Perfect Education

Vinyak Vihar,Opposite-Sihag Hospital

Date: 04/11/2021
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 160

KVPY-5 XII NM & MED. 31-10-2021

Maths-1
Single Choice Question

Q1 Consider the planes 3x–6y + 2z + 5 = 0 and 4x –12y + 3z = 3. The plane 67x

–162y + 47z + 44 = 0 bisects the angle between the planes which
a)    contains origin b)    is right angle
c)    is obtuse d)    None of these

Q2 Let the number of positive and negative solutions of x2 – 6x – |5x–15|– 5

= 0 be and m respectively, then
a)    +m=2 b)    +m=4 c)    –m=2 d)    All of these

Q3 The number of values of 'r' satisfying the equation ,

is
a)    1 b)    2 c)    3 d)    4

Q4
If m = then the expression (1– m)2(m – m2)2 (1– m2)2 simplifies to:
a)    an imaginary number b)    aprime number
c)    a positive integer d)    a negative integer

Q5

The function f (x) = is continuous for 0 x< ,

then the most suitable values of a and b are

a)    a = 1 , b = –1 b)    a = –1 , b=1 +
c)    a = –1 , b = 1 d)    None of these
Q6
Evaluate

a)    b)    c)    2 d)    4

Q7
Given , then

a)    2A+B =0 b)    2A–B =0 c)    A+2B =0 d)    A–2B=0

Q8
The differential equation, x

a)    is of order 2 b)    is of degree 2
c)    is homogeneous d)    None of these

Q9 Let f(x) =[x]2+[x+1] –3, where [x]= the greatest integer x. Then
a)    f(x) is a many-one and into function
b)    f(x) = 0 for exactly five number of values of x
c)    f(x) = 0 for only two real values
d)    None of these

Q10 A point P lies on the hyperbola 9x2 –16y2 = 144 such that PS1 : PS2 = 3/2
(where S1 and S2 are focii of hyperbola). Coordinates of point P is in the
first quadrant are
a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q11
(n integer) of:
a)    no value of n b)    all values of n
c)    only negative values of n d)    only positive values of n

Q12
If y=f & f '(x) = tan x2 then =
a)    tan x3 b)   

c)    d)    None of these
tan x2
Q13 If a < 0, f(x) = eax + e–ax and S = {x ; f(x) is monotonically decreasing}; then
S equals
a)    {x : x > 0} b)    {x : x < 0} c)    {x : x > 1) d)    {x : x < 1}

Q14 A line passing through the point (21, 30) are normal to the curve y =
can have the slope:
a)    2 b)    3 c)    –2 d)    –5

Q15 An ellipse is inscribed in a circle and a point within the circle is chosen
at random. If the probability that this point lies outside the ellipse is 2/3
then the eccentricity of the ellipse is:
a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q16 The number of all positive integral roots of the equation, px = p + 15x , p
N is :
a)    3 b)    4 c)    5 d)    None of these

Q17
If are three consecutive terms of an A.P., then x, y, z are
three consecutive terms of
a)    an AP b)    a GP c)    an HP d)    None of these

Q18 The number of lines that can be drawn through the point (4, –5) at
distance 12 units from the point (–2, 3) is
a)    0 b)    1 c)    2 d)    infinite

Q19 The solution of |cosx| = cosx - 2sinx is :

a)    x = b)   
x=
c)    d)   
x= x = (2n + 1)

Q20

a)    b)    c)    d)   
 Maths-2
Single Choice Question

Q21 The area of the figure bounded by y = ln x and y = (ln x)2 is

a)    3–e b)    3+e c)    5–e d)    5+e

Q22 Equation of a straight line meeting the circle x2 + y2 = 100 in two points,
each point at a distance of 4 from the point (8, 6) on the circle, is :
a)    4x + 3y–50 = 0 b)    4x + 3y–100 = 0
c)    4x + 3y–46 = 0 d)    None of these

Q23
is equal to

a)    b)    c)    d)    None of these

Q24 If in a rectangle ABCD with BC = 3 AB. Points P & Q are on BC such that
=tan–1 (1/3), (1/2) & , then:
a)    point P & Q must trisect BC b)    PQ = 2AB
c)    d)    AP=2DQ

Q25 |A3×3| =3, |B3×3| = –1 and |C2×2| = +2 then |2ABC| =

a)    2 3 , 6 b)    2 3 , (–6) c)    2, (–6) d)    None of these

Q26 If f(x) = xx; [a, ) [b, ) is an invertible function then the minimum
value of a & b are
a)    b)    e, e1/e c)    d)    None of these

Q27 Messages are conveyed by arranging 4 white, 1 blue and 3 red flags on a
pole. Flags of the same colour are alike. If a message is transmitted by the
order in which the colours are arranged then the total number of
messages that can be transmitted if exactly 6 flags are used is:
a)    45 b)    65 c)    125 d)    185

Q28
The expression, is equal to
a)    cos 2 A b)    sin 2 A
c)    cos A cos B cos C d)    None of these

Q29 The angle at which the curve y = 2 e2x intersects the y-axis is
a)    tan –1 4 b)    cot –1 4 c)    tan –1 2 d)    cot –1 2
Q30
Exact value of is.........
a)    –1 b)    1 c)    0 d)    None of these
 Physics-1
Single Choice Question

Q31 What should be value of E for which galvanometer shows no deflection

a)    10 V b)    5 V c)    15 V d)    20 V

Q32 The particle of mass m and charge q will touch the infinitely large plate
of uniform charge density if its velocity v is more than: {Given that q
> 0}

a)    0 b)    c)    d)    None of these

Q33 A negative charge is given to a loop and the loop is rotated in the plane of
paper about its centre as shown. The magnetic field produced by the ring
affects a small magnet placed above the ring in the same plane of paper.

a)    the magnet does not rotate

b)    the magnet rotates clockwise as seen by observer from below
c)    the magnet rotates anti-clockwise as seen from below
d)    none of the above

Q34 An inelastic ball of mass m has been thrown vertically upwards (positive
z—direction) from the ground at z = 0. Linear momentum of ball is Pz.
The phase trajectory (graph between Pz versus z) of the ball after
successive bouncing on the ground is :
a)    b)    c)    d)   
Q35 In a cylindrical region uniform magnetic field which is perpendicular to
the plane of the figure is increasing with time and a conducting rod PQ is
placed in the region. Then

a)    Pwill be at higher potential than Q.

b)    Q will be at higher potential than P.

c)    Both P and Q will be equipotential.

d) no emf will be developed across rod as it is not crossing / cutting any
   line of force.

Q36 In the plane mirror, the co-ordinates of image after two and half time
periods are (initial velocity V0 is in the xy-plane and the plane mirror is
perpendicular to the x-axis. A uniform magnetic field Bi exists in the
whole space. P0 is pitch of helix, R0 is radius of helix).

a)    17P0, 0, – 2R0 b)    3 P0, 0, – 2R0

c)    17.5 P 0 , 0, – 2R 0 d)    3 P 0 , 0, 2R 0

Q37 In the circuit diagram shown, Xc =100 , XL = 200 & R = 100 . The
effective current through the source is :

a)    2 A b)    A c)    0.5 A d)    A

Q38 In a YDSE both slits produce equal intensities on the screen. A 100 %
transparent thin film is placed in front of one of the slits. Now the
intensity of the geometrical centre of system on the screen becomes 75 %
of the previous intensity. The wavelength of the light is 6000Å and μfillm =
1.5. The thickness of the film cannot be:
a)    0.2 b)    1.0 c)    1.4 d)    1.6
Q39 If we assume that penetrating power of any radiation/particle is
inversely proportional to its De-broglie wavelength of the particle then :
a) a proton and an -particle after getting accelerated through same
   potential difference will have equal penetrating power.
b) penetrating power of -particle will be greater than that of proton
   which have been accelerated by same potential difference.
c) proton's penetrating power will be less than penetrating power of an
   electron which has been accelerated by the same potential difference.
d) penetrating powers cannot be compared as all these are particles
   having no wavelength or wave nature.

Q40 A beam of electrons striking a copper target produces X-rays.lts spectrum

is as shown. Keeping the voltage same if the copper target is replaced
with a different metal, the cut-off wavelength and characteristic lines of
the new spectrum will change in comparision with old as :

a) Cut-off wavelength will remain unchanged while characteristic lines

   will be different.
b) Both cut-off wavelength and characteristic lines will remain
   unchanged
c)    Both cut-off wavelength and characteristic lines will be different.
d) Cut-off wavelength will be different while characteristic lines will
   remain unchanged.

Q41 A heavy nucleus x(A = 180) breaks into two nuclie y (A = 140) and z(A =
40). Energy released during fission reaction is :

a)    110 MeV b)    220 MeV

c)    200 MeV d)    Energy is not released
Q42 Two point charges +q and – 4q are placed at (–a, 0) and (+ a, 0). Take
electric field intensity to be positive if it is along positive x-direction. The
variation of the electric field intensity as one moves along the x-axis is
a)    b)   

c)    d)   

Q43 If at t = 0 the switch Sw is closed, then the charge on capacitor in the

given circuit (initially uncharged) when the current through battery
becomes 50% of its maximum value is (assume battery is ideal) :

a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q44 Two rods of same length and areas of cross section A1 and A2 have their
ends at same temperature. If K1 and K2 are their thermal conductivities,
C1 and C2 their specific heats and and are their densities, then the
condition that rate of flow of heat is same in both the rods is
a)    A 1 /A 2 = K 1 /K 2 b)    A /A = K C
1 2 1 1 /K 2 C 2
c)    A d)    A 1 /A 2 = K2/K1
1 /A 2 = K2C1 /K1C2

Q45 A chord attached about an end to a vibrating fork divides it into 6 loops,
when its tension is 36 N. The tension at which it will vibrate in 4 loops is:
a)    24 N b)    36 N c)    64 N d)    81 N
Q46 Water flows through a frictionless horizontal duct with a cross-section
varying as shown in figure. Pressure p at points along the axis is
represented by :

a)    b)   

c)    d)   

Q47
Figure shows three vectors. If =2 , which of the following
relations is correct?

a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q48 A pebble is thrown horizontally from the top of a 20 m high tower with
an initial velocity of 10 m/s. The air drag is negligible. The speed of the
pebble when it is at the same distance from top as well as base of the
tower (g = 10 m/s2)
a)    m/s b)    m/s c)    20 m/s d)    25 m/s

Q49 Two bodies A and B have emissivities 0.5 and 0.8 respectively. At some
temperatures the two bodies have maximum spectral emissive powers at
wavelength 8000 A and 4000 A respectively. The ratio of their emissive
powers at these temperatures are :
a)    b)    10 c)    d)    None of these
Q50 Consider the following statements :
S1 : An uncharged conductor kept near a charged body is attracted by
that body whether the charge on the body is positive or negative.
S2 : A solid conductor is placed in a uniform electric field. The electric
field due to conductor will be same at every point inside the conductor.
S3 : The electric field produced by an infinitely large sheet is same on
both sides.
S4 : Intensity of electric field decreases as you go away from the centre of
a uniformly charged solid sphere (having uniform volume charge
density).
State, in order, whether S1, S2, S3, S4 are true or false
a)    FT F T b)    T F T F c)    F F T F d)    T T F F
 Physics-2
Single Choice Question

Q51 The spring block system as shown in figure is in equilibrium. The string
connecting blocks A and B is cut. The mass of all the three blocks is m
and spring constant of both the spring is k. The amplitude of resulting
oscillation of block A is (string massless)

a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q52 The plates of small size of a parallel plate capacitor are charged as
shown. The force on the charged particle of 'q' at a distance from the
capacitor is : ( Assume that the distance between the plates is d << )

a)    zero b)    c)    d)   

Q53

a)    b)   

c)    d)   
Q54 In the circuit shown switch S is connected to position 2 for a long time
and then joined to position 1. The total heat produced in resistance R1 is :

a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q55 Current in an ac circuit is given by i = 3 sin t + 4 cos t then :

a)    rms value of current is 5 A.
b)    mean value of this current in one half period will be 6/
c) if voltage applied is V = V m sin ωt then the circuit must be containing
   resistance and capacitance.
d) if voltage applied is V = Vm sin ωt, the circuit may contain only
   resistance and inductance.

Q56 A parallel beam of monochromatic radiation of cross-section area A(<

a2), intensity I and frequency v is incident on a solid conducting sphere
of work function and radius 'a'. The sphere is grounded by a
conducting wire. Assume that for each incident photon one
photoelectron is ejected. Just after this radiation is incident on initially
uncharged sphere, the current through the conducting wire is :

a)    b)    c)    d)    None of these

Q57 V—T diagram for a process of a given mass of ideal gas is as shown in the
figure. During the process pressure of gas.

a)    first increases then decreases b)    continuously decreases

c)    continuously increases d)    first decreases then increases
Q58 In the figure ABC is the cross section of a right angled prism and BCDE is
the cross section of a glass slab. The value of so that light incident
normally on the face AB does not cross the face BC is (given sin–1 (3/5) =
37°)

a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q59 Two particles having the same specific charge (q/m) enter a uniform
magnetic field with the same speed but an angles of 30° and 60° with the
field. Let a, b and c be ratios of their pitches, radii and periods of their
paths respectively, then :
a)    a + b = b)    abc = 1 c)    a 2 = c d)    ab 2 = c

Q60 In the given electrical circuit, the potential difference between points A
and B is (assume the battery is ideal and the conducting wires have
almost zero resistance):

a)    5V b)    10 V c)    25 V d)    70 V
 Chemistry-1
Single Choice Question

Q61 The wurtzite structure is described as hcp of S2– ions with the alternate
tetrahedral voids occupied by Zn2+ ions. A compound containing A, B and
X atoms had the A and B atoms arranged as Zn2+ and S2– respectively in
the hcp lattice. The X atoms occupied alternate octahedral voids. Which
of the following is incorrect ?
a)    Formula of the compound is A 2 B 2 X
b)    Coordination number of A can be 4.
c)    Coordination number of X can be 6.
d)    Centres of 12 A atoms lie on the edges of one unit cell.

Q62 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of F – Xe – F

bond angle : XeF2, XeF4, XeF5– ;
a)    XeF 2 < XeF 4 < XeF 5 – b)    XeF 5 – < XeF 4 < XeF 2
c)    XeF 2 < XeF5– < XeF4 d)    XeF 2 = XeF4 = XeF5–

Q63 In which case van't Hoff factor is maximum (assuming no hydrolysis) :

a)    KCI, 50% ionised b)    K 2 SO 4 , 40% ionised
c)    FeCl 3 , 30% ionised d)    SnCl 4 , 20% ionised

Q64 Which of the following statements is true for azide ion?

a)    It can act as bidentate ligand.
b)    Two N—N bond lengths are different in the anion.
c)    It is isoelectronic and isostructural with CO 2

d)    There are two and three bonds.

Q65 Which does not represent correct method?

a)    TiCl 2 + 2Mg Ti + 2MgCl2 : Kroll
b)    Ni(CO) 4 Ni + 4CO : Mond
c)   
Ag2CO3 2Ag + CO2 + : Van Arkel

d)    Zrl 4 Zr + 2l2 : Van Arkel

Q66 Which of the following is not correctly matched?

a) Sodium (ethylenediaminetetraacetato)chromate(II)—
   Na 2 [Cr(CH 3 COO) 4 (en)]
b)    Dichloridobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt (III) ion—[Co(Cl)2(en)2]+
c)    Tris(bipyridyl)iron(II)ion – [Fe (NH 4 C 5 – C 5 H 4 N) 3 ] 2+
d)    Ammineaquadibromidocopper(II) —[Cu(NH 3 )(H 2 O)Br 2 ]
Q67 S1 : Melting of Cu(s) is favourable at high temperature and high pressure.
S2 : Equilibrium H2(g) +l2(g) 2HI(g) is stablished in V(L). If complete
equilibrium mixture is transfered to 2V(L) container then the partial
pressure of HI will remain same in the new container.
S3 : Formation of diamond is favourable at very high temperature and
very high pressure.
a)    TFF b)    TFT c)    FTT d)    FFT

Q68 Which of the following plots represent the correct variation of of

strong electrocyte ?
a)    b)    c)    d)    None of these

Q69 An aqueous solution contains Al3+ & Zn2+ both. To this solution NH4OH is
added in excess.
a)    only Al(OH) 3 will be precipitated

b)    only Zn(OH)2 will be precipitated

c)    both will be precipitated
d)    no precipitate will appear

Q70 Which of the following complexes is not correctly matched with their
geometries ?
a)    [CoCl 4 ] 2– — tetrahedral b)    [Co(PMe 3 ) 4 ] – tetrahedral
3–
c)    [Cu(CN) 4 ) — tetrahedral d)    [Fe(CO) 4 ] 2– — square planar

Q71 Which of the following is Incorrect regarding entropy ?

a) The entropy of solution formed is higher if the detergent concentration
   is slightly less than CMC as compared to when its concentration is
slightly more than CMC
b) The vapour pressure of a solution of 10 g protein molecules is
   expected to be more than that of 10 g urea molecules as entropy of
urea solution is more.
c) The entropy of pure solid solvent is lesser than entropy of pure liquid
   solvent but equal to entropy of liquid solution of non-volatile solute.
d)    The entropy of colloid molecules decrease on coagulation.

Q72 In the reaction : A + 2B product rate = k [A] [B]0

The initial concentration of both A and B are a M. The graph of
concentration of B vs time is : (t1 = t1/2 for A)
a)    b)    c)    d)   
Q73 Equal volume of two solution having pH = 2 and pH = 10 are mixed
together at 90°C. Then pH of resulting solution is : (Take Kw at 90°C = 10–
12
)
a)    2 + log 2 b)    10 – log 2 c)    7 d)    6

Q74 The pair of compounds in which both the compounds give positive test
with Tollen's reagent and Fehling solution is
a)    Propanal and Propanone
b)    Propanal and Benzaldehyde
c)    Propanal and 2-Phenylethanal

d)    Benzaldehyde and 1-Hydroxypropanone

Q75 Which of the following is an optically active polymer

a)    Nylon 6, 6 b)    Natural rubber
c)    Teflon d)    PVC

Q76 Isobutyl alcohol and secondary butyl alcohol can be distinguished by.
a)    Oxidation with alkaline KMnO 4 & tollen's reagent.
b)    Oxidation with acidic dichromate & tollen's reagent
c)    Oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with
d) Oxidation by concentrated H2SO4 followed by reaction with fehling
   solution.

Q77 (X) C6H7N (Aromatic)

(X) cannot be :
a)    Benzoic acid b)    Benzene carbonyl chloride
c)    Benzoic anhydride d)    Benzonitrile

Q78 The correct C — C bond length order is :

H3C – CH,                      H3C – CH2 – CI
(x)                                               (y)
a)    x > y b)    x < y c)    x = y d)    C –C<C–H

Q79 The order of acidity of following acids is

a)    I > II > III > IV b)    IV > III > II > I c)    IV > I > III > II d)    IV > III > I > II
Q80 Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of stability

a)    I > II > III b)    II > I > III c)    III > II > I d)    III > I > II
 Chemistry-2
Single Choice Question

Q81 S1 : All adiabatic processes are isoentropic processes.

S2 : When (ΔGsystem)T, P < 0; the reaction must be exothermic.
S3: 'Radial nodes' can appear when radial probability distribution
function become zero.
a)    TTF b)    F F T c)    TFT d)    T F F

Q82 Zn Amalgam is prepared by electrolysis of aqueous ZnCl2 using Hg

cathode (9gm). How much current is to be passed through ZnCl2 solution
for 1000 seconds to prepare a Zn Amalgam with 25% Zn by wt. (Zn = 65.4)
a)    5.6 amp b)    7.2 amp c)    8.85 amp d)    11.2 amp

Q83 A solution of Na2 S2 O3 is standardized iodimetrically against 0.1262 g of

KBrO3. This process requires 45 mL of the Na2 S2 O3 solution. What is the
molarity of the Na2 S2 O3?
a)    0.2 M b)    0.5 M c)    0.05 M d)    0.1 M

Q84 Analysis show that nickel oxide consist of nickel ion with 96% ions
having d8 configuration and 4% having d7 configuration. Which amongst
the following best represents the formula of the oxide.
a)    Ni 1.02 O 1.00 b)    Ni 0.96 ,O 1.00 c)    Ni 0.98 O 0.98 d)    Ni 0.98 O 1.00

Q85 Select the INCORRECT statement :

a) N 2 O with sodium metal in liquid ammonia forms sodium azide and
   nitrogen gas is liberated.
b) Ammonia is oxidised to nitrogen by dilute solution of sodium
   hypochiorite in presence of glue.
c) Ammonium dichromate on heating decomposes to give nitrogen and a
   green coloured compound
d) CaNCN on hydrolysis produces a white precipitate and a gas which
   turns filter paper moistened with copper sulphate solution deep blue.

Q86 An energy of 40.8 eV is required to excite a Hydrogen-like species from

1st Bohr orbit to second. Which is/are correct statement(s) :
a)    Atomic number of H-like species is 2.
b)    Ionisation energy of H-like species is 122.4 eV.
c)    Kinetic energy of electron in 1 st orbit is 50.4 eV.
d)    Energy of third orbit is –13.6 eV.
Q87 Fluorobenzene is best prepared by
a)    b)   

c)    d)   

Q88
In the reaction, the major product is
a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q89 The correct orders are :

a)   
(rate of decarboxylation)

b)   
(rate of aldol condensation)
c)   
(rate of base catalysed condensation)
d)   
(rate of diazocoupling with Ph )

Q90 The rate of esterification of CH3COOH is fastest with

a)    b)    c)    d)   
 Biology-1
Single Choice Question

Q91 Human fetal haemoglobin differs from the adult haemoglobin in that it
has curve.
a)    straight line b)    sigmoid curve
c)    two subunits only d)    is glycosylated adult

Q92 Nucleolus is an organelle responsible for the production of

a)    carbohydrates b)    messenger RNA
c)    lipids d)    ribosomal RNA

Q93 The sequences of four DNA molecules are given below:

i. TATATATATATATA
ATATATATATATAT
ii. TTTCCCGGGAAA
AAAGGGCCCTTT
iii. TTGCGTTGCGCC
AACGCAACGCGG
iv. GCCGGATCCGGC
CGGCCTAGGCCG
Which one of these DNA molecules will have the highest melting
temperature (TM)?
a)    i b)    ii c)    iii d)    iv

Q94 If DNA codons are ATGGAA, insertion of thymine after the first codon
results in,
a)    non-sense mutation b)    mis-sense mutation

c)    frameshift mutation d)    silent mutation

Q95 Genetic content of a cell reduces to half during

a)    meiotic prophase I b)    mitotic prophase

c)    meiotic prophase II d)    meiotic telophase

Q96 Which one of the following techniques is used for the detection of mRNA?
a)    Northern blotting b)    Western blotting

c)    Southern blotting d)    In-situ hybridization

Q97 Fission yeasts are

a)    Archaebacteria b)    Eubacteria
c)    Prokaryotes d)    Eukaryotes
Q98 In green leaves, the light and dark reactions occur in
a)    stroma and grana respectivley b)    grana and stroma respectively

c)    cristae and matrix respectively d)    both occur in cytoplasm

Q99 According to Mendel.................. segregate and ................... in dominance

a)    alleles of a gene; alleles of different genes

b)    allelesof different genes; dominant allele show

c)    dominant traits; recessive traits recessive traits
d)    recessive traits ; recessive traits

Q100 The two enzymatic activities associated with RUBISCO are

a)    oxidase and oxygenase b)    oxygenase and carboxylase
c)    oxidase and carboxylase d)    oxygenase and carbamylation

Q101 Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are believed to be associated with cancers

because,
a)    CFCs react with DNA and cause mutations
b)    CFCs react with proteins involved in DNA repair
c) CFCs destroy the ozone layer and permit harmful UV rays to reach
   the earth
d) CFCs react with DNA polymerase and reduce fidelity of DNA
   replication

Q102 Morphogenetic movements take place predominantly during the

following embryonic stage
a)    Blastula b)    Morula c)    Gastrula d)    Fertilized eggs

Q103 The only organ which is capable of producing Fructose in humans is

a)    liver b)    pancreas
c)    seminal vesicles d)    muscle

Q104 Stroke could be prevented/treated with

a)    balanced diet b)    thrombolytic drugs
c)    insulin d)    blood thinners

Q105 In orange and lemon, the edible part of the fruit is

a)    placenta b)    thalamus
c)    hairs of the ovary wall d)    succulent Mesocarp
Q106 Which one of the following statements about nitrogenase is correct?
a)    It is sensitive to CO 2 and therefore present in isolated nodules.
b)    It requires O 2 and therefore functional during the day.
c) It is sensitive to 02 and therefore is functional in anaerobic
   environments.
d)    it is sensitive to light and therefore functions only in dark.

Q107 Part of epidermis that keeps absorption in PCT

a)    columnar epithelium b)    squamous epithelium
c)    ciliated epithelium d)    cuboidal epithelium

Q108 Species that are most effective at colonising new habitats show
a)    low reproductive ability b)    high dispersal ability

c)    slow growth and maturation d)    high competitive ability

Q109 In a large isolated population, alleles p and q at a locus are at Hardy

Weinberg equilibrium. The frequencies are p = 0.6 and q = 0.4. The
proportion of the Homozygous genotype in the population is:
a)    0.24 b)    1 c)    0.48 d)    0.36

Q110 In vertebrates 'glycogen' is stored chiefly in

a)    heart and blood b)    spleen and stomach
c)    bones and lymph d)    liver and muscles
 Biology-2
Single Choice Question

Q111 109 bacteria were spread, on an agar plate containing penicillin. After
incubation overnight at 37°C, 10 bacterial colonies were observed on the
plate. That the colonies are likely to be resistant to penicillin can be
tested by
a)    measuring their growth rate
b)    observing the colour of the colonies
c)    checking their ability to grow on another plate containing penicillin

d)    checking their ability to cause disease

Q112 Watson and Crick model of DNA is a

a)    B-form DNA with a spiral length of 34 Å and a diameter of 20 Å

b)    A-form DNA with a spiral length of 15 Å and a diameter of 20 Å

c)    Z-form DNA with a spiral length of 34 Å and a diameter of 20 Å
d)    B-form DNA with a spiral length of 28 Å and a diameter of 14 Å

Q113 Each spinal nerve in a mammal arises from the spinal cord by two roots,
a dorsal and a ventral. Of these the ventral root is composed of
a)    somatic sensory and visceral sensory fibres
b)    somatic sensory and visceral motor fibres
c)    somatic motor and visceral motor fibres

d)    somatic motor and visceral sensory fibres.

Q114 From an early amphibian embryo the cells that would give rise to skin in
adults were transplanted into the developing brain region of another
embryo. The transplanted cells developed into brain tissue in the
recipient embryo. What do you infer from this experiment?
a) Cell fate is permanently determined during early embryonic
   development.
b) Developmental fate of donor cells is influenced by the surrounding
   cells.
c)    Developmental fate of donor cells is not influenced by recipient cells.
d) Any cell which is transplanted into another embryo always develops
   into a brain.

Q115 Presence of plastids in Plasmodium suggests

a)    it is a plant species
b)    it is a parasite with a cynobacterium as an endosymbiont

c)    it is a parasite with an archebacterium as an endosymbiont

d)    it is a plant species with an archebacterium as an endosymbiont
Q116 The figure below demonstrates the growth curves of two organisms A
and B growing in the same area. What kind of relation exists between
Aand B?

a)    Competition b)    Commensalisms

c)    Symbiosis d)    Mutualism

Q117 If a patient suffers a stroke that destroys the optic tract one the right side
of the brain, which of the following visual defects will result?
a) There will be no vision in the left eye, but vision will be normal in the
   right eye.
b) The patient will not perceive images of objects striking the left half of
   the retina in the left eye.
c) The patient will not perceive images of objects striking the right half
   of the retina in the right eye.
d) Neither eye will perceive objects in the right side of the patient's field
   of view.

Q118 Brown fat is a specialised adipose tissue with abundant mitochondria

and rich blood supply. Brown fat
a)    insulates animals that are acclimatised to cold.
b)    is the major source of heat production in birds.
c)    provides energy to muscles.
d)    produces heat without producing ATP.

Q119 In some species, individuals forego reproduction and help bring up

another individual's offspring. Such altruistic behaviour CANNOT be
explained by which of the following?
a)    An individual helps relatives only and gets indirect genetic benefits.
b) The individual benefits because it can later inherit the breeding
   position.
c) The individual benefits because it gets access to resources, such as
   food and security from predators, in return.
d) The species benefits from a reduction in competition among
   offspring.
Q120 Lions in India are currently restricted to Gir, Gujarat. Efforts are being
made to move them to other parts of the country. This is because they are
MOST susceptible to extinction due to infectious diseases under the
following conditions when present as
a)    everal small, isolated populations
b)    one large population

c)    several large, connected populations

d)    several large, isolated populations