Gpat 2020 Achiver 2400 Mcqs Exp - C

2020
MCQs for GPAT,

NIPER, DI,
PHARMACIST
EXAMS
GPAT 2020 ACHIVER
SACHIN R JADHAV
Fundamental Pharmacy
M. Pharm 2013 (Pharmacognosy & Phytochemistry)
Govt. College of Pharmacy, Amravati
Gpat/Niper qualified 3 times
Contact: 976665437 7020960396
SACHIN JADHAV
FUNDAMETAL PHARMACY
01-Jan-20
MCQs for GPAT, NIPER, DI, PHARMACIST EXAMS 2020
1. Epidemiology deals with study of a 4. Which among the options have

highest risk of causing a GI bleed?
A. All health related to events and states
in population A. Celebrex
B. Epidemic disease B. Cimetidine
C. Communicable disease C. Memantine
D. Non-communicable disease D. Indomethacin
2. Proteins is highly present in a 5. Insulin can be described perfectly by
A. Cereals A. A glycoprotein with a molecular

weight of 6000
B. Fruits
B. A small protein with a molecular
C. Eggs
weight of 5808 having disulphide
D. Vegetables linkage
C. A fructo olygosaccharide
3. Which solution will be most irritating D. A catecholamine

to the eye?
A. Purified water
Correct answers with explanation
B. 0.7% NaCl
1. A (the study of distribution and
C. 1% NaCl solution determinants of health related states or
events in specified population and
D. 0.9% NaCl solution
application to manage same).
2. C (eggs are richest source of protein)
2 Sign up www.fundamentalpharmacy.com Whatsapp@ 9766654377

3. A (Eyes can tolarete 0.5-2% NaCl, so D. All of the above

purified water will be most irritating)
4. D (indomethacin is non steroidal anti

3. Malnutrition can be prevented by
inflammatory drug which causes
gastrointestinal bleeding) A. Balanced diet
5. B (insulin hormone consist of 21 B. Fats

amino acid two chains, chain A(21AA),
C. Protein
and chain B(30 AA) connected with
disulfide bond with molecular weight D. Carbohydrates
5805 delton, insulin receptors are
glycoprotein in nature)
4. Most common conditions due to
riboflavin deficiency is
1. Which drug is used to treat Gonorrhea
A. Cheilosis
Mostly?
B. Glosisis
A. Penicillin
C. Angular stomatitis
B. Tetracycline
D. Nasolobial dyssborrhoea
C. Erythromycin
D. Cotrimoxazole
5. Housefly can transmite disease by
A. Mechanically
2. Malaria is transmitted by
B. By participating in life cycle
A. Anapheles mosquito
C. Through its larva
B. Infected needle
D. Through its eggs
C. Blood transfusion

Correct answer with explanation ketone is ………….and addition

reaction occurs in a/an
1. A (penicillins are mostly used for the
treatment of gonorrhea) A. 1,5- deketone; 1,4-fashion
2. A (Malaria is transmitted by female B. α-substituted acetate; 1,2 fashion

anopheles mosquito)
C. β- hydorxy keto; 1,3 – fashion
3. A (malnutrition can be prevented by
D. α, β-keto ester; 1,5 –fashion
giving balanced diet)
4. A (Glosiasis is the most common,

angular cheilitis that is redness of and 3. What is the surface tension of water of
crack at the corners of lips, koilinychia, at 25 C
seboric dermatitis)
A. 58 dyne/cm
5. A (house flies transmits diseases
B. 68 dyne/cm
mechanically)
C. 72 dyne/cm
D. 82 dyne/cm
1. Nerve impulse from the cochlea arrive
first in which region of the brain
A. Auditory cortex 4. Acridine and xanthene rings are

related to each other in that………
B. Thalamus
A. Xanthene is oxygen isoster of
C. Medulla oblongata
acridine
D. Inferior colliculus
B. Acridine is oxygen isoster of
xanthene
2. The product of a Michael reaction of a C. Xanthene is nitrogen isoster of

ketone enolate to ana, b-unsaturated aciridine

D. Xanthene is sulfur isoster os acridine 3. C (exactly 71. 94 is the surface

tension of water at 25°c.)
4. A
5. Colligative properties depend on
5. B (property of solvent that depends
A. Structural arrangement of atoms
upon total no of solute particle present)
within the molecules of solute and
solvent
B. The number of solute particles is 1. Property exploited by

solution electroanalytical technique of
caoulemetry
C. The physical properties of the solute
particles dissolved is solution A. Electric potential
D. Sum of the corresponding properties B. Electrical charge

of individual atoms or functional group
C. Elcectrical current
within the molecules
D. Electrical resistance
Correct answer with explanation

2. Dapsone is used in treatment of which
1. C (the auditory nerve impulse follows
disease
CN VIII en route medula oblongata,
pons, midbrain and thalamus finally to A. Tuberculosis
the auditory cortex)
B. Amoebicide
2. A (conjugate addition of i.e. 1,4
C. Leprosy
addition of resonance stabilized in
enolate to the beta carbon atom of the D. D. Helminthiasis
α, β unsaturated carbonyl compound)

3. Curcmninoids are active constituents 1. B

of
2. C (Dapsone is used in treatment of
A. Squill leprosy)
B. Turmeric 3. B (curcuminoids are the active

constituents of turmeric)
C. Honey
4. B (any change in the normal rhythm
D. Acacia
of heart is known as cardiac arrhythmia)
5. A (yeast is a type of fungus and it is

4. The cardiovascular disease associated classified under fungi)
with the disorder of heart of rhythm is
called
1. Pharmacodynamics not involves the
A. Arrhythmia
study of
B. Myocardial infarction
A. Biological and therapeutic effects of
C. Angina pectoris drugs
D. Ischemia B. Absorption and distribution of drugs
C. Mechanisms of drug action
5. Yeasts are classified under a group of D. Drug interactions
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi 2. Pharmacodynamics involves the study

of?
C. Protozoa
A. Mechanisms of drug action
D. Virus
B. Biotransformation of drugs in the
organism

C. Distribution of drugs in the organism
D. Excretion of drug from the organism

Under common creative copyright @
SACHIN JADHAV
3. Pharmacodynamics gives the ...

5. The term affinity is....
A. Information about main mechanisms
A. Measure of how tightly a drug binds
of drug absorption
to plasma proteins
B. Information about unwanted effects
B. Measure of how tightly a drug binds
C. Information about biological barriers to a receptor
D. Information about excretion of a drug C. Measure of inhibiting potency of a

from the organism drug
D. Measure of bioavailability of a drug
4. Find the correct statement that will

describe term receptor
A. All types of ion channels modulated
1. B (absorption and distribution comes
by a drug
under the pharmacokinetics)
B. Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing
2. A (pharmacodynamics is what the
reactions activated by a drug
drug does to the body that means
C. Active macromolecular components mechanism of action)
of a cell or an organism which a drug
3. A (pharmacodynamics gives the
molecule has to combine with in order to
information about mechanism of drug
elicit its specific effect
action)
D. Carriers activated by a drug

4. C (receptors are macromolecules A. Patents

protein in nature which drugs combines
B. Trademark
and illicit =pharmacological response)
C. Copyright
5. B (affinity of drug is a ability after
two combine or binding with receptor) D. Industrial designs.
1. Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are 4. DOPP test used for the evaluation of
usually mediated by? efficiency of
A. IgE A. Membrane filter
B. IgG B. Seitz filter
C. IgM C. G3 filter
D. Macrophages D. HEPA filters.
2. As per GMP guidelines the permitted 5. Following herb is considered as a

limit of solid in WFI is? valuable neutraceuticals?
A. 100 ppm A. Ginseng
B. 1 ppm B. Senna
C. 10 ppm C. Bael
D. 0.1 ppm D. Cinchona.
3. Which one of the following is not a Correct answers with explanation

type of industrial intellectual property?

1. A (type I hypersensitivity reaction is

also known as immediate
2. Which is not time dependent dilatant
hypersensitivity reaction mediated by
behavior
IgE)
A. Thixotrophy
2. C (WFI it is 10 PPM and for SWFI
20-40 PPM) B. Rheopexy
3. C (patents, trademarks, industrial C. Rheomalaxis

utility design are the industrial
D. Plastic flow
intellectual copyrights, copyright is
issued for author of book, music, films at
computer programs)
3. Consumer protection Act was enacted
4. D (dioctyl phthalate test(DOP) is test in which year?
for checking the integrity, efficiency and
A. 1984
performance of HELA filters)
B. 1986
5. A (ginseng is a valuable nutraceutical
as it contains immune boosting C. 1991
properties, carminative, demulcent,
D. 1996.
minerals etc.)
4. Which from the options is causative

1. What is the source of electron in
agent for mumps
electron microscope?
A. HIV
A. Mercury lamp
B. Paramyxovirus
B. Tungsten wire
C. Polio virus
C. Both of above
D. Hepatitis virus
D. None of the above.

1. Chemical impurities may be present in

solvents and may cause
5. Human blood and blood products
should be stored at A. Instrumental error
A. -20°c B. Operative error
B. 2-8 °c C. Chemical error
C. 8-10°c D. None of the above
D. 0°c
2. Closeness of measurements to actual

value is known as
1. B (tungsten lamp, halogen lamp
quartzs lampare used as a radiation A. Precision
source in electron microscope)
B. Standard deviation
2. D (All our time independent accept
C. Accuracy
option d)
D. Bias
3. B (24th December 1986 consumer
protection act was passed, modified in
15th March 2015)
3. The difference between the
4. B (paramyxovirus parotitis which is experimental mean and a true value is
RNA virus) known as
5. B (human blood and blood products A. Accuracy

should be stored at cool temperature to
B. Relative error
2-8°C )
C. Absolute error
D. Precision

4. B
4. The diviation of data from its mean is 5. A (precision is reproducibility of

generally described by results)
A. Average
B. Standard deviation
SACHIN JADHAV
C. Precision
D. Accuracy
1. Drugs for promotion and free
distribution to the physicians must be
labelled
5. The reproducibility of results of a
number of experiments is generally A. Physician’s sample
known as
B. Not to be sold
A. Precision
C. For personal used
B. Bias
D. Both A and B
C. Accuracy
D. None of the abov

2. Licence for manufacturing of
1. C (chemical error occurs due to cosmetic is required but not required for
impurities present in solvents)
A. Use
2. C (accuracy is closeness the actual
B. Sale
value)
C. Possession
3. C (difference between measured value
and absolute value is known as absolute D. Transhipment
error)

3. Separate and special licence is

required for the retail sale of which
schedule
1. D (if drug is for free distribution to
A. Schedule H
doctors and it should be labelled as
B. Schedule G physicians sample not to be sold)
C. Schedule Y 2. B (licence formanufacturing of

cosmetic is required but not required in a
D. Schedule X
specialized equation to sale)
3. D (special licence is required to send

4. Which type of product testing is the schedule x drug)
carried out at the Indian pharmacopoeial
4. C (mechanical contraceptives were
laboratory ghaziabad
tested at ghaziabad laboratory)
A. Polio vaccine
5. D (misbranded drugs, spurious drugs,
B. Blood products adulterated drugs are prohibited to
imported in India)
C. Condoms
D. Bacterial preparations
1. Which impurities present in
commercial copper sulphate
5. Which kind of drug are prohibited to
A. Iron
import in India
B. Lead
A. Adulterated drugs
C. Arsenic
B. Misbranded drugs
D. Sulphate
C. Spurious drugs
D. All of the above

2. Which of the following is used to 5. Which compound prevent the

store sodium metal in laboratory supersaturation of barium sulphate in the
limit test for sulphate
A. Water
A. Barium sulphat
B. Alcohol
B. Alcohol
C. Kerosene
C. Potassium sulphate
D. Ether
D. None of the above
3. In the limit test for chloride standard

solution is made from
SACHIN JADHAV
A. NaCl2
B. KCl2
1. B (lead always present as impurity in
C. BaCl2 commercial copper sulphate)
D. CaCl2 2. C (sodium metal is stored in kerosene

because when it comes in contact with
air or water it form sodium hydroxide
4. What is the composition of barium which has high energy and it gets brust)
reagent
3. A (standard solution for limit test of
A. Barium sulphate chloride is made from NaCl ,1 ml of
0.05 847 % sodium chloride)
B. Suphate free alcohol
4. D (barium sulphate, water, sulphate
C. Potassium sulphate
free alcohol and Potassium sulphate all
D. All of the above this together is barium reagent as per the
modified test in IP. Potassium sulphate
is used to increase the sensitivity.)

5. B (alcohol keeps reagent in D. Hydrogen chloride

supersaturated from)
4. Official limit for arsenic in

1. All the reagents in limit test for magnesium oxide is
arsenic are labelled as
A. 10 ppm
A. FeT
B. 7 ppm
B. AsT
C. 5 ppm
C. PbT
D. 3 ppm
5. Calcium gluconate is insoluble in

2. Physico-chemical parameter
A. Alcohol
prescribed in pharmacopoeia for barium
sulphate B. Hot water
A. Bulkiness C. Cold water
B. Swelling power D. Acetone
C. Coarse particles
D. Absolution power
SACHIN JADHAV
3. Lead acetate wool is used in the
arsenic limit test to absorb
1. B (all recent used for limit test of
A. Arsenious hydride
arsenic denoted by {As T} which
B. Sulphur dioxide indicate that they are free from arsenic

and themselves should comply the limit
C. Hydrogen sulphide
test of arsenic)
2. A (barium sulphate is used as D. Red

diagnostic enema bulkiness is the
pharmacopeia standard)
3. C (to absorb hydrogen sulphide gas

and to permit arsenious hydrogen gas)
SACHIN JADHAV
4. C
5. A (soluble slowly in water in soluble 3. Modified Gutzeit test is related with

in organic solvent and alcohol) limit test of
A. Arsenic
1. Thioglycollic acid is used is involved B. Sulphate

in limit test for
C. Iron
A. Sulphate
D. Chloride
B. Iron
C. Chloride
4. Thioglycollic acid gives purple colour
D. Arsenic with iron salt in
A. Acid medium
2. Which colour stain produced by B. Alkaline medium

Hydrogen sulphide gas on the mercuric
C. Neutral medium
chloride paper
A. Brown
B. Green
5. Which heavy metals present as
C. Yellow
impurities in pharmaceuticals

A. Silver, gold
B. Mercury, lead 2. In the limit test for lead, the original

colour of dithizone in chloroform is
C. Bismuth, arsenic
A. Violet
D. All of the above
B. Green
1. B (reaction of iron with thioglycolic
acid amonical solution in presence of C. Yellow
citric acid you form iron thioglycolate
D. Pink
wich produces pale pink to deep raddosh
purple in alkaline medium)
2. C (yellow stain is produced on paper)
3. A (Guitzet apparatus is related to 3. Hydrogen sulphide when added to

arsenic limit test) lead nitrate, the solution gives
4. B (alkaline medium ammonium sol A. White precipitate

used)
B. Red precipitate
5. D
C. Brown precipitate
D. Orange precipitate
1. What is the final colour observed in
limit test fro lead
4. The ionic product of water is denoted
A. Green
by
B. Purple
A. Ka
C. Violet
B. Kb
D. Yellow
C. Kw

D. Pka A. Alcohol
B. Charas
5. One millimole(mM) is equivalent to C. Cocaine
A. 0.1 M D. Ecstasy
B. 0.1 M
C. 0.001 M 2. Main source of sulphur in the body

from which amino acid
D. 0.0001 M
A. Cystine and methionine
B. Taurine and alanine

1. C (the test is based on the reaction of
lead and diphenylthiocarbazone C. Proline and hydroxyproline
(dithiazone) in alkaline medium original
D. Arginine and lysine
colour of diathiazone in chloroform is
green and colour of lead diathiazone
complex is violet.)
3. What is the function of restriction
2. B (as discussed above) endonucleases in genetic engineering?
3. C (brown coloured precipitate) A. Cut DNA at various sites
4. C (ionic product of water is given by B. Join DNA segments

Kw)
C. Cut RNA at specific sites
5. C (1 mol=1000 mmol)
D. Cut DNA at specific sites
1. Magnan’s symptoms are related with

4. One of the following is known as
poisoning of
pellagra protecting factor

A. Riboflavin 3. D (restriction endonucleases cut the

DNA at specific sites and prevent the
B. Pentothenic acid
replication)
C. Niacin
4. C (deficiency in metabolic pathway of
D. Pyridoxine niacin causes pellagra)
5. A (Latin chi square design is used to

measure the bioavailability two or more
5. For determination of bioavailability of
formulations)
more than two formulation which
method is used
A. Latin square design 1. Which mouse model used for type I

diabetes mellitus evaluation
B. Statistical method
A. NZB mouse
C. Analysis of variance
B. SCID mouse
D. Direct method
C. Nude mouse
D. NOD mouse
1. C (it is related with cocaine addiction,
tactile sensation, hallucinations, loss of
libido, impotence, filling of sand
2. Main function of cholesterol in the
awesome small insect under the skin)
biological membrane is
2. A (cystine and methionine and
A. Rigidity
sulphur containing amino acid and are
primary source of sulphur for human B. Fluidity
body)
C. Permeability
D. Osmolality

D. Colchicine
3. Active site for all serine proteases

consists of which pair of amino acid
1. D (NOD (non obese diabetes) mouse
A. Ser-Glu-Asp and BB biobreading ratsare the trains
that develop spontaneous insulitis
B. Ser-Glu-Met
diabetes similar to type 1 of diabetes in
C. Ser-His-Asp humans.)
D. Ala-Glu-Met 2. B (cholesterol maintains fluidity and

stability in biological membrane)
3. C (serine, histidine, aspartic acid these

4. Which of the following is selective α2
are amino acids present at the active site
selective antagonist
of serine protease)
A. Clonidine
4. D (yohimbine is selective alpha 2
B. Prozocin antagonist)
C. Phentalamine 5. D (colchicine is used to induce

polyploidy in plants)
D. Yohimbine
1. The reaction of TCA cycle most
similar to the pyruvate dehydrogenase
5. All are protoplast fusion agent except complex catalyzed conversion of
pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is the conversion
A. Incacitivated Sendai Virus
of
A. Citrate to isocitrate
B. Ca++ at alkaline pH
B. Fumarate to malate
C. Polythelen glycol
C. Malate to oxaloacetate

D. α-ketogultarate to succinyl-CoA 4. Palmitic, oleic or stearic acid ester of

cholesterol used manufacturing of
A. Oleo oil
2. Which pairs of lipid compounds
exbibit opposite biological action B. Lanoline
A. 5-HPETE & leukotriene D4 C. Spermaceti
D. Chaulmoogra oil
B. Cholic acid & Lithocholic acid
C. Nuramic acid &Neuraminidase

5. What is needed for suspensions,
Inhibitors
lotions, emulsions, creams and ointments
D. Acetone & β-hydroxybutyprate to keeps a high container consistency
and yet pour and spread easily when
needed. It also is satisfactory for IM
3. Human immunodeficiency why slow release yet easy to inject
doesn't doesn't respond to which class
A. Thinxotropy
antiviral drugs
B. Rheopecty
A. Nucleoside analogues
C. Rheology
B. Protease inhibitors
D. Newtonian flow
C. Neuraminidase inhibitors
D. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

1. D (conversion of α-ketogultarate to
succinyl-CoA is a similar reaction like
conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA )
SACHIN JADHAV
2. C

3. C (they are active against influenza

virus like oseltamivir, zamnavir.)
3. Which antiviral agent in not a
4. B (Palmitic, oleic or stearic acid ester nucleoside analog
of cholesterol are the components of
A. Moroxidin
lanolin also known as hydrous wool fat)
B. Vidarabine
5. A (viscosity is decreased as a function
of time at constant share rate, example C. Cytarabine
paraffin, creams & gels.)
D. Idoxuridine
1. Which NDDS system liberate the
active ingredient through a special hole,
prepared by laser 4. Find out wrong statement regarding
two compartment pharmocokenitics
A. TTS patches
A. A drug is always removed from the
B. IUD systems
peripheral compartment
C. OCUSERT systems
B. A drug with a high volume of
D. OROS systems distribution is likely to be lipophilic
C. A drug can have a short duration of

action while being eliminated very
2. Which of following chromatographic
slowly
technique is most suitable for small,
nonvolatile water-insoluble solutes? D. Most anesthetic drugs are modelled
well with a two-compartment model
A. GC
B. Reverse phase LC
5. Phenothiazie can be synthesized
C. Normal phase LC
.........with sulfur
D. SEC
A. Cyclization of dibenzyl

B. Cyclization of diphenyl amine C. Prednisone
C. Reduction of diphenyl amine D. Nitrofurantoin
D. Reduction of dibenzyl amine
2. Which amongst the options is a non-

aqueous binder
A. Ethyl cellulose
1. D (two types of models are there in
osmotic pump 1. Mechanical drill, 2. B. Starch
Laser drill Co2 laser beam is used)
C. Veegum
2. B (reverse phase chromatography is
D. Bentonite
used for small non water soluble
component in which stationary phase is
nonpolar)
3. Which drug is advised to be
3. A (moroxinidine is non-nucleoside administerd on an empty stomach
analogue)
A. Cannbichromene
4. A
B. Cannabinol
5. B (cyclization of diphenylamine using
C. Cannabidiol
sulphur or iodine will result in
phenothiazine) D. Tetrahydorcannabinol
1. Which amongst the option is advised

to take on empty stomach SACHIN JADHAV
A. Naproxen
4. If one mmole of glucose and two
B. Levothyroxine mmoles of NaCl are dissolved in 1 kg of

the water, what will be the osmolality of 2. A (ethyl cellulose is insoluble in water
resulting solution soluble in alcohol and it in a 5% as a
Binder, it is mostly used in case of
A. 3 mOsm
moisture sensitive drugs as a Binder)
B. 4 mOsm
3. B
C. 5 mOsm
4. C (2 mmol NaCl is =4 +1 mmol of
D. 6 mOsm glucose)
5. C
5. Optimum revolution per minute

(RPM) of the ball mill is given by
1. Which basic thing is present in
A. 23-28 √D where D means the Vitamin K
diameter of jar
A. Hdroquinone
B. Two times more than the critical
B. Nathphaquinone
revolution per minute
C. Lonone
C. 42.3 √D (D=diameter of the jar)
D. Denzimidazole
D. The average of critical RPM and the
optional RPM
2. Which act passed by US government

to balance intellectual property
protection, competition and access to
1. B (it is administered on empty affordable prescription drug.
stomach to avoid interference by food
A. Drug Price Competition act
sucralfate iron and Calcium also reduce
absorption aap levothyroxine)
B. Patent term Restroration act

C. Hatch-Waxman act B. α adrenoceptor agonitst
C. β Adrenocepotor agonists and

D. Orphan Drug Act antagonists
D. ACE inhibitors
3. Gridnard test is used for the detection

of
A. Falavonoids
1. B (napthaquinone is basic ring present
B. S- gyycosides in vitamin K)
C. Cyanogenetic glycosides 2. C (Hatch-waxman act also known as

drug price competition and patent term
D. O-glycosides
Restoration act enacted in 1984)
3. C (Grignard reaction are also known

4. Which hormone is antagonistic to the as sodium picrate testused for
parathyroid hormone identification of cynogenetics glycoside)
A.Triiodothyronine 4. D (calcitonin is antagonistic to the

parathyroid hormone)
B. Insulin
5. B (all other categories drugs are used
C. Estrogen
in CHF except Alpha agonist)
D. Calcitronin
1. If in compound –OH group and –OR

5. Following categories drugs can be group bonded to the same carbon atom it
used in heart failure except is known as
A. Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitors A. An acetal

B. A hemicacetal 4. If a sugar contains………… fuction, it

is a reducing sugar
C.A simple ether
A. Hemiacetal
D. An aldol
B. Acetal
C. Aldehyde
2. The reaction of Grignard reagent with
aldehydes and ketones gives alcohols D. Ketal
which is
A. Nucleophilic addition reaction

5. What is adverse effect of cerivastatin
A. Higher risk of rhabdomyolysis

B. Necleophillic substitution reaction
C. Electrophllic substitution reaction

B. Anaphylaxis
D. Electrophilic addition reaction
C. CNS disorder
3. No of moles of phenylthdrazine reacts D. Hemolytic anemia

with monosaccharide in the Ozone
formation test
1. B (an aldehyde or Ketone reacts with
A. 1
alcohol 1:1 to give a hemiacetal or
B. 2 hemiketal respectively)
C. 3 2. A (nucleophilic addition reaction of

aldehyde and ketones are converted into
D. 4
alcohol using Grignard reagent reaction
is Irreversible and intermediate is
carbanion)

3. C (three molecules of 2. Prazosin can block the ......action of

phenylhydrazine reacts with noradrenaline but propranolol cannot.
monosaccharide to form respective
A. Increased heart rate
osazone and aniline, ammonia, water as
a byproduct)
B. Mydriasis
4. A (hemiacetal or hemiketal is
necessary function for the reducing C. Relases of rennin
sugar, in case of non reducing Sugars
D. Glycogenolysis
these functions are locked that is they
are involved in Bond formation)
5. A (Rhabdomyolysis is a muscle ache 3. Which vasodilator is obtained from

that is degeneration muscle and arginine
weakness of muscle also called
A. Bradykinin
mayopathy the drug cerivastatin is
withdrawn in 2001 from market because B. Atrial natriuretic peptide
of this side effect)
C. Nitrous oxide
D. L- Citrulline
1. Most widely used agent for the
4. Which test is known as test for
treatment of acute gout arthritis?
digitoxose
A. Indemethacin
A. Keller Kiliani’s
B. Allopurinol
B. Kedde’s reagent
C. Colchicine
C. Raymond’s reagent
D. Probenecid
D. Baljet’s reagent

5. Calculate the total clearance if Vd for B. Meclofenamate

phenytoin is 70 L and half life is 1.5
C. Indomethacin
hours
D. Acetaminophen
A. 34.32 L/h
B. 32.34 L/h
2. Chlorpromazine (pKa = 9.3) exiting in
C. 151.5 L/h
ionized form in a solution of
D. 51.51 L/h chlorpromazine hydrochloride at pH 7.4,
what will be the % ionization
A. 98.76
B. 1.24
1. C (colchicine is used in treatment of
acute gout arthritis it is NSAIDs used C. 0.32
when beginning of uric acid lowering
D. 99.68
drugs)
2. B
3. Which of the following is a GLP-1
3. C (No nitric oxide is metabolite of
agonist
arginine)
A. Sitagliptin
4. A (Keller killani test for digitoxose )
B. Pramiltide
5. B (t½= (0.693×vd)/Cr use this
formula) C. Exenatide
D. Eparlrestat
1. Which drug has hepatic & renal toxic

metabolite, N-acetyl-p-benzoquione
A. Diclofenac

4. Which is mechanism of aprotinin 4. C (it inhibits several protease enzymes

amongst options and plasmin, anticoagulant now
withdrawn from market because of
A. Inhibits Corboxypeptidase
cardiotoxicity)
B. Inhibits Plasminogen
5. B (absolute alcohol is prepared by
C. Inhibits plasmin azeotropic distillation)
D. Inhibits plasminogen activator
1. Which of the following is interleukin

antagonist
5. Which method is used for preparation
of absolute alcoho from spirit A. Aldesleukin
A. Distillation B. Rituximab
B. Azeotropic distillation C. Anakinra
C. Fractional distillation D. Etarecept
D. All of the above
2. An extension of the normal

pharmacological effects of a drug or its
metabolite comes under
1. D (N acetyl para benzoquinone is
A. Type A ADR
toxic metabolite of Paracetamol)
B. Type B ADR
2. A (% ionization at given PH
=100/(1+Antilog pH - pka) C. Type C ADR
3. C (exsenatide, lixisenatide, liraglutide, D. Type D ADR

dulaglutide, albiglutide,are the examples
of currently available GLP1 R agonist)

3. Which parameter is important in B. Geranyl farnesyl pyrophosphate

determining bioequivalence
C. Coloring material
A. Tmax
B. Cmax D. Degraded products of trierpenes
C. AUC and Cmax
D. All of the above Correct answers with explanation
1. A (Aldeslukin is Recombinant version

of interleukin 2)
2. A (Type A also known as augmented

4. What are known as balsams
is a extension of pharmacological
A. Resins dissolved in volatile oil response of drugs eg. Hypoglycemia by
insulin)
B. A mixture of volatile oils with 3. D (the parameters compared for

sesquiterpenes determining the bioequivalence are
AUC, Cmax, T-max etc)
C. Solidified resin devoid of votatile
terpenes 4. C ( resins +benzoic acid or cinnamic
acid are the balsams)
D. Polysaccharide mixed with volatile
oil 5. B (various terpenoids aur
biosynthesized from Geranyl furnesyl
pyrophosphate)
5. Sesquiterpenes are biosynthesized
from .....in plants
1. Which AT-II receptor antagonists
A. Farnesyl-pyrophosphate
(SARTANs) does not possess tetrazole
moiety in its structure

A. Losartan 4. What does the Hammett substituent

constant (σ) measure
B. Irbesartan
A. The steric effect of a substituent
C. Telmisartan
D. Valsartan
B. The electronic effect of a substituent
C. The hydrophobic effect of a

2. Van Deemter plot in relation with substituent
chromatography gives information about
D. The effect on pH of a substituent
A. Optimum selectivity factor
B. Optimum mobile phase flow rate

5. All are ex-officio member of
C. Optimum column temperature pharmacy council of India except
D. The capacity factor A. The director general of health

services
B. The director of central drugs

3. Brockman activity Scale’ is related
laboratory
with characterization of
C. The drugs controller general of India
A. Stationary phase
B. Mobile Phase
D. The director of Pharmacopoeia
C. Buffer System used Laboratory
D. Column specification Correct answers with explanation
1. C (losartan, irbesartan, valsartan,

candesartan examples sentence with
tetrazole moity, telmisartan does not
contain tetrazole in its structure)

2. B (Van deemter plot gives the relation B. Sesquiterpene alcohol

of optimum flow rate of mobile phase in
C. Aliphatic alcohol
the chromatography)
D. Phenylpropene
3. A (Brockman activity scale is related
to add salt used in stationary phase) 3. Which cofactor or vitamin is involved
in carboxylation of pyruvate to form
4. B (Hemmett constant measures the
oxaloacetate?
effect of substitution on pharmacophore
by electron donating or electron A. Thiamine
withdrawing groups)
B. Biotin
5. D (the director of Pharmacopoeia
C. Pyridoxine
laboratory is not a x official member of
Pharmacy Council of India) D. Niacin
1. Mean arterial pressure is calculated as
A. Systolic pressure – Diastolic Pressure
B. (Diastolic pressure + Diastolic

4. Metrogyl suspension follows which
Prssure )/2
degradation reaction order order
C. Diastotic pressure+ (1/3) x pulse
A. Zero
pressure
B. Second
D. Stroke valume X heart rate
C. First
D. Pseudo first
2. Eugenol active constituent of clove
which is
A. Monoterpene alcohol

5. Which diuretic drug causes decrease A. Ropinorole

in release of insulin?
B. Pirebidil
A. Chlorothiazide
C. Pramipixole
B. Ethacynic acid
D. Rotigotine
C. Triamterene
D. Acetazolamide
2. The enzyme EC 3.2.1.1. is
A. α-amulase
B. Alainine
1. mean arterial pressure = to diastolic
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
pressure + 1/ 3 pulse pressure)
D. DNA ligase
2. D (eugenol is Ortho methoxyphenol
propene, it is found in clove and
Eucalyptus oil it is used as dental
3. Which one amongst the options is
analgesic)
strong inhibitor of stomatal opening
3. B (pyruvate carboxylase enzyme EC
A. Auxin
6.4. 1.1 is biotin dependent enzyme
converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate) B. Bytokinin
4. A (actually suspension degrades by C. Gibberellin

pseudo zero order reaction)
D. Abscisic acid
5. B
1. Identify dopamine agonists with

4. Drug concentration in plasma is
tetralin ring in its structure
10mg, concentration in urine is 100 mg

and urine flow is 2 ml/min what will be hydrolyzes the stars, glycogen and
the renal clearance related polysaccharides randomly
hydrolyzes at α-1-4 glycosidic linkage)
A. 0.02 ml/min
3. D (it is a growth inhibitor inhibits the
B. 0.2 ml/min
growth of stomata and opening of
C. 2ml/min stomata under stress condition)
D. 20 ml/min 4. D (volume of drug in urine ×urine

flow/plasma drug concentration)
5. A (main aim of pharmacovigilance is

5. Which one is the function of
to monitor the adverse drug reaction and
pharmacovigilance
toxicity)
A. To monitor drug toxicity
1. If the wavelength is 280 nm, what will

B. To monitor unauthorized drug
be the energy of radiation
manufacture
A. 110 kcal / mol
C. To monitor rational use of drugs
B. 100 kjoule / mol
D. To check and control drug costs C. 100 kcal / mol
D. 180 kcal / mol
1. D (it is non-ergolinic dopamine 2. A record of amount of light absorbed

receptor agonist to D2,D3,D4,D5 agonist by the sample as a function of the
and 5HT1a agonist). wavelength of light is called as
2. A (α-amulase or EC 3.2.1.1or 1,4 α-D A. Excitation band

gucan glucano hydrelase or endomylase

B. Adsorption band B. Thickness of the absorbing medium
C. Electronic band C. Intensity of the absorbing medium
D. Absorption band
D. Radiation
3. Region is known as far uv region if it

consist of wavelength more than Correct answers:
A. Above 200 nm 1. C
B. Below 200 nm 2. D (
C. 200 nm 3. D
D. 400 nm 4. D
4. Identify the equation which is related 5. A

to Lambert's law.
A. dI/dx = kI
B. dI/dx = -kI
1. What is the mechanism involved in
C. -dx/dI = kI spectrophotometer
D. -dI/dx = kI A. Refraction of light
B. % Absorbance of light
5. The value k = absorption coefficient C. % Transmittance of light

depends upon
D. Diffraction of light
A. Nature of the absorbing medium

2. Which one is most suitable radiation 5. Triplet state is more stable than
source for UV spectroscopy? excited singlet state the reason behind
this is
A. Hydrogen lamp
B. Carbon arc lamp source

A. Electron-Electron attraction is low
C. Nernst glower
D. Radio frequency source

B. Electron-Orbital repulsion is low
C. Electron-Electron repulsion is high

3. If wavelength region is less than 200
mμ in UV Spectroscopy it is referred as
D. Electron-Electron repulsion is low
A. Flushing UV region
B. Forbidden UV region
C. Vacuum UV region
1. B (a plot of wavelength against %
D. Dispersion UV region absorbance is UV spectrum)
2. A (hydrogen discharge lamps are

stable and robust I need the light near
4. Spin of electrons are paired in higher
UV region)
energy state then it is referred as
3. C (UV region below 100-200 nm is
A. Excited doublet state
known as vacuum UV & 200-400 is
B. Excited singlet state called near UV)
C. Excited quadruplet state 4. B (spin of electron is paid at higher

energy state in excited singlet state)
D. Excited triplet state

5. D (spin off electrons in excited state B. R band

are parallel parallel and having low
C. E band
energy in case of triplet state)
D. B band
1. R band in the aromatic compounds is

also known as 4. E2 band of E- 2 are the characteristics
of aromatic structure which appears at
A. Forbidden bands
A. Longer wavelength
B. Transition bands
B. Shorter wavelength
C. Step up bands
C. Longer wave number
D. Cyclic bands
D. Shorter wave number
2. π ⟶ π* transition in aromatic or
hetero- aromatics will result in 5. Which impurity is found in
commercial ethanol
A. K band
A. Phenanthracene
B. B band
B. Anthracene
C. E band
C. Benzene
D. R band
D. Terpenes
3. Which one of these band appears at

longer wavelength in case of aromatic Correct answers with explanation
compound
1. A (unsaturated compound containing
A. K band heteroatom intensity below 100 also

called Forbidden transition due to n-π* D. Dienes

transition)
2. B (double bond containing aromatic

2. IR spectroscopy scanning will reveal
or hetero automatic molecule intensity is
the information about
more than R-band, due to π-π*
transition) A. Molecular weight
3. D (B bands are observed at longer B. Structure

wavelength in aromatic heteroaromatic
C. Number of signals
compound)
D. Number of peaks
4. A (E1 lower wavelength E2 longer
wavelength)
5. C (benzene is present as impurity in 3. What is the range of IR region

commercial ethanol preparation)
A. 2.5μ -15μ
B. 0.8μ-2.5μ
C. 15μ-200μ
D. 2.5μ-200μ
4. What is the range of near IR region

1. Which one of the followinng yellow
A. 1200 cm-1 — 4000 cm-1
in colour and is isomer of benzene
B. 12100cm-1— 4000 cm-1
A. Flavaonoid
C. 12500cm-1— 4000 cm-1
B. Fulvene
D. 667cm-1— 50 cm-1
C. Terpenes

A. Wet Packing technique
5. If the range of IR region is between B. Dry Packing technique

15μ- 200 μ then it is known as
C. Both a & b are correct
A. Far IR region
D. Solvent packing technique
B. Near IR region
C. IR region
2. Which is most efficient packing
D. Shorter IR region technique used for packing of column
A. Wet Packing technique
Correct answers with explanation B. Solvent packing technique
1. B (Benzvalen, Fulven, Bicyclo [2.2.0 C. Dry Packing technique

]hexa 2,5 diene, Prisman are the isomers
D. Both a & c are correct
of benzene)
2. B (IR Spectroscopy gives information

about the molecule and its functional 3. Which material is used to pack bottom
group) portion of column
3. A (2.5-15μ is considered to be for A. Cotton wool

most of analysis)
B. Glass wool
4. C
C. Asbestos pad
5. A (it is known as for IR region)
D. All the above
1. Air bubble Entrapment is a problem

associated with which packing technique
of column.

4. Which property of solvent remains 3. B (glass wool is used at the bottom of

constant throughout the analysis in column during packing of columnwhich
isocratic elution allows the mobile Phase to drain out but
not the stationary phase)
A. Concentration
4. A (in case of isocratic elution
B. Polarity
composition of mobile page does not
C. Viscosity change throughout the analysis)
D. Dipolar moment 5. A (in case of gradient elution

technique composition of mobile phase
changes during analysis with increasing
5. Which property of solvent is kept by order of polarity of mobile phase which
increasing in gradient elution technique also increases the analysis time or
runtime)
A. Polarity
B. Concentration
C. Viscosity
1. Which are two variables to examine
D. Dipolar moment
permeability coefficient
A. Pressure and surface area

B. Viscosity and surface area
1. B (during the dry packing of column
C. Porosity and surface area
as adsorbent powder is poured in column
and solvent is poured, entrapment of air D. Both A and B
bubbles occurs in this procedure)
2. A (wet packing technique for the

2. What is mechanism of size reduction
column chromatography is mostly used
involved in Fluid Energy Mill
and is efficient)

A. Impact Pressure A. Ball mill
B. Attrition and impact B. Cutter mill
C. Cutting C. Revolving mill
D. None of the above D. Hammer mill
3. Which mill is used for size reduction Correct answers with explanation
of soft material
1. C
A. Ball Mill
2. B
B. Roll mill
3. D
C. Revolving mill
4. C
D. Both A and B
5. A
4. Which dryer is used for drying of

antibiotic solution
A. Drum dryer
B. Fluidized bed dryer

1. Suspension of kaolin is dried using
C. Sprar dryer
which dryer
D. Freeze dryer
A. Freeze dryer
B. Drum dryer
5. Particle size in range 1-100 µm is
C. Spray dryer
product of which mill

D. Both A and B B. Tangential flow
C. Radial flow
2. Transferring groups of adjacent D. Both A and C

particles from one location in the mass
to another is called as
5. which mixture is used for mixing of
A. Diffusive mixing
semi solids
B. Shear mixing
A. Fluidized bed mixer
C. Convective mixing
B. Rotating cube mixer
D. Both A and B
C. Planetary mixer
D. All the above

3. Freeze dryer is used for one of the
following
A. Tablet granules
1. B (drum dryer is suitable for drying of
B. Gelatin
suspension solution of various material
C. Antibiotic solution like starch suspension ferrous products
and kaolin suspension)
D. Both A and C
2. C (convective mixing or macro
mixing involve the moment of larger
particles from one place to another
place)
4. Flow which is perpendicular to the
impeller shaft is called as 3. C (freeze dryer is used for
thermolabile substances) check option B
A. Longitudinal or axial flow
once

4. C (Flow that's perpendicular to the 3. Which one of the following drug

impeller short is known as radial flow) causes anranulocytosis
5. C (planetary mixer and Sigma blade A. Pimozide

mixer are used for mixing of semi
B. Clozapine
solids)
C. Risperidone
D. Olanzapine
1. Buspirone anti anxiety drug has one of
the following property
A. Is effective in treating depression 4. Identify false statement about

aripiprazole except
B. Is cross-tolerant with benzodiazepines
A. Only antipsychotic with D1 agonistic
C. Does not produce significant levels of
activity
sedation
B. It has 5HT1A antagonistic action
D. Is a benzodiazepine
C. It has maximum sedating potential
2. Typical antipsychotics acta on

D. It is the drug of choice in treatment of
......most commonly
acute mania
A. D1 receptor
B. D2 receptor
5. Which of the following terms is not
C. D3 receptor used for treatment of akathisia
D. D4 receptor A. Trihexyphenidyl
B. Diazepam
C. Haloperidol

D. Promethazine 1. Which antipsychotic drug has sedation

but no extra pyramidal side effect
A. Clozapine
B. Pimozide
1. C (first Azaspirone class of anti
anxiety agent, unrelated to C. Fluphenazine
benzodiazepine, does not produce
D. Haloperidol
significant sedation and cognitive
impairment. it is used in treatment of
chronic generalized anxiety disorder
2. Which antipsychotic drug is
GAD)
considered as having least extra
2. B (typical or conventional pyramidal side effects
antipsychotics acts on D2 receptor)
A. Triflupromazine
3. B (Clozapine, tricyclic antidepressant,
B. Thioridazine
carbamazepine, chlorpromazine,
valproic acid proven to cause C. Pimozide
granulocytosis)
D. Trifluperazine
4. C (it is D1 receptor agonist antagonist
to the histamine and 5 HT1A
receptor,used as monotherapy or 3. Which of the following considered as
adjacent therapy in acute Mania and antipsychotic drug
mixed disorders)
A. Doxepin
5. C (all options are used except
B. Fluoxetine
haloperidol father statement of akathisia)
C. Clozapine
D. All of the above

4. Which neurotransmitter is involved in 3. C (Clozapine is classified on the

mechanism of action of haloperidol antipsychotic drugs)
A. Adrenaline 4. C (Haloperidol is D1 & D2 i.e.

dopamine receptor blocker)
B. Glutamate
5. B (they as antiemetic property bcz D1,
C. Dopamine
D2 blocking)
D. Non adrenergic receptor

5. Identify true statement regarding SACHIN JADHAV
typical antipschotics
A. Increases seizure threshold 1. Which drug is used in epilepsy as well

as migraine
B. Antiemetic property
A. Topiramate
C. Pruritic effect
B. Lamotrigine
D. Diarrhea
C. Carbamazepine
D. Vigabatrin
1. A (Clozapine does not have

extrapyramidal side effects rest of the 2. Toxic epidermal necrosisis most
drugs have, from options, Haloperidol & common side effect of
Fluphenazine has very high incidence of
A. Carbamazepine
extrapyramidal side effects)
B. Valproate
2. B (Thioridazineis atypical
antipsychotic Agent having least C. Phenytoin
extrapyramidal side effects)

D. Gabapentine
D. Depression
3. Weight loss is adverse effect of which

anticonvulsant
A. Gabapentin
1. A (topiramate is used as
B. Oxacarbazepine anticonvulsant as well as in migraine it
prolongs the blockage of sodium channel
C. Topiramate
and enhances the activity of GABA)
D. Valproic acid
2. C (phenytoin has adverse effect of
Stevenson Johnson Syndrome or toxic
epidermal necrosis)
4. Mechanism of action of
Carbamzepine is 3. C (topiramate as a side effect of
cognitive dysfunction and weight loss)
A. Prolongation of inactivated state of
Na+ channels 4. A (carbamazepine is Sodium channel
blockers and also preventer release of
B. Facilitates GABA
excitatory neurotransmitters like
C. Inhibition of Ca2+ channels glutamate)
5. A (Falbamate is antiepileptic drug acts

D. NMDA receptor blockade by blocking the NMDA and glutamate
receptor also protect the action of
GABA)
5. The drug Felbamate is used in one of
the following disease
1. Ethanol has therapeutic use in
A. Epilepsy
Ethylene glycol poisoning because
B. Anxiety
A. Competition for metabolism at
C. Social phobia Alcohol dehydrogenase

B. Competition for metabolism at 4. Disulfiram is drug used to treat

Aldehyde dehydrogenase alcoholism what is mechanism of
disulfiram
C. Competition metabolism at NADPH
oxidase A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
D. Non-competitive inhibition of B. Aldehyde dehydrogenase

Aldehyde dehydrogenase
C. G6PD
D. Acetate dehydrogenase
2. Which is a drug of choice in alcohol
withdrawal
5. When disulfiram is given to alcoholic
A. TFP
patient dizziness, nausea, vomiting,
B. Chlormethazole increase the blood pressure is a result of
accumulation of
C. Chlordiazepoxide
A. Acetaldehyde
D. Buspirone
B. Acetate
C. Methanol
3. One of the following drug is used as
anti craving agent in alcohol dependence D. NADH
A. Naltrexone
B. Methadone Correct answers with explanation
C. Vareniciline 1. A (ethanol and fomipizole compete

with ethylene glycol for metabolism by
D. Rimonabant
alcohol dehydrogenase)
2. C (Benzodiazepines are the drug of

choice in alcohol withdrawalthey

significantly decreases the delirium and B. Quetiapine

seizures)
C. Aripiprazole
3. A (naltrexone, acamprosate,
D. Risperidone
topiramate are used as anticraving agent
in alcohol withdrawal, disulfiram ia for
aversion)
3. Prolonged use of which of the
4. A (Disulfiram or it is also called following anticonvulsants can produce
Antabuse is aldehyde dehydrogenase weight loss
inhibitor,bhai ne Patang aldehyde
A. Gabapentin
dehydrogenase heat causes rise in
aldehyde concentration in blood and B. Oxcarbazepine
tissue which is known as distress
C. Topiramate
aldehyde syndrome)
D. Valproic acid
5. A (as discussed in option for 4)
1. One of the following drug is not used

in alcohol dependence treatment 4. One of the following is
partialagonisticto receptor
A. Disulfiram
A. Buspirone
B. Acamprosate
B. Carboline
C. Naltrexone
C. Flumazenil
D. Phenytoin
D. Zolpidem
2. Which one of the following causes

least sedation 5. Which of the following phenothiazine
is also used as antiemetic agent
A. Olanzapine

A. Chlorpromazine
B. Promethazine 1. Which one of these drug is a drug of

choice in bipolar disorder
C. Trifluoperazine
A. Carbamazepine
D. Fluphenazine
B. Valproate
C. Lithium
D. Lamotrigine
1. D (Disulfiram, naltrexone,
Acamprosate are used in treatment of
alcohol dependencebut phenytoin is not
2. Which narcotic amongst the option is
used it is anticonvulsant)
associated with hallucinations?
2. C (all these drugs are used in
A. Heroin
treatment of depression Mania and
sizofreniya list season is caused by B. Morphine
aripirazol)
C. Hydrocodone
3. C (adverse effect of topiramate
D. Marijuana
includes cognitive dysfunction weight
loss kidney stone dizziness ataxia
Stevenson Johnson Syndrome)
3. One of the following disease is a
4. A (buspirone is partial agonist to 5 treated with Donepezilin
HT1A)
A. Myasthenia
5. B (promethazine is also used as
B. Parkinsonism
antiemetic popular brand name is
Avomin) C. Alzheimer’s Disease
D. Mushroom Poisoning

2. D (examples of drug causing

hallucinations marijuna Delta 9
4. Identify selective serotonin & nor-
tetrahydrocannabinol, lysergic acid,
epinephrine reuptake inhibitor from the
psilocybin, pilocin, phencyclidine)
options
3. C (Dopenzenilin is a reversible
A. Fluxetine
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors used to
B. Venalafexine increase acetylcholine level in
Alzheimer's disease)
C. Sertraline
4. B ( valenifexin is serotonin reuptake
D. Escitalopram
as well as noradrenaline reuptake
inhibitor, SSRI is activity 5 times more
than NA)
5. Whic opioid analgesic can be
metabolized without kidney& liver 5. A (Ramifentanil is rapidly broken
down by non specific plasma and tissue
A. Remifentanil
estarase enzyme resulting into shorter
B. Pethidine half life 32 10 minutes)
C. Morphine
D. Fentanyl 1. Hypokalemia caused by loop diuretics

and thiazides diureticswhat is the
mechanism underlying this
A. Inhibiting proximal tubulkar K+
1. C (it is a primary drug of choice in absorption
bipolar disorders 50% reduction of
B. Inhibiting Na+-K+2cl- Co-transport
symptoms, it is also narrow therapeutic
in the ascending limb of loop of Henle
index drug it can be a toxic monitor
plasma level concentration)

C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in 4. Which of the following is not a

the distal tubular fluid to exchange with potassium sparing diuretic
interstitial K+
A. Amiloride
D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone
B. Triamterene
C. Spironolactone
2. Which of the following agents is
D. Acetazolamide
useful for the oral treatment of both
pituitary as well as renal diabetes
insipidus
5. Gynecomastia is a adverse effect of?
A. Vasopressin
A. Acetaminophan
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Chlorpropamide
C. Menadione
D. Carbamazepine
D. NSAIDs
3. Metabolic acidosis is the adverse

1. B (Inhibiting Na+-K+2cl- Co-
effect of which of the following
transport in the ascending limb of loop
A. Indapamide of Henle ) once check for option C.
B. Furosemide 2. A (vasopressin and desmopressin later

is analogue of vasopressin, desmopressin
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
is mostly used because it is not
D. Acetazolamide destroyed by vasopressinase which
destroys the vasopressin which is
antidiuretic hormone)

3. D (carbonic acid inhibitors has

adverse effect of metabolic acidosis like
3. Pemetrexed is drug of choice for
acetazolamide)
treatment of
4. D (all are the examples of potassium
A. Small cell carcinoma
sparing diabetic except acetazolamide)
B. Mesothelioma
5. B (spironolactone has anti androgenic
effect because it binds to the DHT that is C. None small cell carcinoma
dihydrotestosterone and causes
D. Breast cancer
gynecomastia)
1. Identify antimetabolite drug amongst

the options
A. Methotrexate .4. In case of Epithelial Ovarian cancer,

which of the following is most
B. Cyclosporine
commonly used
C. Etoposide
A. Paclitaxel
D. Vinblastine
B. Dactinomycin
C. Cyclophosphamide
2. Pemetrexed is a anticancer agent used
D. Methotrexate
in treatment of breast cancer belongs to
which class
A. Antitumor agent 5. Identify anticancer drug which acts by

inhibitingS phase of the cell cycle
B. Alkylating agent
A. Vincristine
C. Hormonal agent
B.5 fluorouracil
D. Anti metabolite

C. Paclitaxel
D. Cyclophosphamide 2. Whichanticancer agent can be given

orally
A. Cytosine arabinoside
B. Cisplatin
1. A (methotrexate is Folic acid
antagonist classified under C. Doxorubicin
antimetabolites)
D. Mesna
2. D (pemetrexed is Folic acid antagonist
classified under antimetabolites)
3. Which one of the following anticancer
3. B (it is inhibitor of dihydrofolate
agent is most emetogenic
reductase and thymidylate reductase
used in mesothelioma) A. Cisplatin
4. A (combination of paclitaxel and

carboplatin is used) B. Carboplatin
5. B (antimetabolite acts on S phase of C. High dose cyclophosphamide

cell cycle)
D. High does methotrexate
1. Which anticancer agent has

Hemorrhagic cystitis as adverse effect
4. Ifosfamideis anticancer Agent
A. Cyclophosphamide belonging to...class
B.6 Mercaptopurine A. Alkylating agents
C 5 Fluorouracil B. Anti metabolites
D. Busulfan C. Mitotic inhibitors

D. Topoisomerase inhibitors 5. C (secondary leukaemia is the adverse

effect of alkylating agents)
5. Whic anticancer agent is associated

with secondary leukemia
A. Vinblastine
B. Paclitaxel 1. Elimination reaction via conjugate

base that isE1cB,the reaction
C. Cisplatin
intermediate formed is
D. Bleomycin
A. Carbocation
B. Carbanion
C. Free radical
1. A (cyclophosphamide and ifosafamide
D. All of the above
is converted to acrolein which causes
hemorrhagic cystitis, MESNA is
combined with this drug to prevent this.)
2. Capping is a tablet defect which
2. D (MESNA isused to prevent the occurs because of mainly
toxicity of cyclophosphamide is given
A. Less upper punch pressure
orally and intravenously)
B. Poor flowability of granules
3. A (cisplatin and Hexamethylmelanin
are highly ematic drugs, also C. Proper formulation design
cyclophosphamide)
D. Entrapment of air in tablet during
4. A (Ifoesmide is alkylating agent and compression
related to cyclophosphamide

3. What is the parameter used to D. 2-mehtyl-4-chlorobutane

differentiate rhizome from the root of the
Rauwolfia
1. B (elimination reaction via conjugate
A. Presence of small central pith
base formation E1cB it is a two step
B. Absence of small central pith reaction and carbanion is formed as
intermediate. Where as E1 she single
C. Presence of vascular bundle
step an Carbocation is intermediate.)
D. None of them
2. D (capping is dffect in tablet because
of air entrapment during compression)
3. A (pieces of rhizome closely

resembles the root but may be identified
4. Quick breaking aerosols are usually
by small Central pith)
meant for... Administration
4. C (propellant present in external
A. Orally
phase, when it is dispensed from
B. Parenterally container dispens foam which is readily
converted into liquid used mostly for
C. Topically
topical preparation)
D. Ophthalmically
5. A
1. Use of Double Platin based therapy is

5. What will be the IUPAC name of - associated with one of the following one
(CH3)2CHCH2Cl of the following
A. 2-methyl-3-chloropropane A. Wilm’s tumor
B. 1-chloro-3-mehtyl butane
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. 1-chloropentane
C. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

D. Lung cancer A. Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA

synthesis
B. Activates DNA-dependent RNA

2. Anticancer agent therpy associated
synthesis
with secondary leukaemia, which
usually develops C. Inhibits RNA-dependent DNA
synthesis
A. 3months
D. Activates RNA-dependent DNA
B 1 year
synthesis
C. <7 years
D. <10 years
5. Doxorubicin is cardiotoxic drug it's
histopathology shows
3. Which anticancer is associated with A. Vacuolar degeneration of the

hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS) myocfibrils
A. Paclitaxel B. Muscle spindle whorls
B. Vinorelbine C. Hyalinization of the bundles of

muscles
C. Mitomycin C
D. Apoptosis of muscles
D. Cyclophosphamide
1. D (Cytotoxic based therapy for lung

4. Various mechanism of action are
cancer tablet Platinum based therapy that
given below identify mechanism of
is combination of to drugs one should be
Actinomycin D
cisplatin)

2. C (usually develops<7 years, quit D. Vincristine

alkylating agent 4-5 years with
etoposides 1-2 year)
3. Which anticancer agent is highly
3. C (it is side effect of mitomycin c)
cardiotoxic
4. A (its binds with DNA transcription
A. Bleomycin
initiation complex and in Hindi
transcription and prevents elongation by B. Actinomycin-D
RNA polymerase)
C. Doxotubicin
5. D (doxorubicin is cardiotoxic what is
D. Mitomycin-C
apoptosis releasing the death receptors)
4. Cyclophosphamide is classified under
A. Alkylating agent
1. Nitrosoureas used in the treatment of
cancer are B. Antitumor antibiotic
A. Carmustine C. Monoclonal antibody
B. 5FU D. Antimetabolites
C. Methotrexate
D. Cisplatin 5. What is measure side effect of

adriamycin is
A. Nephrotoxicity
2. One of the following anticancer
antibiotic does not affect tubulin B. Neurotoxicity
A. Bleomycin C. Cardiotoxicity
B. Colchicine D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
C. Paclitaxel

Correct answers with explanation C. 50
1. A (carmustine is a chloroethylnitrous D. 60
urea derivative,it is lipid soluble drug
used in treatment of brain tumor)
2. EDTA is a cheating agent it can be
2. A (bleomycin acts through biting the
described as.......to ligand
DNA into the single and double stand it
causes inhibition of DNA synthesis by A. Bidentate
free radical formation ,the fragmentation
B. Tetradentate
is due to the binding of bleomycin DNA
Fe(II) complex which leads to C. Hexadentate
chromosomal abbreviation)
D. Tridentate
3. C (doxorubicin is highly cardiotoxic
drug causes release of death receptors
and Cardiac cell death apoptosis) 3. In case of living cells they are
negatively charged inside what is meant
4. A (cyclophosphamide is alkylating
reason behind this
agents and nitrogen mustard)
A. ATP, organic acids, and other
5. C (cardiotoxicity is problem with
negative molecules that cannot escape
aridamycines like doxorubicin)
B. Removal of sodium ions, which are
positively charged, by the Na+/K pump
C. Extrusion of Ca2+ ion, which is much

1. Angle of repose is a indicators of flow more concentrated outside a cell than
of powder, if it is more than......then it is inside
rarely accepted in formulation
D. Cell membranes that are more
A. 25 permeable to potassium than sodium
B. 30

2. C (EDTA is hexadentate ligand means

it can bind to the six molecules of metal
4. Which drug is recommended to take
because of 4 sides of different oxygen
on an empty stomach
from COOH group and 2 side of N)
A. Naproxen
3. A
B. Levothyroxine
4. B (it is administered on empty
C. Prednisone stomach to avoid interference by food
sucralfate iron and Calcium also reduce
D. Nitrofurantoin
absorption aap levothyroxine)
5. A (ethyl cellulose is insoluble in water

5. Examples of Pharmaceutical binders soluble in alcohol and it in a 5% as a
are given below identify non aqueous Binder, it is mostly used in case of
binder moisture sensitive drugs as a Binder)
A. Ethyl cellulose 1. Which radiation source is used for far

IR
B. Starch
A. Golay cell
C. Veegum
B. Nernst glower and globar
D. Bentonite
C. Mercury lamp or arc
D. Highly heated tungsten filament

1. C (if the angle of repose is more than

40 it is very cohesive in nature and if it 2. One of the following alkaloid is
is more than 50 it is really accepted in biosynthesized from lysine
pharmaceutical formulation)
A. Emetine
B. Cinchonidine

C. Brucin B. Leucine
D. Lobelin C. Valine
D. Aspargine
3. Which drug is nor given intravenously

in heart failure
1. C (mercury arc is used for for IR
A. Digoxin radiation>50 micron)
B. Amiodarone 2. D (nicotine and lobeline alkaloids

from lysine amino acid)
C. Quinidine
3. C (quinidine is anti arithmetic drug
D. Dobutamine
not given in heart failure )
4. A (live or killed viral suspension can

4. What is the correct term for killed or be termed as vaccine)
attenuated viruses suspension
5. A (chemo trypsin is a proteolytic
A. Vaccine enzymes specifically attacks at carboxyl
ends of the aromatic amino acid or long
B. Antiserum
hydrophobic amino acid)
C. Toxin
D. Toxoid
1. All are the advantages of attachment
of polyethylene glycol (PEG) to proteins
or drugs except
5. Which amino acid residues is
specifically recognized by chymotrypsin A. Protect them form rapid hydrolysis or
during peptide bond cleavage degradation
A. Phenylalanine B. Improves micromole solubility

C. Increases absorption form the gut A. ᵞ - Ecgonine base (one mole) + ᵞ-

Truxillic acid (one mole) + Methanol
D. Minimizing the uptake by the cells of
(one mole)
the reticuloendothelial systems
B. Methyl ecgonine base + ᵞ-truxillic
acid(one mole)
2. One of the following drug-drug
C. Methyl ecgonine base (one mole) + ᵞ -
interaction is undesired or harmful
truxillic acid (one mole) + Methanol
A. Imipenem- cilastatin (two moles
B. L-Dopa-Entacapone D. Ecgonine base (two moles) + ᵞ-

Truxillic acid (one mole)+ Methanol
C. Meperidine- Pargyline
(two Moles)
D. Methotrexate- leucovorin
5. Which one is used in treatment of

3. Thyroid hormone synthesis is not insomnia?
inhibited by one of the following
A. Milk thistle
A. Propyl thiouracil
B. Echinacea
B. Methimazole
C. Eucalyptus
C. Perchlorate
D. Valerian
D. Diatrazoate
1. C (all others are advantages exccept

option C of PEGlyation)
4. What is hydrolysis product of one 2. C (Mao inhibitors are contraindicated

mole of ᵞ -Truxilline along with narcotic analgesic They
induces serotonin syndrome)

3. D (all Other Drugs inhibit the thyroid 3. Prolongeduse of which antiepileptic

hormone secretion except diatrazoate) drug is associated with weight loss
4. D A. Gabapentin
5. D B. Oxacarbazepine
C. Topiramate
D. Valproic acid
1. Identify antiepileptic drug used in

migraine
4. What is the mechanism of action of
A. Topiramate Carbamzepine
B. Lamotrigine A. Prolongation of inactivated state of

Na+ channels
C. Carbamazepine
B. Facilitates GABA
D. Vigabatrin
C. Inhibition of Ca2+ channels
2. Which antiepileptic drug has toxic

D. NMDA receptor blockade
epiderml necrosisas side effect
A. Carbamazepine
5. Felbamate is used in which one of the
B. Valproate
following disease
C. Phenytoin
A. Epilepsy
D. Gabapentine
B. Anxiety
C. Social phobia
D. Depression

C. Anagrelide
1. A (topiramate, valporic acid and D. Denileukin difititox

gabapentin are the examples of
antiepileptic drug used in migraine
therapy) 2. A patient was on chemotherapy 6
months, he is complaining about hearing
2. B (toxic epidermal necrosis or
loss, which of the following is
Stevenson Johnson Syndrome is adverse
responsible for it.
effect of valproic acid)
A. Cisplatin
3. C (topiramate and falbamate causes
weight loss, gabapentin Pregabalin B. Doxorubicin
valproic acid carbamazepine causes
C. Cyclophosphamide
weight gain)
D. Paclitaxel
4. A (carbamazepine actsby increasing
the sodium efflux for decreasing the
sodium influx it also potentiate
3. Identify correct pair of anticancer
postsynaptic Gaba action)
drug and its category
5. A (Falbamate is antiepileptic drug act
A. Carmustine- Alkylator
by blocking NMDA receptor and also
potentiate the action of GABA) B. Etoposide-Anitumor antibiotic
C. Vincristine-Alkylator
D. Cisplatin-Anti metabolite
1. Drug of choice for treatment of

gastrointestinal stromal tumors is
A.Sunitinib
B. Imatinib mesylate

4. Anticancer agent and their side effect 3. A (this is correct pair amongst the
is mentioned below identify incorrect option)
match
4. C (cisplatin has nephrotoxicity not
A. Daunorubicin-Cardiotoxicity hepatotoxicity)
5. B (neuokinin NK 1 or substance p
B. Bleomycin-Pulmonar fibrosis antagonist fire blocking NK1 receptors
used as antiemetic for post operative
C. Cisplatin-Hepatotoxicity
emesis and chemotherapy induced
D. Vincristine-Neuropathy emesis)
5. Identify Neurokinin receptor

antagonist drugfrom options
1. Root can be induced by .....in callus
A. Granisteron culture
B. Apripitant A. Auxin and no cytokinin
C. Metaclopramide B. Higher concentration of auxin and

lower concertation of cytokinin
D. Trimethobenzamide
C. Higher concentration of cytokinin and
lower concentration of auxin
1. A (it is considered as multi targeted
D. Auxin and cytokiinin in equal
kinase inhibitor, vascular endothelial
proprotions
growth factor inhibitor, it is used to treat
GIST)
2. A (cisplatin has ototoxicity as adverse 2. One of the following is used in the

effect) treatment of postpartum hemorrhage
A. Carboprost

B. Latanoprost 5. Chlorpromazine has following

endocrine effect except
C. Bimatotprost
A. Decrease in adrencorticotrophins,
D. Travoprost
Decrease in gonadotrophins
B. Decrease in release of pituitary

3. Identity drug which is 5HT3 growth hormone
antagonist & 5HT4 receptor agonist
C. Increase in prolactin secretion
A. Metoclopramide
D. Decrease in thyroid hormone
B. Cispride production
C. Cilassetron
D. Graniseton 1. A (steam elongation root growth and

fruit development is a function of auxin)
2. B (Carboprost and Misoprostol are

used to treat postpartum hemorrhage
other options given are used to treat
open angle glaucoma)
4. Asafoetida when treated with Nitric
acid gives... 3. A (metoclopramide is antagonist to
5HT3 and agonist 5HT4)
A. Reddish-brown colour
4. B (asafoetida when treated with nitric
B. Green colour
acid gives green colour it is a specific
C. Yellowish-orange colour test for identification of umbelliferone)
D. Blue fluorescence 5. D (all are endocrine effects of

chlorpromazine except decrease in
thyroid hormone production)

1. Which AT-II receptor antagonist don't

have tetrazole moiety in its structure
A. Losartan
4. What is the % of salicylic acid in
B. Irbesartan commercial aspirin tablets allowded by
FDA
C. Telmisartan
A. 0.05 %
D. Valsartan
B. 0.1 %
C. 0.15%
2. Van Deemter plot gives which
information D. 0.25 %
A. Optimum selectivity factor
B. Optimum mobile phase flow rate 5. Which phenolic compound isolated

from the ripe fruits of myrobalan
C. Optimum column temperature
A. Chebulic acid
D. The capacity factor
B. Ferulic acid
C. Emblicanin
3. Brockman activity Scale is related
with D. Pivalic acid
A. Stationary phase
B. Mobile Phase 1. C (Telmisartan & Esprosartan does

not contain tetrazole moity in its
C. Buffer System used
structure)
D. Column specification

2. B (Van Deemter plot gives the B. Avoidance of Reticulo-endothelial

relationship between visualisation and (RES) clearance
mobile phase velocity, latest updates the
C. Reduce clearance rate through kidney
visualisation or detection)
D. All of the above
3. A (it is related to adsorbent used in
Chromatography that is stationary phase)
4. C 3. Which of following system does not

have orifice to release the drug
5. A (terminalia chebula family
combretaceae consist of gallic acid and A. Elementary Osmotic Pump
chebulic acid)
B. L-OROS
C. Sandwich Osmotic Pump
D. Controlled Porosity Osmotic Pump

1. Identify anthelmintic which has
immunosuppressant activity
A. Piperazine
B. Levamisole
4. Which rearrangement reaction
C. Ivermectin
involves the formation of isocyanate
D. Niclosamide
A. Curtious
B. Lossen
2. Choose correct statement for
C. Both A & B
PEGylation
A. Used to enhance In-vivo half-life of
smaller Peptides and proteins

5. Which reaction is involves conversion 5. B (Deacetylation of chitin will result

of chitin to chitosan in Chitosan)
A. Acetylation 1. Dovers powder used as a diaphoretic

contains
B. Deacetylation
A. Ipecac & Opium
C. Oxidation
B. Ipecac, Senna & Cinchona
D. Reduction
C. Opium, Ipecac & Cinchona
D. All of the above

1. B (Levimsol is anthelmintics drug
along with immunomodulator activity)
2. D (by increasing the molecular weight 2. Biological active form of Vit. D in

of molecule one can improve solubility human
increase of life, increase stability and
A. Cholecalciferol
decrease dosing frequency)
B. Calcifediol
3. D (controlled porosity cosmetic pump
is comprised of rigid semipermeable C. Calciferol
membrane which on contact with gastric
D. Calcitriol
juice converted into microporous
membrane which release the drug, does
not contain orifice)
3. The Franz diffusion cell which is used
4. C (in curties rearengement acyl Azide for the evaluation of transdermal drug
heated with nitrogen to form delivery systems consists of
isothiocyanate, lossen rearrangement
A.1 chamber
consist of decomposition of hydroxamic
acid in presence of base to form B.2 chamber
isothiocyanate)
C.3 chamber

D. None 2. D (calcitriol is the active form of

Vitamin D)
3. B (it consists of two chambers Donor

or top chamber and receiver or bottom
4. Homatropine is chamber)
A. Tropine ester of amino acetic acid 4. B (it is a synthetic drug prepared by

passing HCL gas in the mixture of
B. Tropine ester of mendelic acid
propane base and mandelic acid)
C. Tropine methyl bromide ester of
5. A (schedule X drug who's import
mendelic acid
manufacturing packaging are governed
D. Tropine ester of amino formic acid by special provisions under drug and
cosmetic act)
5. List of drugs whose import,

manufacture and sale, labeling and 1. O, M, P isomers can be differentiated
packaging are governed by special on the basis ...in NMR
provisions are included in schedule
A. Chemical shift
A. X
B. Coupling constant
B. K
C. Extinction coefficient
C. H
D. Dipole moment
D. G
2. Plasma level concentration monitoring

1. A (Ipecachuna and opium powder are is required for one of the following
the constituent of dovars powder)
A. Antihypertensive drugs

B. Levodopa A. Triglyceride
C. Lithium carbonate B. Cholesterol
D. MAO inhibitors C. Sphingophospholipids
D. Phospholipids
3. Sanguinarine is classified under
A. Morphinans 1. B (Ortho meta para substation can be

depreciated using NMR has the coupling
B. Benzyl isoquinolines
constant have different value for them
C. Phthalide isoquinolines Ortho has large, metre has medium and
para has small coupling constant)
D. Benzophenanthrenes
2. C (Lithium carbonate is narrow
therapeutic index drug so blood level
monitoring is required)
3. B (it is benzylisoquinoline alkaloid

used as anticancer agent)
4. One of the following is not a
pharmacological action of morphine 4. D (morphine causes constipation not
diarrhoea it is sometimes used as
A. Constriction of pupil
antidiarrheal)
B. CNS depression
5. A (adipose tissue consists of
C. Respiratory depression triglycerides storage)
D. Diarrhoea
1. Sieve 80 used love for size separation

has opening of
5. The major fat in adipose tissue is
A. 0.100 mm

B. 0.125 mm A. Opium
C. 0.150 mm B. Ergot
D. 0.180 mm C. Fish liver oil
D. Insulin
2. What is ideal saponification value for

suppository base
5. What is biological source of Indian
A. 50-100 gooseberry
B. 100-150 A. Phyllanthus inruri
C. 150-200 B. Terminilia chebula
D. 200-500 C. Terminalia Bacteria
D. Embilca officinalis
3. Cefuroxime belongs to which class of

cephalosporins
1. D
A. Oximinocephalosporins
2. D (ideal suppository base will have
B. Aminocephalosporins saponification value 200-250, iodine
value less than 7 acid value less than
C. Iminocephalosporins
0.2)
D. Furylcephalosporines
3. A (cefuroxime belongs to Oxiamino
cephalosporin)
4. Which amongst the option is 4. C (schedule C for biological products

considered in Schedule C1 of the D & C given by parenteral route, schedule C1
act biological product that are not given by
parenteral route)

5. D (Indian gooseberry is name of Amla

that is emblica officinalis family
3. Identify anticanceragent obtained
euphorbiaceae)
from Marine source
A. Trabectadine
B. Eribulin
C. Cytarabine
1. Which of the following is seed gum
D. All of the above
P. Gaur gum
4. Identity the alkaloid which is derived
Q. Locust bean gum form phenyl alanine
R. Xanthan gum A. Pilocarpine
S. Gellan gum B. Ephedrine
A. P and Q B. R and S C. Muscarine
C. Q and R D. P and S D. Quinoline
2. Which term describes cancer that 5. Opium, cocoa, poppy straw are related
derived form ectoderm of endoderm of with?
epithelial cells
A. Schedule H
A. Carcinoma
B. Sarcoma B. Schedule X
C. Leukaemia C. Narcotic drugs and Psychotropic

substances act 1985
D. Myloid
D. Schedule C

E. Both B & C
2. Which cholinergic drug is resistant to

both true and pseudo cholinesterase
1. A (guar gum is obtained from
enzymes
endospore of Guar seed, Lotus Bean
gum is also obtained from endospore up A. Carbachol
seeds of carob tree)
B. Acetylcholine
2. A (carcinoma cancer of epithelial cells
C. Methacholine
derived from ectoderm mostly &
endoderm, sarcoma is cancer of D. Pilocarpine
connective tissue disorder from
mesoderm, leukaemia is cancer of
lymphatic system derived from 3. Globule size of parenteral emulsion
mesoderm) should be
3. D (all these anticancer agent derived A. 0.1 to 0.5 µm

from Marine sources)
B. 0.5-5 µm
4. B (Ephedrine is synthesized from
C. 5-10 µm
phenyl alanine)
D. Any of the above
5. E
1. Identify drug that is not a prodrug

from following 4. Factor affecting evaporation
A. Ramipril A. Temperature
B. Lisinopril B. Type of product require
C. Enalapril C. Effect of concentration.
D. Perindopril D. All of these

5. Wich alkaloid is derived form 1. Identify the pair which is not correctly
aliphatic amino acid matched
A. Reserpine A. Aerobic, helical bacteria- gram

negative
B. Nicotinic acid
B. Entrics- gram negative
C. Anabasine
C. Myconbacteria – acid fase
D. Vinblastine
D. Pseudomonas –gram positive

1. B (captopril and lisinopril from ACE
inhibitors are not a products)
2. In trans 1,2-demethyl cyclohexane,
2. B (Carbacol and bethenocol are
what is the orientation of the methyl
resistant to to both cholinesterase and
groups
pseudo cholinesterase)
A. Both axial
3. A (sterility should be maintained)
B. Both equatorial
4. D (all are the factors affecting on
evaporation) C. One axial one equatorial
5. C (Anabasine is biosynthesized upon D. Depends on chair or boat

lies in which is aliphatic amino acid) conformation
3. Sigma minus method is used in

assessment of
SACHIN JADHAV A. Bioavailability

B. Absorption 2. B (both methyl groups are equatorial)
C. Metabolism 3. A (Its method to determine the

bioavailability depending upon
D. Tissue distribuation
excreation rate constant)
4. D (volatile oil is present in glandular

4. Volatile oil in trichome in plants of trichomes of familly laminaceae
which family example lavender and mentha)
A. Rutaceae 5. A (effervescent granules consist of

citric acid: tartaric acid: Sodium
B. Papaveracease
Bicarbonate in proportion of 1:2:3.4 )
C. Umbelliferare
D. Laminaceae
2. Identify the correct sequence of event

5. Citric acid: tartaric acid: sodium that occurs in polymerase chain reaction
bicarbonate added in effervescent power
A. Denature, anneal, & Strand
in proportion of?
displacement
A. 1:2:3.4
B. Denature, anneal & extension
B. 2:1:3.4
C. Strand displacement, synthesis &
C. 1:2:4 release
D. 1:2:4.4 D. Reverse-Transcription, anneal &

extend
1. D (Pseudomonas is Gram Negative

bacilli) 3. Rabies bodies are.....

A. Negri bodies
2. B (denaturation 1 min 94° ,annealing

B. Cowdry type B inclusion bodies 45 sec 54° ,and extension 2 min 72° c is
the sequence of PCR)
C. Cowdry type A inclusion bodies
3. A (inclusion bodies call Negri bodies
D. Bollinge bodies
are the characteristics of 100% diagnosis
of rabies infection but only found in
20% cases)
4. If glucose is reacted with bromine
water what will be the reaction product 4. D (glucose on reaction with bromine
water gluconic acid is formed)
A. Glucaric acid
5. B (melting temperature of DNA
B. Glucoronic acid
increases with increase in G+ C content)
C. Sorbitols
D. Gluconic acid
1. Identify pair of reducing sugars
A. Lactose and maltose
B. Trehalose and surcrose
C. Maltose and tredhalose

5. Melting temperature of DNA is
D. None of these
increased because of high content of
A. A+T
2. Highest cardiotoxicity is seen with
B. G+C
one of the following local anaesthetic
C. A+G
A. Lingocaine
D. T+G
B. Bupivacaine

C. Levo- bupivacaine A. Famotidine
D. Procaine B. Ranitidine
C. Nizatidine
3. In SCF chromatography, if using D. Cimetidine

packed columns, the most common
stationary phase will be
1. A (lactose and maltose a reducing
A. A methyl type stationary phase
sugar)
bonded to silica (like DB-1) for GC
2. B (Bupivacaine is highest cardiotoxic
B. An aromatic-type stationary phase
drug amongst the anesthetics)
bonded to silica
3. D (uncoated silica particles are used in
C. An octyldecyl (C18 ) Stationary
packed column)
phase bonded to silica
4. B (taxenamic acid prevent formation
D. Uncoated silica
of plasmin from plasminogen and
prevent the formation of clot does it is a
fibrinolytic used to prevent the bleeding)
4. Tranexamic acid is
5. D (Cimentidine has antiandrogenic
A. Antithrombotic
effect like gynecomastia importance loss
B. Antifibrinolytic of libido decrease in sperm count etc)
C. Fibrinolytic
D. Styptic 1. Drug of choice to treat H1N1

influenza is
A. Adefovir
5. Which of the antihistaminic
compound has antiadrogenic effect B. Cidofovir

C. Oseltamivir B. Disintegrant
D. Tenofovir C. Lubricant
D. Anitadhesive
2. Identify mismatch pair of element and

its oxidation number
5. Range of C=O stretching in enol is
A. Oxygen in H2O2; -2
A. 1800 cm-1
B. Bromine in Br2; 0
B. 1710 cm-1
C. Sodium in NaCl; +1
C. 1685 cm-1
D. Sulfur in SO3-2; +4
D. 1655 cm-1
3. Which reaction intermediate formed

1. C (oseltamivir is a drug recommended
in Reimer-Tiemann reaction that Reacts
it is safe to treat H1N1 or swine flu)
with phenol to give the ortho-formylated
product 2. A (-1 is oxidation number of oxygen
in hydrogen peroxide)
A. Carbene
3. A (carbene is compound formed as a
B. Carbocation
intermediate in Rimer tiemann reaction)
C. Carbanion
4. B (disintegrant is not added in table
D. Free redical tablet because it has to be chewed in
mouth)
5. D
4. Which of the following in not added
to chewing tablet
A. Gildant

1. The enzyme superoxide dismutase D. Area under the plasma level time
(SOD) converts curve
A. O2-to hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
B. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to H2O 4. A 25.0 mL sample of a solution of a

monoprotic acid is titrated with a 0.115
C. H2O to hydroxyl (OH) redicals
M NaOH solution the titration curve
shows equivalence point at 7.05. Which
D. O2- toO2 of the following indicators would be best
for this titration?
A. Methyl red
2. For first order reactions the rate
constant, k, has the units as……… B. Bromthymol blue
A. Ms-1 C. Thymol blue
B. M-1 s-1 D. Phenopltalein
C. M-2 s-1
D. s-1 5. Which of the following in termed as

mass filter
A. Time of flight
3. Which of the following may be used
to assess the relative bioavailability of B. Farady cup
two chemically equivalent drug product
C. Quadupole
in a crossover study
D. Ion trap
A. Dissolution test
B. Peak concentration
1. A (superoxide dismutase (SOD)
C. Time-to-peak concentration
converts superoxides O2 to do hydrogen

peroxide i.e. H2O2, some enzymes A. Distillation

generate free radicals and some enzym
B. Azeotropic distillation
neutralization free radical)
C. Fractional distillation
2. D ( unit for first order Kinetic rate
constant s-¹, second order kinetics rate C. All of the above
constant m- s-¹.)
3. A compound with an –OH group and
3. C –OR group bonded to the same carbon
atom is………
4. B (bromothymol blue has pH range 6
to 7.6, phenophthalene methyl orange A. An actal
and other indicator is not suitable becaus
B. A hemicacetal
their pH range is different)
C.A simple ether
5. C (quadrupole mass analyser allows
specific ions that is it filters the ions D. An aldol
depending on mass to charge ratio it is
known as quadrupole mass filter)
4. The reaction of Grignard reagent with
aldehydes and ketones gives alcohols,
1. What is mechanism of aprotinin this is ...
A. Inhibits Corboxypeptidase A. Nucleophilic addition reaction
B. Inhibits Plasminogen B. Necleophillic substitution reaction
C. Inhibits plasmin C. Electrophllic substitution reaction
D. Inhibits plasminogen activator D. Electrophilic addition reaction
2. Absolute alcohol is prepared from

spirit by

5. Osazone is formed by reaction of

………… moles of phenylthdrazine with
1. Which of the following is produced in
monosaccharide
phenyl propanoid pathway
A. 1
A. Phenolics
B. 2
B. Catotenes
C. 3
C. Alkaloids
D. 4
D. Terpenes
1. C (it inhibits several protease enzyme

2. A diode array detector coupled with
like plasmin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, it
UV detection is advantageous because it
was used to prevent loss of blood in
cardiac surgery but now it is withdrawn A. Covers a range of wavelengths
from market due to stroke, cardiac and
B. Allow lower concentrations of analyte
renal toxicity)
to be detected
2. B (azeotropic distillation is used to get
C. Speeds up the detection at a single
higher purity absolute alcohol)
wavelength
3. B (hemiacetal formation which is
D. Allows a single wavelength of
most common in sugar)
detection to be moreprecisely chosen
4. A (it is a nucleophilic addition
3. The LOD of an analysis is at the
reaction)
femtogram level. This corresponds to
5. C (3 moles of phenylhydrazine reacts detection at the
with one molecule of sugar to form
A. 1 in 10-18 level
phenylhydrazone that is osazone and two
carbons are involved in osazone B. 1 in 10-15 level
formation in sugar)

C. 1 in 10-12 level 1. A (phenolic compounds like

flavonoids anthocyanins tannin lignin
D. 1 in 10-9 level
ICFAI synthesized from
phenylpropanoid pathway)
4. Which systems liberate the active 2. A (photodiode array detector covers

ingredient through a special hole, 190-600 nm wavelength range and also
prepared by laser advantages like peak purity function is
there with PDA)
A. TTS patches
3. B
B. IUD systems
4. D (realese drug through orifice on
C. OCUSERT systems
basis of osmosis)
D. OROS systems
5. B (RP-HPLC is suitable for non
volatile water insoluble solute)
5. Which of following chromatographic

technique is most suitable for small,
1. The sulphonamide used for burn
nonvolatile water-insoluble solutes
therapy is
A. GC
A. Sulfadiazine
B. Reverse phase LC
B. Sulfadoxine
C. Normal phase LC
C. Sulfacetamide
D. SEC
D. Sulfapyridine
2. A hypotonic solution can be made

Correct answers with explanation isotonic by the addition of

A. Sodium chloride A. Quassia
B. Potassium chloride B. Kurchi
C. Calcium chloride C. Gelatin
D. Magnesium chloride D. Opium
3. Sterilization of milk is done by which

process
A. Tyndalization
1. A (silver sulfadiazine is used topically
B. Pasteurization in treatment of burn therapy)
C. Autoclaving 2. A (0.9 % sodium chloride is isotonic

with blood)
D. Dry heat sterilization
3. B (milk is sterilized by pasteurization)
4. D (agent or drugs which promotes the

4. Agent promoting easy bowel
evaluation of bowel is known as
evacuation is termed as
laxative)
A. Protective
5. D (these are alkaloids obtained from
B. Antacide opium poppy)
C. Adsorbents
D. Laxative 1. Acetyl salicylic acid is
A. Sulindac
5. Morphine, codeine and thebaine are B. Aspirin

constituent of
C. Mefenamic acid

D. Nalidixic acid C. Immumosuppressant
D. Antitussive
5. Identify anti-dandruff drug from

options
2. Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic
drug possessing A. Zinc sulphate
A. Butyrophenone B. Selenium sulfide
B. Thioxanthine C. Zinc carbonate
C. Phenothiazine D. Sodium fluoride
D. Acridine
1. B (Aspirin is acetyl salicylic acid)
3. Which among the following is a 2. C (chlorpromazine is a phenothiazines

tricyclic antidepressant drug derivative it is also known as largeactil)
A. Amtryptiline 3. A (amitriptyline is tricyclic

antidepressant)
B. Trazodone
4. B (it is bronchodilator used in asthma
C. Phenelezine
Beta 2 receptor agonist)
D. Fluoxetine
5. B (Selenium sulphide is used as
anticancer agent in shampoos,
ketoconazole also is used as anti
4. Salbutamol is a
dandruff agent)
A. Mast cell stabilizer
B. Bronchodilator

1. Dried roots of withania somanifera is 4. Belladonna belongs to the family

biological source of
A. Solanaceae
A. Brahmi
B. Piperaceae
B. Hyoscyamus
C. Papavaraceae
C. Aswagandha
D. Rutaceae
D. Ipecac
5. Which one from the option forms

2. One among the following is a volatile froth when shaken with water?
oil containing crude drug
A. Alkaloid
A. Chirata
B. Tannin
B. Cardamom
C. Gum
C. Linseed
D. Saponin
D. Myrobalan
1. C (dry fruits of withania somnifera

3. One of the following is used as belonging to family solanaceae is a
cardiotonic Ashwagandha, contains withanolides A,
D it is used as antioxidant and
A. Dhatura
adaptogenic)
B. Cinchona
2. B (it consists of dried ripe fruit of
C. Ephedra elettaria cardamomum belonging to
family zingiberaceae it is used as
D. Ergot
carminative condiment and flavouring
agent)

3. A (but it is toxic increases the heart

rate but it is not classified under
3. Identifyalkylating agent used in
cardiotonic drugs like a digitalis, squil,
Cancer
stropanthelus and Arjuna)
A. Chloramphenicol
4. A (atropa belladonna belonging to
family solanaceae atropine is principal B. Chlorambucil
chemical constituent)
C. Chlorhexidine D.
5. D (this is identification test of Clotrimazole
saponin, foam test)
4. Kala Azar is a type of
A. Giardiasis
1. The complete separation of two
B. Leishmaniasis
phases in emulsion is called
C. Helminthiasis
A. Creaming
D. Schistosomiasis
B. Sedimenting
C. Cracking
5. B.C.G. vaccine provides immunity
D. Leaching
against?
A. Rabies
2. Lachrymal glands produces
B. Tuberculosis
A. Tear
C. Cancer
B. Wax
D. Polio
C. Sweat
D. Sebum

1. C (complete Separation of two phases 2. One of the following is a component

in the emulsion is known as cracking) of bacterial cell wall
2. A (tear is a secretion of lacrimal gland A. Muramic acid

it consists of a enzyme called lysozyme
B. Formic acid
pH range of tear 7.4±0.1)
C. Stearic acid
3. B (chlorambucil comes under
alkylating agent) D. Palmitic acid
4. A (visceral leishmaniasis all it is also

known as Kala Azar caused by
3. Identify antithistaminic from the
protozoan L. Donovani transmitted by
options
sandflies)
A. Diphenhydramine
5. B (BCG vaccine provides immunity
against tuberculosis) B. Chlordiazepoxide
C. Pilocarpine
D. Amphetainine
1. Passive immunity is obtained by

injecting
A. Antiserum
4. One of the following is narcotic
B. Antigens analgesic
C. Vaccines A. Reserpine
D. Antibodies B. Papaverine
E. Both A & D C. Quinine
D. Morphine

5. Which of the following is not an

eicosanoid?
1. Amantadine is the drug used as
A. Interleukin
A. Antibacterial
B. Leukotriene
B. Antiviral
C. Tromboxane
C. Facilitate relese dopamine and used in
D. Prostaglandin Parkinson's
D. Both B & C
1. D (antigen and vaccines provide

active immunity whereas antiserum and
2. Fluconazole belongs to the class of
antibodies provides passive immunity so
if option in McQ both A and D will be A. Pyridine
answer)
B. Azoles
2. A (Muramic acid component of
C. Pyrimidines
peptidoglycan which is present in cell
wall of bacteria) D. Acridines
3. A (diphenhydramine is antihistaminic
drug H1 blocker)
3. The first Indian pharmacopoeia was
4. D (Morphine is narcotic analgesic published in
alkaloid obtained from opium)
A. 1948
5. A (prostaglandins prostacyclin
B. 1960
thromboxane leukotrienes and
epoxyeicosatrienoic acid are the C. 1955
examples of eicosanoid)
D. 1966

into two types imidazole: eg

ketoconazole mycorrhizal oxiconazole
clotrimazole, and triazole eg.
Fluconazole itraconazole and
voriconazole)
4. Ranitidine antisecretory agent which
is 3. C (Indian Pharmacopoeia committee
under the chairmanship of Doc. B. N
A. H2 antagonist
Ghosh published the first edition of
B. H1 antagonist Indian Pharmacopoeia in 1955)
C. Beta adrenergic antagonist 4. A (Ranitidine is H2 receptor

antagonist)
D. Alpha adrenergic antagonist
5. A (creams are emulsion)
1. What is the method of sterilization for

5. Creams are
Insulin Injection?
A. Emulsions
A. Dry heat sterilization
B. Subpensions
B. Moist heat sterilization
C. Ointments
C. Gaseous sterilization
D. Pastes
D. Filtration sterilization
1. D (amantadine is antiviral drug also

2. The bactericide incorporated in vials
used in Parkinson disease related release
or multidose container
of dopamine in neuronal endings)
A. 0.1% chlorocresol
2. B (antifungal drugs are classified in
three types antibiotics antimetabolite and
Azoles . Azoles are further classified B. 0.001% phenyl mercuric nitrate

C. Phenylmercuric acetate (PMA) 5. The minimum effective flow rate of

0.002% air in laminar flow hoods should be not
less than....
D. All of the above
A. 10 cubic feet/minutes
B. 50 cubic feet/minutes
3. Which statement is true among the
following? C. 100 cubic feet/minutes
A. Air suspension method of D. 500 cubic feet/minutes

microencapsulation is only for solid
material
1. D (filtration sterilization is used for
B. Multiple orifice method is only for
heat sensible products and biological
solid particles
products)
C. Pan coating can coat only smaller
2. D (All are examples of preservatives
particles not larger
used in parenteral preparation and their
D. Polymerization method is easier and concentration)
simpler
3. A ( solid material is suspended with
air stream and coating material is
sprayed on it in the air suspension
4. Which one is water soluble coating
method)
material is
4. C (cellulose and cellulose derivatives
A. Polyethylene
are water soluble, depending upon
B. Silicone modification and structure length)
C. Hydroxy ethyl cellulose 5. C (should be NLT 100 cubic

feet/minutes)
D. Paraffin

C. Toluene distillation method
1. Which is also known as CFC

propellant? D. None of above
A. Hydrocarbons
B. Compressed gas
C. Fluorinatedhydrocarbon
4. Identify false statement about "cold
D. None of these filling manufacturing process of
aerosols".
A. The temperature of propellant kept

2. Identify wrong statement about the
below the boiling point (-) 30 to (-)40°F
solution system of aerosol
B. A valve is crimped in place, followed
A. Also known as Two phase system
by passing the container into a water
B. The amount of propellant used may bath at temperature approximately 85 C
vary from 5-95%
C. It should not be used to fill
C. This is feasible when active hydrocarbon aerosols
ingredients are not soluble in solvent
D. This process is dependent on
D. Consist of Vapour and liquid phase lowering the temperature of the
concentrate
3. Moisture content of empty capsule

shell is measured by 5. The LAL test is rapid in-vitro method
for
A. Gas chromatography
A. Determining the pH of blood
B. IR

B. Checking the tonicity of I.V. solution B. UV Spectrophotometer
C. Determining the sterility of I.V. C. Gas chromatography

solution
D. Hydrometer
D. Pyrogen testing in parenterals
2. Identiy wrong statement about

1. C (fluorinated hydrocarbon are known pharmaceutical aerosol
as CFC propellant)
A. This is a pressurized pack
2. C
B. Drug can be protected from oxygen
3. C (moisture content of empty gelatin and moisture
capsule is set a reminder by toluene
C. This is temper proof package
distillation method)
4. C (cold fill method is not used for

D. Product sterility can not maintain
hydrocarbon propellant because large
amount of them escapes in the form of
vapour in air and their homes exclusive
3. Identify wrong statement about
picture, where as fluorinated
Hydrocarbons propellants
hydrocarbons problem does not)
A. Used in topical preparations
5. D (limulus amebocyte lysate test is
specific test for determination of
pyrogen) B. Environmentally accepted
1. The moisture content of aerosol C. Nonflammable

preparation is determined by
D. Hydrolysis does not take place in
A. Infrared spectrophotometer presence of water

4. The pharmaceutical aerosols is also 3. C (hydrocarbon propellant are

manufactured as suspension system ,if employable and explosive)
A. Drug, substance is insoluble in the 4. D (if drug is having this property it

propellant has to formulate into suspension in
aerosol formulation)
B. Drug substance is insoluble in the
mixture of propellant and solvent 5. B (it is automatic syringe like injector)
C. Co-solvent is not desirable
D. All of these 1. Weight variation test not applicable

for one of the following
A. Coated tablet except film coated

5. The busher injector is
B. Chewable tablet
A. Wyeth’s cartirdge injection system
C. Effervescent tablet
B. Automatic device for self injection D. None of the above
C. Device used to start an i.v injection
2. In dissolution test tablet remain below

D. The disposable syringe and needle the surface if the liquid and descend not
system closer than
A. 2.5 cm
1. C (moisture content of gradually is B. 2.5 mm

determined by gas chromatography or
C. 23-27 mm
Karl Fischer)
D. 23-27 cm
2. D (sterility can not be maintained this
is wrong statement about arosols)

3. As per official books which test is C. 0.9% NaCl solution

applicable for sodalime glass
D. 1.2% NaCl solution
A. Powdered test
B. Water attack test

1. A (coated tablets exccept film coated
C. Acid test weight variation test is not applicable he
is applicable they must confirm the
D. Alkalinity test
content uniformity test)
2. C
4. On the basis of duration of action the
3. A (powdered glass test is applicable
eye preparaions of a particular drug may
for Soda lime glass, remember water test
be arranged as
for type 2 glass , for rest of all types of
A. Occusert> Suspension > saturated glass powdered glass test is there)
solution> Ointment
4. B (this option is the correct sequence
B. Occusert> Ointment> suspension> on the basis of release and duration)
saturated solution
5. A (eye can tolerate 0.5 to 2% solution
C. Saturated solution> suspension> of sodium chloride)
ointment> occusert
D. Suspension>occusert>
1. Polymorphs in pharmaceutical solids
ointment>saturated solution
are detected by
A. MS
5. Which of the following would be the
B. LC-MS
most irritating to the eye?
C. Solid state NMR
A. Purified water
D. Coulter counter
B. 0.7% NaCl solution

2. A series of α- acylureido penicillin’s D. Edrophoinum

like azlocillin, mezloacillin, and
piperacillin are superior because of
A. Reduced acid hydrolysia

5. Methyl [5(proopylthio)-1H-
B. Increased β- lactmase resistance
benzoimidazol-2yl] carbamate is
C. Improved penetration through the cell chemical name of which of the following
envelope drug
D. Slo A. Mebendazole
w rate of metabolism B. Albendazole
C. Thibendazole
3. What is the minimum age prescribed D. Triclabendazole

for registration of pharmacist?
A. 17
1. C (solid state NMR is used to study
B. 18 the polymorphism, measurement of
internuclear distances, chirality,
C. 21
structure, enzyme mechanism etc)
D. 25
2. C (they have greater penetration
power because of Greater affinity to the
penicillin binding proteins, also Beta
4. One of the following is used for
lactamase resistance)
diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis
3. B (minimum age required to be
A. Neostigmine
registered pharmacist is 18 years)
B. Pyridostigmine
4. D (it is known as Tenslion test,
C. Physostigmine endrophonium is a short acting as deal

Korean esterase inhibitor improve the A. All transeicosatetraenoic acid

symptoms in MG, in case of Myasthenia
gravis there are very less AchR add
B. All cis eicosatetraenoic acid
neuromuscular Junction)
C. All transeicosatrienoic acid
5. B (Methyl [5(proopylthio)-1H-
benzoimidazol-2yl] carbamate it is
Albendazole) D. All cis eicosatrienoic acid
1. One of the following is oil obtained 4. Antidiabetic action of glyburide start

from fruit pulp at molecular level by which mechanism
A. Arachis oil A. Phosphorylation of receptor
B. Castor oil
B. Binding to potassium ions
C. Olive oil
C. Decrease in potassium effiux
D. Apricot oil
2. Steps involved in synthesis of aspirin

D. Increase in potassium effiux
A. Methylation of COOH group
5. Oral rehydration salt contains ionic

B. Methylation of OH group
electrolytes in concentration mmlo/L
C. Acetylation of COOH group
A. Na+ 20, K+ 10
B. Na+ 40, K+ 20
D. Acetylation of OH group
C. Na+ 53, K+ 40
D. Na+ 75, K+ 20
3. Biologically active arachidonic acid is

2. which of the following is the reagent

used to develop colour in performing
1. C
limit test of lead
2. D (acetylation of OH group of
A.Thioglycolic acid
salicylic acid result in aspirin)
B. Dithiazone
3. B
C. Sodium tetraphenylborate
4. C (Decrease in potassium effiux
preventing the depolarization who is D. Arsine
lead to accumulation of potassium
intracellularly causing
hyperpolarization) 3. What is use of phenol coefficient?
5. D (Sodium 75, Potassium 20, A. Tocompare a disinfectant efficacy to

Chloride 65, glucose 75 and citrate 10 in that of phenol
m mol/lit is a constitution of ORS)
B. To determine the dilution at which the
disinfectant is to be used
1. If HLB value of surfactant is 10 to 11, C. To determine the purity of

it will be called aswill be called as disinfectant
A. Solubilzer D. All of the above
B. O/W emulsifier
C. W/O emulsifier 4. What is the starting compound for

pinacol pinacolone rearrangement
D. Detergent
A. 1, 1-diol
B. 1, 2-diol
C. 1, 3-diol

D. Geminal diol coefficient better will be the

disinfectant)
4. B (vicinal diols i.e pinacol that is

5. C=O stretchings are very strong and
adjacent hydroxyl group when heated
easily observable bands in IR
with sulphuric acid gets converted into
spectroscopy. However in the IR
Ketone that is pinacolone in
spectrum of glucose C=O absorption
rearrangement)
band is not seen, reason behind ths is?
5. C
A. In glucose, C=O group is not terminal
B. In glucose C=O group is absent 1. The specific rotation of alpha D

glucose is
C. In glucose, hemiacetal group is
present A. 52-53°
D. In glucose, hemiketal group is present B. 112-113°
C. 36-37°
1. B (If HLB of the compound 10-11 it D. 19-20°

will be classified as w/o emulsifier on
HLB scale)
2. Nitrites are used in one of the
2. B (limit test of lead is based on
following ailments
reaction between lead and dithiazone the
complex i.e. dithiazone complex formed A. Cerebral ischemia
in the reaction has red colour)
B. Arrhythmia
3. A (Phenol water Coefficient is used to
C. Cardiac ischemia
determine the effectiveness of
disinfectant in comparison with phenol D. Hypertension
lower the value of phenol water

D. Prothrombin
3. Which enzyme catalyzes the

generation or accumulation of cAMP
1. A (initially it shows 112° but later it
after a receptor ligand interaction
changes to 52.5° the change is known as
A. Protein kinase A mutarotation)
B. cAMP phosphodiesterase 2. C (nitrates are used to delete the blood

vessels and used in cardiac ischemia,
C. Guanylyl cyclase
angina pectoris)
D. Adenylate cyclase
3. A (protein kinase A is involved in
cAMP pathway)
4. Identify the wrong statement about 4. C (type first hypersensitivity reaction

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is not Exemplidied by tuberculin test)
A. Mediated by IgE 5. C
B. Immediate
C. Exemplidied by tuberculin test 1. Which method is useful for measuring

the number of viable cells in a culture
D. Atopic
A. Plate count technique
B. Dry weight method

5. Which of the following is a necessary
cofactor in the formation of a blood clot C. Petroff-Hauser counter
A. Vitamin K D. Light scattering in a

spectrophotometer
B. Fibrinogen
C. Calcium

2. Consumer Protection act was enacted 5. ‘Sipped and swallowed without

in? addition of water’ is a label for which
dosage forms
A. 1996
A. Linctuses
B. 1991
B. Mixtures
C. 1986
C. Elixirs
D. 1984
D. Liniments
3. Which aminoglycoside is used in

treatment of TB 1. A (plate count technique is used to
measure viable microorganism colonies
A. Neomycin
are measured as individual viable cell)
B. Gemtamicin
2. C (consumer protection act was
C. Streptomyin enacted in 1986 and amendments beer
made in 2002)
D. Kanamycin
3. C (streptomycin aminoglycoside is
used in treatment of TB)
4. Factor affecting evaporation is
4. D (all these factors affect evaporation
A. Temperature process)
B. Type of product require 5. A (linctuses are viscous liquid

preparation made for treatment of cough
C. Effect of concentration
and it is siped not swallow)
D. All of these
1. The diagnostic agent used for the

functioning of thyroid gland

A. Fe-59 A. Bacterial infection
B. I-131 B. Protozoal infection
C. Co-60 C. Fungal infection
D. P-32 D. Viral infection
2. The constituent of cholesterol termed 5. A leukotriene receptor antagonist used

as bad cholesterol is in allergic cough is
A. HDL A. Rofecoxib
B. LDL B. Theophylline
C. VLDL C. Losartan
D. Triglycerides D. Montelukast
1. B (radioactive labelled Iodine I 131 is

used as Diagnostic agent in thyroid
3. Sterols belongs to the class of
functioning)
A. Lipids
2. B (low density lipoprotein that is
B. Waxes LDL most of it carries cholesterol)
C. Carbohydrates 3. A (sterols are lipids in nature as they

consist of steroid nucleus)
D. Proteins
4. D (there are three types of hepatitis A,
B and C viruses)
4. One of the following infection causes
hepatitis

5. D (zafirlukast, montelukast and 3. Identify depolarizing neuromuscular

pranalukast are leukotrine receptor blocking agent effective for the
antagonist used in allergic cough) treatment of pinworm
A. Phyrantel
1. 2', 3'-Didehydro-3'-deoxy thymidine is B. Paramomycin

the chemical name of which of following
C. Integrase
antiviral agents
D. Protease
A. Didenosine
B. Zidovudine
4. Metheneamine is prodrug used in UTI
C. Stavudine
it is converted into....
D. Zalcitabine
A. At low pH of Urine, to formaldehye
2. Oseltamivir is antiviral drug, It B. At high pH of urine, to aminosalicylic

produces its action by inhibiting which acid
enzymes
C. At low pH of Urine, to
A. DNA polymerase amonosalicylic acid
B. Neuraminidase D. At high pH of urine,to formaldehyde
C. Praziquantel
5. Identify correct sequence of processes

D. Ivermectin that happens in mass spectrometer
A. Acceleration, deflection, detection,

ionization

B. Ionization, Acceleration, deflection,

detection
1. In polarography which type of current
C. Acceleration, ionization, deflection, must be blocked
detection
A. Residual
D. Acceleration, deflection, ionization,
B. Migration
detection
C. Diffusion

1. C (Stavudine synthetic thymidine
dinucleotide analogue active against
HIV type 1 2', 3'-Didehydro-3'-deoxy
2. Which propellant commonly used in
thymidine)
topical aerosols
2. B (it is any pattern of viral nuramidase
A. Trichloromonfluoromethane
which stops the virus particle release)
B. Trifluromonfluroethane
3. A (it is depolarizing neuromuscular
blockers stimulate the nicotinic receptors C. Dichlordifluromthane
NMJ causes for sleep paralysis of worm)
D. Isopropyl alcohol
4. A (decomses slowly in acidic urine
pH 5.5 or less to the formaldehyde
which inhibit the growth of bacteria it 3. Which is the first line drug for the
should be administered with mandelic treatment of generalized seizures
acid or hippuric acid
A. Valproic acid
5. B (sample is ionized then it is
B. Anhydortetracycline
accelerated in magnetic or electric field
then it is deflected and it is detected in C. Carbamazepine
detector this is a sequence of event that
D. Doxycycline
occurs in mass spectroscopy)

3. A (well boric acid is a first line drug

used for generalised tonic clonic seizure)
4. Tetracyline in basic solution is
usstable and forms one of the following 4. C (epimerization of tetracyclines takes
product place and pumps unstable
epitetracyclines)
A. Epithtracycline
5. A (blood brain barrier is located at the
B. Anhydrotetracycline
end of brains capillaries at every level)
C. Isotetracycline
1. Bioavailability differences among
D***. Doxycycline drug’s oral formulations are most likely
to occur if it
A. Is freely water soluble

5. The location of the blood-brain barrier
is considered to be B. Is incompletely absorbed
A. At the level of the brain capillaries C. Is completely absorbed
D. Undergoes little first-pass metabolism

B. At the level of gila
C. At the level of neorons

2. OROS is a technology developed
D. At the level of dendrite for/as
A. Oral release rapid onset system
1. B (migration current should be B. Orally rapid disintegrating tablets

blocked in polarographic data)
C. Osmotic controlled oral drug delivery
2. B (dichloromonochloroethane most system
commonly used propellant in topical
D. Transdermal drug delivery system
aerosol)

3. Which of the following UV rays cause 1. B (if drug is poorly absorbed from
cancer formulation there will be a difference in
bioaviability in formulation is not
A. UVA
Pharmaceutical equivalent)
B. UVB
2. C ( OROS is osmotically controlled
C. UVC oral Drug Delivery System)
D. All of the above 3. A ( UV A can print printed upto the

cutaneous tissue in the skin causes
Cancer UV B cause sunburn)
4. Which are the types of antibodies
4. B (IgG IgM are the antibodies
involved in hypersensitivity reactions
involved in hypersensitivity reaction)
A. LgG and LgD
5. B (modelling is unequal distribution
B. LgG and LgM of colour on tablet surface)
C. LgD and LgA
D. LgM and LgD 1. The true alkaloids having nitrogen in

heterocyclic and is derived from
A. Carbohydrate
5. The term used to describe unequal
distribution of colour on a tablet is B. Protein
A. Chipping C. Amino Acid
B. Mottling D. Fatty Acid
C. Lamination
D. Double impression 2. Identify coloured alkaloids from

following options

A. Betanidine and conessine B. Diditoxine
B. Betanidine and nicotine C. Cinchonidine
C. Betanidine and sanguinarine D. Physostigmine
D. Nicotineand and sanguinarine
1. C (true alkaloids in which nitrogen is

present in heterocyclic ring and it is
3. The alkaloidal extraction process was
biosynthesized from amino acid)
developed by
2. C (alkaloids occurs as a colourless
A. Vitail-Morin
compound but some of them has colour
B. Bentham-Hooker like Betanidineis orange and
sanguinarine is copper red in colour,
C. Stass-otto
Kuljeet Singh and berberine are yellow
D. Keller-Kiliani in colour)
3. C (Stass Otto method and Manske's

method are two method for extraction of
4. Which of the following is a true
alkaloids)
alkaloid?
4. C (atropine contain nitrogen in
A. Aconite
heterocyclic ring and it is derived from
B. Caffiene ornithine amino acid)
C. Atropine 5. D (physostigmine is specific antidote

for belladonna poisoning
D. Conessine
5. Belladonna poisoning can be

overcome by the treatment of 1. Mean arterial pressure is
A. Homatropine

A. Systolic pressure – Diastolic Pressure 4. Which order of reaction is followed

by suspension
B. (Diastolic pressure + Diastolic A. Zero

Prssure )/2
B. Pseudo Zero
C. Diastotic alcohol + (1/3) x pulse
C. First
pressure
D. Pseudo first
D. Stroke valume X heart rate
2. Eugenol is
5. Which diuretic causes decrease in
A. Monoterpene alcohol
release of insulin
B. Sesquiterpene alcohol
A. Chlorothiazide
C. Aliphatic alcohol
B. Ethacynic zero
D. Phenylpropene
C. Triamterene
D. Acetazolamide
3. The Vitamin required for
carboxylation of pyruvate to form
oxaloacetate is 1. C (what is the formula for mean
arterial pressure)
A. Thiamine
2. D (eugenol is phenylpropene audit is
B. Biotin
also can be called sesquiterpene phenol)
C. Pyridoxine
3. D (niacin and pantothenic acid which
D. Niacin is required for the coenzyme a
formation)

4. B (order of reaction followed by 3. One of the following crude drug has

suspension is pseudo zero order) cardiac depressant activity
5. A (increases the blood glucose level A. Eugenol

that is hyperglycemia)
B. Camphor
C. Veratrum
1. Cystoliths present in
D. Vincristine
A. Vinica leaves
B. Datura leaves
4. Theobromine on oxidation with
C. Digitalis leaves KCIO3/HCI gives
D. Vasaka leaves A. Trimethyl alloxan and urea
B. Methyl alloxan and urea
2. Identify correct statement about C. Dimethyle alloxan and methyl urea

Lobeline is a alkaloid
D. Methyl alloxan and methyl urea
A. Containing Piperidine nucleus, used
in asthma
5. One of the following is not the
B. Containing pyrolidine nucleus, used
biological source of Cinchona
in asthma
A. Cinchona calisaya
C. Containing Piperidine nucleus, used
in mydriatic B. Cinchona officinalis
D. Containing Piperidine nucleus, used C. Cinchona succirubra

in cholinergic
D. Cinchona indica

1. D (crystals of calcium carbonate is C. Aziridine

known as cystholis it is present in
D. Phenanthrene
vasaka)
2. A (lobelia alkaloids conteins

piperidine used in 3. One table spoon full is
3. C (red rum is used as antihypertensive A. 4 mL

that is cardiac depressant activity)
B. 6 mL
4. D (methyl alloxan and methyl urea are
C. 8 mL
the hydrolysis product of theobromine)
D. 15 mL
5. D (cinchona is obtained from all other
resources except D)
4. Bence Jones Proteins found in urine

occur in
1. Major side effect of chloramphenicol
is A. Liver diseases
A. Bone marrow depression B. Diabetes mellitus
B. GIT disturbances C. Multiple myeloma
C. Isomnia D. Thalassemia
D. Profound dyspnea
5. Preparations of digitals is used in the

treatment of
2. Is a 5 membered hetrocyclic
compound with one hetro atom is A. Hypertension
A. Pyrimidine B. Gout
B. Furane C. Myocardial infraction

D. Congestive cardiac failure
2. Which one of these distributions is

more important in the design of dosage
1. A (bone marrow depression is major
forms?
side effect of chloramphenicol aplastic
anaemia agranulocytosis grey baby A. Gaussian
syndrome are the other adverse effects)
B. Normal
2. B (furan is 5 membered heterocyclic
C. Number
Ring with oxygen as heteroatom)
D. Weight
3. D (1 tablespoonful equal to 15 ml)
4. C (multiple myeloma is a significance

protein is found in urine) 3. Which type of diameter is important
in formulation of emulsion and
5. D (digital is used in congestive
suspensions
cardiac failure as a cardiotonic)
A. Length number
B. Projected
1. When cumulative percent freqency on
a probability scale is plotted against C. Sieve
logarithm of the particle size, 50 percent
D. Stokes
on the probability scale gives which
diameter of powder particle
A. Arithmetic mean 4. Sieving method is used for size

distribution analysis of powders. The
B. Aithmetic mode
disadvantage of this method is
C. Geometric mean
A. Agglomerates can be identified
D. Harmonic mean
B. Attrition of powder is possible

C. Large number fo sieves are required 5. C (deflocculating agent are used to

reduce the aggregation of suspended
D. Redious and time consuming
particles)
5. While using sedimentation method for

1. In Gas-Liquid chromatography, some
size analysis, addition of a
of the samples need to be derivatized in
deflocculating agent to a suspension is
order to increase their
necessary in order to
A. Volatility
A. Accelerate the process of
sedimentation B. Solubility
B. Make the particles spherical C. Thermal conductivity
C. Prevent the aggregation D. Polarizability
D. Satisfy reynolds number
2. Oxidative phosphorylation involves
1. C (it is known as Geometric mean A. Electron transport system

diameter of the powder)
2. D (usually waight is considered as B. Substrate level phosphorylation

parameter to design dosage form
C. Reaction catalyzed by succinic
according to various age group (
thiokinase in TCA cycle
3. D (Stokes diameter is important in
case of suspension because they particles
settle down)
4. B (attrition resulting into size 3. Coulter counter is used in

reduction is possible) determination of

A. Particle surface area is done to increase the polarizability of

sample i.e. ionization efficiency)
B. Particle size
2. A (phosphorylation of ADP to ATP in
C. Particle volume D. All of A, B, C
electron chain transport)
4. Drugs following one compartment
3. C (coulter counter method is used to
open model pharmacokinetics eliminate
determine the particle volume)
A. Bi-exponentially
4. D (elimination in one compartment
B. Tri-exponentially model is first order process with first
order rate constant that is mono
C. Non-exponentially
exponential)
D. Mono-exponentially
5. C (below 0° C cold temperature 2-8
cool temp)
5. Store under cold temperature as per IP

means
1. Triterpenoids are active constituents
A. Temperature between 8C and 25C of
B. Temperature below 20C A. Jaborandi
C. Temperature at 0C B. Rhubarb
C. Stramonium
D. Temperature between 2C and 8C
D. Brahmi
1. D (derivatization is a process using

2. Alkaloids are not precipitated by
voice and light is converted into suitable
for chromatographic separation and A. Mayer’s reagent
detection in case of glc derivatives Asian
B. Dragendroff Reagent

C. Picric acid D. Lobelia inflata
D. Millon’s reagent
1. D (after the hydrolysis of saponin

glycosides triterpenoids like becogenin
3. Anisocytic stoma are present in
A & becogenin B)
A. Senna
2. D (it is a reason for destruction of
B. Digitalis sugar not alkaloids)
C. Belladonna 3. C (anisocytic stomata is a

characteristic feature of solaneceus plant
D. Coca
present in atropa belladonna)
4. A (Brahmi consists of dried leaves

4. Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the and stems of bacopa monnieri family
family scrophuraceae)
A. Scrophulariacea 5. D (Lobealia consist of pyridine &

Piperidine alkaloids)
B. Leguminosae
C. Polygalaceae
D. Rubiaceae
1. Identify antifungal polyene macrolide
antibiotics with seven conjugated double
5. Tropane alkaloids are not present in bond, an internal ester, a free carboxyl
group and a glycoside side chain with
A. Datura stramonium
primary amino group
B. Erythoroxylum coca
A. Streptomycin
C. Duboisia myoporoides
B. Echinocandins

C. Rifamycin B. Guanethidine
D. Amphotericin-B C. Propranolol
D. Isosorbide dinitrate
2. Class IV anti-arrhythmic that is

primarily indicated for the treatment of
5. Therapeutically Imipramine is used
supra ventricular tachyarrhythmias is
for
A. Mexiletine
A. Insomnia
B. Diltiazem
B. Epilepsy
C. Nifedipine
C. Bed wetting in children
D. Propranolol
D. Mania
3. Antiviral agent which exhibits the

greatest selective toxicity for the
1. D (amphotericin B consists of seven
invading virus is
conjugated double bond Sikar Bansal
A. Amantadine group and internal ether group and
glycoside sidechain)
B. Zidovudine
2. B (diltiazem is class IV
C. Idoxuridine
antiarrhythmic drug used in
D. Acyclovir supraventricular arrhythmia it is a
Calcium channel blocker)
3. D (acyclovir inhibits DNA

4. Which drug often causes tachycardia
polymerase virus infected cells are
when given in regular doses
mostly susceptible to the drug actually
A. Verapamil actively replicating viruses are inhibited)

4. B (side effects of the guanithidine 3. An isosteric replacement for

includes palpitation and tachycardia) carboxylic acid group is
5. C (depression, anxiety, neuropathic A. Pyrrole

pain, obsessive compulsive
B. Isoxazole
disorder,nocturnal enuresis that is used
to treat bedwetting in childrens below 6 C. Phenol
years)
D. Tetrazole
1. At physiological pH the mostly drugs
will be in ...
4. One of the following is an example of
A. Cationic form
ansamycins
B. Unionized
A. Roxythoromycin
C. Zwitterionic form
B. Adriamycin
D. Anionic forms
C. Aureomycin
D. Rifamycin
2. Mood stabilizer for bipolar disorders
and aslo in certain epileptic convulsions
is 5. Glyburide can be metabolized by all
of metabolic reactions logically except
A. Phenytoin
A. O-Demethylation
B. Lithium
B. Aromatic oxidation
C. Sodium Valproate
C. Benzylic hydroxylation
D. Fluoxetine
D. Amide Hydroslysis

1. B (at physiological pH most of the A. Infliximab

drug remains in an ionized form which is
B. Abciximab
lipophilic and absorbed)
C. Gemtuzumab
2. B (lithium carbonate is used as mood
stabilizer in bipolar disorder and also D. Rituximab
used in some kind of epilepsy)
3. D (tetrazole is isosteric replacement of

3. Which drug is not used in the
carboxylic group)
treatment of malaria caused by
4. D (rifamycin are subclasses plasmodium falciparum
anasamycin)
A. Artemisinin
5. B
B. Primaquin
C. Quinine
1. Which drug is prescribed for the
D. Mefloquine
treatment of Philadelphia chromosome
positive patients with chronic myeloid
leukemia
4. Identify drug that does not act through
A. Pentostatin G-Protein coupled receptors
B. Methotrexate A. Epinephrine
C. Imatinib B. Atropine
D. L-Asparaginase C. Dopamine
D. TSH
2. Which monoclonal antibody is

prescribed for patients with non-
Hodgkin's Lymphoma

5. Identify drug that is most effective in 1. Stevens Johnson sjmdrome is the most
preventing transmission of HIV virus common adverse effect associated with
from the mother to the foetus
A. Sulphonamides
A. Lamivudine
B. Macrolides
B. Zidovudine
C. Penicillins
C. Indinavir
D. Tetracyclines
D. Ribavirin
2. Which is starting material for

1. C (it is used in chronic myelogenous synthesis of Amitryptyline
leukaemia, gastrointestinal stromal
A. Phthalic anhydride
tumors, recurrent gliolastoma and brain
tumors) B. Terephthalic acid
2. D (it is approved for non hodgkin's C. Phthalamic acid

lymphoma it is also used in rheumatoid
D. Phthalimide
arthritis, systemic lupus, vasculitis and
nephrotic syndrome)
3. B (primaquine is not used in malaria 3. What is common structural feature

caused by plasmodium falciparum) amongst the three categories of
anticonvulsant drugs barbiturates,
4. D (thyroid hormone acts through
succinamides and hydantoins
nuclear receptors)
A. Ureide
5. B (used to prevent transmission of
virus in 13th to 35th week of gestation, B. Imidazolidinone
during labour and 6 week of birth)
C. Dihydropyrimidine
D. Tetrahydropyrimidine

3. A (uride is common structural feature

amongst the head entwined barbiturates
4. Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is
and succinimides)
blocked by which drug
4. D ( d tubocurarine is used as muscle
A. Atropine
relaxant blocks the nicotinic action of
B. Carvedilol acetylcholine)
C. Neostigmine 5. D (4- Amino-2-deethlaminoethyl

benzoate is procaine)
D. d-Tubocurarine
1. Identify drug from following options

5. What is IUPAC name of procaine
that will increase systolic and diastolic
A. 2-Diethylaminoethyl 4- amino pressure in normal patient
benzoate
A. Epineherine
B. N, N –Diethyl – aminobenzoate
B. Norepinephrine
C. 4-Aminobenzamindoethl amine
C. Tyramine
D. Phenylephrine
D. 4- Amino-2-deethlaminoethyl
benzoate
2. If Reynold number is more than 1

then type of flow will be
1. A (Stevenson Johnson Syndrome is
adverse effect of sulfonamides, Dharma A. Smooth and stream line flow
multiforme associated with skin lesions
and mucosal lesions)
B. Laminar flow
2. B
C. Steady flow

D. Highly turbulent flow
1- C
3. One of the following is potassium 2- D

sparing diuretic
3- A
A. Trimatrine
4- B
B. Chlorthiazide
5- B
C. Mannitol
D. Furosemide
1. What will be the absorption kinetics if
drug is passively absorbed
4. Increase your number of Mitosis will A. Zero Order

be observed all of the following except
B. First Order
A. Bone marrow cells
C. Second order
B. Nails
D. Pseudo-zero Order
C. Hepatocytes
D. Intestinal Cells
2. Identify delayed type of
5. Vinca alkaloids belong which hypersensitivity reaction
chemical class of alkaloids
A. Arthus reaction
A. Tropane
B. Penicillin sensitivity
B. Indole
C. Tubercullin sensitivity
C. Tryptopha
D. ABO incompatibity
D. Purine

3. Methyl ether of erythromycin is 1- B

………………
2- C
A. Clarithromycin
3- A
B. Dirithromycina
4- B
C. Azithromycin
5- C
D. Mithramycin
1. Identify phase of clinical trial which is

4. Ebullioscopi cmethod is based on being conducted with 1500 volunteers
which of the following observation which may spans on period of 2 years as
per protocol.
A. Freezing point depression
A. Phase 1
B. Boiling point elevation
B. Phase 2
C. Osmotic pressure change
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
5. HLB of SPAN and TWEEN

surfactants may be obtained from which 2. Which of the following drug has not
of the following equations undergone a clinical trial for its use to
decrease intracranial pressure
A. HLB = E/5
A. Dideoxyinosine
B. HLB = (E+P)/5
B. Zidovudine
C. HLB = 20 [(1- S)/A)
C. Acetazolamide
D. HLB = (hydrophilic group numbers)-
(lipophilic group numbers)+7 D. Nicotine

3. Colloidal depression have which type

of rheological flow
A. Newtonian
1. C (1000-3000 subjects used in Phase
B. Pesudoplastic 3 of clinical trials which may extend
upto 2 years)
C. Non- Newtonian
2. C (acetazolamide is used as a diuretic
D. Dilatant
drug to reduce intracranial pressure due
to its proven diabetic activity it is not
undergone clinical trials for its use in
4. Which fo the nitrogen atoms in
intracranial pressure)
imidazole is more basic
3. C (colloidal solution and suspension
A. Nitrogen A
emulsion shows non newtonian flow)
B. Nitrogen B
4. B (nitrogen B (3) is more basic than
C. Both the N are equally basic nitrogen A (1) due to availability of lone
pair of electron)
D. Can not be said
5. B (Toluene is converted of which
compound in presence of CrO3 with
5. Toluene is converted of which acetic anhydride)
compound in presence of CrO3 with
acetic anhydride
1. Which of the following antibiotic
A. Benzyl alcohol
resembles the 3’ end of a charged tRNA
B. Benzaldehyde molecule
C. Benzoic acid A. Streptomycin
D. Benzoin B. Vincamycin

C. Puromycin 4. Which of the reagent from the given

can be used to protect ketone group
D. Tetracycline
A. Acidic methanol
B. Basic methanol
2. If the cohesive forces in between
similar molecules are less than the C. Methanol + KCN
adhesive forces between dissimilar
D. Phenobarbitone
molecules, what type of deviation in
Raolt’s law will observe?
A. Positive 5. Which of the following drugs causes

less inhibition of REM sleep
B. Negative
A. Zolpidem
C. Absent
B. Ethanol
D. Either positive or negative
C. Lorazepam
D. Phenobarbitone
3. Phenylalanine, a precursor of most of
the phenolics is higher plants, it is
derived from
1. C (puromycin consist of nucleotides,
A. Shikimic acid pathway amide link and amino acid like structure
in its structure so that it is resembles to
B. Malonic acid pathway
3' end of aminoacylated tRNA)
C. Mevalonic acid pathway
2. A (cohesive attraction forces of unlike
D. Methylerhtritol pathway compounds weaker or less then dose of
pure liquid it is positive deviation)

3. A (phenylalanine and tyrosine, D. It is a likely candidate for drug

tryptophan are derived from shikimic interactions
acetic acid pathway)
3. TGA i.e therapeutic good
4. A administration is regulatory body of....
5. A (it is a benzodiazepine receptor A. Europe

agonist it enhances the action of GABA,
B. Australia
has minor effect on REM sleep)
C. Canada
D. United Kingdom
1. Which of the following is an
irreversible instability of emulsion
A. Craking 4. Which prostaglandins have a keto

function at C-9 and a α- Hydroxyl group
B. Creaming
at C-11 in prostanoic acid backbone
C. Coalescence
A. PGA
D. Flocculation
B. PGI
C. PGE2
2. If a drug is highly bound to plasma
D. PGF
proteins, what might be its reason or
consequence
A. It most likely carried by α- 5. Find out the correct sequence of

glycorprotien distribution of drug is administered
intravenously
B. It has a high renal clearance
A. The skin, kidney, and brain
C. It has a large Vd

B. The liver, kidney, and brain A. Extension
C. The liver, adipose, and brain B. Simplication
C. Rigidication
D. The liver, kidney, and adipose
D. Conformational block
2. Which type of photon detector is

1. A (Cracking is Irreversible, creaming, commonly microfabricated into arrays of
coalescence, flocculation is reversible 500 or More individual detectors
instability emulsion)
A. Photocell
2. D (high plasma protein binding drug
B. Phototube
will require large doors and protein
binding sites will saturated it will lead to C. Photumultiplier tube
side effect toxicity and interactions)
D. Photodiode array
3. B (TGA therapedic good
administration is regulatory agency of
Australia) 3. Which reaction of phase II drug
metabolism reaction associated with
4. C (PGE2 have a keto function at C-9
genetic polymorphism
and a α- Hydroxyl group at C-11 in
prostanoic acid backbone) A. Glucuroinidation
5. B B. Acytylation
1. What strategy of drug design is C. Reduction

frequently used on complex lead
D. Glutathione conjugation
compounds derived from natural
products

4. A Grahm- diplococcus associated with typical PDA consist of 512 diode to

UTI, pelvic inflammatory disease and cover a large wavelength range 190-
conjunctivitis, meningitis is 800nm)
A. Neissria gonorrhoea 3. B (variation in drug metabolizing

capacity of individual to reaction of
B. Chlamdia Trachomatis
acetylation patients are classified as fast
C. Hemophilus influenza acetylators and slow acetylators)
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae 4. A (small non motile encapsulated

aerobic Gram Negative diplococcus
Neissria gonorrhoea is associated with
5. Which hormone is the basis of UTI pelvic inflammatory disease
detection in Pregnancy test kits meningitis and conjunctivitis)
A. Estrogen 5. B (a rapid chromatographic

immunoassay that detects qualitatively
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
human chorionic gonadotropin in urine
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone or serum the sensitivity of this test is
98% that it is highly selective to the
D. Luteinizing hormone
HCG)
1. B (simplification is nothing but

1. A drug of low water solubility when
removal of unnecessary the ring or
given orally is absorbed up to 90% of the
structure of natural compound to retain
administered does. The drug belongs to
pharmacological action and minimise
which class according to BCS
adverse effect)
classification
2. D (photodiode array detector or PDA,
A. Class IV
consists of several hundreds of
photodiode arranged in linear fashion a B. Class III

C. Class II B. Cellulose polymers
D. Class I C. Acrylate polymers
D. Amide polymers
2. If the material to be compressed into 5. Hairy root cultures for production of

tablet tends to adhere to die walls one of secondary metabolites are induced by
the following will be observed transforming plant cell with which
organism
A. Picking
A. Bacilus thurigienis
B. Sticking
B. Agrobacterium tumfacinens
C. Capping
C. Agarobacterrhizogenes
D. Marbling
D. Virus
3. What is the half life of Tc-99m

1. C (class II low solubility high
A. 66 years
permiability drugs as per BCS)
B. 66 hours
2. B (if material is adhered to die wall or
C. 6 hours punches it is called as taking it is
because of improper lubrication of
D. 60 minutes
granules and drying)
3. C (radioactive decay of technetium 99

4. Eudragits are half life is 6 hours and negligible activity
after 2 days)
A. Phthalate polymers

4. C (eudragit are polymers of acrylyate

prepared by polymerisation of acrylic
3. What structure is formed if the acyl
acid methacrylic acid and there esters)
side chain of penicillin is hydrolysed
5. C (hairy root culture is produced by
A. Penicellienic acids
infecting a steel plant with natural
genetic engineer agrobacterium B. Penillic acids
rhizogenes)
C. 7-Aminopenicillanic acid
D. 6—Aminopenicillanic acid
1. In NMR spectrum, a signal is
observed as triplet. What will be the
ratio of relative peak areas in this signal? 4. One of the following drug is not
required therapeutic drug monitoring
A. 1:1:1
A. Phenytoin
B. 1:2:1
B. Lithium
C. 1:3:1
C. Gentamicin
D. 1:4:1
D. Losartan
2. At pH 5, the ratio of the protonated to

unprotanated forms of morphine pKa 7 5. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased
would be energy production bcz
A. 1:100 A. It is required for the process of

transamination
B. 1:10
B. It is a co-factor in oxidative reduction
C. 10:1
C. It is a co-enzyme for transketolase is
D. 100:1
pentose phosphate pathway

D. It is a co-enzyme for pyruvate C. Sulfamethoxazole

dehydrogenase & alpha ketoglutarate
D. Mafenide acetate
dehydrogenase.
2. Which FQ, is not having fluorine at
6th position and piperazine at 7th
1. B (remember Pascal Triangle relative position
intensity and splitting pattern)
A. Ciprofloxacine
2. C
B. Pefloxacine
3. D (hydrolysis will result in 6
C. Ofloxacine
aminopenicillanic acid)
D. Sparfloxacine
4. D (all other option except losartan are
narrow therapeutic index drug,
therapeutic drug monitoring is required)
3. Identify macrolid antibiotic which
5. D (thymine is a coenzyme for the contains 15-membered lactone ring
pyruvate dehydrogenase and Alpha
A. Erythromycin
kiddo glutamate dehydrogenase and both
of these plays important role in
carbohydrate metabolism which is B. Clarithromycin
primary source of energy)
C. Azithromycin
D. All of the above
1. Identify non aniline derivatives Sulfa

drug
4. Quinupristin/Dalfopristin is combined
A. Sulfadoxine as ...
B. Sulfadiazine

A. 10:90 3. C (Azithromycin contain 15

membered, Erythromycin A content 14
membered, Tylosin contains 16
B. 20:80
memberd Lactone ring)
C. 30:70
4. C (Quinupristin/Dalfopristin is
combined in preparation of 30:70)
D. 40:60
5. A (lamefloxacin has highest
photosensitivity moxifloxacin and
prulifloxacin have lower risk of
5. Identify correct pair of FQ whic has
photosensitivity reactions)
low and high phototoxity respectively
A. Sparfloxacin and Lomefloxacin

1. Which one is used to minimize the
B. Lomefloxacin and Sparfloxacin
side effect of isoniazid?
C. Gatifloxacin and Sparfloxacin
A. Rifampin
D. Ciprofloxcin and Gatifloxacin
B. Ethambutol
1. D (mafenide acetate reason not to C. Pyridoxine

sulfanilamide drug it is a devoid of
aniline in its structure, used topically for
D. Pyrazinamide
clostridium walchii, infectious wonds
not effective only)
2. D(ofloxacin contents different group 2. Which one of the following drug acts
at 6 position but also contain piperazine by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA
at 7 position, in addition to that polymerase of mycobacteria?
moxifloxacin and sparfloxacin has
different groups at 6th & 7th position)

A. Ethambutol D. Lomefloxacin
B. Isoniazid
5. Identify drug used orally for the
C. Pyrazinamide treatment of vulvovaginal condidiasis
A. Butoconazole
D. Rifampin
B. Miconazole
3. Which one of the following drug acts C. Fluconazole

by blocking arabinosyl transferse
incolved incell wall synthesis?
D. Tioconazole
A. Ethambutol
1. C (pyridoxine or Vitamin B6 is used

B. Isoniazid
to minimise the side effect that is
C. Pyrazinamide peripheral neuritis bcz of isoniazid)
2. D (it is mechanism of action of

D. Rifampin rifampin)
3. A (ethambutol acts by inhibiting

arabinosyl transferase which is involved
4. Identify 2nd generation difluorinated
in polymerization reaction of
quinolone that is equal in activity with
arabinogalycan which is the essential
ciprofloxacin
component of mycobacterial cell wall)
A. Levofloxacin
4. D (Lomefloxacin is a second
B. Gatifloxacin generation difluoroquinolone which is
equally active like ciprofloxacin)
C. Sparfloxacin

5. C (Fluconazole itraconazole are used B. Methicillin

orally rest of all are used topically)
C. Methenamine
D. Minocycline
1. Identify glycopeptides antibiotic that
is cell wall inhibitor
4. Idoxuridine, an antineoplastic agent,
A. Piperacillin
its mechanism of action results from its
phosphorylation and ultimately
B. Vancomycin incorporation into DNA in place of
C. Cefazolin A. dATP
D. Ceftriaxone B. dCTP
2 .Which sulphonamides from the C. dGTP

options has the longest half life
A. Sulfisoxazole D. dTTP
B. Sulfadiazine
5. Which is mechanism associated with
C. Sulfadoxine resistance to the cytotoxic effects of 5-
fluorouracil
D. Sulfamethoxazole A. Decreased activity of enzymes

necessary for the activation of 5-
fluorouracil
3. Identify Hexamethylene tetramine
B. Amplification of thymidylate
derivative from given options
synthase
A. Nitrofurantoin

C. Altered thymidylate synthase that is B. 5-FU

not inhibited by F-dUMP
C. Busulfan
D. All of the above
D. Melphalan
1. B (vancomycin is glycopeptide
2. Identify drug that does cause lepra
antibiotics enable the cell wall synthesis
reaction
by binding to ala - D-ala)
A. Clofazamine
2. C (sulfadoxine, sulphomethopyrazin
are the long acting sulfonamides up to 7 B. Dapsone
days)
C. Capreomycin
3. C (Methenamine is exam
D. Rifampicin
Hexamethylene tetramine derivative
used as urinary antiseptic)
4. D (iodoxouridine is antiviral drug it is 3. Combination of methotrexate&5-

a thymidine analogue) fluorouracil, enhances the antitumor
activity of 5- fluorouracil.....
5. A (decreased enzyme activity
necessary for activation of 5 A. Prior
fluorouracil, target associated resistance
and pharmacokinetic resistance at the
B. Later
three main mechanism of resistance to 5
fluorouracil) C. Simultaneous
D. Any of the above

1. One of the following is not an
alkylating agent
A. Cyclophosphamide

4. Minimal duration of antibacterial fluorouracil, if given after antagonistic

treatment usually is activity)
A.Not less than 1 days 4. B (5-7 these are the minimal

antibacterial therapy)
B. Not less than 5 days
5. B (ethionamide is really used
C. Not less than 10-14 days
antitubercular drug is it is a neurotoxic)
D. Not less than 3 weeks
1. Preservatives are usually added in

5. Which drug used in tuberculosis which parenteral preparations
treatment can cause both pheripheral and
A. Single dose contains
optical neuritis
B. Multi dose preparation
A. Ethambutol
C. Large volume parenterals
B. Ethionamide
D. None of above
C. Isoniazide
D. Rifampin
2. What is purpose of adding 15% SO2
whilemanufacturing of empty gelatin
1. B (5 fluorouracil comes under the capsule
antimetabolite class, all other options are
A. As colouring agent
the examples of alkylating agents)
B. To present decomposition
2. B (depsone causes lepra reaction
which is adverse effect of Dapsone) C. To Reduce bittemon
3. A (up me total seat is given prior it D. All the above

gives synergistic activity with it 5

3. One of the following section in

industry must have HEPA filters
1. B (single dose preparation and large
A. Tableting section volume parenterals does not contain any
preservative only multidose vials contain
B. Capsules filling section
preservative)
C. Parenteral manufacturing
2. B (super dioxide is added to prevent
D. Aerosols manufacturing section the decomposition of gelatin capsule
manufacturing of gelatin capsule)
3. C (parenterals manufacturing require

4. The process of rotating ampoule in
sterile air so HEPA filters are used)
Bunsen flame to melt down the rough
edges is called as 4. C (the mouth of each ampoule is
rotated on bunsen burner to melt down
A. Flamming
the Rough edges to prevent suffering off
B. Closing glass fragments into the ampules)
C. Annealing 5. A (when glass is stored in dump

atmosphere for long time with extreme
D. Grounding
temperature variations the wettings of
surface results insult been dissolved on
the surface of glass in the form of
5. Type II glass is treated with Sulphur
crystals this process is known as
to overcome the problem of
blooming or weathering this can be
A. Weathering removed by washing with water or acid
treatment is known as sulphur treatment)
B. Breakage
C. Haziness
1. The busher injector is
A. Wyeth’s cartirdge injection system

B. Automatic device for self injection 4. Which of the following injectable

solution should not be added any
C. Device used to start an i.v injection
infusion bottles?
D. The disposable syringe and needle
A. Diazepam
system
B. Folic acid
C. Gentamycin sulphate
2. Which of the following commonly
available large volume dextrose solution D. Furosemide
is isotonic?
A. 2.5%
5. A synthetic sweetening agent which is
B. 5% approximately 200 rimes sweeter than
sucrose and unstable in presence of
C. 10%
moisture
D. 20%
A. Saccharin
B. Aspartame
3. Dose dumping is a problem is
D. Cyclamate
associated with one of the following
D. Sorbitol
A. Compressed tablets
B. Suppositories
1. B (it is automatic type of injector)
C. Soft gelatin
2. B (D 5%, dextrose 5% IV is
D. Controlled release drug products
commonly commonly available and is
isotonic with blood)

3. D (dose dumping is a problem with

sustained release and controlled release
3. Achlorhydria is the condition defined
formulations)
by
4. A (it is incompatible with other
A. Excess secretion of gastric HCl
solutions, it is a poorly water-soluble
drug and marketed in complex solvent B. Absence of HCl in gastric acid
mixture) secretion
5. A (same question question number 5 C. Decrease of gastric pH

in set 1)
1. One of the following is saline

4. Wilson disease is a condition of
cathartic
excess storage of
A. Acarbose
A. Iron
B. Aluminium phosphate
B. Zinc
C. Magnesium sulphate
C. Copper
D. Liquid paraffin
D. Iodine
2. ORS solution should be used within

5. Two completely miscible solutions
....of preparation
can be separated by
A. 1 hrs
A. Evaporation
B. 4 hrs
B. Fractional distillation
C. 24 hrs
C. A separating funnel
D. 12 hrs

1. How many persons elected for the PCI

from the teaching profession
1. C (examples of saline cathartics are
magnesium salt and sodium phosphate, A. Five
they are poorly episode in, causes
B. Six
retention of water, soft bulky stool
magnesium ion in addition to this has C. Seven
stimulant action on cholecystokinin
D. Eight
which leads to retention of water)
2. C (oral rehydration therapy is

replacement of dehydration and 2. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
electrolytes in the body preposition Substances Act was passed in the year
should be used within 24 hours)
A. 1940
3. B (absence of HCL that is gastric acid
B. 1955
is known as achlorhydria and excess of
stomach HCL is known as C. 1985
hyperchlorhydria)
D. 2000
4. C (accumulation of copper in liver
brain kidney, defect in incorporation of
copper in ceruloplasmin, autosomal 3. Ganja means.. ..... parts of the plant as
recessive disorder caused by mutation of per the narcotic drugs and psychotropic
ATP7B gene) substances act
5. B (using fractional distillation we can A. Only seeds

separate two miscible liquids those have
B. Only leave
difference in boiling point at least 25
degree, fractionating columns are used) C. Only flowering or fruiting tops

D. All parts of the plant 5. B (what body does to the drug is

pharmacokinetics whereas what drug
does to the body is pharmacodynamic)
4. The Poisons act was passed in
A. 1994
1. Which is used to treat mucous
B. 1910 membrane damaged by acids
C. 1914 A. Aspirin
D. 1919 B. Misoprostol
C. H2 blocker
5. Pharmacokinetics is the study of D. None of the above
A. Effect of drug in the body
B. Effect of body on the drug 2. As per GMP requirement the filters

for sterile air are
C. Both are the same
A. HEPA filters
B. Membrane filters
C. Edge filters
1. B
D. Asbestos filter
2. C
3. C (flowering tops of Cannabis plant)

3. Bulking agent used in the parentral
4. D (the poison Act was passed in the
preparation is
3rd September 1919 with a view to
control import, possetion and sale of A. Sodium meta bisulphate
poisonous substances
B. Benzyl alcohol

C. Carbolic acid 2. A (HEPA filters are used to get

sterilized air in industry)
D. Sorbitol
3. D (sorbitol, glucose, sucrose,
trehalose are used as a bulking agent in
4. A co-solvent used in the preparation parenteral preparation)
of parenteral products is
4. C (dimethylacetamide is a water
A. BenzylAlcohol soluble co-solvent used in parenteral
preparation)
B. Methylalcohol
5. D (all are the methods to reduce
C. Dimethyl acetamide
oxidation in the preparation)
D. Phenol
1. What is a criterion to call a system

5. Oxidation reaction in a parenteral colloid
formulation can be reduced by
A. A fine state of subdivison of
A. Addition of 0.1% sodium dispersed phase
metabisulfite
B. Dispersed particles are in the size
B. Replacing oxygen by nitrogen range of 1 nm to 1μm
C. Maintenance the pH of the solution C. Interface is very extensive
D. All of these D. The presence of dispersed phase in a

dispersion medium
1. B (Misoprostol is used to treat drug
induced ulcers like NSAIDs,
corticosteroids, anticoagulants, acts by
2. Solutions of proteins and strach in
promoting bicarbonate and mucous
water are the examples of the colloidal
secretion)
type

A. Hydrophilic 5. Which of the following DO NOT

form colloid spontaneously?
B. Hydrophobic
A. Association
C. Lyophilic
B. Lyophilic
D. Lypophobic
C. Lyophobic
D. Micellar
3. Electrodialysis method is employed in

the colloidal chemistry for the purpose 1. B (if the dispersed particles are in size
of range of 1 nanometre to 1 micrometre it
is called as dispersion)
A. Identification
2. A (also called as lyophilic colloid that
B. Preparation
is solvent loving popular example is
C. Purification gelatin, Acacia in water)
D. Stabilization 3. C (purification of colloids is achieved

by electrodialysis, electrolysis)
4. C
4. Silica gel is an example of ...... type of
gel 5. C (lyophobic colloids are not formed
spontaneously)
A. Dilatant
B. Elastic
1. Find out true statement regarding first
C. Rigid
order kinetics is
D. Thixotropic
A. Independent of plasma concentration

B. A constant proportion of plasma A. Volume of distribution

concentration is eliminated
B. Bioavailability
C. T1/2 increases with dose
C. Clearance
D. Clearance decreases with dose
D. First pass metabolism
2. Acetylation is the process of

5. Absorption of a drug is effected by
metabolism for all drug except
A. INH
A. Solubility
B. Sulfonamides
B. Route of administration
C. Ketoconazole
C. Vascularity
D. Hydralazine
D. All of the above
3. Identify drug which is not a prodrug

1. B (constant function of drug is
A. Levodopa eliminated from plasma per unit time)
B. Omeprazole 2. C (drugs containing amino group

sulfonamides hydrazide hydrogens are
C. Enalapril
metabolized by acetylation)
D. Indomethacin
3. D (indomethacin is a not a prodrug
rest of all options are converted to active
drug after metabolism)
4. Volume of plasma from which the
drug is completed removed per unit time 4. C (it is a definition of clearance)
is known as

5. D (all are the examples of factors C. Cellulose

affecting on absorption of drug)
D. Glycoside
1. The nature of mobile phase in normal

4. Positive LAL test indicate the
phase chromatography will be
presence of one of the following
A. Polar
A. Polysaccharide
B. Non polar
B. Protein
C. Depends on the chromatographic
C. Disaccharide
technique
D. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Depends on the nature of analyte
5. Concentration of which plant growth

2. Presence of ketone bodies in urine is
regulator increase in stress conditions
detected by
like drought & flooding
A. Rothera test
A. Abscisin-II
B. Benzidine test
B. Zeatin
C. Heat coagulation test
C. Indole acetic acid
D. Schif test
D. Gibberllic acid
3. Chemically cotton is
1. B (in case of normal phase
A. Starch chromatography stationary phase is
Polar and mobile phase is nonpolar and
B. Resin

vice versa with reverse phase B. Iodine

chromatography)
C. Barium sulphate
2. A (Rothera test is specific test for
D. Sodium phosphate
determination of Ketone bodies in urine)
3. C (cotton is chemically cellulose that

is polymer of glucose) 3. KCN is required for the limit test for
4. D (limulus amebocyte lysate is a test A. Heavy metals

for detection of pyrogens which are
B. Arsenic
lipopolysaccharide in nature)
C. Lead
5. A (this hormone promotes stress
tolerance inhibits cell division & Sail D. Iron
elevation in drought & flooding)
4. Turbidity produced in the limit test of

1. The laws of electrolysis were chloride due to
proposed by
A. AgCl
A. Fritz Haber
B. BaCl2
B. Michael Faraday
C. AgNO3
C. Friedrich Kohlrausch
D. Thioglycollate
D. Richard Abegg
5. Pernicious anemia is caused due to the

2. One of the following serves as a deficiency of
radioopaque contrast
A. Vitamin A
A. Ferric chloride
B. Vitamin B12

C. Vitamin C B. Q- T interval prolongation
D. Vitamin E C. Constipation
D. Drowsiness and sedation
1. B (Micheal Faraday proposed the laws

of electrolysis)
2. The mechanism of action of heparin is
2. C (barium sulfate enema is used as a
A. Binding to antithrombin
radio contrast media for various
investigation of GIT) B. Blocking regeneration of vitamin K
3. C (ammonium thiocyanate potassium C. Thrombolytic action

cyanide head hydroxyzine hydrochloride
D. Preventing platelet aggregation
is used to optimise the pH of the reaction
solution and to minimise the interference
of impurities errors in limit test for
3. Apixaban is a new drug that acts by
Lead)
A. Inhibiting TNF α
4. A (the reaction is based on chloride
ions and silver nitrate in presence of B. Inhibiting coagulant factor Xa
nitric acid opalescence produced by
C. Inhibiting platelet aggregation
Silver chloride formed is measured)
D. Acivating plasminogen
5. C (Pernicious anaemia is due to
deficiency of Vitamin B12)
4. Cholesterol gallstones may be

dissolved by oral treatment with
1. What is the common adverse effect of
cisapride? A. Lovastatin
A. Extrapyramidal effect B. Dehydrocholic acid

C. Methyl tertiary butyl ether 5. D (colloidal salt of Bismuth

subsalicylate and Bismuth subcitrate are
D. Chenodeoxycholic acid
used in treatment and suppression of H
pylori infection)
5. Bismuth salts are thought to be

effective in peptic ulcer disease because
1. One of the following drug consist of
they have bactericidal properties against
Phenanthrene Nucleus
A. Escherichia coli
A. Thebaine
B. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Papaverine
C. Clostridium difficiles
C. Morphine
D. Helicobacter pylori
D. Xanthene
1. B (cisapride, Q T prolongation and

2. Stomatal Number is average number
Cardiac arrhythmia are the common side
of stomata
effects and it is withdrawn from market)
A. Per sq mm
2. A (heparin binds the antithrombin and
thrombin combine to form ternary B. Per mm
complex)
C. Per sq cm
3. B (by binding the factor Xa it enabled
D. Per cm
the formation of thrombus and platelet
aggregation)
4. D (Chenodeoxycholic acid & 3. Stomataare present over upper

urdeoxycholic acid dissolve gallstones epidermis in which of the following
by diminishing biliary cholesterol crude drug
secretion and desaturating the bile)

A. Waterlilly 2. A (stomatal number is number of

stomata per square mm)
B. Datura
3. A (water lily consists of stomata in
C. Cactus
upper epidermis)
D. Thevetia
4. C (glandular trichomes are absent in
dhatura)
4. One of the following is not present in 5. A (macrocyclic rings are present in

Datura vancomycin)
A. Unicellular trichomes
B. Covering trichomes 1. Osmotic pressure can be determined

by
C. Glandular trichomes
A. Nanometer
D. Multicellular trichomes
B. Osmometer
C. Barometer
5. Which ring system is present in
Vancomycin? D. Manometer
A. Macrocyclic
B. β-Lactam 2. Dilatometer apparatus is used to

measure
C. Imidazole
A. Eutectic point
D. Triazole
B. Triple point
C. Transition temperature
1. C (Morphine is phenanthrene type of
alkaloid from opium) D. Craft point

3. Calamine contains 1. B ( osmometer is used to measure

osmotic pressure)
A. ZnO and ferric oxide
2. C (dialometer, is a type of thermal
B. ZnO and ferrous oxide
analysis transition temperature can be
C. Zinc carbonate and ferric oxide determined by dialometry)
D. Zinc carbonate and ferrous oxide 3. A (Calamine is zinc oxide and ferric
oxide should contain not less than 98%
and not more than 100.5% ZnO)
4. If pKa decreases then the basicity of a
4. B
week base
5. B (calorimeter measures the energy in
A. Increases
calories)
B. Decreases
C. Unchanged
1. Bambuterol is a prodrug of
D. Becomes equal to pH
A. Terbutaline
B. Salbuterol
5. The change in heat energy in a
C. Formetrol
chemical reaction can be measured by
using B. Bambuterol
A. Colorimeter
B. Calorimeter 2. Adverse effect of methotrxate
C. Polarimeter A. Fibrosis
D. All of the above B. Micturation

C. Vitamin deficiency C. Needle shaped D. None of the

above
D. Mucle fatigue
1. A (bambuterol is a prodrug of
3. One of the following is anti sweet
turbutaline used in chronic asthma)
agent
2. A (bone marrow suppression hepatitis
A. Quercetin
liver Fibrosis teratogenicity are the side
B. Kalmeghin effect of methotrexate)
C. Gymnemic acid 3. C (gymnemic acid is sweetness

inhibitor used in treatment of diabetes
D. Momordic acid
and obesity)
4. A (Sp hybridized planar structure)

4. Which hybridisation is common in
5. B (Prismatic calcium oxalate crystal is
cyano, carbonyl & alkyne
found in Raulowfia serpentina)
A. sp
B. sp2
1. One of the following cannot be used
C. sp3 as Antacid
D. All of the above A. Limestone
5. Type of calcium oxalate crystals B. Baking powder

present in Rauwolfia
C. Simethicone
A. Acicular
D. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Prismatic
2. Half life can be estimated by

A. Rate of absorption C. 5-SA + salazine
B. Rate of elimination D. All of the above
C. Both of above
D. None of them 1. A (call option can be used as antacid

except limestone)
2. C
3. Ketamine is used as
3. A (kitmine produces dissociative
A. Dissociative anaesthesia
anaesthesia i.e immobility amnesia
B. Drug of choice in Asthama analgesia with little sleep with feeling of
dissociation of own body and mind from
C. Treatment for Alopecia
surrounding)
D. Antihypertensive
4. A (minoxidil is Potassium channel
openers, by increasing the blood flow in
hair follicle used in treatment of
4. Drug used in treatment of alopecia is
alopecia)
A. Minoxidil
5. A (sulfasalazine contained salicylic
B. Spiranolactone acid add sulfonamide with side chain
sulfamoyl pyridine it is used in
C. Probencid
ulcerative colitis)
D. Cytarabin
1. Cobalt is used in Schillin test is

5. Sulfasalazine is
A. Cobalt 50
A. 5-SA + Sulfapyridine
B. Cobalt 57
B. 5-SA + sulfadiazine
C. Cobalt 58

D. Both B and C C. Gastric juice
D. Urine
2. Identify the commonly used antacid

combination
5. Which of the following is systemic
A. Aluminium and magnesium antacid
compound
A. Aluminium Hydroxide gel
B. Sodium and magnesium compoud
B. Magnesium trisilicate
C. Potassium and magnesium compound
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. All of the above
1. D (schilling test is a Diagnostic test

3. What is the % of Iodine present in that weather body is able to absorb
Lugol’s solution vitamin B12 or not Co 58
cynocobalamin p.o. Co 57
A. 10% w/v
cyanocobalamin and intrinsic factor p.o.
B. 11% w/v combination is known as dual schilling
test)
C. 15% w/v
2. A (aluminium and magnesium
D. 5% w/v
compound are combined together to
counteract side effects of each other that
is aluminium hydroxide causes
4. One of the following fluids has pH 1.5
constipation and magnesium trisilicate
to 3.5
causes diarrhoea if the combined
A. Saliva together they will counteract side effect
of each other)
B. Blood

3. A (10% iodine and 10% potassium

iodide solution)
3. One of the following antacids
4. C (gastric juice has pH range of 1-3.5, possesses belching and flatulence as an
rest of the options has more than this) undesirable side effects
5. C (sodium bicarbonate gets absorbed A. MgSO4.7H2O

and changes pH of blood so it is called
B. NaHCO3
as systemic antacid)
C. AlCl3
D. Magaldrate
1. The movement of energy from one
system to another with physical or
chemical change is called
4. An organic liquid which is steam
A. Thermokinetics volatile and misicible with water can be
separated by
B. Thermodynamics
A. Evaporation
C. Thermochemistry
B. Fractional distillation
D. Thermochemical studies
C. A separating funnel
D. Steam distillation
2. Which one of the following can flow
in adeabetic pressure?
A. Matter 5. One of the following is temperature

dependent
B. Heat
A. Molarity
C. Air
B. Normality
D. None of these
C. Formality

D. Molality B. Ticarcillin
C. Piperacillin
1. B (thermodynamic is a study of effect

of heat, work, energy on this system) D. Naficillin
2. D (it is related to monoatomic ideal

gas)
3. Identify the drug which is not first
3. B (Sodium Bicarbonate react with generation cephalosporines
acid and religious carbon dioxide that
A. Cephalothin
causes flatulence)
4. D
B. Cephalexin
5. A (molarity is temperature dependent
C. Cefuroxime
whereqs molality is not)
D. Cefadroxil
1. One of the following is Gold standard
for antifungal therapy
4. Nystatin is effective for
A. Amphotericine B
A. Systamic myosis
B. Nystatine
B. Superficial candidiasis
C. Hamycin D. Natamycin
C. Fungal meningitis
D. Dermatophytosis
2. One of the following is
carboxypenicillin
A. Mezlocillin 5. Identify a β-lactamase inhibitor

A. Imipenem 1. Which of the following is not a loop

diuretic
B. Clavulonic acid A. Fruesmide
C. Aztreonam B. Torsemide
C. Ethacrynic acid
D. Meropenem
D. Chlorthalidone
1. A (amphotericin B is a gold standard

2. Alkalinization of urine is done during
drug for antifungal therapy now it is
administration of which of the following
replaced by voriconazole because of
chemotherapeutic drugs?
adverse effect of amphotericin B but still
it is a gold standard drug) A. Ara-C (Cytarabine)
2. B (carbenicillin & ticarciline are the B. Methotrexate

examples of carboxypenicillin)
C. Cisplatin
3. C (cefuroxime is a 2nd generation
D. Ifosfamide
cephalosporin)
4. B (it is Polyene antifungal drug it is

toxic when used systemically it is used 3. Which of the following
for topical and superficial) antihypertensive drugs should not be
used in a patient on Lithium in order to
5. B (clavulanic acid, sulbactam,
prevent Lithium Toxicity?
tazobactam are the examples of Beta
lactamase inhibitor) A. Clonidine
B. Beta blockers
C. Calcium Channel Blockers

D. Diuretics 2. B (methotrexate has a side effect of

kidney damage by forming crystals as it
is poorly soluble in acidic urine to
4. Identify wrong statement about minimise the nephrotoxicity it is
Selective Estrogen Receptor necessary to administer urine alkalizer
Downregulator (SERD) pH of urine should be above 7)
A. It is a selective estrogen antagonist 3. D (Lithium toxicity is seen in

concurrent use of diuretic drugs
B. Used in the treatment of breast cancer
particularly thiazide diuretics)
C. Slower acting, safer and less effective
4. C (SERD are pure oestrogen
than SERM
antagonist they are used in treatment of
D. May be administered as ‘once a breast cancer and can be given once a
month’ dose month)
5. A (it is a partial agonist of mu

receptors it has ceiling effect which
5. Buprenorphine is a....
limits fits respiratory depression
A. Partial mu agonist Euphoria and it is safe as compared to
other full agonist)
B. Full mu agonist
C. Partial kappa agonist

1. Dipole dipole interaction is also called
D. Full kappa agonist
as
A. Keesom forces
1. D (chlorthalidone is not a loop
B. Debye interaction
diuretic it comes under thiazide class rest
of all are) C. London forces
D. Electrostatic forces

2. Projection of molecule between two 5. Shell of soft gelatin capsule may be

bonds of c-atom horizontal and two made elastic by the addition of
vertical are....
A. Sorbitol
A. Sawhorse projection
B. Povidone
B. Newman’s projection
C. HPMC
C. Fischer’s projection
D. PEG
D. Wedge-dot formula
1. C (permanent dipole -permanent

3. Distribution is :Keesom, permanent dipole- induced
dipole: Debey , induced dipole -induced
A. Active process
dipole :London forces or dispersion
B. Passive process forces)
C. Endocytosis 2. C (the carbon chain projected

vertically is considered to be below the
D. Carrier mediated transport system
plane and those projected horizontally he
is considered to be above the plane of
the paper of viewer that is fisher's
4. Vinblastin contains
projection)
A. Ajmalicin and Vindoline
3. B (drug distribution is passive
B. Ajmalicin and Cathranthine process)
C. Vindoline and Cathranthine 4. C (it is a condensation product of

vindoline & catherantine)
D. Vindoline, Cathranthine and
Ajmalicine

5. A (sorbitol and glycerine are used as a B. Pyrole & pyrimidine

plasticizer in empty gelatin capsule
C. Pyrimidine & thiazole
shell)
D. Pyrazole & pyrole
1. The no of milligrams of KOH

required to saponify esters in 1 g of fat is 4. Duboisia contains one of the
called following
A. Acid value A. Quinoline alkaloid
B. Iodine value B. Steroidal Alkaloid
C. Hydroxyl value C. Tropane Alkaloid
D. Saponification value D. Indol Alkaloid
2. N1 group of fluoroquinolone is 5. Surface hardness of tablet is evaluated

responsible for by
A. Potency A. Strong cob teste
B. Pharmacophore B. Viker tester
C. Cell wall penetration C. Monsanto hardness tester
D. Spectrum of activity D. None of the above
3. Which introcyclic rings are present in 1. D (number of milligram KOH

vitamin thiamine required to saponify one gram of Fat or
oil is known as a saponification value)
A. Pyrole & thiazole

2. A (N1 substitution controls the 3. Cow’s milk contains

potency and some pharmacokinetics)
A. Glucose + galactose
3. C (Pyrimidine and thiazole ring
B. Glucose + glucose
present in structure of thiamine)
C. Glucose + fructose
4. C (Dubiosia is a commercial source of
tropain alkaloids) D. Glucose + fructose + galactose
5. B (Vicker tester is used to test surface

hardness of tablet)
4. Which compartment is responsible for
1. One of the following is enteric coating separation of sacromere from one
polymer for tablet another in muscular system?
A. Hydroxy propyl cellulose A. z-disc
B. Ethyl cellulose B. Intercalated disc
C. Bees wax C. Thick filament
D. Eudragit. D. Thin filament
2. One of the following is 5. Which is not a zone of sarcomere in

Benzomorphan derivative skeletal muscle
A. Methadone A. A- band
B. Pethidine B. I- band
C. Pentzocine C. H- band
D. Propoxyphene D. C- band

1. D (eudragit i.e. polymethylacrylic acid B. Polymerase

is enteric coating polymer used for
C. Penta
tablet)
D. Rho
2. C (pentazocine is synthetic derivative
opioid benzomorphon derivative)
3. A (cow milk contain lactose which is 3. Clatharates are

made up of glucose + galactose)
A. Cage like compound
4. A
B. Pure crystals
5. D (there is no any C type of bandnd
C. Compounds of clatharic acid
present in muscle, other options are)
D. Salts of clatharic acid
4. Radiation source used for ionization

Radiation
sesquiterpenoid
A. Iodine species
A. Carvene
B. Cobalt-60
B. Curare
C. Cs-137.
C. Caryophllene
D. All of the above
D. Myracene
5. IUPAC of Naproxen
2. In RNA Synthesis, termination is
caused by ------------factor. A. (2S)-2-(6-methoxynaphthalen-2-
yl)propanoic acid
A. Delta

B. (2R)-2-(6-methoxynaphthalen-2- 1. Frist Proton pump inhibitor available

yl)pentanoic acid was as intravenous preparation
C. (2R,2S)-2-(6-methoxynaphthalen-2- A. Lansoprazole
yl)butanoic acid
B. Omeprazole
D. (2S)-2-(6-methoxynaphthalen-2-
C. Rebeprazole
yl)butyric acid
D. Pantoprazole
1. C (Caryophllene it is a type of
sesquiterpenoids) 2. Proton pump inhibitors if used in
combination with H2 receptor blockers it
2. D (Rho factor is termination protein
will result in....
which terminate the RNA synthesis by
binding the enzyme RNA polymerase) A. Diminishing effect
3. A (they are non stoichiometric B. Additive effect

molecular adduct consist of guest and
C. Synergistic effect
host system in which guest are enclosed
in host that is cage like structure) D. No effect
4. D (radioactive material, nuclear

reactors and equipment that able to
3. Identify factor which regulates acid
produce ionizing radiation the example
secretion is also a trophic factor for
of source for ionizing radiation)
epithelial cells
5. A ((2S)-2-(6-methoxynaphthalen-2-
A. Acetylcholine
yl)propanoic acid is AI back name of
naproxen) B. Histamine
C. Gastrin
D. All of the above

3. C (all are the factors that regulate

gastric acid secretion but gastrin is a
4. Prostaglandin binds to receptors on
tropic factor)
parietal cells of stomach &causes
4. A (prostaglandin secrets mucus and
A. Suppression of acid secretion
bicarbonate thus suppress the acid
B. Stimulation of mucin secretion secretion)
C. Stimulation of bicarbonate secretion 5. A. (Misoprostol is prostaglandin E1

analogue)
D. All of the above
1. A prokinetic agent acting on

5. Misoprostol is a synthetic analogue of
dopaminergic system is
A. PGE1
A. Neostigmine
B. PGE2
B. Domperidone
C. PGI2
C. Cisapride
D. PGD2
1. D (pantoprazole was the first

2. Actions of 5-HT in GIT are generally
intravenous Proton pump inhibitor
mediated by?
available)
A. 5-HT1 recep
2. A (effect of proton pump inhibitors
will be diminished because it is a final B. 5-HT3
step for synthesis of gastric acid and
C. 5-HT4
used to receptor blockers blocks
previous step) D. Both B. and C.

3. Following drug produces emesis by 1. B (domperidone is prokinetic agent

acting on only CTZ acting wia dopaminergic pathway D2
antagonist)
A. Ipecacuanha
2. D (both 5 HT3 and 5 HT4 receptors
B. Apomorphine
are present in GIT to regulate the
C. Meclizine motility)
D. All of the above 3. B (apomorphine is powerful stimulant

of dopamine receptor in ctz)
4. C (all of them has antiemetic action

4. Follwing are neuroleptic
except thioridazine)
phenothiazines having antiemetic action
, except 5. B (lactulose is osmetic laxative, all
other options are bulk farming laxative)
A. Chlorpromazine
1. Following appetite suppressant is
B. Prochlorperazine
centrally acting agent on both adrenergic
C. Thioridazine and 5-HT systems
D. Trifluperazine A. Mephenteramine
B. Sibutramine
5. All are bulk laxatives, except C. Dexphenfluramine
A. Methyl cellulose D. Amphetamine
B. Lactulose
C. Sterculia 2. Following is a both centrally and

peripherally acting emetic
D. Isapghula husk

A. Apomorphine A. Calcium carbonate
B. Mustard B. Magnesium trisilicate
C. Ipecacuanha C. Aluminium hydroxide
D. Potassium tartrate D. Sodium bicarbonate
3. Following is an anti-histaminic anti- 1. B (Sibutramine,

emetic agent fenfluramine,dexfenfuramine all are
banned now because of their adverse
A. Chlorpromazine
effect of heart valve defect Fibrosis and
B. Metoclopramide pulmonary hypertension)
C. Meclizine 2. C (ipecachuna exerts antiemetic action

by irritating gastric mucosa as well as
D. Nabilone
stimulating CTZ)
3. C (it blogs H1 receptor along with m 1

4. Following prokinetic drugs is devoid in vestibocerebellar pathway in CTZ )
of anti-emetic activity
4. D (all drugs given are having
A. Cisapride antiemetic action)
B. Domperidone 5. D (sodium bicarbonate is called as

systemic antacid because it gets
C. Metoclopramide
absorbed and changes pH of blood
D. None of the above whereas other options does not get
absorbed systemically)
5. Following antacid is called as

systemic antacid 1. Use of Analginis limited by

A. Agranulocytosis A. Hyperglycemia
B. Erosions and gastric bleeding B. Hypoglycemia
C. Methemoglobinemia C. Ketoacidosis
D. Hearing impairment D. Alkalosis
2. Methemoglobinemia is possible 5. Inhibitors of prostaglandin synthesis

adverse effect of are the following features except
A. Aspirin A. Prolongation of bleeding time
B. Paracetamol B. Prolongation of prothrombin time
C. Analgin C. Prolongation of labour
D. Ketorolac D. Gastric mucosal damage
3. Select the drug which inhibits 1. A (agranulocytosis and severe gastric

cyclooxygenase irreversibly bleeding are the adverse effect of analgin
but its use is limited by side effect
A. Aspirin
agranulocytosis)
B. Mephenamic acid
2. B (Methaemoglobinaemia is a
C. Naproxen disorder characterized by hemoglobin is
not able to release oxygen effectively in
D. Diclofenac
tissue)
3. A (Aspirin inhibits Irreversible

4. Use of aspirin in a diabetic patient can cyclooxygenase enzyme)
result in

4. B (low dose of Aspirin causes A. Factor VII

hyperglycemia and high dose causes
B. Factor I
hypoglycemia in case of diabetic
patients) C. Factor XI
5. B D. Factor XII
1. Drug which increases absorption of 4. Posterior column sensations in lower

oral iron limbs are lost in
A. Folic acid A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Nalidixic acid B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Vitamin C C. Vitamin C deficiency
D. Tetracycline D. Vitamin D deficiency
2. Vitamin K is involved in the post- 5. All of the following groups of drugs

translational modification of are for thrombosis treatment EXCEPT
A. Glutamate A. Anticoagulant drugs
B. Aspartate B. Antifibrinolitic drugs
C. Glycine C. Fibrinolitic drugs
D. GABA D. Antiplatelet drugs
3. Which of the following is vitamin K-

dependent clotting factor

1. C (Vitamin C increases the iron A. Antibody against Ilb/Illa receptors

absorption 2 to 3 times)
2. A (enzyme required for post B. Antibody against Ib/IX receptors

translational modification of glutamate
C. Topoisomerase inhibitor
acid used in clotting factor is vitamin K
dependent) D. Adenosine inhibitor
3. A ( II, VII,IX,X are Vitamin K

dependent clotting factors)
3. Nicotinic acid used as
4. B (limb paraesthesia subacute Gate antihyperlipidemicacts by
disorders acute symptomatic ataxia
A. Inhibiting lipolysis
dorsal column impairment are the
deficiency symptoms of B. Inhibiting HMG-CoAsynthatase
cyanocobalamin)
C. Inhibiting HMG CoAreductase
5. B (antifibrinolytics means those will
D. Decreasing absorption of cholesterol
enhance coagulation and clots)
4. The fibric acid derivative that

1. Indicate the drug belonging to
increases blood levels of high density
fibrinoliytic inhibitors
lipoproteins (HDL)
A. Aminocapronic acid
A. Cholestyramine
B. Ticlopidine
B. Lovastatin
C. Streptokinase
C. Gemfibrozil
D. Vitamin K
D. Probucol
2. Abciximab is

5. True statement regarding atorvastatin C. Leukotriene receptor antagonist
A. Dose to dose most potent HMG-CoA D. Prostaglandins synthesis inhibitor

reductase Inhibitor
B. Higher ceiling of LDL-cholesterol

2. 5-lipoxygenase inhibitorsare useful in
lowering action than lovastatin
A. Cardiac failure
C. Antioxidant property
B. Bronchial asthma
D. All of the above
C. Hepatic failure D. Arthritis
1. A (tanexanmic acid, aminocaproic

acid, Aprotinin are the examples of 3. Mechanism of action of theophylline
fibrinolytic inhibitors) in Bronchial asthma include all of the
following except
2. A
A. Phosphodiesterase inhibition
3. A (inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue
suppresses the synthesis of TG LDL B. Adenosine receptor antagonism
VLDL)
C. Increased histone deacetylation
4. C (clofibrate, fenofibrate, gemfibrozil
D. Beta-2 receptor stimulation
are the examples of fibric acid
derivative)
5. D 4. An asthmatic patient is on
theophylline suddenly developed
infection, which of the following
1. Zileuton is antibiotic should not be given to prevent
side effects of theophylline
A. 5 lipooxygenase inhibitor
A. Ampicillin
B. TXA2, inhibitor

B. Erythromycin 4. B (tetracyclines Erythromycin

ciprofloxacin are contraindicated in case
C. Cephalexin
of asthma)
D. Sparfloxacin
5. D (caffeine is stronger than
theophylline for cnf stimulation and
muscle stimulation)
5. Caffeine is more powerful than
theophylline in exerting the following 1. What will be weight variation for
action tablet having weight more than 250 mg
as per IP
A. Bronchodilatation
A. ±10 %
B. Cardiac stimulation
B. ±5 %
C. Diuresis
C. ±7.5%
D. Augmentation of skeletal muscl
contractility D. ±15%
1. A (it is 5 lipoxygenase inhibitor hence 2. Which pair of hetrocyclic ring present

inhibit formation of leukotrienes in Pilocarpine
clinically it is used in treatment of
A. Imidazole and Quinoline
asthma)
B. Imidazole and thiazole
2. B (as discussed in question 1)
C. Quinoline and Phenanthrene
3. D (theophylline Beta 2 receptor
agonist is bronchodilator but it is D. Imidazole and dihydrofuran
phosphodiesterase inhibitor)

C. Decrease in luminescence
3. Phentolamine and prazosin both are D. Removes the fluorescence
A. Competitive antagonists at α1-

adrenergic receptors
1. B (if the weight of tablet is 80 mg or
B. Have potent direct vasodilator actions less 10%, 80-250 mg 7.5%, 250mg or
on vascular smooth muscle more 5 % IP, BP limit are same)
C. Enhance gastric acid secretion 2. D (imidazole and dihydrofuran rings

through a histamine-like effect are present in pilocarpine)
D. Cause hypotension and bradycardia 3. A (prazosine is selective Alpha 1

brocker pentolamine is non selective
Alpha blocker)
4. Which of the following topical
4. B (xylometazoline oxymetazoline
decongestant agents is an α 2-selective
topical decongestant which is alpha 2
agonist
agonists)
A. Phenylephrine
5. C (increases the temperature increases
B. Xylometazoline the movement of particle leads to
collision and decrease luminescence
C. Ephedrine
therefore lower temperature is preferred)
D. Epinephrine
1. An alcoholic solution contains

5. What will be effect of temperature on 57.77% u/v alcohol, it will be called
luminescence, choose the correct option
A. Over proof
A. Increase in luminescence
B. Under proof
B. No any effect
C. Proof spirit

D. Prof gallons A. Hours of work for employees
B. Cleanliness ventilation and lighting
2. The committee appointed by C. Wages for employees

Government of India to look in to the
D. Opening and closing times
drug industry and various aspect of
drugs like licensing price control,
imports, role of foreign sector quality
5. VDRL test is for
control was headed by
A. Syphilis
A. Mudaliar
B. Diphtheria
B. Bhatia
C. Hemophillus
C. Hathi
D. Anthrax
D. Bhore
1. A (proof spirit is 57% v/v if more

3. Opium factory located at
than this it is called as over proof and if
A. Ghaziabad less than this it is called as under proof)
B. Ghazipur 2. A
C. Gorakhpur 3. B
D. Goa 4. A
5. A (veneral disease laboratory test is

test employed for diagnosis of syphilis)
4. As per the shops and establishment act
pharmacies differ from others in one of
the following

B. 1985
1. …………..are applied to living C. 1947

tissues………………are used to
D. 1955
inanimate objects
A. Disinfectants, Sterilants
4. Frist Pharmacy council of India was
B. Antiseptic, Sterilant
constituted in……….& for the .....period
C. Antiseptic, Disinfectants
A. 1948 & 5 years
D. Sterilants, Disinfectants
B. 1949 & 5 years
C. 1950 & 3 years

2. List of diseases and ailments which a
D. 1951 & 7 years
drug may not purport to prevent or cure
or make claims to prevent or cure under
the Drugs and Cosmetics Rule 1945 is
5. One of the organisms mentioned
given under
below is used as a biological indicator
A. Schedule J for dry heat sterlization.
B. Schedule K A. Bacillus stearothermophilus
C. Schedule M B. Spores of Bacillus subtilis
D. Schedule P C. Bacillus pumilus
D. Pseudomonas dimuntia
3. Narcotic Drugs & Psychotropic

substances Act was passed in
1. C (antiseptic solution applied on the
A. 1975 tissue where as disinfectant solution
applied on inanimate object)

2. A (schedule J of drug and cosmetic A. Hydrogen

act consist of disease all ailments that
B. Oxygen
drugs should not purport to cure)
C. Nitrogen
3. B (narcotic drugs and psychotropic
substances Act was passed in 1985) D. Helium
4. B (the first Pharmacy Council of India

was constituted in 1949 for the period of
3. Identify substitution at 3,6 & 7
5 years)
position in structure of
5. B (spores of bacillus subtilis is used as Bendroflumethiazide
biological indicator for dry heat
A.–CF3, Benzyl, -SO2NH2
sterilization)
B. -SO2NH2, –CF3, Benzyl
C. Benzyl, -CF3, -SO2NH2

1. A sample is injected onto a given
column and mobile phase is unchanged D. Benzyl, -SO2NH2, -CF3
throughout the time required for sample
components to elute from the column,
the process will be termed as
A. Gradient elution 4. As per Schedule O of the Drug and

Cosmetics Rules 1945, the minimum
B. Solvent programming
Rideal Walker coefficients for Grade 1
C. Mobile phase elution Black disinfectant fluid is
D. Isocratic elution A. 18
B. 10
2. One of the following is not a carrier C. 5

gas used in gas chromatography
D. 14

1. Which is not the prominent chemical

constituent in Ipecac
5. The starting material for the synthesis
of chlorthiazide is A. Emetine
A. 5-chloro 2,4-disulphamoylaniline B. Pyschotrine
B. 5-chloro 2,3-disulphamoylaniline C. Cephaeline
C. 4-chloro 2,6-disulphamoylaniline D. Cinchonine
D. 4-chloro 2,5-disulphamoylaniline
2. The pharmacological action of Ipecac
1. D (mobile phase composition is does A. Stimulant

not isocratic elution where as in gradient
B. Emetic
elution composition of the mobile phase
changes during analysis) C. Sedative
2. B (Helium hydrogen and nitrogen are D. Hypnotic

used as carrier gas in gas
chromatography)
3. Papaverine, narcotine and narceine is
3. C (benzyl group add third position
under the chemical class
trichloromethane at 6 position &
SO2NH2 at 7, it is used as diuretic along A. Quinoline
with antihypertensive drugs)
B. Benzyl isoquinoline
4. A
C. Isoquinoline
5. A
D. Benzophenone

4. Papaverine shows pharmacological 4. A (it has spasmolytic action as it is

activity therapeutically used as a spasmolytic)
A. Spasmolytic 5. B (blue fluroscence with van urk

reagent)
B. Emetic
C. Antitussive
1. One of the following systems has the
D. Antipyretic
smallest sized domains in its dispersed
phase
5. In UV light Ergot shows fluorescence A. Nanoemulsion
A. Yellow B. Coarse suspension
B. Blue C. Coarse emulsion
C. Red D. Microemulsion
D. Violet 2. The scattering of light by coarse and

colloidal dispersed systems is known as
A. Contrast matching
1. D (dried roots of cephalis
epecachunha family rubiaceae it consists B. DLVO theory
of mainily alkaloids emetine cephaline
C. Tyndall effect
psychotrine)
D. Creaming
2. B (ipecachuna is emetic)
3. B (Morphine codeine thebene are

phenanthrene alkaloids, papaverine 3. All are Mechanisms for the separation
,narcotine, nascopine are benzyl of a physically unstable suspension of
isoquinoline alkaloids) magnesium hydroxide in water except

A. Flocculation thermodynamically unstable kinematics

stable, Microemulsion 10-100nm
B. Aggregation
thermodynamically stable)
C. Ostwald ripening
2. C (scattering of visible light by
D. Hydrolysis colloidal dispersion is known as tyndall
effect)
3. D (hydrolysis is chemical separation

4. Structured vehicle is included in the
other options are example physical
formulation of a suspension , in order to
separation)
A. Decrease the interfacial tension
4. B (structured vehicle is nothing but
B. Prevent the sedimentation of particle the suspending agent these prevent
sedimentation of particle used in case of
C. Promote the sedimentation of partice
deflocculated suspension, cellulose and
D. Reduce the size by chemical means its derivative different gums gelatin etc)
5. One of the following apparatus is used 5. C (Anderson pipette method is based

to determine the particle size of on sedimentation used for measurement
suspension by sedimentation method of particle size)
A. Pycnometer
B. Ostwald viscometer 1. Central Register of pharmacist is

maintained by
C. Anderson apparatus
A. State pharmacy council
D. Friabilator
B. Pharmacy council of India
C. Both of the above

1. D (Macroemulsion 1-100micrometre
thermodynamically unstable, D. Drug controller of India
nanoemulsion 20-500 nm

5. The minimum age for qualification for

entry into the first register is
2. Factories act come into force on
A. 20 years
A. 23rd September, 1948
B. 18 years
B. 1st April, 1949
C. 21 years
C. 4th April, 1949
D. 30 years
D. 12th September, 1948
1. B (Central registered pharmacist is

3. Section 2(k) under the factory act
maintained by pharmacy council of India
defines
and state registered is maintained by
A. Factory State Council)
B. Manufacturing process 2. B (the factory act was come in force

on 1st April 1949)
C. Worker
3. B (section 2 (k) of the factory act
D. Occupants
gives the manufacturing process and
definitions of the same)
4. Fees to be paid for licensing process 4. A (licence is granted for term of 5

for year)
A. 5 years 5. B (minimum age required to be

registered pharmacist is 18 years)
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
1. Which one of the following includes
D. 7 years
details of the standards for surgical

A. Schedule F2 D. Dosage technical advisory board
B. Schedule M
C. Schedule G 4. Which is a drug as per the act
D. Schedule P A. Blood bag
B. Umblical tapes
C. Blood grouping seera
2. Which one of the following is NOT an D. All of the above

exofficio member of Pharmacy Council
of India
5. From 18 deals with
A. The Director General of Health
Services A. Memorandum to drug inspector
B. The Director of Central Drugs B. Certificate to renewal

Laboratory
C. Memorendum to government analyst
C. The Drugs Controller General of
D. All the above
India
D. The Director of Pharmacopoeia

Laboratory 1. A (standards for surgical dressing like
absorbent cotton bandages roll bandages
surgical clothes are given in schedule F2
3. What is long form of DTAB of drug and cosmetic act)
A. Drug technical advisory board 2. D (the director of Pharmacopoeia

laboratory is not a Ex officio member of
B. Drug technical assisment board
PCI, others are)
C. Dosage technical assisment board

3. A (drug technical advisory board, D. Vit B5

function of DTAB is to advise on
technical matters of drugs to the state
and Central Government, to carry out 3. The tissue having greatest metabolic
other function as per the act) activity is
4. D (all options comes under definition A. Lung

of drug as per the w h o)
B. Liver
5. C (memorandum to the government
C. Kidney
and list is given in form number 18 of
drug and cosmetic act) D. Spleen
1. One of the following is third 4. Which of the following are natural

generation retinoid lyoprtectants
A. Retinol A. Sucrose & trehalose
B. Tretenoin B. Sucrose & galactose
C. Acetretin C. Trehalose & glycerol
D. Arotinoid D. None of the above
5. The chairman of the drug technical

advisory board is
2. The 3D vitamin is
A. The drug controller of India
A. Vit B1
B. The director, central drug laboratory,
B. Vit B2
Kolkata
C. Vit B3

C. The president, pharmacy council of D. Giving it along with flucytosin

India
D. The director general of health service.

2. False statement regarding phenytoin is
A. It is a teratogenic drug
1. B (tretinoide is the third generation
B. Highly protein bound
retinoid after the cyclization of Polyene
side chain) C. Induces insulin secretion
2. C (maybe because of its its three D. Follows saturation kinetics

forms)
3. B (liver has greatest metabolizing

3. Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for
capacity)
treatment of
4. A (trehalose and sucrose are mostly
A. Generalized tonic clonic seizures
used natural lycoprotectant used in
freeze drying of protein, they prevent B. Absence seizures
dehydration during drying)
C. Simple partial seizures
5. D (the Director General of Health
D. Complex partial seizures
Services is also a chairman of DTAB)
4. All of the following drugs cross the

1. One of the following is used to
placenta except
decrease the toxicity of amphotericin B?
A. Phenytoin
A. Dose reduction
B. Diazepam
B. Liposomal delivery systems
C. Morphine
C. Supplementing glucose
D. Heparin

5. Which of the following drugs have a 1. Rotameter is used to measure

narrow therapeutic index
A. Fluid flow
A. Lithium
B. Rate of evaporation
B. Diazepam
C. Drying rate
C. Penicillin
D. Centrifugation
D. Desipramine
1. B (amphotericin B as nephrotoxicity
2. Mixing, thymol and menthol is an
neurotoxicity hemolytic anaemia
example of
convulsions of which neurotoxicity can
be reduced by liposome formulation) A. Physical incompatibility
2. C (phenytoin adverse effect on B. Chemical incompatibility

endocrine system inhibition of ADH
C. Biological incompatibility
release inhibition of insulin release,
glycosurea hyperglycemia , D. Pharmaceutical incompatibility
osteomalacia, hypocalcemia)
3. C (it is a drug of choice for typical

3. Hygrometer are used to measure
absence seizure)
4. D (Heparin a does not crosses

A. Rate of evaporation
placental barrier and also not secreted in
milk) B. Flow rate
5. A (Degoxine, lithium, theophylline, C. Humidity

warfarin are the examples of drug having
D. Temperature
narrow therapeutic window)

4. Determination of vapor concentration 1. A (Rotameter is used to measure rate

and vapor carrying capacity of gas in of flow )
known as
2. A (mixing of menthol and thymol
A. Rheopexy result in liquification which is example
of physical incompatibility)
B. Psychrometry
3. C (hygrometer is used to measure the
C. Turbidimetry
humidity or moisture content in the
D. None environment)
4. B (it is known as psychrometry)
5. Which statement is not true for Cassia 5. C (6-hydroxy Musizin, is present in

acutifolia tinnevelly Senna not in alexandrian)
A. Leaves are yellow green in color with

lanceolate, entire, cute apex with spine at
1. One of the following materials
top and asymmetrical at base
interferes with intestinal absorption of
B. Have stomatal index lies b/w 14-20 lincomycin
C. Conatin 6-hydroxy Musizin, a A. Bismuth subcarbonate

naphthalene derivative
B. Attapulgite
D. Contain sennoside A and B as
C. Light kaolin
bioactive constituent, in which
Sennoside A is optically active and D. Activated charcol
dextrorotatory in nature
2. One of the following is anionic

surfactant is emollient
A. Liquid paraffin

B. D-octyl sodium sulphosuccinate B. Indian pharmacopoeial laboratory,

Ghaziabad
C. Both of them
C. Central drug laboratory, Thane
D. National institute of communicable
disease, Poona
3. Factory for processing of opium is

1. A
located at
2. B (d octyl sodium sulfosuccinate is a
A. Ghaziabad
emollient anionic surfactant)
B. Gazipur
3. B (opium processing factory is located
C. Calcutta at Ghazipur)
D. Nagpur 4. B (sample collected by drug inspector

is analysed at drug laboratory of state)
5. B (Indian Pharmacopoeia laboratory

4. Drug sample collected by Drug
Ghaziabad mechanical contraceptives
inspector are analyzed at
are tested)
A. Central drug laboratory
B. State drug laboratory

1. Find out the correct statements
C. Both A and B regarding a sweetener, saccharin
D. None of the above (P) It is 400 times sweeter than sucrose,

but it is carcinogenic
(Q) It is 400 times sweeter than sucrose,

5. Testing of Condoms are done at
but it has bitter taste
A. Central research institute of Kasuli

(R) It is sweeter than sucrose, but it is 4. The diameter of the mesh aperture in
safe the I.P. disintegration apparatus is
(S) It is sweeter than sucrose, but it is A. 2 mm

unstable
B. 4 mm
A. P, S B. P, R
C. 1mm
C. P, Q D. R, S
D. 1.50 mm
2. In sugar coating of tablets, sub-

5. During tablet compression, entrapped
coating is done
air may lead to ....defects
A. To prevent moisture absorption
A. Capping & Lamination
B. To round the edge & build tablet size
B. Picking & Sticking
C. To smoothen the surface
C. Binding & Sticking
D. To prevent the tablet from breaking
D. Ejection & Removal
due to vibration
1. A (logically all of them should affect

3. Select the equation that gives the rate
the absorption)
of drug dissolution from a tablet
2. B (sub coating in sugar coating is for
A. Fick’s law
build up of the tablet at around the
B. Henderson-Hasselbatch equation edges)
C. Noyes-Whitney equation 3. C (tablet dissolution is given by

Nosey Whitney equation)
D. Michelis Menton equation
4. A

5. A (capping and lamination are the A. 0.1 m NaCI

defect due to Entrapment of air during
B. 0.1 M CaCI2
competition)
C. 0.1 M KCI
D. 0.1 M AICI3
1. IR spectra appear as dips in the curve
rather than maxima as in UV visible 4. Aprotic solvent have
spectra because it is a lot of
A. Acidic properties
A. % absorbance against wave number
B. Basic properties
B. % transmittance against concentration
C. Both acidic and basic properties
C. % absorbance against concentration
D. No acidic and basic properties
D. % transmittance against wave number
5. Polyamine polystyrene resins belong

2. In mass spectra, the most intense peak to which category of ion exchange resin
is the
A. Strong acidic cation exchange resin
A. Base peak
B. Strong basic anion exchange resin
B. Metastable ion peak
C. Weakly acidic cation exchange resin
C. Fragment ion peak
D. Weakly basic anion exchange resin
D. Rearrangement ion peak
3. Calibration of the cell constant of a

1. D (% transmittance is plotted against
conductance cell is carried out by using
the wavenumber in IR)
a solution of

2. A (most intense peak is base peak also B. Complexation

known as molecular ion peak)
C. Both of them
3. C (0.1N Kcl is used )
4. D (aprotic solvent does not have
hydrogen so they are known as non
acidic and nonbasic but they are pola,r 3. Which of the following is accepted as
because of dipole moment) a cosolvent in parenteral products, but its
use in oral liquids is limited
5. D (they are anionic exchange resin)
A. Glycerol formal
B. Glycerol
1. The ability of a substance dissolves in
a given solvent system is depends on C. Dimethyl acetamide
A. Nature and intensity of the forces D. None of the above

present in the solute
B. Nature and intensity of the forces

present in the solvent
4. Thiomersal is.......preservative
C. Interactions between solute and
solvent A. Acidic
D. All the above B. Neutral
C. Mercurial
2. The solubility of weak electrolytes & D. Quaternary ammonium compounds

non-polar substances can be increased
by adding water miscible solvents. The
phenomenon is called 5. Benzalkonium chloride is classified as
A. Co-solvency A. Acidic preservative

B. Neutral preservative D. Vasaka
C. Mercurial preservative
D. Quaternary ammonium compounds 2. Entire parts of the following drugs are

effective, except
A. Ergot
1. D (all and the factor affecting on
solubility) B. Belladonna
2. A (solubilization of weak electrolytes C. Ephedra

or nonpolar electrolytes using soluble
D. Clove
solvent is known as co solvency)
3. C (it is water miscible solvent used in

parental but it's used in oral liquids is 3. All of the following are glycoside
limited) drugs except
4. C (as the name suggests it is mercurial A. Digitalis

preservatives)
B. Senna
5. D (benzalkonium chloride is
C. Nux vomica
quaternary Ammonium compound)
D. Cascara
4. Select the drug, which is not

1. All of the following leaves of crude
belonging to tannin class
drugs are effective except
A. Myrobalam
A. Senna
D. Pale catechu
B. Digitalis
C. Ashoka
C. Clove

D. Peppermint B. Pseudolastic flow
C. Dilatant flow
5. All of the following are volatile oil D. Plastic flow

containing drugs except
A. Peppermint
2. Opalaux is used in tablets As Opaque
B. Clove coating material
C. Castor oil A. As aqueous sealant
D. Garlic B. To provide weight
C. Both A &B
1. C (clove bud is effective rest of all D. All of the above

drugs leaves are effective)
2. D
3. Who controls Drug Regulation in
3. C (nux vomica belongs to alkaloids India
class though it contains loganin
A. PCI
glycosine)
B. MCI
4. D (Peppermint is volatile oil
containing drug) C. DCGI
5. C (castor contains fixed oil ) D. CDRL
1. Ostwald viscometer is used for which 4. Clinical Trials comes under

type of flows
A. Schedule Y
A. Newtonian flow
B. Schedule Z

C. Schedule X
D. Schedule T 1. Which of the following sugar has

bitter taste
A. Glucose
5. One of the following schedule drug
should be given under supervision of B. Sucrose
RMP comes under
C. Saccharine
A. Schedule G
D. Aspartame
B. Schedule M
C. Schedule P
2. Which of the following flavor is not
D. Schedule H responsible for sour taste
A. Citrus flavors
1. A (Ostwald viscometer is used to B. Liquorice

measure viscosity of newtonian liquid
C. Raspberry
both dynamic and kinematic viscosity is
obtained) D. Mint spice
2. D (opaquant colour concentrate used

for sugar coating)
3. The filling method of a
3. C (DGCI & CDSCO controls the pharmaceutical liquid depends on
regulation of drugs in India)
A. Viscosity of the liquid
4. A (schedule y for clinical trial)
B. Surface tension of the liquid
5. A (schedule G dangerous drugs
C. Compatibility with the materials used
should be administered supervision of
in the construction of the filling machine
registered medical practioner)

D. All the above 4. C (all other options are classes of

emulsifying agent)
5. A (hlb scale was developed by Griffin

4. Which of the following is not used as
in 1954 is the degree of hydrophilicity
a emulsifying agent?
and lipophilicity of surfactant)
A. Surfactant
B. Hydrophilic colloids
1. Measurement of radioactivity by
C. Electrolytes
A. Those depend on collection of ions.
D. Finely divided solids
B. Those depend on collection of
photon.
5. HLB system was developed by C. Both of the above
A. Griffin D. None of the above
B. Stock’s
C. Dalla Valle 2. The use of sodium rose Bengal (I-

131) in
D. Crook
A. Study of K ion exchange
B. Liver scan
1. C (sodium saccharin initially gives
sweet but after gives bitter taste) C. Plasma volume determination
2. D D. Brain scanning
3. D (feeling of liquid depends on all of

these factors)
3. Which of the following is not a type
of gas filled detector

A. Proportional counter 3. D (rest of all uses methane and argon

as gas)
B. G.M counter
4. D
C. Semiconductor detector
5. C
D. Ionization chamber
1. Major pharmacological use of
Ephedrine
4. 1 Roentgen is equivalent to
A. Kidney failure
A. 2.58 × 10–5 CKg–1
B. Anti-inflammatory
B. 2.58 × 10–3 CKg–1
C. Heart failure
C. 2.58 × 10–8 CKg–1
D. Bronchial asthma
D. 2.58 × 10–4 CKg–1
2. Nucleus present in Morphineis

5. Beta particles penetrate, tissue up to
A. Phenanthrene
A. 100 cm
B. Anthracene
B. 1000 cm
C. Naphthalene
C. 1 cm
D. Naphthacene
D. 10 cm
1. C (depends on collection of Ions and

3. The characteristic not associated with
collection of photons)
alkaloids
2. B (used in diagnosis of liver in case of
A. They all contain nitrogen
Jaundice)

B. Most of non-volatile alkaloids are 1. D (ephedrine and pseudoephedrine are

solid mostly used for bronchial asthma)
C. All the alkaloid contains sulphur 2. A (phenanthrene nucleus is present in

morphine)
D. They are physiologically active
3. C (alkaloids does not contain Sulphur
in structure)
4. Thalleoquin test contain reagents
4. A (Tallaquine test is diagnostic test
A. Bromine water + Few drops of for quinine ,bromine water +weak acid
ammonia solution of quinine sulphate+few drops
of strong ammonia Emerald green colour
B. Potassium permanganate + Few drops
is produced)
of ammonia
5. B (specific test for identification of
C. Bromine water + Nitric acid
quinine alkaloids from cinchona)
D. Bromine water + Sodium hydroxide
1. Protoplasts are the cells devoid of

5. Thalleoquin test is used for
A. Cell membrane
identification of
B. Cell wall
A. Atropine
C. Both cell wall and cell membrane
B. Vincristine
D. None of these
C. Quinine
D. Strychnine
2. Cellular totipotency is the property of
A. Plants
B. Animals

C. Cacteria D. Cotton
D. All of these
1. B (protoplast is a cell without cell

wall)
3. Plant tissue culture technique is a
redefined method of 2. A (cellular totipotency is the ability of
plant cell to divide and form into entire
A. Hybridization
plant)
B. Vegetative Propagation
3. B (plant tissue culture is in vitro
C. Asexual Reproduction vegetative propagation of plant in
aseptic condition)
D. Selection
4. B (somatic hybridization is achieved
by protoplast fusion)
4. Somatic hybridization is achieved
5. B (first transgenic plant that is
through
antibiotic resistance tobacco plant in
A. Grafting 1982)
B. Protoplast fusion
C. Conjugation 1. Roller mill works on the principle
D. Recombinant DNA technology A. Attrition
B. Friction
5. The first transgenic crop was C. Blending & mixing
A. Pea D. Agitation
B. Tobacco
C. Flax 2. USP Type-III apparatus is a type of

A. Paddle B. Stability studies
B. Rotating Basket C. Measuring the oxidation & reduction

potential.
C. Paddle aver disc
D. Checking the potential of solution.
D. Reciprocating cylinder
1. A (roller mill is based on the principle

3. Clark’s formula for the child dose
of attrition)
calculation is based on
2. D (USP type 3 dissolution apparatus is
A. Month
reciprocating cylinder rotation speed is
B. Kg 6013 RPM and it is used for controlled
release and chewable tablets)
C. Lb
3. D (weight of child in pounds/150 ×
D. Pound
adults dose is the Clarks formula)
4. C (hpmc capsules are the best

4. Vegetable source for replacement of vegetable capsule made in 1989 trade
Gelatin name is vegicap by GS Technology)
A. Cellulose 5. B (Zeta potential should either be in

positive or negative direction on the
B. Pectin
stability)
C. HPMC
D. Starch
1. Neuroleptanalgesia is method IV
anaesthesia which is a combination of
5. Zeta Potential is used for A. Neuroleptic drug
A. Checking the pH of the solution. B. Opioid analgesic

C. Neuroleptic drugs with opioid C. 25 cm-1

analgesic
D. 0.25 cm-1
D. Opioid analgesic with anaesthetic
5. Clatharates are
A. Cage like compound

2. One of the following anaesthetic agent
B. Pure crystals
has narrow therapeutic window
C. Compounds of clatharic acid
A. Midazolam
D. Salts of clatharic acid
B. Ketamine
C. Propofol
1. C (neuroleptanalgesia combination of
D. Etomidate
neuroleptic drug opioid drug)
2. C (propofol is anaesthetic drug has

3. Example of sesquiterpenoid is narrow therapeutic index)
A. Carvene 3. C (gingebeine, curcumenine,

caryophyllene are the examples of
B. Curare
sesquiterpene)
C. Caryophllene
4. A
D. Myracene
5. A (clathrates is polymorphic form of
crystal lattice a cage like compounds)
4. Wave number corresponding to

400nm will be
1. Trichomes absent in Datura is
A. 25000 cm-1
A. Unicellular
B. 250 cm-1
B. Covering

C. Glandular
D. Multicellular 5. India comes in which climate zone
A. Zone-1 Tropical wet (humid) climate

group
2. Vancomycin contains
B. Zone-2 Dry climate group
A. Macrocyclic
C. Zone-3 Sub-tropical humid climate
B. β-Lactam
group
C. Imidazole
D. All of the above
D. Triazole
1. C (uniseriate multicellular covering
trichomes are present in dhatura)
3. Select the drug, which is not 2. A (it is macrocyclic antibiotic)

belonging to glycoside class?
3. C (nux vomica belongs to class of
A. Digitalis
alkaloids)
B.Senna
4. A
C. Nux vomica
5. A
D. Cascara
1. Wheat stone bridge is used in one of

4. Starting material for Sulfadiazine
the following detecter
A. Guanidine and formyl acetic ester
A. TCD
B. Aniline and ethyl aceto ester
B. ECD
C. Guanidine and sulfonic acid
C. FID
D. All of the above
D. PDA

A. Epicarp
2. GFR of healthy person is B. Mesocarp
A. 125 ml/min C. Endocarp
B. 1250 ml/min D. Cremocarp
C. 12500 ml/min
D. 12.5 ml/ min 1. A (thermal conductivity detector

works on the principle of wheatstone
bridge the change in temperature
3. 1000 picogram is equal to changes the current)
A. 1 nanogram 2. A (normal value more than 90ml per

minute 125 ml per minute is the normal
B. 10 microgram
value used by lab)
C. 10 nanogram
3. A (1 nanogram is equal to 1000
D. Both C&D picogram)
4. C (to study gas adsorption and gas

desorption is one of the application of
4. DSC is related to
DSC)
A. Melting
5. D (cremocap is characteristic of
B. Crystallisation umbelliferous fruits)
C. Desorption
D. Sublimation 1. Drug used in treatment of Kala Azar
A. Miltefosine
5. Umbelliferous fruits contain B. Sulphonamides

C. Trimethoprim
D. Artemisinin 5. Antibody IgE is involved in
A. Allergic reactions
2. Drug given with Levodopa to enhance B. Inflammation

its activity
C. Innate immunity
A. Benserazide
D. Accquird immunity
B. Propanolol
C. Ketoprofen
1. A (amphotericin B is a drug of choice
D. Acetazolamide and second drug of choice is miltefosin)
2. A (Beserazide and carbidopa are the

examples of peripheral Dopa
3. Which antibody has longest half life
decarboxylase inhibitors therefore they
A. IgG are combined with levodopa)
B. IgA 3. A (IgG has longest Half Life 18to 20

days ig D had shortest half life of 3
C. IgE
days)
D. IgB
4. D (acceptance and donation of proton
4. Non aqueous titrations are based on in non aqueous solvent ladies Lori
bronsted theory)
A. Lewis Acid bare theory
5. A (if E is involved in allergic
B. Handerson theory
reaction)
C. Arrhenius theory
D. Bronsted Lowery theory

1. Witepsol is a...... base 4. Find out the true statement about

Benorylate
A. Polyethylene glycol bases
A. It is an ester-linked co-drug of aspirin
B. Synthetic
with paracetamol
C. Fatty bases
B. It is a banned drug particularly in
D. Soap glycerin geriatrics
C. It is supposed to cause Reye’s

syndrome
2. Which one of the following in
NSAIDs drug is preferred in children D. It is a prodrug of benzoyl peroxide
and erythromycin
A. Ketoprofen
B. Acetaminophen
5. The plasma half life of a drug is
C. Aspirin
A. Inversely proportional to total
D. Baclofen
clearance
B. Directly proportional to volume of

3. Stefan-Boltzmann law is distribution
A. Total amount of radiation emitted by C. Both of the above

a grey body
D. Equal to its elimination rate constant
B. Total amount of radiation emitted by
a black body
1. C (witepsol consist of triglycerides of
C. Super saturation principles
saturated vegetable fatty acids with
D. None of the above wearing amount of easters they are
categorised as faty base)

2. B (Paracetamol is safest drug for D. Affect DNA mechanism

children Other Drugs used like
Ibuprofen)
.3. Rifampicin inhibits
3. B (radiation power of emitted
radiation by black body is directly A. DNA Polymerase
proportional to the temperature is known
B. RNA Polymerase
as Stefan Boltzmann law)
C. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
4. A (it is a mutual prodrug of Aspirin
and Paracetamol linked by ester) D. RNA dependent DNA Polymerase
5. C ( inversely proportional to clearance

& directly proportional to distribution)
4. Find the incorrect statement for
Ibuprofen
1. Pregnancy kit detects A. Dextro isomer is more active than

levo
A. Presence of uric acids
B. Levo isomer is more active than
B. Presence of female hormones
dextro
C. Nature of urine
C. It is propionic acid derivative
D. HCG Hormone
5. MR in QSAR is related to
2. Mechanism of action of Polyenes
A. Molar refractivity in steric factor
A. Rupture Fungal cell membrane
B. Molecular reference of each
B. Denature cell membrane substituent
C. Irregulate protein synthesis C. Molecular weight of each substituent

D. All of the above 2. An immunologically mediated

reaction to a drug producing stereotyped
symptoms unrelated to its
1. D (choronic human gonadotropin is pharmacodynamic actions is
detected gives sign of early pregnancy)
A. Hypersensitivty
2. A (Polyene antimycotic binds to
B. Supersensivty
ergosterol & cause rupture or leakage to
cell ) C. Intolerance
3. C (DNA dependent RNA polymerase D. Idiosyncrasy

inhibitor)
4. A (S isomer is more active than R

isomer)
contraindicated in pregnancy
5. A (molar refractivity is a steric factor)
A. Tetracycline
B. Erythromycin
1. Good clinical practice(GCP) is not
C. Ampicillin
required in
D. Chloroquine
A. Preclinical phase
B. Phase I trial
4. Adverse consequences may follow
C. Phase II studies
sudden discontinuation of the following
D. Phase IV studies drug after chronic intake
A. Cocaine
B. Cannabis
C. Clonidine

D. All of the above 4. D (all the options of drugs given

unable to produce withdrawal
symptoms)
5. B (alcohol intake by pregnant women

5. Alcohol intake during pregnancy causes foetal alcohol syndrome
causes, all, except microecephyly cognitive abnormality)
A. Brachycephaly
B. Microcephaly 1. Clofazimine belongs to a class of
C. Hyperkinetic movements A. Iminophenazines
D. Congenital anomalies B. Phenothiazies
C. Pyrimidines
1. A (good clinical practices is required D. Benzotriazole

for clinical trials not for preclinical trials
2. Ethyl derivative of 1-methyl-4-pheyl
oecd guidelines are there for preclinical
piperidine-4-carboxylic acid is
studies)
A. Anthelmintic agent
2. A (it is undesirable reaction produce
by normal immune system B. Narcotic analgesic
hypersensitivity reactions are 4 types,
C. Nonsteroidal antinflammatory agent
immediate delayed immune complex
mediated and stimulant D. Antifungal agent
hypersensitivity)
3. A (tetracycline is contraindicated in
3. Captopril is the derivative of amino
pregnancy because of its teratogenic
acid
effect on featus)
A. Histidine

B. Tyrosine 2. (Phenyl Piperidine derivative like

Meperidine)
C. Phenylalanine
3. D (captopril structure consists of
D. Proline
amino acid Proline)
4. A ( Lidocaine is xylene derivative

4. 2,6-Dimethylaniline and chloroacetyl local unaesthetic)
chloride are the starting materials for the
5. B (resolution is a process to separate
synthesis of drug
enantiomers)
A. Lidocaine
B. Benzocaine
1. Combined drug regimen is given in
C. Etidocaine tuberculosis to...
D. Mepivacaine A. Delay the emergence of drug

resistance
B. Reduce the duration of active therapy
C. Schedule the onset of therapy

5. Resolution is a method to separate
D. Promote a placebo effect on the
A. Diastereomers
patient
B. Enantiomers
C. Steroidal mixture
2. The R-W coefficient test is used to
D. None of the above evaluate
A. Antibiotic activity
1. D (clofazimine is aminophenazine
derivative is the in leprosy) B. Sterility of packaging material

C. Nature of organism in bacterial 5. An original license or renewed license

infection to sell drugs remains valid upto
D. Bactericidal activity A. 31st March next year in which it is

granted
B. 30th June of the following year in

3. Diclofenac tablet coated with
which it is granted or renewed
cellulose acetate phthalate has been
administered to a patient. Where the C. 31st January of the same year in
diclofenac will release? which it is granted
A. Stomach D. 31st December of the year following

the year in which it is granted or
B. Oral cavity
renewed
C. Small intestine
D. Liver
1. B (to prevent the resistance and to
reduce the duration of therapy INH,
rifampicinin, pyrazinamide if registace
4. Microscopic examination of a culture
occurs add ethambutol)
isolate revealed spherical bodies with a
smooth outline growing in long chains. 2. D (RW coefficient is is for evaluation
Identify the micro organism of bactericidal potency of disinfectant
also known as water coefficient)
A. Staphylococcus aureus
3. C (diclofenac is irritant to the stomach
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
so that's why is it is coated with
C. Rhizopus stolonifer cellulose acetate phthalate that is enteric
coating to release in intestine)
D. Bacillus subtilis
4. B (staphylococcus aureus spherical
coci cluster like a grapes, Streptococcus

pyrogens are spherical bodies with A. Carbamazepine

smooth outer surface long chain)
B. Phenytoin
5. D ( 31st December of the year
C. Valproate
following the year in which it is granted
or renewed) D. Ethosuximide
1. The heterocyclic ring present in 4. One of the following is an unsaturated

nizatidine is fatty acid
A. Imidazole A. Linoleic acid
B. Oxazole B. Myristic acid
C. Thiazole C. Palmitic acid
D. Furan D. Stearic acid
2. Which of the following is a tartar 5. Erythromycin belongs to the class of

emetic
A. Macrolide
A. Potassium bitartrate
B. β-lactum
B. Antimony potassium tartrate
C. Aminoglycoside
C. Magnesium tartrate
D. Peptide
1. C (Nizatidine is histamine 2 receptor

3. Tricyclic antidepressant used as blocker which consists of thiazole ring in
antiepileptic is

structure it has race first pass effect

eliminated via kidney)
2. Filarial infection caused by parasites
2. B (antimony Potassium tartrate is also that lead to elephantiasis are treated with
known as tartar emetic)
A. Albendagole and mebendazole
3. A (carbamazepine is a tribe cyclic
B. Diethycarbamazine and ivermictin
antidepressant along with antiepileptic
activity this is widely used in epilepsy C. Albenoazole and ivermectin
mechanism of action is similar to that of
D. Ivermectin and mebendazole
phenytoin)
4. A (Linoleic acid unsaturated fatty acid

also known as essential fatty acids all 3. The drug of choice in roundworm
other options are saturated fatty acids) infection that is widely used as a single
dose deworming agent is
5. A (Erythromycin is macrolide
antibiotic inhibit translocation process A. Mebendazole
which is important in protein synthesis
B. Albendazole
of bacteria by binding with 50s
ribosome) C. Ivermectin
D. Praziquantel
1. The folic acid antagonistic, anticancer

agent which is also used in rheumatoid
4. An anthelmintic agent which affects
arthritis is
the worm in such a way that it is easily
A. Azathioprine expelled from the body is known as
B. Busulfan A. Fungicidal
C. Methotrexate B. Fungistatic
D. Fluorouracil C. Vermifuge

D. Vermicidal
1. Binding to the peroxisome

proliferator- activated receptor γ in
5. A specific cellular glycoproteins
muscle fat and liver to decrease insulin
produced naturally by virus infected
resistance is the main mechanism of
cells, and have anti-viral actions. They
action of
are known as
A. Acarbose
A. Prostaglandins
B. Metformin
B. Leucocytes
C. Glimepiride
C. Gamma globulins
D. Rosiglitazone
D. Interferons
2. Emesis associated with cancer is

1. C (methotrexate Folic acid antagonist
treated with
is a anticancer agent also used in arthritis
it also inhibit cytokinin production and A. Granisetron
purine production)
B. Ondansetron
2. B (diethylcarbamazine and evermectin
C. Metoclopramide
is used to treat elephantiasis)
D. All of the above
3. A (Ravinder Grewal is a drug of
choice in treatment of pinworm
roundworm hookworm act by binding
3. Aztreonam is a
the tubulin and glucose utilisation)
A. Carbapenem
4. C ( is the definition of vermifuge)
B. Monobactam
5. D (interferons are the antibodies
developed against viruses) C. macrolide

D. ketolide 3. B (Azetronam is only drug under class

of the monobactam)
4. A (Sumatriptan and other triptans are

4. Drug that used to treat migraine
used in treatment of migraine)
headache is
5. A (pralidoxime specific antidote for
A. Sumatriptan
organophosphorus poisoning it is
B. Misoprostol cholinesterase Activator used along with
atropine)
C. Cyclizine
D. Doxepin
1. Fludrocortisone is used in the
treatment of
5. The antidotes for organophosphate
A. Addison’s disease
poisoning are
B. Peptic ulcer disease
A. Atropine and pralidoxime
C. Tuberculosis
B. Atropine and physostigmine
D. Diabetes mellitus
C. Atropine and N-acetylcysteine
D. Atropine and dimercaprol

2. Which of the following causes drug
1. D (Binding to the peroxisome
induced hyperglycemia
proliferator- activated receptor γ in
muscle fat and liver to decrease insulin A. Disopyramide
resistance is the main mechanism)
B. Alcohol
2. D (all are the drugs used to treat
C. Phenytoin
emesis associated with cancer)
D. Pentamidine

D. Clarithromycin
3. A serious complication of long

untreated hypothyroidism is
1. A (fludrocortisone is steroidal drug
A. Myxedema coma belongs to mineralocorticoids used in
treatment of Addison’s disease primary
B. Endemic goiter
hypoaldosteronism, congential adrenal
C. Dwarfism hyperplasia)
D. Thyroid carcinoma 2. C (phenytoin and other hydantoins

produces hyperglycemia by inhibting the
release of insulin, is a side effect of
4. Most effective in treatment of breast phenytoin)
cancer is
3. A (myxedema coma is a serious
A. Flutamide complication of of chronic untreated
hyperthyroidism most commonly found
B. Progestin
in elderly patient)
C. Tamoxifen
4. C (tamoxifen is selective oestrogen
D. Baclofen receptor modulator used in breast cancer
it compete with oestrogen receptor in the
breast)
5. An antibiotic with anti cancer
5. A (examples of anticancer antibiotics
properties is
are doxorubicin actinomycin D
A. Doxorubicin mitomycin C, duonorubacin ,
bleomycin)
B. Azithromycin
C. Erythromycin

1. The specific antidote for paracetamol 4. An aldosterone antagonist used in

poisoning is heart failure and conn's syndrome is
A. Flumazenil A. Diazoxide
B. Misoproatol B. Bumetanide
C. N- acetylcysteine C. Eplerenone
D. Physostigmine D. Furosemide
2. One of the following is angiotensin 5. What the body does to the drug is
receptor blocker called as
A. Captopril A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Ramipril B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Telmisartan C. Pharmacogenomics
D. Minoxidil D. Pharmacotherapeutics
3. One of the following is class III K+ 1. A (N acetylcysteine is specific

channel blocking antiarrhythmic agents antidote for Paracetamol poisoning ,
methionine acid also used)
A. DIltiazem
2. B (sartans are angiotensin receptor
B. Verapamil
blockers , drugs name ending with suffix
C. Amiodarone pril is Ace inhibitors)
D. Propranolol 3. C (Amiodarone and sotalol are class

III potassium channel blocker in addition

they have other activities like sotalol has

Beta blocker activity)
3. The drug of choice for the treatment
4. C (eplerenone is aldosterone of absence seizures is
antagonist used in treatment of heart
A. Ethosuximide
failure and Conn syndrome)
B. Valproic acid
5. B (what body does with drug is
pharmacokinetics and what drug does to C. Phenytoin
the body is pharmacodynamics)
D. Phenobarbitone
1. The triad of cone pinpoint pupils and

4. Aanti histamine that exhibits a mild
depressed respiration are the symptoms
CNS depressant action and has wider
and sings of
margin of safety also used in
A. Acute opioid poisoning psychoneurotic states is
B. Oraganophosphorus poisoning A. Chlorpromazine
C. Benzodiazepine poisoning B. Hydroxyzine
D. None of the above C. Cetrizine
D. Chlorpheniramine maleate
2. Identify the opioid antagonist
A. Tapentadol 5. Which of the following drugs is an

odourless gas used as anaestbetic agent
B. Hydrocodone
A. Nitric oxide
C. Naltrexone
B. Nitrous oxide
D. Meperidine
C. Thiopental

D. Propofol
1. A (Acute poisoning has symptoms 2. One of the following H2 receptor

pinpoint pupil breathlessness fall in BP blocker has anti-androgenic action
cyanosis)
A. Famotidine
2. C (Naloxone neltrexone nalmefen are
B. Roxatidine
the examples of pure opiod antagonist)
C. Ranitidine
3. A (Ethosuccimide is for typical
absence seizure and valproic acid for D. Cimetidine
atypical absence seizure)
4. B (hydroxyzine hydrochloride also

3. Which of the following acts as an
used for anxiety and tension it is H1
agonist on morphine k receptors and has
receptor blocker used in eczema and
weak antagonist activity at µ and δ
allergic condition has a CNS depressant
receptors
action)
A. Bupremorphine
5. B (nitrous oxide gas is used as
anaesthetic agent) B. Pentazocine
C. Propoxyphene
1. The main adverse effect of D. Tramadol

angiotensin converthing enzyme
inhibitor enalapril is
4. A non-cardioselective beta adrenergic
A. Dry cough
blocker agent with beta blocking
B. Bone marrow depression popranolol and which has no membrane
stabilizing action is
C. Both A. and B.
A. Atenolol

B. Esmolol 5. B (if there is more demand and supply

of oxygen that is called as ischemia
C. Sotalol
observe in angina pectoris)
D. Betaxolol
5. ………….. is a symptom which

1. Examples of MAO inhibitors that are
arises when there is an imbalance
used for purposes of Hodgkin's disease
between the demand for oxygen and its
& an anti-infective
supply to the myocardium
A. Phenelzine & procarbazine
A. Hypertension
B. Angina pectoris
B. Procarbazine & linezolid
C. Neutropenia
C. Procarbazine & furazolidone
D. Meningitis
D. Tranylcypromine& furazolidone
1. A (persistent dry cough urinary

2. Which of the herbal preparation have
insufficiency hypotension postural
maximum shelf life
hypotension are the side effects)
A. Vatika and Gutika
2. D (gynecomastia impotance Are
antiandrogenic side effects of B. Arka
cimentidine)
C. Churna
3. B (pentazocine is a against for Kappa
D. Avleha
receptor and partial agonist to delta and
Mu receptor) 3. Acidic dyes generally stain
4. C (sotalol is a non selective Beta A. Basic cell components

blocker also used in arrhythmia)
B. acidic cell components

C. Both of them 2. C (Chursna is just dry powder other

formulation may contain solvent)
3. A (Acidic dye will Stain basic cell
component by reacting)
4. Mixing of semisolids is carried out
4. C (planetary mixer is used for mixing
using
of semi solids)
A. Double cone mixer
5. D (all of these are division of Beers
B. Rotating cube mixer law)
C. Planetary mixer
D. Fluidized bed mixer 1. Enzymes of gluconeogenesis are
A. Pyruvate carboxylase
5. Factors which are responsible for the B. Pyruvate kinase

deviation of Beer’s law
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
A. Association
D. Both A&C
B. Dissociation
C. Colored solution form the complex

2. Study the statements about Oxytocin
and choose the correct answer
D. All of the above
(P) It decreases local prostaglandin
production
(Q) It stimulates uterine contractions
1. C (both procarbazine and furazolidine A. P is correct and Q is incorrect

uncategorised Mao inhibitors used in
Hodkings disease)

B. P is incorrect and Q is correct D. Daughter peak
C. Both P and Q are correct
D. Both P and Q are incorrect
3. Verapamil comes under the class of 1. A (pyruvate carboxylase is the first

enzyme to start gluconeogenesis convert
A. K+ channel bloker
pyruvate to oxaloacetate)
B. Ca+ channel bloker
2. B (Oxytocin is uterine stimulant and
C. Ca+ channel opner also increases the local production of
prostaglandins for the ripening of cervix)
D. K+ channel opner
3. B (Virampamil diltiazem are Calcium
channel blockers)
4. Incandescent lamps (tungestion
4. C (incandescent lamp for tungsten
filament) commonly find us as a source
filament is source of visible light)
of
5. A (molecular Ion peak is also known
A. X- ray
as parent ion peak)
B. UV
C. Visible
1. The statutory Analytical Laboratory
D. Infra red for drugs is the Central Drug laboratory
the headquarter of same is located at
A. Kolkata
5. Molecular ion peak is called as
B. Mumbai
A. Parent peak
C. Chennai
B. Metastable peak
D. New Delhi
C. Base peak

C. Department of science and

Technology, Government of India
2. What is full form of ISO
D. Drug controller General of India
A. International Standard Organisation
(DCGI), Government of India
B. International Standardization
Organisation
5. As per the medicinal and toilet
C. International Organisation for
preparations act “Bonded Laboratories”
Standardization
means
D. International Statistical Organization
A. Excise duty has not been paid
B. Excise duty has been paid

3. Insulin comes under
C. Excise duty need not be paid
A. Schedule B
B. Schedule C
C. Schedule P
1. A (Central drug laboratory is located
D. Schedule Y at Kolkata)
2. C (International organisation and

standardization)
4. Good Laboratory Practice (GLP)
certification is issued in India by 3. B (insulin preparation is a biological
product so it will comes under schedule
A. Controller, Weights and measure,
C)
Government of India
4. C (Department of Science and
B. Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS),
Technology Government of India)
Government of India

5. C (bonded laboratory on which duty

has not been paid as per medicinal and
4. S is the latin term for
toilet preparation act)
A. Signa
B. Statim
1. Signatura is the direction given to
C. Sumendus
A. Prescriber
D. Semi
B. Pharmacist
C. Patient
5. Primo mane meaning
D. Manufacturer
A. Every morning
B. Early in the morning

2. Addend is the abbreviation for
C. Equal morning
A. To be applied
D. Morning
B. To be given
C. To be added
1. C (signature is instruction for patient)
D. Let be added
2. C (it is abbreviation for to be added)
3. C (when cough is troublesome)

3. Tussiurgen means
4. C (s stands for sumendus)
A. When pain is troublesome
5. A. (Primo means early morning)
B. When pain is severe
1. The list of diseases and ailments that a
C. When the cough is troublesome
drug should not claim to cure are given
D. When required or when necessary

in the following schedule of pharmacy D. National Pharmaceutical Advisory

act 1940 Board
A. H 4. Class 100 clean room is defined as a

room in which the particle count in the
B. J
air is
C. K
A. Not more than 100 per cubic foot of
D. M O.5µm and larger in size
B. Not more than 120 per cubic foot of

O.5µm and larger in size
2. The sale of opium to the State
Government or manufacturing chemists C. Not more than 100 per cubic foot of
is made by Central Government opium O.5µm and larger in size
factory located at
D. Not more than 99 per cubic foot of
A. Ghaziabad O.5µm in size
B. Ghazipur
C. Gorakhpur 5. Schedule 'R' of drugs and cosmetics

act would apply to
D. Goa
A. Requirement of factory premises and
hygienic conditions for ayurvedic
3. In India, the Drug Controller General (including sidhha) drugs
of India (DCGI) can issue an order to
B. Standards for mechanical
ban a drug on the recommendation of
contraceptives
A. Indian Council of Medical Research
C. Standard for medical devices
B. Pharmacy council of India
D. None of these
C. Drug Technical Advisory Board

1. B (list of diseases or elements that A. Age

should
B. Weight
2. B (Central Government opium factory
C. Gender
is located at Ghazipur)
D. Body surface area
3. C (DGCI can decide to ban drug on
the recommendations of drug technical
advisory board)
3. Prescription is a
4. A (Not more than 100 per cubic foot
A. Dietary chart to patient
of O.5µm and larger in size in in
operation and when rest 0 per cubic foot B. Diagnosis report to patient
0.5)
C. A written order from a registered
5. C (schedule for R standard of medical practitioner
mechanical contraceptives, trick R -
D. Description of patientsymptoms
stand for rubber latex)
4. Rx is used to denote
1. Auristille is the latin term for
A. Superscription
A. Eye drop
B. Inscription
B. Ear drop
C. Subscription
C. Nasal drop
D. Signature
D. Spray solution
5. Cochleare magnum means

2. The most common criterion used to
determine the correct pediatric dose of a A. One dessertspoonful
drug is

B. One tablespoonful
C. One teaspoonful 2. The chemical shift value is
D. One cupspoonful A. Ratio of the number of protons in

the each group
B. Proportional to the total number of

1. B (Aurastellis means your drop)
protons
2. A (age is the most common and body
C. proportional to field strength
surface area is most accurate to calculate
the dose of paediatric patient) D. Not proportional to field strength
3. C (prescription is a written order from

medical practitioner showing diagnosis
3. The drug fluorouracil is assay by
and treatment)
A. Spectrometry
4. A (RX means recipe that is given in
superscription part of prescription) B. HPLC
5. B (1 tbsp full) C. Non-aqueous titration
D. None of above
1. Increase in the extent of conjugation

of a bonded system results in
4. The detector used in mass
A. Bathochromic shift spectroscopy is
A. Photomultiplier
B. Hyperchromic shift
B. Thermal conductivity detector
C. Hypochromic shift
C. Electron capture detector
D. Bolometer
D. Hypsochromic shift

5. Reference compound widely used in A. Glucogenesis

NMR spectroscopy for proton spectra in
B. Glycosuria
non-aqueous media
C. Gluconeogenesis
A. Siline
D. Glycogenolysis
B. Tetramethyl siline
2. Propylthiouracil is used in
C. Chloroform
A. Hypothyroidism
D. Carbon tetrachloride
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Cretinism
1. A(increase in extent of conjugation
increases the absorption Maxima D. Myxedema
towards the longer wavelength)
2. C (chemical shift is proportional to

3. A loop diuretic can be used in the
applied strength of magnetic field)
treatment of
3. C
A. Acute pulmonary oedema
4. A(photomultiplier is used in mass
B. Chronic heart failure
spectroscopy as application in studying
of metastable ion) C. Renal failure
5. B (Tetra methyl silane is used as D. All of the above

internal standard in NMR which has 12
equivalent proton and its value is zero)
4. One of the following is anabolic agent
which increases bone formation
1. Conversion of protein to glucose is
A. Strontium ranelate
called as
B. Teriparatide

C. Etidronate
D. Calcitonin 1. Chloramphenicol was the drug of

choice typhoid fever its major adverse
effect is
A. Bone- marrow depression
stuart power factor
B. Hypersensitivity reactions
A. Factor V
C. Gray-baby syndrome
B. Factor XI
D. All of the above
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X
2. In chronic alcoholism the antagonist
used is
1. C (synthesis of glucose from other
A. N-acetylcysteine
source like proteins amino acids and fat
is known as gluconeogenesis) B. Disulfiram
2. B (used in hyperthyroidism and C. Aspirin

diffused toxic goitre)
D. Phenobarbitone
3. D (all these are uses of loop diuretics)
4. B (Tripartite related to parathyroid

3. Co-trimoazole is the combination of
hormone is anabolic agent which
trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole in
increases the bone formation, other
the ratio of
options also used but they are different
mechanism) A. 2:3
5. D (actor x is known as Stuart power B. 5:1

factor)
C. 1:5

D. 3:2 3. C (cotrimoxazole is a combination of

sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim in
1:5 ratio)
4. The calcium channel blocker
4. D (class I sodium channel blockers
verapamil is a
class II beta blockers class III
A. class IA antiarrythmic drug amiodarone class IV Calcium channel
blocker)
B. class II antiarrythmic drug
5. A (Selegiline, Asragiline are selective
C. class III antiarrythmic drug
Irreversible mao b inhibitor)
D. class IV antiarrythmic drug
1. What is the meaning of Tachyphylaxis

5. The drug which will inhibit MAO-B
A. Decrease in response of drug
irreversibly and used in Parkinson’s
disease is B. Opposite action agonist
A. Selegilline C. High resistance within short time
B. Bromocriptine D. Natural resistance
C. Pergolide
D. Amantadine 2. What is mechanism of action of

sulphonamide
1. D (grey baby syndrome aplastic
anaemia bone marrow suppression major A. Inhibition absorption of amino acid
side effects)
B. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
2. B (disulfiram is used in chronic
C. Inhibition synthesis of folinic acid
alcoholism treatment should be carried
out only at hospital it is aldehyde D. Both A& B
dehydrogenase inhibitor)

D. Cynide
3. Aminoglycoside antibiotic that is used 1. C (Techyphylaxis is rapidly developed

in treatment of leshmaniasis tolerance at short time example
amphetamine ephedrine)
A. Neomycin
2. B (sulpha drugs inhibit the synthesis
B. Tobramycin
of bacterial Folic acid by you getting the
C. Paromomycin enzyme dihydro pteroate synthase)
D. Spectinomycin 3. C (paromomycin is used as alternative

treatment of leishmaniasis)
4. C (rifampicin binds to beta subunit of

4. Which of the following antibiotic acts
bacterial DNA dependent RNA
by inhibiting RNA synthesis?
polymerase and inhibits synthesis of
A. Tatracycline RNA)
B. Clindamycin 5. D (these are used as antidote in

cyanide poisoning)
C. Rifampicin
1. Methyl red has pH range
D. Erythromycin
A. 1.8-2.8
B. 3.1-4.4
5. Amyl Nitrite, sod. Nitrite are used as
antidote in poisoning of C. 4.2-6.3
A. Carbon monoxide D. 8.0-9.6
B. Lead
C. Metyl alcohol 2. Ginseng is also known as

A. Ginger B. Clarifying agent
B. Polygala C. Sequestering agents
C. Panax D. Conditioning agents
1. C (methyl red has pH range 4.4 to 6.2

two colour changes from red to yellow)
3. One of the following is invert sugar
2. C ( roots of Panax ginseng family
A. Glucose
Araliaceae)
B. Sucrose
3. B (sucrose is invert sugar)
C. Starch
4. A (standards of cosmetics are given in
D. Glycogen schedule S of drug and cosmetic act)
5. B (it is used as clarifying agent in

shampoo formulation)
4. Standards for cosmetics are given in
schedule 1. The matrix of blood is known as
A. S A. Plasma
B. M1 B. Serum
C. Q C. RBC and WBC
D. D D. WBC and platelets
5. What is the role of Diethylcarbitolin 2. The life span of WBC is

shampoo approximately
A. Opacifying agents A. Less than 10 days

B. Between 20-30 days 5. Amino acids are the product of the

digestion of
C. Between 2-3 months
A. Protein
D. More1han three months
B. Fat
C. Vitamin
3. The non allevelof Hb per 100 mlof
blood in women is D. Carbohydrate
A. 14g
B. 18 g 1. A (the matrix of blood is comprising

of RBC WBC and platelets that is blood
C. 20g
cells)
D. 10 g
2. B (lifespan of WBC is 20 to 30 days
lifespan of RBC is 120 days)
4. Increase blood cholesterol gets 3. A (12-15 normal hemoglobin women)

deposited into the walls of arteries and
4. C (arteriosclerosis is a condition in
causes the arteries to lose their elasticity
which increased cholesterol level of
and get stiffened. The condition is
blood the cholesterol deposits in arteries
known as
and arteries lost the elasticity)
A. Hypertension
5. A (amino acid is digestion product of
B. Hypotension protein as they are polymers of protein)
C. Arteriosclerosis
D. Systolic pressure 1. The stage in which daughter

chromosomes move toward the poles of
the spindle is

A. Anaphase B. Product mix
B. Metaphase C. Place mix
C. Prophase D. Promotion mix
D. Telophase
5. Which of the following packaging

material is protect the drug content
2. Ribosomes helps in
against light
A. Protein synthesis
A. Plastic containers
B. Photosynthesis
B. Amber colored glass containers
C. Lipid synthesis
C. Both
D. Respiration
D. None
3. The plasma membrane is impermeable

1. A (chromosome brakes cetromers and
to all molecules except
daughter chromosome moves towards
A. Glucose the opposite end of cell)
B. ATP 2. A (function of ribosome cheese

protein synthesis)
C. Urea
3. D (ions have low permeability
D. K+
towards the plasma membrane)
4. B (it is a product mix)

4. Labeling, packaging are associated
5. B (Amber colour glass container used
with
to protect medicament from light)
A. Price mix

4. Incomplete antigens are called
1. Which one of the following vaccine A. Immunogens

develops immunity life long
B. Epitomes
A. Diphtheria
C. Haptens
B. Tetanus
D. Paratope
C. Measles
D. Yellow fever
5. Antigen protein maybe....
2. T-cells are produced from one of the
A. High molecular weight
following
B. Chemical complexity
A. Bonemarrow
C. Both a and b
B. Thymus
D. None of these
C. Spleen
D. None of these
1. C (the vaccine is live attenuated
vaccine is it give active immunity which
3. Material used by Edward Jenner to long lasting immunity)
prepare smallpox vaccine is
2. B ( T cells are derived from thymus
A. Small pox material gland)
B. Chicken pox material 3. C (Edward Jenner discovered

smallpox vaccine in 1971 he scratched
C. Cow-pox material
cowpox sour on the arm of infected by
D. Measles material and later he developed immunity against
smallpox)

4. C (Hapten is able to bind antibodies or A. Cellular vaccines

t cell but unable to produce immune
B. Sub-cellular vaccines
response that's why it is called as
incomplete antigen) C. Attenuated vaccines
5. C (they have high molecular weight D. Heterologous vaccines

and complex structure)
4. Innate immunity is developed by

1. If the microbes used in the vaccine are
A. Mechanical barriers
obtained from patient, they are
B. Chemical barriers
A. Anti viral vaccines
C. Both A andB
B. Anti bacterial vaccines
D. None of these
C. Autogenous vaccines
D. None of these
5. Acquired immunity is
A. Natural
2. One of the following is live vaccine
B. Artificial
A. Rubella & BCG
C. Active & Passive
B. Polio & TAB
D. All of these
C. Diphtheria & Tetanus
D. Hepatitis A & Rabies

1. C (vaccines manufactured from
microorganism and isolated at farm and
3. Vaccines prepared from toxins and used for animals)
chemicals are

2. A (BCG vaccine consist of live 3. S is the latin term for

suspension of mycobacterium and
A. Signa
rubella vaccine consist live virus)
B. Statim
3. B (subcellular vaccines are prepared
from toxins and Chemicals) C. Sumendus
4. C (for the first line innate immunity D. Semi

barriers are physical as well as chemical)
5. D (acquired immunity may be natural

4. Primo mane meaning
artificial active and passive)
A. Every morning
B. Early in the morning

1. Auristille is the latin term for
C. Equal morning
A. Eye drop
D. Morning
B. Ear drop
C. Nasal drop
5. Alternishoris means
D. Spray solution
A. Every one hour
B. Every hour
2. Addendum is the abbreviation it
means C. Every two hours
A. To be applied D. Every fourth hour
B. To be given
C. To be added 1. B (Aurastellis means ear drops)
D. Let be added 2. C (Addendum means to be added)

3. C (S for sumendus) 3. Identify the statin that is prodrug and

chemically lactone
4. B (Primo means early morning)
A. Simvastatin
5. C (Alternis horis means after every 2
hour) B. Fluvastatin
C. Rosuvastatin D. Atovastatin
1. Clofibrate is prepared by Willamson 4. The antianxiety and antipsychotic

synthesis reaction agent BUSPIRONE belongs to
A. p-chloro phenol with α-bromo A. Phenothiazine class

isobutyrate
B. Butyrophenone class
B. mixture of acetone, p-chloro phenol
C. Azaspirodecanedione class
and chloroform in presence of KOH
D. Dibenazepine class
C. p-chloro phenol, ethanol and
ammonia
D. Both A. & B. 5. CHLORPROMAZINE can be

synthesized by refluxing toluene solution
of 2-chlorophenothiazine in presence of
2. Azaspiro decanedione agents are sodamide with
primary used in treatment of
A. 2-chloropropyldimethylamine
A. Depression
B. 3-chloropropyldimethy lamine
B. Anxiety
C. 2- chloropropylmethylamine
C. Psychosis
D. 3-chloropropylmethylamine
D. Addiction
1. D

2. A (example buspirone) B. Increases, Increases
3. A (lovastatin and simvastatin are the C. Shorts, shortens

prodrugs electron ring is hydrolysed to
D. shortens, Increases
give polar heads)
4. C (buspirone is azaspirodecanedione
class) 3. Glutethimide is a sedative-hypnotic.
The basic nucleus present in it is
5. B (By refluxing toluene solution of 2-
chlorophenothiazine in presence of A. Pyridine
sodamide with 3-chloropropyldimethy
B. Pyridazine
lamine)
C. Piperazine
D. Piperidine
1. Condensation of ethyl phenyl
malonoate with urea yields a barbiturate.
Identify the drug
4. 2-Amino-5-chlorobenzophenone is the
A. Pentobarbitone convenient starting material for the
synthesis Of
B. Thiobarbitone
A. Nirozepam
C. Phenobarbitone
B. Chlordiazepoxide
D. Barbitone
C. Diazepam
D. Chlorozepam
2. Methylaation of nitrogen at position
number 1 in barbituric acid………Lipid
solubility And ………Duration of action
5. The 5, 5 Diphenyl (Imidazolidene 2, 4
A. Increasing, shortens Dione) is used as

A. Sedative hypnotic
B. Local anaesthetic 2. Which of the following is a

hydroperoxy compound
C. Antiepileptic
A. PGG2
D. Vasodilator
B. PGH2
C. TXA2
1. C (ethyl phenyl malonoate with urea
is a starting material percentage of D. PGJ2
phenobarbitone)
2. A( increases pka values therefore

3. The enzyme responsible for the
Lipid solubility is increased but at the
generation of PGG2 is
same time action is decreased)
A. Lipoxygenase
3. B (it consist of Pyridazine ring in the
structure) B. Cycloxygenase
4. C (2-Amino-5-chlorobenzophenone is C. Peroxidase
and ethyl Ester of glycine is starting
D. Both a & b
material for synthesis of diazepam)
5. C (anticonvulsant diphenhdantoin)
4. Which of the following is a cysteinyl
1. Which of the following eicosanoid is a
leukotriene
furan derivative
B. LTB4
A. PGD2
C. LTC4 D. Both a& b
B. PGE2
C. PGI2
D. PGF2

5. Eicosanoids refers to the products of 2. The antihistamine with diphenyl

eicosatetraenoic acid metabolism. It is methyl group is
A. Prostagalndins A. Methdilazine
B. Leukotrienes B. Cyclizine hydrochloride
C. Prostacyclins & Thromboxane C. Pheniramine
D. All the above D. Phenindamine
1. C (prostaglandin I2 contains furan in 3. Which of the following phenyl

its structure) ethanolamine derivative contains t-butyl
group in side chain?
2. A (thromboxane is hydroperxy)
A. Isoprnaline
3. B (cyclooxygenase enzyme is
responsible for production of PGG2 ) B. Salbutamol
4. C C. Metapropterenol
5. D (all of these are ecoisanoide) D. Medodrine
1. Famotidine act as 4. Manufacturer of Dettol is
A. H1-Histamine antagonist A. Pfizer
B. H2-Histamine antagonist B. Glaxo Smithkline
C. H1-agonist C. Reckit Benkiser
D. Proton pump inhibitor D. Johnson & Johnson

5. Which of the following ring is present C. Loos in activity

in mepyramine
D. No effect
A. Piperidine
B. Pyridine
2. Which of the following ring is present
C. Pyrimidine in clemastine
D. Pyradazine A. Pyrrole
B. Furon
1. B (cementidine Ranitidine famotidine C. Indole

are the H2 receptor blockers used as
D. None
antisecretory agent)
2. B (cyclizine consist of di phenyl rings

and piperazine ring in the structure) 3. Which heterocyclic ring is present in
analgin
3. B (salbutamol isphenyl ethanolamine
derivative contains t-butyl group in side A. Imidazole
chain)
B. Quinoline
4. C
C. Pyridine
5. B (pyridine ring is present)
D. Pyrazolidine
1. In antihistaminic drugs by branching

4. Which is the toxic metabolite of
or extention of 2-aminoethyl side chain
Acetaminophen
causes
A. N-acetyl p-benzoquinoneimine
A. Decreased activity
B. p-aminophenol
B. Increased activity

C. p-nitrophenol 1. One of the following is an example of

oleoresin
D. Aniline
A. Copaiba
B. Canada balsam
5. In the general formula R-X-C-C-
N, X is either nitrogen or carbon, C. Capsicum
R = different groups, this formula
D. Myrrh
represent
A. Antitussive
2. Oleo gum resins are mixture of
B. Antipyretics
A. Volatile oil + Gum + Resins
C. Analgesics
B. Fixed oil + Gum + Resin
D. Antihistamine
C. Fats + Gum + Resin
D. Gum + resins
1. A (branching decreases the activity)
3. Homogenous mixture of resins and oil
2. A (pyrrole ring and di phenyl rings are
are called as
present)
A. Oleoresins
3. D (phenylpyrazolidone king is
present) B. Oleogum
4. A (N-acetyl p-benzoquinone imine is C. Glycoresin

hepato toxic metabolite of Paracetamol)
D. Balsma
5. D (is a general formula for
antihistamine drugs)
4. Glycoresins are composed of one of
the following

A. Resins + Sugar 5. D (balsams are resins of large

proportion of benzoic acid and cinnamic
B. Resins + Volatile oil
acid they contain as acid or esters of this
C. Resins + Gum compound)
D. Resins + Fixed oil
1. Goldbeater skin test is employded for

identification of
5. Resins containing benzoic acid or
cinnamic acids are called as A. Alkaloids
A. Oleoresins B. Glycosides
B. Glycoresins C. Tannins
C. Oleogum D. Resins
D. Balsam
2. Condensed tannins are called as
1. A (copiaba Ginger are oleoresin, A. Hydrolysable tannins

asafoetida & myrhh is example of olio
B. Non hydrolysable
gum resines)
C. Pseudotannins
2. A (ogumresines are the mixtures of oil
Gum and resin) D. Prototannins
3. A (olioresines homogenius mixture of

oil and resins)
3. Tannic acid is under the class of
4. A (raisins in combination of glycoside
A. Condensed tannins
is known as glycoresines examples of
jhalap and podophyllum resin) B. Pseudotannins

C. Hydrolysable tannins 3. C (tannic acid is addresses product of

tannins so that is under a glass of
D. Condensed and pseudotannins
hydrolysable tannins)
4. A (terminalia Arjuna family

4. Biological source of Arjuna combretaceae it is usually used as
cardiotonic)
A. Terminalia arjuna
5. C (tannic acid is used in alkaloid
B. Terminalia chebula
poisoning along with activated charcoal
C. Terminalia tomenstosa it is also component of natural antidote)
D. Terminalia belerica
1. One of the following is aldehyde

glycoside
5. Tannic acid is antidote in poisoning
A. Cantheride
A. Iodine
B. Bearberry
B. Cyanide
C. Psoralea
C. Alkaloid
D. Vanilla
D. None of these

1. C (gold bitter skin test is used for
hepatoprotective plant found by Central
identification of tannins)
Drug Research Institute(CDRI),
2. B (condensed tannins are non Lucknow is
hydrolysable tannins)
A. Quassia
B. Picrorrhiza

C. Chirata C. For preservative purpose
D. Momordica D. To convert into aloe emodin
3. Among natural products the bittermost 1. D

substances is
2. B
A. Quinine
3. A
B. Amarogentin
4. D
C. Gentioside
5. A
D. Gentiopicrin
1. D (glucovanillin obtained from vanilla
4. Which of the following pairs gives planifolia family orchidaceae this plant
positve modified Borntrager’s test consists of aldehyde glycoside)
A. Cascara and Rhubarb 2. B
B. Frangula and Senna 3. A (quinine is a standard used for

determination of bitterness value)
C. Senna and Rhubarb
4. D (modified borntrager test is given
D. Aloe and Cascara
positive by C glycosieds & O
glycosides)
5. Why the aqueous solution of aloe in 5. A (some glycoside like in aloe vera
modified (Borntrager test) is treated with does not hydrolysed using acid or base
Fecl3 and HCl therefore ferric chloride is used par
hydrolysis and oxidation)
A. To bring out oxidation and hydrolysis
of aloe emodin
B. To bring out reduction of aloe emodin

1. Which drug contain T shaped 4. A second end point is the Volhard

trichome method in which Ag+ is titrated with
SCN– in the presence of
A. Artemisia
A. Cu
B. Pyrethrum
B. Fe
C. Both
C. Zn D. Ag
D. Dhatura
5. The temperature for storage of small

2. Which is responsible for purgative
pox vaccine is
action of aloe
A. 20 to 80 C
A. Barbeloin
B. 00 to 20 C
B. Aloin
C. 100 to 150C
C. Aloe emodin
D. 150 to 200C
D. Aloesin
1. C (pyrethrum hand artemisia consists

3. Lmit of total solid contents that is
of t shaped trichomes)
permitted for for WFI is
2. A (barbaloin is responsible for
A. 100 ppm
purgative action)
B. 1 ppm
3. D (10 PPM is the limit of solid
C. 0.1 ppm content pH between 5 to 7)
D. 10 ppm 4. B (already discussed FeSCN red

colour complex in second end point)

5. B (vaccines are stored at cool 4. Which one is least ionic from

temperature 0-20 degree Celsius) following
1. The Pka of disubstituted barbiturate is A. AgCl
A. 7-8 B. KCl
B. 10-13 C. BaCl2
C. 1-2 D. KNO3
D. 4-5
5. GMP is recommended by one of

thefollowing body
2. Cullet is added in glass
A. AAIP
A. As base material
B. WHO
B. As fusion agent
C. FDC
C. To improve properties
D. IOPCA
D. All of the above
1. A (pka and substituted barbiturate is

3. Injection with specific antibody given
4.12 while disubstituted barbiturates is
.....immunity
between 7 to 8)
A. Active immunity
2. B ( cullets are used as fusion agent
B. Passive immunity
3. B (readymade antibodies provide
C. Partial immunization passive immunity)
D. All of the above 4. A (aluminium chloride is least

ionizable)

5. B (good manufacturing practices is C. Osmotic diuretics

laid down by wh0 that is World Health
D. Aldosterone antagonist
Organisation)
4. In geometric isomerism, if two groups

1. Test organism for microbial assay of
of higher priority are located on the
Amphotericin B
same side of double bond it is designated
A. Staphylococcus aureus as
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis A. R isomer
C. Sacchromyces cervisiae B. S isomer
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Z isomer
D. E isomer
2. One of the following is calcineurin

inhibitor
5. Isoprenoids can be biosynthesized
A. Muromonab CD3 from one of the following pathway
B. Tacrolimus A. Shikimic acid pathway
C. Chlormbucil B. Malonic acid pathway
D. Prednisolone C. Mevalonic acid pathway
D. Both A and C
3. Spirolonolactone is
A. High efficacy diuretic 1. C (saccharomyces cervicesiae is the

microorganism used for antimicrobial
B. Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitor
assay of amphotericin B)

2. B (tacrolimus is calcineurin inhibitor B. Na Salt

is immunosuppressant related to
C. Ammonium compound
cyclosporine but it is 10-20 more
important than cyclosporine) D. Citrate buffer
3. D (spironolactone is a aldosterone
antagonist)
3. Caffeine and morphine is assayed by
4. C (higher priority groups are on same one of the following
side of the double bond it is called as Z
A. Potentiometric titration
isomer and if on opposite side it is
known as E isomer) B. Complexometric titration
5. C (biosynthesis of isoprenoid unit and C. Acid-base titration

cholesterol is done using Mevalonic acid
D. Non-aqueous titration
pathway)
4. Gastric emptying is a,.....

1. Pellagra is because deficiency of one
of the following vitamin A. First order process
A. Riboflavin B. Zero order process
B. Thiamine C. Second order process
C. Niacin D. Pseudo-first order
D. Cyanocobalmine 5. Final pathway for the oxidation of

carbohydrate, lipid, and protein whose
common end product, acetyl-CoA, reacts
2. Penicillin G Procaine is provided in with oxaloacetate to form citrate is
the form of
A. Citric acid cycle
A. K salt

B. PPP B. Rotational + electronic
C. Oxidative decarboxylation of C. Vibrational + electronic

pyruvate
D. All of the above
D. Glycogenolysis
2. The absorption spectra involving σ –
electron excitations occurs well into the
1. C (deficiency of niacin vitamin B3 A. Vacuum ultraviolet

causes allegra general symptoms
B. Near ultraviolet
dermatitis which is light sensitive,
dementia, diarrhea) C. Visible
2. C (provided as amine salt for prolong D. Both B& C

action)
3. C (they are basic so they can be

3. In hydrogen duterium discharge lamp
treated with aqueous titrations either
the hydrogen is filled having pressure of
direct titration or back titration)
approximate
4. A (dependent on concentration of
A. 5 torr
content)
B. 50 torr
5. A (citric acid cycle is final pathway
where acetyl-CoA is taken from C. 500 torr
metabolism of Carbohydrate protein and
D. 5000 torr
fat)
4. Incandescent lamps (tungestion

1. At the ground state, molecule
filament) commonly find us as a source
possesses.... energy
of
A. Rotational + vibrational
A. X- ray

B. UV 4. C (tungsten lamp are available for

visible light emission, hydrogen and
C. Visible
deuterium lamp for UV radiation)
D. Infra red
5. A (called Grism equation)
1. "Nernst filament" is fabricated from

5. Resolving power of prism is defined the oxides which metal
as-
A. Zirconium
A. R = b dή / dλ
B. Thorium
B. R = dή/ bdλ
C. Cerium
C. R = bdλ / dή
D. All of the above
D. R = dλ/ b dή
2. A non linear, triatomic water
where b = band width of the prism dή moleculeto will have.... according 3n – 6
= dispersive power of the prism rule, the
A. 2 fundamental vibrations
1. D B. 3 fundamental vibrations
2. A (100-200 nm is known as vacuum C. 4 fundamental vibrations

UV region most of the Sigma electrons
D. 5 fundamental vibrations
are excited between 120-200 nm, pi
electrons and conjugated Pi electrons are
excited in between 200- 380nm which is
3. In IR spectrum 1300 to 400 cm-1
known as near UV)
range is known as
3. A (hydrogen gas is filled at low
A. Functional group region
pressure 5 torr)

B. Overtone region 2. B (it will have three fundamental

vibrations symmetric asymmetric and
C. Fingerprint resion
bending viration)
D. Fundamental region
3. C (IR Spectroscopy consists of two
regions one functional group
region>1500cm-& fingerprint
4. Red shift in UV is because of one of
region>1500 cm -)
the following
4. C (shifting of absorption Maxima
A. Inreasing conjugation
towards the longer wavelength is
B. Increasing solvent polarity bathochromic shift or red shift is because
of presence of auxochrome or increasing
C. Both of them
the solvent polarity due to stabilization
of excited state buy dipole dipole solvent
D. None eof above interaction)
5. B (larmor equation is the basis of

NMR spectroscopy)
5. Which of the following is the
fundamental NMR equation?
A. Schwarzschilds equation 1. In mass spectroscopy, Omegatron is

used as
B. Larmor equation
A. Ion source
C. Bohr's equation
B. Ion analyzer
C. Ion collector
D. None of these
1. D (Nerst filament is fabricated form of
oxides like zirconium Thorium and
cerium)

B. Re-emission of previously absorbed

radiation
2. Ions produced from the decomposition
between ion source and magnetic C. Excited radiation
analyzer are called
D. Transmitterd radiation
A. Rearrangment ions
B. Parent ion
5. An O-H bending vibration for tertiary
C. Metastable ion alcohol shows absorption in the rgion
D. Multiple charge ions A. 1030 cm-1
B. 1100 cm-1
3. The region for intrared radiation C. 1200cm-1

ranges from
D. 1150 cm-1
A. 14290-4000 cm-1 (0.7-2.5µm)
1. D (it is a type of mass spectrometer)

B. 4000-666 cm-1 (2.5 – 15.0 µm)
2. C (iron resulting from decomposition
C. 700-200 cm-1 (14.3 - 50µm)
between the source add mass analyser is
known as metastable ion appears as a
D. None of the above broad peak)
3. B (2.5 to 15 Micron is the range of

infrared spectroscopy)
4. Luminescence is the term applied to
one of the following 4. (Luminescence is the emission of
previously absorbed radiation)
A. Rbsorbed radiation
5. C (stretching vibrations of different
types of Alcohol 1° 1050-1085, 2° 1085-

1125, 3°1125-1200cm-1, bending occurs B. Cu

in between 1200-1400cm -1)
C. Zn
D. Ag
1. Indigo tetrasulfonate indicator used in
one of the following
4. A second end point is the Volhard
A. Back titration
method in which Ag+ is titrated with
B. Displacement titration SCN– in the presence of ?
C. Complexometeric titration A. Cu
D. Redox titration B. Fe
C. Zn
2. Jones reductor is a reduction column D. Ag

has one of the following metal as a
reducing agent
5. One of the following is used as a
A. Hg
metallochromic indicator
B. Cu
A. Calmagite
C. Zn
B. Eriochrome Black T
D. Ag
C. Murexide
D. All of the above

3. Walden reductor is a reduction
column has one of the following metal
as a reducing agent 1. D (it is used as oxidation reduction
titration indicator blue colour from
A. Hg
Oxidation state to colourless)

2. C (it consists of zinc coated with zinc 2. Which of the following drug is
amalgam zinc is very powerful reducing estimated by tetrabutyl ammonium
agent) hydroxide?
3. D (solid silver in 1 molar HCl it is the A. Tolbutamide

more selective because having less
B. Chlordiazepoxide
power production)
C. Hydroflumethiazone
4. B (Analyte is treated with excess of
silver nitrate, unreacted silver ions reacts D. Primadone
with standard solution of isothiocyanate
ions Paris as indicator which Ponds red
colour complex FeSCN) 3. The term FDA stands for
5. D (all are the examples of A. Federal Drug Authority

metalochromic indicators used in
B. Food & Drug Administration
complexometric titrations)
C. Foundation for Drug Administration
1. Which of the following compound is

D. Federal Drug Administration
not assayed by complex metric titration?
A. Calcium lactate
4. Which of the following method is
B. Progesterone injection
used for estimation of sodium lactane
C. Sodium calcium edentate injection?
D. Magnesium trisilicate A. Nonaqueous titration
B. Conductometry
C. Complexometry
D. Polarography

B. P-Dimethyl amino phenol
5. Which of the following drug is not C. m -Diethyl amino phenol

assayed by non – aqueous titration?
A. Imipramine hydrochloride
B. Sulpha farazole
2. Physotigmine is used in the treatment
C. Prochlorperazine of...
D. Amiloride HCl A. Glaucoma
B. Ulcer
1. B (except progesterone injection all C. Organophosphorous poisoning

other options are assyed by
complexometric titration)
2. C (steroidal compound are estimated

using this) 3. The use of choline esteraseinhibitors
are contraindicated in
3.B
A. Hypertension
4. C (Assyed by complexometric
titrations) B. Diabetes
5. A (imipramine assyed by non aqueous C. Hyperthyroidism

titration sulpha drugs by diazotization)
D. Cancer
1. What is the starting material for the

4. Oximes are ......agents
synthesis of Edrophonium chloride
A. Anticholinesterases
A. m-Dimethyl amino phenol
B. Diabetes

C. Cholinesterase 5. C (antibiotics like aminoglycoside

macrolides can agrivate the symptoms
of Myasthenia gravis)
5. Symptoms of Myasthenia gravis are

1.Which of the following ring is present
aggravated by one of the following
in Amidorone?
A. CNS Stimulants
A. Pyrazole
B. Oral hypoglycemic
B. Pyrimidine
C. Antibiotics
C. Benzofuran
D. All the above
1. A (m-dimethylamino phenol and ethyl

iodide is starting material for synthesis
in Azosemide?
of endrophonium)
A. Triazole and pyrrole
2. A (used topically to decrease
intraocular pressure in glaucoma) B. Trizole and Furan
3. C (cholinesterase inhibitors are C. Tetrazole and Thiaophene

contraindicated in coronary
insufficiency, ventricular
arrhythmias,Ulce,r hyperthyroidism and
asthma)
4. C (Oximes are cholinesterase in Fruosemide?
activators example pralidoxime)
A. Pyrrole
B. Indole

C. Furan 2. C (tetrazole and thiophene rings are

present in
3. C (urine drink is present in furosemide
and benzimidazole is presented in
4. Which of the following nucleus us indapamide)
present in Amiloride?
4. C
A. Pyrazole
5. D (it is thiazide diuretic it is a basic
B. Pyrimidine nucleus of benzthiazide)
C. Pyrazine
D. Pyridazine 1. Lithium carbonate is used for
A. Seizures
B. Bipolar mood disorder
5. 6-Chloro-2H 1, 2, 4 benzothiadiazine- C. Psychosis

7-sulfonamide-1, 1,-dioxide is used as
D. Depression
A. Antimalarial
B. Antihypertensive
2. False neurotransmitter is
C. Antizrrhythmic
A. Epinephrine
D. Diurectic
B. β-methyldopa
C. Acetylcholine
D. Dopamine
1. C (benzofuran ring is present in
structure of amiodarone)

3. Atracurium is used intravenously as a 6. All of the following can be used as

neuromuscular blocker.The molecule antitussive except
undergoes a chemical degradation at
A. Codeine
slightly alkaline pH. What is the name of
this reaction? B. Dextromethorphan
A. Hofmann rearrangement C. Guaifenesin
B. Hofmann elimination D. Pholcodine
C. Cope rearrangement
D. McLafferty rearrangement 7. Starting material for the synthesis of

phentolamine is
A. Orcinol
4. One among the following is a volatile
oil containing crude drug B. Resorcinol
A. Churaya C. Piperazine dicarboxylic acid
B. Cardamom D. Phenol
C. Linseed
D. Myroblan 8. NSAID used for ocular inflammation
A. Ibuprofen
5. A crude drug used as cardiotonic B. Piroxicam
A. Datura C. Nimesulide
B. Cinchona D. Flurbiprofen
C. Ephedra
D. Ergot

9. Which is used in treatment of 4. B (Eleteria cardamom belonging to

neuropathic pain? family gingiberaceae volatile oils
terpenoids)
A. Gabapentin
5. C (Ephedra is a cardiac stimulants not
B. Ibuprofen
cardiotonic)
C. Paracetamol
6. C (Guaifenesin is not antitussive it is
D. Pethidine used as expectorant)
7. B (resorcinol with 3 methyl aniline is

the starting material for the synthesis of
10. Plasma insulin can be measured by
pentolamine)
A. Benedict reagent
8. D (flurbiprofen, diclofenac, ketorolac
B. Fehling reagent are the ocular NSAIDs)
C. Radioimmunoassay 9. A (gabapentin is used as

anticonvulsant and neuroleptic pain
D. All of the above
management)
10. (Radioimmunoassay is very sensitive

1. B (lithium carbonate is used in bipolar technique to measure concentration of
disorder it is a mood stabilizer used in antigen eg. hormone levels in the blood
mania) which is in vitro technique)
2. B
3. B (this is a drug designed using

Hofmann elimination based on
tubocurarine)
1. Synonym for Guar gum is
A. Jaguar gum

B. Acacia 4. The water soluble portion of

tragacanth is known as
C. Gum acacia
A. Tragacanthin
D. Gum Arabica
B. Bassorin
C. Galctouronic acid
2. When guar gum is treated with about
2% solution of lead acetate; it shows D. D-galctopyranose
A. Pink colour
B. Blue colour 5. Pectin is used in treatment of one of

the following ailment
C. Yellow colour
A. Ulcer
D. No colour change
B. Hypertension
C. Angina
3. Artificial invert sugar is an adulterant
for honey and it is detected by one of the D. Diarrhoea
following test
A. Tollen’s
1. A (guar gum is also known as Jaguar
B. Ninhydrine gum)
C. Baljet test 2. D (no colour changes its precipitate)
D. Fiehe’s test 3. D (it is a specific test to detect invert

sugar)
4. A (water soluble portion tragacanthin

80% water insoluble portion, Bassorine )

5. D (pectin is used as demulcent A. Binder

mucooprotective and against the
B. Disintigrant
diarrhoea)
C. Emulsifying agent
D. Preservative
1. When Isapgol is treated with

rhuthenium red, it shows colour
A. Blue 4. What is size range of rice starch?
B. Yellow A. 2-12 micron
C. Pink B. 14-17 micron
D. Green C. 17-20 micron
D. 20-25 micron
2. One of the following is adulterant for

Isapgol seeds
5. What is the size range of wheat starch
A. Plantago purshii
A. 0.1 to 1 micron
B. Plantago lanciolata
B. 2 to 3 micron
C. Plantago aristala
C. 3 to 5 micron
D. Plantago pysllium
D. 5 to 50 micron
3. One of the following is a

pharmaceutical use of agar

1. C (isabgol mucilage gives pink colour D. Antimalarial

with ruthenium red)
2. B
3. Chloroquine belong to the class of
3. C (it is used as spending emulsifying
A. 9-aminoquinoline
agent used in suppository also used as
bulk laxative) B. 8-aminoquinoline
4. A (2-12 micron) C. 4- aminoquinoline
5. D (5-60 micron) D. 4- aminoquinoline

SACHIN JADHAV
1. Which of the following ring is
present is Albendazole
4. 2, 4-diamino-5-(3, 4, 5-trimethoxy
A. Benzthiazole
phenyl) methyl pyrimidine is chemical
B. Benzimidazole name of
C. Oxazole A. Pyremethamine
D. Isooxazole B. Trimethoprim
C. Triamterene
2. Mepacrine is an acridine derivative D. Squelene
used as
A. Antiseptic
5. Ons of following NRTI has iupac
B. Antimalarial name 2’,3'-didehydro-

2',3'dideoxythymidine
C. Antiprotozoal

A. Zalcitabine 1. According to I.P what iswaight

variation limit for tablet more than 250
B. Didanosine
mg
C. Stavudine
A. ±10 %
D. Zidovudine
B. ±5 %
C. ±7.5%
1. B (Albendazole is a benzimidazole
D. ± 15%
derivative it is used as anthelmintics in
tapeworm infection and used in
treatment of filariasis available As 400
2. Hetrocyclic ring present in Pilocarpine
mg Tablet for 200 mg per ml
is
suspension)
A. Imidazole and Quinoline
2. D (it is used as antimalarial the drug
we are synthesized during II World War B. Imidazole and thiazole
)
B. Quinoline and Phenanthrene
3. C (4 aminoquinoline eg. Chloroquine
D. Imidazole and dihydrofuran
amodiaquine, 8 aminoquinoline eg.
primaquine, 4- quinoline methanol eg.
Mefloquine)
3. Both phentolamine and prazosin are
4. B (Tri methoxy phenyl pyrimidine is
A. Are competitive antagonists at α1-
Trimethoprim)
adrenergic receptor
5. C (Dideoxynucleoside analogue
B. Have potent direct vasodilator actions
which enables reverse transcriptase and
on vascular smooth muscle
has invitro activity against HIV)
C. Enhance gastric acid secretion
through a histamine-like effect

D. Cause hypotension and bradycardia 2. D (imadazole and dihydrofuran ring

attached to each other by methyl in
Bridge)
3. A (pentolamine and prazocin are

Alpha blockers)
4. Which of the following topical 4. B (naphazoline xylometazoline

decongestant agents is an α 1 selective oxymetazoline are used as topical
agonist decongestant in nasal congestion)
A. Phenylephrine 5. C (Lower temperature are prepared,

higher temperature cause larger collision
B. Xylometazoline
deactivation)
C. Ephedrine
D. Epinephrine
1. Particle size produced by Spray
drying & congealing, a
microencapsulation processess are in a
5. Effect of temperature on
range of
luminescence, choose the correct option
A. 1-5000 μm
A. Increase in luminescence
B. 35-5000 μm
B. No any effect
C. 600-5000 μm .
C. Decrease in luminescence
D. 5-600 μm
D. Removes the fluorescence
2. Identify reversible cholinesterase

1. B (as per IP 80 mg or less 10%, more
inhibitor indicated in the treatment of
than 80 to 250 7.5%, more than 250 mg
Alzheimer’s disease.
5% is the weight variation limit)

A. Tacrine
B. Edrophonium 5. What should be the air velocity of

laminar air flow?
C. Neostigmine
A. 1000± 20 ft/min
D. Pyridostigmine
B. 100 ± 20 ft/sec
C. 1000± 20 ft/sec
3. What is the limit for Residue on
Evaporation ofSterile Water for D. 100 ± 20 ft/min
Injection, IP.
A. Higher then Water for Injection IP

1. D (Air suspension 35-5000,
B. Lower then Water for Injection, IP conservative phase separation 5-5000,
Pan coating 600-500, Spray drying &
C. Same as that of the Water for
spray congeling 1-600 micron)
Injection, IP
2. A ( to treat mild to moderate dementia
D. No such standard is prescribed in the
in Alzheimer's)
monograph
3. A (more than WFI Because leaching
of solids from glass during sterilization)
4. Which of the following vitamin
4. A (Pyridoxine or B6 enhaces
enhances extracerebral metabolism of
extracerebral metabolism of levodopa)
levodopa which is undesired?
5. D
A. Pyridoxine
B. Thiamine
C. Tocopherol
1. Steroids are biosynthesized from
D. Riboflavin

A. Malonyl Co-A
B. Mevalonic acid 4. One of the following equations is

related with stability studies
C. Shikmic acid
A. Stokes equation
D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle
B. Arrhenius equation
C. Young equation
2. A new drug delivery system
composed of phospholipids which D. Michaelis Menton equation
appears as vesicles is.
A. Prodrugs
5. One of the following local anesthetic
B. Liposomes is a derivative of acetanilide& toluidine
respectively
C. Osmotic pumps
A. Tetracaine, Prilocaine
D. Nanoparticles
B. Lidocaine, Prilocaine
C. Cocaine, Procaine
3. Identify common structural features
for propranolol, atenolol, pindolol, D. Prilocaine, Lidocaine
metoprolol in the side chain
A. Dimethyl amino propan-2-ol

1. B (from squaline, Mavalonic acid
B. Dibutyl amino propan-2-ol pathway)
C. Isopropyl amino propan-2-ol 2. B (Liposomes are Microscopic

vessicles enclosed hyrophilic drug
D. Diethyl amino propan-2-ol
formed by phospholipids)

3. C (Isopropyl amino propan-2-ol is 3. The reagent added to a solution

common side chain is different) containing the analyte and whose
volume is the signal is called
4. B (it explains the effect of the
temperature on rate on reaction) A. Titrant
5. B (lidocaine =xylidine derivative, B. Titrand

prilocaine =toludine derivative)
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
1. One of the following is basis of

measurement in Polarographic technique
4. One of the following law, is followed
A. Potential difference
by Ideal solutions
B. Resistance
A. Raoult's law
C. Temperature change
B. Dalton's law
D. Conductivity
C. Both A and B

2. Half- wave potential is a chacterstic of
A. Potential applied
5. One of the following has maximum
B. Concentration dependent boiling point
C. Nature of material A. H2O
D. All of these B. H2S
C. H2Se

D. H2Te 2. Cone cells are found in
A. Eye
1. A (time against the potential B. Kidney

difference is plotted in polarography)
C. Lungs
2. C (half wave potential is independent
D. Liver
on concentration and it is a function of
nature of substance)
3. A (solution in burret is titrant, solution 3. One of the following is a generic

in flask is titer or analyte the process is drug?
known as titration)
A. Crocin
4. A (the solution that follows Roult's
B. Lipitor
law is known as ideal solution)
C. Busulphan
5. A (boiling point of water is 100°C
other options has below -20°C) D. Disprin
1. SPF means sun protection factor, SPF

30 will block
4. The term ICH stands for
A. 15% UV B
A. International Council of
B. 30% UV B Harmonization
C. 62% UV B B. International Conference on

Harmonization
D. 97% UV B

C. International Committee of 5. D (melanin pigment is responsible for

Harmonization colour of skin)
D. Indian Council of Harmonization
5. Human skin colour is because of 1. N1 group of fluoroquinolone is

responsible for
A. Renin
A. Potency
B. Serotonin
B. Pharmacophore
C. Calcitonin
C. Cell wall penetration
D. Melanin
D. Spectrum of activity
1. D (Sun protecting factors and their

blocking % UV B rays, SPF 2 50% SPF 2. The vitamin thiamine is having ... In
14 93 SPF 30 97% SPF 50 98% SPF 100 the structure
99%)
A. Pyrole & thiazole
2. A (rod cells responsible for night
B. Pyrole & pyrimidine
vision or dim light and cone cells are
responsible for bright light found in C. Pyrimidine & thiazole
eyes)
D. Pyrazole & pyrole
3. C (Busulphan is a generic name
Where are others are brand names)
3. Duboisia contains one of the
4. B (international conference on
following
harmonization)
A. Quinoline alkaloid

B. Steroidal Alkaloid along with pharmacokinetics properties

FQs)
C. Tropane Alkaloid
2. C (Pyrimidine ring attached with
D. Indol Alkaloid
thiazole)
3. C (along with belladonna hyocyamus,

Duboisia contains tropane alkaloid)
SACHIN JADHAV
4. B (Rockwell & Viker are the surface
hardness tester)
4. Surface hardness of tablet is tested by
5. D (eudragit l is enteric coating
one of the following
polymer)
A. Strong cob teste
B. Viker tester
C. Monsanto hardness tester

1. Who is the pesent president of
D. None of the above Pharmacy Council of India?
A. C. K. Kokate
5. Identify enteric coating polymer B. B. Suresh
A. Hydroxy propyl cellulose C. Archana Mugdal
B. Ethyl cellulose D. V. K. Dixit
C. Bees wax
D. Eudragit L 2. Who is father of Indian Pharmacy?
A. S. D. Sharma
1. A (N1 sunstitution it controls the B. Harkishan Singh

overall potensi add microbial property
C. M. L. Shroff B. 0.6 ml
D. N. K. Jain C. 0.06 ml
D. 0.0006 ml
3. Sweetening agent used in sugar free

pellets
1. B (B Suresh is the present president of
A. Fructose Pharmacy Council of India)
B. Maltose 2. C (father of Indian pharmacy is M L

Shroff 1902-1971)
C. Xylitol
3. C
D. Aspartame
4. B (Indian pharmacopeia edition and
year 1- 1955, 2-1966, 3-1985, 4-1996, 5-
2007)
5. C (0.06 ml= 1 drop)
4. The IP 2007 is ...........th edition
A. 4
B. 5 SACHIN JADHAV
C. 6
1. Mr. Amitabh Bachchan is suffering
D. 7 from one of the following disease
A. Parkinsons Disease
5. 1 drop is equal to the.... B. Myasthenia gravis
A. 0.006 ml C. Addisons Disease
D. Hemophilia
B. H1N2
2. 1 nanometre is equal to C. Herpes Simplex
A. 10-9 cm D. B1
B. 10-7cm
C. 10-7 m 5. Vitamin H is also known as
D. 10-10 mm A. Tocopherol
B. Biotin
3. Pharmaceuticals are under ....in India C. Nicotine
A. Ministry of Health and Family D. Riboflavin

Welfare
B. Ministry of Human Resource

1. B (suffering from myasthenia gravis, a
Development
neuromuscular disease he was diagnosed
C. Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers with in 1984. It's characterised by
weakness and rapid fatigue of any of the
D. Ministry of Media and Mass
muscles under your voluntary control. )
Communication
2. A (10-9m ten raised to minus 9)
3. A
4. A ( influenza A virus H1N1 swine is

host tansfer to human fever coughing
4. One of the following is Swine flu lethargy running nose sorry throat
virus diarrhea are symptoms)
A. H1N1 5. B (Biotin is also known as vitamin H)

D. Schedule T
1. A second end point is the Volhard

method in which Ag+ is titrated with
SCN– in the presence of
4. Cortisone is
A. Cu
A. 4-Pregnane-12 α, 21 diol- 3, 20-
B. Fe
dione
C. Zn
B. 4-Pregnane-17 α, 21 diol- 3, 11, 20-
D. Ag trione
C. 4-Pregnane-16 α, 21 diol- 3, 11, 20-

trione
2. The temperature for storage of small
pox vaccine is D. 4-Pregnane-17 α, 21 diol- 3, 11, –
dione
A. 20 to 80 C
B. 0 to 20 C
5. Ross Miles Tester is used for
C. 100 to 150C
measuring
D. 150 to 200C
A. Foam hight and stability
B. Surface tension
3. List of drugs which can be marketed
C. Wetting
under generic names only is given in
Schedule D. None of the above
A. Schedule X
B. Schedule W 1. B (Raddish color complex of FeSCN

is second end point)
C. Schedule U

2. B (2-8 degree for vaccine and 10-20 D. None of the above

for diluent)
3. B (drugs which can be marketed under

3. Identify invert sugar from given
generic names only Eg Analgin, Aspirin
options
&it's salts, chlorpromazine , piperazine
ferrous sulphate only) A. Glucose
4. B (4-Pregnane-17 α, 21 diol- 3, 11, B. Sucrose

20- trione is cortisone)
C. Starch
5. A (used for cosmetic like sampoo for
D. Glycogen
foaming ability & stability)
4. Standards for cosmetics are given in

1. Indicator Methyl red has pH range
A. Schedule S
A. 1.8-2.8
B. Schedule M1
B. 3.1-4.4
C. Schedule Q
C. 4.2-6.3
D. Schedule D
D. 8.0-9.6
5. What is the role of Diethylcarbitolin

2. One of the following is synonym of
formulation of shampoo?
Ginseng
A. Opacifying agents
A. Ginger
B. Clarifying agent
B. Polygala
C. Sequestering agents
C. Panax
D. Conditioning agents


Father of Medicine
1. C( methyl red colour changes from
Erode to read in pH range 4.2 -6.2 A. Galen
phenolphthalein colour changes from
B. Hippocrates
colourless to pink 8.2 -10)
C. Dioscoride
2. C (Panax, Panag are the synonyms,
Dried roots of panax ginseng belonging D. Shushrutha
to family Araliaceae)
3. B (sucrose is invert sugar invert sugar

3. Adhesion test for coated tablets is
remains in liquid form in solution does
performed by
not crystallize, used in syrup, Jelly
preparation) A. Hardness tester
4. A (standards of cosmetic is given B. Tensile strength tester

schedule S)
C. A and B
5. B (clarification agent)
D. None of these
1. Starch paste used as binder in

4. D-tubocurarine is ......blockar of NM
concentration of
receptors
A. 2-4%
A. Non-specific inhibition s6*
B. 0.1-1.0%
B. Cometative inhibition
C. 10-20%
C. Non-specific inhibition
D. 50%

5. Which statement is true regarding D- 1. One of the following will exhibit

Lyxose - geometrical isomerism
A. A constituent of a lyxoflavin isolated A. 2-butene

from human heart muscle.
B. 2-butyne
B. A constituent of a Isolyxoflavin
C. 2-butanol
isolated from human heart muscle.
C. A constituent of a lyxoflavin isolated
from human lever muscle.
D. A constituent of a Isolyxoflavin 2. One of the following is a primary

isolated from lever muscle. alcohol
A. Pyridoxal
1. C (10 -20% as a aqueous paste) B. Pyridoxine
2. B (Hippocrates is known as father of D. Pyridoxamine

medicine)
D. All of them
3. B (adhesion test for tablet is done by
tensile strength tester)
3. Irreversible deformation after
4. B (curaare alkaloids are competitive
comminution is a behavior called
blockers)
A. Plastic deformation
5. A (D lyxose is a constituent of
lyxoflavin isolated from human heart, D B. Elastic deformation
xylose the constituent of glycoproteins)
C. Psudoplastic deformation
D. All of the above

4. May apple is synonym one of the 4. D (Mayapple is a synonym of

following crude drug podophyllum which consists of dried
root & riahzomes of podophyllum
A. Ergot
hexandrum belonging to family
B. Cinchona berbediaceae)
C. Papaver 5. C (washerman test is for diagnosis of

syphilis based on complement fixation)
D. Podophyllum
1. Identify plasticizer used in tablet

5. Wasermann test is used for diagnosis
coating is
of ... Communicable disease.
A. Span 80
A. Rabbies
B. PEG 400
B. Typhoid
C. Tween 80
C. Syphillis
D. All of these
D. Smallpox
2. Read the statements about amobarbital

1. A (different arrangement of hydrogen
and select the correct option
is possible that is cis and trans isomers
can be obtained in case of 2 butene) (P) It inhibits NAD linked
dehydrogenases by blocking the transfer
2. B (pyridoxine content primary alcohol
from FeS to Q.
in the structure, whereas pyridoxol is
aldehydepyridoxamine consist of (Q) It inhibits the respiratory chain
primary amine in the structure) between cytochrome b and cytochrome
c.
3. A

A. P is correct and Q is incorrect C. Methyl [(2-propylsulfanyl-3H-

benzoimidazol-2-yl) amino] formate.
B. P is incorrect and Q is correct D. Methyl [(5-ethylsulfanyl-3H-

benzoimidazol-2-yl) amino] formate
C. Both P and Q are correct
D. Both P and Q are incorrect
3. In case of solvent selection in 5. For NMR Spectroscopy analysis

chromatographyselect appropriate sample should be
statement.
A. Solid
A. It should be non-polar
B. Liquid
B. Mixture of inorganic solvents rather
C. Gas
than water.
D. All of above
C. Use of more than two organic
solvents gives better results
D. All of the above 1. D (all of these are plastisizers used in

tablet coating)
2. A
4. Find out the IUPAC name of
Albendazole 3. A (starting form nonpolar towards the
polar solvent mixture can be used for
A. Methyl [(5-propylsulfanyl-3H-
better separation)
4. A (Methyl [(5-propylsulfanyl-3H-
B. Methyl [(4-propylsulfanyl-3H-
benzoimidazol-2-yl) amino]formate or
carbamate is the iPad name of

Albendazole which is anthelmintics A. Sucrose

blocks the glucose uptake of parasite and
B. Dextrose
causes immobilization of parasite)
C. Maltose
5. B (sample required to dissolve in
deuterium or in appropriate solvent D. Cellobiose
sample and holder is tube or cup for
NMR analysis)
4. Which one of the following is most
effective in ashtma?
1. H.L.B value of gelatin is
A. α receptor stimulant
A. 2.1
B. β1 receptor stimulant
B. 9.8
C. β2 receptor stimulant
C. 16.7
D. α and β2 receptor stimulant
D. 40.1
2. What is mechanism of action

5. The drug used to treat hypertension
Minoxidil?
during pregnancy is
A. Blocks calcium channels
A. Clonidine
B. Block neuronal sodium channels
B. Diazoxide
C. Vasodilatation by opening potassium
C. Hydralazine
channels
D. Minoxidil
D. Depletes the catecholamine stores in
neurons
1. B
3. Cellulose is polymer of 2. C

3. D 1. Which is not a zone of sarcomere in

skeletal muscle?
4. C
A. A- band
5. C
B. I- band
C. H- band
1. B (Gelatin has HLB value of 9.8)
D. C- band
2. C (minoxidil is Potassium channel
openers it is prodrug is converted into
minoxidil -O-sulphate which opens the
2. Emetine + molybdic acid + H2SO4
potassium channel used as
colour will change to
antihypertensive and treatment of
alopecia) A. Red
3. D (beta d glucopyranose is a repeating B. Green

unit known as Cellobiose is a unit of the
C. Yellow
cellulose structure)
D. Blue
4. C (stimulation of Beta 2 receptors
present in the bronchi gorgeous dilation
of bronchial muscle agent like
3. What is disintegration time for
salbutamol terbutaline are used)
Lozenges
5. C (hydralazine a vasodilator is used in
A. Within 30 min
hypertension in pregnancy)
B. Within 2 min
C. Not intended to disintegrate but to

Under common creative copyright @ dissolve slowly
SACHIN JADHAV

3. C (Lozenges are not intended for

disintegration they must be solely)
4. Dental cones are used to
4. A (dental cones are designed to fit
A. Prevent bacterial growth in empty
loosely in socket remined after tooth
socket left after removal of teeth
extraction to prevent bacterial growth)
B. Prepare solution
5. B (dipole dipole interaction are also
C. Produce effervescence known as Debey interaction)
1. One of the following is it test for

identification of Peroxidase enzyme of
5. Dipole- induced dipole interaction is
gum Acacia
also known as
A. Borntragers test
A. Keesom forces
B. Molisch's test
B. Debye interaction
C. Oxidation and extraction in benzene
C. London forces
D. Oxidation and treatment with
D. Electrostatic forces
benzidine
1. D (I band A band H zone please

2. Laminaria and Kelp are the main
present in skeletal muscle sarcomere c
genera, currently used for the industrial
band not)
production of
2. B (emetine + Frohde's reagent
A. Carrageenans
(H2SO4+sodium molybdate) a bright
green colour is obtained is a B. Agar
identification test)
C. Fucans

D. Alginic acid and alginates
1. D(solution of acacia is treated with

benzidine in alcohol together with a few
3. Agar contain.....
drops of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), it
A. Agarose gives rise to a distinct blue colour due to
the presence of oxidases enzyme.)
B. Agaropectin
2. D (obtained from the algal growth of
C. Amylose and Amylopectin
the species of family Phaeophyceae. The
D. Agarose and Agaropectin common species are Macrocystis
pyrifera, Laminaria hyperborea,
Laminaria digitata, Ascophyllum
4. Dextran gels used in gelfiltration are nodosum and , Durvillaea lessonia. )
formed by cross linking
3. D (Agar is a complex
A. Dextran with chloral hydrate heterosaccharide and contains two
different polysaccharides known as
B. Dextrose with chloral hydrate
agarose and agaropectin. Agarose is
C. Dextrose phosphate with chloral neutral galactose polymer and is
hydrate responsible for the gel property of agar)
D. Dextran with α-epichlorohydrin 4. D (dextran is linier polymer of alpha

1-6 link gel formed bcz of OH group of
5. Calcium salt of acidic polysaccharides
epichorhydrine)
is present in
5. A
A. Agar
B. Guargum
1. The water soluble fraction (85%) of
C.Tragacanth
Cyamopsis tetragonolobus is
D. Isapgol
A.Tragacanthin

B. Bassorin B. D galactose and L-arabinose and D-

xylose
C. Agarose
C. D mannuronic acid and L-guluronic
D. Guaran
acid
D. D galactose and D-mannose

2. CO2 gas is evolved on treatment
5. The PH of rice starch solution is
sodium bicarbonate with
A. Slightly acidic
A. Agar
B. Neutral
B. Alginate
C. Slightly alkaline
C. Pectin
D. Highly alkaline
D. Isapgol
1. D (The water-soluble part of guar gum

3. Chief carbohydrate from Macrocystis
contains mainly of a high molecular
pyrifera is
weight hydrocolloidal polysaccharide,
A. Pectin that is, galactomannan, which is
commonly known as guaran)
B. Mucilage
2. B (bcz reaction with algenic acid)
C. Algin & Alginic acid
3. C (Alginate obtained from the algal
D. Chitin
growth of the species of family
Phaeophyceae. The common species are
Macrocystis pyrifera, Laminaria
4. Alginic acid is composed of
hyperborea, Laminaria digitata,
A. D galacturonic acid and D-glucuronic Ascophyllum nodosum and Durvillaea
acid lessonia. )

4. C (alginic acid, a linear polymer of L- A. Alginin

guluronic acid and D-mannuronic acid;
B. Agar
the chain length is long and varies (mol.
wt. from 35,000 to 1.5 × 10–6) C. Pectin
5. C D. Sterculia gum
1. Numerous fine cracks are present on 4. Cymopsis tetragonolobus is the source

the outer surface of one of the following of
A. Acacia gum A.Tragacanth
B. Guar gum B. Agar
C.Tragacanth C. Guar gum
D. Sterculia gum D. Psyllium
2. The surface marked with concentric

ridges and longitudinal striations
5. One of the following has antidiabetic
indicates the presence of
activity
A. Agar
A. Gum tragant
B. Karaya gum
B. Guar gam
C. Guar gum
C. Gum acacia
D. Tragacanth
D. All of the above
3. A distinct odour of acetic acid is

1. A (dried gummy from Acacia arabica
present in the
family leguminosae tears invariably

opaque presence of crack and fishers

with brittle fracture)
2. Ruthenium red gives pink or red
2. D (dry gum from astragalus colour with whichone of the following
Gummifer belonging to family
A. starch
leguminoceae gum appears as horny
transverse translucent longitudinal ridges B. Gum acacia
and short fracture)
C. Guar gum
3. D (because of presence of large
D. Plantago
number of Acetyl group)
4. C (Cyamopsis tetragonolobus Linn

belonging to family Leguminosae. Is a 3. Mucilage of plantago ovata
biological source of gauar gum?)
A. Acidic polysaccharides
5. B (Guar reduces postprandial glucose
B. Basic polysaccharides
and insulin levels in both healthy and
diabetic subjects and may be a useful C. Hydrocolloidal polysaccharides
adjunct in the treatment of noninsulin-
D. Hetropolysaccharide
dependent diabetes)
4. Identify the drugwhich is irritant

1. Hydrocolloidal polysaccharides are
purgative
present in
A. Isapgol
A. Guar gum
B. Castor oil
B. Isapgol
C. Phenolphthalein
C. India tragacanth
D. calomel
D. Pectin

5. One of the following predominantly 1. Product obtained from starch on

contain mucilage treatment with amylase from Bacillus
macerans. It is
A. Isapghol
A. Amylopectin
B. Cascara
B. Amylose
C. Liquorice
C. Cellulose
D. Ajwon
D. Cyclodextrin
1. C
2. D (Ispaghula seeds when treated with

ruthenium red give red colour due to the 2. Surgical cottons consist ........of seeds
presence of mucilage) of Gossypium species.
3. D (heteropolysaccharides, chemically A. Exudation

it is pentosan and aldobionic acid.
B. Juice
Pentosan on hydroly-sis yields xylose
and arabinose and aldobionic acid yields C. Rhizomes
galactouronic acid and rhamnose)
D. Trichomes
4. B (castor oil is irritant laxative)
5. A (Ispaghula consists of dried seeds of

3. One of the following is a source of
Plantago ovata Forskal, belonging to
Absorbent cotton wool
family Plantaginaece. seeds contain
about 10% mucilage which is present in A. Gossypium species
the epidermis of testa)
B. Linum species
C. Carvnabis species

D. Ricirvus species 2. D (trichomes of gossypium

herbaceum belonging to family
malvaceae)
4. If Agarose is a natural gelling fraction
3. A (as like in question number 2)
of agar, then agaropectin is
4. C (agarose is responsible for gel
A. Chemically 3, 6- anhydrogalactose
strength where is agarbatti is responsible
B. Sulphated analog of galactose for viscosity and it is sulfated non
gelling function of agar)
C. Sulphated non-gelling fraction of agar
5. D (gums and mucilages contains
D. Not responsible for agar's colour
carbohydrates)
1. Biological source of turmeric is
A. Roots and rhizomes of Zinger

5. One of the following is a test for officinales
Gums and mucilages
B. Roots and rhizomes of Curcuma
A. Hager's test longa
B. Biuret test C. Dried fruits of Capsicum annum
C. Millons test D. Roots and rhizome of Tinospora

codifolia
D. Molisch's test
1. A Under common creative copyright @

SACHIN JADHAV

2. One of the following is present in A. Water

microscopic characters of Ginger
B. Glycerol
rhizome
C. Alcohol
A. Spindle shaped lignified fibers and
sclereides D. 2% Potassium hydroxide
B. Cluster crystal of calcium oxalate and

sclereides
5. Decomposition product of gingerol on
C. Non-lignified vessels and sac shaped boiling with 2% KOH is
starch grains
A. Zingiberone
D. Non-lignified fibers and sclereids
B. Shogaol
C. Gingediol
3. The microscopic characteristic of
D. Gingediol acetate
ginger rhizome are
A. Arc shaped fibres

1. B (drive rhizomes of curcuma longa
B. Calcium oxalate crystals and sclereids
belonging to family gingiberaceae it
are absent
consists of curcuminoids and
C. Non-lignified vessels and sac shaped sesquiterpines)
starch grains
2. C
D. All of the above
3. D (all of the allow are microscopic
character of Ginger)
4. The pungency of gingerol can be 4. D (pungency of Gingerol is destroyed

destroyed by boiling with one of the by 2% KOH, Shogaol is a component of
following oil but it is not present in rhizome it is
formed by dehydration of gingerol)

5. A (already explained in question 4)
4. Sarsapogenin is a aglycone part ofone

1. One of the following consists of of the following
Triterpenoids as active constituents
A. Shatavari
A. Jaborndi
B. Brahmi
B. Rhubarb
C. Centella asiatica
C. Stramonium
D. Solanum Khasianum
D. Brahmi
5. One of the followings is a source of

2. Identify the drug whose biological saponin glycosides
source is Boerhavia difusa
A. Dried leaves of Nerium oleande
A. Chirata
B. Dried roots of Asparagus racemosus
B. Fenugreek
C. Dried Bark of Rhamnus purshiana
C. Shankpushpi
D. Roots of Picorrhyza kuro
D. Punarnava
1. D (free steam and leves of bacopa
monnieri family scrophulariaceae
contain buscoside A & B which on
3. Arjuna is used as........
hydrolysis gives triterpenoids, used as
A. Cardiotonic brain tonic)
B. Purgative 2. D (roots and leaves of Boerhavia

difusa family nyctaginaceae consists of
C. Uterine
punernavosides, used as diuretic and anti
D. Oxytocic inflammatory)

3. A (dried bark of terminalia Arjuna C. Antiprotozoal

belonging to family combretaceae. it is
D. Antimalarial
used as cardiotonic antihyperlipidemic
and diabetic)
4. A (it causes of dried roots of 3. Holotoxin ABC and Thelpine are

asparagus racemosus family liliaceae, marine drugs, classified as
consist of serasapogenin used as
A. Cardiovascular active compounds
reproductive tonic and immuno booster)
B. Antimicrobial compounds
5. B (as discussed in question number 4
and also glycerrhiza contains saponin C. Marine toxin
glycosides)
D. Anti inflammatorory compound
1. One of the following structures is

4. Chemically Kaolinis a
present in Artemisinin
A. Hydrated magnesium silicate
A. An endoperoxide
B. Hydrated aluminium silicate
B. An exo period
C. Hydrated calcium silicate
C. An exoxide
D. Hydrated magnesium sulphate
D. An acid hydrazide
5. Aluminium magnesium silicate (none-

2. Lamnine, α-kainic acid and Domoic
plastic) is
acid are three important marine drugs,
used as A. Asbestos
A. Insectisides B. Fuller’s earth
B. Antiparacytic C. Diatomaceous-earth

D. Bentonite 2. A drug candidates suitable for TDDS

must have
A. Non-ionic
B. Low mol. weight <500 DA

1. A (Artemisin contain endoperoxide in
the structure it is used in treatment of C. Adequate solubility in oil and water
Malaria) (Log P: 1-3)
2. B D. All of the above
3. B
4. B (hydrated alluminium silicate is a

Kaolin Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O2 is the SACHIN JADHAV
chemical formula)
5. B (hydrated magnesium silicates 3. Identify potassium sparing Diuretic
Fuller's Earth) from the options
A. Furosemide
1. Suspension follows which order of B. Eplerenone
reaction
C. Ethacrynic acid
A. First order
D. Hydrochlorthiazide
B. Pseudo first order
C. Pseudo zero order

4. Information about electronegativity
D. Zero order can be obtained from
A. IR spectroscopy
B. NMR spectroscopy

C. Mass spectroscopy 3. B (Triametrine, Amiloride,

Spironolactone & Eplerenone {these two
D. All of the above
are the aldosterone antagonist}., are the
examples of potassium sparing diuretics)
5. One of the following is used in Phase- 4. B (as the electronegativity of atom

I Clinical trials attached to carbon atom increases
chemical shift also increases)
A. Healthy Animals
5. B (Healthy volunters uniformity of
B. Healthy Human beings
subjects age sex and informed consent
C. Both A & B must be there)
1. One of the following is present in

tomato
SACHIN JADHAV A. Carotene
B. Lycopene
1. C ( suspension is a case of zero order
kinetics in which the concentration of C. Betaine
solution depends on the solubility of D. Curcumine

drug as the drug decompose more drug
is released from suspended particles so
that concentration will remain constant) 2. Drug retail sale licenses are issued by
2. D (drugs should have love molecular A. Drug controller of India

weight low partition coefficient non
B. Union health minister
ionic for the formulation of transdermal
drug delivery system) C. Drug controller authority of the state
D. Director of Health services

1. B (lycopene a colour pigment is

present in tomato which is anticancer
3. Which current is blocked in
,and good for skin and heart)
polarography?
2. C (food and drug administration of
A. Residual
state issue the retail sale licence of the
B. Migration drug)
C. Diffusion 3. B (the current produced by static

attraction of electrode too sought for
ions he is known as migration current,
reschedul current t is a indicator)
4. Supercritical Fluid exhibit properties 4. B (physical and thermal properties of

intermediate between supercritical fluids are in between pure
gases and liquid therefore they are also
A. Gas & Solid
called as compressible liquid or dense
B. Gas & Liquid gas)
C. Solid & Liquid 5. A (predominantly branched trichomes

are present in withania somnifera)
D. All of the above
1. Starting material for Isoniazide

5. Trichomes is present in Ashwagandha
synthesis is
are
A. α-picoline
A. Branched
B. β-picoline
B. Lignified
C. γ-picoline
C. Glandular
D. Pyrimidine
D. None other these

C. Enantiomer
2. One of the following beta blocker D. None

with CCB
A. Atenolol
5. What do you mean by RP-HPLC
B. Pindolol
A. Less polar mobile phase than
C. Metoprolol stationary phase
D. Betaxolol B. Less polar stationary phase than

mobile phase
C. Reverse osmosis
3. What is applied amongst the options
in Iontophoresis to enhance transdermal D. Forward osmosis
permeation of drug?
A. High voltage current
B. Low voltage current (less than, 0.5

1. C (isoniazid can be synthesized using
mA/cm2
Gama picoline, pyridine,
C. Ultrasound with a frequency above 20 4methylpyridine, nicontic acid,
KHz isonicotinic acid, 4cynopyridine)
D. Magnetic field 2. D (Betaxolol is actually Beta blocker

along with Calcium channel blocker
activity, beta blockers with nitric acid
4. Find out the correct isomeric term to production examples are
describe L-threose and L-erythrose celiprolol,nevibilol, nipridolol,
bopindolol)
A. Anomer
3. B (direct current is used between 1+5
B. Epimer
mA)

4. B (they are epimers of each other 3. Phosphorescence and fluorescence are

because the difference in arrangement of examples of
hydrogen and hydroxyl group on the
A. Emission spectroscopy
adjacent carbon atom home aldehyde)
B. Absorption spectroscopy
5. B (normal phase = polar stationary
phase, Reverse phase chromatography= C. Photoacoustcspectroscopy
nonpolar stationary phase)
D. All of the above
1. “Store in cool place” as per IP means

4. One of the following drug, can be
A. Store at room temp used in Wolff Parkinson White (WPW)
syndrome
B. Store between 2 to 8 °C
A. Lidocaine
C. Store at any temp between 8 to 25 °C
B. Propranolol
D. Store at 0 °C
C. Flecainide
D. All of these
2. A retardant material that forms a
hydrophilic matrix in the formulation of
matrix tablet is
5. Differential Scanning Calorimetry
A. HPMC (DSC) study is useful for
B. CAP A. Identification of Polymorphs
C. Polyethylene B. Drug-Excipient compatibility studies
D. Carnauba wax C. Characterization of polymers
D. All of the above

2. In case of long term treatment of

hypertension select the most useful class
1- C ( 2-8° cold, 8-15° cool, 15-30 room
from options
temp,40° warm)
A. Thiazide diuretics
2- A (hydroxypropyl methylcellulose
forms hydrophilic matrix) B. Mercurials diuretics
3- A (phosphorescence and fluorescence C. Osmotic diuretics

are type of emission spectroscopy)
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
4- C (abnormal atrial tissue band
connect atria and ventricles interfering
the normal conduction of electrical 3. Find out drug that not acting as
signals causing tachycardia, paroxysms agonist on opioid K (kappa) receptor
drug used are flecanamide, amiodarone,
A. Buprenorphine
etc)
B. Butorphanol
5- D (mainly used for characterization
of polymers, Tt,Tc measurement of the C. Nalbuphine
Pharmaceutical polymers)
D. Morphine
1. Ma-huang is synonym of one of the

4. Most of the drugs absorbed in the
following crude drug
body by process of
A. Belladonna
A. Active transport
B. Opium
B. Passive transport
C. Ephedra
C. Ion-Pair transport
D. Ipecacachuna
D. Facilitated diffusion

5. A (insulin stimulate the transport of

glucose across the cell membrane atp-
5. Insulin stimulates glucose transport by
dependent GULT4)
promoting the translocation of
A. GLUT 4
1. Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitor is
B. GLUT 2 & GLUT 4
A. Atorvastatin
C. GLUT 1 & GLUT 4
B. Ezetinibe
D. GLUT 2
C. Fenofibrate
D. Nicotinic acid
1. C (Ma Hung,,Yellow Hemp, are the

synonyms of ephedra a bad thing is a 2. Highest carbonyl stretching frequency
major alkaloid belonging to family is possessed by
phenylalkylamine)
A. RCOCl
2. A (for the long term treatment of
B. RCOR’
hypertension thiazide diuretics and
potassium sparing diuretics are used but C. RCOOR’
thiazide diuretics are mostly used)
D. RCONH2
3. A (it is antagonistic to kappa receptor
3. Deficiency of which of the following
actually bupronorphin and pentazocine
biochemical cause night blindness?
are partial agonist)
A. Calciferol
4. B (90% drugs are absorbed by
passive diffusion) B. Menadiol
C. Retinal

D. Tocoferol hmg-coa, nicotinic acid inhibits lipolysis

and TAG synthesis of TGA, fenofibrate
is lipoprotein lipase Activator)
4. Th ‘o’e conversion of an amino acid
2. A (acetyl chloride absorbs at 1800
to a sugar is known as
cm¹ where as carbonyl stitching of
A. Glucogenesis Easter bond 1730-1740 cm¹ )
B. Amination 3. C (night blindness is a deficiency of

vitamin A)
C. Glycogenesis
4. D (de novo synthesis of glucose from
D. Gluconeogenesis
proteins or amino acid or lipids is known
as gluconeogenesis)
5. One of the following is NNRT 5. B (nevirapine, efaverenz,

inhibitor delaveridine are the examples of non
nucleoside reverse transcriptase
A. Lopinavir
inhibitors)
B. Efavirenz
C. Zidovudine
1. Which antihistaminics is likely to
D. Acyclovir cause more sedation amongst options?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Loratadine
1. B ( Ezetinibe inhibit selectively the C. Cetrizine

absorption of cholesterol from intestine
D. Alimemazine
and decreases the delivery of intestinal
cholesterol to liver, atorvastatin inhibit
the synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme

2. The EMR/EPR is type of

......spectroscopy
5. Identify specific D2 Receptor
A. Absorption antagonist.
B. Emission A. Pimozide
C. Scattering B. Remoxipride
D. All of the above C. Sulpiride
D. All of the above
3. Purity of water of injection is checked

by one of the following
1. A (frist ganeration antihistamine
A. Potential testing cause more sadation diphenhydramine ,
chlorpheneramine etc second generation
B. Pyrogen testing
antihistamines has lower sedative action)
C. Conductivity testing
2. A (electrons are spined up by
D. pH testing absorption of electro magnetic
raddiation)
3. C (conductivity of water at specific

4. Identify wrong statementabout
temperature is measured less than 1.3
atropine
microsecond /cm at 25 degree Celsius)
A. Half-life of atropine is 4 hours
4. B (antagonism of atropine and
B. Acetylcholine and atropine show acetylcholine is reversible)
irreversible antagonism
5. D (all are the examples of dopamine-
C. Atropine is a CNS stimulant 2, receptor blocker)
D. Atropine produces cycloplegia

1. Anaferine and Anahygrine alkaloids 4. Momordica charantia having blood

areconstituents of one of the following sugar lowering activity due to
A. Hyoscyamus A. Momordicin
B. Ashwagandha B. Charantin
C. Vinca C. Momortin
D. Vasaka D. Charantiamarin
2. Active isomer of Doxepin is? 5. The drug which is bactericidal to all

three pools extracellular, intracellular
A. Z
and necrotic case of tubercle bacilli is
B. S
A. Isoniazid
C. R
B. Ethambutol
D. All of the above
C. Pyrizinamide
D. Rifampin
3. Diosgenine is. ..
A. Alkaloid obtained from dioscorea

1. B (they are part of withanolided
B. Carbohydrate from dioscorea family of alkaloid and obtained from
withania somnifera)
C. Glycoside obtained from dioscorea
2. A (it fit best in interaction with
receptor)

3. C (it is steroidal alkaloid obtained 3. The phosphate of a metal has the

from Diascoria deltoida) formula MHPO4. The formula of its
Bromide would be
4. B (Charantin is a primary constituent
responsible for sugar lowering effect, A. MBr
another bioactive compound is lectine it
B. MBr2
binds to the insulin 2 receptor and exerts
its 5 activity like insulin) C. MBr3
5. A (isoniazid is able to penetrate D. MBr4

phagocytic cell and thus is battery serial
for intracellular as well as extracellular
organism) 4. Silicone based adhesive used in
TDDS possess following properties
A. Chemical and biological inertness

1. Parenteral product must be...
B. Low toxicity
A. Packed in bottle
C. Low sensitization and irritation
B. Sterilized
D. All of the above
C. Free from viable microorganism
D. Pyrogenic
5. Schleuniger tester is related to ......the
tablets
2. Quinine present in highest amount in
A. Roughness
A. C. calisaya
B. Hardness
B. C. officinalis
C. Dissolution
C. C. ledgeriana
D. Friability
D. C. succirubra

B. Sulconazole
C. Tioconazole
1. B (should be sterile, pyrogen free, D. Miconazole

free from particulate matter)
2. C (cinchona ledrigena has highest

concentration of quinine)
3. The drug of choice in prolonged
3. B (valency of bromine is 2)
febrile convulsions is
4. D (All options are advantage of
A. Carbamazepine
silicone)
B. Diazepam
5. B (it is one type of hardness tester)
C. Phenytoin
D. Paracetamol
1. Creatinine clearance is used as a
measurement of
A. Passive renal absorption 4. In one of the following options

Geometrical isomerism is possible
B. Glomerular filtration rate
A. 2-Pentene
C. Renal excretion rate
B. Pentane
D. All of the above
C. Propene
D. Ethene
2. 1-[2-[(2-chloro thienly) methoxy]-2-
(2,4-dichlorophenyl)ethyl]-1Iimidazole
is IUPAC name of...
5. One of the following antihistaminic
A. Oxiconazole causes least sedation

A. Diphenhydramine 1. If Cyanocobalamine is imported under

the name of tetracycline, then it is
B. Loratadine
considered as
C. Chlorpheniramine
A. Adulterated drug
D. Alimemazine (trimeprazine)
B. Spurious drug
C. Misbranded drug
1. B (indictor of glomerular filtration
D. Substituted drug
rate)
2. C (2 chloro theinil is present in

ticonazole all other options contain 2 2. Ergot powder reacts with one of the
chloro phenyl) following to give blue colour.
3. B (phenytoin and carbamazepine are A. p-dimethyl amino benzaldehyde

ineffective in prophylaxis of February
B. o-dimethyl amino benzaldehyde
conversion, diazepam is the first choice
usually given by rectal route) C. Van urk reagent
4. A (it can be CiS or trans confirmation D. Both A& C

it is possible in 2 pentene to minimise
confusion you have to draw structures ok
all options)
5. B (loratadine is second ganration

antihistamine drug second generation
3. Neomycin is obtained from:
antihistamine drugs don't have sadation
as a side effect) A. E. coli
B. B. subtilis
C. S. aeruginosa

D. S. fradiae 2. D (p-dimethyl amino benzaldehyde in

15 H2So4 and tracess of ferric chloride
deep blue colour is obtained with ergot)
4. Biological & Biotechnological
3. D (neomycin is obtained from
products are listed in
streptomyces fradiae)
A. Schedule A
4. C
B. Schedule B
5. B (this polyacrylate polymer of
C. Schedule C& C1 acrylic acid)
D. Schedule X
1. A mixture of HCl & Acetic acid can

be satisfactorily titrated by
5. Carbopols are polyme of one of the
following option A. Potentiometry
A. Methacrylate ester B. Conductometry
B. Acrylic acid C. Amperometry
C. Ethylene glycol D. Spectrophotometry
D. Bis-phenol + phosgene
2. Whichenantiomer for Amlodipine is

active
A. S-isomer
1. B (if the drug is sold or offerd or
exhibited to sale under the name which B. D-isomer
belongs to another drug is known as
C. L-isomer
spurious drug)

3. What is approximate volume ml for

hard gelatin capsule of size 3
1. A
A. 0.1
2. A (S isomer of amlodipine is active
B. 0.2 Calcium channel blocker where as R
isomer of amlodipine is inactive
C. 0.3
Calcium channel blocker)
D. 0.75
3. C (capsule number 3 volume 0.30 ml
this is remembering trick)
4. The international name for small pox 4. C (Virola is synonym of international

vaccine is smallpox vaccine)
A. BCG 5. C (antioxidant obtained from citrus

fruit is hesperidine is also known as
B. DTP
vitamin p)
C. Variola
D. Vibrio
1. Pantothenic acid is a part of
A. Renin
5. Vitamin P is also known as
B. Carboxypeptidase
A. Silymarine
C. Coenzyme A
B. Ginkogetin
D. NAD
C. Hersperidin
D. Visnagin

2. Efficiency of HEPA filter can be 5. Full from of WIPO is

checked by
A. World Intellectual Property
A. Leak test Organization
B. DOP test B. World Intellectual Patent

Organization
C. Pyrogen test
C. World Intellectual Patent Office
D. LAL test
D. World Intellectual Property Office
3. β-cells are involved in
A. Humoral immunity
1. C (pantothenic acid is a essential part
B. Cell mediated immunity
of coenzyme A pantothenic acid donates
C. Active immunity fatty acid to protein in that way that can
determine their location & function of
D. Passive immunity
cell)
2. B (vaporized dioctyl phthalate {

4. Correct structure of Penicillin given DOP} or polyalphaolefine { PAO} used
by to check integrity and efficiency of hepa
filters it is non destructive, called DOP
A. Fleming
test)
B. Ronald hare
3. A (Beta cells are involved in humoral
C. Robert Robinson immunity whereas T Lymphocytes are
involved in cell mediated immunity)
D. Marc
4. C

5. A (World Intellectual Property C. 1, 2 and 4

organisation)
D. None
1. Chotta chand is synonym of

4. To check the stray light in UV, which
A. Rauwolfia serpentine solution is used?
B. Rauwolfia densiflora A. 1.2%KCl
C. Rauwolfia perakensis B. 1.2%NaCl
D. Rauwolfia tetraphylla C. 1.2%KBr
D. 1.2%NaBr
2. Serological reactions are useful for
A. Detection of antigens 5. A disease called “Stripe canker” is

connected with
B. Detection of antibodies
A. Nuxvomica
C. Both A & B
B. Rauwolfia
D. None of them
C. Ashwagandha
D. Cinchona
3. Ergotoxine group of alkaloid are
mixture of
(1) Ergocristine (2) Ergocornine 1. A (Rauwolfia serpentina is also

known as Chota Chand)
(3) Ergocryptine (4) Ergometrine
2. C (both antibody and antigen can be
A. 1, 2 and 3
detected there are two types of methods
B. 2, 3 and 4

detection of antibody and detection of 2. Papaverine is a

antigen)
A. Expectorant
3. A (what are the lights are classified
B. Smooth muscle relaxant
into three types of groups ergotamine
group, ergoxin group, ergotoxine group C. Antitussive
which consists of ergocriptine,
D. All of these
ergoconin, ergocriptine etc)
3. .....stereoisomer of the Omeprazole is
4. A (1.2% solution of potassium
more potent
chloride is used to measure limit of stray
light absorbance is measured at A. R-isomer
wavelength starting from 198 up to 202
B. S-isomer
by increment of one nanometre the
observed absorbance should be greater C. d-isomer
thann 2)
D. l-isomer
5. D (it is a pest disease on cinchona
plant)
4. ....Drug is given to L-DOPA resistant
patient
1. Indicator is used in complexometric
A. Amantidine
titration
B. Bromocriptine
A. Crystal violet
C. Both A & B
B. Murexide
D. None my
C. Phenophthelin
D. Methyl orange
5. Nicotine has a pyridine ring attached
with

A. Pyrrolidine ring 1. Compact size, low weight mass

instrument is
B. Piperidine ring
A. EI-TOF
C. Indole ring
B. MALDI-Quadrapole
D. None
C. MALDI-TOF
D. Ion-Trap
2. Buck wheat contains Rutin which is

1. B ( Murexide, solochrome black,
obtained from
pyrocatechol violet, calmagite zynol
orange, Arsenazo 1, Erlochrome blackT A. Fagopyrum esculentum
are the examples of indicators for
B. Dipteryx odorat
complexometric titrations)
C. Silybum marianum
2. B (papaverine is a smooth muscle
relaxant and used to treat spasm of GIT, D. Gingko
also used in ischemia used to delete
Pulmonary artery)
3. IP 2007 & USP 2006 use nitrite
3. B (it is known as esomeprazol (S)-(-)
titration for those drugs having
Omeprazole)
A. Phenolic structure
4. C (both are used in case of levodopa
resistance Parkinson patient) B. 1° Aromatic amine
5. A (pyrrolidine ring attached with C. Unsaturation

pyridine)
D. 3° nitrogen

4. A Nonhazardous substitute for RIA is diazonium salt. The reaction is

quantitative)
A. Flame photometry
4. B
B. HPLC
5. D (all are the applications of liquid
C. Fluorometry
chromatography mass spectroscopy
D. GCMS LCMS)
5. LCMS is used in 1. Bubble point is used to determine
A. Bioanalysis study A. The surface tension of liquid in

capillary tubes
B. Drug metabolite study
B. The viscosity of liquid in ampoules
C. Complex mixture assay
C. The pH of 1% solution
D. All of these
D. The volume of solution stored in a
specified container
1. B (Matrix assistant laser deception

2. Chairman of DTAB is
techniques with quadrupole mass
analyser is compact and small weight A. Health minister of India
mass analyser)
B. Director general of Health services
2. A (Fagopyrum esculentum is a
C. Drug controller of India
biological source of buckwheat)
D. President of AICTE
3. B (primary aromatic amines reacts
with nitrous acid produced by sodium
nitrite in acidic medium to form

3. In 13C NMR spectroscopy which of 1. A (the pressure at which best bubble

the phenomenon occurs appersis recorded as a bubble point in
capillary flow porometry)
A. Coupling
2. B (director general of Health Services
B. Decoupling
is a chairman of drug technical advisory
C. Both A & B board)
D. None 3. C (there are two types of carbon

NMR spectra proton coupled spectra and
proton decoupled Spectra)
4. Which is most common site of
4. D (the cytotoxic effect of alkylating
alkylation by Alkylating agents
agent is related to covalent bonding of
A. 5- N position of guanine 7th Nitrogen position of guanine
nucleoside)
B. 4- NH2 position of guanine
5. C (short acting cortisone
C. 2- N position of guanine
hydrocortisone and cortisol, intermediate
D. 7- N position of guanine acting triamcinolone prednisone
prednisolone, long acting
dexamethasone betamethasone and
5. Triamcinolone is a beclomethasone)
A. Ultrashort acting adrenocorticoid
B. Short acting adrenocorticoid 1. Strychnine & Brucine are absent in
C. Intermediate acting adrenocorticoid A. Strychnos potatorum
D. Long acting adrenocorticoid B. Strychnos nuxblanda
C. Strychnos nuxvomica
D. Both A & B

A. Vinblastine chloride
2. Which drug is safe during pregnancy? B. Vinblastine bromide
A. Amodiaquine C. Vinblastine sulphate
B. Proguanil D. Vincristine bromide
C. Primaquine
D. Chloroquine
3. Select solvent not used in NMR
A. Trifluro acetic acid 1. D (both are Adultrants of nux

vomica)
B. Carbon tetra chloride
2. D (chloroquine is safer drug in
C. DMSO
pregnancy progunil is safe too but
D. All of the above ineffective bcz registance)
3. A (solvent should not have any

Proton in structure)
4. Plasmodesmata is
4. C (open channel in the cell wall of
A. Lignified element
the plant cell allowing the connection of
B. Vascular element cytoplasm between two adjuscent cells)
C. Very fine protoplasmic thread 5. C (sulphate salt is mostly used)
D. None of them
1. Faces and urine can be disinfected by

all except
5. Which of the following salt is used as
A. 8% bleaching powder
an Antineoplastic agent?
B. 1% crude phenol

C. 5% cresol D. Sub clinical measles not known

D. 1-2% formalin
1. D (formalin is not used for
disinfection of urine and feces)
2. Ideally bedpans and urinals are
sterilized by 2. A (cresol emulsion is powerful
disinfectant)
A. 1% cresol
3. C (5% cresol solution is used to
B. Bleaching powder dispose the sputum)
C. Steam 4. D (lifelong immunity will be
developed after smallpox infection;
D. All of the above
subject will not get smallpox again in
life)
3. Sputum is best disposed by 5. D (if anyone got measles he will not

get secondary infection in the life,
A. Burning secondary infection occurs rarely)
B. Boiling
C. 5% cresol 1. Which is most heat sensitive vaccine
amongst the options?
D. Any of the above
A. BCG
B. Polio
4. Immunity conferred by an attack of
small pox remains for the time period of C. Measles
A. 10 years D. DPT
B. 15 years 2. The term "Zero dose" of polio vaccine
means
C. 20 years
A. No vaccination
D. life long
B. Dose before first dose
C. Not having antibody response
5. Which is not true regarding measles?
D. Vaccination at mobile camps
A. Source of infection is a case
B. Secondary attack rate is 80%
C. Carries do not occur

3. Which kind of disinfection is involved 3. A (it is pre-current disinfection also

in pasteurization of milk known as prophylactic disinfection
involved in pasteurization of milk)
A. Pre-current
4. A (boiling with water 5 to 10 minutes
B. Concurrent will destroy bacteria)
C. Terminal 5. C (plastic is not sterilized by
autoclaving)
D. Absolute
1. Sulfonamide is ....antibiotic
4. Boiling, with water for 5 to 10 minute
can destroy A. Antibiotics
A. Bacteria B. Bactericidal
B. Spores C. Anti-viral
C. Virus D. Bacteriostatic
2. Which drug used for malaria

chemoprophylaxis and treatment
5. Autoclaving will result in sterilization
of all except A. Quinidine
A. Gloves B. Chloroquine
B. Culture media C. Sulfonamide
C. Plastics D. Quinine
D. Linen
3. Anticancer drug having inorganic

metal complex
A. Dacarbazine
B. Methotrexate
C. Vincristine
1. B (most sensitive to heat OPV; BCG
after reconstitution) D. Cisplatin
2. B (within the 15 days of birth, Dose
before first dose is known as zero dose)

4. Which is selective serotonin reuptake 5. A (14 November 1985 Narcotic drug

inhibitor and psychotropic substances came into
the force)
A. Phenytoin
B. Serotonin
1. Which water is utilised for hand
C. Phenobarbitone washing in change room of
manufacturing unit
D. Sertaline
A. Soap water
B. Distilled water
C. Deionized water
5. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
substance (NDPS) enacted in D. Potable water
A.14/11/1985 2. Which schedule includes shelf life of
drugs
B.16/9/1985
A. Schedule F
C.15/8/1986
B. Schedule M
D. 26/9/1986
C. Schedule G
D. Schedule P
1. D (sulfonamides are bacteriostatic
drugs and they are competitive inhibitor 3. Which one is nonsteroidal anti-
of PABA) inflammatory drug
2. B (chloroquine is used in A. Ramipril
chemoprophylaxis and treatment of
malaria, mefloquine is for B. Telmisatan
chloroquine resistant plasmodium sC. Celecoxib
falciparum)
D. Diazepam
3. D (cisplatin is a complex of platinum
along with ammonia and chloro group)
4. Which inorganic ion which is
4. (Sertaline is selective serotonin
prophylactically used in bipolar
reuptake inhibitor)
depression
A. Chromium

B. Lithium C. Colchicine
C. Valproate D Probenecid
D. Valium
2. Which mineral is required for
crystallization and storage of the
5. Which ACE inhibitors is not a hormone insulin?
prodrug
A. Mn++
A. Benzepril
B. Mg++
B. Quinapril
C. Ca++
C. Ramipril
D. Zn++
D. Captoprilo
3. Oxidation of which substance in the

body gives highest calories
A. Glucose
Correct answer sheet explanation B. Glycogen
1. A (so what is used to wash hands C. Protein
input change room pharmaceuticals)
D. Lipids
2. D (schedule p is life period of drug)
3. C (celecoxib is selective Cox 2
inhibitor NSAIDs)
4. B (lithium carbonate is used as mood 4. Which vitamin is not present in milk?
stabilizer in bipolar disorders)
A. Vitamin C
5. D (captopril and Lisinopril are not
prodrugs amongst the ace inhibitors) B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B2
1. Identify inhibitors of uric acid D. Vitamin K

synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme
xanthine oxidase is
5. Which mineral is not present in milk?
A. Aspirin
A. Phosphorus
B. Allopurinol

B. Sodium D. Morphine
C. Iron
D. Potassium 3. Zero order kinetics are seen all except
A. Salicylic acid
Correct answers with explanation B. Phenytoin
1. B (Allopurinol is xanthin oxidase C. Ethanol
inhibitor used to reduce the uric acid
level) D. Barbiturates
2. D (insulin hexamer crystallize around

two molecules of zinc) 4. Volume of plasma from which the
3. D (Lipids 9, protein 4, carbohydrate 4 drug is complete removed per unit time
calories respectively, 12 calories from is
alcohol)
A. Volume distribution
4. D (vitamin K is not present in milk)
B. Bioavailability
5. C (iron is not present in milk)
C. Clearance
D. First pass metabolism
1. Most of the drug is absorbed through
A. Active transport
5. The main mechanism of most drug
B. Facilitated diffusion absorption in GI tract is
C. Passive diffusion A. Active transport
D. Ion pair transport B. Filtration

C. Endocytosis and exocytosis
D. Passive diffusion
2. Which drug doesn't cross the placental

barrier
A. Heparin
B. Lithium
C. Warfarin

1. C (most of these are absorbed by B. Collenchymatous

passive diffusion, with the concentration
gradient) C. Parenchymatous
2. A (heaparine does not cross placenta D. Fibrous

barrier where as warferin does)
3. B (Phenytoin does not shows
nonlinear kinetics given by Michaels
menten equation) 4. Swelling Index a standardization
parameter can be applied to?
4. C (Mumbai is the definition of renal
clearance) A. Moisture
5. D (as discussed in question number 1) B. Volatile oils
C. Crude fibres
1. Medicinal properties of Ginko will not D. Mucilage
be useful in
A. Asthma
5. What is the hydrolysis product of
B. Hepatitis/Diabetes Salicin
C. Dementia A. Salicylic acid and glucose
D. Inflammation B. Salicyl alcohol and glucose
C. Salicyclic acid and galactose
2. Forskolin of Coleus is used in D. Salicyl alcohol and galactose
treatment of
A. Diabetes
B. Ulcers
1. B (ginkgo biloba is useful in
C. Hepatitis inflammation, dementia, Alzheimer's,
antiasthmatic, vertigo, anxiety,
D. Heart disease
headache)
2. D (Coleus forskohlii used in
3. Callus culture can be easily initiated congestive cardiac failure, for weight
from which kind of tissues of shoot, loss, glaucoma it is an ornamental plant)
roots etc.
3. C (parenchymatous cells redily
A. Sclerenchymatous devides in presence of auxin and
cytokinin)
4. D (swelling index is using parameter 4. Which drug has less than 50%protein-
for message containing drugs like is binding capacity
isabgol)
P. Insulin Q. Aminoglycoside
5. B (Salicyl alcohol and D-glucose is antibiotics
obtained upon hydrolysis of Salicin
further oxidation leads to salicylic acid.) R. Diazepam S. Aspirin
A. P&Q B. Q&R
1. Following statement are true for C. Q&S D. P&S

facilitated diffusion
[P] Saturable [Q] Non selective
5. Spironolactone is a prodrug, its active
[R] Energy dependant [S] Energy metabolite is
independent
A. Desmethyl spironolactone
A. P&S B. Q&R
B. Canrenone
C. Q&S D. P&S
C. Acetyl spironolactone
2. Transport diffusion is proportional to
D. None of these
concentration gradient in
P. Active transport Q. Facilitated
diffusion
R. Passive diffusion S. Ion pair Correct answers with explanation
transport
1. A (facilitated diffusion is energy
A. P&R B. Q&S independent process and it is saturable if
number of carriers are not enough and it
C. Q&R D. R&S
is selective)
2. C (diffusion is the movement of
3. Identify the drugs having more than particles from higher concentration to
99%protein-binding capacity the lower concentration)
P. Digoxin Q. Aspirin 3. D (thyroxine and warfarin has 99%

protein binding capacity)
R. Thyroxine S. Warfarin
4. A (insulin and aminoglycoside are
A. P&Q B. P&R poorly bound to the protein)
C. Q&S D. R&S 5. C (Canrenone is the active metabolite
of spironolactone)

B. Dapsone+rifampicin+clofazimine
1. What is oxidation product of caffeine C. Dapsone+erythromycin +clofazimine
with KClO3/HCl D. Dapsone+tetracyclin+streptomycin
A. Trimethyl alloxan and urea
B. Dimethyl alloxan and dimethyl-urea
C. Trimethyl alloxan 5. What is mode of action of
D. None of the above mebendazole and thiabendazole

A. Stimulation of Ach receptors
B. Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
2. Sulfamethoxazole is classified on the C. Interference with microtubule
basis of duration under synthesis and assembly
A. Short acting drug D. Blocking thiamine transport
B. Intermediate acting drug
C. Long acting drug
D. Very long acting action
1. B (1, 3 dimethyl alloxon, N,N
dimethyl urea is the oxidation product of
caffeine and the reaction is used in
structural elucidation of caffeine)
3. Which drug has adverse effect of pink
to brownish pigmentation on skin if used 2. B (sulfamethoxazole is intermediate
acting sulfonamide)
for more than a week.
3. B (clofazimine has adverse reaction
A. Itraconazole on skin reddish brown to black
pigmentation on skin which disappears
B. Clofazimine after month)
C. Lomefloxacin
4. B (rifampicin, clofazimine, Dapsone
D. Neomycin the regimen of three drugs are
recommended for the treatment of
leprosy depending upon the age of
patient is also known as MDT multidrug
therapy)
4. Which combination is suggested in
the treatment of leprosy 5. C (Interference with microtubule
synthesis and assembly by binding ß
A. Dapsone+ampicillin+clofazimine tubulin & inhibits polymerization)

4. Which of the following is an anabolic

steroids
A. Methyltestosterone
Under common creative copyright @ B. Fluoxymesterone

SACHIN JADHAV C. Nandrolone
D. Danazole
--
1. Haloperidol is a major transquilizer,
comes under the class of
A. Carbarnates
B. Propanediol 5. Which one of these is a liquid alkaloid
C. Butyrophenone A. Yohimbine
D. Phenothiazine B. Arecoline
C. Nicotine
2. From callus, root growth can be D. Quinine
enhanced by
A. Increasing auxin amount than that of
cytokinin Correct answers with explanation
B. Increasing cytokinin amount than that 1. C (Heloperidol, fluperidol, penperidol,

of auxin all belongs to butyrophenones
antipsychotic drugs)
C. Adding thiamine
2. A (oxygen is required for root
D. Adding sucrose elongation increasing the auxins
concentration more than cytokinin)
3. A (polysorbate or tweens are non
3. Polysorbate 80 is a .....surfactant ionic surfactant)
A. Amphi-ionic 4. A (methyl testosterone is one of the
B. Anionic anabolic steroids they are misused by
athletes to increase the performance)
C. Cationic
5. C (nicotine nor-nicotine-, anabasine,
D. Non-ionic anatabin occurs liquid or volatile
alkaloids in nature)

E. Cholesterol
1. Relationship between arterial blood
pressure (BP), cardiac outpur (CO) and
peripheral vascular resistance (PVR) can 4. If the patient has a history of gout,
be described as which of the following drugs is most
likely to exacerbate this condition?
A. BP = COxPVR
A. Colestipol
B. BP = CO/PVR
B. Gemfibrozil
C. BP = PVR/CO
C. Lovastatin
D. Niacin
E. Simvastatin
2. If a fibrinolytic drug is used for
treatment of acute myocardial infarction,
the adverse drug effect that is most
5. After being counseled about lifestyle
likely to occur is
and dietary changes, the patient was
A. Acute renal failure started on atorvastatin. During his
treatment with atorvastatin, it is
B. Development of antiplatelet important to routinely monitor serum
antibodies concentrations of
C. Encephalitis secondary to liver A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
dysfunction
B. Alanine and aspartate
D. Hemorrhagic stroke aminotransferase
E. Neutropenia C. Platelets
D. Red blood cells
3. Increased serum levels of which of the E. Uric acid
following may be associated with a
decreased risk of atherosclerosis?
A. Very low-density lipoproteins Correct answers with explanation
(VLDL)
1. A (blood pressure=cardiac output ×
B. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) periferal vascular resistance)
C. Intermediate – density lipoproteins 2. D (hemorrhagic stroke, most

(IDL) commonly cerebral hemorrhage aunty
few adverse effect of fibrinolytics)
D. High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

3. D (increased level of HDL is 3. Specific antidote for paracetamol

associated with decreased risk of poisoning is?
atherosclerosis and increase blood level
of LDL is associated with increased risk A. Water
of arteriosclerosis)
B. N acetyl cysteine
4. D (Niacin is contraindicated in patient
with history of gout, peptic ulcer and it C. Amphetamine
can worsen the diabetes)
D. Barbituric acid
5. B (Alanine and aspartate
aminotransferase blood level should be
monitored during atorvastatin therapy)
4. Which one is not first generation H1
antagonist
A. Pheniramine
SACHIN JADHAV0
B. Cetrizine
1. Sildenafil is PDE5 inhibitor used for C. Cyclizine
treatment of one of?
D. Triprolidine
A. Systolic hypertension
B. Unstable angina
5. DOPP and PAO tests are used for the
C. Pulmonary hypertension evaluation of efficiency of
D. Hypertension due to eclampsia A. Membrane filter
B. Seitz filter
2. Cardiac glycoside consist of glycone C. G 3 filter
attached to aglycone by
D. HEPA filter
A. Alpha linkage
B. Beta linkage Correct answers with explanation

C. Both of above 1. C (sildenafil is PDE5 inhibitor by
D. None of the above stabilizing cGMP and allows sustained
action of endogenous nitric oxide,
pulmonary vasodilator)

2. B (always aglycone part of cardiac

glycoside is attached to blacken part by
beta linkage) 3. Which one is not a topical protective
agent?
3. B (N acetylcysteine is specific
antidote for paracetamol poisoning) A. Calamine
4. D (triplolidine in second generation

h1 blocker with no sedition as a side B. Titanium oxide
effect) C. Silicone polymer
5. D (DOP i.e. dioctylpthalet & POA i.e.
polyalphaolefins is used to check the D. Magnesium sulphate
efficiency of hepa filters)
4. Antiseptics and disinfectant acts by?

1. Soapstone contains 50% of.....
A. Oxidation of functional groups
A. Talc present in proteins
B. Protein precipitation
B. Kaolin
C. Halogenation of primary and
C. Zinc oxide secondary groups present in proteins
D. All of the above

D. Calamine
5. What is concentration of the hydrogen

2. What is/ are application of talc in peroxide as per IP?
pharmaceuticals?
A. 6% w/v of H₂O₂
A. Dusting powder
B. 3%w/v of H₂O₂
B. Filtering medium
C. 27% w/v of H₂O₂
C. Lubricant
D. 30% w/v of H₂O2

D. All of the above

Correct answers with explanation D. Unstable
1. A (soapstone contains 50% talc,

magnesite, chlorite, magnetite.)
3. All are used as filter aid except
2. D (talc is used as dusting powder from
filter medium, lubricant etc) A. Perlite
3. D (all are used as topical protective B. Cottan

agent except, magnesium celebrate) C. Sulfone
4. D (antiseptic and disinfectant acts by D. Asbestos
all mechanism given in options)
5. B (3% w / v is usual strength of

hydrogen peroxide) 4. The munsell system is associated with
A. Toxicity
B. Flavour
SACHIN JADHAV C. Colour
D. Sweetness
1. Which one is related with
measurement of foam stability?
5. Tetanus toxoid comes under which
A. IR
schedule of D&C act.
B. UV
A. Schedule G
C. Rotational viscometer
B. Schedule A
D. Bobe & cone viscometre
C. Schedule S
D. Schedule C
2. Lecithin produces which type of
emulsion.
A. Oil in water
1. C (rotational viscometer is used to
B. Water in oil
check the stability of foam)
C. Stable emulsion

2. C (lecithin produces a stable C. Pyradazine

emulsion)
D. Pyrazine
3. C (except sulphone, all are filter aid)
4. C (munsells colour system order is

order of mixing of colours) 4. UV absorption range pharmaceutical
analysis purpose is?
5. D (schedule c is for biological
products) A. 300-500 mm
B. 200-400 mm
1. Haloperidol is a major transquilizer, it C. 200-800 mm

is classified under D. 400-700mm
A. Carbomates
B. Butyrophenone 5. Which among the option is used in the

C. Propanediol synthesis of primaquine
D. Phenothiazine A. Anisole
B. Nitrophenol
2. Nicotinic acid on reaction with diethyl C. Phenol

amine gives D. Anilin
A. Nicotinamide
B. Nikethamide Correct answers with explanation

C. Pyrizinamide 1. B (Haloperidol is Butyrophenone
D. Giycinamide derivative)
2. B (Nicotinic acid on reaction with

diethyl amine in presence of phosphorus
3. Which ring is present in structure of oxychloride give nikethamide)
lincomycin?
3. A (Pyrrolidine is present in the
A. Pyrrolidine structure of lincomycin)
B. Thiazolidine 4. B (range of UV 200-400nm, range of

visible 400-800nm)
5. C 3. The Symptoms of allergen-mediated

asthma result from which of the
following?
A. Increased release of mediators from

mast cells
SACHIN JADHAV
B. Increased adrenergic responsiveness
of the airways
1. Antagonism of leukotriene’s C. Increased vascular permeability of

bronchoconstrictor effect by terbutaline bronchial tissue
in a patient with asthma, is example of D. Decreased calcium influx into the
A. Pharmacological antagonism mast cells
B. Partial agonist
C. Physiological antagonism 4. Blockade of H2 receptors will results

in
D. Chemical antagonism
A. Decreased camp in cardiac muscle
B. Increased camp in cardiac muscle

2. Multiple drugs therapy causes
induction of drug metabolism in asthma C. Decreased IP3 in gastric mucosa
patient, it will D. Increased IP3 in gastric mucosa
A. Result in increased in smooth 5. H2 antihistamines has side effect of
endoplasmic reticulum
A. Blurred vision
B. Result in increased enzyme rough
endoplasmic reticulum B. Diarrhea
C. Result in decreased enzymes in the C. Orthostatic hypotension

soluble cytoplasmic fraction
D. P450 inhibition
D. Require 3-4 months to reach
completion maybe irreversible
1. C (it is example of physiological

antagonism both drug producing

opposite actions by acting on their own B. Brain

receptors)
C. Stomach
2. C (it will result in decrease the
enzyme level in soluble cytoplasmic D. Liver
fraction)
3. A (after subsequent exposure to 3. Which disease is related with defect of

allergen it will release mediators from clotting of blood?
mast cell)
A. Sickle cell anaemia
4. C (decreasing ip3 in gastric mucosa,
thus acts by reducing the acid secretion) B. Haemophilia
5. D (enzyme induction is the adverse C. Rabies

effect of H2 blockers particularly
D. Diabetes
Cimentidine)
4. Discoloration of teeth is adverse effect

of
A. Streptomycin
SACHIN JADHAV B. Neomycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Penicillin
1. Causative agent for cholera is
A. Tubercle bacillus
5. Which disease is caused by fungus?
B. Vibrio cholerae
A. Malaria
C. Protozoa
B. Athletes foot
D. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Filariasis
D. Typhus fever
2. Chronic alcohol intake will damage
A. Kidney
1. B (vibrio cholerae is the causative 3. Arterial septal defect is related with

agent for cholera) malfunctioning of
2. D (chronicle coal in damage to the A. Formen ovale

liver can cause cirrhosis liver)
B. Ductus arteriosis
3. B (lack of natural clotting factors,
VIII in haemophilia A & IX in C. Ductus venosus
haemophilia B ) D. Mitral valve
4. C (discoloration of teeth and 4. Which one is water soluble vitamin?
decalcification of bone are side effect of
tetracyclines) A. Vitamin A
5. B (trichophyton rubrum fungus is B. Vitamin K

most common cause of athlete's foot)
C. Vitamin B
D. Vitamin D
1. How many number of sacral vertebrae
vertebral is present in vertebral column
5. Quickening relation to pregnancy is
A. 5
A. Hearing of the fetal heart sound
B. 3
B. Sudden cessation of Menstruation
C. 4
C. The movement of the feuts in the
D. 1
uterus felt by the mother
D. Nausa and vomiting in the morning

2. Howmany number of chromosomes
present in human cell
A. 23
1. A (5 sacral vertebrae they are fused to
B. 44
become 1)
C. 46
2. C (23 pairs, 22 pair of autosomes &1
D. 40 pair of sex chromosome i.e. 46
chromosome present in human cell)

3. A (arterial septal defect is due to 3. Sputum is best disposed by

defect of foramen ovale)
A. Burning
4. C (vitamin B complex and vitamin C
are water soluble where as vitamin B. Boiling
A,D,E,K fat soluble) C. 5% cresol
5. C (movement of foetus in womb felt D. Any of the above
by mother is known as quickning)
4. Immunity conferred by an attack of

small pox remains for the time period of
A. 10 years
SACHIN JADHAV B. 15 years
C. 20 years
1. Faces and urine can be disinfected by
all except D. life long
A. 8% bleaching powder
B. 1% crude phenol 5. Which is not true regarding measles?
C. 5% cresol A. Source of infection is a case
D. 1-2% formalin B. Secondary attack rate is 80%
C. Carries do not occur
2. Ideally bedpans and urinals are D. Sub clinical measles not known
sterilized by
A. 1% cresol
B. Bleaching powder
1. D (formalin is not used for
C. Steam disinfection of urine and feces)
D. All of the above 2. A (cresol emulsion is powerful

disinfectant)

3. C (5% cresol solution is used to 3. Which kind of disinfection is involved

dispose the sputum) in pasteurization of milk?
4. D (lifelong immunity will be A. Precurrent

developed after smallpox infection,
subject is not get smallpox again in life) B. Concurrent
5. D (if anyone got measles he will not C. Terminal

get secondary infection in the life, D. Absolute
secondary infection occurs rerely)
4. Boiling with water, for 5 to 10 minute

can destroy
A. Bacteria
SACHIN JADHAV B. Spores
C. Virus
1. Which is most heat sensitive vaccine
amongt the options D. None of the above
A. BCG
B. Polio 5. Autoclaving will result in sterilization

of all except
C. Measles
A. Gloves
D. DPT
B. Culture media
C. Plastics
2. The term "Zero dose" of polio vaccine
means D. Linen
A. No vaccination
B. Dose before first dose Correct answers with explanation
C. Not having antibody response 1. B (most sensitive to heat OPV; BCG

after reconstitution)
D. Vaccination at mobile camps
2. B (within the 15 days of birth, Dose
before first dose is known as zero dose)

3. A (it is precurrent disinfection also D. Cisplatin

known as prophylactic disinfection
involved in pasteurization of milk)
4. A (boiling with water 5 to 10 minutes 4. Which is selective serotonin reuptake

will destroy bacteria) inhibitor?
5. C (plastic is not sterilized by A. Phenytoin

autoclaving) B. Serotonin
C. Phenobarbitone
1. Sulfonamide is ....antibiotic D. Sertaline
A. Antibiotics
B. Bactericidal 5. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic

C. Anti-viral substance (NDPS) enacted in
D. Bacteriostatic A.14/11/1985
B.16/9/1985
2. Which drug used for malaria C.15/8/1986

chemoprophylaxis and treatment D. 26/9/1986
A. Quinidine
B. Chloroquine Correct answers with explanation

C. Sulfonamide 1. D (sulfonamides are bacteriostatic
D. Quinine drugs and they are competitive inhibitor
of PABA)
2. B (chloroquine is used in
3. Anticancer drug having inorganic chemoprophylaxis and treatment of
metal complex malaria, mefloquine is for
A. Dacarbazine chloroquine resistant plasmodium
B. Methotrexate falciparum)
C. Vincristine 3. D (cisplatin is a complex of platinum

along with ammonia and chloro group)

4. (Sertaline is selective serotonin B. Telmisatan

reuptake inhibitor)
C. Celecoxib
5. A (14 November 1985 Narcotic drug
and psychotropic substances came into D. Diazepam
the force)
4. Which inorganic ion which is

prophylactically used in bipolar
Under common creative copyright @ depression
SACHIN JADHAV
A. Chromium
B. Lithium
1. Which water is utilized, for hand
washing in change room of C. Valproate
manufacturing unit
D. Valium
A. Soap water
B. Distilled water
5. Which ACE inhibitors is not a
C. Deionized water prodrug
D. Potable water A. Benzepril
B. Quinapril
2. Which schedule includes shelf life of C. Ramipril
drugs
D. Captoprilo
A. Schedule F
B. Schedule M
Correct answer sheet explanation
C. Schedule G
1. A (so what is used to wash hands
D. Schedule P input change room pharmaceuticals)
2. D (schedule p is life period of drug)

3. Which one is nonsteroidal anti- 3. C (celecoxib is selective Cox 2
inflammatory drug? inhibitor NSAIDs)
A. Ramipril

4. B (lithium carbonate is used as mood 4. Which vitamin is not present in milk?

stabilizer in bipolar disorders)
A. Vitamin C
5. D (captopril and Lisinopril are not
prodrugs amongst the ace inhibitors) B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B2
1. Identify inhibitors of uric acid D. Vitamin K

synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme
xanthine oxidase is
5. Which mineral is not present in milk?
A. Aspirin
A. Phosphorus
B. Allopurinol
B. Sodium
C. Colchicine
C. Iron
D Probenecid
D. Potassium
2. Which mineral is required for

crystallization and storage of the Correct answers with explanation
hormone insulin
1. B (Allopurinol is xanthin oxidase
A. Mn++ inhibitor used to reduce the uric acid
level)
B. Mg++
2. D (insulin hexamer crystallize around
C. Ca++ two molecules of zinc)
D. Zn++ 3. D (Lipids 9 , protein 4, carbohydrate 4
3. Oxidation of which substance in the calories respectively, 12 calories from
body gives highest calories alcohol)
A. Glucose 4. A (vitamin c is not present in milk)
B. Glycogen 5. C (iron is not present in milk)
C. Protein 1. Most of the drug is absorbed through
D. Lipids A. Active transport
B. Facilitated diffusion

C. Passive diffusion 5. The main mechanism of most drug

absorption in GI tract is
D. Ion pair transport
A. Active transport
B. Filtration
2. Which drug doesn't cross the placental
barrier? C. Endocytosis and exocytosis
A. Heparin D. Passive diffusion
B. Lithium
C. Warfarin Correct answers with explanation
D. Morphine 1. C (most of these are absorbed by

passive diffusion, with the concentration
gradient)
3. Zero order kinetics are seen all except 2. A (heaparine does not cross placenta
A. Salicylic acid barrier where as warferin does)
B. Phenytoin 3. B (Phenytoin does not shows

nonlinear kinetics given by Michaels
C. Ethanol menten equation)
D. Barbiturates 4. C (Mumbai is the definition of renal

clearance)
5. D (as discussed in question number 1)

4. Volume of plasma from which the
drug is complete removed per unit time
is
1. Medicinal properties of Ginko will not
A. Volume distribution be useful in
B. Bioavailability A. Asthma
C. Clearance B. Hepatitis/Diabetes
D. First pass metabolism C. Dementia
D. Inflammation

2. Forskolin of Coleus is used in D. Salicyl alcohol and galactose

treatment of
1. B (ginkgo biloba is useful in
A. Diabetes inflammation, dementia, Alzheimer's,
antiasthmatic, vertigo, anxiety,
B. Ulcers headache)
C. Hepatitis 2. D (Coleus forskohlii used in
D. Heart disease congestive cardiac failure, for weight
loss, glaucoma it is an ornamental plant)
3. Callus culture can be easily initiated
from which kind of tissues of shoot, 3. C (parenchymatous cells redily
roots etc. devides in presence of auxin and
cytokinin)
A. Sclerenchymatous
4. D (swelling index is using parameter
B. Collenchymatous for message containing drugs like is
isabgol)
C. Parenchymatous
5. B (Salicyl alcohol and D-glucose is
D. Fibrous
obtained upon hydrolysis of Salicin
further oxidation leads to salicylic acid.)
4. Swelling Index a standardization 1. Following statement are true for

parameter can be applied to? facilitated diffusion
A. Moisture [P] Saturable [Q] Non

selective
B. Volatile oils
[R] Energy dependant [S] Energy
C. Crude fibres independent
D. Mucilage A. P&S B. Q&R
C. Q&S D. P&S
5. What is the hydrolysis product of
Salicin?
2. Transport diffusion is proportional to
A. Salicylic acid and glucose concentration gradient in
B. Salicyl alcohol and glucose P. Active transport Q. Facilitated
diffusion
C. Salicyclic acid and galactose

R. Passive diffusion S. Ion pair

transport
A. P&R B. Q&S
1. A (facilitated diffusion is energy
C. Q&R D. R&S independent process and it is saturable if
number of carriers are not enough and it
is selective)
3. Identify the drugs having more than 2. C (diffusion is the movement of
99%protein-binding capacity particles from higher concentration to
P. Digoxin Q. Aspirin the lower concentration)
R. Thyroxine S. Warfarin 3. D (thyroxine and warfarin has 99%

protein binding capacity)
A. P&Q B. P&R
4. A (insulin and aminoglycoside are
C. Q&S D. R&S poorly bound to the protein)
5. C (Canrenone is the active metabolite

of spironolactone)
4. Which drug has less than 50%protein-
binding capacity
P. Insulin Q. Aminoglycoside
antibiotics
R. Diazepam S. Aspirin Under common creative copyright @

SACHIN JADHAV
A. P&Q B. Q&R
C. Q&S D. P&S 1. What is oxidation product of caffeine

with KClO3/HCL?
A. Trimethyl alloxan and urea

5. Spironolactone is a prodrug, its active
metabolite is B. Dimethyl alloxan and dimethyl-urea
A. Desmethyl spironolactone C. Trimethyl alloxan
B. Canrenone D. None of the above
C. Acetyl spironolactone
D. None of these

2. Sulfamethoxazole is classified on the C. Interference with microtubule

basis of duration under synthesis and assembly
A. Short acting drug. D. Blocking thiamine transport
B. Intermediate acting drug Correct answers with explanation
C. Long acting drug 1. B (1, 3 dimethyl alloxon, N,N

dimethyl urea is the oxidation product of
D. Very long acting action caffeine and the reaction is used in
structural elucidation of caffeine)
3. Which drug has adverse effect of pink 2. B (sulfamethoxazole is intermediate

to brownish pigmentation on skin if used acting sulfonamide)
for more than a week? 3. B (clofazimine has adverse reaction
A. Itraconazole on skin reddish brown to black
pigmentation on skin which disappears
B. Clofazimine after month)
C. Lomefloxacin 4. B (rifampicin, clofazimine, Dapsone

the regimen of three drugs are
D. Neomycin
recommended for the treatment of
leprosy depending upon the age of
patient is also known as MDT multidrug
4. Which combination is suggested in therapy)
the treatment of leprosy?
5. C (Interference with microtubule
A. Dapsone+ampicillin+clofazimine synthesis and assembly by binding ß
tubulin & inhibits polymerization)
B. Dapsone+rifampicin+clofazimine
C. Dapsone+erythromycin +clofazimine
D. Dapsone+tetracyclin+streptomycin

5. What is mode of action of SACHIN JADHAV
mebendazole and thiabendazole?
1. Haloperidol is a major transquilizer,
A. Stimulation of Ach receptors
comes under the class of
B. Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

A. Carbarnates
B. Propanediol 5. Which one of these is a liquid

alkaloid?
C. Butyrophenone
A. Yohimbine
D. Phenothiazine
B. Arecoline
C. Nicotine
2. From callus, root growth can be
enhanced by D. Quinine
A. Increasing auxin amount than that of

cytokinin
B. Increasing cytokinin amount than that
of auxin 1. C (Heloperidol, fluperidol, penperidol,
all belongs to butyrophenones
C. Adding thiamine antipsychotic drugs)
D. Adding sucrose 2. A (oxygen is required for root

elongation increasing the auxins
3. Polysorbate 80, is .....surfactant? concentration more than cytokinin)
A. Amphi-ionic 3. A (polysorbate or tweens are non
B. Anionic ionic surfactant)
C. Cationic 4. A (methyl testosterone is one of the

anabolic steroids they are misused by
D. Non-ionic athletes to increase the performance)
5. C (nicotine nor-nicotine, anabasine,

anatabin occurs liquid or volatile
4. Which of the following is an anabolic
alkaloids in nature)
steroid?
A. Methyltestosterone
B. Fluoxymesterone
C. Nandrolone
D. Danazole SACHIN JADHAV

2. Etanercept is antirheumatic drug its

mechanism is direct....
A. Inhibition of cAMP
phosphodiesterase in monocytic lineage
leukocytes
B. Selective inhibition of COX-2
C. Enhancement of leukotriene synthesis

at the expense of prostaglandin synthesis
D. Reduction of circulating active TNF-

α level
3. Allopurinol reduces serum urate levels

by?
A. Promoting the active secretion of uric

acid in kidneys
B. Inhibiting uric acid synthesis
C. Impairing renal urate reabsorption
D. Decreasing metabolism of uric acid

1. A patient has piloerection, mydriasis,
increased blood pressure, and abdominal
4. Theophylline has an antagonistic
cramps are due to?
interaction with?
A. Alcohol abstinence A. Histamine receptors
B. Barbiturate abstinence B. Bradykinin receptors
C. Benzodiazepine abstinence C. Adenosine receptors
D. Opioid abstinence D. Imidazoline receptors

5. Which drug increases gastrointestinal B. Thiazide diuretics

motility?
C. Quinine
A. Glycopyrrolate
D. Amlodipine
B. Atropine
C. Neostigmine
2. Dry mouth during antidepressant
D. Fentanyl therapy is caused by blockade of?
A. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
Correct answers with explanation B. Serotonergic receptors
1. D (piloerection, mydriasis, increase C. Dopaminergic receptors

BP, abdominal cramps are the signs of
opioid abstinence) D. GABA receptors
2. D (Etanercept is rDNA soluble

receptorTNF antagonist) 3. Antipsychotic drug induced
3. B (allopurinol is a xanthene oxidase parkinsonism is treated by?
inhibitor, inhibits the synthesis of uric A. Anticholinergics
acid)
B. Levodopa
4. C (competitive antagonist to
adenosine A2 receptor) C. Selegilline
5. C (Neostigmine increases the motility D. Amantadine

of gastrointestinal tract)
4. The major difference between typical

and atypical antipsychotics is?
A. The latter cause minimal or no

Under common creative copyright @ increase in prolactin
SACHIN JADHAV
B. The former cause tardive dyskinesia
1. Which class of drugs has significant C. The former are available as parenteral
drug interactions with digoxin except? preparations
A. Cholestyramine D. The latter cause substantial sedation

D. Antiamoebic
5. Which one is not pencillinase

susceptible antibiotic?
2. Nevirapine is antiviral drug it's
A. Amoxicillin mechanism is?
B. Pencillin G A. Protease inhibitor
C. Piperacillin B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase

inhibitor
D. Cloxacillin
C. Non Nucleotide Reverse
Transcriptase Inhibitors
Correct answers with explanation D. Fusion inhibitor
1. B (Digoxin and thiazide diuretics does
not have significant drug interaction)
3. Which one is NOT an alkylating
2. A (this mostly associated with agent?
tricyclic antidepressant, because of
blockage of muscarinic receptor dryness A. 5-FU
of mouth, constipation, urinary retention
and blurred vision) B. Chlorambucil
3. A (antipsychotic drug induced C. Melphalan

parkinsonism is treated using Central D. Cyclophosphamide
cholinergic antagonist)
4. B (typical antipsychotic drugs causes

extrapyramidal effects) 4. Which drug is NOT used in treatment
of heroin dependence?
5. D (mithicillin and cloxacillin
penicillinase resistant penicillin) A. Disulfiram
B. Buprenorphine
1. The drug Lumefantrine is? C. Clonidine
A. Antimycobacterial D. Lofexidine
B. Antifungal
C. Antimalarial

5. Which one is dose dependent toxicity C. Dopamine agonists

of irinotecan?
D. Antacids
A. Bone marrow toxicity
B. Profuse diarrhoea
2. Pharmacovigilance is done for
C. Neurotoxicity monitoring of?
D. Respiratory problems A. Drug price
B. Unethical practices
Correct answers with explanation C. Drug safety
1. C (lumefantrine is antimalarial drug it D. Pharmacology students

interferes with heam polymerization,
which is a critical detoxifying
mechanism of malarial parasite) 3. Which route of administration is for
2. C (Nevirapine, efaverenz, local action?
delavirdineare non nucleotide reverse A. Topical
transcriptase inhibitors, antiviral drugs)
B. Oral
3. A (5 fluorouracil is antimetabolite
anticancer drug) C. Parenteral
4. D (lofexidine is not used in treatment D. I.V

of heroin dependence)
5. B (profuse diarrhoea is dose limiting

4. What is the impact on absorption if
or dose dependent toxicity of irinotecan)
gut motility is increased?
A. Drug absorption is decreased
B. Drug absorption is increased

SACHIN JADHAV C. Drug absorption is not effected
1. Which drugs are first drug of choice
for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome? D. None of the above
A. Antihistaminics
B. Proton pump inhibitors

5. A drug that binds to a cell receptor D. Bethanecol

and causes a response is called as?
A. Agonist
2. Which atropine derivative used in the
B. Antagonist treatment of bronchial asthma?
C. Receptor blocker A. Homatropine
D. Partial agonist B. Oxybutynin
C. Pirenzepine
Correct answers with explanation D. Ipratropium
1. B (Zollinger Ellison syndrome is

increase the secretion of acid due to
tumor of islets or hyperplasia, proton 3. Which aminoglycoside is not used
pump inhibitors like Omeprazole is a topically?
drug of choice) A. Gentamicin
2. C (monitoring of safety and efficacy is B. Framycetin
the function of pharmacovigilance)
C. Streptomycin
3. A (the term topical means local
application) D. Neomycin
4. A (If the motility of GIT increased,

absorption will decrease because of
4. H1 antihistamines can be used
decreased residence time of drug in GIT)
clinically in all conditions except....
5. A (if drug is able to bind the receptor
A. Hay fever
and illicit pharmacological response it is
known as agonist) B. Anaphylactic reaction
C. Allergic rhinitis
1. Which one is not a cholinergic drug? D. Anticholinergic poisoning
A. Scopolamine
B. Muscarine 5. Cardiac glycosides are abtained from?

C. Pilocarpine A. Raulwolfia serpentine

B. Digitalis lanata A. Interference with the synthesis of

ergosterol
C. Ricinus commuunis
B. Inhibition of transpeptidation
D. Atropa belladonna reactions
C. Inhibition of beta-lactamases
Correct answers with explanation D. Inhibition of the synthesis of
1. A (scopolamine is anticholinergic precursors of peptidoglycans
muscarinic blocker)
2. D (ipratropium bromide azeotrope in 3. Which antibiotic exerts disulfiram-

derivative used in bronchial asthma as like effect with alcohol?
*inhalation)
A. Azithromycin
3. C (streptomycin is not used
topicallyadarsh antibiotics like B. Norfloxacin
neomycin, gentamycin, framycetine
topically used gentamycin is used C. Metronidazole
topically, orally and parentrally) D. Doxycycline
4. D (antihistamines are not used in
anticholinergic poisoning)
5. B (cardiac glycoside is obtained from Under common creative copyright @

digitalis purpurea or digitalis lanata) SACHIN JADHAV
4. Which one is cell cycle specific
anticancer drug?
1. Identity non β- lactam antibiotic. A. Cisplatin
A. Cefaclor B. Methotrexate
B. Ampicillin C. Mitomycin
C. Imipenem D. Cyclophosphamide
D. Vancomycin
5. Which drug is not used in motion

2. What is mechanism of antibacterial sickness?
action of cephalosporins?

A. Promethazine C. Metalcomplex formation
B. Cetrizine D. Isosteric effect
C. Meclizine
D. Scopolamine 2. Hydrolysis of methoxy carbonyl &

Benzoate group of cocaine will give
which inactive compound?
Correct answers with explanation A. Ecgonine
1. D (vancomycin is not a beta lactam B. Tropacocaine
antibiotic)
C. Atropine
2. B (cephalosporin binds to the enzyme
transpeptidase (PBP) and interferes with D. Hydroxymucolic Acid
the synthesis of peptidoglycan)
3. C (metronidazole can cause disulfiram

like reactions) 3. Which is an active form of cocaine?
4. B (Mithotrexate is cell cycle specific A. Econinine

antimetabolite anticancer agent) B. Tropacocaine
5. B (cetirizine is not used in motion C. Atropine
sickness it is commonly used in allergic
rhinitis and allergies) D. Pseudo cocaine
4. Cocaine is local anaesthetic,

Under common creative copyright @ chemically it is?
SACHIN JADHAV
A. (1R, 2R, 3S, 5S)-3-methoxy-carbonyl
tropan-3-yl Benzoate
B. (1R,2R,3S,5S)-2-methoxy-carbonyl
1. Sedative action of barbiturates is tropan-3-yl Benzoate
related to substituents at C₅ it's because
of? C. (1R,2R,3S,5S)-3-ethoxy-carbonyl
tropan-2-yl Benzoate
A. High lipophilicity of groups at C₅
D. (1R,2R,3S,5S)-2-ethoxy-carbonyl
B. Steric effect tropan-3-yl Benzoate
5. P-nitro benzoic acid is the convenient group, instead it has cycloakyl ether
starting material for the synthesis of..? moiety in the benzene ring is?
A. Procaine A. Procaine
B. Cyclomethycaine
B. Xylocaine
C. Cinchocaine
C. Piperacaine
D. Dimethisoquin
D. Etidocaine
3. 5-5 diethyl barbituric acid is a
common name of?
Correct answers with explanation A. Phenytoin
1. A (potential of barbiturates is due to B. Barbitone

the lipophilicity at the substitutions C5 ) C. Tropane
2. A (hydrolysis of cocaine will result in D. Procaine
ecgonin and ecgonin methyl ester
respectively)
4. 2, 4, 6 trioxo hexahydropyrimidin is
3. B (tropococaine is active)
IUPAC name of?
4. B A. Barbitone
5. A (procaine can be synthesized B. Barbituric acid
conveniently from this)
C. Methabarbitone
D. Pyridoxine
1. Desulfuration of 5-ethyl-5-phenyl
thiobarbituric acid with nickel & alcohol
will give? 5. Barbituric acid is condensation
A. Primidone product of?
B. Troxidone A. Malonic acid & urea
C. Phenobarbitone B. Diethyl malonoate & urea
D. Progabide C. Malonic acid with methyl urea

D. Diethyl molonoate with methyl urea
2. Local anaesthetic drug with long

duration of action & absence of 4-amino

Correct answers with explanation 3. Carbamazepine is a tricyclic

anticonvulsant drug, it belongs to which
1. A (Desulfuration of 5-ethyl-5-phenyl class?
thiobarbituric acid will give you
A. Benzodiazepine derivative
primidone)
B. Azocine derivative
2. B (Cyclomethycaine is the local
anaesthetic with cycloalkyl ether instead C. Xanthene derivative
of 4-amino group)
D. Dibenzeazepine derivative
3. B (5,5 diethyl barbituric acid is the
name of barbitone)
4. Pentazocine is narcotic analgesic and
4. B (2,4,6 trioxo hexahydropyrimidine classified under the class?
is IUPAC name of barbituric acid)
A. Benzomorphans
5. B (barbituric acid is a condensation
B. Morphinans
product of diethyl malonate and urea)
C. Phenypiperidine
D. Azepine
1. Structurally Morphine & Heroin differ
from each other by?
A. Methyl group on oxygen
B. Acetyl group at C₁& C₆
SACHIN JADHAV
C. Absence of double bond between 5. The drug Naloxone......
C₄& C₆ A. Produces respiratory depression
D. Absence of D ring B. Produces morphine like activety
C. Induce constipation
2. Codeine differs in structure from D. Can reverse actions of morphine
morphine by?
A. N-methyl group
B. -Cl group
1. B (diacetylmorphine is known as
C. -OC₂H₅ group
heroin, diacetyl group is present at
D. -OCH₃ group position 3&6 in heroin)

2. D (-OCH3 group at position 3, present D -CCl₃

in codeine)
3. D (carbamazepine is dibenzazepine or
iminostilbene derivative) 4. The major metabolite of imipramine is
desipramine which differs in structure
4. A (benzomorphan derivative and from parent compound by?
partial agonist antagonist)
A. -OH group
5. D (it is a Morphine antagonist it can
reverse the action of morphine) B. –N-methyl group
C. -CH₂-CH₂ group
D. N-(CH3)2 group
1. Naloxone is.....of morphine?
A. Agonist
5. 7-chloro-2-methyl amino -5-phenyl-
B. Antagonist
3H-1,4 Benzodiazetine-4-oxides is
C. Mixed agonist & antagonist IUPAC name of?
D. All of the above A. Diazepam

B. Nitrazepam
2. Promazine differ structurally from C. Clonazepam

chlorpromazine in lacking substitution -
D. Chlordiazepoxide
Cl at position....
A. 1
B. 2 Correct answers with explanation
C. 3 1. B (naloxone, naltrexone,
nalomorphine are aantagonist of the
D. 4 morphine so they are used in Morphine
poisoning as specific antidote for
Morphine)
3. Structurally triflupromazine is similar 2. B (chlorpromazine and promethazine
to chlorpromazine but in place of chloro difference in the structure by presence of
group,it has.... chlorine at C2, promazine does not
contain chlorine at the position)
A. F
3. C (triflupromazine consist of CF3
B. F₃
head position C8, where as
C. CF₃ chlorpromazine does not florine in
structure)
4. B (imipramine has dimethylamino i.e

-N-[CH3]2 where has desipramine has
only -N-[CH3] group)
5. D (only chlordiazepoxide has oxide in SACHIN JADHAV
structure from family of
benzodiazepines)
4. Which antidepressant drug has

1. Fluoxetine is indicated in treatment of benzazepine skeleton in structure?
which disease?
A. Imipramine
A. Epilepsy
B. Amitryptyline
B. Depression
C. Doxepin
C. Intermediate activity
D. Chlorpromazine
D. Mania
5. Amantidine drugs used in Parkinson

2. Drugs belonging to the acts as?
Azaspirodecanedione class are primarily
A. Dopamine agonist
used in treatment of?
B. Dopamine releaser
A. Depression
C. Dopamine antagonist
B. Anxiety
D. Dopamine replacent
C. Psychosis
D. Addiction withdrawal
3. What is the effect of saturation of 4,5 1. B (Fluoxetine is selective serotonin

double bond in 1,4 benzodiazepine? reuptake inhibitor used as a
antidepressant)
A. Reduced activity
2. B (azaspirodecanedione are sedative
B. Potent activity hypnotic drugs used in treatment of
anxiety disorders)
C. Intermediate activity
3. A (shifting of double bond from
D. No activity position 4-5 to 3-4 position decreases the
activity)

4. A (imipramine is antidepressant drug D. Acetyl choline

with benzazepine skeleton)
5. B (amantadine originally developed as
antiviral drug but it also releases 4. Atropine is racemic mixture, it's
dopamine from dopaminergic neurones laevorotatory part is known as?
so helpful in in treatment of Parkinson
A. Hyoscine
disease)
B. Hyoscyamine
C. Tropine
1. Hydrolysis of acetylcholine in the
body is due to presence of which D. Psuedotropine
enzyme?
A. Acetylase
5. Atropine is a racemine mixture with
B. Cholinase equal parts of?
C. Acetyl cholinesterase A. + & - hyosine
D. Transferase B. + & - hyoscyamine
C. Tropine & tropic acid

2. Which is a source of pilocarpine? D. + & -scopine
A. Areea catechu Correct answers with explanation
B. Atropa belladonna 1. C (acetylcholinesterase metabolizes
acetylcholine)
C. Phyllanthus niruri
2. D (pilocarpine is obtained from
D. Pilocarpus microphyllus
Pilocarpus microphyllus)
3. C (muscarin, naturally occurring

3. Which one of these is pure alkaloid in mushroom is pure muscarinic
muscarinic agonist? agonist but clinically useless)
A. Arecoline 4. B (laevorotatory part of atropine is l-

hyoscyamine)
B. Pilocarpine
5. B (atropine is racemic mixture of (+ -
C. Muscarine )hyoscyamine )

B. Naproxen
1. 2- Amino pyridine & 2-dimethyl C. Diclofenac

amino ethyl chloride are starting
material for the synthesis of? D. Paracetamol
A. Mepyramine
B. Diphenhydramine 5. The heterocyclic ring indole is present

in?
C. Chlorrpheniramine
A. Diclofenac
D. Pheniramine
B. Flurbipropan
C. Sulinade
2. Diphenhydramine antihistamine
classified under class of? D. Indomethacin
A. Ethylenediamine
B. Amino alkyl ethers Correct answers with explanation
C. Alkyl amine 1. C
D. Phenothizine 2. B (diphenhydramine is classified

under other alkyl amine ethers or
ethanolamine class)
3. p-chloro benzyl nitrile is starting 3. C (p-chlorobenzyl nitrile is starting

material for the synthesis of? material for synthesis of
chlorpheniramine)
A. Pheniramine
4. B (Ibuprofen, flurbiprofen, ketoprofen
B. Mepyramine and naproxen are aryl propinic acid
C. Chloropheniramine derivative)
D. Diphenhydramine 5. D (indole is present in Indomethacin

structure)
4. Which drug belongs to aryl propionic

acid class?
A. Indomethacin SACHIN JADHAV

B. Naphthalene
C. Anthracene
1. Pyrazolidine 3,5 dion ring system is D. Pyridine

present in which drug?
A. Phenylbutazone
5. Chemically Ibuprofen is?
B. Sulfinpyrazone
A. RS (-4 butyl phenyl)propionic acid
C. Oxyphenbutazone
B. RS-2-(4-iso butyl phenyl) acetic acid
D. All of the above
C. RS-2-(4-butyl phenyl) propionic acid
D. RS-(4-butyl phenyl) acetic acid

2. The active metabolite of
phenylbutazone is?
A. Sulfinpyrazone Correct answers with explanation
B. Oxyphenbutazone 1. D (all of them consist of pyrazolidone

3,5 diome ring system)
C. Phenazone
2. B (oxyphenbutazone (active) and
D. Azapropazone gammahydroxyphenylbutazone
metabolite of phenylbutazone)
3. B (diclofenac and aceclofenac are aryl

3. Diclofenac is classified under? acetic acid derivative)
A. Aryl propionate acid derivative 4. B (naphthalene nucleus is present in
B. Aryl acetic acid derivative the naproxen structure)
C. Pyrazolone derivative 5. C (RS-2-(4-butyl phenyl) propionic

acid is ibuprofen)
D. Para amino phenol derivative
1. Propananol is condensation product

4. Which aromatic nucleus is present in of?
naproxen structure?
A. α-napthol & epichlorohydrin
A. Benzene
B. β-napthol & chloropropanol
C. Phenol & epichlorohydrin 5. Chemically prazocin is classified

under?
D. Chloronapthol & propanol
A. Pyridylquinazolines
B. Piperazinylquinoxaline
2. Which antihypertensive drug has
similar structure as that of diuretic agent C. Pyridylquinoxaline
chlorthiazide?
D. Piperazinylquinazoline
A. Minoxidil
B. Diazoxide
C. Guanethedine
1. A (propranolol is condensation
D. Propanol product of alpha naphthol
epichlorohydrin)
2. B (diazoxide and chlorothiazide has

3. Angiotensin converting enzyme similar structures)
inhibitor drug is?
3. A (captopril, enapril, ramipril,
A. Captopril lisinopril are examples of angiotensin
B. Verapamil converting enzyme )
C. Atenolol 4. B (Enaprilate is active metabolite of in

Enapril)
D. Reserpine
5. D (Prazocin is Piperazinylquinazoline
derivative)
4. Enalaprilate, a dicarboxilic acid is

active metabolite of prodrug?
1. Condensation of N-m-hydroxy
A. Lisinopril phenyl–p-tolyl glycine with ethylene
diamine gives?
B. Enalapril
A. Tolazoline
C. Catopril
B. Phentolamine
D. Enaloxin
C. Prazosin
D. Phenoxy benzamine

B. Fruosemide
2. Which of the following drug has 1,3, C. Bumetanide

4 thiadiazole ring system
D. Acetozolamide
A. Acetazolamide
B. Dichlorophenamide
C. Furosemide
1. D (N-m-hydroxy phenyl–p-tolyl
D. Spiranolactone glycine with ethylene diamine gives
phenoxybenzamine)
2. A (acetazolamide consist of 1, 3, 4
3. Which diuretic has similar structure to thidiazol ring in structure)
Diazoxide, an antihypertensive drug?
3. A (chlorothiazide and dizoxide has
A. Chlorthiazide similar basic ring)
B. Acetazolamide 4. D (Ethacrynic acid is a loop diuretic)
C. Furosemide 5. B (Furosmide consists of furan ring in
D. Ethacrynic acid its structure)
1. Commercially testosterone can be

synthesized from?
4. Ethacrynic acid is classified under?
A. Mexogenin
A. Loop diuretic
B. Sarsapogenin
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Halotensin
C. Antiarrhythmic
D. Ouabagenin
D. Diuretic
2. Commercially progesterone can be

5. Which high ceiling diuretics contain synthesized from?
furan ring in its structure?
A. Stigmasterol
A. Ethacrynic acid
B. Sarsapogenin
C. Progenin 1. D (Diosgenin, oubagenin after

degradation are used as a precursor
D. Estradiol percentage of steroid hormone)
2. B (like above)
3. Oppenauer oxidation of sigmasterol 3. C (conversion of secondary alcohol to
will result in? ketone is openeur oxidation)
A. Cholesterol 4. B (antiparasitic acts by binding to the
B. Pregnenolone DNA prevents the transcription and
translation)
C. Stigmastadienone
5. C (Di-idohydroxyquinoline
D. Stigmolone derivatives are antiprotozoal, used to
treat amoebic dysentery)
4. Mepacrine is an acridine derivative &

it is useful as? 1. Which ring is present in
sulfamethoxazole?
A. Antiseptic
A. Pyrazole
B. Antimalarial
B. Thiazole
C. Antipyretic
C. Isoxazole
D. Antifungal
D. Oxazole
5. Di-iodohydroxyquinoline is used as?

2. Erythromycin belongs to class of?
A. Antimalarial
A. β-lactam
B. Antifungal
B. Macrolide
C. Antiprotzoal
C. Peptide
D. Antiseptic
D. Aminoglycoside

3. Tetracyclines underos epimerization 3. A (when tetracyclines are exposed to

at C-4 between pH-4-8 to give..... dilute acids epimerization of C4 takes
place resulting into epitetracyclines, and
A. Epitetracycline dehydration at C1, C3 resulting anhydro
B. Isotetracyclines tetracyclines)
C. Nor tetracycline 4. B (cycloserine is home menu acid

serine)
D. Doxycycline
5. B (p-nitro acetophenone is starting
material for synthesis of
chloramphenicol)
4. Which one is derived from amino
acid?
A. Isoniazid 1. Which one is β-lactam antibiotic?
B. Cycloserine A. Cephalosporin
C. Penicillin B. Gentamyein
D. Streptomycin C. Cycloserine
D. Chloramphenicol
5. Chloramphenicol can be synthesized

conveniently from?
2. In cephalosporins lactam ring is fused
A. p-nitro aniline with?
B. p-nitro acetophenone A. Thiazolidine system
C. p-nitro benzoic acid B. 1,3 dihydrothiazine system
D. p-nitro phenol C. Thizine system
D. Dehydrothiazolidine system
1. C (as the name indicate isoxazole ring 3. Penicillin on hydrolysis with alkali
is present in sulfamethoxazole) gives.....
2. B (Erythromycin, azithromycin, A. Penicilloic acid

clarithromycin macrolide antibiotics)

B. Penaldic acid hydrolysis by penicilln G acylase give 6-

aminopenicillanic acid, hydrolysis by ß
C. Pencillic acid lactamase give peniciloic acid)
D. Penicillamine 4. C (clavulanic acid is beta lactamase
inhibitor)
4. Which of the following is a β- 5. C (it is antiviral drug and used

lactamase inhibitor? topically. Treatment of herpes simplex)
A. Chloraphenicol
1. 2-bis (2-chloroethyl) amino perhydro
B. Cefadroxil
1-3, 2 oxazaphosphorinane is an?
C. Clavulonic acid A. Alkylating agent
D. Ampicillin B. Antimetabolite
C. Anti tuberculosis
5. Idoxuridine is used as? D. Antiarrhythimic
A. Antimalarial
B. Antifungal 2. Most of the clinically available

anticancer agents act as?
C. Antiviral
A. Cell growth inhibitor
D. Antiprotozoal B.
Stimu
lation
Correct answers with explanation of
natura
1. A (penicillins and cephalosporins beta l body
lactam antibiotics, bcz contain ß lactam defen
se
ring)
mech
2. B (1,3 dihydrothiazine ring is anism
combined with beta lactam ring in C.
cephalosporin, thiazole ring is combined Inhibi
with beta lactam ring in penicillins) tion
of
3. A (alkaline hydrolysis of penicillin cance
gives sodium salt of peniciloic acid,
r cell D. Penicillin
nutrie
nt
absor 5. The activity of which drug is
ption dependent upon p-phenyl-N-alkyl
piperidine moiety?
D.
Recep A. Phenobarbital
tor
site B. Meperidine
block
age of C. Imipramine
cance
r cell D. Chlorpromazine
secret
ions
3. Which functional groups is most 1. A (cyclophosphamide,

susceptible to hydrolysis? trophosphamine nitrogen mustard and
alkylating agent)
A. R-CO-R
B. R-COOR 2. A (anticancer drugs are cell growth
inhibitor because bhai interfering with
C DNA replication and protein synthesis
. inhibit the growth of cell)
R 3. C (ketone group is most susceptible
- for hydrolysis, ethers and eaters required
O base for hydrolysis)
-
R 4. C (Diazepam is benzodiazepine due to
D. R-COOH which synthetic)
5. B (basic skeleton is required for

activity in meperidine)
4. Which drug is not obtained from
natural source?
A. Atropine 1. Which antidepressant contains
B. Digitoxin Triazolopyridine ring in the structure?
C. Diazepam A. Phenelzine

B. Tranylcypromine B. Epinephrine
C. Mianserin C. Terbutalin
D. Trazodone D. Phenylephrine
2. Which drug is classified under 5. Opioid agent can be used in all

antimetabolites class? except?
A. 5- fluorouracil A. Anti tussives
B. Digoxin B. Analgesics
C. Zdoxuridine C. Anti-inflammatory
D. Aspirin D. Antidiarrhoeals
3. Which enzyme activates the prodrug Correct answers with explanation

sulfasalazine?
1. D (trazodone consists of
A. Pseudocholinestease Triazolopyridine and piperazine in
structure)
B. Azoreductase
2. A (5 fluorouracil is antimetabolite, it
C. Methyl transferase is pyrimidine antagonist, methotrexate is
D. Glucuronyltransferase folate antagonist, 6 mercaptopurine is
purine antagonist The other example of
antimetabolites )
3. B (sulfasalazine is breakdown by
Under common creative copyright @ azoreductase enzyme in intestine to, 5
SACHIN JADHAV aminosalicylic acid and sulfapyridine)
4. B (epinephrine or adrenaline is a drug

of choice in anaphylactic shock in a dose
4. Which drug is, agent of choice of of 0.3-0.5 mg repeated every 3 minutes)
anaphylactic reactions?
5. C (opioid analgesic are used as
A. Clonidine analgesic, antidiarrheal, antispasmodic

and antitussive but not as anti 4. Oxazepam, a psychoneurotic has

inflammatory) lower chances of side effects & reduced
toxicity due to
A. Aromatic hydroxylation
B. Ring oxidation
SACHIN JADHAV C. Conjugation of 3-OH group
D. N-demethylation
1. The alkyl substituted in an alkene
causes?
A. Bathochromic shift
5. Desipramine is metabolized in liver
B. Hypsochromic shift
mainly by
C. Hyperchromic shift
A. N-oxidation
D. Hypochromic shift
B. Hydroxylation
C. Both of the above
2. Which type of shft is shown by
D. None of these
auxochrome?
A. Red
B. Blue Correct answers with explanation
C. Hyperchromic 1. A ( it shifts absorption Maxima

towards longer wavelength that is
D. Hypsochromic bathochromic shift)
2. A (auxochrome causeshifting of
absorption Maxima towards the longer
3. Chlorprothixene is an antipsychotic wavelength that is known as red shift or
classified as? bathochromic sift)
A. Thioxanthene 3. A (chlorprothixene is classified under
thiothixene and are atypical
B. Phenethizine antipsychotics)
C. Xanthene 4. C (Conjugation of 3-OH group, direct
D. Benzodiazepine phase II metabolism, no face first
metabolism)

5. B (hydroxylation by CYP2D6, 4. The wave length of particular

subsequent glucuronide conjugation) radiation absorbed can be
expressed in the form of?
1. Octadecyl silane chemically bonded to A. Frequency

porous silica is used as a supporting
material in? B. Energy
C. Kcal/mole
A. HPLC
D. All of the above
B. GC
C. TLC
5. Less than 200 nm region in uv is
D. Ion Exchange Chromatography
called?
A. Ultraviolet region
2. Which transition of molecule is
B. Vacuum region
sensitive to hydrogen bonding?
C. IR Region
A. σ-σ*
D. Quartz region
B. π-π*
C. n-σ*
6. Incident radiation of
D. n-π*
spectrophotometer is dispersed by?
A. Grating
3. The transition with transmission
B. Slit
coefficient 104 are usually....
C. Prism
A. Allowed Transition
D. Metal plate
B. Forbidden Transition
C. Both of the above Correct answers with explanation
D. None of these 1. A (ODS chemically bonded silica is

used as a stationary phase in HPLC)
2. B (these transitions are affected
hydrogen bonding)
3. B (transition coefficient of 104 are
forbidden transitions)

4. A 4. Which drug from the options is not

assayed by HPLC?
5. B (below 200 nm is vacuum UV
region) A. Gentamycin sulphate
6. A (grating is used to distribute B. Ciprofloxacine
incident beam of light)
C. Cisplastin
D. Doxurubicine HCl
1. Soap chromatography is specially is
useful for separation of?
5. Which binder is used commonly in
A. Amino acids thin layer chromatography?
B. Proteins A. CaCO3
C. Glycosides B. Ca- bisulphate
D. Alcohols C. CaSO4
D. Ca(OH)2
2. Synthetic ion exchange resin have
widely been used for?
A. Water softening
1. A (soap chromatography (TLC) is
B. Water deionization used for identification of amino acids)
C. Ion seperation 2. D (synthetic ion exchange resin are
D. All of the above used for softening of hard water,
deionization of water and ion exchange)
3. D (dissociation constant is applicable
3. Dissociation or ionization constant for acid, base and little compound)
(Pka) is related to?
4. A (gentamicin sulphate is assaed
A. Acid microbial method)
B. Base 5. C (calcium sulphate is commonly

used as binder)
C. Neutral
D. All of the above
1. Stahl’s applicator is used to form
A. Solid layer

B. Loose layers
C. Packed layers 5. In paper chromatography the

separation of the components takes place
D. All of the above due to
A. Potential Difference
2. Ineart carrier gas used in gas B. Refractive index
chromatography?
C. Partition Coefficient
A. H2
B. CO2/O2
C. N2/He
1. D (Stahl's applicator is used for
D. Sulphur coating the glass plate in biochemical
analysis for TLC)
2. C (nitrogen and helium is inert gases
3. Sampling cell for gaseous sample in used as carrier gas in gas
case of IR spectroscopy is made up off? chromatography)
A. KBR 3. D (gaseous sampling cell consist of

cylinder with sodium chloride window)
B. KCl
4. B (magnesium carbonate from options
C. NaBr more maximum adsorption power and
sucrose has least adsorption power)
D. NaCl
5. C (separation takes place due to
partition in stationary and mobile phase)
4. Which adsorbent used as adsorbent in

column chromatography has maximum
1. Which electromagnetic radiation has
adsorptive power
lowest energy?
A. Sucrose
A. X rays
B. Magnesium carbonate
B. Gamma rays
C. Calcium oxide
C. Microwave
D. Calcium sulphate
D. Radiowave

B. Corasil
2. Which reagent is used to detect amino C. Pellosil

acids in TLC?
D. All of the above
A. CuSO4
B. Ninhydrin
C. Iodine
1. D (gamma rays will have highest
D. KMNO4 energy and highest frequency, radio
waves with lowest frequency and lowest
energy)
3. Which electronic transition require the 2. B (ninhydrin test on the basis of
maximum energy? detection of amino acids in TLC)
A. π-π* 3. B (σ-σ* transition will require highest
B. σ-σ* energy as compared to other transitions
because excitation of bonding to
C. n-π* antibonding sigma electrons)
D. n-σ* 4. B (helium has highest thermal

conductivity among the options,
hydrogen has highest thermal
4. Which career gas used in gas conductivity)
chromatography, has got a higher
5. D (all are examples of pellicular
thermal conductivity value?
porous columns)
A. N2
B. He
1. Which form is required to file a patent
C. Argon in India?
D. Carbon A. Form 1 and 2
B. Form 3 and 5
5. Which substance is pellicular support C. Form 18

used in HPLC?
D. All of the above
A. Zipax

B. Acetonitrile
2. Which act is related with C. Hexane of sulfonic acid

bioequivalence of drug products?
D. Acetic acid
A. Drug price competition and patent
term restoration act
B. Hatch-Waxman act Correct answers with explanation
C. Drug price control act 1. D (form 1: application for grant of

patent, form 2: provisional / complete
D. None of the above specification, form 3: statement
undertaking under section 8, form 5:
declaration of inventorship, form 18:
3. Which is main application of UV request for examination of patent
spectroscopy? application)
A. Conjugated system detection 2. B (Hatch waxman act 1984 for

abbreviated new drug delivery or generic
B. Isolated systems equivalent no need to study
safety,efficacy and tolerability because it
C. Functional group detection
is already established and it is
D. Molecular mass determination bioequivalent)
3. A (detection of conjugation or
unsaturation isme application of UV
4. Where international patent is filed? spectroscopy)
A. Patent co-operation council 4. B (patent cooperation treaty, assist the
production of patent worldwide in 148
B. Patent co-operation treaty
countries)
C. United states patent office
5. C (butane, hexane, heptane, octane
D. None of the above salt of sulfonic acid is used as ion-pair
reagent in iron exchange
chromatography)
5. Which main component of mobile
phase for Ion exchange
chromatography? 1. What is aim of Phase IV of clinical
trials?
A. Dimethyl sulfoxide

A. Post marketing survey C. Electrochemiluminescence
B. Safety and efficacy D. Phosphorescence
C. Micro dosing
D. Bioequivalence study 5. Which radiation source is applicable

for both UV and Visible spectroscopy?
A. Deuterium discharge lamp
B. Tungsten halogen lamp

2. What is basic principle underlying the
FTIR? C. Xenon arc lamp
A. Polarisation D. Hydrogen discharge lamp
B. Diffraction Correct answers with explanation
C. Deflection 1. A (post marketing surveillance or

pharmacovigilance, determination of
D. Interference long term side effects)
2. D (interferometer or beam splitter is

3. The transition from excited state to used in FTIRthis is the difference
ground state is tearmed as? between dispersive IR and FTIR)
A. Excitation 3. C (process of excitation from ground

state to you excited state is known as
B. Absorption excitation and return of molecule from
excitation state to the ground is known
C. Relaxation
as relaxation)
D. Scattering
4. A (emission of light by molecule,
excited by means of chemical reaction is
known as chemiluminescence)
4. If emission result when excitation of
electrons by chemicals, the phenomenon 5. C. (xenon Arc lamp is used for both
is called as? UV and visible light source it has wide
range of wavelength emission)
A. Chemiluminescence
B. Photoluminescence

1. Identification of α β 4. Application for investigational new

drug application is filed before?
unsaturated carbonyl compound
is most conveniently done by? A. Preclinical study
B. Clinical trials
A. UV spectroscopy
C. Patent registration
B. IR Spectroscopy
D. Marketing
C. Polarography
D. Colorimetry
5. The mobile phase in column
chromatography acts as?
2. Nernst glower is radiation source in A. Solvent for sample

IR, it is made up of?
B. Developer and eluent
A. Tungesten
C. As Eluent only
B. Oxide of Zirconium
D. A & B
C. Silicon carbide
D. Nichrone
1. A (using Woodward fieser rule in UV
spectroscopy, due to unsaturation or
conjugation)
2. B (nearst glower is made up of

3. What is the duration of patent zirconium, yettrium, erbium oxides
protection as per Indian patents metal rod which is heated to 1500-
2000°c to emmitte IR radiations)
act?
3. B (patent is granted for the term of 20
A. 25 years years in India as per the Indian patent act
1970)
B. 20 years
4. B (after preclinical studies and before
C. 14 years clinical trials IND must be filed)
D. 17 years 5. D (mobile phase act as a solvent,
developing agent and eluent)

1. Which physical property of

enantiomers will not be the same? Under common creative copyright @
SACHIN JADHAV
A. Boiling point
B. Relative density 5. Cilastatin is combined with imipenem
C. Specific rotation becaus, it is?
D. Refractive index A. Hypolipidemic
B. Dihydropeptidase inhibitor
2. What is UV cutoff wavelength for C. Antibiotic
ethyl alcohol?
D. Calcium sensitizer
A. 180nm
B. 205nm
C. 230nm Correct answers with explanation
D. 260nm 1. C (enantiomerswill have same

physical properties except they can
rotate plane polarised light in opposite
3. Indian patent office is located at? direction)
A. Mumbai 2. B (methanol, ethanol, isopropyl

alcohol has UV cutoff at 205 nm)
B. Nagpur
C. Kanpur 3. A (Indian patent office is located at
four different zones Mumbai, Kolkata,
D. Bangalore Delhi, Chennai, sub office or branch at
nagpur)
4. When UV light falls on molecule it 4. D (after the absorption of UV

causes? radiation electronic excitation result in
molecule)
A. Excitation of bonds
5. B (cilastatin is dihydropeptidase
B. Excitation of nucleus
inhibitor, is combined with imipenem to
C. Excitation of molecule prevent metabolism)
D. Excitation of electrons

4. Which type of electronic transition is

present in pyridine?
Under common creative copyright @ A. π-π*

SACHIN JADHAV
B. σ-σ*
C. n-π*
1. Which of HPLC grade
D. n-σ*
solvent used for peptide and
protein analysis?
5. UV spectroscopy is also termed as
A. Dimethyl sulphoxide
A. Rotational spectroscopy
B. Dimethyl formamide B. Vibrational spectroscopy
C. Acetonitrile C. Electronic spectroscopy
D. All of the above D. All of the above
2. Which detector offers the highest

sensitivity in gas chromatography?
A. Electron Capture Detectors
B. Katherometer Correct answers with explanation
C. Flame Ionisation Detector 1. C (analysis is done by reverse phase
D. Argon Ionisation Detector chromatography using phosphate buffer
and acetonitrile)
2. A (electron capture device is sensitive

3. π type of electrons are present in detector halogens and nitro compound)
A. Saturated compound
3. B (unsaturated compound consists of
B. Unsaturated compound pi electrons)
C. Heteroatom 4. A ( π-π* transition due to

unsaturation)
5. C (UV Spectroscopy is known as
electronic spectroscopy, IR

Spectroscopy is known as vibrational 4. During chromatographic analysis,

spectroscopy) compound which is retained on
stationary phase is known as?
A. Polar compound
1. Which one is not bending vibration in
IR? B. Non polar compound
A. Stretching C. Zeolite
B. Twisting D. None of the above
C. Rocking
D. Torsional vibrations 5. Near ultraviolet region is?
A. 100-300nm
2. The diffraction grating used in B. 100-400 nm

spectroscopy works on which principle?
C. 200-400 nm
A. Interference
D. 200-350 nm
B. Scattering
C. Reinforcement
D. Dispersion
1. A (stretching vibration are 2 types
symmetrical and asymmetrical, bending
vibrations includes twisting, wagging,
3. Furosemide is assayed by which torsional vibrations)!
method?
2. B (diffraction gratings works on the
A. Redox titration principle of scattering)
B. Non aqueous titration 3. B (Furosemide is assayed using non
C. Complexometric titration aqueous titration using
dimethylformamide as a solvent titrated
D. Acid Base titration against NaOH using bromothymol blue
as indicator)

4. A (polar compound will be retained

on stationary phase in normal phase
chromatography) 4. The shift of an absorption maxima
towards higher wavelength is?
5. C (vacuum UV 100-200 near UV 200-
400 & visible 400-800 nm) A. Bathochromic Shift
B. Hyperchromic Shift
1. Nature of sample required for IR C. Hypsochromic Shift

spectroscopy is? D. Hypochromic Shift
A. Solids
B. Liquids 5. Most common detector for UV

C. Gases Spectrophotometer is?
D. All of the above A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Thermocouple
2. Quantative analysis in GLC are based C. Bolometer

on D. Littrow prisms
A. Time for peak
B. Peak Height Correct answers with explanation

D. Peak areas 1. D (all type of sample (solid, liquid,
C. B & C both gas) can be analysed by using IR)
2. D (retention time (Rt) and peak area

are used for quantitative estimation
3. Pressed disc technique for sample using gas liquid chromatography)
preparation in I.R involve the use of?
3. C (KBr or NaCl 1(sample):100 (salt)
A. Salt plates proportion is pressed into small palette,
also known as press cup plate technique)
B. Nujol
4. A (shifting of application Maxima
C. KBr towards the longer wavelength is known
D. None of the above as bathochromic shift aur red shift)

5. A (barrier cell layer, phototube and 4. Store in Cold Place means storage in
photomultiplier tube last one is most temperature range of?
sensitive and widely used)
A. 2° C
B. 10° C
1. Which drug class is prohibited to be
imported into India C. 8 °C
A. Misbranded D. 2-8° C
B Spurious
C. Adulterated 5. The license issued for the

manufacturing of cosmetics in?
D. All of the above
A. Form 30
B. Form 31
2. If drug consist in whole or in part of
any filthy, putrid or decomposed C. Form 32
substance; then it is considered as? D. Form 33
A. Misbranded drug
B. Spurious drug
C Adulterated drug
D. None of the above Correct answers with explanation
1. D (adult rated, MS branded and

3. Store in Cool Place, means storage in spurious drugs are are prohibited to be
temperature range of? imported in India)
A. 10-25° C 2. C ( If drug consist in whole or in part

of any filthy, putrid or decomposed
B. 2-8° C substance then it is misbranded drug)
C. 0-10° C 3. D(8-25°c is cool place as per

pharmacopoeia)
D. 8-25° C
4. D (2-8°c or temperature not exceeding
8°c is known as cold temperature)

5. C (form 32 d is the permit to issue 4. Standard for cosmetics is given in?

licence for manufacturing of cosmetics)
A. Schedule S
B. Schedule R
1. Which is an Ex-Officio member of the
DTAB? C. Schedule Q
A. The Drug controller of India D. Schedule U
B. President of the state pharmacy

council 5. Applications for the manufacturing of
C. President of the Joint state pharmacy large volume parentrals, sera and
council vaccines should made in
D. None of the above A. Form 27A
B. Form 27B
2. Which form is for the approval of C. Form 27D

drug testing institutions? D. Form 27C
A. Form 36
B. Form 35 Correct answers with explanation

C. Form 34 1. A (drug controller of India, director
D. Form33 general of health services, president of
PCI and MCI, director of CDL are ex-
official member DTAB)
3. Conductivity of the purified water I.P. 2. A (form 36 is approval for testing

for the manufacturing of dosage should institution)
be
3. C (not less than 5 moh conductivity of
A. NMT 1 mhos purified water as per IP)
B. NLT 10 mhos 4. A (schedules S of drug and cosmetic

act prescribed standards for cosmetic)
C. NMT 5 mhos
5. B (form number 27 B application
D. NLT 100 mhos format for LVP parenterals and vaccine
Sera)

4. Which one of the following is natural

color permitted for the use in drugs
Under common creative copyright @ A. Annatto

SACHIN JADHAV
1. Which schedule is for the Life periods B. Caramel
of drugs as per the D & C Act 1940 and
C. Sudan III
rules 1945.
D. Carmoisine
A. Schedule P
5. Fluoride content in toothpaste should
B. Schedule T
not more than
C. Schedule P1
A. 10 ppm
D. Schedule D
B. 100 ppm
C. 5 ppm
2. Repacking licence can be issued in
D. 1000 ppm
with form.
A. Form 25B
B. Form 24B
1. A (schedule P is related with life
C. Form 25A
period of drug according to drug and
D. Form 24A cosmetic act)
2. A (repacking licence is given in the

form number 25B )
3. Which schedule is for the provisions
applicable to disinfectant fluids as per 3. A (standards of disinfectants is given
the D & C Act 1940 and rules 1945. in schedule Of D&C act)
A. Schedule O 4. A (annatto, turmeric resin, luetin,

saffron, beta carotene, colchinel extract
B. Schedule Q hard examples of natural colour)
C. Schedule K 5. D
D. Schedule U
1. Recent DPCO was passed in?

A. 1955 5. Natural precursor for Vitamin A is?
B. 1983 A. Xanthenes
C. 1995 B. Xanthophylls
D. 2013 C. Carotinoids
D. None of above
2. DPCO was previously included under
A. Pharmacy act
B. Industry act
C. Essential commodity act SACHIN JADHAV
D. Price control authority

3. Which of the following drug is
immunosupressant? 1. D (recently DPCO1995 has been
replaced by DPCO 2013)
A. Cyclophosphamide
2. C (previously it was under section 3
B. Penicillin
of essential commodity act, now it is
C. Piperacillin under the national essential drug list)
D. Dicloxacillin 3. A (cyclophosphamide is
immunosuppressant)
4. D (Rotofill by ily Lilly company 1200

4. Which capsule filling machine is most capsule per minute, zansai 70000
efficient? capsule par hour, mG2 1400 capsule per
minute)
A. Eliy lily type
5. B (carotinoids, example beta carotene
B. Zansi type
gives two molecule of vitamin a after the
C. Erweka metabolism in gut)
D. Both A and B

1. Which ring system is present in D. Polymyxin

vitamin A?
A. Beta ionine
5. Hirsutism is adverse effect of?
B. Pyridine
A. Phenytoin
C. Pyrrole
B. Carbamazepine
D. Imidazole
C. Chlorpromazine
D. Domeperidone
2. Which is bioprecursor for quinoline
alkaloids like quinine?
A. Secologanine Correct answers with explanation
B. Tryptophan 1. A (ß ionone ring with unsaturated

isoprenoid side chain, all trans is present
C. Tyrosine in vitamin A)
D. Phenylalanine 2. B (Quinoline alkaloids are synthesized

from L tryptophan)
3. A (potassium retention i.e.

3. Which one is adverse effect of ACE hypokalemia is one of these adverse
inhibitors? effect of ACE inhibitors?
A. K retention 4. A (cholestatic jaundice is the adverse
B. K loss effect of macrolide antibiotics)
C. Na retention 5. A ( hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia,

peripheral sensory neuropathy along
D. Na loss with other side effects of phenytoin)
4. Which antibiotic can cause jaundice? 1. Which receptors act as major target of
anti-psychotics?
A. Erythromycin
A. D1
B. Bleomycin
B. D2
C. Mitomycin

C. D3 5. Complete the sentence: Lower will be

the enthalpy....
D. D4
A. Lower the stability
B. Higher the stability

2. Activation of vitamin D occurs in
which organ? C. No effect on stability
A. Liver D. Higher the energy
B. Kidney
C. Gall bladder Correct answers with explanation
D. Pancreas 1. B (major antipsychotic drugs blocks

D2 receptors)
2. B (activation of vitamin D that is D2

3. Halphen's test is used to detect and calcitriol occurs in kidney)
presence of?
3. D (Halphen's test is used to detect
A. Bile acids cottonseed oil)
B. Stomach acid 4. A (all aromatic amino acid shows
C. Carbonic acid fluorescence but most intense is
tryptophan)
D. Cottonseed oil
5. B (higher the enthalpy lower the
stability and vice versa)
4. Which amino acid that shows

Flouroscence?
1. Psychometric chart gives information
A. Tryptophan about?
B. Phenyl alanine A. Temparature
C. Tyrosin B. Humidity
D. Histidine C. Solubility
D. Density

2. What is the Bloom strength of soft Correct answers with explanation

gelatin capsule?
1. A (psychometric chart gives
A. 200 gm information about dry bulb temperature
and wet bulb temperature)
B. 500 gm
2. A (Bloom strength of soft gelatin
C. 700 gm capsule is 150-200 gm)
D. 1 kg 3. D (except Carmine, other dyes are
3. Which dye is not obtained from obtained from petroleum product)
petroleum product? 4. A (azeotropic mixture having
A. Sunset yellow component of same boiling point which
cannot be separated by simple fractional
B. Tartrazine distillation they are formed by non ideal
solutions)
C. Amaranth
5. C (karaya gum is synonym of
D. Carmine
sterculia gum)
1. Which amino acid is, culture media

4. Azeotropic solution contains two or constituents?
more components with....
A. Alanine
A. Same melting point
B. Glycine
B. Same solubility
C. Tryptophan
C. Same freezing point
D. Glutamine
D. Same boiling point
2. Which hormone is responsible for cell

5. Karaya gum is synonym of? division?
A. Tragacanth A. Kinetin
B. Acacia B. Indole butyric acid
C. Sterculia C. Giberellic acid
D. Bentonite D. Ethylene

2. A (Kinetin is example of cytokinin

responsible for cell division of plant)
3. Which stain is used to detect lipid
granules? 3. B (Sudan black B is most sensitive to
fat, first sudan dye was sudan 3, then
A. Feulgen stain needs to be dissolved in organic
B. Sudan black solvents)
C. Iodine 4. A (reverse phase chromatography

polar solvents used and in normal phase
D. Methylene blue chromatography nonpolar solvent used)
5. A (product of hofmann rearrangement

for amide is aryl substituted mine)
4. For reverse phase chromatography
which type of solvent are used
A. Polar 1. Milk and calcium ion will reduce the

absorption of?
B. Nonpolar
A. Erythromycin
C. Both A& B
B. Streptomycin
D. Non of them
C. Tetracycline
D. Ampicilline
5. What is the product of the Hofmann
rearrangement of an amide?
A. Amine 2. Which drug is used as ophthalmic

solution to treat herpes keratitis?
B. Alcohol
A. Zalcitabine
C. N, N-dialkylamide
B. Trifluridine
D. Nitrile
C. Ritonavir
D. Stavudine
1. D (glutamine is essential amino acid

an important component of culture 3. Heparin is anticoagulant and it was
media) first time obtained from?

A. Sheep's lung 3. A (Heaparin was first time isolated

from sheep's liver, it is present in mast
B. Bog's kidney cell of liver lungs and intestinal mucosa.
C. Rabbit's heart Was discovered by McLean, Howell &
Holt named repairing in 1918)
D. Rat uterus
4. C (urokinase enzyme synthesized in
kidney of human can found in urine and
embryonic kidney cells acts by directly
4. Which one is fibrinolytic from the
converting plasmalogen to the plasmin,
options
given intravenously)
A. Plasmin
5. B (Morphine is drug of choice in colic
B. Renin pain)
C. Urokinase
D. Ptylin 1. The time interval between infection of

suspected person and the appearance of
signs and symptom of the disease is
called ?
5. Morphine is considered as drug of
choice in treatment of? A. Quarrentine
A. UTI B. Recovery period
B. Colic pain C. Incubation
C. Bronchial asthma D. Isolation period
D. Cardiac asthma
2. Hepatitis B can transmit by?

Correct answers with explanation A. Oral
1. C (tetracyclines forms complexes with B. Infected blood transfusion
calcium magnesium aluminium add
hinders the absorption of antibiotic) C. Faeco oral
2. B (Trifluridine and gancyclovir are D. Contaminated water

used topically for the treatment of herpes
keratitis of eyes, acyclovir is a drug of
choice)
3. Mode of transmission for typhoid 3. C (typhoid fever is transmitted by

fever is feaco oral (mostly), urine oral route
(rerely)
A. Intravenous
4. C (corynebacterium diphtheriae is the
B. Oro faceal causative agent mainly spread by
C. Respiratory airborne droplets, contaminated personal
items, contaminated household items)
D. Droplet
5. B (7-14 days is the incubation period
4. Diphtheria is caused because of.. before the rash of measle)
A. Mycobacteria
B. Streptococcus
C. Coryne Bacterium diphtheria SACHIN JADHAV
D. Staphylococcus
1. Pertusis is transmitted through?

5. What is icubation period of measles?
A. Vector transmission
A. 1-7 days
B. Through contaminated water
B. 7-14 days
C. Droplet infection
C. 14-21 days
D. Faecoaral
D. 21-28 days
2. What is evaluation time of Mountox

test?
1. C (time interval between infection and
A. 24 to 48 hrs
first sign and symptoms is known as
incubation period) B. 48 to72 hrs
2. B (hepatitis B gets transmitted by C. 10 to12 hrs
infected blood transfusion, organ
transplantation, mother to child, child to D. 2 to 4 hrs
child, body fluids pricing tattoo, and
sharing of infected needles)
.3. Oral polio vaccine is also known as? 2. B (the reaction should be evaluated at
48-72 hours after injection and only in
A. BCG duration which is hard, dense, rised
B. TAB formation is measured)
C. Salk 3. D (oral polio vaccine is Sabine

vaccine containing live attenuated virus,
D. Sabin where and salk vaccine is containing
killed virus given by IM or SC)
4. A (chloromycin is non standard drug

4. Which drug is not a standard drug for
used for the treatment of TB)
treatment of TB?
5. A (DPT vaccine consist of diphtheria
A. Chloromycin
tetanus toxoid, and killed pertussis
B. Streptomycin smooth strain 1)
C. Isoniazid
D. Para aminosalicylic acid
5. Which vaccine is termed as triple

antigen?
A. DPT
B. BCG
C. TAB
D. ECG
1. C (pertussis bacteria is transmitted by

droplet infection, cooking, sneezing,
rubbing of your hands on eyes, nose and
mouth)

THANK YOU BEST LUCK
SACHIN R JADHAV
Copyright@ Fundamental Pharmacy
M. Pharm 2013 (Pharmacognosy & Phytochemistry)
Govt. College of Pharmacy, Amravati
Gpat/Niper qualified 3 times
Contact: 9766654377, 7020960396
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 Subjects wise tests series for Gpat, Niper, DI, Pharmacist
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2020

MCQs for GPAT,

1. Epidemiology deals with study of a 4. Which among the options have

B. Epidemic disease B. Cimetidine

C. Communicable disease C. Memantine

D. Non-communicable disease D. Indomethacin

2. Proteins is highly present in a 5. Insulin can be described perfectly by

A. Cereals A. A glycoprotein with a molecular

3. Which solution will be most irritating D. A catecholamine

2. C (eggs are richest source of protein)

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3. A (Eyes can tolarete 0.5-2% NaCl, so D. All of the above

4. D (indomethacin is non steroidal anti

5. B (insulin hormone consist of 21 B. Fats

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Correct answer with explanation ketone is ………….and addition

2. A (Malaria is transmitted by female B. α-substituted acetate; 1,2 fashion

4. A (Glosiasis is the most common,

A. Auditory cortex 4. Acridine and xanthene rings are

2. The product of a Michael reaction of a C. Xanthene is nitrogen isoster of

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D. Xanthene is sulfur isoster os acridine 3. C (exactly 71. 94 is the surface

B. The number of solute particles is 1. Property exploited by

D. Sum of the corresponding properties B. Electrical charge

Correct answer with explanation

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3. Curcmninoids are active constituents 1. B

B. Turmeric 3. B (curcuminoids are the active

5. A (yeast is a type of fungus and it is

D. Ischemia B. Absorption and distribution of drugs

C. Mechanisms of drug action

5. Yeasts are classified under a group of D. Drug interactions

B. Fungi 2. Pharmacodynamics involves the study

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C. Distribution of drugs in the organism

D. Excretion of drug from the organism

3. Pharmacodynamics gives the ...

D. Information about excretion of a drug C. Measure of inhibiting potency of a

D. Measure of bioavailability of a drug

4. Find the correct statement that will

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4. C (receptors are macromolecules A. Patents

A. IgE A. Membrane filter

B. IgG B. Seitz filter

D. Macrophages D. HEPA filters.

2. As per GMP guidelines the permitted 5. Following herb is considered as a

A. 100 ppm A. Ginseng

D. 0.1 ppm D. Cinchona.

3. Which one of the following is not a Correct answers with explanation

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1. A (type I hypersensitivity reaction is

3. C (patents, trademarks, industrial C. Rheomalaxis

4. Which from the options is causative

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1. Chemical impurities may be present in

A. -20°c B. Operative error

B. 2-8 °c C. Chemical error

C. 8-10°c D. None of the above