BIOLOGY UNIT 1 REVISION 1

Section A: Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1
Which of the following is the first step of the scientific method?
A. Observation
B. Conclusion
C. Hypothesis
D. Experiment

Question 2
A scientist tested the effects of a drug designed to increase muscle growth. She gave half the
mice in her lab regular doses of the drug while giving the remainder none. She then measured
and recorded the amount of muscle gained by all mice. Which of the following was the
dependent variable in this experiment?
A. The drug
B. The muscle gain
C. The number of mice
D. The behavior of the mice

Question 3
A fertilizer company conducted an experiment to test a new fertilizer. They visited a tomato
farm and treated all the tomato plants with the fertilizer. The next season, the farm produced
larger than average tomatoes. Based on this, the company told its customers that the new
fertilizer would increase the size of tomatoes. Why could this statement be considered
misleading?
A. The tomatoes may have been larger due to another variable that was not controlled in
the experiment
B. Other varieties of tomato plants may not yield similar results
C. The experiment should first be repeated. The plants treated with fertilizer should be
compared with a control group of tomato plants not treated with the fertilizer
D. All of the above

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Question 4
A biology class conducted an experiment that involved boiling an unknown liquid. They were
asked to record observations. Which of the following is not an objective observation?
A. The liquid took 1 minute and 25 seconds to come to a boil
B. The liquid had a strange odour
C. Five milliliters of liquid evaporated during the boiling process
D. The liquid began to boil at 100 degrees Celsius

Question 5
The amino acids in a polypeptide chain are held together by
A. Peptide bonds
B. Hydrogen bonds
C. Ionic bonds
D. Disulfide bonds

Question 6
Which of the following is FALSE?
Carbohydrates
A. Are an important source of chemical energy for living organisms
B. Form part of the backbone of DNA and RNA
C. Form structural components of some cells
D. Form the primary structure of proteins

Question 7
The fluid mosaic model refers to
A. The process by which water moves across a semi-permeable membrane
B. Pinocytosis of fluids into a cell
C. The structure of a cell membrane
D. The net movement of solutes from areas of high concentration to low concentration

Question 8
Which of the following CANNOT diffuse through a plasma membrane (i.e. a phospholipid
bilayer)?
A. Na+
B. Water
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide

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Question 9
Below are images of three organelles.

DNA would be found in

A. all three organelles.
B. both the mitochondrion and the nucleus.
C. the nucleus only.
D. both the lysosome and the nucleus.

Question 10
Prokaryotic organisms lack which of the following?
A. Ribosomes
B. Cell membrane
C. Mitochondria
D. DNA

Question 11
What is the difference between protoplasm and cytoplasm?
A. Protoplasm includes all contents of a cell enclosed by the cell membrane, including
the cytoplasm
B. Protoplasm does not include the nucleoplasm
C. Cytoplasm includes protoplasm and nucleoplasm
D. Cytoplasm includes the cytosol but protoplasm does not

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Question 12
The best reason to use an electron microscope, rather than a light microscope, to view a
sample is that
A. an electron microscope is cheaper and more readily available than a light microscope.
B. the object can be viewed at much higher resolution than with a light microscope.
C. an electron microscopy produces coloured images whereas a light microscope does
not.
D. live cells can be used with an electron microscope, but this is not possible with a light
microscope.

Question 13

Consider the three cubes shown above. You would expect

A. cube 1 to lose heat faster than cube 2
B. cube 3 to absorb water by osmosis faster, per unit volume, than cube 2
C. cube 3 to have a larger surface area to volume ratio than cube 2
D. cube 2 to absorb heat faster than cube 1

Question 14
The function of a protein is based on its specific shape.
The term that is used to describe a change in a protein’s three-dimensional shape or
conformation due to the disruption of hydrogen bonds, disulphide bridges or ionic bonds is
A. hydrolysis
B. denaturation
C. stabilization
D. destabilization

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Question 15
The below diagram shows a container filled with distilled water into which has been placed a
dialysis tubing bag containing certain compounds. The bag’s membrane is permeable to water
but not to the dissolved compounds.

If left overnight, which of the following would most likely happen to the bag?
A. It will shrink
B. It will stay the same
C. It will get bigger
D. None of the above

Question 16
What part of the plasma membrane is responsible for preventing the free movement of ions
into and out of the cell?
A. Integral proteins
B. Phospholipid bilayer
C. Glycoproteins
D. Cholesterol

Question 17
Some medical scientists are testing a new drug. They give a new drug to one group of 100
people. They give a placebo, a sugar pill, to another group of 100 people.
The group of people receiving the placebo is the

A. Experimental group
B. Independent variable
C. Dependent variable
D. Control group

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Question 18
A scientific analysis was conducted on three samples of biological macromolecules. The
samples, labelled X, Y and Z, are known to be protein, polysaccharide or nucleic acid. The
analysis yielded the following results.

Sample % % % % % %
Carbon Hydrogen Oxygen Nitrogen Sulphur Phosphorus
X 27 49 24 0 0 0
Y 29 49 13 8 1 0
Z 35 21 26 14 0 4

From this data, it is possible to conclude that Sample

A. X could be a protein
B. Y could be a nucleic acid
C. Z could be a nucleic acid
D. Z could be a polysaccharide

Question 19
Doctors collected information on patients who had been infected with influenza during the
previous winter. The data contained details of age, sex, weight range (underweight, average,
obese), and if the patient smoked cigarettes. Which of the following hypothesis could NOT be
investigated?

A. Underweight people were most likely to be infected

B. Males were more likely to be infected than females
C. People who led healthier lives were least likely to be infected
D. Young people were least likely to be infected

Question 20
The movement of uncharged molecules from a region of low concentration across a
membrane to a region of high concentration is called
A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion

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Question 21
The diagram below shows an experiment where light was shone onto a green water plant held
under fresh water. Bulbs of various colours were used as the light source. In all other respects
the setup remained unchanged.

The bulb colour that resulted in the plant producing the most gas would be
A. orange.
B. yellow.
C. green.
D. blue.

Question 22
The primary function of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is to

A. produce energy-rich glucose from carbon dioxide and water.

B. produce energy-rich ATP and NADPH.
C. produce NADPH used in respiration.
D. use ATP to make glucose.

Question 23
Which of the following are products of the Calvin cycle and are used in the light-dependent
reactions of photosynthesis?
A. CO2 and glucose.
B. H2O and O2.
C. ADP, Pi, and NADP+
D. Electrons and H+.

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Question 24
Which stage of cellular respiration occurs in the cytoplasm of a cell?

A. Glycolysis.
B. Krebs cycle.
C. Calvin cycle.
D. Oxidative phosphorylation.

Question 25
Which of the following definitions is NOT true of enzymes? Enzymes:

A. are substrate specific.

B. allow biological reactions to occur at faster rates.
C. can perform well across a wide range of temperatures.
D. are polypeptide molecules that increase the rate of reactions.

Question 26
Which one of the following reaction types requires a net input of energy from its surroundings?

A. Exergonic.
B. Catabolic.
C. Endergonic.
D. Metabolic.

Question 27
What does the chemiosmosis process in chloroplasts involve?

A. Establishment of a proton gradient.

B. Diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid membrane.
C. Reduction of water to produce ATP energy.
D. Movement of water by osmosis into the thylakoid space from the stroma.

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Question 28
Which stage of aerobic respiration yields the most ATP?

A. Glycolysis.
B. Krebs cycle.
C. Oxidative phosphorylation.
D. Calvin cycle.

Question 29
In anaerobic respiration, the substance that is required to convert lactate into a substance
that the body can remove is

A. pyruvate.
B. carbon dioxide.
C. oxygen.
D. glucose.

Question 30
Which one of the following best describes the function of enzymes?

A. The action of enzymes is generally not substrate-specific.

B. Enzymes increase both the rate of a reaction and the amount of product produced.
C. Enzymes are used up during a reaction.
D. Each enzyme catalyses only one type of reaction.

Question 31
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and
respiration?

A. Respiration is anabolic and photosynthesis is catabolic.

B. Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules, while respiration releases
it.
C. Photosynthesis occurs only in plants and respiration occurs only in animals.
D. ATP molecules are produced in photosynthesis and used up in respiration.

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Question 32
The products of the first and second stages, respectively, of anaerobic respiration in human
muscle tissue are

A. glucose and pyruvate.

B. pyruvate and lactate.
C. lactate and ethanol.
D. ethanol and glucose.

Question 33
What are the names of the first, second and third stages of aerobic respiration, in correct
order?

A. Glycolysis, Calvin cycle, Electron transport.

B. Krebs cycle, Calvin cycle, Glycolysis.
C. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, Calvin cycle.
D. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, Electron transport.

Question 34
Four students were asked to identify differences between aerobic respiration and
photosynthesis. Their comparisons are listed in the table below. Which student, (a), (b), (c) or
(d), made the correct comparison?

Aerobic respiration Photosynthesis

A. Exergonic Endergonic
B. Uses water as a reactant in the final Forms water as a product in the first stage
stage
C. First stage is glycolysis First stage is Calvin cycle
D. Occurs in the Golgi apparatus Occurs in the mitochondria

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Question 35

The graph below shows the relationship between light intensity and net oxygen uptake or
output by a spinach plant.

At light intensity of 20 units

A. the rate of aerobic respiration is zero.

B. the rate of photosynthesis is zero.
C. oxygen produced by photosynthesis is greater that the oxygen used by aerobic
respiration.
D. oxygen produced by photosynthesis is equal to the oxygen used by aerobic respiration.

Question 36

Which of the following pairs of compounds are among the by-products of cellular respiration?

A. Glucose and water.

B. Oxygen and glucose.
C. Carbon dioxide and water.
D. Water and oxygen.

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Question 37
The compound acted upon by an enzyme is called the

A. substrate.
B. active site.
C. product.
D. reagent.

Question 38

Refer to the below diagram, which represents photosynthesis in a chloroplast.

What do W and X represent in the above diagram?

A. Oxygen and sugar.

B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide.
C. Water and sugar.
D. Water and carbon dioxide.

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Question 39 and 40 refer to the following information and figure.

An experiment was set up to determine the optimum temperature range of the enzyme
catalase. A solution of catalase and its substrate hydrogen peroxide was placed in eight
different test tubes. The test tubes were then placed in water baths of varying temperatures.
The enzyme activity was recorded and the results were graphed as per below.

Question 39

Catalase activity decreases above 40°C because

A. the active site is occupied.

B. the active site has been inhibited.
C. the active site’s shape has changed.
D. the optimum temperature for catalase is 20°C.

Question 40

From the information in the above figure, we can conclude that

A. catalase works best at pH of 7.

B. catalase would work more efficiently at 10°C than at 30°C.
C. a greater amount of hydrogen peroxide would be broken down at 50°C than at 10°C.
D. there would be less catalase present at 20°C than at 10°C.

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Question 41
Hormones influence only target cells. Which of the following best explains how this occurs?
A. Hormones are produced by glands in close proximity to the target cells.
B. Only target cells have matching receptors for the specific hormone.
C. Peptide based hormones have no effect on cells with no receptors on the surface of
the cell membrane.
D. Hormones have specific active sites that only attach to matching cells.

Question 42
The image below is of a motor neuron. Which of the following is the correct name of the part
of the neuron labelled with an A?

A. Cell body
B. Axon
C. Dendrite
D. Myelin sheath

Question 43
A hiker is bitten by a venomous snake and is taken to a hospital. The doctors inject the hiker
with antivenom. What type of immunity does this confer to the hiker?
A. Passive natural immunity
B. Passive artificial immunity
C. Active natural immunity
D. Active artificial immunity

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Question 44
The part of the brain that controls functions such as breathing and heart rate is the
A. Cerebellum
B. Frontal lobe
C. Hypothalamus
D. Medulla oblongata

Question 45
A child stands on a sharp object and withdraws his foot in a reflex action. Below is a model
of the event.

Which of the following best describes the diagram above?

A. It is an example of positive feedback
B. The arrow labeled ‘X’ refers to a nerve impulse
C. The arrow labeled ‘X’ refers to a hormonal response
D. The label ‘central nervous system’ may be replaced with a ‘peripheral nervous system’
label

Question 46
Homeostasis acts to maintain a stable internal environment, usually through feedback
system. Which of the following is true with regards to negative feedback?
A. If an animal becomes hot, negative feedback will cause the animal to become hotter
B. Negative feedback usually continues interrupted by an external factor
C. Negative feedback mechanisms act to restore the original state
D. Negative feedback mechanisms do not occur very often in biological systems

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Question 47
The endocrine system works in conjunction with the nervous system to achieve
homeostasis. The table below several comparisons between the actions of the nervous and
endocrine systems.
The incorrect comparison is
Nervous system Endocrine system
A.. Information travels via nerve cells Information travels via the
bloodstream
B. Faster acting than the endocrine Slower acting than the nervous
system system
C. Does not use chemical messengers Uses chemical messengers
D. Effects are usually short in duration Effects are usually longer in duration

Question 48
Humans have many physiological mechanisms that regulate their internal body temperature.
Which of the following is not a physiological mechanism to regulate temperature?
A. Evaporation of sweat from the skin surface to cool down
B. Selective dilation of blood vessels to cool down
C. Shivering to warm up
D. Curling up in a ball to warm up

Question 49
Non-specific immunity
A. Has a ‘memory’ of prior infection
B. Is also called natural or innate immunity
C. Reacts differently depending on the infection
D. Provides a much greater response on a second infection by the same organism

Question 50
Long-term immunity results from
A. Administration of a measles vaccine
B. The passage of antibodies from a mother to her developing foetus
C. The injection of immunoglobulin if exposed to the chicken pox
D. The inflammatory response to a wasp sting

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Question 51
The immune system’s second line of defence acts when the first line of defence has failed,
such as when bacteria enter the body. An example of this is when a farmer cuts his hand on
a fence and Clostridium tetani bacteria enter his body.
In the case of the farmer, which one of the following would you expect to occur as part of his
body’s second line of defence?
A. Glands in the skin secrete fatty acids and sweat to inhibit the Clostridium tetani bacteria
B. Phagocytes move to the cut area on the farmer’s hand to engulf and destroy the
bacteria
C. Interferons move to the cut area on the farmer’s hand to engulf and destroy the bacteria
D. B Lymphocytes recognize the markers on the Clostridium tetani bacteria as non-self
and react

Question 52
In mammals, the two main types of phagocytic cells are
A. Erythrocytes and macrophages
B. Platelets and erythrocytes
C. Macrophages and neutrophils
D. Interferons and natural killer cells

Question 53
Immunity can be acquired in many different ways. If a patient makes antibodies after
immunisation with killed or treated organisms, the resulting immunity is termed
A. Natural active immunity
B. Induced active immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Induced passive immunity

Question 54
There are many disorders of the human immune system. A patient was displaying signs of
an immune system disorder and her test results showed that her helper T cells had been
destroyed. She is most likely to be suffering from
A. An allergic reaction
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. AIDS

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Question 55
How do vaccines prevent disease?
A. Vaccines stop antigens triggering the specific immune response
B. Vaccines stimulate the production of specific antibodies
C. Vaccines inhibit the body’s inflammatory response
D. Vaccines prevent the breach of the body’s first line of defence

Question 56
Human body temperature is regulated by sensors located in the
A. Brain stem
B. Spinal cord
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Hypothalamus

Question 57
Active immunity occurs
A. When a foetus receives antibodies across the placenta from its mother
B. Through injection of immunoglobulins
C. When a person is given anti-venom after a snake bite
D. After a person has had a sub-clinical infection

Question 58
The condition in which the body’s immune cells attack its own tissues and break down the
myelin sheath around the nerve cells is most likely a result of
A. An auto-immune disease
B. A sexually transmitted disease
C. A bacterial infection
D. A viral infection

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Refer to the below figure, which represents a neuron, to answer Questions 59 and 60.

Question 59
What is the name given to structure W?
A. Axon
B. Dendrite
C. Myelin sheath
D. Cell body

Question 60
At which of the following points would you expect information to enter the neuron?
A. U
B. V
C. Y
D. Z

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Section B: Short Answers Questions

Question 1

(a) Describe four differences between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells.

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(2 marks)

(b) Name two organelles commonly found in both plant and animal cells and describe
their functions.

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(2 marks)

(c) State two roles or functions of membrane proteins.

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(2 marks)

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 (d) The diagram below shows the concentration of potassium (K+) over time after an
aliquot was added to an E. coli bacterial culture. The ideal internal K+ concentration of
E. coli is approximately 8 mg ml-1.

i. Describe what is happening to the potassium concentration over time.

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(1 mark)

ii. Explain the process the E. coli bacteria may use when attempting to prevent their
potassium concentration rising above 8 mg ml-1.

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(2 marks)

iii. What is the process by which water moves in and out of cells?

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(1 mark)

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Question 2

(a) What does it mean to describe a phospholipid as hydrophobic?

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(1 mark)

Scientists isolated single cells from a human and a mouse, and labelled proteins in each cell
membrane with different markers. They then fused the two cells. After one hour, it was found
that both mouse and human proteins were spread evenly across the membrane of the hybrid
cell.
(b) i. What conclusion can you make from this experiment regarding the mobility of the
marked membrane proteins?

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(1 mark)

ii. Describe the structure of the cell membrane and how its components are held
together. Include the names of any models that may assist your explanation.

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(3 marks)

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 iii. A protein within the membrane has a hydrophilic channel passing from one side of
the membrane to the other. Identify what cellular process this protein would assist in,
and the class of molecule it interacts with.

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(2 marks)

(c) Oxygen (O2) is able to cross a cell membrane without the involvement of membrane
proteins. What are two properties of O2 that allow this to occur?

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(1 mark)

(d) As a cell grows, its plasma membrane expands. Would this involve endocytosis or
exocytosis? Explain.

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(2 marks)

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Question 3

A student carried out an investigation into osmosis using red blood cells.

Red blood cells were placed in sodium chloride (salt) solutions at five different concentrations.
For each concentration, small drop of blood was added to 10 cm3 of each sodium chloride
solution. Samples were taken from each mixture and observed under the microscope. The
number of red blood cells remaining in each sample was calculated as a percentage.
The observations recorded are shown in Table 1.

Table 1

Concentration of salt Percentage of red blood Observation of red

solution (%) cells remaining (%) blood cells
0.0 0.0 swell and burst,
numbers decrease
0.4 2.5 increase in size
0.7 60.0 increase in size
0.9 100 remain the same size
1.5 100 decrease in size
3.0 100 smaller and shrivelled

(a) State the independent variable and dependent variable in this experiment.

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(2 marks)

(b) State one possible hypothesis that is NOT accepted in this experiment.

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(2 marks)

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 (c) Explain the changes in appearance of red blood cells as recorded in Table 1, in terms
of osmosis.

0% NaCl

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0.9% NaCl

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3.0% NaCl

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(6 marks)

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Question 4
Pepsin is an enzyme that converts polypeptides into amino acids. An experiment was
conducted where a protein solution was exposed to human pepsin at four different pH levels
for 30 minutes. Each solution was then tested for the presence of peptide bonds. The figure
below shows the results in arbitrary units, along with the level of peptide bonds detected in the
original protein solution.

(a) Is the reaction being observed in this experiment catabolic or anabolic?

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(1 mark)

(b) Suggest two ways in which this experiment could be improved to create a more
reliable result.

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(2 marks)

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 (c) What conclusions can you draw about the activity of pepsin across different pH levels?

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(2 marks)

(d) Draw a labeled diagram and use the diagram to describe the induced-fit hypothesis of
enzyme action.

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(3 marks)

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 (e) Some desert and tropical plants have reflective surfaces to prevent overheating.
Explain the effect of excess heat on enzymes at a chemical level, and the way heat
affects enzymes’ ability to interact with a substrate.

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(2 marks)

Question 5
(a) During a sporting event, an athlete carries out respiration in aerobic conditions.

(i) Complete the table below to state the precise locations within a muscle cell of
glycolysis, the link reaction, the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.

Process Precise location

glycolysis

link reaction

Krebs cycle

oxidative phosphorylation

(2 marks)

(ii) In a muscle cell, molecules of glucose are phosphorylated at the start of

glycolysis.
Suggest why the phosphorylated glucose molecules cannot diffuse out of the cell.
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(2 marks)

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(b) Sometimes an athlete will need to carry out respiration in anaerobic conditions to
produce ATP.

Explain why the respiration of glucose in anaerobic conditions produces less ATP than
in aerobic conditions.
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(2 marks)

(c) For a short time after exercise, a person continues to breathe more heavily than at rest
to take in more oxygen than normal. Explain the use of this extra oxygen.
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(2 marks)

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Question 6
(a) An investigation was carried out to measure the rate of photosynthesis at different
concentrations of carbon dioxide. Two different plants, barley and sugar cane, were
tested at two different temperatures, 10 °C and 25 °C.

The results are shown in Fig. 1.

Figure 1
(i) Suggest why, in all four experiments, the rate of photosynthesis became constant
as the carbon dioxide concentration increased.
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(2 marks)

(ii) With reference to Fig. 1, describe the difference in the rate of photosynthesis, at
10 °C, between barley and sugar cane.

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(2 marks)

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 (b) Carbon dioxide for photosynthesis enters the leaves through open stomata. Stomata
do not stay open all the time.

Changes in environmental conditions can cause stomata to close. Describe these

conditions and explain how stomatal closure benefits the plant.
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(2 marks)

Question 7
The infectious disease cholera is caused by a bacterium.
(a) Fig. 2 shows a transmission electron micrograph of this bacterium.

×30 000
Fig. 2

(i) Name an example of a disease that is cause by bacteria.

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(1 mark)

(ii) The bacterium in Fig. 2 is an example of a prokaryotic cell.

Each of the descriptions A to C describes a cell structure found in prokaryotic cells and in
plant cells.

For each of the descriptions A to C:

• name the cell structure described

• state one difference in this structure between a prokaryotic cell and a plant cell

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A: the site of polypeptide synthesis

cell structure

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difference

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B: the genetic material of the cell

cell structure

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difference

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C: the structure that provides a rigid shape to the cell and prevents osmotic lysis

cell structure

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difference

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(6 marks)

(b) Cholera is an example of an infectious disease. Explain what is meant by an infectious

disease.
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(2 marks)

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The symptoms of cholera are caused by choleragen, a toxin released by the bacterium.
Choleragen is a protein made up of six polypeptides:
a. a single copy of a polypeptide known as the A subunit that includes an extended
alpha helix
b. five polypeptides that together make the B subunit.

The B subunit of choleragen binds to a cell surface membrane component, known as GM1,
of an intestinal epithelial cell. The complete choleragen protein then enters the cell by
endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the A subunit of the protein acts as an enzyme, disrupting
the normal functioning of the cell.

(c) List the levels of protein structure present in choleragen.

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(2 marks)

(d) Outline the mechanism by which choleragen enters the cell.

You may use the space for annotated diagrams.

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(3 marks)

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 (e) Using genetic engineering, it is possible to produce a form of choleragen consisting of
only subunit B. This can be combined with inactivated bacterial cells to produce a
vaccine against cholera.

(i) Suggest why subunit B, rather than subunit A, is used in the vaccine.

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(1 mark)

(ii) Outline how this vaccine can give protection against cholera.

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(2 marks)

Question 8
An experiment is conducted on breathing rate. A number of students are asked to breathe
normally into a sealed paper bag for a set period of time (Condition A). Their breathing rate
is monitored and recorded. Then, after a resting period, they are asked to breathe normally
under normal room conditions for the same amount of time (Condition B). Below is a
graphical representation of the average breaths per minute per student plotted against time,
under both conditions.

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 (a) As a student breathed into the bag, the oxygen concentration in the bag would likely
____________________ while the carbon dioxide concentration in the bag would likely
_____________________.
(1 mark)

(b) Explain why the average rate of breathing increases and then subsequently decreases
in Condition A.
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(2 marks)

(c) A few of the students in the study took significantly longer to return to a normal
breathing rate. Suggest one possible reason for this.

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(1 mark)

(d) Hyperventilation is the practice of breathing deeply and rapidly to remove CO 2 from
the lungs. This results in a significant lowering of the amount of CO2 in the blood. It is
extremely dangerous and can cause a person to become unconscious.

(i) Explain why free-divers, who do not use external breathing apparatus but rather
rely on their ability to hold their breath until resurfacing, might hyperventilate
before a dive.
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(1 mark)

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 (ii) Explain why hyperventilating can lead to unconsciousness.

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(1 mark)

(e) Consider the below diagram.

(i) Name substances X and Y:

X: ___________________________________________________________________
Y: ___________________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(ii) Name the stimuli for the release of substances X and Y, respectively:

Stimulus for the release of substance X:

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(1 mark)

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 Stimulus for the release of substance Y:

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(1 mark)

(iii) Describe what happens in Process A (in the liver).

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(2 marks)

Question 9

(a) A student contracts a respiratory illness and successfully treats it with an antibiotic.
What sort of pathogen is likely to be killed by an antibiotic?

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(1 mark)

(b) The student mentioned in question 9 (a) contracts another pathogen, which is
immediately detected and destroyed by his immune system. What cell type would have
been responsible for recognizing and destroying the pathogen?

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(1 mark)

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Cells were taken from organism P and from organism Q, and examined for antigens in the
cell membrane.
The figure below is a diagram of the antigens found on each organism.

(c) Some cells from organism Q were injected into organism P. Using the features of the
diagram, explain how organism P could initiate a safe and effective immune response
against cells from organism Q. Include in your answer an unsafe strategy for defending
P against Q.

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(2 marks)

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 (d) In Australia, it is recommended that children first receive the chicken pox vaccine at 18
months of age and receive it again at 20 months of age.

The following table gives information with regard to chicken pox about an Australian family.
Family Age Immunological history Chicken pox
member immunisation
history
Father 32 years old No information available Not vaccinated
Mother 34 years old Had chicken pox aged Not vaccinated
23
First child 5 years old Has not had chicken Vaccinated at 18
pox months and 20
months
Second 16 months old Has not had chicken Not vaccinated
child (fully breast fed pox
until 6 months)
Third child 3 weeks old (fully Has not had chicken Not vaccinated
breast fed) pox

The family shown above were all exposed to the chicken pox virus and two weeks after the
exposure, the second child, aged 16 months, contracted the virus. None of the other family
members showed any symptoms of the disease, even after several months.
(i) Explain why the third child, aged three weeks, did not contract the virus, despite
never having been exposed to the virus and not being vaccinated. Name this type
of immunity in your answer.

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(2 marks)

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 (ii) The family was again exposed to the chicken pox virus exactly one year after the
first exposure. The third child contracted the virus. What would be the B cell and
T cell responses of this child?

B cells response:

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T cells response:

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(4 marks)

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Question 10
The myelin sheath along structure Q can be damaged by disease.

(a) Describe how such damage would affect the nerve and the person involved.
_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

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(1 mark)

(b) In the brain, acetylcholine stimulates other neurons, such as dopamine neurons, to
release their neurotransmitters. These neurotransmitters make people feel pleasant
and excited. Once the message has been transmitted, the acetylcholine unbinds from
the receptor. Surrounding cells then release the enzyme acetylcholinesterase into the
synaptic cleft which breaks acetylcholine down.

(i) What part of the electrical impulse pathway is represented by structure A?

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(1 mark)

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The chemical nicotine mimics acetylcholine. It binds to the receptors that are designed for
acetylcholine. Nicotine, however, stays in the synaptic cleft much longer than acetylcholine,
because it is not broken down by acetylcholinesterase.

(ii) In the above diagram, structure B is a dopamine neuron. If nicotine stays in the
synaptic cleft for a long period of time, suggest what would happen to this neuron.

_________________________________________________________________________

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(1 mark)

(iii) Using this information, explain how people become addicted to nicotine.

_________________________________________________________________________

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(1 mark)

(c) The diagram shows an axon terminal and neurotransmitter molecules crossing a
chemical synapse. Explain the steps in synaptic transmission.

Page 42 of 43
_________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________

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(3 marks)

(d) A scientist wanted to investigate whether mice that had a genetic mutation that caused
them to have acetylcholine receptors that would not allow nicotine to bind to them,
could still become addicted to nicotine.

Design an experiment to test the scientist’s prediction. In your answer, you should:
• State the hypothesis that you are testing
• Outline the experimental procedure that you follow
• Describe results that would support your hypothesis

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(4 marks)

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