La Salle University – Ozamiz

College of Teacher Education

Review Materials for English

1. In miscue analysis, which category of graphic similarity does the teacher illustrate in this situation?

Text:
The project encouraged the use of imagination.

Child read aloud:

The project encouraged the use of inauguration.

Miscue record: inauguration

A. High graphic similarity C. Low graphic similarity

B. Some graphic similarity D. No graphic similarity

2. Which type of retelling does the situation exemplify?

Teacher: “You told me that Isabele couldn’t find a seat when she got on the school bus,
why not?”
Victor: “I think the other kids, you know the animals, didn’t want her to sit with them
because she was small and plus the bus driver was mean so she didn’t want to sit
near him.”
A. Unaided retelling C. Half-aided retelling
B. Aided retelling D. Fully-aided retelling
3. While reading orally, John’s word error range is from 2 to 5 word calling errors per 100 words of text
(95% accuracy or better), with at least 80 percent comprehension on simple recall questions about the
story. In what level does his reading ability belong?
A. Independent Reading Level C. Frustration Reading Level
B. Successful Reading Level D. Instructional Reading Level
4. Don, a Grade 4 pupil reads saw for was, says a bis a d, skips, omits, or adds words when he reads out
loud, rites 41 for 14, shows no difference between 1 2 3 and 123, act and cat, and , and between
OIL and 710. What learning difficulty does he suffer from?
A. Dyscalcula C. Dysgraphia
B. Dyslexia D. Reading miscues
5. What should teachers avoid in order to help pupils with learning difficulties remediate their challenges?
A. For a child with difficulty in speaking, allow extra time for the child respond instead of hurrying
him to give an answer, teach vocabulary words clearly, practice sentence building and sequencing,
introduce ‘talking partners’ and use speaking frames.
B. For a child who has difficulty in planning, organizing ideas and formulating language, provide
sequencing, idea/concept mapping activities, use reading sessions to explore meaning, cause and
effect, and teach and guide pupils how to use colored pens to highlight different sorts of information
for note-taking revision etc.
C. For the child who has difficulty with interaction, use auditory aids, repeat an instruction if
requested, phrase questions carefully, and use open-ended questions requiring an elaboration (‘what
do you like to drink?’), than closed questions indicating a preference (‘Do you want orange or
milk?’)
D. For a child who has reading difficulty, use imitative, repeated and impress methods which are
characterized by the use of more than one physical sense.
6. Fe, a grade 5 pupil has difficulty completing school work, using writing in everyday situation, producing
letters on paper, and may not understand the relationship between letters, words, and sounds, shows
weaknesses in understanding letter/sound connections, and in fine motor skills. What learning difficulty
does she suffer from?
A. Dyscalcula C. Dysgraphia
B. Dyslexia D. Digraph
7. Self-monitoring and paying attention belong to which category of learning strategies identified by
Oxford in 1989?
A. Metacognitive C. Compensation
B. Affective D. Social
8. Which of the following statements does not describe correctly the given illustrate of miscue analysis?
Text:
The parachute did not seem to be working.
Child read aloud:
The film did not seem to be working.
Miscue record:
N
film
The parachute did not seem to be working.
A. There is no graphic similarity. C. it is semantically correct.
B. It is syntactically incorrect. D. it is syntactically correct.
9. Which of the following characterizes a “strategic reader”?
A. Refers to the dictionary when an unfamiliar word is encountered in the text
B. Chooses reading materials that are easier to read
C. Previews a selection and rereads difficult passages
D. Refrain from taking notes while reading
10. Which of the following statements accurately describes the Bottom-Up Model of Reading?
A. Suggests that the reader construct meaning from all available sources.
B. The primary focus of instruction should be the reading of whole selections.
C. Reading is driven by the text, not the reader.
D. The emphasis is on comprehension, not decoding.
11. Don, a grade three pupil finds it difficult to relate his thoughts and feelings through speaking and
writing. He may find it hard to recall the right word and may try to communicate using gestures and
sound effects. When he does speak it will often be in short phrase or sentences which may show
incorrect grammar or tense. After undergoing diagnosis, Don is found to suffer from _________.
A. expressive disorder C. auditory processing disorder
B. receptive disorder D. phonological difficulty
12. Which of these words is an example of slang?
A. Spyware C. Ammo
B. Goalie D. Scrub suit
13. Which among the list of activities below should be least prioritized or used in an ESP class?
A. Simulation C. Case Studies
B. Feasibility studies D. Research
14. Which item is an example of an ESP needs analysis?
A. Psychoanalysis C. Advocacy Analysis
B. Material-based Analysis D. Target Situation Analysis
15. The following statements characterize ESP in the context of English language teaching, EXCEPT ____.
A. It is designed to meet specified needs of the learner
B. It is related in content to particular disciplines, occupations and activities
C. It is centered on the language appropriate tot those activities in syntax, lexis, discourse, semantics,
etc., and analysis of this discourse
D. It is in contrast with General English
16. Which is jargon of academe?
A. Pedagogy C. Deficit
B. Leverage D. Bureaucracy
17. Which is an example of a course for English for Occupational Purposes (EOP)?
A. English for Counseling
B. English for Classroom Application
C. English for Technicians
D. English for Social Advocacy
18. Slang expression are any of the following EXCEPT ___________.
A. Expressions that are not considered standard in the speaker’s language or dialect
B. Considered acceptable in certain social settings
C. Widely used in informal and formal speech and writing
D. Very short and momentary expression
19. Which of the following written outputs does NOT qualify as a product of English for Academic
Purposes (EAP)?
A. Annual Reports C. Laboratory reports
B. Financial reports D. Thesis abstract
20. Which of the following K to 12 features of English language teaching in secondary level is NOT true?
A. Focus on common areas of difficulty in grammar
B. Sequential teaching of language forms
C. Common errors included in standards and international English proficiency tests
D. Use of literary and informative texts
21. Which approach to language teaching anchors on the behaviorist assumption that language learning is
the acquisition of a set of correct language habits and whose goal is to use the target language
communicatively, overlearn it, so as to be able to use it automatically?
A. Grammar-Translation Method C. Suggestopedia
B. Direct Method D. Audio-Lingual method
22. The curriculum goes through the stages of curriculum planning, curriculum implementation and
curriculum evaluation; the production of instructional materials falls under _________.
A. curriculum planning and implementation
B. curriculum planning and evaluation
C. curriculum planning
D. curriculum evaluation
23. An important step in ensuring the relevance of the instructional materials to the rest of the curriculum is
to keep a list of ___________________.
A. policies issued by DepEd
B. visions and missions of the school
C. goals and objectives of the curriculum
 D. curriculum standards
24. Which type of syllabus is given examples by the following activities: writing notes and memos, reports,
agendas, letters to companies, and reply letters?
A. Situational syllabus C. Task-based syllabus
B. Grammatical syllabus D. Topical syllabus
25. Which is NOT a goal of K to 12 language teaching in the secondary level?
A. To link life, literature, and language and to integrate themes, text and tasks
B. To gain mastery of language forms and rules od usage
C. To hone independent study strategies through prescribed tasks
D. To use differentiated instruction to accommodate varied learners’ strategies
26. The primary aim of second language teaching using the audiolingual method is ________________.
A. reading comprehension C. literary appreciation
B. vocabulary development D. oral proficiency
27. Which of the following concepts is/are correctly defined?
I. A curriculum includes the philosophy, purposes, design and implementation of a whole program.
II. A course is an integrated series of teaching learning experiences, whose ultimate aim is to lead
the learners to a particular state of knowledge.
III. A syllabus is the specification and ordering of content of a course or courses.
A. I only C. I, II
B. II only D. I, II, III
28. A teaching practice which is compatible with Communicative Approach is one that __________.
A. derives and make explicit the grammatical rules of the language
B. addresses the needs of the target learners
C. follows the listen-speak-read-write sequence of skills
D. gives priority to oral proficiency
29. The K to 12 language teaching in secondary school can be described as follows EXCEPT it ________.
A. is literature-based and genre-focused
B. uses literary and informative texts
C. uses culminating performance tasks
D. focuses in common areas of difficulty in grammar
30. Newspaper articles, advertisement, radio announcement, etc. in the real world when used in the
classroom situations are classified as ________.
A. authentic materials C. audio-visual aids
B. mass communication materials D. recycled materials
31. A plan of what to be achieved through the teaching and learning process which contains the course
description, objectives, the prerequisites, the requirement, and the topics to be taught is the ______.
A. course outline C. course syllabus
B. curriculum guide D. lesson plan
32. Which of the following DOES NOT characterize the direct method of language teaching?
A. It allows errors and these errors are addressed by self-correction.
B. The teacher illustrates and demonstrates meaning.
C. The target language is used as an auxiliary/support language.
D. The language is viewed as spoken than written.
33. The content of the language teaching in this type of syllabus is a collection of a specific abilities that
may a play a part in using language. Which is referred to?
A. Skill-based syllabus C. Content-based syllabus
B. Task-based syllabus D. Notional-functional syllabus
34. The Teacher uses a contemporary and highly relevant song in presenting a lesson on conditional clauses.
She provides activity sheet in which students indicated their regretful experiences and possible outcome
had they not done a certain regretful act. Then, the students were assigned in pair to share with partner
what have they written. The use of the song, the work sheet, the pair group, the teacher and the students’
talk are provision of which hypothesis in Krashen’s Monitor Model?
A. Affective Filter C. Comprehensible Input
B. Monitor Output D. Natural Order
35. Which conversational maxim is violated in this utterance? In the classroom, the students are noisy; the
teacher spoke loud, “Class, I really appreciate your behaving quietly today. You see we can smoothly
discuss our lesson.”
A. Quality C. Relation
B. Quantity D. Manner
36. The aspect of communicative competence that deals with the appropriate use of communication and
coping strategies is known as ___________ competence.
A. discourse C. grammatical
B. sociolinguistic D. strategic
37. Which generalization in the area of phonology can be drawn from the following linguistic data: table,
attack, can, paper, space, accordion?
A. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it begins a syllable of a stressed vowel.
B. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it follows a stressed vowels.
C. A voiceless is aspirated if it is in between a consonant and a tense vowel.
D. A voiceless is aspirates if it is in between a stressed vowel and a voiced consonant.
38. Which of the following has a glottal segment?
A. Hot C. Mat
B. Sad D. Dam
39. The study of illocutionary act is an area of ________________.
A. pragmatics C. morphology
B. semantics D. syntax
40. Mary thinks that she is the only girl who can sing the song. Obviously, “she” refers to Mary. What
concept in referential semantics explain the italicized word?
A. Deixis C. Coreference
B. Anaphora D. Prototype
41. What truth relation exemplified in this pair of sentences: “Sentence A: The fishermen caught a fish.”
“Sentence b: the fishermen caught a milkfish.”?
A. Sentence A presupposes Sentence B.
B. Sentence B presupposes Sentence A.
C. Sentence A entails Sentence B.
D. Sentence B entails Sentence A.
42. What is the classification of the morpheme in each of the following linguistic data: invert, covert,
revert, subvert, divert?
A. Grammatical bound morpheme
B. Lexical free morpheme
C. Grammatical free morpheme
D. Lexical bound morpheme
43. Why does the word “take” when pronounced is different from the words “fake”, “vase” and “thank”?
A. All the three expressions have initial fricative segment.
B. All the three expressions have initial affricative segment.
C. All the three expressions have final voiced consonant.
D. All the three expressions have final voiceless stops.
44. The vowels in the words “pet”, “but”, “say”, and “sew” are _______________.
A. [ +high ] C. [ -high ] and [ -low]
B. [ +low ] D. [ +tense ]
45. Let’s surveil the place. The morpheme surveil is an example of _____________.
A. root creation C. back formation
B. derivation D. Clipping
46. What is the morphological error in the following sentence: “The boy’s in the camp exercises are held in
the morning.”?
A. Two derivational morphemes are used in the noun [boy].
B. The derivational morphemes is used before the inflectional morpheme.
C. Two inflectional morphemes are used in the head noun of the noun phrase.
D. The inflectional morpheme is used before the derivational morpheme.
47. Which of the following is CORRECT?
A. A noun phrase must always have an adjective and a prepositional phrase.
B. A determiner and a noun are obligatory components of a noun phrase.
C. A noun phrase must constitute a determiner, a qualifier or a verb phrase before a head noun.
D. A noun in the noun phrase may have an adjective before it, or a determiner, or may be followed by a
prepositional phrase.
48. In the phrase structure rules, a prepositional phrase consists of a preposition, followed by a ________.
A. noun C. noun phrase
B. objective pronoun D. clause
49. Which is a sense property in which two words have the same sense, or same values for all their semantic
features? Example: “teacher” and “instructor”
A. Hyponymy C. Anaphora
B. Deixis D. Synonymy
50. American: Are you a Filipino?
Filipino: Yes, I am.
American: So you must be a nurse.
What concept explains the conversation above?
A. Referent C. Prototype
B. Extension D. Stereotype
51. After supper, the wife asked the husband, “Should I get you some ice cream?” The husband responded,
“Am I diabetic?” What conversational maxim is violated?
A. Manner C. Quality
B. Relation D. Quantity
52. What can be said about a police expression such as, “Can you give me a glass of water?”
A. It is an indirect illocutionary act.
B. It is a direct illocutionary act.
C. It is an implied locutionary act.
D. It is a non-literal locutionary act.
53. In second language acquisition, what is the route to pidginization and fossilization of errors?
A. Nativization and assimilation
B. Nativization and accommodation
C. Denativization and assimilation
D. Denativization and accommodation
54. Teacher Betty justifies the inclusion of grammar in her lessons. According to her, it should be an
integral part of curriculum. What theory if second language acquisition explains Teacher Betty’s
justification?
A. Nativization Model
B. Accommodation Theory
C. Communicative Language Teaching
D. Monitor Model
55. Teacher Judy examines the reading selection that she will discuss in he r class. She reads the selection to
check whether the language and vocabulary might be too difficult for the students to understand? What
theory explains this?
A. i+ hypothesis C. Readability test
B. Scaffolding hypothesis D. Emergent literacy
56. A Filipino Family migrated to the US. After 5 years, the child’s accent is typically Filipino. He did not
learn the accent of the Americans. When his mother was asked why his son did not acquire the accent
facility to communicate in English, the mother responded, “He didn’t want to mingle with other children
in the US. He was always at home.” What explains this phenomenon?
A. Accommodation theory C. Discourse theory
B. Monitor Model D. Nativization Model
57. Which of the following classes promotes the desired learning environment discussed in the learning-
acquisition hypothesis of monitor Model?
A. Teacher Judith teaches substitution drills after a discussion on grammatical structure.
B. Teacher Michael conducts a speech choir, emphasizing correct intonation and pronunciation.
C. Teacher ben shows a news clip from CNN and ask students questions.
D. Teacher Lovely tells the class to write a letter following the correct format and structure.
58. The goals of this language teaching approach are learn grammar, vocabulary and culture. Teacher is the
authority. He/She makes use of translation, deductive study of grammar, memorization of vocabulary.
Which approach of language teaching is described?
A. Grammar-translation approach C. Community language learning approach
B. Natural approach D. Direct approach
59. Which of the following does NOT justify the use of communicative language teaching?
 A. Within a social context, people need to perform certain task and functions.
B. Students perform well in class, but they are unable to perform communicative task outside the
classroom.
C. Within the social context, people need to develop their cognitive abilities through authentic texts and
content in language.
D. Students need to develop communicative competence as they enhance their linguistic competence.
60. Teacher Mary learned in her graduate degree class that language learning could also be a result of
cognitive processes, or the act of knowing something. Which of the following is a result of this people?
A. Content-based instruction C. Peripheral learning
B. Desuggestopedia D. Total physical response

61. Teacher Peter uses small group games and tasks; he also asks students to actively listen to music, songs,
or any conversation in the class. Which of the following explains Teacher Peter’s practices?
A. Cognitive code approach C. Counselling-learning approach
B. Communicative approach D. Task based English language teaching
62. Teacher Minnie reads about desuggestopedia. Which of the following activities is a practice of
desuggestopedia?
A. Drills and substitution drills
B. Language drills and quiz bees
C. Doing task such as writing letters, composing poems, and watching movies
D. Role play
63. Which of the following illustrates “positive transfer” in interlanguage?
A. A Filipino student construct a sentence in English: “Beautiful is Mary.”
B. A Filipino student pronounce “bag” correctly.
C. A Filipino student writes a sentence. “The book is new.”
D. A Filipino student tells “We ate pish (fish) last night.”
64. The teacher considers feelings of anxiety, fear and shame that may hinder second language acquisition.
Which method can help the teacher address this concern?
A. CL/CLL
B. Task-based language teaching
C. Communicative language teaching
D. CBI
65. Teacher Erick believes that if the students in school would force their habit of speaking in English in the
manner they speak Kapampangan, including accent and vocabulary, it might lead to fossilization of
errors and eventually lead to linguistic phenomenon known as ________.
A. codemixing C. depidginization
B. codeswitching D. pidginization
66. In which class is code switching allowed?
A. Audio-lingual class C. Grammar-translation class
B. Communicative class D. TBLT
67. In which class is CLIL practiced?
A. The class visited a museum in order to create a brochure promoting local tourism.
B. The class was divided into small groups in order to brainstorm on a topic for process writing.
C. The teacher used an authentic task for group performance.
D. The teacher used graphic organizer to aid comprehension.

68. What is an indication of hypothesis testing in language learning?

A. Acculturation C. Input
B. Error D. Utterance
69. Which of the following is a manifestation of covert grammar teaching?
A. Audio lingual method
B. Communicative language teaching
C. Task-based language teaching
D. Silent way
70. Which of the following supports English for Specific Purposes?
A. Competency-based education C. Peripheral learning
B. Organizational competence D. Scaffolding in language education
71. What is the implication of “mutually intelligible” in teaching English?
A. Students cannot distinguish any difference in the different varieties of the language.
B. Students may still understand different varieties of English.
C. Students should not be given different varieties of English language.
D. Students will find it hard to understand a different variety of the English language.
72. Based on principles of first language acquisition, which of the following should be taught first to
students?
A. Plural regular C. Pejoration
B. Possessive D. Taboo
73. In first language acquisition, the following are considered language developmental milestones during the
pre-linguistic stages, EXCEPT ___________.
A. babbling C. crying
B. cooing D. echolalia
74. What semantic change is reflected in the word “queer”? “A queer case was solved by Sherlock Holmes.”
“He is such queer.”
A. Association C. Pejoration
B. Metaphor D. Taboo
75. Which of the following sentence/s is/are incorrect?
A. The safety of students while on a school field trip is something for which teachers are responsible
for.
B. The safety of students while on a school field trip is something for which teachers are responsible.
C. The safety of students while on a school field trip is something which teachers are responsible for.
D. Sentence B and C.

76. Which of the following sentence is correct?

A. The infamous attack on the World Trade Center happened on September 11, 2001.
B. The infamous attack on the World Trade Center happened on 11 September 2001.
C. The infamous attack on the World Trade Center happened on 11th of September, 2011.
D. The infamous attack on the World Trade Center happened on 11 September, 2001.
77. Noun phrase joined by and are plural. This rule does not apply when and is followed by not. Which of
the following statement is CORRECT?
A. Love and not hate makes the world go round.
B. Love and not hate make the world go round.
C. People and not policy is the focus of his analysis.
D. Policy and not people are the focus of his analysis.
78. Which of the following quantifiers modify plural nouns?
A. Many C. Every
B. Each D. Many a
79. The following statements are TRUE about sentence structure EXCEPT _______________.
A. Two words (lexis) that belong to the same category (lexical category) can substitute each other in a
sentence.
B. Each word has a limitless range of possible functions.
C. These are restrictions on how the words can combine to form grammatical phrases.
D. Lexical categories can expand into bigger strings of words called ‘phrasal categories.’
80. The word “off” functions as an adverbial particle in which structure?
A. Their on and off relationship C. Off with you!
B. We put it off too long. D. You’re off the hook.
81. Which of the following is an example of a sentence fragment?
A. They fought C. The boy and the girl’s uncle
B. A family just moved in D. Quit it
82. In which of the following sentences does the verb “be” (is) function as the intensive verb or copula?
A. Don is annoying C. Don is annoying me.
B. Don is fooling around D. Don is going out of control.
83. Which of the following are “optional constituents” of this sentence? “The kind history teacher surprised
us with an extraordinary reward.”
A. Kind, history, teacher C. Kind, teacher, reward
B. Kind, surprised, extraordinary D. Kind, history, extraordinary
84. Which of the following is the correct definition of a “phrase”?
A. A sequence of words that can function as a sentence constituent.
B. A sequence of words that contains only a subject and no predicate.
C. A sequence of words that contains only a predicate and no subject.
D. A sequence of words that contains a subject and a predicate.
85. Which of the following CANNOT function as intensive verbs?
A. Make C. Turn
B. Seem D. Remain
86. What is the function of the underlined constituent in the following sentence: “Jake dreads wild animals
in the zoo”?
A. Obligatory Complement C. Indirect Object
B. Optional Modifier D. Optional Complement
87. Which of the following statements best qualifies as a “complex” sentence?
A. Don’t make any comment unless you are fully aware of the issue.
B. I didn’t start this dispute and I don’t want to have anything to do with it.
C. You can wallow in your miseries or you can start over and move on.
D. Jen likes her new house, but she doesn’t like the front yard.
88. Which of the following sentence structure is “syntactically ambiguous”?
A. The mayor invited all city hall employees to his birthday.
B. The columnist writes feature articles on antique writing desks.
C. The man with a tall hat sits rather uncomfortably at the dinner table.
D. The valet looks imposing in his purple velvet vest.
89. In Chomsky’s Transformational Grammar, to what does a sentence’s “deep structure” refer?
A. The version of sentence that we articulate and hear
B. The outward form of a sentence
C. The final stage in the syntactic representation of a sentence
D. The abstract representation of a sentence
90. Which of the following concepts is NOT a concern of syntax?
A. Lexical categories
B. Smaller units called constituents
C. Structural analysis
D. Distribution and function
91. Which of the following statement is TRUE with regard to the use of the present perfect tense?
A. A statement which was true in the past and still relevant to the present
B. A statement which was true in the past but no longer, or not necessarily, true at the moment of
speaking
C. A statement which was true, or an action which was completed before another pass action
D. A statement which became true in the past
92. Which of the following types of words does NOT fit into the category of determiners?
A. Articles C. Prepositions
B. Possessives D. Demonstratives
93. Which of the following sentence/s depict/s a dative case?
A. Marga gave a donation to charity
B. The charity received a donation from Marga
C. The university accepted an award from the accrediting organization
D. Sentence B and C are dative
94. The following are basic simple sentence patterns in English EXCEPT _____________.
A. subject + verb
B. subject + verb + object
C. subject + verb + indirect object + direct object
D. subject + object + verb
95. The following are linguistic mechanisms that Halliday and Hassan (1997) point in order for texts to have
cohesion EXCEPT ___________.
A. reference C. substitution
B. ellipsis D. genre
96. What lexical process is exemplified by the following?
Jo removed dust from the desk. = Jo dusted the desk.
 A. Compounding C. Polysemy
B. Conversion D. Derivational affixation
97. Which of the following is grammatical?
A. The burglar lurked
B. It fascinated the alarm clock
C. I don’t like these book
D. Anyone who is good friend must be trustful
98. The following sentences are considered ungrammatical EXCEPT __________.
A. William has bought it last Sunday
B. I’m believing you
C. Help! I will fall
D. Janice has lived with her parents for ten years

99. Which approach to grammar refers to the structure of a language as it is actually used by speakers and
writers?
A. Reference Grammar C. Descriptive Grammar
B. Pedagogical Grammar D. Prescriptive Grammar
100. This sentence structure contains a “ditransitive verb group”.
A. Max had replied to my letter
B. Max has turned a subtle shade of red
C. Max hates huge spiders
D. Max is giving his boss a headache
101. Which is a correct description of motif in literary writing?
A. The main insight, central idea, or universal truth found in a literary work
B. An image or idea repeated throughout a work or several works of literature
C. The element of surprise in a work of fiction, such as twist ending
D. The writing style adopted by the author which is revealed in his/her word choice
102. Which of the following defines stylistics correctly?
A. It deals with expressive means which secures the desirable effect of the utterance.
B. It is the study of literary discourse from a linguistic orientation
C. It explicates the message to interpret and evaluate literary writings as works of art
D. It is the study of language structure, sounds, and meaning
103. Which of the following best illustrates the figure of speech “understatement”?
A. “That’s wrong, Poe”. (Addressing somebody who does not know the answer)
 B. “I think our comments differ slightly.” (“I do not agree with you at all.”)
C. “I’m so thirsty I could drink a pail of water.”
D. “That sounds not intriguing.”
104. What stylistic device was employed in “And breaths were gathering sure /for that last onset,
when the king/Be witnessed in his power” (Emily Dickinson)?
A. Paradox C. Antithesis
B. Irony D. Oxymoron
105. In stylistic parlance, which term refers to the appropriateness of a work to intended subject,
genre and audience?
A. Diction C. Point of view
B. Tone D. Decorum
106. Which of the following excerpts is an example of the figure of speech “paradox”?
A. “The child is the father of man”. (Wordsworth)
B. “O hateful love, o loving hate! I burn and freeze like ice!” (Shakespeare)
C. “At a drunkard’s funeral, four of his friends carried the bier.”
D. “Don’t we all love peace and hate war?”
107. What figure of speech did Nathaniel Hawthorne use in making Rev. Dimmesdale metaphorically
dim as the novel progresses while making Chillingworth have a chilled heart?
A. Symbol C. Allusion
B. Charactonym D. Pun
108. Which of the following exemplifies the device “allusion”?
A. Shakespeare is a literary titan
B. Death, be not proud
C. Philippines, O, Pearl of the Orient
D. Not yet, Rizal, not yet
109. What techniques were used in the excerpt “Sea nymphs hourly ring his knell/ Ding-dong.
Hark!/Now I hear them –Ding-dong bell”?
A. Consonance and rhythm C. Assonance and rhyme
B. Onomatopoeia and rhyme D. Onomatopoeia and assonance
110. What device did Ovid use in the excerpt “And Icarus, his son, stood by and watched him/ Not
knowing he was dealing with his downfall/ Stood by and watched, and raised his shiny face/ To boy
will, always/ Whenever a father tries to get some work done”?
A. Flashback C. Frame Story
B. Foreshadowing D. Epiphany
111. What device did N.V.M. Gonzales use in the excerpt “After Longos River, the trail to Mauhaw
climbs the Hill of the White Cows and for ten kilometres or so wanders about the rolling cogon country
before finally entering the woods. Only then may one get glimpses of the sea, heart-warming pictures
framed in by trail, after the resin-fragrant winds that strum the buri leaves as though these were guitars.”
A. Simile C. Allusion
B. Local Color D. Personification
112. What device did Alexander Pope use in the excerpt “Here thou, great Anna, whom three realms
obey/ Dost sometimes counsel take, and sometimes tea”?
A. Oxymoron C. Irony
B. Paradox D. Anticlimax
113. Which literary theory can give a meaningful criticism of the following poem?
“Hope” is the thing with feathers-
That perches in the soul-
And sings the tune without the words-
And never stop – at all –
And sweetest – in the Gale – is heard –
And sore must be the storm –
That could abash the little Bird
That kept so many warm –

I’ve heard it in the chilliest land-

And on the strangest Sea –
Yet – never – in Extremity,
It asked a crumb – of me.

A. New criticism C. Naturalism

B. Realism D. New historicism
114. Which of the following is the focus of medieval literary period?
A. Secular and individualistic C. Mundane and symbolic
B. Aesthetic and social D. Divine and spiritual
115. Which of the following does NOT characterize deconstructive reading of text?
A. Authorial intention fallacy renders meaning uncertain
B. Language is fixed system of signs
C. A text is a combination of multiple shades of contradicting meaning
D. It is a reading which analyses a text’s critical difference from its intended meaning.
116. Which is an example of the error deus ex machine?
A. The protagonist saw and talked to God
B. The antagonist change and turned to God
C. The conflict is related to religion
D. The plot ended with divine-intervention like way
117. Which of the following in NOT true?
A. Romanticism emphasizes human subjectivity and imagination
B. Post-modernism is highly structural, objective and empiricist
C. Realism draws from the objective and referential aspect of language and art
D. The Renaissance movement brought about the other-worldly disposition art and literature
118. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Marxism as a literary theory rejects the idea of “art for art’s sake.”
B. Formalism is criticism for meaning
C. New Christian promotes close reading and interpretation
D. Psychoanalytic theory in literature attempts to interpret symbols in literature.
119. Which is known as the science of interpretation?
A. Hermeneutics C. Literary appreciation
B. Textual exegesis D. Documentary analysis
120. Which of the following does NOT allow intertextual reading of literature?
A. Feminism Criticism C. New Criticism
B. Marxism Criticism D. Post-Colonial Criticism
121. Which of the following is valid in the context of the sentence of interpretation?
A. Every individual’s preconception and prejudice is destructive and unproductive in the reading and
analysis of texts.
B. A person cannot factor out his prejudices but he can comprise and find a common ground between
his prejudices and the author’s historical horizon.
C. Prejudices are productive because they allow rich and valid interpretations of the significance of
literary texts.
D. Truth is always what the reader thinks, and not what the author attempts to convey in the text.
122. Which of the following may be accepted by a Reader-Reception critic?
A. All interpretations and meaning are correct
B. Interpretations should ultimately be aligned with the author’s intention, not the reader’s perception
C. No interpretation can be objective, truthful and accurate
D. Interpretations are governed by the language and convention of the text, and the literary competence
of the reader
123. What is common among the following literary criticism theories: Marxism, Post-Colonialism,
Gender and Feminism, New Historicism?
A. Literature is a product of an ideology or social constructs
B. Literature affects human behaviour in a given society
C. Literature is independent from the other texts and factors external to the next
D. Literature is creative
124. Which of the following can be the subject matter of humanism literature?
A. Faith C. Sacred
B. Poverty D. Salvation
125. Which is characterized by a re-examination and imitation of the classical models, literary styles
and values of the ancient Greek and Roman authors?
A. Neoclassicism C. Renaissance
B. Neo-Platonism D. Romanticism

126. Which movement reacted against the stylistic excess and superfluous artistry and ornamentation
of Renaissance writers?
A. Neoclassicism C. Aestheticism
B. Realism D. Romanticism
127. Which literary movement is characterized by logical thinking and freedom which are vital in
making choices that relate to moral and social choices?
A. Enlightenment C. Renaissance
B. Neoclassicism D. Romanticism
128. Which was characterized by two broad events: French Revolution and the Industrial Revolution?
A. Humanism revolution C. Post-Modernism
B. Modern period D. Renaissance period
129. In which literary period was poem analysis done within the framework of human subjectivity and
its expression and exaltation of nature?
A. Naturalism C. Realism
B. Neoclassicism D. Romanticism
130. “Shall I compare thee to summer’s day?” This sonnet from William Shakespeare may be
interpreted in terms of its allusion to the beauty of nature, its metaphor, and the feelings that nature and
human nature evoke upon the reader. Which literary movement advocates this critical approach?
A. Empiricism C. Realism
B. Neoclassicism D. Romanticism
131. Which literary movement is characterized by the avoidance of what is fantastical, imaginary, and
mythical or supernatural?
A. Naturalism C. Realism
B. Neoclassicism D. Romanticism
132. This movement adheres to the requirements of probability and shuns impossible or improbable
literary subject and themes, with characters and incidents from all social strata, included. Which of the
following literary selection can be studied using critical theory of Realism?
A. Animal Farm by George Orwell
B. The Grapes of Wrath by John Stainbeck
C. The House of the Spirits by Isabel Allende
D. The Hunger Games by Suzanne Collins
133. The following characterized realism, EXCEPT _________.
A. It considered the human experiences of the present time, and the topics from contemporary life
rather than longing for some idealized past.
B. In emphasized the social rather than the individual or seeing the individual as a social being
C. In emphasized logical reason, and empiricism in the presentation of events and characters
D. It is focused on contemporary life, and not about some classical events in the past.
134. Which emphasizes the heredity psychological components of characters and experimenting the
connections between human psychology and external environment?
A. Naturalism C. Realism
B. Neoclassicism D. Romanticism
135. As an extreme form of Realism, which literary movement emphasizes the use of the methods of
the physical science and principles of causality, using highly detailed methods of description to present
the natural occurrences of things in the literary text?
A. Enlightenment C. Naturalism
B. Magic Realism D. Romanticism
136. Known as the area of “decadence” which literary movement was a reaction against realism and
naturalism, and highly structured poetry?
A. Aestheticism C. Enlightenment
B. Classicism D. Symbolism
137. Which literary movement rejected the idea that language was referential, or that the signifiers
automatically refer to their accurate signified?
A. Naturalism C. Realism
B. Post-Modernism D. Symbolism
138. Which literary movement emphasizes a more suggestive, allusive, and connotative language that
would enrich and evoke feeling of awareness and aesthetic experience?
A. Naturalism C. Realism
B. Post-Modernism D. Symbolism
139. Which literary movement states that art exists for its own sake, or for the sake of beauty,
disregarding moral or political considerations, and advocating the freedom of art from didactic,
educational and moralistic functions?
A. Aestheticism C. Renaissance
B. Humanism D. Structuralism
140. Which literary movement would give productive interpretations and criticism of Jose Garcia
Villa’s comma or punctuation poems?
“In, my, underarm, of, death,
I, unspoken, the, Word.
Since, nobody, had, dared,
With, my, own, breath,
I, broke, the, cord!
A. Aestheticism C. Structuralism
B. Realism D. Symbolism
141. Which characterized hermeneutics during the Middle Ages?
A. Interpretation became significantly important in the field of religion
B. Invention of literary forms gave rise to the science of interpretation in secular texts
C. Meaning became terribly difficult in literature
D. Philosophical ideas were so abstract that people had to invent the science of interpretation
142. Which of the following is a potential meaning form a feminist literary critic as he/she reads the
poem?
A. A woman has selfless dreams for humanity
B. The poem justifies the practical idea that a woman is the symbol of love and affection and the laws
of nature
C. The poem presents a universal truth and symbol that a woman must learn how to respect her husband
D. The poem presents a woman as the object of love, a martyr for the cause of love presented as man
143. The following are post-colonial critical approaches, EXCEPT _________.
A. It analyses how a superior culture influences an inferior community
B. It pushes for the appreciation of the literary creativity of the post-modern era
C. It recognize how history shaped the lives and beliefs of people of a former colony
D. It studies the impact of colonial culture upon a community through litereature
144. Which of the following is NOT a process or principle of formalist criticism?
A. Close reading and non-intertextual interpretation are approaches in the study of literary texts
B. Defamiliarization creates the literary experience
C. Meaning is the essence of literature
D. The dominant quality and literary device shape the nature and form of literature
145. Intertextuality believes that __________.
A. Accurate meaning can be achieved through close reading of the text itself
B. Heteroglossia or multiple meanings does not exist, nor can accurate or valid interpretation be
possible
C. Heteroglossia or multiple meanings exist
D. Meaning is the sole responsibility of the author; therefore, interpretation should be aligned with what
the author meant in the text
146. Which of the following is NOT true about signs?
A. Iconic signs-the signifier resembles the signified
B. Indexes- signifier indicates the signified
C. Signs- signifier as the concept is represented by the sound image or signified
D. True symbol-signifier is arbitrarily assigned to refer to signified
147. How does a Marxist literary critic view literature?
A. A product of class struggles and economic history
B. A products of the author’s view of society and the world
C. A receptacle of symbol
D. An art which exists for its own sake
148. Which of the following represents the philosophical belief of a New Historicism scholar?
A. History exists as the only accurate text of post-structuralism
B. It does not allow intertextual reading
C. It examines how readers are influenced by their prejudice or personal view of the world
D. There is no history, but a version of the author’s view of the historical facts
149. Which of the following relates Psychoanalytic theory in literature criticism?
A. Art is decadent, and self-indulging
B. Literary criticism is giving judgement of the behaviour and prejudices of readers during the reading
act
C. The literary text is the product of the author’s repressed dreams and fantasies, and literary
interpretation is a form of dream interpretation of psychoanalysis
D. The text is a rich symbol of the author’s personal, and psychological view of the world and its
people
150. Which approach to literary criticism highlights how meaning, interpretations, frameworks,
system and structural beliefs break apart?
A. Hermeneutics C. Semiotics
B. Post-structuralism D. Structuralism
151. The idea of the “death of the author” by M. Bakhtin can be associated with which principle of
reader-reception theory?
A. Reading is a process of dialogue between the reader and the author mediated by the text
B. The reader is the author of the text
C. There cannot be only one interpretation; however, there can be many valid and competent
interpretations
D. There is no accurate and meaningful interpretation in a text that can be ascertained by the reader
152. Even before the invention of the printed page in the middle of the 15th century, oral literature had
been in circulation by word-of-mouth for centuries. Epics, myths, legends and fables which were told
hundreds of years ago may be said to fall under what literary genre?
A. Essay C. Poetry
B. Drama D. Fiction
153. Among the “sentence of the mind” which one is predicted in the poem above?
A. Sense of touch C. Motion sense
B. Sense of smell D. Thermal sense
154. The image projected in “Fog” is ______________.
A. The silent, graceful, hardly noticeable and nonchalant coming of the fog
B. The fog’s quiet lifting off towards some unknown direction as it gets dispersed
C. The fog’s obvious lifting off towards some known direction as it gets dispersed
D. Both A and B
155. The figure of speech found in the same poem is _______________.
A. Personification C. Metonymy
B. Simile D. Hyperbole
156. Which character or force in conflict with a main character, e.g. the extreme cold in Jack
London’s “To Build a Fire”?
A. Protagonist C. Hero/heroine
B. Antagonist D. Supernatural power
157. Which is the body of stories, legends, myths, ballads, songs, riddles, sayings and other works
arising out of the oral traditions of people around the world?
A. Folk literature C. Epics
B. Pop culture D. Folk pop
158. What tone color is exemplified by the underlined words in the following lines taken from “The
Raven”?
“Once upon a midnight dreary, while I pondered weak and weary
Over a many quaint and curious volume forgotten lore
While I nodded nearly napping, suddenly three came a tapping,
As of someone gently rapping, rapping at my chamber dooe…”
159. Which is an all-knowing point of view in which the author tells of the thoughts and feelings of
each character in the story?
A. Third person omniscient POV
B. Third person limited POV
C. First person POV
D. Third person central character POV
160. The expression “and they lived happily ever after” is included as a segment of the __________.
A. Resolution C. Theme
B. Setting D. Plot

161. Which figure of speech is exemplified in the first three lines?

A. Personification C. Apostrophe
B. Metaphor D. Allusion
162. The short poem describes the ________________.
A. Onset of night C. High noon
B. Rising of sun D. Spread of moonlight
163. A word that means “a shelter or protection from danger or distress” is _______________.
A. Night C. Wings
B. Refuge D. Plumes
164. In mythology, Zeus, the ruler of Olympus had two brothers: one who rule the sea and the other
who ruled the underworld. The two were __________.
A. Apollo and Artemis C. Hermes and Ares
B. Poseidon and Hades D. Achilles and Aeschylus
165. Three monstrous sisters with snakes for hair, teeth like the tusk of a wild boar, hands of brass and
bodies covered with impenetrable scales. They turned to stone all who looked on them. The most
famous of the three was Medusa. Which is described?
A. Gigantes C. Gorgons
B. Furies D. Fates
166. Son of Zeus and Alcmene, he was renowned for his superhuman strength and courage.
Sometimes called Alcides, he is often represented with a bow or club wearing a lion skin. Who is
referred to?
A. Oedipus C. Androcles
B. Odyseus D. Hercules or Heracles
167. Half-human and half-bull, he/it was confined in the labyrinth, where he/it received an annual
tribute of seven youths and seven maidens from Athens. Which is referred to?
A. Minotaur C. Midas
B. Pegasus D. Medea
168. A king of Corinth condemned in the Underworld to roll a huge stone up a hill. Just as he reached
the top, the stone would roll down, forcing him to begin the task again. Who is referred to?
A. Sisyphus C. Spartacus
B. Sphinx D. Stentor
169. Which is the substitution of a term considered inoffensive for one that might bring the reader or
listener too close to an uncomfortable reality?
A. Euphemism C. Translation
B. Imagery D. Bathos
170. Which term is borrowed from art criticism and applied to a kind of fiction that mixes realism
with flights of myths and fantasy. It is considered with Latin American writers such as Gabriel Garcia
Marquez?
A. Metaphor C. Magic Realism
B. Masque D. in media res
171. Which is the subject in Mythic history portrayed in “Musee des Beaux Arts” painting?
A. Daedalus and Icarus
B. Iliad and Odyssey
C. Farewell of Hector and Andromache
D. Encounter with Polyphemus
172. The following are examples of Situational Irony EXCEPT _______________.
A. Abduction of Helen
B. Oedipus fled Corinth
C. Death of Acrissius in the hands of Perseus
D. The quest to expose Laius’ murderer
173. Philosophic-religious belief in reincarnation is based on which mythical character?
A. Orpheus C. Achilles
B. Paris D. Agamemnon
174. The following are typical characteristics of an epic hero, EXCEPT ___________.
A. Immorality C. Bravery
B. Superiority D. Fame
175. A Japanese Folktale entitled “The Story of The Aged Mother speaks about.” EXCEPT ______.
A. The fate of the common people under a depot is grim
B. The Daimyo’s unreasonable order is seemingly a boast of his power
C. A citizen’s disobedience towards a cruel mandate ends tragically
D. It is an exhibit of the saying: with a crown of snow, there cometh wisdom
176. It is significant truth about life and human nature that is exhibited by the words, actions and
decisions of characters. This element of fiction is known as ________________.
A. Setting C. Plot
B. Point of view D. Theme
177. A mechanism by which a narrative sequence of events (story) is structured and organized is
called ______________.
A. Point of view C. Literary device
B. Plot D. Denouement

178. Characterization may be revealed or gleaned by all of the following EXCEPT _________.
A. What the character says, thinks and does
B. What the readers say and think about the character
C. What the author says about the character
D. What the other characters say about the character being described
179. A great of the oldest literature of which we have written records is in verse. Which genre of
literature may well be considered the oldest literary form?
A. Fiction C. Drama
B. Poetry D. Essay
180. Which represents the various social overtones, culture implications or emotional meanings
associated with a sign?
A. Denotation C. Syntax
B. Connotation D. Euphemism
181. Which is direct address to someone absent, long dead or even to an inanimate object, e.g. “Pack,
clouds, away; and welcome, day!”
A. Metonymy C. Metaphor
B. Personification D. Apostrophe
182. A figure of speech uses words having sounds that imitate what hey denote, e.g. bang, whoosh,
buzz?
A. Onomatopoeia C. Metaphor
B. Allusion D. Apostrophe
183. Memories, which are first-person accounts of personally or historically significant events, may
be classified under ____________.
A. Biography C. Fiction
B. Autobiographical writing D. Drama
184. Ernest Hemingway is noted for a simple prose style. Style includes every feature of a writer’s
use of language such as word choice, Word choice is better known as ______________.
A. Description C. Diction
B. Dialogue D. Vocabulary
185. The term thespian was taken from Thespis, a 6th B.C. poet who was said to have been the
founder of Greek drama and the first actor. Thespian means ______________.
A. Actor C. Speaker
B. Orator D. Teacher

186. A stanza is a group of lines whose material pattern is repeated throughout the poem. A stanza of
six lines is called ______________.
A. Couplet C. Quatrain
B. Octave D. Setset
187. The one through whose eye we “see” the story is the _______________.
A. Author C. Character
B. Narrator D. Reader
188. The following make a good idea for an essay EXCEPT ______________.
A. It is true but arguable
B. It is limited enough in scope
C. It comes with available evidence
D. It has a probable setting
189. What is the intention of a drama?
A. To have a script
B. To be performed before an audience
C. To transform society
D. To present an argumentation
190. Essay may be provisional in its appraisal of the subject but unlimited in point of view.
 Is this true?
A. True C. Maybe
B. False D. Cannot tell
191. What difference identifies the eating habits of the typical Filipino of the countryside from the
more affluent city families?
A. Character C. Plot
B. Setting D. Theme
192. What instructive principles of right conduct can one draw out from story?
A. Character C. Plot
B. Setting D. Theme
193. For what may the villain be condemned? Point out his personality, chief traits and characteristics.
A. Character C. Plot
B. Setting D. Theme
194. How has the author structured the selection? Did he use literary devices to break the normal
movement of the story?
A. Character C. Plot
B. Setting D. Theme
195. His crowning achievement was the Aeneid, an epic poem in 12 books recounting the story of
Aeneas. Who is referred to?
A. Euripides C. Homer
B. Aristophanes D. Virgil
196. What is a novel about the education and development of the young hero?
A. Burlesque C. Aestheticism
B. Bildungsroman D. Allegory
197. Which is a figure of speech in which apparently contradictory terms appear in conjunction?
A. Oxymoron C. Anithesis
B. Metonymy D. Parody
198. In which type of novel are real people represented in the guise of fictional characters?
A. Picaresque novel C. Roman a clef
B. Epistolary novel D. Deux ex machine
199. Which work of Dante Alighieri narrated his journey through Hell (the Inferno), Purgatory and
finally, Paradise?
A. Canterbury Tales
B. Animal Farm
C. Elegy Written in a Country Churchyard
 D. Divine Comedy
200. Which among the four basic type of assessment task in speaking requires “parroting” back word,
phrases, and sentence, which students hear?
A. Imitative C. Interactive
B. Extensive D. Responsive
201. Ms.Roallos, an English teacher, divided the class into groups and gave a problem-solving
activity entitled “Lost in a Desert Island.” She wanted to provide her students with an activity that would
allow them to signal that one wanted to speak. What specific speech routine used in conversation did
Ms.Roallos adhere to?
A. Feedback C. Interaction
B. Initiating the task D. Turn-taking
202. Which mandates that “for purpose of communication and instruction, the official languages of
the Philippines are Filipino, and until otherwise provided by law, English?”
A. 1987 Philippine Constitution
B. Education Act of 1982
C. R.A 10533
D. R.A. 10157
203. Ms.Comia gave her class a group assignment. The class must come up with possible solutions to
the growing number of vandalism in their school. Each group is expected to come up with a proposal.
What kind of assessment task in speaking is she using?
A. Intensive C. Extensive
B. Responsive D. Interactive
204. Which type of situation in speaking involves face-to-face conversations and telephone calls,
which participants are alternately listening and speaking, and in which they have a chance to ask for
clarification, repetition, or slower speech from their conversation partner?
A. Interactive C. Partially interactive
B. Non-interactive D. Extensively interactive
205. The principal reminded the teacher, “Make sure your task have a linguistic (language-based)
objective, and seize the opportunity to help students to perceive and use meaningfully the building
blocks of language.” What principle in teaching speaking will the teacher follow?
A. Focus on both fluency and accuracy
B. Give students opportunities to initiate oral communication
C. Capitalize on the natural link between speaking and listening
D. All of the above
206. To help the student to get to process information received, which of the following expressions
should the teacher model?
A. Asking for clarification (What did you say?)
B. Asking someone to repeat something (Pardon me, please?)
C. Using fillers (uh, I mean, Hmm)
D. Getting someone’s attention (Hey, say, so)
207. Which of the following actions should the teacher do in order to encourage the students
participate in any speaking activity?
I. Provide an oral or written text/prompt before engaging the learners in the speaking ask.
II. Let the students write reflections about the activity.
III. Ask the students to share their ideas right away
A. I only C. III only
B. II only D. I, II, and III
208. In teaching speaking, particularly when teachers aim to provide appropriate feedback and
correction to the learners who make an error because they have not had sufficient chance to observe the
correct form or to develop sufficient knowledge of the language system, the teacher should ________.
i. Not correct the learners but give more models and opportunities to observe the correct
language form
ii. Correct the learners right away and teach the accurate, correct, and appropriate language
form
iii. Let the learners’ errors remain for they will learn to correct them as they grow older
A. I only C. III only
B. II only D. I, II, and III
209. The teacher lets the students listen to a recorder oral text that provides students models on how to
use “uh-huh, right OK, Hmm”,etc. Which speaking strategy does the teacher emphasize and develop?
A. Asking for clarification
B. Using conversation maintenance cues
C. Getting someone’s attention
D. Asking someone to repeat
210. To illustrate the principles, “Encourage the use of authentic language.” Which of the following
should teachers AVOID?
A. Provide texts used in particular discipline such as weather report, news report
B. Design task such as interviewing for employment purpose, asking information in a particular place,
advertising a product or place, etc.
C. Prepare audio-visual aids such as amps, globes, radio, books, references, etc.
 D. Use labels of any item, community announcements, speeches, etc.
211. When focused on accuracy, the teacher lets the students realize the importance of language form
and usage given emphasis in the speaking task by showing two videos: 1.). a video featuring a subject
who uses the language erroneously, and 2). A video showing people who use the language correctly.
Which act is demonstrated by the teacher to make the students reflect and become more aware of what
to look for to learn the language?
A. Error correction C. Error analysis
B. Consciousness raising D. Reflective thinking
212. In teaching speaking for beginners, the teacher demonstration this principles “Personalize the
speaking activities whenever possible.” Which activity/ies should the teacher provide?
I. Ask the learners to complete the prompt, “On my way to school, I saw _______.
II. Ask the learners to read in chorus the list of words on the board
III. Let the learners bring pictures of their family members, trips to different places, etc. and ask
them to share a story about the picture
IV. Let the learners recite the dialogue by rote
A. I and II C. II and III
B. II and IV D. I and IIII
213. A student shows unwillingness to participate in any speaking activity because when he reported
in one subject he was laughed at when he mispronounced some words such as “stimulose” for stimulus,
“ipikt” for effect, etc. Which may be the reason of his problem in speaking?
A. Has nothing to say C. L1 interference
B. Naturally shy and timid D. Uneven participation
214. Canale and Swain (1980) proposed that the teaching of speaking must aim at the development of
the communicative competence; hence learners must be able to communicate freely and spontaneously.
In this regard what should speaking classes feature?
A. Must be structured around functional uses of language
B. Should emphasize language forms and structures
C. Must be replete with translations, repetitions of drills using building blocks of language
D. Should emphasize meaning only
215. In teaching speaking, which of the following statements should the teacher observe to
demonstrate the principles in teaching pattern drills?
A. For beginners, introduce stress and intonation by pure imitation
B. Start by letting the students to be on their own in saying polite expressions like Hello!, Good
morning!, Good afternoon, etc.
C. Ask students to use the expressions in meaningful discourse in chorus or individually
 D. Illustrate the meaning of the expressions through translation, direct instruction, and dictation.
216. Which of the following is/are an area/s involved speaking?
I. Form and Mechanism including pronunciation, grammar, and vocabulary which are the
components in using the right words in the right order with the correct pronunciation
II. Functions such as transaction and interaction which require knowing when clarity of
message is essential and when precise understanding is not required
III. Social and cultural rules and norms including turn-taking, rate of speech, length of pause
between speakers, relative roles of participants, and understanding how to take into
account who is speaking to whom, in what circumstances about what, and for what
reason.
A. I only C. II and III
B. I and II D. I, II, and III
217. In the speaking class, the teacher facilitates the lesson by observing this procedure: presenting a
weather report, causing interaction by asking questions related to the text, taking notes of the students’
responses in the form of content and grammar points, providing exercises individually or collaboratively
for mastery of what have been presented, and letting the students perform a task. Which of the following
describe/s the teacher’s instructional procedure?
I. Provides a language input that is both content and form-oriented
II. Uses a structured output focused on sound and word formation
III. Designs a communicative output to complete a task that integrates language form and function
A. I and II C. II and III
B. II and IV D. I and IIII
218. Which of the following is NOT true about the language input used in speaking?
A. Comes in the form of teacher talk, listening activities, reading passages, and the language heard and
read outside of class
B. Gives learners the material they need to begin producing the language orally
C. May be content oriented or form oriented
D. Presents the type of discourse/task designed by the teacher for the students to do at the end of the
teaching session.
219. In teaching speaking, the teacher should recognize that __________.
A. All communicative output may in turn be a language input; hence, tasks must be carefully planned
B. All language input must be spoken; thus, there must be available materials to use
C. Processing language input must be limited to form; therefore, the teacher must be a good
model/source of language learning
D. All structured output must be done on individual basis; hence, group work must be avoided
220. Using information Gap Activity for beginners, the teacher uses prompts such: “Is my dress
green?. Do I have long hair?, Are there thirty students in the class?, Are we Filipino?”,etc. Which of the
following describe/s the teaching procedure?
I. The teacher uses referential questions to help students discover unknown information
II. The teacher uses daily questions to promote student speaking, or to prompt
III. The teacher uses both referential and display questions
IV. The teacher helps the learners know and use the language
A. I and II C. II and IV
B. II and III D. I and IV
221. Considering the principles in teaching minimal pair drills, which of the following should the
teacher AVOID?
A. Processed from the known sound to the new one, e.g. from /p/ to /f/
B. Pronounce the word pairs with the same intonation so as not to confuse the students with differences
other that the sound contrast being illustrated, e.g. pit vs fit
C. Provide over drill and spend more time in the production of sound in similar contexts
D. Use familiar words if possible and present one pronunciation problem at a time, e.g. /l/ vs /i/ in bit-
beat first before ship and sheep
222. In using Think-Pair-Share strategy in a speaking class, which should the teacher AVOID?
I. Initiate the task by posing a question, wait for a single student to respond, evaluate, and provide
feedback
II. Pose a question, give students time to think or consider the question, discuss their responses with
partners, and share their answers with the entire class.
III. Use any question of interest that may resemble these ones: “What do you consider as the most
effective time of studying your lessons?”, “How can you challenge students’ apprehension to
speak?” , “When was the last time you lied?, “What makes you laugh or smile?” , “An eye for an
eye will make the world blind.” , etc.
A. I only C. II and III
B. II only D. I and II
223. Games are effective strategies to use in speaking classes. Which of the following principle is
VIOLATED in using games?
A. Games can be great tools for reviewing the lesson and help students recall what they have learned
such as vocabulary and grammar rules
B. Games to be presented must require minimal language use, outright, elimination, complicated, with
elaborate set-up/procedures to stimulate challenge, or must be overly simple especially with young
adult and older learners
 C. Games can provide both rehearsed and extemporaneous, language practice
D. Games, if done right, can increase motivation making the students enjoy and be productive in
acquiring and learning the language
224. The teacher aims to develop in the students the ability to hear sounds accurately and to produce
these sounds correctly and automatically. In doing pronunciation drill in a speaking class, which is the
correct sequence of activities?
I. Let students listen to the teacher/tape for the individual sound of sounds, and sound of words,
and in phrase and sentences
II. Ask students to produce the sound contrasts in words, phrase, and sentences.
III. Let students listen to the sound of a word in contrast with another sound/s in words, phrase, and
in sentence
IV. Ask students to produce the sound of sounds and words, and in phrases and sentences
A. I-II-II-IV C. I-IV-III-II
B. I-IV-II-I D. II-III-IV-I

225. Which strategy is for reading literature where the reader responds to the literary and cultural
impact of the text by identifying images and themes and writing marginal notes about them?
A. Previewing C. Annotating
B. Highlighting D. Reading
226. Literature is language in use; as such, language becomes the medium or the tool of literature.
Therefore, language is _______________.
A. Separable from literature
B. Inseparable from literature
C. Beyond literature
D. The development of more than linguistic ability
227. Which is engaging task of recording experiences, ideas, insight or reflection on a regular basis
that encourages students to articulate their minds than merely resting information about a text?
A. Role play C. Journal writing
B. Brainstorming D. Pantomime
228. The reading and teaching of literature must yield not only enjoyment but also ____________.
A. Understanding C. Information
B. Knowledge D. Pleasure
229. In teaching literature, the task of the teacher is not just to provide the students with information.
Therefore, he/she should NOT do the following EXCEPT _______________.
 A. Tell what each piece of literature is about
B. Prescribe interpretations; do character studies
C. Make a synopsis; dictate notes
D. Enable his/her students to discover for themselves what the work is about; giving encouragement
when and where needed
230. Which of the following pairs of words do NOT rhyme?
A. Cry-buy C. Write-right
B. Face-race D. Cunning-running
231. Which is an approach to literature and the other arts that stresses reason, balance, clarity, ideal
beauty and orderly from in imitation of the arts of ancient Greece and Rome?
A. Realism C. Romanticism
B. Face-race D. Imagism

232. The play “Oedipus the King” by Sophocles starts with a crisis: The bans are suffering from
plague caused by the murder of the former king. Oedipus, the present and trusted leader, in his search
for truth finally found out that he himself was the killer he is looking for. What approach to starting a
drama is illustrated here?
A. Accretive plot C. Emmedias res
B. Unfolding plot D. Linear plot
233. The statement “Once upon a time in a distant land” exemplifies the ____________.
A. Setting of the story C. Place of the setting
B. Time of the setting D. Local color
234. Which benefit is derived from literature as we engage ourselves in continuing process of refining
our capabilities to use language and our sensibilities to good language use?
A. Wisdom C. Cultural function
B. Exploration of a world view D. Language enhancement
235. Which is an early 20th century movement in literature and the arts that broke with traditional
forms, conventions and expectations, challenging acceptance notions of the relationship between art and
everyday life, and experimenting with new techniques and new modes of representing reality?
A. Modernism C. Scientific realism
B. Postmodernism D. Realism
236. The curriculum goes through the stages of curriculum planning, curriculum implementation and
curriculum evaluation. The production of instructional materials falls under ________________.
 A. Curriculum planning and implementation
B. Curriculum planning and evaluation
C. Curriculum planning
D. Curriculum evaluation
237. An important step in ensuring the relevance of the instructional materials to the rest of the
curriculum is to keep a list of ___________.
A. Policies issued by DepEd
B. Goals and objectives of the curriculum
C. Provisions in the constitution of the PTA
D. Vision and mission of the school
238. Which material are used to help students organize information through the use of a combination
of shapes, figures and lines?
I. Graphic organizer
II. Material organizer
III. Pocket organizer
A. I only C. I and II
B. II only D. I, II and III
239. Which of the following qualifies as an authentic material?
A. Label of a can good C. a paragraph from the book
B. A list of isolated sentences D. a series of vocabulary words
240. Which teaching strategies in K to 12 curriculum addresses the issue on irrelevance of
instructional materials?
I. Localization
II. Authentication
III. Contextualization
A. I only C. I, II
B. II only D. I, II and III
241. Which of the following qualities does NOT describe a teacher in the preparation, selection, and
utilization of instructional materials?
A. Creative C. Fashionable
B. Resourceful D. Culture-sensitive
242. The following materials are used to activate students’ schema or prior knowledge, EXCEPT ___.
A. Opinionnaire C. Anticipation guide
B. Story Impression D. Story star
243. To illustrate the use of comprehensible input in language teaching to grade 4 students, the
teacher may use the following texts EXCEPT ___________.
A. Recorded song C. A written weather report
B. Video clip D. A journal article
244. In K to 12 Curriculum, which two types of texts are prescribed to facilitate and enrich learning?
I. Literary text as primary text
II. Informative text an parallel text
III. Literary text as parallel text
IV. Informative text as primary text
A. I and III C. I and II
B. II and IV D. III and IV
245. One prime consideration of instructional materials’ use is to link the materials to the ________.
A. Curriculum C. Current issues
B. Policies D. Textbook board