MID-I ONLINE BITS

IV B. Tech. I Semester Regular Examinations

ENVIRONMENTAL IMPACT ASSESSMENT

(Civil Engineering)

1. The mathematical models for predictions of environmental impacts attempt to

(1) qualitatively describe the cause and effect relationship between the various system
variables

(2) quantitatively describe the cause and effect relationship between the various
system variables

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) None of the above

2. An environmental audit helps in achieving the objective of

(1) waste minimisation

(2) resource optimatisation

(3) public awareness of the units environmental records

(4) All of the above

3. Consider the following statements regarding the Environmental Impact Assessment

(EIA) is

I. It is one of the most widely used tools for identifying and mitigating adverse
ecological effects of development proposals.

II. It is used only to mitigate the environmental pollution.

III. In 1987, UNEP adopted a set of goals and principles on EIAS.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) Only I
(2) II and III

(3) and III

(4) I, II and III

4. Which of the following is a true statement?

1. The headquarter of the National Wasteland Development Board is in Odisha.

II. Global warming will melt the polar ice caps.

III. Carbon dioxide is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere.

(1) Only

(2) II and III

(3) and III

(4) I, II and III

5. In the BEES system, the environmental quality scale is obtained for each of the
identified parameters

through the use of

(1) value of parameters on X-axis

(2) use of corresponding functional relationship

(3) value of parameters on Y-axis

(4) All of the above

6. Which of the following techniques is used to monitor sulphur dioxide in air?

(1) Polyurethane filter

(2) Atomic absorption spectroscopy

(3) Chromatography

(4) Hydrogen peroxide acidimetric colorimetric

7. Which of the following is an important air contaminant?

(1) Heavy metals (3) Carbon monoxide

(2) Pathogens (4) Solids

8. Consider the following statements regarding environment auditing and audits.

I. It can encompass financial type of audits.

II. It can encompass compliance type of audits.

III. It can encompass performance type of audits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) Only !

(2) II and III

(3) I and III

(d) I, II and III

9. For objective evaluation of the project the first step to make is

(1) an inventory of the existing environment in the influence zone

(2) a list of relevant parameters

(3) a list of parameters defining ecology

(4) None of the above

10. Parameter Importance Unit (PIU) is a

(1) subjective process

(2) weightage to the parameters

(3) technique to select the parameters

(4) None of the above

11. Which of the following is a true statement?

I. Methane is a group of incomplete decomposition caused by methanogens.

II. Methane production occur under aerobic conditions.

III. In India, there are ten Population Research Centres.

(1) Only I

(2) II and III

(3) I and III

(4) I, II and III

12. Which of the following is not a benefit of the environment audit?

(1) It enables the management to run the unit efficiently

(2) It provides an up to date record of the performance of the equipment

(3) Timely actions can be taken to avert any risk

(4) None of the above

13. All the cases of the diversion of the forest land are required to approved by

(1) The respective State Government

(2) State Land use Board

(3) Central Government

(4) Not approval is required

14. Urban India has

(1) 5-6 million population

(2) 25% of the national

(3) 32% of national population

(4) None of the above

15. Consider the following statements regarding development projects for which EIA
has been made mandatory include

I. highways II. railways III. power stations

(1) Only I

(2) II and III

(3) I and III

(4) I, II and III

16. Environment degradation means

(1) The mixing of pollutants in the air

(2) The biomagnifications of toxic agents

(3) The increase in pollution, toxic agents, desertification, deforestation and other
factors that degrade the environment

(4) None of the above

17. Consider the following statements regarding the schedule I of EIA guidelines 1994

I. It lists the projects requiring environmental clearance.

II. It provides details of the EAC.

III. It consists of an application form.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) Only I

(2) II and III

(3) I and III

(4) I, II and III

18. Consider the following statements regarding the objective of Environmental Impact
Assessment

I. It ensure sustainable development.

II. It ensure that development is sustained with minimal degradation.

III. It ensure the legality of the development project. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?

(1) Only II

(2) II and III

(3) II and III

(4) I, II and III

19. An Environmental Management System (EMS) is

(1) a framework that helps a company achieve its environmental goals through
consistent control of its operations

(2) a set of processes and practices that enable an

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) None of the above

20. There are specific methods available to perform

(1) GMP-RAM (2) INOVA

(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) None of the above

21. In1987, the United Nations Programme (UNEP) adopted principles on

Environment a set of goals and

(1) Environmental impact assessment

(2) Environmental system

(3) Environment auditing

(4) Environment management plan

22. The full form of OEMP is

(1) Operation Environmental Management Plan

(2) Operation Environment Member Policy

(3) Operative Environment management plan

(4) All of the above

23. CEMP stands for

(1) Construction Environmental Management Plan

(2) Constitutive Environmental Management Plan

(3) Comprehensive Environmental Management Policy

(4) None of the above

24. From where does EIA come from?

(1) The EIA process derives from European law

(2) The EIA process derives from Asian law

(3) The EIA process derives from Indian law

(4) None of the above

25. What are the potential benefits of an EMS based on ISO 14001?

(1) Improvements in overall environmental performance and compliance

(2) Increased efficiency and potential cost savings when managing

environmental obligations
(3) Provide a framework for using pollution prevention practices to meet EMS
objectives

(4) All of the above

26. The various types of organisations, which can participate in the process of
developing ISO 14001 standards are

(1) Industries

(2) Government (Federal and State) agencies

(3) Non-Government Organizations (NGOs)

(4) All of the above

27. Title II of National Environmental (NEPA) establishes Policy Act

(1) National Goal of Environmental Policy

(2) Council for Environmental Quality

(3) Protection of Natural Resources

(4) EIA and EIS

28. The impact identification process in EIA brings together

(1) baseline information and project characteristics

(2) impacts and project characteristics

(3) impacts and baseline information

(4) cost and project characteristics

29. An environmental inventory for EIA is description of

(1) affected environment

(2) total environment

(3) partial environment

(4) a specific environment

30. Which of the following waste treatment methods is an example of recycling?

(1) Stabilization of waste

(2) Converting waste into useful biomass

(3) Burning waste

(4) Lagooning waste

31. In 1987, UNEP adopted a set of goals and principles on

(1) Environment Impact assessment

(2) Environment System

(3) Environment Management Plan

(4) None of the above

32. Consider the following statements regarding the

I. It prevent the adverse environmental impacts.

II. It monitor the necessary safeguards.

III. It is an integral part of EIA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) Only I

(2) II and III

(3) I and III

(4) I, II and III

33. The EIA clearance in the prescribed format shall be accompanied by

(1) project report

(2) environmental impact assessment report

(3) environmental management plan

(4) All of the above

34. Which one of the following is a false statement?

I. EIA stands for Environmental Impact Assessment.

II. CPCB stands for The Central Pollution Control Board.

III. EIAA stands for Environment Impact Assessment Authority. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct?

(1) Only I

(2) II and III

(3) I and III

(4) I, II and III

35. Which of the following agency has laid down the standards for the control
of pollution of air, water and noise?

(1) Central Pollution Control Board

(2) Central Pollution Control Tribunal

(3) Central Pollution Control Agency

(4) None of the above

36. The impacts caused by construction of dam and reservoirs include

(1) change in microclimate (3) soil erosion

(2) loss of vegetative cover (4) All of the these

37. Which of the following is an impact of SPM?

(1) Corrodes metals (3) Obscures vision

(2) Irritate eyes (4) Causes cancer

38. Gas removal devices from air include

(1) using absorption (liquid as a media)

(2) adsorption (molecular sieve)

(3) catalytic converters

(4) All of the above

39. The control measures of stationary source air pollution emission include

(1) evaporation

(2) incineration

(3) absorption and condensation

(4) All of the above

40. The common control measures for noise pollution include

(1) constructing of sound enclosures

(2) applying mufflers

(3) counting noise sources on isolators

(4) All of the above

41. The key activities of an audit process include

(1) understanding management system

(2) assessing the strengths and weakness

(3) gathering audit evidences, evaluating audit finding and reporting audit
finding to management

(4) All of the above

42. The following are the types of environmental audits

(1) compliance audits

(2) environmental management audit

(3) liability definition or due diligence audits

(4) All of the above

43. The following are the benefits of auditing process

(1) enabling environmental problems and risks to be anticipated and responses

planned

(2) to demonstrate that an organisation is aware of its impact upon the

environment through providing feedback employee awareness of

(3) increases management and environmental issues.

(4) All of the above

44. EIA stands for

(1) Environmental Impact Assessment

(2) Ecological Impact Assessment

(3) Environmental Impact Audit

(4) Environmental Impact Area

45. The another name for the National Environmental Policy Act is b

(1) EIA process

(2) ES process

(3) EIS process

(4)None of these

46. The goals of environment impact assessment are

(1) resources conservation

(2) waste minimisation

(3) recovery of byproduct

(4) All of these

47. The goals of environment impact assessment are

(1) resources conservation (3) recovery of byproduct

(2) waste minimization (4) All of these

48. Assertion (A) Environmental impact assessment isa procedure which

ensures that developmenta activities cause minimal environmental side effects
without reducing the productivity of natural systems and without destroying
the ecological balance.

Reason (R) EIA helps to identify the major areas of environmental damage due
to developmental activities in a systematic and comprehensive manner and
also suggests remedial measures to minimise these negative impacts. anos
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and Rare true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true, but R is false

(4) A is false, but R is true

49. By 2100 AD, global temperature is expected to rise by about 2°C and
consequently, the sea level by about 50 cm from the present level. How is a rise
in temperature expected to increase the level of the sea?

(1) By expanding ocean water

(2) By melting mountain glaciers

(3) By causing ice sheets of Antarctica and Greenland to melt

and slide into the oceans

(4) All of the above

50. Garbage can be put under four categories, i.e., organic, toxic, soiled and
recyclable of the organic waste, this forms an important part.

(1) Plastic bags

(2) Vegetable peels

(3) Glass

(4) Metal

51. What does HEQ stand for?

(1) High Ecological Quality

(2) High Environmental Quality

(3) High Economic Quality

(4) None of these

52. Assertion (A) EMP is prepared for both the phases of the project,
construction and operation.

Reason (R) EMP is the analysis of how we can preserve our biodiversity.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true, but R is false

(4) A is false, but R is true

53. The biggest impacts are made on the environment by

(1) the migration of organisms

(2) predation

(3) human interference

(4) competition

54. Consider the following statements regarding the single-largest consumer

sector of fresh water in India is

I. agriculture

II. industry

III. power

(1) Only I

(2) II and III

(3) I and III

(4) I, II and III

55. Who tops the world environmental sustainability index?

(1) Finland

(2) Canada

(3) South Africa

(4) New Zealand

56. Who does the government delegate responsibility promote sustainable

development?

(1) Environment agency

(2) CBI

(3) TỤC

(4) Local authority

57. Who spelt out sustainable development?

(1) Finland

(2) Ogoniland

(3) Bruntland

(4) England

58. What is the name of the primary federal agency that works to protect the
environment?

(1) Environment protection agency

(2) Environment conservation agency

(3) Environment management agency

(4) None of the above

59. What is the most common reason that animal species become extinct?

(1) Loss of habitat

(2) Heavy rainfall

(3) Hot climatic conditions

(4) Cold wheather conditions

60. Assertion (A) Remote sensing is done for getting information about the
earth. Reason (R) Remote sensing is done by sensing and recording reflected or
emitted energy and processing analysing and applying information.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true, but R is false

(4) A is false, but R is true

61. Which of the following household materials is considered hazardous waste?

(1) Plastic packaging

(2) Glass

(3) Batteries

(4) Spoiled food

62. What is the most common cause of pollution streams, rivers and oceans? Is
it...
(1) dumping of garbage by cities

(2) surface water running off yards, city streets, paved lots and farm fields

(3) trash washed into the ocean from beaches

(4) waste dumped by factories

63. What is the primary benefit of wetlands?

(1) Promote flooding

(2) Help clean water before it enters lakes, streams,oceans

(3) Help keep the number of undesirable plants and low

(4) Provide good sites for landfills

64. In India, an Environment Impact Assessment report of a proposed mining

project after clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years?

(1) 5 years

(2) 10 years

(3) 30 years

(4)2 years

65. Land use planning should aim

(1) acceptable income

(2) minimal loss

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) None of these

66. The India's high concentration of pollution is due to

(1) absence of sound environmental legal regime

(2) lack of environmental enforcement at local level

(3) disfunct judiciery

(4) None of the above

67. Which is an objective of EIA?

(1) Recycling and reduction of waste

(2) Risk analysis and disaster management

(3) Assessment of international funding

(4) All of the above

68. The average occupancy per passenger vehicle in India is

(1) 2

(2) 1.2

(3) 2.5

(4) 5

69. The important sector/s that feed the mankind is/are

(1) agriculture sector

(2) forest and wildlife

(3) livestock and fisheries

(4) All of these

70. Environmental auditing helps in pollution control, improves production,

safety and health and conservation of natural resources by way of
(1) ensuring waste prevention and reduction

(2) assessing compliance with regulatory environment

(3) placing environmental information to the public

(4) All of the above

71. Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(1) ISO - International Organisation of Standards

(2) EMS- Environmental Management System

(3) EIA - Environmental Impact Assessment

(4) WTO - Whole Trade Output

72. The agency, which is not certifying the ISO is

(1) Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), Delhi

(2) Quality Assurance Services (QAS)

(3) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), Delhi

(4) All Indian Inset of Local Self Government, Mumbai

73. Which of the following is an impact of SPM and

RPM?

(1) Obscures vision

(2) Causes cancer

(3) Corrodes metals

(4) Initiates soil pollution

74. What is environment planning?

(1) It is analysis of how people impact natural resources

(2) It is analysis how we can prevent the poaching of our

Environment

(3) It is analysis how we can preserve our biodiversity

(4) None of the above

75. Who spelt out sustainable development?

(1) Finland (3) Bruntland

(2) Ogoniland (4) England

76. Which one of the following is a true statement?

I. All major project plans should be examined to ensure public health and
safety.

II. To ensure purity of environment.

III. To ensure quality of environment.

(1) Only I

(2) II and III

(3) I and III

(4) I, II and III

77. Sustainable Development (SD) is

(1) a mode of human development in which resource use aims to meet human
needs, while preserving the environment so that these needs can be met not
only in the resent, but also for generations to come
(2) a mode of human development in which resource use aims to meet present
human needs only

(3) a mode to preserve forest sources only

(4) a mode to preserve the wild life source

78. What is true objectives about 'eco-mark'?

(1) An eco-labelling scheme

(2) For easy identification for environmental friendly products

(3) To improve the quality of consumer goods

(4) All of the above

79. The eco-mark scheme was launched in the

(1) 1991

(2) 1999

(3) 1987

(4) None of these

80. Which of the following statement is true regarding the objectives of eco-
mark schemes?

I. To reward and give incentives to manufactures in reducing adverse

environmental effect of their products.

II. To assist and aware consumer environmentally responsible while

purchasing products.

III. To encourage consumers to purchase products which are environmentally

friendly.

(1) Only I
(2) II and III

(3) I and III

(4) I, II and III

81. If EIA indicates that another state is likely to be affected the state, in which
EIA is planned has to

(1) transmit to be affected state any relevant information from the EIA
concerning it

(2) keep the relevant information fully secret

(3) handover the information to the central pollution control board

(4) None of the above

82. Assertion (A) Sustainable development is necessary for the survival of the
human race.

Reason (R) Rapid economic growth without environmental concerns cannot be

sustained.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true

83. A management tool comprising a systematic, periodic and objective

evaluation of how well an environmental organisation, management and
equipment are performing is known as

(1) raw material balance

(2) input-output analysis

(3) acurities at site

(4) environmental audit

84. Ecologically sensitive and important areas, breeding and spawning grounds
of marine life are categorised in coastal regulation zone as

(1) CRZ-IV

(2) CRZ-II

(3) CRZ-III

(4) CRZ-IY

85. A company or organisation can go to ISO 14000 certification provided it

has ongoing an environmental management system in operation for at least

(1) 3 months

(2) 6 months

(3) 1 year

(4) 5 years

86. Cost-benefit analysis seeks to analyse cost and benefits of a project in

terms of

(1) monetary gains

(2) social gain/loss

(3) environmental and monetary gains/losses

(4) social and environmental costs and gains

87. A process in which a damaged resource is renewed biologically, structurally

and functionally. Which process is being referred to in the above statement?

(1) EMS
(2) Environmental Rehabilitation

(3) Environmental Restoration

(4) None of the above

88. The impacts caused by construction of dams and reservoirs include

(1) soil erosion

(2) loss of vegetation cover

(3) changes in microclimate

(4) All of the above

89. All major project plans should be examined to ensure

(1) quality of environment

(2) public health and safety

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) None of the above

90. The areas up to the 100 meters around the premises such as hospitals,
educational institutions and courts are

(1) silence zones (3) EMP zones

(2) atrophic zones (4) irrigation zones

91. The agency that has laid down the standards for the control of pollution of
air, water and noise is

(1) Central Pollution Control Tribunal

(2) Central Pollution Control Agency

(3) Ministry of Home Affairs

(4) Central Pollution Control Board

92. The Government clearance on the EIA of India approved

(1) 26 January, 1996 (3) 27 January, 1994

(2) 03 April, 1998 (4) 31 March, 1998

93. The comprehensive legislation that is truly the milestone in the field of
environmental protection was enacted in

(1) 1985

(2) 1987

(3) 1991

(4) 1994

94. The legislation that provides a legal framework the improvement of

environment is

(1) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution Act), 1986

(2) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution Act), 1989

(3) Water Crisis and Pollution Act, 1994

(4) Legislation yet to be declared

95. In which region of Andhra Pradesh leasing is permitted but regulated?

(1) Telangana region

(2) Upper region

(3) Lower region

(4) None of the above

96. Which one of the following is a true statement?

I. On per capita basis, India emitted about 1.4 tones of carbon dioxide per
person.

II. China emit about 1.9 tonnes of carbon dioxide per person.

III. In comparison to India the United States emitted ' 17 tonns per person.

(1) I and II

(2) II and III

(3) I and III

(4) I, II and III

97. Urban planning in India includes the measures such as

(1) construction of roads

(2) construction of bridges

(3) water supply for domestic use, industrial and commercial purposes

(4) All of the above

98. The state in which there are no restrictions on leasing out of land is

(1) Assam

(2) Andhra Pradesh

(3) West Bengal

(4) Punjab
99. Which of the following sentences are true?

I. Environmental planning supplies the management with environmental

database of the units.

II. Environmental audit is the analysis of how people impact natural resources.

III. A simple matrix is assembled by displaying various components of a project

along one axis and the predicted impact on environmental parameters on the
other axis.

(1) II and III

(2) I and II

(3) I, II and III

(4) None of the above

100. Which of the following pairs with respect to WHO standards of maximum
permissible limits of the constituents is correctly matched?

(1) Sodium --0.15

(2) Lead--- 600

(3) Zinc----1.0

(4) Copper--- 1.5

ANSWER KEY

Q.No CORRECT Q.No CORRECT Q.No CORRECT Q.No CORRECT

OPTION OPTION OPTION OPTION
1) 2 26) 4 51) 2 76) 3
2) 4 27) 1 52) 2 77) 1
3) 3 28) 1 53) 3 78) 4
4) 2 29) 1 54) 1 79) 1
5) 2 30) 2 55) 2 80) 4
6) 4 31) 4 56) 1 81) 1
7) 3 32) 4 57) 3 82) 3
8) 4 33) 1 58) 1 83) 4
9) 1 34) 2 59) 1 84) 4
10) 2 35) 3 60) 2 85) 2
11) 1 36) 4 61) 1 86) 3
12) 4 37) 3 62) 2 87) 3
13) 2 38) 4 63) 2 88) 4
14) 3 39) 4 64) 3 89) 4
15) 4 40) 4 65) 3 90) 2
16) 3 41) 4 66) 2 91) 1
17) 1 42) 4 67) 3 92) 1
18) 2 43) 4 68) 2 93) 1
19) 3 44) 1 69) 4 94) 1
20) 3 45) 4 70) 4 95) 1
21) 1 46) 2 71) 4 96) 3
22) 1 47) 2 72) 4 97) 4
23) 1 48) 3 73) 1 98) 1
24) 1 49) 4 74) 1 99) 2
25) 4 50) 2 75) 3 100) 4