repulesive (d)
9 ×10−3 ,attractive . THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
313. The electric potential at a point, d from an electron of charge, e placed in a medium of
q2 e q2 e
permittivity ε 0 is given by (a) 2 (b) (c) (d) . THE CORRECT
4 π ε0 r 4 π ε0 r 4 π ε0 r 4 π ε0 d
OPTION IS D
314. Which of the following is not the unit of electric field? (a) V m−1 (b) N c−1 (c)kgm s−2 C −1 (d)
ev . THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
315. A dipole with charges ± 6 ×10−19 C , is placed in an electric field of magnitude 5 ×105 N C−1.
Find the net force exerted by the field on the dipole (a) 11 ×10−14 N (b)30 ×10−14 N (c)0 (d)
0.12 N . THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
316. A 2 μF ∧a 6 μF capacitors are connected in series what is their equivalent capacitance? (a)
1.2 μF (b) 1.5 μF (c) 0.67 μF (d) 12 μF . THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
317. Which of the following is not a suitable dielectric material? (a) brass (b) paraffin (c) glass (d)
Ebonite. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
318. An electric charge could be transmitted through (a) wood, rubber and stone (b) paper, clay and
plastic (c) glass acid and cloth (d) the human body, water and metals. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS D
319. A parallel plate capacitor has a common plate area5 ×10−8 m 2 and plate separation of 2 ×10−2 m.
C 2 / N m2 )
−12
Assuming free space, what is the capacitance? ( ε 0=9.0× 10 (a) 2.25 ×10−17 F
(b) 4.5 × 10−17 F (c) 2.25 ×1016 (d) 4.50 × 10−17. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
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320. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor depends on the following except (a) area of the plate
(b) the distance between the plate (c) dielectric material (d) radius of plate. THE CORRECT
OPTION IS D
321. Permittivity has the unit (a) farad/metre (b) coulomb/m (c) fared/ m 2 (d) coulomb/m 2. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS A
322. If 2 charged plates are maintained at a P.D of 3kv, find the workdone in taking a charged of
600pc across the field (a) 0.8j (b) 1.0j (c) 1.8j (d) 2.0j. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
323. The equivalent capacitance of 2 μF capacitor conncted in series with other two capacitors
1 μF∧3 μF connected in parallel is (a) 1.33 μF (b) 2.75 μF (c) 7 μF (d) 3.85 μF . THE
CORRECT OPTION IS A
324. How many current does a 5hp electric motor required when it operates at 220V? 1hp = 740 watt
(a) 220 A (b) 2.20 A (C) 16.82 A (d) 45 A. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
325. Find the power consumed by an electric heater of resistance 20 Ω for a current of 13A (a)
1.38kw (b) 2.50kw (c) 3.38kw (d) 2.38kw. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
326. The P.d applied to a 1.0 k Ω resistance so that a current of 100 μA may flow is (a) 10v (b) 1.0
(c)0.1v (d) 100v. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
327. Two 220Ω bulbs are connected in series with a 180V power source. How much power does each
bulb dissipate? (a) 15w (b) 73.96w (c) 36.98w (d) 220w. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
328. Two resistors27 Ω∧30 Ω are connected in series in a circuit. If another resistor 15 Ω is
connected in parallel with a 240V battery and the first two resistors. Find the current delivered (a)
4A (b) 5A (c) 10A (d) 20A. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
329. A platinum wire 130cm long is to have a resistance of 0.35 Ω . what is its diameter if the
resistivity of platinum is 1.1 ×10−7 Ω m (a) 1.06mm (b) 0.72mm (c) 0.35mm (d) 1.1mm. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS B
330. If a lamp filament made of tungsten wire of resistivity of 5.5 ×10−8 Ωm with5 ×10−9 m 2 is to
have a resistance of2 Ω . How long must it be? (a) 0.18m (b) 2.5m (c) 4cm (d) 6.84m. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS A
331. What is the temperature coefficient of the resistance of a copper coil if its resistance are
20 Ω at 0 0 C∧28 Ω at 1000 c (a) 0.004 k−1 (b) 0.003 k −1 (c) 0.03 k −1 (d) 0.04 k−1. THE
CORRECT OPTION IS A
332. A galvanometer which measures current from 0 to lmA, has a resistance of 40 ohm. What is the
value of shunt resistance resistor that can be connected to the galvanometer to measure current
from 0 to 1A (a) 4 Ω (b) 0.04 Ω (c) 20 hms (d) 40 ohms. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
333. What is the resistance of the multiplier required to convert a milli-ammeter which gives a full
scale deflection of 20mA, to a voltmeter capable of measuring a P.d of 10V if the resistance of
the millimeter is 5.0 ohms (a) 495 Ω (b) 500 Ω (c) 5 Ω (d) 0.02 Ω. THE CORRECT OPTION
IS A
334. What value of resistance (R) must be connected in parallel to an ammeter of 10 Ω resistance &
0.02A full scale deflection in order to measure a current as high as 10A? (a) 0.20 Ω (b)
0.002 Ω (c) 0.02 Ω (d) 2.0 Ω . THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
335. The following are the advantages of using potentiometer except (a) scale can be varied and made
long (b) Adjusting and measurements is by null method (c) No current is drawn from the circuit
under test (d) slow to use. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
ZENITH TUTORIALS WORLDWIDE ………..Making the complex
simple………

336. Potentiometer can be used for the following except (a) measuring current (b) measuring of P.d or
ε mf (c) measuring of external resistance of a cell (d) measuring of internal resistance of a cell.
THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
337. The following are the disadvantages of potentiometer except (a) relatively cumbersome (b)
temperature of the wire must remain constant (c) wire is assumed to be of uniform thickness (d)
no current is drawn from the circuit under test. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
338. To convert a galvanometer to an ammeter (a) a shunt resistance is connected in series to the
galvanometer (b) a shunt resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer (c) a multiplier is
connected to the galvanometer in series (d) a multiplier is connected to the galvanometer in
parallel. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
339. The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased by the use of (a) weaker hair spring (b) weaker
magnet (c) heavy pointer (d) less turns on the coil. THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
340. Which of the following instruments is suitable for measuring direct and alternating currents? (a)
moving coil galvanometer (b) moving coil ammeter (c) moving iron ammeter (d) moving coil
voltmeter. THE CORRECT OPTION IS C
341. Which of the following instruments has the highest resistance? (a) galvanometer (b) milliammeter
(c) ammeter (d) voltmeter. THE CORRECT OPTION IS D
342. A voltmeter of resistance 1000Ω is connected across a resistor and the combination is connected
in series with an ammeter. When a potential difference is applied, the voltmeter reads 40V and
the ammeter read 0.05A. what is the resistance of the resistor (a) 2000 Ω (b) 4000 Ω (c) 6000 Ω
(d) 1500 Ω. THE CORRECT OPTION IS B
343. Calculate the resistance of the shunt needed to convert a mill-ammeter which gives full-scale
deflection for 20mA, to an ammeter capable of measuring current of 3A. The resistance of the
ammeter is 5 Ω . (a)0.034 Ω (b) 0.02 Ω (c) 0.06 Ω (d) 0.059 Ω . THE CORRECT OPTION IS
A
344. A voltmeter of resistance 10,000 Ωis calibrated to read 2V per division. If the instrument is
required to read 20v per scale division, what series resistance must be connected to it? (a)
90,000 Ω (b) 50,000 Ω (c) 4000 Ω (d) 7000 Ω . THE CORRECT OPTION IS A
345. A galvanometer has a resistance of 250Ω and requires 2mA for a full scale deflection. How will
you convert it to a voltmeter reading 250V at full scale? (a) 124750 Ω (b) 25189Ω (c) 149045Ω
(d) 36210Ω . THE CORRECT OPTION IS A

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