Workshop Theory and Practice

Engr. Jay Pee A. Maalihan

Engr. John M. Mame

INTRODUCTION TO WORKSHOP PRACTICE, SAFETY, CARE AND
PRECAUTION IN WORKSHOP

Bench work is work carried out at a bench in a laboratory or workshop. It provides the
basic working knowledge of the production and properties of different materials used
in the industry. It also explains the use of different tools, equipment, machinery
and techniques of manufacturing, which ultimately facilitate shaping of these materials
into various usable forms.

PROCESSES

1. Primary shaping processes - Some of these finish the product to its usable form
whereas others do not, and it requires further working to finish the component to the
desired shape and size.

2. Machining processes - Large number of components need further processing after

primary processes known as secondary operation to obtain desired shape and
dimensional accuracy.

3. Joining processes - These processes are used for joining metal parts and in
general fabrication work.

4. Surface finishing processes - These processes should not be misunderstood as

metal removing processes in any case as they are primarily intended to provide a
good surface finish or a decorative and/or protective coating on to the metal surface,
although a very negligible amount of metal removal or addition may take place.

5. Processes effecting change in properties. - These processes are employed to

impart certain specific properties to the metal parts to make them suitable for certain
operations. Most physical properties like hardening, softening and grain refinement
etc., call for a certain heat treatment.
 2
SAFETY AND ACCIDENT

Accidents

The common causes which lead to accidents are the following:

1. Unsafe working position.

2. Improper or defective tools or their improper use.
3. Improper acts- which result in violation of safety rules and non-observance of
safety precautions.

General Safety in Bench Work

1. Good housekeeping means working tidily and orderly.

2. Always keep working areas unobstructed; when using a machine, keep an

unobstructed space (2-2.5 m2) around the machine.

3. Also maintain floors, walkways, staircase and gangways, ensuring they are skid
free (leak free) and clear obstructions.

4. Store materials in such a way that they cannot become tripping hazards.
Immediately return all excess material to its proper storage place.

5. Put tools away when not in use. This prevents loss of tools and makes them
available to others.

6. Place all scrap in scrap containers.

7. Stop work 10 minutes prior to the time you need to leave the shop. This will
provide ample time to clean and replace tools to their homes.

8. KEEP THE SHOP CLEAN AT ALL TIMES. It is all our responsibility to keep the
shop clean. There is no excuse for a cluttered or messy workspace. If your
 workspace is cluttered, then you are working too fast. Slow down. Know this:
you will not anger someone if you clean up after them. In fact, they will likely do
the same for you.

3
The common methods of protection against accidents are the following:

1. Safety by position.
2. Safety by construction.
3. Safety by using interlock guards.
4. Safety by using fixed guards.
5. Safety by using automatic guards.
6. Safety by using distance guards.

Care of Hand Tools

1. Storing Hand Tools

2. Cleaning
3. Sharpening
4. Lubrication
5. Stick-To-Manual
 4
LAYING OUT AND LAY-OUT TOOLS

LAY-OUT TOOLS
Scriber - is a layout tool that is used to
produce these fine and accurate lines. The
point is made of hardened steel and is kept
chain by honing on an oilstone.
Trammel - can be made to scribe larger
distances with the use of extension rods. This
layout tool is set in the same manner as the
divider.

Divider - when laying out circles, arcs, and

Hermaphrodite Caliper - is a tool used to
radii, it is best to use the divider. The legs of
layout lines that are parallel with the edges of
the divider must be of the same length and
the work piece.
be kept sharp. The divider cart be used to lay
out and measure distances.
 Figure 3. Trammel

Surface Plate - provides a true and smooth,

plane surface. It is used in conjunction with
surface and height gauges as a level base on
which the gauges and the work piece are
placed to obtain accurate measurements.
Figure 4. Hermaphrodite
Caliper

Figure 1. Scriber

Figure 5. Surface Plate

Figure 2. Divider

Vernier Height Gauge - is a caliper with a special foot block to adapt it

for use on a surface plate.

Figure 6. Vernier Height Gauge

Surface Gauge - is used for many purposes but is most often used for
layout work. The gauge can be used to scribe layout lines at any given
distance parallel to the work surface.
 Figure 7. Surface Gauge

Bevel Protractor - consists of an adjustable blade with a graduated

dial.

• Center Head
• Blade
Combination Square Set - is used for a number
of layout operations. The set consists of a
blade (graduated ruler), square head,
protractor, and center head.

Parts: Figure 8. Bevel Protractor

Figure 9. Combination Square Set
• Square Head
• Protractor Head

6
PROCEDURE IN LAYING-OUT

1.) Study the shop drawing or blueprint carefully before you cut off the stock.
Allow enough material to square the ends if required.
2.) Remove all oil and grease from the work surface and apply layout dye.

3.) Locate and scribe a reference or base line. All the

other
measurements should be made from this. If the
workpiece already has one true edge, it can be
used in
 place of the reference line.
Figure 10. Scribe the reference lines

Figure 11. Scribe center lines for all circular,

4.) Using the base line as a reference line, locate

and scribe all center lines for each circle, radius,
or arc. Mark the points where the center lines
intersect using a sharp prick punch. arcs and radii

5.) Scribe all circles, radii, and arcs using the

divider or trammel.
Figure 12. Scribe in all
circles, arcs and radii

6.) Using the correct type protractor, locate and

scribe all straight and angular lines.
Figure 13. Locate and
scribe in all straight and rectangular lines

8.) All layout lines should be clean, sharp, and

fine. Reapply layout dye to all messy, wide, or
7.) Scribe all lines for internal openings. incorrect lines and re-scribe.
 Figure 14. Connect
all internal openings

Figure 15. Completed

Product
 8
HAMMER AND VISE

Framing Hammer - also called a Rip Hammer, it

HAMMER is a modified type of claw hammer. The claw is
Claw Hammer - most common type of hammer. straight instead of curved.
The head is smooth for clean finishing work. Framing Hammer are best for:
The claw is curved, allowing the hammer to
rock when removing nails. • Framing

Claw hammers are best for: • Splitting

• Woodworking • Small Demolition

• Prying

• Finishing
Ball Peen Hammer - was originally designed for
peening that is, shaping metal materials by
hammering. One end of the head is ball-shaped
for this purpose. The other end is flat and is
used for driving.

Ball Peen are best for:

• Metalworking Figure 17. Framing hammer

• Rounding edges

• Punching and riveting

Figure 18. Ball peen

hammer

Figure 16. Claw hammer

• Hanging drywall
Dry Wall Hammer - types of hammers are
lightweight hammers with a rounded head on • Drywall demolition
one end. This helps with preventing • Plaster
imperfections in the drywall. The other end is
hatchet-shaped, for cutting boards.
Brick Hammer - is used in all kinds of masonry
Dry Wall are best for:
work. The chisel end is for clean breaking of
brick and stone while the blunt end is also for
breaking stone or concrete, though less neatly.

Brick Hammer are best for:

• Bricklaying

• Demolition of hard materials

• General masonry

Figure 20. Brick hammer

Tack Hammer - are designed for driving small,
delicate nails. These hammers may also be
called upholstery hammers and were made for
attaching fabrics to furniture.

Tack Hammer are best for:

• Upholstery

• Precision

• Lightweight hammering
Figure 21. Tack hammer
• Setting tacks

Figure 19. Dry Wall hammer

10
 • Welding
Rubber Mallet - is a block on a handle, which is
• Removing slag
usually used for driving chisels. The head on a
rubber mallet is made of rubber. These types of • Chipping
hammers deliver softer impact than hammers
with metal heads.

Sledgehammer - are a large hammer with a

metal, mallet-like head. These types of
Figure 21. Rubber mallet
hammers deliver a mighty blow, designed for
breaking stone and demolition work.

Sledgehammer are best for:

• Breaking stone

• Driving stakes Figure 22.

Sledgehammer
• Demolition

Dead Blow Hammer - is a type of mallet

designed to strike surfaces with great force.
They deliver a no-bounce hit—that is, they
don’t rebound after striking.

Dead Blow Hammer are best for: Figure 23. Dead blow
hammer
• Automotive

• Setting joints

• Dent removal

Welder's Hammer - is made of a barrel spring,

which is designed to interrupt the flow of heat
through the handle, keeping the welder’s hand
safe from the high temperatures.

Welder's Hammer are best for:

 Figure 24. Welder's hammer

11
VISE

A vise, a common mechanical device that is used to hold a workpiece stationary, is an

integral tool in many woodworking, metalworking, and other manufacturing
applications.

Figure 25. Vise

Types of vise:

Fixed - a vise with a fixed base attaches straight to the

workbench as it supports stability.

Figure 26. Fixed vise

Swivel - can be rotated so that the position of the vice can be
altered to suit activities.

Figure 27. Swivel vise

Vacuum - this base work by holding onto the surface of a work

piece by sucking.

Figure 28. Vacuum vise

12

Clamp - clamps or attaches a wide size range

of metal materials due to its strength and
ability to withstand pressure.

Pipe Vise - is a type of vice that deals with

holding a pipe or tube securely so that it can
be cut or threaded
Engineer’s Vise - it is typically
heavy-weighted with a thick metal body. It
works by clamping large objects for security
during projects.

Chain Pipe Vise - style is made with a

Multipurpose Vise - it is equipped with
integrated pipe jaws and a swivel base for
holding a variety of objects/materials.
high-tensile steel chain that tends to attach a
work piece by fastening it to the bench to
provide a secured activity. It typically holds
loops over irregularly shaped objects.
 Figure 29. Clamp vise
Figure 32. Pipe vise

Figure 30. Engineer's vise

Figure 33. Chain pipe vise

Figure 31. Multipurpose

vise
13

Hinged/Yoked Pipe Vise - tends to hold onto

pipes between a pair of V-shaped jaws having
a fixed bottom and movable top parts. The vise
has a hardened steel physical property for
clamping properly.
Mini Hand Vise - it is like a smaller version of
the hand vise. Due to its design, it is deemed
ideal for performing smaller holding tasks.

Handheld Vise - tends to undergo fastening

onto a bench vice in order to hold objects
Rotary Vise - has the ability to rotate around the
locked down. Relatively, it operates much
same axis with that of the hook’s shank. This
lighter on work pieces compared to many other
feature allows its user to tie down material and
vises.
rotate the hook to apply the work piece.
 Figure 36. Mini hand vise
Figure 34. Yoked pipe vise

Figure 35. Handheld vise Figure 37. Rotary vise

14
SCREWDRIVERS, PLIERS AND WRENCHES

SCREWDRIVER

Slotted Screwdriver - used to drive or fasten

negative slotted screws
Jeweler's Screwdriver Set - is a set of small
screw drivers composed of slotted and Philipps
screwdrivers.

Phillips Screwdriver - used to drive or fasten

positive slotted crews. it is a screwdriver that
could take greater torque and could provide
tighter fastening. Figure 38. Slotted
screwdriver

Figure 39. Phillips

screwdriver

Figure 10. Jeweler's set

PLIERS
Slip Joint Pliers - these types of pliers feature
an adjustable pivot point that allows the two
pieces of the plier to shift, extending the range
of the jaws. Slip joint pliers can grip materials of
varying thickness
Best use in:
• Bending and holding
15
• Crimping metal
• Looping wire
• Cutting wire and soft nails
Tounge-and-groove pliers - tongue-and-groove
pliers operate on the same principles as the
slip joints so much so that they’re probably
actually a subset of that category rather than an
entirely separate one.

Locking Pliers - work well for clamping down on

things, especially during those times when
having both hands free is helpful. Figure 12. Tounge-and-groove

Linesman’s pliers - aka electrician’s pliers, side

pliers Figure 13. Locking
cutting pliers, or Kleins – hinge at a set pivot pliers
point. The jaws have the flat front with shallow
serrations for gripping flat objects, and which
also allow electricians to twist wires together.

Figure 14. Lineman's pliers

Figure 11. Slip joint pliers

16

Cutting Pliers - are a staple in electrical tool bags.

The cutting knives extend to the tips and give Wire Strippers - it will usually include wire cutting
you the ability to accurately snip wires that are in blades to cut the same wire gauges as the
a crowded gang box or even cut small nails and strippers’ holes cover along with a crimping tip.
screws.
Needle Nose Pliers - will have a longer jaw that
tapers down to a point. These types of pliers
work well for more delicate tasks or jobs that
need to be done in smaller spaces. Bending
wires, holding fittings, placing fasteners, and
even cutting, needle nose pliers do a lot of work
that a more heavy-duty plier might not excel at.
Figure 15. Cutting pliers
Figure 16. Wire strippers

Fencing Pliers - the hammer shape really is for

hammering staples into wooden fencing. Moving
across to the top, you can grab a staple with the
pincers at the top to remove it in case it’s easier Figure 17. Needle nose
pliers
than getting the spike on the opposite side to do
the job.

Figure 18. Fencing

pliers

17
WRENCHES
• Tighten/loosen nuts and bolts
Adjustable Wrench - it is a wrench similar to an
• Moveable lower jaw to adjust wrench size
open end wrench but having one fixed jaw and
one adjustable jaw • Works with both standards and metric fasteners.
Adjustable Wrench are used for:
 wrench

Combination Wrench - a wrench with one open

end and one socket end

Combination Wrench are used for:

• Tighten/loosen nuts and bolts

• Metric and standard sizes

Figure 20. Combination
• One open end and one box end (usually the wrench
same size)

Open-End Wrench - a wrench with jaws having

fixed width of opening at one or both ends of the
handle

Figure 21. Open-end wrench

Ratchet/Socket Wrench - is a type of wrenches

that has rachet on one side or even both side
that you can apply a nut or bolt and tighten and
Figure 22.
loosen without the Ratchet wrench
traditional wrench slip that may occur.

Figure 19. Adjustable

 18
Online References:

http://ecoursesonline.iasri.res.in/mod/page/view.php?id=98829

https://www.toolingu.com/class/280130/benchwork-and-layout-operations-241

https://www.charlottestories.com/how-to-care-for-hand-tools/

https://smithy.com/machining-handbook/chapter-1/page/3

https://www.toolingu.com/class/280130/benchwork-and-layout-operations-241

http://lwtcmachining.pbworks.com/w/page/39631225/Benchwork%20Operations

http://uhv.cheme.cmu.edu/procedures/machining/ch1.pdf

https://www.slideshare.net/futuremanagers/mechanical-technology-grade-12-chapter-3-
safety-in-the
workshop?fbclid=IwAR2gddYfIKyKudXCYRLlIlliqi0aBlNhe1gSYX33Bkthxo17WEkBj
0nU3to

https://apps.carleton.edu/machinesafety/rules/

https://www.safetyandhealthmagazine.com/articles/15187-bench-vise
safety#:~:text=Bench%20vise%20safety%20tips&text=Cover%20your%20face%20and
%20 eyes,long%20pieces%20away%20from%20interfering

https://smithy.com/machining-handbook/chapter-1/page/3

https://www.wisc
online.com/LearningContent/mtl3002/layoutPced.htm#:~:text=Laying%20out%20is%20
the%20planning,worker%20in%20completing%20the%20job

https://www.slideshare.net/ramiltuason/basichandtools-140619222426phpapp0

1 https://www.protoolreviews.com/buying-guides/buying-pliers/3904/

https://www.lowes.com/n/buying-guide/wrench-buying-guide

https://www.thomasnet.com/articles/machinery-tools-supplies/vises-guide/#register

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=eRfTZpEmnys
https://prezi.com/tk4mhbmr6zow/hand-tools-presentation/

https://prezi.com/luqsckxtdjhk/hand-tools/

https://drillly.com/different-types-of-vise/

19
 HACKSAW

• is a metal-framed saw used for cutting hard materials (such as plastic, metal and
others)

• is designed so new blades can be installed easily

Variants:

1. Mini Hacksaw - light and compact models designed for

cutting in particularly confined spaces and accessing hard
to-reach areas.

Figure 1. Mini hacksaw

2. Junior hacksaws - smaller variant used when space is

limited, or more precise cutting is required.

Figure 2. Junior hacksaw

3. Power hacksaw (or electric hacksaw) - a type of

hacksaw
that is powered either by its own electric motor or
connected to a stationary engine.

Figure 3. Power hacksaw

4. Senior hacksaw - full-sized hacksaws. Large, versatile

tools that are straightforward to operate and will make
 short work of tougher materials

Figure 4. Senior hacksaw

20
PARTS OF A HACKSAW

Figure 5. Parts of a hacksaw

The typical hacksaw consists of a saw blade, tightened by pins and wing nut,
supported by a frame fitted with a handle to give a firm grip.

Frame

1. Solid hacksaw frame - only one particular standard length of

blade can be used with this frame.

Figure 6. Solid frame

2. Adjustable hacksaw frame - different standard lengths of

blades can be fitted to this frame (the length of the frame can be
altered)
 Figure 7. Adjustable frame

21
Blade

• A hacksaw blade has a hole at each end that fits onto pegs on the frame.

It consists of different parts:

HACKSAW BLADE

The hacksaw blade has 2 main characteristics:

1. Teeth pitch - which is the number of teeth per

25 mm.

2. Blade length - which is the length between

the
centers of its pin holes.

• Standard hacksaw blade lengths

are 10 to 12 in (250 to 300 mm).
Figure 8. Hacksaw blade
Blades can be as small as 6 in
(150 mm).

What are Hacksaw Blades Made from?

 ● Hacksaw blades are typically made from high-speed steel (HSS), a tough,
abrasion-resistant variety of steel. HSS is widely used to make tools, cutting
blades and drill bits thanks to its strength, accuracy, and resistance to warpage
and breakage.

22
Why are Hacksaw Blades Made with Different-Sized Teeth?

● Different-sized teeth provide varying levels of cutting power. Large blades with
fewer teeth are better suited to tough materials, while smaller blades with a
greater number of teeth are designed for finer work.

Teeth

• are set so that the blade makes a cut wider than itself.

• The way teeth are positioned on a blade is called “set.”

• This helps to prevent the blade from jamming (becoming blocked) and provides for
good chip clearance when cutting the metal
 Figure 9. Teeth and its parts

23
TYPES OF TEETH

1. Raker

• Perfect for cutting into thick metals

• teeth are placed in sets of three

Figure 10. Raker set

2. Alternating

• work well on softer metals that don’t contain iron

 • teeth are lined up touching each other and alternating to the left and right.

Figure 11.
Alternate set
3. Wavy

• the right choice for hard, thin metals

• teeth are set in a wave pattern from left to right for a smooth, fine cut.

Figure
12. Wavy set

24
TEETH PITCH

• The classification depends on the number of teeth per 25 mm also known as

pitch

• The pitches of the hacksaw blades are divided

into 3 classes:

Figure 13. Teeth pitch

1. Coarse pitch blade

 • has 14 to 18 teeth / 25 mm

• used to cut thick and soft work pieces

2. Medium pitch blade

• has 18 to 24 teeth /25 mm

• used to cut medium hard steel and copper alloys

3. Fine pitch blade

• has 24 to 32 teeth /25 mm

and fine pitch blades.
• used to cut thin and hard work pieces
Figure 14. (Top to bottom) Coarse pitch, medium pitch

25
Number of Teeth
Name of Pitch
Thickness Class
Material Class used

per 25m (Pitch)

Class
used for
for

14 – 18 (14) Coarse Thick Soft steel, brass,

and bronze

18 – 24 (22) Medium Medium Steel of normal

hardness, harder
 light metals

24 – 32 (32) Fine Pitch Teeth Thin Harder steel, cast

iron

Table 1. Teeth standards and classification

CAUSES OF BREAKAGE

1. Fast Blunting

• If wrong teeth number is chosen

• If saw blade is not tightened properly.

Figure 15. Fast blunting

2. Teeth breaking

• Tooth pitch is too small while cutting thin

elements

• If material is not tightened well.

Figure 16. Teeth breaking

3. Breaking of saw blade

Figure 17. Breaking of
• Occurs when the cutting material is not
saw blade
tightened properly

26
4. Curved cutting

• Wrong fixing of blade in the frame. • Blade is

insufficiently tightened. MOUNTING OF HACKSAW BLADE 1. Select

your blade.
 cutting

Figure 18. Curved

Selecting a blade with the correct number of teeth depends on the thickness and
type of the material to be cut.

Hacksaw Blade Checklist:

• Select the correct pitch for the material you want to cut.

• Ensure that tehe blade has the correct tension

• Ensure that the blade is not twisted or discolored.

• Ensure that there are no broken or blunt teeth.

2. Place the blade

Secure the blade with the teeth facing forwards, if you want to cut on the push
stroke.

3. Position Properly

Keep the blade rigid and the frame properly aligned. The blade should be very
taut in the frame for efficient cutting.

4. Lock

Tighten the wing nut until the blade is definitely under tension. This helps make
straight cuts.

27
USING A HACKSAW

1. Hold the hacksaw properly at an angle of 30°

2. When cutting, move your body rather than just your arms.
3. Apply pressure only during the forward stroke (cutting stroke). 4.
Use the entire length of the blade in each cutting stroke.
5. Flat work pieces are to be sawn on their wide face.
6. When sawing metal sheets, the saw is to be positioned so that the cut in
pushing direction will be slightly upwards so that many teeth are cutting at
the same time.
7. Tubes are not to be sawn off in one pass because the teeth might hook at
the inner tube wall and break away.
8. Proceed with sawing until the inner tube wall is reached and then
constantly turn the tube in pushing direction while sawing until the tube is
sawn off
9. The weight of the body is resting on one leg while the other leg is always
straightened with both feet firmly on the ground.
10. The saw is moved with the arms and such movement may be slightly
supported by the upper part of the body.
11. When pushing the saw, force is pressed onto the work piece, pulling back
is without exerting any pressure.
12. Shortly before the work piece is sawn off, the pressure is to be released
so as to avoid the work piece to be pulled away by the saw which might
damage the saw blade.

HACKSAW SAFETY TIPS

• Always wear safety goggles while using a hacksaw

• Right-handed persons have to stand on the left of the vice so that the guiding
hand will not be pulled over

• Be sure that the hacksaw blade is properly tensioned

• Do not brush away chips with your hand; use a brush

• Never test the sharpness of a blade by running your fingers across its teeth.

• Keep the saw blades clean and use light machine oil on the blade to keep it
from overheating and breaking.
 28
FILE

• File, in hardware and metalworking, tool of hardened steel in the form of a bar or
rod with many small cutting edges raised on its longitudinal surfaces • A file is a tool
used to remove fine amounts of material from a work piece. • It is used for
smoothing or forming objects, especially of metal.

PARTS OF FILE
1. File Tang - is the part of the file that fits inside the
handle.

Figure 19. Tang

2. File Heel - is the part of the file closest to the tang where
the actual body of the file begins. No teeth are cut into
the heel.

Figure 20. Heel

3. File Face - is the term used to describe the wide, flat

area
of the file that usually does all of the work. It may also
be referred to as the belly, or the side.

4. File Edge - the thin surfaces between the

faces on a file are called edges.
 22. Edge

Figure 21. Face Figure

29
1.) File Name
5. File Point - the end of the file opposite to the
tang is called the point, or the toe.

Figure 23. Point

IMPORTANT CHARACTERISTICS OF FILES

• This will be the first thing that will give you a clue about what a file should be
used for, although it’s important to bear in mind that files may have multiple
uses.

2.) File Cross Section

• The cross section, or section, of a file is the shape it forms if you look at it
end on, with the point aimed at you and the tang pointing directly away
from you.

3.) File Profile

• The term ‘profile’ refers to whether or not a file tapers towards its point, or if its
edges remain parallel (referred to as ‘blunt’).
• The taper of a file can sometimes differentiate it from another type of file
that looks quite similar.

4.) File Cut

• The term ‘cut’ refers to the way a file’s teeth have been chiseled into its faces
and edges.
 5.) Coarseness
• This refers to how closely together the file’s teeth are cut. Teeth that are cut
close together are described as fine, and teeth that are more widely spaced
are referred to as coarse.

6.) Size
• The defining measurement for a file’s size is its length. Files tend to range
from 100mm (4″) at their smallest to 350mm (14″) at their longest.

30
KINDS OF FILE CUTS

1. Single Cut File - has rows of teeth cut in

one direction across its face.. It can cut chips
as wide as the cut of the file. Files with this
cut are useful for filing soft metals like brass,
aluminum, bronze and copper.

2. Double Cut File - has two rows of teeth cut

diagonal to each other. This removes stock
faster than the single cut file.

3. Rasp Cut File - has individual, sharp,

pointed teeth in a line, and is useful for filing
wood, leather and other softer materials.
4. Curved Cut File - have deeper cutting action
and are useful for filing soft materials like –
aluminum, tin, copper, and plastic.

Figure 26.
Rasp cut file

Figure 24.
Single cut file

Figure 27.
Curved cut file

Figure 25.
Double cut file

31
GRADES OF CUT
Files are graded according to the size and spacing of cutting teeth:

1. Rough File - is used for removing rapidly a larger quantity of metal. It is mostly
used for trimming the rough edges of soft metal castings.

2. Bastard File - Teeth of this file are comparatively smaller than those of the
rough file. It is used initially to shed metal (through filing) in large quantity.\
3. Second Cut File - is used to give a good finish on metals. It is excellent to file
hard metals. It is useful for bringing the jobs close to the finishing size.

4. Smooth File - is used to remove small quantity of material and to give a good
finish. This file makes the surface quite plain, in addition to making a job of
 accurate size through filing.

5. Dead Smooth File - is used to bring the material to accurate size with a high
degree of finish.

COMMON TYPES OF FILE

1. Hand File - its edges along the width are parallel throughout the length. The
faces are double cut. Useful for filling at right angles to a finished surface.

Figure 28. Hand file

3. Flat File - faces are double cut, and the edges single cut. These files are used for
general purpose work. They are useful for filing and finishing external and
internal surfaces.

Figure 29. Flat file

32
4. Half-Round File - it tapers slightly towards the point in both width and
thickness. Used for filing concave surfaces and internal corners.

Figure 30. Half-round file

5. Round File - tapers slightly towards the point. Used for enlarging holes and
internal corners.
 Figure 31. Round file

6. Square File - it tapers slightly towards the point. Used for rectangular slots,
square holes and internal corners.

Figure 32. Square file

33
6. Three Square File - it tapers slightly towards the point. It is triangular in
section. Used for filing into internal angles.

Figure 33. Three square file

 7. Knife Edge File - it is used for filing narrow grooves and angles above 10
degree.

Figure 34. Knife edge file

34
FILING TECHNIQUES
1. Cross Filing - also called straightforward filing, this technique involves pushing
the file across the edge of the material. It can be used finishing, shaping or
sharpening. This is also the most commonly filing technique.

Figure 35. Cross filing

 2. Draw Filing - this technique is a little more unusual and involves holding a file at
each and using it in a similar way to sandpaper. This technique is only used for
finishing and only with single-cut files.

Figure 36. Draw filing

3. Lathe Filing - is used to smooth and shape cylindrical pieces of material such as
wooden chair legs and etc.

Figure 37. Lathe filing

35
CHISEL

It is mainly hand-held tools design with an edge sharpened to cut through materials
including: wood, metal or even stone.

TYPES OF COLD CHISELS

1.) Flat Chisel - is the basic cold chisel, used in the cutting
of a variety of metals. The cutting edges of some flat
chisels may be somewhat rounded because otherwise,
the
corners may start to gouge the surface the chisel is
 being
used on.

Figure 38. Flat chisel

2.) Crosscut or Cape Chisel - is designed for those who
want to get into those tight areas. The design of the
tool
is such that the handle is thinner than the cutting
edge,
which narrows on two sides until it reaches a point.

Figure 39. Crosscut chisel

3.) Half-Round Chisel - is a type of chisel which has a

rounded shape, although the top of the tool is
actually
flat. It is designed to create grooves/channels with
rounded bottoms.

Figure 40. Half-round chisel

4.) Diamond Point Chisel - has a diamond shaped tip

and is used to create grooves with a “V” shape,
something which may be desirable in many
instances, including carving. It is also used in
corners
and in the moving of incorrect marks left by a center
punch.
Figure 41. Diamond point chisel

36
5.) Utility Chisel - some cold chisels may when trying to get into hard-to-reach areas.
also be found under the name “utility
chisel”. Some of these may simply be
longer versions of the tool with a wider
GRINDING CHISELS
cutting edge. Cold chisels may be used
 Chisel

Step 1: Prepare your tools:

Figure 42. Utility

• Plan to sharpen chisels before using. If the chisels are old or have uneven or
damaged bevels, it may be necessary to reshape them using a grinding wheel
before sharpening. Hold the bevel of the damaged chisel flat to the grinding wheel
to remove large gouges, dirt or rust.
• Get a sharpening stone. You'll need a stone with three levels - course, medium and
fine - to achieve the sharpest edge.
• Prepare the stone.

Two Main Types of Sharpening Stones

1. Water stones use water as a lubricant. They are soaked in water for several
minutes before use. This is the type of stone favored in Japan.
2. Oil stones are lubricated with petroleum-based oil before use.

Step 2: Honing (Refining)

• Start with the flat side.
• The flat side of a chisel should be as reflective as a mirror once it's properly
sharpened.
• Start by working it back and forth lengthwise over the course grit on your
stone.
• Use both hands to keep it steady as you slide it back and forth. • Your
movements should be smooth and steady, rather than jerky. • When the entire flat
surface shows the intricate scratches of the stone's course
grit, do the same thing with the medium grit, and again with the fine. •
Use the entire surface of the stone for a more even finish.
• Clean the blade and your hands between grits so the powder doesn't obscure
your view of the chisel's surface.
 37
Step 3: Finishes
• Add a micro bevel. In most cases it's fine to stop after honing, but if you want the
chisels to be even sharper, you can add a micro bevel.
• Strop the chisel.

HOW TO USE COLD CHISEL

• Always use a cold chisel that’s slightly wider than what you’re cutting. • Wet the
chisel’s edge with a drop of machine oil. That lubrication helps it slip through
hardened metal grains.
• Hold the chisel with your thumb and index finger, place the edge on the metal, and
strike it with a ball-peen hammer.
• Don’t use a claw hammer—the heads aren’t tempered for striking hard metal and
can chip.
• Once the metal is notched, you can usually snap it off.

SAFETY PRECAUTIONS

• Use the correct chisel for the job.

• Wear safety glasses, or goggles, or a face shield (with safety glasses or goggles).
Use the right size of chisel for the job.
• Choose smooth, rectangular handles that have no sharp edges and are attached
firmly to the chisel.
• Make sure that the cutting edge is sharp. Dull chisels can be difficult to control and
require more effort to do the job.
• When keeping the chisels on the work bench, always place them with the bevel
side up.
• Place chisels safely within the plastic protective caps to cover cutting edges when
not in use.
 38

Online References:

https://home.howstuffworks.com/hacksaw.html

https://home.howstuffworks.com/handsaws.html

https://slideplayer.com/slide/1702523/

https://www.slideserve.com/osborn/module-4-hacksaws

https://www.thespruce.com/how-to-use-a-hacksaw-1825102

https://mycountryacre.com/hacksaw-handles-blades-no-you-dont-know-how-to-use
one

https://blog.dakecorp.com/blog/16-common-saw-blade-failures-their
causes#:~:text=There%20are%20many%20common%20causes,blade%20failures%20
and% 20their%20causes.

http://www.nzdl.org/gsdlmod?e=d-00000-00---off-0cdl--00-0----0-10-0---0---0direct
10---4-------0-1l--11-en-50---20-about---00-0-1-00-0--4----0-0-11-10-0utfZz-8-
00&cl=CL2.13&d=HASH018de180da110ea2f6ba25ec.6&gt=1

https://www.ccohs.ca/oshanswers/safety_haz/hand_tools/handsaw.html

https://uk.rs-online.com/web/generalDisplay.html?id=ideas-and-advice/hacksaws
guide

https://www.wonkeedonkeetools.co.uk/files/what-are-the-basic-parts-of-a-file
https://www.wonkeedonkeetools.co.uk/files/what-are-the-important-characteristics
of-files
http://mytutorialworld.com/home/subjects/mechanical/manufacturing-process/hand
tools/file-tool/
http://wiki.dtonline.org/index.php/Chisels
https://www.wonkeedonkeetools.co.uk/files/what-are-the-different-filing-techniques
https://www.wonkeedonkeetools.co.uk/chisels/what-are-the-different-sizes-of
chisel#:~:text=Cold%20chisel%20sizes&text=16mm%20(5%2F8%20inch),25mm%20(1
%20 inch)
https://www.wonkeedonkeetools.co.uk/chisels/what-are-the-different-types-of-cold
chisel-tip
https://youtu.be/FDfVAHtLloQ

39
Test I

1. It deals only with the motion of 7. If the velocity of mass is the same all
bodies without reference to the the time during which motion takes
forces that cause them. place is called:

a) Kinetics a) Deceleration
b) Motion b) Uniform motion
c) Kinematics c) Acceleration
d) Acceleration d) None of these

2. Progressive change in position of a 8. Statement that a given body is in

body is called: static equilibrium means that the
body cannot
a) Acceleration
b) Motion a) have any type of motion
c) Force b) be acted upon by more than
d) Momentum one force
c) undergo any displacement
3. Cam in general maybe divided into d) have any type of
two classes; uniform motion and acceleration
_________motion cam.
9. It is a science of motion that can be
a) Reverse solved in terms of scalar or vector
b) gravity algebra.
c) decelerated
d) accelerated a) Kinematics
b) Curvilinear translation
4. Product of mass and linear velocity is c) Projectile
known as: d) Acceleration

a) Impulse 10. An object thrown upward will return

b) Linear momentum to earth the magnitude of the
c) Angular momentum terminal velocity equal to
d) Impact
a) zero
5. It is the motion of an object b) one-half the initial velocity
diminished/decreased speed. c) twice the initial velocity
d) initial velocity
a) Deceleration
b) Retarded motion 11. The follower reciprocates or
c) Negative impulse oscillates in a plane perpendicular to
d) All of these the axis of rotation of the cam.

6. It is a property of matter, which a) Radial cam

causes it to resist any change in its b) Cylindrical cam
motion or state of rest. c) Cam curves
d) Tangential cam
a) Brake
b) Friction 12. The follower reciprocates or
c) Inertia oscillates in a plane parallel to the
d) Impulse axis of rotation.
 a) cam curves a) circular cam
b) cylindrical cam b) cylindrical cam
c) tangential cam c) reciprocating cam
d) Radial cam d) tangential cam

13. A cone formed by elements, which are 19. Instantaneous center of rotation of a
perpendicular to the elements of the pitch link in a four bar mechanism lies on
cone at the large end.
a) a point obtained by
a) cone distance intersection of extending
b) back cone adjoining links
c) root cone b) left side pivot of this link
d) cone center c) right side pivot of this link
d) any of the choices above
14. The ability of moving body to
perform work is called: 20. A vector quantity that describes
both how fast it is moving and the
a) Internal energy direction in which it is heated.
b) potential energy
c) kinetic energy a) Acceleration
d) flow work b) Displacement
c) Motion
15. A slider crank chain is made up of d) Velocity

a) one turning and one sliding 21. Which of the following is the rate at
pair which the velocity is changing?
b) one turning and two sliding
pairs a) Acceleration
c) two turning and one sliding b) Linear
pair c) Motion
d) three turning and one sliding d) Vertical
pair
22. The direction of the ________ is
16. A scott-Russell mechanism is made toward the center of the circle in
up of which, the study moves.

a) rotating pair only a) Centripetal acc.

b) sliding and turning pairs b) Centrifugal acc.
c) turning and rotary pairs c) Radial cam
d) turning pair only d) Tangential

17. Ackerman steering gear is made up 23. It is a device that changes the
of magnitude, direction or mode of
application of a torque or force
a) rolling and sliding pairs while transmitting it for a particular
b) rolling pairs purpose.
c) sliding and rotary pairs a) Frame
d) turning pairs b) Machine
c) Mechanism
18. A cam where the follower d) Structure
reciprocates or oscillates in a plane
parallel to the axis of the cam is called: 24. The process of obtaining the
 resultant of any number of vectors. acceleration
b) crank has a uniform angular
a) Scalar quantity velocity
c) crank has a non uniform
b) Vector composition angular velocity
c) Vector quantity d) b and c above
d) Vector resolution
31. The cam angle is
25. It has magnitude, direction and
sense. a) the angle subtended by live
portion of cam at the cam’s
a) scalar quantity center
b) absolute quantity b) the angle of rotation of the cam
c) vector quantity for a definite displacement of
d) relative velocity the follower
c) the angle subtended at the
26. A plate, cylinder or other solid with a cam’s center by the portion of
surface of contact so designed as to cam during which the follower
caused or modify the motion of the moves
piece. d) the angle subtended by the
cam at the cam center when
a) Cam the follower dwells
b) Disc
c) Gear 32. The pitch point on a cam refers to
d) Pulley
a) any point on pitch curve
27. When acceleration is zero, the b) a point at a distance equal to
pitch circle radius from the
a) velocity is constant center
b) velocity is negative c) the point of cam pitch circle that
c) velocity is variable has the maximum pressure angle
d) velocity is zero d) none of the above

28. When the velocity is changing, the 33. For a kinematics chain to be
acceleration is considered as mechanism,

a) constant a) none of the links should be fixed b)

b) not constant one link should be fixed
c) variable c) there is no such criterion
d) zero d) two links should be fixed

29. Klein’s construction is used to

determine the

a) acceleration of various parts b) 34. Hart mechanism has how many

angular acceleration of various parts links?
c) displacement of various parts d)
velocity of various parts a) 4
b) 6
30. Klein’s construction can be used c) 8
when d) 12

a) crank has a uniform angular 35. Peaucellier mechanism has how

 many links? reciprocating engine mechanism

a) 4 a) enables determined of coriolis

b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
36. A cam with a roller follower would
constitute which type of pair?
a) close pair
b) higher pair
c) lower pair
d) open pair
37. Kinematics pairs are those pairs that
have
a) elements of pairs not held
together mechanically
b) point or line contact between
the elements when in motion
c) surface contact between the
two elements when in motion
d) two elements that allow
relative motion
38. A Pantograph is a mechanism
having
component
b) is a simplified form of
instantaneous center method
c) is based on acceleration
diagram
d) utilizes a quadrilateral similar to
the diagram of mechanism
for reciprocating engine
42. If a particle of a link has a velocity
that changes both in magnitude and
direction at any instant, then
a) it must have only
unidirectional acceleration
b) it must have two components of
acceleration e.g.,
centripetal and tangential
c) it must have three
components of acceleration
e.g., centripetal, centrifugal
and tangential
d) it must have three
components of acceleration
e.g., centripetal, centrifugal
and gravitational

a) higher pairs 43. Select the one that is the highest

b) lower pairs pair.
c) rolling pairs
d) spherical pairs a) Crosby indicator mechanism b)
Hart’s straight line
39. The number of links in a pantograph is mechanism
equal to c) Thomson indicator
mechanism
a) 3 d) Both gearing mechanism
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
44. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a
40. In elliptical trammels,
a) Cylindrical pair
a) all four pairs are turning b) higher pair
b) one pair turning and three c) lower pair
pairs sliding d) sliding pair
c) three pairs turning and one
pair sliding 45. The total number of instantaneous
d) two pairs and two pairs sliding center for a mechanism of N links is
equal to
41. The Klein’s method of construction for
 c) 2N(N-1)
a) 2N d) N(N-1)/2
b) (N-1)(N+1)
46. A kinematics chain needs a
minimum of

a) 2 links and 2 turning pairs

b) 3 links and 3 turning pairs
c) 3 links and 2 turning pairs
d) 4 links and 4 turning pairs

47. For kinematics chains formed by

lower pair the relation between the
number of joint J is given by
a) L = 2/3(J+2)
b) L = 3/2(J+2)
c) L = 2/3(L+2)
d) L = 3/2(L+2)

48. In case of an elliptical trammel,

a) one pair turns and two pairs

slide
b) two pairs and two pairs slide
c) three pairs turn and one pair
slides
d) all four pairs turn

49. Coriolis component of acceleration

is found in

a) four bar mechanism

b) mechanism of steam engine
c) higher pair
d) whitworth-quick-return
mechanism

50. It is one that is not appreciably

deformed by the action of any
external force or load.

a) rigid body
b) structure
c) Frame
d) Mechanism
TEST 2 c) web joint near the flange
d) outermost

1. At a given section of an I beam the 2. The resultant of two or more forces is a

maximum bending stress occurs at the
a) couple of forces
b) concurrent of forces
a) max. shear stress area
c) momentum
b) neutral axis
 d) resolution of forces
3. Two or more forces acting together, could
be replaced by a single force with same
effect in a mass called:
b) equal to half of the ultimate strength
c) equal to module of elasticity
d) equal to 80% of the elastic limit
9. Moment of inertia is also called:

a) couple of forces a) Modulus of elasticity b) Weep

b) resolution of forces strength
c) resultant c) Radius of gyration d) None of
d) concurrent of forces these

4. The frictional forces depends on 10. Defection of a beam is

coefficient of friction and
a) proportional to the modulus of
a) torque elasticity and moment of
b) weights of object inertia
c) normal of force b) proportional to the load imposed and
d) moment inversely to the length squared c)
inversely proportional to the modulus of
5. Shear modulus is also known as: elasticity and moment of inertia d)
inversely proportional to the weight
a) Shear elasticity imposed times the length
b) poisson’s ratio
c) modulus of elasticity 11. Continuous stretching under load even if
d) modulus of rigidity the stress is less than the yield point is called:

6. The maximum stress induced in a material a) Plasticity

when subjected to intermittent or repeated b) Elasticity
load without causing failure is called: c) Creep
d) Ductility
a) Ultimate stress
b) Endurance limit 12. It is opposite direction of parallel force.
c) Ultimate strength
d) Elastic limit a) concurrent
b) coplanar
7. Internal stress exerted by the fibers to resist
c) couple
the action of outside force is called:
d) non coplanar
13. The ratio of the moment of inertia of
the cross - section of the beam to the
section modulus is
a) Shearing stress
b) tensile stress a) equal to the radius of gyration
c) ultimate stress b) equal to the area of the cross
d) compressive stress section
c) measure of a distance
8. Alloy steel axle under repeated d) dependent on modulus of elasticity
load/stress will eventually fail if the of beam measure
load/stress is above the endurance for the
steel under consideration. The endurance 14. The differential of the shear equation is
limit of the steel is therefore which of the following:

a) equal to the allowable stress of the a) bending moment of the beam

module of elasticity
 d) tensile strength
b) tensile strength of the beam
c) slope of the elastic curve 21. Finding the resultant of two or more
d) load of the beam forces is called:

15. Could be defined as simply push a) co-planar

and pull is known as b) non-coplanar forces
c) Acceleration
a) work d) composition of forces
b) force
c) inertia 22. In general, the design stress and factor
d) power of safety are related as follows

16. The changes in shape or geometry of a) design stress = ultimate stress times
the body due to action of a force on it is factor of safety
called deformation or b) design stress = ultimate stress divided
by factor of safety
a) shearing stress c) factor of safety = design stress
b) stresses divided ultimate stress
c) compressive stress d) ultimate stress = factor of safety
d) strains divided by design stress

17. Ability to resist deformation under stress 23. Stresses that are independent to loads
is called: are known as:

a) plasticity a) Working stresses

b) all of these b) Operating stresses
c) stiffness c) residual stresses
d) toughness d) shear stresses

18. The property of a material that relates 24. The ratio of unit lateral deformation to
the lateral strain to longitudinal strain is unit longitudinal deformation is called: a)
called: poisson’s ratio
b) willan’s line
a) stress c) modulus of elasticity
b) strain d) deformation
c) poisson’s ratio
d) endurance limit 25. Separate forces, which can be so
19. The single force which produces the combined are called:
same effect upon a body as two or more
forces acting together is called: a) non-concurrent
b) couple
a) Resultant force c) combined forces
b) co-planar force d) concurrent forces
c) couple
d) non-coplanar force 26. Endurance strength is nearly proportional
to the ultimate strength but not with
20. The ability of metal to resist being
crushed is called a) yield strength
b) design stress
a) shearing strength c) shear stress
b) compressive stress d) all of these
c) torsional strength
27. The three moment equation may be a) torsion
used to analyze a b) strain
c) stress
a) tapered column d) shear
b) continuous beam
c) endurance limit 34. The total amount of permanent
d) tensile stress extension of the gage length measured
after specimen has fractured and is
28. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of expressed as percentage increase of the
original length.
a) shear strain to compressive strain
b) elastic limit to compressive strain a) elongation
c) lateral strain to longitudinal strain b) strain
d) elastic limit to proportional limit c) stress
d) elastic limit
29. The product of the resultant of all forces
acting on a body and the time that the 35. Strength of a material is that of a stress
resultant acts. intensity determined by considering the
maximum test load to act over the original
a) angular impulse area of the test specimens called
b) angular momentum
c) Linear impulse a) yield point
d) linear momentum b) ultimate strength
c) break strength
30. The system of forces and opposite d) elastic limit
collinear forces are added, which of the
following if any is true? 36. The maximum stress, which is reached
during a tension test is called
a) equilibrium is destroyed
b) equilibrium is maintained
a) stress
c) none of these is true b) elasticity
d) an unbalance of moment exist c) strain
d) tensile strength
31. What is the property of a material, which
resists forces acting to pull the material 37. Which of the following is the different of
apart? the shear equation?

a) shear strength a) bending moment

b) tensile strength b) load on the beam
c) torsional strength c) tensile strength of the beam
d) compressive strength d) slope of the beam

32. What is the metal characteristic to 38. The change in length per unit original
withstand forces that causes twisting? length

a) torsional strength a) strain

b) modulus of elasticity b) stress
c) twisting moment c) deformation
d) elasticity d) elastic modulus

33. The unit deformation is called 39. The ability of material or metal to resist
being crushed is to being deformed and is measured in terms
of applied load.
a) fatigue strength
b) bending strength a) strain
c) torsional strength b) elasticity
d) compressive strength c) stress
d) resilience
40. The ability of a metal to withstand forces
that causes a member to twist. 46. The maximum stress induced in a
material when subjected to alternating or
a) shear strength repeated
b) tensile strength loading without causing failure.
c) bearing strength
d) torsional strength a) Ultimate strength
b) yield strength
41. The ratio of stress to strain within the c) endurance strength
elastic limit is called d) rupture strength

a) creep 47. The maximum stress to which a material

b) modulus of rigidity may be subjected before failure occurs is
c) modulus of elasticity called:
d) poisson’s ratio
a) Rupture strength
42. The ability of metal to withstand loads b) ultimate strength
without breaking down is termed as c) Yield strength
d) proportional limit
a) strain
b) stress
c) elasticity 48. The total deformation measured in the
d) strength direction of the line of stress.
43. The last point at which a material may
be stretched a still return to its a) strain
underformed condition upon release of b) elasticity
the stress. c) elongation
d) contraction
a) rupture limit
b) elastic limit 49. The total resistance that a material offers
c) proportional limit to an applied load is called
d) ultimate limit
a) friction torque
44. The deformation that results from a stress b) stress
and is expressed in terms of the amount of c) rigidity
deformation per inch. d) compressive force
a) elongation
b) strain 50. The ability of metal to withstand forces
c) poisson’s ratio thus following a number of twist.
d) elasticity
a) shear strength
45. The internal resistance a material offers
b) bearing strength
c) endurance limit
d) deformation
TEST 3

1. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the
allowable stress.
a) proportionality constant
b) strain
c) Modulus
b) depends only on the finish condition pf the
surface
c) does not depend on the materials d)
depends on the composition of the materials
only
d) Factor of safety
2. In a cantilever beam with a
concentrated load at the free end, the
moment is
a) constant along the beam
b) maximum at the wall
c) ¼ maximum half way out on the
beam
d) maximum at the free end
3. The greatest unit pressure the soil can
continuously withstand.
a) yield point
b) bearing strength
c) ultimate strength
d) point of rupture
4. A specimen is subjected to a load. When
the load is removed the strain disappears.
From this information, which of the
following can be deducted about this
material?
a) It is elastic.
b) It has a modulus of elasticity.
c) it is plastic
d) it is ductile.
5. A cantilever beam having a uniformly
increasing load toward the fixed end
a) has uniform shear
b) has a reaction equal to the load
c) will have maximum bending
moment midway to the beam
d) has a reaction is not equal to the
load
6. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces
a) depends on the materials and the
finish condition of the surface
7. The maximum stress to which a
material may be subjected before failure
occurs.
a) rupture stress
b) yield stress
c) ultimate stress
d) allowable stress
8. The total resistance that a material
offers to an applied load.
a) flexure
b) stress
c) elasticity
d) rigidity
9. If the areas of cross-sections of square
and circular beams are the same and both
are put to equal bending moment then
the correct statement is
a) both the beams are equally
economical
b) both the beams are equally strong
c) the circular beam is more
economical
d) the square beam is more
economical
10. Ties are load carrying members
that carry
a) axial compressive loads
b) axial tension loads
c) prestressing thick cylinders
e) d)relieving thick cylinders
11. Auto frottage is the method of
a) calculating stresses in thick cylinders
b) increasing life of thick cylinders c)
 prestressing thick cylinders
d) relieving thick cylinders
12. Mohr’s circle can be used to
determine _________ on inclined surface.
a) principal stress
b) normal stress
c) tangential stress
d) all of the above
a) average load during the test /
average at the time of
fracture
b) average load during the test /
original cross-sectional area
c) maximum load during test / area at
the time of fracture
d) maximum load during test / original
cross-sectional area

13. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as 18. When a part is constrained to move
the ratio of and heated, it develops what kind of
stress?
a) linear stress to longitudinal
strain b) shear stress to shear a) compressive stress
strain b) principal stress
c) shear to strain c) shear stress
d) shear stress to volumetric strain d) tensile stress

14. The total strain energy stored in a body 19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear
is called as compared to in tension is nearly

a) resilience a) one-half
b) proof resilience b) one-third
c) modulus of resilience c) one-fourth
d) toughness d) the same

15. The elongation of a conical bar under 20. The intensity of stress that causes
its own weight is equal to unit strain is known as

a) one fourth that of a prismatic bar of a) bulk modulus

the same length b) modulus of elasticity
b) one-sixth that of a prismatic bar of the c) modulus of rigidity
same length d) unit stress
c) one third that of a prismatic bar of the
same length 21. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel,
d) that of a prismatic bar of the same as compared to its ultimate compressive
length stress will be
16. Which one is the incorrect
statement about true stress-strain a) less
method? b) more
c) more or less depending on the
e) it is more sensitive to changes in factors
mechanical conditions. d) same
f) There is no such phenomenon like
true stress or true strain. 22. The relation between modulus of
g) This method can be used for elasticity E and modulus of elasticity in
compression tests as well. shear G, bulk modulus of elasticity K and
h) True stress is load per unit area and Poisson’s ratio is given by
similarly true strain is determined
under actual conditions. a) E = Gu
17. The tensile stress of a material is given by b) E = G (u + 1)
 c) E = 2g(u+1) inversely proportional to the strain
d) E = 4G (1+2u)
29. The slenderness ratio of a column
23. When shear force is zero along a is generally defined as the ratio of its
section, the bending moment at that
section will be a) length to its minimum width
a) maximum b) unsupported length to its maximum
b) minimum radius of gyration
c) minimum or maximum c) length to its moment of inertia d)
d) zero unsupported length to its least radius of
gyration
24. The stress-strain curve for a glass
rod during tensile test is 30. The linear portion of the
stress-strain diagram of steel is known
a) an irregular as
b) a parabola
c) a sudden break a) modulus of elongation
d) a straight line b) plastic range
c) irreversible range
25. The ratio of average shear stress to d) elastic range
maximum shear stress for a circular section
is equal to 31. Principal stresses occur on those planes

a) 2 a) where the shearing stress is zero

b) 2/3 b) which are 45 degrees apart
c) 3/2 c) where the shearing stress is a
d) ¾ maximum
d) which are subjected only to tension
26. The ratio of bulk modulus for
Poisson’s ratio of 0.25 will be equal to 32. The ratio of the moment of inertia of
the cross-section of a beam to the section
a) 3/2 modulus is
b) 5/16
c) 1 a) equal to the radius of gyration
d) 2 b) equal to the area of the cross
section
27. The compression members tend c) a measure of distance
to buckle in the direction of d) multiplied by the bending moment
to determine the stress
a) axis of load
b) perpendicular to the axis of load 33. Structural steel elements subjected
c) minimum cross-section to torsion develop what kind of stress?

d) least radius of gyration a) bending stress

28. The stress in an elastic material is
a) inversely proportional to the
material’s yield strength
b) inversely proportional to the force
acting
c) proportional to the displacement of
the material acted upon by the force d)
b) compressive stress
c) shearing stress
d) tensile stress
34. The bending moment at a section of
a beam is derived from the
a) sum of the moments of all external
forces on one side of the section
 b) difference between the moments on and subject to a total load ω uniformly
one side of the section and the
opposite side
c) sum of the moments of all external
forces on both sides of the section d)
sum of the moments of all external
forces between supports
35. The stress concentration factor
a) is a ratio of the average stress on a
section to the allowable stress
b) can not be evaluated for brittle
materials
c) is the ratio of areas involved in a
sudden change of
cross-section
d) is the ratio of the maximum stress
produced in a cross section to the
average stress over the section
36. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the
a) unit lateral deformation to the unit
longitudinal deformation
b) unit stress to unit strain
c) elastic limit to proportional limit
d) shear strain to compressive
strain
37. Hooke’s law for an isotropic
homogeneous medium experiencing
one dimensional stress is known as
a) Stress = E (strain)
b) Strain = E (stress)
c) (Force)(Area) = E (change in
length/length)
d) strain energy = E (internal energy)
38. The modulus of rigidity of a steel
member is
a) a function of the length and depth
b) defined as the unit shear stress
divided by the unit shear deformation
c) equal to the modulus of elasticity
divided by one plus Poisson’s ratio d)
defined as the length divided by the
moment of inertia
39. The maximum bending moment of a
beam simply supported at both ends
distributed over its length L is expressed
by the formula
a) ω L/8
b) ω L2/8
c) ω L/2
d) ω L2/2
40. In a column (slenderness ratio > 160),
which of the following has the greatest
influence on its tendency to buckle under a
compressive load?
a) the modulus of elasticity of the
material
b) the compressive strength of the
material
c) the radius of gyration of the
column d) the length of the column
41. The area of the shear diagram of a
beam between any two points on the
beam is equal to the
a) change in shear between the two
points
b) total shear beyond the two points c)
average moment between the two
points
d) change in moment between the two
points
42. Poisson’s ratio is principally used in
a) the determination of capability of
material for being shaped
b) the determination of capacity of a
material for plastic deformation with
fracture
c) stress-strain relationships where
stresses are applied in more than
one direction
d) the determination of the endurance
limit
43. Modulus of resilience is
a) the same as the modulus of elasticity
b) a measure of a materials ability to
store strain energy
c) the reciprocal of the modulus of
 elasticity
d) a measure of the deflection of 49. Which of the following may be the
member Poisson ratio of a material?

44. Which of the following best describes a) 0.45

the 0.2% offset yield stress? b) 0.5
a) it is elastic limit after which a c) 0.55
measurable plastic strain has d) 0.60
occurred.
b) it is the stress at which the material 50. In pure torsion, the minimum torsional
plastically strains 0.2%. stress occurs at the
c) it is the stress at which the material
elastically strains 0.2% a) center
d) it is 0.2% below the fracture point of b) long side
the material. c) medium side
d) short side
45. Under very low deformation and at high
temperature it is possible to have some
plastic flow in a crystal at a shear stress lower
than the critical shear stress. What is this
phenomenon called?

a) Slip
b) Twinning
c) Creep
d) Shearing

46. In a stress-strain diagram what is the

correct term for the stress level at e = 0.20%
offset?

a) Elastic limit
b) Plastic limit
c) Offset rupture stress
d) Offset yield stress

47. Under which type of loading does

fatigue occur?

a) Static load
b) Plane
c) High load
d) Repeated load

48. A specimen is subjected to a load. When

the load is removed, the strain disappears.
From this information, which of the following
can be deduced about this material?
a) It is elastic.
b) It is plastic.
c) It is has a high modulus of elasticity.
d) It is ductile.
TEST 4
1. In a specification schedule is used when the
pipe specified as “schedule 80”, the pipe
corresponds to the
a) “ extra standard “ weight

b) allowable stress
2. The modulus of elasticity for ordinary steel
usually falls between ________ million pounds
per square inch.
c) internal pressure
d) “ old standard “ weight
8. It has been said that 80% of the failures of
machine parts have been due to

a) 26 to 28 a) compression
b) 28 to 31 b) fatigue failures
c) 20 to 45 c) negligence
d) 50 to 30 d) torsion

3. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of 9. Cazand quotes values for steel showing
Sn/Su ratios, often called endurance ratio,
a) accuracy from
b) quality
c) stiffness a) 0.23 to 0.65
d) rigidity b) 0.34 to 0.45
c) 0.34 to 0.87
4. The modulus of elasticity for most metals in d) 0.63 to 0.93
compression is usually taken as that in
10. The discontinuity or change of section,
a) tension such as scratches, holes, bends, or grooves
b) bearing is a
c) torsion
d) yield a) stress raiser
b) stress functioning
5. The ratio of moment and stress is called: c) stress raiser
d) stress relieving
a) Contraction
b) Proportional constant 11. The degree of stress concentration is
c) Section modulus usually indicated by the
d) Strain
a) power factor
6. For a symmetrical cross-section beam the b) stress concentration factor
flexural stress is _______ when the c) service factor
vertical shear is maximum. d) stress factor

a) infinity 12. In a part at uniform temperature and not

b) maximum acted upon by an external load, any
c) minimum internal stress that exists is called:
d) zero
a) Control stress
7. When tested in compression, ductile b) Form stress
materials usually exhibit c) Residual stress
________characteristics up to the yield d) Superposed stress
strength as they do when tested in tension
13. The stress or load induced by the
a) the same tightening operation.
b) less than
c) more than a) Initial stress
d) approximately the same b) Initial tension
c) Residual stress
 d) None of these
a) endurance strength / factor of safety
14. A type of failure due to instability is b) factor of safety / yield stress
known as c) yield stress / factor of safety
d) ultimate stress / factor of safety
a) Slenderness ratio
b) Buckingham 21. Under theories of failure, the value of
c) Buckling shear stress is ______ that of tensile stress.
d) Stability
a) equal
15. The ratio of the length of the column and b) double
the radius of gyration of the cross-sectional c) half
area about a centroidal axis is called d) three times

a) contact ratio 22. The theory of mechanics of materials

b) constant ratio shows that the results from the octahedral
c) power factor shear stress theory and those from the
d) slenderness ratio maximum distortion energy theory are
________.
16. Formula that applies to a very slender
column is called a) more than
b) less than
a) Column formula c) relevant
b) Euler’s formula d) the same
c) Moment formula
d) Slender formula 23. A kind of stress that is caused by forces
acting along or parallel to the area is called
17. If two principal stresses are zero, the
state stress is a) Bearing stress
b) Shearing stress
a) biaxial c) Tangential stress
b) monoaxial d) tensile stess
c) triaxial
d) uniaxial 24. Obtained by dividing the differential
load dF by the dA over which it acts.
18. If one principal stress is zero, the state
stress is a) Elasticity
b) Elongation
a) biaxial c) Strain
b) monoaxial d) Stress
c) triaxial
d) uniaxial 25. The highest ordinate in the stress – strain
19. If all the principal stresses have finite diagram or curve is called
values, the system is
a) elastic limit
a) biaxial b) rapture strength
b) monoaxial c) ultimate strength
c) triaxial d) yield point
d) uniaxial
26. A pair of forces equal in magnitude
20. Under theories of failure for static loading opposite in direction, and not in the same
of ductile material, the design stress is the line is called
 a) couple 33. The modulus of elasticity in shear is
b) momentum commonly called
c) parallel forces
d) torque a) Bulk modulus
b) deformation
27. Framework composed of members c) Modulus of rigidity
joined at their ends to form a rigid structure d) Young modulus
is known as :
34. The stress beyond which the material will
a) Joists not return to its original shape when
b) Machine unloaded, but will retain a permanent
c) Purlins deformation is termed as
d) Truss a) elastic limit
b) proportional limit
28. The ratio of the tensile stress to the tensile c) yield point
strain is called d) yield strength

a) Bulk modulus 35. Refers to the actual stress the material

b) Hooke’s law has when under load.
c) Shear modulus
d) Young modulus a) Allowable stress
b) Factor of safety
29. The ratio of the volume stress to the c) Ultimate strength
volume strain is called the coefficient of d) Working stress
volume elasticity or
36. The safe soil bearing pressure of diesel
a) bulk modulus engine is about
b) Hooke’s law
c) shear modulus a) 2000 kg per sq. cm
d) Young modulus b) 4600 kg per sq. cm
c) 4890 kg per sq. cm
30. The action of a force is characterized by d) 5633 kg per sq. cm

a) its magnitude 37. The machine foundation must have a

b) direction of its action factor of safety of
c) point of application
d) all of the above a) 3
b) 4
31. At highest or lowest point on the c) 5
moment diagram d) 6
a) shear is half, the maximum moment
b) shear is maximum 38. The load acts over a smaller area, and
c) shear is negative the ________ continues to increase unit
d) shear is zero failure.

32. The built-in or fixed support is capable of a) actual stress

supporting b) allowable stress
c) compressive stress
a) an axial load d) tensile stress
b) a traverse force
c) a bending moment 39. In the stress-strain diagram where there is
d) all of these a large increase in strain with little or no
 increase in stress is called mathematical determination of the
required size of the machine member.
a) Endurance strength
b) Ultimate strength a) Endurance stress
c) Rapture strength b) Design stress
d) Yield strength c) Maximum stress
d) Normal stress
40. A ________ member that carries loads
transverse to its axis. 46. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of cast
iron is in the range of
a) structure
b) column a) 0.30 to 0.33
c) beam b) 0.27 to 0.30
d) frame c) 0.25 to 0.27
41. Which type of load that is applied slowly d) 0.35 to 0.45
and is never removed? 47. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of steel is
in the range of
a) Uniform load
b) Static load a) 0.30 to 0.33
c) Equilibrium load b) 0.27 to 0.30
d) Impact load c) 0.25 to 0.27
d) 0.35 to 0.45
42. When varying loads are applied that are
not regular in their amplitude, the loading is 48. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of
called aluminum and titanium is in the range
of
a) Repeated loading
b) Random loading a) 0.25 to 0.27
c) Reversed loading b) 0.27 to 0.30
d) Fluctuating loading c) 0.30 to 0.33
d) 0.35 to 0.45
43. A measure of the relative safety of a
load-carrying component is termed as 49. The angle of inclination of the planes on
which the principal stresses act is called
a) design factor
b) load factor a) normal plane
b) principal plane
c) ratio factor c) tangential plane
d) demand factor d) traverse plane

44. The condition, which causes actual
stresses in machine members to be higher
than nominal values predicted by the
elementary direct and combined stress
equations.
a) Stress concentration factor
b) Stress factor
c) Design factor
d) Load factor
50. _________ provides a very accurate
prediction of failure of ductile materials
under static loads or completely reversed
normal, shear or combined stresses.
a) Shear stress theory
b) Normal stress theory
c) Distortion energy theory
d) Soderberg line theory

45. The stress value, which is used, in the

TEST 5
1. Torsional deflection is a
significant d) Head shaft
consideration in the design of shaft
and the
b) Jack shaft
limit should be in the range of ________ c) Main shaft
degrees/foot of length. 7. Which of the following shaft intermediate
between a line shaft and a driven shaft?
a) 0.004 to 0.006
b) 0.08 to 1 a) Counter shaft
c) 0.006 to 0.008 b) Jack shaft
d) 0.008 to 1 c) Head Shaft
d) All of the above
2. For a universal joint shaft angle should be
_________ degrees maximum and much less 8. Short shafts on machines are called
if in high rotational speed.
a) Core shafts
a) 12 b) Head shafts
b) 16 c) Medium shafts
c) 15 d) Spindles
d) 14
9. For shafts, the shear due to bending is a
3. It is a good design practice for steel line maximum at the neutral plane where the
shafting to consider a limit to the linear normal stress is
deflection of ________ inch/foot length
maximum. a) constant
b) maximum
a) 0.050 c) minimum
b) 0.010 d) zero
c) 0.020
d) 0.060 10. Criteria for the limiting torsional
deflection vary from 0.08 per foot of length
4. It is a rotating machine member that for machinery shafts to _______ per foot.
transmits power.
a) 1 °
a) Cam b) 2 °
b) Plate c) 3 °
c) Shaft d) 4 °
d) Flywheel
11. For transmission shafts the allowable
5. A stationary member carrying pulleys, deflection is one degree in a length of
wheels and etc. that transmit power is _________ diameters.
called:
a) 10
a) Axle b) 15
b) Propeller shaft c) 20
c) Turbine shaft d) 25
d) Machine shaft
12. An old rule of thumb for transmission
6. A line shaft is also known as shafting is that the deflection should not
exceed ____________ of length between
a) Counter shaft supports.
 d) the slenderness ratio is more than 32
a) 0.01 in. per foot 18. For a circular shaft subjected to
b) 0.02 in. per foot torque the value of shear stress
c) 0.03 in. per foot
d) 0.04 in. per foot a) is uniform throughout
b) has maximum value at the axis c)
13. In general for machinery shafts, the has maximum value at the surface d)
permissible deflection may be closer to is zero at the axis and linearly
a) 0.02 in/ft increases to a maximum value at the
b) 0.01 in/ft surface of the shaft
c) 0.002 in/ft
d) 0.030 in/ft 19. The compression members tend
to buckle in the direction of
14. The speed at which the center of mass
will equal the deflecting forces on the shaft a) axis of load
with its attached bodies will then vibrate b) perpendicular to the axis of load
violently, since the centrifugal force c) minimum cross-section
changes its direction as the shaft turns. d) least radius of gyration

a) Critical speed 20. A reinforced concrete beam is

b) Geometrical speed considered to be made up of
c) Mean speed
d) Unit speed a) clad material
b) composite material
15. For shaft, the minimum value of c) homogeneous material
numerical combined shock and fatigue d) heterogeneous material
factor to be applied in every case to the
computed bending moment is 21. The column splice is used for increasing

a) 1.0 a) strength of the column

b) 1.3 b) cross-sectional area of the
c) 1.5 column c) length of the column
d) 1.8 d) all of the above

16. It is suggested that the design factor on 22. A simply supported beam has a
the yield strength be about 1.5 for the uniformly distributed load on it, the bending
smooth load, about 2 to 2.25 for minor shock moment is
loads, and _________ when the loading
reverse during operation. a) triangle
b) parabola
a) 3.0 c) semi-circle
b) 4.0 d) rectangle
c) 3.5
d) 4.5 23. The power obtained by piston reaches
flywheel through the
17. A column is called short column when
a. countershaft
a) the length is more than 30 times the b. crank shaft
diameter
b) slenderness ratio is more than 120 c. transmission shaft
d. line shaft
c) the length is less than 8 times the
diameter 24. There are two types of crankshafts,
 namely
a) single piece and built up a) in. per foot of length
b) forged and turned b) 0.005 in. per foot of length
c) rotary and stationary c) in. per foot of length
d) none of these d) 0.05 in. per foot of length

25. Engine valves get open by means of 31. Front axle should be live and

a) cam shaft a) weak

b) rocker shaft b) dead
c) crank shaft c) strong
d) valve guard d) none of these

26. The value of allowable stresses which are 32. The steering is coupled to the two front
generally used in practice for main wheels by means of a
transmitting shafts is
a) connecting rod
a) 282 kg/cm2 b) tie rod
b) 423 kg/cm2 c) push rod
c) 599 kg/cm2 d) spindle
d) 620 kg/cm2
33. In the overdrive transmission system the
rotation speed of ________ rest higher than
27. The value of allowable stresses which are
that of engine’s speed.
generally used in practice for line shafts
carrying pulleys is
a) main shaft
2 b) crank shaft
a) 150 kg/cm
c) propeller shaft
b) 282 kg/cm2
d) machine shaft
c) 423 kg/cm2
d) 550 kg/cm2 34. A slip joint ________ the length of
propeller shaft.
28. The value of allowable stresses which are
generally used in practice for small, short a) increases
shafts, countershafts is b) decreases
c) keeps appropriate
a) 282 kg/cm2 d) none of these
b) 599 kg/cm2
c) 650 kg/cm2 35. The transmission system incorporates
d) 750 kg/cm2 clutch, gear box, and propeller shaft and

29. Torsional deformation in transmission a) brake

shafts should be limited to _______ in 20 b) differential
diameters. c) steering
d) main shafting
a) 1 °
b) 2 °
36. The lay shaft moves ________ the primary
c) 3 ° shaft.
d) 4 °
a) equal to
30. Lateral deflection caused by bending b) more than
should not exceed c) less than
 d) in the gear ratio d) 20000 to 50000 rpm

37. The main shaft is lifted ________ the lay 44. Which of the following material is used
shaft. for shafting?
a) AISI 3240
a) before b) AISI 3150
b) after c) AISI 4063
c) parallel to d) AISI 33000
d) adjacent to
45. The process of redistributing the mass
38. In the top gear, the rotational speeds of attached to a rotating body in order to
_________ remain the same reduce
vibrations arising from a centrifugal force.
a) primary and lay shafts
b) main and lay shafts a) Shaft coupling
c) primary and main shafts b) Shaft balancing
d) secondary and main shafts c) Shaft hooper
d) stator balancing
39. The primary and lay shafts rotate in
_________ direction. 46. In many cases the _________ of the shaft
is an import design feature.
a) in the same
b) different a) deflections
c) reverse b) rigidity
d) none of the above c) size
d) strength
40. It is an integral part of a machine.
47. Commercial shafting is made of
a) Spindle
b) Axle a) low carbon steel
c) Counter shaft b) cast iron
d) Machine shaft c) brass
d) bronze
41. Stresses in shafts are analyzed through
48. What is the most common material for
a) torsional shafting?
b) bending
c) axial a) Wrought iron
d) all of these b) Cast iron
c) Mild steel
42. What is the standard stock length? d) Aluminum

a) 16 ft
b) 20 ft
c) 24 ft 49. Cold drawing produces a ________ shaft
d) all of the above that hot rolling, but with higher residual
43. Centrifugal separators that operate at stresses.
speeds ________ also employ these flexible
shafts. a) weaker
b) stronger
a) 1000 to 3000 rpm c) harder
b) 5000 to 10000 rpm d) none of the above
c) 15000 to 30000 rpm
 50. Allowable stresses in shear equal to a) 3000 to 5000 psi
________ are common in design of a shaft. b) 4000 to 6000 psi
c) 5000 to 8000 psi
d) 6000 to 10000 psi
TEST 6
a) Tangential keys
1. A type of coupling that allows slight b) Normal keys
amount of torsional angular flexibility due to
introduction with some elastic material c) Saddle keys
cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in
the flange.
d) Roll Pin
a) Simple elastic bonded coupling
b) Elastic material bushed coupling 7. A key that allows the hub to move along
c) Elastic material bonded coupling the shaft but prevents the rotation of the
d) All of these shaft.

2. Which of the following keys that is square a) Woodruff key

or flat and tapered with head? b) Feather key
c) Gibbs key
a) Pin key d) Square key
b) Saddle key
c) Gib-head keys 8. Which of the following type of fits used for
d) None of these involute spline?

3. What are considered as the most a) Close fit

common keys? b) Press
c) Sliding
a) Flat key d) All of these
b) Square key
c) Saddle key 9. Used for permanent fits and are similar to
d) A & B above involute splines except that the pressure
angle is 14.5 deg.
4. A key may either straight or tapered. It is
usually a drive fit. a) Separation load
b) Stub serrations
a) Pin key c) Spline shaft
b) Saddle key d) Involute serrations
c) Gib-head key
d) None of these 10. In case of a knuckle joint, the pin is most
likely to fall in
5. A key with one of several patented
methods of keying is driven or pressed into a a) compression
hole that is small enough to close the slit, b) shear
assembled in radial direction. c) tension
d) double shear
a) Fit key
b) Saddle key 11. In case of sunk key,
c) Roll Pin
d) Pin key a) the key is cut in both shaft and hub
b) the key way is cut in hub only
6. Kennedy keys are also known as c) the key way is cut in shaft only d) the
 key way is helical along the shaft
a) Barth key
12. Splined shafts are generally for b) Feather key
c) Kennedy key
a) air craft d) Saddle key
b) automobiles
c) bicycles 19. A machine member employed at the
d) machine tools interface of a pair of mating male and
13. Splines are used when female circular cross-sectioned members to
a) the power to be transmitted is low prevent relative angular motion between
b) the power to be transmitted is high these mating.
c) the torque is high
d) axial relative motion between shaft a) Key way
and hub is necessary b) Key
c) Constant key
14. Which key normally used in d) Variable key
wristwatches?
20. A feather key is one of the following
a) Kennedy key types of
b) Sunk key
c) Tangent key a) sunk
d) None of the above b) tapered
c) parallel
15. If a square key and shaft are to be of the d) tangent
same material and of equal strength the
length of key would be equal to 21. Permanent keys made integral with the
shaft and fitting into key ways broached
a) d into the mating hub.
b) 0.75 d
c) 1.2 d a) Square keys
d) 1.5 d b) Splines
c) Woodruff keys
16. A type of key that is used in self-aligning d) Kennedy keys
machine key made by a side milling cutter
in the form of a segment of a disk. 22. A type of square key with bottom two
corners beveled is called
a) Kennedy key
b) Saddle key a) Flat key
c) Tangent key b) Feather key
d) Woodruff key c) Barth key
d) Woodruff key
17. A female mating member that forms a
groove in the shaft to which the key fits. 23. The bearing load on feather keys should
not exceed
a) Key path
b) Key way a) 600 psi
c) Key holder b) 800 psi
d) Key hole c) 1000 psi
d) 1200 psi
18. A square taper key fitted into a keyway
of square section and driven from opposite 24. The two keys are angularly spaced
ends of the hub is known as
a) 45 °
 b) 60 ° c) Dowel pins
c) 75 ° d) Taper pins
d) 90 °

31. The key fits into mating grooves in the

25. The three keys are angularly spaced shaft and mating member is called

a) 60 ° a) Key way
b) 90 ° b) Key path
c) 1200 c) Key hole
d) None of these
d) 1800
26. The permissible crushing stress is about
32. Used as couplings, or in addition to
_________ times the permissible shear
overload, where there is danger of injury
stress.
to
machines or to material in process.
a) 1.5
b) 1.7 a) Flange couplings
c) 1.9
b) Involute serrations
d) 1.10
c) King pins
d) Shear pins
27. Practical considerations required that
the hub length should be at least _________
33. A coupling that transmits power via the
to obtain a good grip.
frictional forces induced by pulling the
flanges toward each other over slotted
a) 1.2D
tapered sleeves is known as
b) 1.5D
c) 1.7D a) Flange coupling
d) 1.9D b) Flange compression coupling
c) Ribbed compression coupling
28. For three keys, a _________ percent
d) Rigid coupling
overload often is used.
34. What is used for absorbing some shock
a) 10
and vibration that may appear on one shaft
b) 15 and of preventing the occurrence of
c) 20 reversed stresses caused by the shaft
d) 25 deflecting at the coupling?
29. A pin that is cylindrical in shape with a a) Flange coupling
head on one end and a radial through hole b) Flexible coupling
in the other end.
c) Rigid coupling
d) None of these
a) Clevis pins
b) Taper pins 35. For a single Hooke’s coupling the shaft
c) Dower pins angle should not be greater than
d) Taper pins
a) 10 °
30. Used for the attachment of levers,
b) 12 °
wheels and similar devices onto shafts for
c) 15 °
light-duty service.
d) 30 °
a) Clevis pins
b) Cotter pins 36. A universal coupling is
 d) Hydraulic coupling
a) A rigid coupling
b) A type of flange coupling
c) Used for collinear coupling 43. A type of coupling used to connect
d) Used for non-collinear shafts shafts that have lateral misalignment.
37. A flange coupling is
a) Compression coupling
a) flexible b) Collar coupling
b) used for collinear shafts c) Chain coupling
c) used for non-collinear shafts d) Oldham coupling
d) used only on small shafts rotating at
low speed 44. A coupling that is composed of two
slotted members, which are connected by
38. In flange coupling the weakest element a continuous steel spring, and lies in the
should be the slots.

a) bolts a) Ajax coupling

b) flange b) Falk coupling
c) key c) Lord coupling
d) shaft d) Slip coupling

39. In flange coupling the flange bolts are 45. Shaft couplings are used in machinery
designed for for several purposes. The most common
purpose of shaft coupling is
a) fatigue
b) shear forces a) to provide for the connection of
c) compression shafts of units that are manufactured
d) tensile forces separately
b) to provide for misalignment of the
40. Which of the following mechanical shafts
devices is used for uniting or connecting c) to reduce the transmission of shock
parts of a mechanical system? loads from one shaft to another
d) all of the above
a) Coupling
b) Keys 46. Typical hub length falls between
c) Splines _________ where D is the shaft
d) Flexible coupling diameter

41. A coupling that employs a fluid to a) 1.2D and 1.8D

provide angular flexibility between the input b) 1.25D and 2.4D
and output shafts. c) 1.30 and 2.5D
d) 1.35D and 3.0D
a) Rigid coupling
b) Flexible coupling 47. The diameter of the large end of the pin
c) Hydraulic coupling should be ________ the shaft diameter.
d) Oldham coupling
a) ¼
42. Which of the following type of coupling is b) 1/3
used with collinear shafts? c) ½
d) 3/2
a) Collar coupling
b) Rigid coupling 48. The most common type of sliding action
c) Flexible coupling fastener and is widely used on doors is the
 b) 1.5
a) Pawl fastener c) 1.7
b) Magnetic fastener d) 1.9
c) Sliding fastener
d) Screw fastener 50. The mechanical fastening that connects
shafts together for power transmission.
49. When the key is not fitted on all four sides
experience has shown that, the permissible a) Coupling
crushing stress is about ____________ times
the permissible shear stress.

a) 1.3
b) Key
c) Splines
d) None of the above

a) Basic form of thread

1. Top surface joining two sides of thread in b) Effective thread
screw is known as c) Basic profile of thread
d) Design form of external thread
a) Pitch
b) Top flank 6. The top and bottom-land for gears is
c) Top land similar formed as to crest and ________ for
d) Crest screw thread.

2. Screw thread projecting from a a) flank

cylindrical surface is a b) root
c) flank tooth
a) thread series d) top land
b) thread shear TEST 7
c) straight thread
d) taper thread 7. Some experiments made at Cornell
University showed that experience
3. The conical surface at the starting end of mechanic could bread a ________ bolt due
the thread is called to nut tightening.

a) Pitch cone a) 3/8

b) Chamfer b) 5/8 inch
c) Crest c) ½ inch
d) Flute d) 7/16 inch

4. The surface connecting the cast and 8. The angle included between the sides of
roots of the screw thread. the thread measured in an axial plane in a
screw thread.
a) Lead angle
b) Length of engagement a) Angle of thread
c) Top land b) Angle between thread or 40 deg
d) Flank c) Helix angle thread
d) Half angle thread
5. The theoretical profile of the thread for a
length of one pitch in the axial plane on 9. Length of contact between two mating
which design forms of both the external parts in screw and nut threads measured
threads are based. axially is called
 a) Arc of contact 16. One of the following is not a tap used
b) Depth of engagement for cutting threads in holes.
c) Length of engagement
d) Axis of contact a) Tapping tap
b) Plug tap
10. Major and minor diameters are c) Taper tap
commonly used in d) Bottoming tap

a) screw thread 17. Type of bolt intended for use in bolting

b) bolt wooden parts together or wood to metal. It
c) gear has a short portion of shank just underneath
d) all of these a round head, which is designed to keep
the bolt from turning in the wood when the
11. Nominal diameter of bolts is the nut is tightened.

a) major diameter a) U-bolt

b) minor diameter b) Carriage bolt
c) stress area c) Eye bolt
d) mean diameter d) Stud bolt

12. A _________ is a kind of thread in which 18. A cylindrical bar or steel with threads
the width of the thread and the space formed around it and grooves or flutes
between threads are approximately running lengthwise in it, intersecting with the
equal. threads to form cutting edges. It is used to
cut internal threads.
a) square thread
b) acme thread a) Groove
c) buttress thread b) Lap
d) whit worth thread c) Tap
13. A kind of thread that is generally used. d) Flute
19. A kind of bolt, which has no head
a) UNEC but instead has threads on bolts ends.
b) UNC
c) UNF a) Stud bolt
d) UNEF b) Acme threaded bolt
c) Square bolt
14. A type of bolt commonly used in the d) Hex bolt
construction that is threaded in both
ends. 20. Refers to the diameter of the imaginary
cylinder that bounds the crest of an external
a) Stud bolt thread.
b) Acme threaded bolt
c) Square threaded bolt a) Mean diameter
d) Hex bolt b) Stress diameter
c) Minor diameter
15. A hand tool used to measure tension d) Major diameter
in bolts.
21. The distance in inches a screw thread
a) Shaver advances axially in one turn.
b) Tachometer
c) Tensor a) Lead
d) Torque wrench b) Circular pitch
 c) Pitch
d) Mean pitch a) Coupling bolt
b) Machine bolt
22. Which of the following type of threads c) Stud bolt
recommended for general use? d) Automobile bolt

a) UNC 29. Which type of bolt that finished all over,

b) UNEF usually having coarse threads?
c) UNF
d) NC a) Coupling bolt
b) Machine bolt
23. It is frequently used in automobile and c) Stud bolt
aircraft work. d) Automobile bolt

a) UNC 30. A type of bolt distinguished by a short

b) UNEF portion of the shank underneath the head
c) UNF being square or finned or ribbed.
d) NC
a) Carriage bolt
24. Which of the following type of threads b) Coupling bolt
are useful in aeronautical equipments? c) Machine bolt
d) Stud bolt
a) UNC
b) UNEF 31. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends
that can be used where a through bolt is
c) UNF impossible.
d) NC
a) Carriage bolt
25. It is used on bolts for high-pressure pipe b) Coupling bolt
flanges, cylinder head studs etc. c) Machine bolt
a) UNC d) Stud bolt
b) UNEF
c) UNF 32. A cheap variety of bolt was made in
d) 8UN small sizes.

26. Refers to a screw fastening with a nut on a) Stud bolt

it. b) Carriage bolt
c) Stove bolt
a) Bolt d) Mini bolt
b) Fastener
c) Rivet 33. A large wood screw is used to fasten
d) None of these machinery and equipment to a wooden
base.
27. Which one that has no nut and turns into
a threaded hole? a) Lag screw
b) Log screw
a) Rivet c) Wood screw
b) Screw d) None of these
c) Stud bolt
d) U-bolt 34. The length of contact in a tapped hole
should be a minimum of about ___________
28. Refers to an old name for an unfinished for cast iron.
through bolt, comes with a square.
 b) flank
a) D c) root
b) 1.5D d) top surface
c) 1.2D
d) 2D 41. Elastic nut is a locking device that has

35. When the location of bolt is such that it a) one small nut is tightened over main
would normally be shear, it is better nut and main nut tightened against
practice to use a smaller one loosening, creating
friction jamming.
a) dummy bolts b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut
b) mid-pins partly in middle of tightening of
c) crank pins screw
d) dowel pins c) hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed
in the nut and becomes threaded as
36. A locking device used to maintain the nut is screwed on the bolt
pressure between the threads of the bolt causing a tight grip.
and nut. d) Through slots are made at top and a
cotter pin is passed through these
a) Gasket and a hole in the bolt and cotter pin
b) Lock nuts splitted and bent in reverse direction
c) Lock washer at other end
d) Lock out
42. Foundation bolts of specified size should
37. The crest diameter of a screw thread is be used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve
the same as with an inside diameter of a least ________
times the diameter of the anchor bolt.
a) major diameter
b) pitch diameter a) 1
c) minor diameter b) 2
d) none of the above c) 3
d) 4
38. Turn buckle has 43. Foundation bolts should be at least
____________ times the diameter of the
a) left hand threads on both ends b) anchor bolt.
left hand threads on one end and
right hand threads on other end a) 12
c) right hand threads on both ends b) 14
d) no threads c) 16
d) 18
39. The diameter of a washer is generally
44. No foundation bolts shall be less than
a) equal to the diameter of bolt _________ mm diameter.
b) slightly more than the diameter of
the bolt a) 10
c) slightly less than the diameter of the b) 12
bolt c) 14
d) of any size that suits the application d) 16

40. The stress concentration is maximum at - 45. Anchor bolts should be embedded in
_________ in a standard coarse thread. concrete at least ___________ times the bolt
diameter.
a) all over the surface
 a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

46. The screw thread commonly used for

transmission of motion is one of the
following types of ___________ threads.

a) acme
b) vee
c) knuckle
d) British Association

47. The spindle of bench vises are usually

provided with

a) buttress threads
b) square threads
c) acme threads
d) v-threads

48. Any device to connect or joint more

components.

a) Bolt
b) Screw
c) Fastener
d) None of the above

49. When the threads are of opposite hand,

the driven screw moves rapidly is known as TEST 8
a) Bearing screw
b) Compound screw 1. Extra flexible hoisting rope applications
c) Differential screw is
d) Set screw a) 6 x 27
b) 6 x 37
50. The threaded length is about _________ c) 6 x 9
times the diameters.

a) 1.25
b) 1.5
c) 1.8
d) 2.0
 b) IWRC
c) Mps
d) Lang lay

3. One of the following materials is not

mentioned for wire rope pulley / sheave
applications.

a) Plastic
b) Iron
c) Paper
d) Copper alloy

4. The factor of safety generally applied in

wire rope design starts at 3-4 for standing
rope application, 5-12 for operating rope
and __________ for hazard to life and
properly application like foundry
operation.

a) higher value
b) 7 – 10
c) 8 – 10
d) 10 – 18

5. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay

means wires and standards are arranged in
the following manner _________

a) twisted in same direction

b) twisted in any direction
c) twisted in opposite direction
d) twisted in along direction

6. A process of prestressing or over stressing

a hollow cylindrical member beyond the
elastic range by hydraulic pressure.

a) Presstage
b) Stress relieving
c) Auto frettage
d) Countersinking

7. When two touching surface have a high

contact pressure and when these surfaces
have minute relative motion a phenomenon
d) 6 x 21 called

2. All terms and abbreviations deal with wire a) Carving

rope arrangement except this ________ b) Friction
which deals with rope materials strength . c) Fretting
a) performed d) Prestressing
8. Pipes subject to high pressure are d) Pd(1/2-μ)/4tE
generally made by 14. A cylinder in which the ratio of the
wall thickness to the inside diameter is
a) slush casting ___________ may be called a thin cylinder
b) pressure casting
c) extrusion a) less than 0.05
d) centrifugal casting b) less than 0.
c) more than 0.05
9. Hoop stress refers to d) more than 0.07

a) circumferential tensile stress 15. External pressure tubes in boilers are

b) compressive stress designed with an apparent factor of safety
c) longitudinal stress of
d) radial stress
a) 1 to 3
10. Autfrettage is the method of b) 4 to 6
c) 5 to 7
a) calculating stress in thick cylinders d) 8 to 10
b) increasing life of thick cylinders c)
prestressing thick cylinders 16. Refers to a hollow product of round or
d) relieving thick cylinders any other cross section having a continuous
periphery.
11. The radial pressure and hoop tension
for a thick cylinder is a) Gear
b) Flywheel
a) maximum at inner surface and c) Sphere
decreases toward outer d) Tube
surface
b) minimum at inner surface and 17. The thickness should be multiplied
increases towards outer by _________ to obtain the nominal wall
surface thickness.
c) minimum at inner and outer surfaces
and maximum in middle
d) maximum at inner and outer a) 5/8
surfaces and minimum in middle b) 8/5
12. Assuming longitudinal strain to be c) 7/8
constant at any point in the thickness of the d) 8/7
cylinder, the radial stress Sr and hoop stress
Sh are related as 18. It is used in high-pressure cylinders.

a) Sr – Sh = constant a) Thin-walled cylinders

b) Sr + Sh = constant b) Thick-walled cylinders
c) Sr/Sh = constant c) Solid-walled cylinders
d) Sr – Sh/Sr = constant d) Hard-walled cylinders

13. Thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and 19. To obtain safe working pressure the
thickness t when subjected to internal critical pressure, should be at least ______
pressure P, if Poisson’s ratio of material is μ , times the working pressure.
the circumferential or hoop strain is
a) 3
a) Pd(1-2μ)/2tE b) 4
b) Pd(1-2μ)/ c) 5
c) Pd(1/2 - μ)/2tE d) 6
20. The radial pressure between the
cylinders at the surface of contact 26. A rope used for general-purpose.
depends on the ___________ of the a) 6 x 15 IWRC
materials. b) 6 x 21 IWRC
c) 6 x 19 IWRC
a) strength d) 7 x 26 IWRC
b) hardness
c) modulus of elasticity 27. A type of rope used for lines, hawsers,
d) modulus of rigidity overheated cranes, hoists.

21. In cross or regular lay ropes the a) 6 x 34 IWRC

b) 6 x 35 IWRC
a) direction of twist in strands is c) 6 x 37 IWRC
opposite to the direction of twist of d) 6 x 45 IWRC
strands
b) direction of twist of wires and strands 28. The regular materials for wire rope
are the same are made of
c) wires in two adjacent strands are
twisted in opposite direction a) cast steel
d) wires are not twisted b) chromium
c) wrought iron
22. Which of the ropes will be most flexible? d) high-carbon steel

a) 6 by 7 29. The ultimate strength of improved Plow

b) 6 by 19 Steel is in the range of
c) 6 by 37
d) 8 by 19 a) 200 and 400 ksi
b) 240 and 280 ksi
23. A wire rope that the wires and strands c) 230 and 260 ksi
are twisted in opposite direction. d) 400 and 500 ksi

30. The minimum suggested design factor

a) Long lay of ________ for ropes miscellaneous hoisting
b) Lang lay equipment.
c) Regular lay
d) Performed a) 2
b) 3
24. A wire rope that the wires and strands c) 4
are twisted in the same direction. d) 5

a) Long lay 31. To avoid excessive wear rate the

b) Lang lay recommended limiting pressure for 6 x
c) Performed 19 rope is ___________ for cast iron.
d) Non-performed
a) 200 psi
25. A type of rope used for haulages, b) 300 psi
rigging, and guardrails. c) 400 psi
d) 500 psi
a) 6 x 35 IWRC
b) 6 x 25 IWRC 32. To avoid excessive wear rate the
c) 7 x 7 IWRC recommended limiting pressure for 6 x
d) 6 x 8 IWRC 19 rope is ________ for cast steel.
 b) cranes
a) 700 psi c) tramways
b) 900 psi d) all of the above
c) 1000 psi
d) 1200 psi
39. Tests and theoretical investigations by
33. To avoid excessive wear rate the J.F. Howe indicate that for steel ropes of
recommended limiting pressure for 6 x the
19 rope is ___________ for manganese ordinary constructions the value of modulus
steel. of elasticity is

a) 2000 psi a) 10,000,000 psi

b) 2300 psi b) 10,500,000 psi
c) 2500 psi c) 11,000,000 psi
d) 3000 psi d) 12,000,000 psi

34. Wire ropes are made from 40. Average mine-hoist practice is to use
cold-drawn wires that are first wrapped drums ______________ times the rope
into diameter.

a) layer a) 60 to 70
b) segment b) 60 to 80
c) strands c) 60 to 90
d) none of these d) 60 to 100

35. The designation 6 by 7 indicates the 41. What is the recommended sheave
rope is made of six strands each containing diameter for haulage rope?

a) 7 pieces a) 70d
b) 7 diameters b) 71d
c) 7 wires c) 72d
d) 7 strands d) 73d

36. Ropes are made of 42. What is the recommended sheave

diameter for standard hoisting rope?
a) aluminum alloys
b) copper a) 40d
c) bronze b) 45d
d) all of the above c) 50d
d) 55d
37. The ratio of the strength of all the
inside wires to the strength of all the wires
in the rope 43. What is the recommended sheave
diameter for extra-flexible hoisting
a) excess strength rope?
b) reserve strength
c) factor of safety a) 30d
d) ratio of factor b) 31d
c) 32d
38. The chief usage of wire ropes at d) 33d
the present time is
44. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn
a) elevators wires that are first wrapped into
 d) 9
a) pulp TEST 9
b) strands
c) helices 1. To avoid brittleness of weld or the
d) hemp residual stress in the welding it is normally
stress relieved of
45. The Roebling Handbook suggests
minimum design factor of guy’s is a) Quenching
b) Normalizing
a) 3.0 c) Tempering
b) 3.5 d) Drawing
c) 4.0
d) 5.0 2. A of welding whereby a wire or powder
from the nozzle of a spray gun is fused by
46. The Roebling Handbook suggests a gas flame, arc or plasma jet and then
minimum design factor of miscellaneous molten particles are projected
hoisting equipment is

a) 3.0
b) 5.0 in a form of a spray by means of
c) 7.0 compressed air or gas is known a
d) 9.0
a) Elector-slug building
47. An extra flexible rope is b) Electro-beam welding
c) Plasma-arc welding
a) 6 x 7 d) Metal spray welding
b) 6 x 19
c) 6 x 37 3. Weld metal impact specimen shall be
d) 7 x 7 taken across the weld with one face
substantially parallel to and within

a) 3/4in
48. The strength of the rope is always b) 1/32 in.
____________ the sum of the strength of wires c) ¼ in.
d) 1/16 in.
a) less than
b) more than 4. A joint between to overlapping
c) equal members in whom the overlapped edge
d) the same of one member is welded with a fillet
weld is called
49. One of the most popular rope style is
a) A single welded lap joint
a) 6 x 7 b) Double welded lap joint
b) 6 x 19 c) A single welded lap joint with
c) 6 x 37 backing
d) 7 x 7 d) Track weld

50. The minimum factor of safety of small 5. A weld place in groove between
hoist is two butting members is called

a) 3 a) Full-fillet weld
b) 5 b) Tack weld
c) 7 c) Butt weld
 d) fillet weld below that of the metal joined but is
heated above 450C
6. A weld of approximately triangular
cross-section that join two surfaces at a) Spot welding
approximately right angles as in lap joint, b) Gas welding
tee joint, corner joint. c) Brazing
d) Arc welding
a) Single welded lap joint
b) Fillet weld 12. Uniting two pieces of metal by
c) Tack weld means of a different metal which is
d) Butt weld applied between the two in molten
state
7. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the
thickness of the inner joint member is a) Casting
called b) Welding
c) Soldering
a) Butt joint d) Brazing
b) Butt weld
c) Tack weld 13. Joining metal by means of high
d) Full-fillet weld current at low voltage. During the
passage of current, pressure by the
8. A weld made to hold the parts of a electrodes produces a forge weld:
weldment in proper alignment until the
final welds are made of a) Spot welding
b) Resistance welding
a) Butt weld c) Steam welding
b) Tack weld d) Gas welding
c) Fillet weld
d) Full fillet weld 14. A fusion process in which the metal is
heated together into a solid joint.
9. Test is designed primarily for application
to electric-welded tubing for detection of a) Electric arc welding
lack of penetration or b) Gas welding
overlaps resulting from flash removal in c) Spot welding
the weld d) Projection welding

a) Butt weld 15. As one example, the ASME code for

b) Paste riveted joints permits the design surface
c) Lap weld compressive stress to be about ________
d) Double butt weld higher than the design tensile stress.

10. The internal stresses existing in a a) 40%

welded connection are b) 50%
c) 60%
a) Relieved by x-ray analysis d) 70%
b) Maybe relieved when weld is
penned 16. In a pressure vessel, the ratio of
c) Not relieved when the weld is minimum strength of joint to the strength
penned of solid joint is known as
d) Not relieved by heat treatment
a) Efficiency
11. A welding operation in which a non b) Joint efficiency
ferrous fillet metal at a temperature c) Performance factor
 d) Relative strength c) Induction welding
d) Spot welding
17. In a pressure vessel, the usual factor
of safety may be taken as 23. Treating the weld as a line, the
amount or inertia about center of
a) 2 gravity of a circular weld or diameter d
b) 3 would b
c) 5
d) 5 a) �� d2/36
b) ��d2/6
18. Are resistance welds, usually round in c) �� d3/36
the same form as the electrodes that
d) ��d3/4
press the sheets together
24. For butt welding of two plates each of
a) Edge joint
which is 25 mm thick, the best process
b) MIG joint
would be
c) Spot joint
d) TIG joint
a) TIG welding
b) MIG welding
19. Consists of short lengths (2 to 3
c) Gas welding
inches long) of welds with space
d) Electro slag welding
between as 6 inches on centers.
25. What should be the maximum size of
a) Intermittent weld the fillet weld?
b) MIG weld
c) Spot welds a) 2 mm
d) TIG welds b) 3 mm
c) 5 mm
20. An intermittent weld, lightly done to d) 7 mm
hold the members in position for
assembly purposes or for principal 26. The maximum size of the fillet weld
welding that can be made in single pass is
a) Edge weld a) 3 mm
b) Tack weld b) 6 mm
c) Back welds c) 8 mm
d) Half welds d) 12 mm
21. A welding operation that uses hot
flame and metal rod is known as 27. Which diamond riveted joint can be
adopted?
a) Gas welding
b) Arc welding a) Butt joint
c) Resistance welding b) Lap joint
d) Automatic welding c) Double riveted lap joint
d) All types of joints
28. Wiping is the process of
22. The arc is covered with a welding
composition and bare electrode wire is a) Applying flux during welding
fed automatically process
b) Clearing the welded surface
a) Resistance welding after the welding operation is
b) Submerged arc welding over
 c) Connecting load pipes by different thickness can be butt welded
soldering alloy by
d) Low temperature welding
a) Adjusting initial gap
29. A collimated light beam is used for b) Adjusting time duration of
producing heat in current
c) Control of pressure and current
a) Laser welding d) All of the above
b) MIG welding
c) Plasma welding 36. The phenomenon of weld decay
d) TIG welding takes place in

30. During MIG welding the metal is a) Brass

transferred in the form of b) Bronze
c) Cast iron
a) A fine spray of metal d) Stainless steel
b) Continuous flow of molten metal
c) Electron beam 37. Laser welding is widely used in
d) Solution
a) electronic industry
31. If “t” is the thickness of sheet to be b) Heavy industry
spot welded then electrode tip c) Process industry
diameter is equal to d) Structural work

a) √�� 38. Up to what thickness of plate, edger

b) 1.5√�� preparation for welding is not needed?
c) 2.5√��
d) 2√�� a) 2 mm
b) 4 mm
32. Weld spatter refers to c) 8 mm
d) 12 mm
a) Flux
b) Filler material 39. Grey cast iron is best welded by
c) Welding defect
d) Welding electrode a) Arc
33. Which of the following metals can b) MIG
be suitably welded by TIG welding? c) Oxy- acetylene
d) TIG
a) Aluminum
b) Magnesium
c) A and B above 40. In rsistance welding, the pressure is
d) Stainless steel release

34. Arc blow takes place in
a) Arc welding when straight
polarity is used
b) Arc welding when reverse
polarity is used
c) Gas welding
d) Welding stainless steel
35. Unlike materials or materials of
a) Just at the time of passing the
current
b) After completion of currents
c) After the weld cools
d) During heating
41. Half corner weld is used
a) Where severe loading is
encountered and the upper
 surfaces of both pieces must be c) Prevent oxide formation
in the same plane d) Lower the melting temperature
b) Where efficiency of joint should of the solder
be 50%
c) Where longitudinal shear is 48. The parts are lapped and held in
present place under pressure
d) None of the above
a) Butt welding
42. Projection welding is b) Spot welding
c) Steam welding
a) Continuous spot welding process d) Projection welding
b) Multi spot welding process
c) Used to form frameworks 49. The parts are brought together lightly
d) All of the above with current flowing and then separated
slightly
43. Reducing flame is obtained in oxy
acetylene welding with a) Mash weld
b) Steam welding
a) Excess oxygen c) Flush welding
b) Excess of acetylene d) Percussion welding
c) Equal parts of both gases
d) Reduced acetylene 50. Which of the following produced a
series of spot welds made by circular or
44. Brasses and bronzes are welded wheel type electrodes?
using
a) Steam welding
a) Carburizing flame b) Mash welding
b) Neutral flame c) Spot welding
c) Oxidizing flame d) Steam welding
d) Reducing flame TEST 10
45. One of the following function is not
1. The soldering material commonly
performed by coating on the welding
applied for automobile radiator cores
electrodes is to
and roofing seams.
a) Increase the cooling rate
a) 15/85 % tin and lead
b) Provide protective atmosphere
b) 50/50% tin and lead
c) Refuse oxidation
c) 45/55% tin and lead
d) Stabilize the arc
d) 20/80% tin and lead
46. Welding defect called arc blow
2. The flux that should be provided in
occurs in
soldering electrical connection or
a) Arc welding using ac current
commutator wires as its tends to corrode
b) Arc welding using dc current
the connectors called
c) Gas welding
d) MIG welding
a) Sal ammoniac
b) Zinc chloride
47. The purpose of using flux in soldering c) Stearin
is to
d) Acid fluxes
a) Increase fluidity of solder
3. A brazed joint is ___ soldered joint.
material
b) Full up gaps in bad joint
 10. Soft solder is made of
a) Stronger than a) Copper and zinc
b) The same strength as b) Tin and copper
c) Three times as strong as c) Tin and lead
d) Weaker than d) Tin and zinc
4. Brazing requires 11. Prepared soldered paste flux is most
popular but if you did not have any, you
a) Hard solder could use _____ as substitute
b) Soft solder
c) More heat a) Hydrochloric acid
d) Choices A and C b) Nitric acid
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Any of the above
5. What is the reason why lead is used in
solders?
12. Hard solder is made of
a) It has a high melting point. b)
a) Copper and zinc
It has a low melting point. c) It
b) Tin and copper
is cheap
c) Tin and lead
d) Choices B and C d) Tin and zinc
6. The higher the melting pint of the
solder, the

a) Harder the solder joint 13. Soldered will not unite with a metal
b) Softer the solder joint surface that has
c) Stronger the solder joint
d) Weaker the solder joint a) Dirt on it
b) Grease on it
7. Special solders used for aluminum c) Oxidation on it
usually require d) Any of the above
a) less heat 14. If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the
b) More heat soldered area must be cleaned
c) The same heat as copper wire d) thoroughly afterwards to prevent
The same heat as sheet metal
a) Anyone touching it from getting
8. The flux usually used for hard solder is burned
b) Remaining acid form eating the
a) Alum metal
b) Barium c) The acid form evaporating and
c) Borax the solder disintegrating
d) Rosin d) None of the above
9. Soft solder melts at approximately
15. Sweating is the process of

a) 250 a) Soldering two different kinds of

b) 350 metal
b) Separating two pieces of metal
c) 450 that have been soldered
together
d) 550
 c) Tinning two surfaces, applying d) Two non-metals
flux them, holding the two
together and heating 21. What is the most commonly used flux
d) None of the above for brazing?

16. A surface to be soldered should be a) Zinc chloride

prepared by b) Zinc and tin
c) Zinc and copper
a) Acid cleaning the surfaces d) Zinc and lead
b) Filing the surfaces
c) Scraping the surfaces 22. Multi spot welding process is also
d) Any of the above referred as _____welding

17. One of the most important factors a) Tack

that is often overlooked when soldering b) Fillet
is the fact that c) TIG
d) Projection
a) The surfaces to be soldered must
be clean 23. The maximum temperature
b) The two metals to be soldered developed for oxy-hydrogen welding is
must not be the same
c) The two metals to be soldered a) 1755 C
must be the same b) 1965 C
d) All surfaces should be dipped in c) 2565 C
acid first d) 3440 C
18. When soldering, flux is used for
24. The maximum temperature
a) Keeping the metal from getting developed for oxy-acetylene welding is
too hot
b) Keeping the solder from running a) 1965 C
off the metal b) 2565 C
c) Keeping the tip of the soldering c) 3440 C
iron and clean d) 4565 C
d) Remove and prevent oxidation of
the metals 25. A mixture of aluminum powder and a
metal oxide powder is ignited by a
19. Soldering is the process of special powder in a crucible.

a) Holding two metals together by a) Thermit welding

heating
b) Joining two metals by a third soft
metal that is applied in a molten
state
c) Holding two different kinds of
metals together by heating
d) All of the above
b) Stud welding
c) Resistance welding
d) Gas welding
26. A welding where an arc is struck
between two tungsten electrodes into
which a jet of hydrogen is directed

20. Brazing is used for joining a) Atomic hydrogen welding

b) Electron beam welding
a) Tow ferrous material c) Electro slug welding
b) One ferrous and non-ferrous d) Flash welding
material
c) Two non-ferrous metal 27. A common rule is to make the rivet
 hole diameter from ________ for rivets in below 800⁰F
single or double shear.
a) Brazing
a) 1.2 t to 1.4 t b) Seaming
b) to c) Soldering
c) to d) Welding
d) to
33. The process of joining metal parts by
28. Fusion welding is the name frequently means of a non ferrous fitter or alloy that
given to processes not requiring melts at a temperature above 800⁰F.
pressure. It is sometimes called
a) Brazing
a) Flash welding b) Seaming
b) Seam welding c) Soldering
c) Spot welding d) Welding
d) Thermit welding
34. The process of joining metals in
29. The ratio of the load that will produce which the two parts are joined by
the allowable stress in any part of the jointheating them electrically to a
to the load that will produce the temperature above the recrystallization
allowable tension stress in the unpunched temperature.
plate.
a) Flash welding
a) Efficiency of the welded b) Projection welding
b) Efficiency of the jont c) Thermit welding
c) Performance factor d) Resistance welding
d) Load factor
35. A fusion welding process in which
30. Thicker plates usually require the welding heat is obtained from an
excessive rivet sizes and for practical electric arc set up either between the
reasons the rivet diameter is made base metal and one electrode or
approximately between to electrodes.

a) 1.2t a) Arc welding

b) b) Gas welding
c) Fusion welding
1.2
d) Spot welding
c) 2t
d) 2 36. Refers to the capacity of a metal to
be joined by welding in a satisfactory
31. The process of joining metals by manner.
means by heating to a temperature
above the recrystallization temperature a) Flame plating
or to fusion with or without the b) Metal spraying
application or pressure c) Metalizing
d) Weldability
a) Brazing
b) Soldering 37. A surfacing method of blasting
c) Welding particles of tungsten carbide onto the
d) Seaming surface of a piece of metal.

32. The process of bonding two or more a) Flame plating

pieces of metal together by means of b) Metal spraying
another metal whose melting point is
 c) Metalizing pressure of a non-code steel or wrought
d) Powder pouring iron heating boiler of welded
construction shall not exceed.
38. For fusion welding, efficiency shall be
taken as equal to a) 0.5 bar
b) 1.0 bar
a) 80% c) 1.5 bar
b) 60% d) 2.0 bar
c) 90%
d) 95% 45. The ASME Boiler Code requires that
the edge distance must be not less than
39. When the tensile strength of steel shell
plates is not known it shall be taken as a) 1.5d
b) 2.0d
a) 379. 31 N/mm2 c) 2.5d
b) 565.71 N/mm2 d) 3.0d
c) 556.17 N/mm2
d) 671.55 N/mm2 46. A method of resistance welding in
which the heating and the pressure are
localized at specified points by providing
40. Minimum thickness for boiler plate
embossed or coined projections on the
shall be
pieces to be joined.
a) 3.56 mm
a) Projection welding
b) 5.36 mm
b) Flash welding
c) 6. 36 mm
c) Seam welding
d) 6. 56 mm
d) Resistance welding
41. The strength of iron rivets in single
47. An intermittent weld, lightly done to
shear
hold the members in position for
assembly purposes or for the principal
a) 262 N/mm2
welding.
b) 303 N/mm2
c) 524 N/mm2 a) Spot weld
d) 607 N/mm2 b) Tack weld
c) Butt weld
42. The strength of steel rivets in single d) Fillet weld
shear
48. What type of welding that the hot
a) 262 N/mm2 flame and a metal rod are used?
b) 303 N/mm2
c) 524 N/mm2 a) Seam welding
d) 607 N/mm2 b) Gas welding
c) Spot welding
43. When the longitudinal seams are of d) Resistance welding
lap riveted construction the minimum
factor of safety is 49. It used for joining members of
approximately equal in cross-section
a) 5
b) 6 a) Mash welding
c) 7 b) Butt welding
d) 8 c) Upset welding
d) Choices B and C
44. The maximum allowable working
 50. The melting point of the filler material 5. It is considered semi-solid lubricant
in brazing is approximately or above.
A. Lube oil
a) 420⁰F B. Graphite
b) 600⁰F C. Grease
c) 800⁰F D. All of these
d) 1000⁰F
6. Metal that assists lubrication or
lubricant in itself

A. Zinc
B. Antimony
C. Babbit
1. The rule of thumb in journal bearing D. Lead
design, the clearance ratio/clearance
should be
7. Which of the following materials is
A. 0.01001 unsuitable as a bearing?
B. 0.0101
C. 0.0110 A. Teflon
D. 0.0010 B. Low carbon steel
C. Cast iron
2. Also called eccentrically loaded D. Nylon
bearing
8. Aerostatic bearing is one in which
A. Full bearing
B. Offset bearing A. The lube oil is supplied under
C. Partial bearing pressure
D. Fitted bearing B. Lube oil is not pressurized
C. There is no lube oil
3. Wahta type of bearing which totally D. Bearing is lightly loaded
encloses the shaft?
9. At the same thermal and minimum
A. Offset bearing film, thickness limitation as sleeve
B. Central bearing
C. Babbitt bearing A. Ball bearing
D. Full bearing B. Roller bearing
C. Thrust bearing
4. All are functions of lubricating oil D. Full bearing
except
10. The desired between two surfaces
A. Adhesion having relatively sliding motion is known
B. Corrosion prevention
C. Act as coolant A. Lube oil
TEST 11 B. Graphite
C. Packing
D. Lubrication

11. What bearing composed of two

principal parts, namely the
D. To tighten the load
A. Bearing and journal
 B. Clearance and fitted D. 140 F to 160 F
C. Bolt and Babbitt
D. Bolt and cylinder 18. At higher temperature, the oil
oxidizes more rapidly above
12. When the line of action of the load
bisects the arc of partial bearing it is said A. 120F
to be: B. 140F
C. 160F
A. Eccentrically loaded D. 200F
B. Fit loaded
C. Centrally loaded 19. A conclusion repeatedly verified by
D. Surface loaded experiments is _____ that the smoother
the surface.
13. It is the difference in the radii of the
bearing and the journal A. Constant
B. The greater the load capacity of the
A. Even clearance bearing
B. Clearance ratio C. None of these
C. Fit clearance D. Variable
D. Radial clearance
20. Which of the following is considered
14. It is one in which the radii of the an advantage for bearing materials?
journal and the bearing are the same
A. Conformability
A. Clearance bearing B. Embeddability
B. Fitted bearing C. Compatibility
C. Full bearing D. All of these
D. Partial bearing 21. For thrust bearing the speed at
15. The line that passes through centers moderate operating conditions is
of the bearing and the journal is called
the A. 50<Vm>200 fpm
B. 50<Vm>220 fpm
A. Line of action C. 50<Vm>250 fpm
B. Line of centers D. 50<Vm> 290 fpm
C. Line of tangent
D. Under cut 22. The 200 series bearing is called

16. Length-diameter ration was a good A. Heavy

compromise for the general case of B. Light
hydrodynamic bearings. It is C. Medium
approximately equal to D. None of these

A. 1 23. The 300 series bearing is called

B. 2
C. 3 A. Heavy
D. 4 B. Light
C. Medium
17. Operating temperature of oil film D. None of these
ranges _____________ or less
24. A type of roller bearing in which the
A. 120 F to 190 F balls are assembled by the eccentric
B. 130 F to 160 F displacement of the inner ring.
C. 140 F to 150 F

A. Shallow-groove ball bearing B.
Self-aligning ball bearing C.
Filling-slot ball bearing
D. Deep-groove ball bearing
25. Which of the following is not a type
of ball bearing?
A. Shallow-groove ball bearing B.
Self-aligning ball bearing C. Fillet-slot
ball bearing
D. Deep-groove ball bearing
26. Steel ball for ball bearing are
manufactured by
A. Casting
B. Cold headling
C. Rolling
D. Turning
27. In hydrodynamic bearings
by the rotation of the journal
B. The oil film I maintained by supplying
oil under pressure
C. Do not need external supply of
lubricant
D. Grease is needed to be applied
after some intervals
31. A shaft rotating in anticlockwise
direction at slow speed inside a bearing
will be
A. At bottom most of bearing
B. Towards left side of bearing and
making metal to metal contact C.
Towards left side of bearing and
making no metal to metal contact D.
Towards right side of bearing and
making no metal to metal contact
32. A machine part that supports
another part, which rotates, slides or
oscillateds in or on it

A. The oil film pressure is generated A. Journal

only by the rotation of the journal B. B. Bearing
The oil film is maintained by supplying C. Roller
oil under pressure D. Casing
C. Do not need external supply of 33. The part of a shaft or crank which is
lubricant supported by and turns in bearing.
D. Grease is used for lubrication
A. Casing
28. If P = bearing pressure on projected B. Bushing
bearing area, Z= absolute viscosity of C. Roller
lubricant, and N = speed of journal, then D. Journal
the bearing characteristic number is
given by 34. It is also called anti-friction bearing.

A. ZN/P A. Rolling bearing

B. Z/ PN B. Thrust bearing
C. ZP/ N C. Tapered bearing
D. P/ZN D. Single row bearing

29. The rated life of a bearing changes 35. Which of the following is a bearing
material?
A. Directly as load
B. Inversely as fourth power of load A. Babbitt
C. Inversely as cube of load D. B. Bronze
Inversely as square of load C. Plastics
D. All of the above
30. In oiless bearing
36. It acts toward the center of the
A. The oil film pressure is produced only bearing along a radius.
 A. Thrust load 41. The 400 series bearing is
B. Tangential load called:
C. Radial load A. Light
D. Peripheral load B. Medium
C. Heavy
37. Conrad bearing is also known as D. Extra heavy

A. Needle bearing 42. The product of length and diameter

B. Ball bearing of the bearing is called:
C. Roller bearing
D. Tapered bearing A. Shearing area
B. Compressive area
38. The combined effect of many of the C. Projected area
variables involved in the operation of a D. Cross-sectional area
bearing under hydrodynamic lubrication
can be characterized by the 43. If the length over diameter of the
dimensionless number called: bearing is unity, it is also known as

A. Reynolds Number A. Long bearing

B. Prandtl Number B. Short bearing
C. Grashof Number C. Medium bearing
D. Sommerfeld Number D. Square bearing

39. It exits primarily to guide the motion 44. A bearing in which the length ratio
of a machine member without specific Length/diameter is greater than 1.
regard to the direction of load
application. A. Short bearings
A. radial bearing B. Long bearings
B. Journal bearing C. Square bearings
C. Thrust bearing D. Medium bearings
D. Guide bearing
45. The product of absolute viscosity and
40. It carries a load collinear to the axis rotational speed divided by the unit
of possible rotation of the supported loading.
member.
A. Section modulus
A. Guide bearing B. Bearing modulus
B. Journal bearing C. Shear modulus
C. Thrust bearing D. All of the above
D. Radial bearing
46. From the line of radial loading on the
bearing to the position of the minimum
oil-film thickness.

A. Attitude angle
B. Latitude angle
C. Longitude angle
D. Altitude angle

47. The radial distance between the

center of the bearing and the displaced
center of the journal is called.
 A. Concentricity
B. Eccentricity
C. Embeddability
D. None of the above

48. Which of the following is an example

of solid lubricant?

A. Molybdenum disulfide
B. Graphite

C. Tungsten disulfide
D. All of the above

49. The length ratio L/D typically varies

between

A. 0.1 to 0.5
B. 0.2 to 0.6
C. 0.2 to 0.8
D. 0.25 to 1.0

50. The operating temperature of the

Babbitt is limited to

A. 200°F
B. 300°F
C. 400°F
D. 500°F
TEST 12
A. Wahl factor
1. A heavy rotating body which serves B. Diameter ratio
as a reservoir for absorbing and C. Spring index
redistributing kinetic energy. D. Lead angle

A. Gear 4. The overall length of the spring when

B. Brakes it is compressed until all adjacent coils
C. Flywheel touched.
D. Fan
A. Compressed length
2. Which of the following is not a use of B. Free length
spring? C. Solid length
D. None of these
A. Absorbs energy
5. The length of coil sprig under no
B. Measure weight
load.
C. Source of energy in clocks D.
Measure the thickness
A. Compressed length
3. The ratio of mean diameter of coil to B. Free length
the coil diameter C. Solid height
D. None of these
 D. Garter spring
6. In general, steel spring are made of
relatively high carbon steel usually 12. A type of spring where thin flat strip
wound up on itself as a plane spiral,
A. More than 0.5% usually anchored at the inside
B. 5%
C. Less than 0.5%
D. 10% A. Volute spring
B. Motor spring
C. Hair spring
D. Garter spring
7. When heat treated wire is coiled
cold, it should be stress relieved for
13. A type of spring made in the form of
bending stresses after cooling by being
dished washer
heated at some at what temperature?
A. Volute spring
A. 400F
B. Motor spring
B. 500F
C. Hair spring
C. 600F
D. Beleville spring
D. 700F

8. A low cost spring material, suitable 14. In laminated spring the strips are
provided in different lengths for
where service is not severe and
dimensional precision is not needed.
A. Economy
A. Hard drawn wire spring B. Reduction in weight
C. Improved appearance
B. Helical spring
D. Space consideration of the
C. Stainless steel
utility stage
D. Helical tension spring wire
15. An elastic stored energy machine
9. A hard drawn also 80% reduction but
element that when released, will recover
it is made of high-grade steel
its basic form
A. Music wire
A. Flywheel
B. Oil tempered wire
B. Clutch
C. Song wire
C. Brakes
D. Chromium- silicon
D. Spring
10. A spring wire with good quality for
impact loads at moderately high 16. When a spring is made of ductile
material, the curvature factor would be
temperature

A. Hard drawn wire spring A. Zero

B. Helical spring wire B. Constant
C. Chromium-silicon C. Unity
D. Helical tension spring wire D. Positive

11. A type of coil where the helical coil is 17. The solid length plus the clearance
wrapped into a circle forming an plus the maximum deflection.
annular ring
A. Free length
A. Volute spring B. Height
B. Motor spring C. Distance
C. Hair spring D. Original length
 during normal operation
18. The majority of coils springs are
made of coil tempered carbon steel A. compressed length
wire containing ______________ carbon. B. operating length
C. solid length
D. free length
A. 0.30 to 0.40%
B. 0.40 to 0.50% 25. the relationship between the force
C. 0.50 to 0.60% exerted by a spring and its deflection is
D. 0.60 to 0.70% called

19. Experimental results indicate that the A. spring index

actual frequency of the spring is from B. spring rate
C. wahl’s factor
A. 5 to 10% D. Spring angle
B. 10 to 15%
C. 15 to 20% 26. The ration of the mean diameter of
D. 20 to 25% the spring to the wire diameter is called

20. According to W.M. Griffirth, the A. Spring index

critical frequency of the spring should B. Spring ratio
behold at least ________ times the C. Spring rate
frequency of application of a periodic D. Spring constant
load.
27. Refers to the axial distance from a
A. 5 point on one coil to the corresponding
B. 10 point on the next adjacent coil.
C. 15
D. 20 A. Lead
B. Spring distance
21. The actual number of coil is C. Pitch
_________ in a squared and ground ends. D. Spring deflection
28. The spring index for general industrial
A. n uses should be
B. n + 2
C. nd A. 5 to 7
D. ( n + 1) d B. 6 to 8
C. 7 to 9
22. The solid length of squared ends is D. 8 to 10

A. (n+3)d 29. What is the spring index of valve and

B. (n+1)d clutch?
C. np
D. n + 2 A. 3
B. 5
23. The free length of ground ends is C. 7
D. 9
A. np + 3d
B. np + 2d 30. Refers to the space between
C. np + d adjacent coils when the spring is
D. np compressed to its operating length

24. the shortest length for the spring A. Coil allowance

 B. Coil tolerance
C. Coil clearance
D. None of these 37. Cross wire grooves are types which
31. The most practical spring designs A. Decrease the danger of skidding
produce a pitch angle is less than B. Absorb shocks because of road
unevenness
A. 12° C. Provide good faction
B. 15° D. Provide better load carrying
C. 20° capacity
D. 25°
32. Engine valves get shut by means of 38. The _____ of parallel connection of
spring is always constant
A. Valve lock A. Elongation
B. Tappet B. Load
C. Valve spring C. Thermal conductivity D.
D. Adjusting screw Resistance

33. Which of the following materials is 39. Speedometer drive is generally

used for leaf and coil spring? taken from

A. AISI 3140 A. Dynamo

B. AISI 3150 B. Flywheel
C. AISI 3240 C. Gear
D. AISI 4063 D. Front wheel

34. The circumference of a coil spring 40. The device for smoothing out the
times the effective number of coils is power impulses from the engine is
called known as

A. Active length A. Clutch

B. Solid length B. Flywheel
C. Compressed length C. Gearbox
D. Operating length D. Differential

35. For spring subjected to light service, 41. Typical hub length falls between
the factor of safety __________ is
suggested A. 1.25D to 2.4D
B. 1.25D to 5D
A. 1.5 C. 1.3 D to 3.4D
B. 2.0 D. D to 7D
C. 2.5
D. 3.0 42. The recommended coefficient of
fluctuation of flywheels for punching,
36. Refers to a flat or curved made of shearing, and pressing machine is
thin superimposed plates and formin a
cantilever or beam of uniform strength. A. 0.05 to 0.10
B. 0.03 to 0.05
A. Laminated spring C. 0.002 to 0.005
B. Graduated spring D. 0.01 to 0.02
C. Full spring
D. Conical spring 43. Attached to the rear end of the
crankshaft is the
 many percent of the weight is
concentrated in the hub and arms
A. Vibration damper
B. Flywheel A. 20
C. Drive pulley B. 30
D. Timing gear C. 35
D. 45
44. Flywheel is also known as
48. A large rotary machine part whose
A. Steering wheel function is to store energy and to
B. Front wheel produce uniform angular velocity of the
C. Balance wheel shaft or reciprocating engine.
D. Rear wheel
45. What energy is stored in flywheels? A. Cam
B. Idler
A. Kinetic energy C. Flywheel
B. Internal energy D. Chuck
C. Potential energy
D. Rest energy 49. A massive wheel, which by its inertia
assists in securing uniform motion of
46. What is the function of the flywheel? machinery by resisting sudden changes
of speed.
A. To keep the speed fluctuation within
the desired limits A. Linkage
B. To limit the momentary rise or fall in B. Crank
speed during sudden changes of C. Planetary gears
load D. Flywheel
C. To keep the angular advance or
retardation within prescribed limit as 50. The function of a flywheel is to
compared with a perfectly uniform
angular speed A. Complete the unusual stroke B.
D. All of the above Operated the engines
C. Keep the engines weight light
47. In many flywheel designs, about how
D. None of theses
TEST 13
3. Friction devices used to regulate the
1. A shaft that is used to connect or motion of bodies and with clutches
disconnect at will is called:
A. Rollers
A. Clutch B. Brakes
B. Bearing C. Babbitt
C. Brake Shaft D. Holders
D. Lock Shaft
4. The part of the total frictional energy
2. The frictional forces depend on that is stored in the brake parts,
coefficient of friction and: principally in the drum or disk has been
estimated at __________.
A. Torque
B. Weights of object A. 56% up
C. Normal Force B. 86% up
D. Moment C. 90% up
 D. 75% up C. Air brake
5. The part of an automobile disc D. Mechanical brake
clutch that presses against the flywheel 11. It is considered as the simplest type
is referred to as: of mechanical brake.

A. Contact plate
B. Friction plate A. Differential brake
C. Pressure plate B. Block brake
D. Sliding plate C. Band brake
D. Brake shoe
6. The brake capacity to absorb
energy is known as: 12. The friction devices used to connect
A. Energy shafts:
B. Resistance brake
C. A. Brakes
D. Braking torque B. Clutches
C. Spring
D. Holder
7. If the band warps partly around the
brake wheel or drum and brake action is 13. A clutch that has a disadvantage of
obtained by pulling the band tight onto heavier rotary masses.
the wheel. This type of brake is known as:
A. Multiple disc clutch
A. Block brake B. Disc cluth
B. Band brake C. Cone clutch
C. Clutch D. None of these
D. Centrifugal brake
14. The overrunning clutch
8. The brake lining operating at
temperature _____, sintered mixtures A. Should be oiled
containing ceramics are used: B. Should be repacked with
grease
A. 750 F to 1000 F C. Cannot be lubricated
B. 560 F to 900 F D. Contains no lubricant
C. 800 F to 1200 F
D. 400 F to 789 F 15. The overrunning clutch:

9. Hydrodynamic brake is the major A. Transmits cranking force to the

type of: engine flywheel
B. Is one way clutch
A. Air brake C. Prevents the engine flywheel
B. Fluid brake from driving the starting motor
C. Electric brake D. All of these
D. Spot brake
16. Clutch gear box, differential etc. are
10. Type of brakes that are capable of the parts of:
stopping the motion of a machine
member as well as retarding its motion A. Charging system
B. Transmission system
A. Electrical brake C. Cooling system
B. Fluid brake D. None of these
 B. 9.5 o
17. In motor vehicles, it is very common C. 12.5o
practice to use a: D. 14.5o

A. Multiple clutch 24. Why does a clutch create noise?

B. Hydraulic clutch
C. Cone clutch A. Clutch release bearings is either dry
D. Single plate clutch or defective
B. Clutch spring is broken
18. The clutch finger is pushed by C. Clutch is faulty
D. All of these
A. Clutch fork
B. Clutch 25. What faults develop in the brakes?
C. Clutch bearing
D. None of these
A. Brakes do not work properly B.
Brakes do not disengage C. Brake
19. A hydraulic clutch doesn’t make noise
incorporate a: D. All of these
26. Which of the following types of
A. Clutch plate brakes are also changed while
B. Oil plate replacing brake lining?
C. Vacuum plate
D. None of these A. Brake shoes
B. Shoe rivets
20. The lining of a brake shoe: A. C. Shoe spring
Can be changed D. Block brake
B. Cannot be fitted
C. Can be fitted with spring D.
27. Power brakes require ______ power:
None of these
A. Equal
21. Due to air effect, the hydraulic
B. Less
brakes become:
C. More
D. Pulsating
A. More effective
B. Ineffective 28. That type of oil is used in the
C. Possible hydraulic brake system?
D. None of these
A. Engine oil
22. The efficiency of hydraulic braking
B. Gear oil
system is:
C. Brake oil
A. About 90 percent
D. Clutch oil
B. 60-80 percent
C. 50-60 percent
29. The principal parts of a hydraulic
D. 40-50 percent
brake system are the master cylinder
and the:
23. The SAE recommends an angle of
A. Multi-cylinder
________ for cone clutches faced with
B. Wheel cylinder
leather or asbestos or having cork inserts:
C. Brake wire
D. Brake shoe
A. 7.5 o
 shock?
30. In the mechanical brake system, the
main function is of: A. Band clutch
B. Block clutch
A. Spring C. Centrifugal clutch
B. Cam D. Expanding ring clutch
C. Shoe adjuster
D. Shoe rivets 37. It is used to protect a machine in
case of jamming and for overload
31. In motor vehicles, there is a protection of motors and engine
__________ in addition of foot brake.
A. Dry fluid clutch
A. Hand brake B. Magnetic clutch
B. Hydraulic brake C. Eddy clutch
C. Mechanical brake D. Slip clutch
D. Band brake
38. Refers to the simplest type of brakes.
32. Which of the following is also used in A. Differential brakes
the suspension system? B. Block brakes
A. Shock absorbers C. Band brakes
B. Brake shoes D. Brake shoe
C. Cams
D. Block brakes 39. The practical length of shoe is limited
to about:
33. There are ______ plates in a multi
plate clutch A. 75 o
B. 90 o
A. More than one C. 120 o
B. Less than four D. 180 o
C. More than ten
D. Less than one
40. If the angle of contact is ______, the
pressure between the brakes shoe and
34. Hydraulic clutches are used in the drum cannot be considered uniform:
_______ vehicles.
A. Less than 45 deg
A. Costly
B. Less than 60 deg
B. Foreign made
C. Greater than 60 deg
C. Cheap
D. Greater than 120 deg
D. Affordable
41. It is used to stop the motion of a
35. Which of the following is mounted
moving object.
inside the clutch?
A. Clutch
A. An engine
B. Brakes
B. Gear box propeller shaft C.
C. Band clutch
Both the rear axle
D. Band brake
D. All of these
42. The effectiveness of the brake may
36. Which clutch is suitable for mine
greatly decrease shortly after it begins to
hoists and other services where heavy
act continuously, a phenomenon called:
loads are accompanied by severe
 becomes hot because of friction of the
A. Creep shoe. This fault is known as _______
B. Pressurized
C. Fade A. Brake lining
D. Worn-out B. Brake winding
C. Back plate
43. Type of brake under the category of D. None of these
power brake is known as:
47. The maintenance of mechanical
A. Servo brake brake is:
B. Band brake
C. Differential brake A. Expensive
D. Brake shoe B. Economical
C. Costly
44. Clutches which are designed to D. None of these
transmit torque for one direction of
rotation of the driver and then free 48. What is the most common defect of
wheel or transmit essentially no torque clutch?
when the direction of the driver rotation
is reversed. A. Slip of the clutch
A. Magnetic clutches B. Clutch does not disengage
B. Trip clutches properly
C. Overrunning clutches C. Clutch creates noise
D. Slip clutches D. All of these
45. The reason for noise at the time of
engaging brake: 49. The act keeping some pressure on
the clutch pedal at the time of driving is
A. Back plate being loose or known as:
bent
B. Brake shoe being loose or A. Hydraulic clutch
bent B. Slip of the clutch
C. Brake drum could be C. Riding on clutch
defective D. Clutch adjustment
D. All of these

46. When the vehicle runs brake drum

50. Which of the following shortcoming
in the cone clutch because of which the
clutch is not used?

A. Clutch slips quickly

B. It occupies more space C.
Adjustment has to be done early
D. All of these
TEST 14 B. 26
C. 27
1. It is ideal for maximum quietness in D. 28
sprocket drive operation to choose
_____ or more teeth. 2. It is recommended for high speed
application that the minimum number of
teeth in small sprocket should be:
A. 25
 C. 5 times
A. 12 to 20 D. 6 times
B. 18 to 24
C. 16 to 32 8. Flat leather belting not
D. 14 to 28 recommended for use in a speed in
excess of ________ fpm
3. Consider a maximum safe center
distance of should be _____ pitches. Very A. 3600
long center distance caused catenaries B. 4800
tension in the chain C. 6000
D. All of these
A. 70
B. 80 9. V-belts operate efficiently at speed
C. 90 of about:
D. 100
A. 4500 fpm
4. The recommended lubricant for the B. 4400 fpm
chain drive operation is: C. 4200 fpm
D. 3600 fpm
A. SAE 4140
B. Petroleum Oil 10. It is advised that in rubber belts
C. Moly slip application mounting, it should have an
D. Heavy grease initial tesion of _______

5. Type of leather belt being applied A. 18 to 24

with waterproof cement is called: B. 15 to 20
C. 12 to 15
A. Combination of Oak/Mineral D. 10
Tanned
B. Oak Tanned 11. In shear pin or breaking pin design,
C. Mineral Tanned we may use the date experience by
D. All of these Link-Belt for 1/8 inch pins and the
breaking stress is __________ ksi.
6. What type of leather belting should
be used at an ambient temperature A. 40
above 149 deg F and possible acid B. 55
liquid coming in contact with the belt? C. 50
D. 48
12. A type of V-belts to use in a driving
A. Mineral Tanned pulley with a speed of 260 rpm and
B. Combination of Oak transmitting 5 hp
C. Oak Tanned
D. None of these A. Type C belts
B. Type B belts
C. Type A belts
7. It is recommended not to have a
direct drive and drive sprockets if the D. Type D belts
raio of their teeth exceeds _______ use
two or more combination 13. Belt slip may take place because of:

A. 10 times A. Loose load

B. 8 times B. Heavy Belt
C. Driving pulley too small
 D. All of these
20. Experience suggests that the most
14. A single ply leather belt running at a economical designs are obtained for a
belt velocity of 300ft/min is likely to belt speed of:
transmit ____ per inch of width
A. 2000 to 3000 fpm
A. 2.5 hp B. 3000 to 4000 fpm
B. 3.0 hp C. 4000 to 4500 fpm
C. 4.0 hp D. 4000 to 4000 fpm
D. 5.0 hp
21. For leather belts, recommended
15. What is the density of a leather belt? speed is:

A. 0.035 lb/in3 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm

B. 0.0253 lb/in3 B. 4000 to 5000 fpm
C. 0.046 lb/in3 C. 6000 to 7500 fpm
D. 0.074 lb/in3 D. 7000 to 8000 fpm

16. What is the density of flat belt rubber 22. For fabric belts, recommended
material? speed is:

A. 0.055 lb/in3 A. 2000 to 3000 fpm

B. 2000 and more fpm
B. 0.045 lb/in3
C. 3000 to 4000 fpm
C. 0.0725 lb/in3
D. 4000 to 4500 fpm
D. 0..0726 lb/in3
23. In high speed, centrifugal blowers, it
17. The breaking strength of oak tanned has been observed that the arc of
belting varies from 3 to more than contact reduced from 180 deg at rest to
_______ in motion
A. 5 ksi A. 90 deg
B. 6 ksi B. 95 deg
C. 7 ksi C. 100 deg
D. 8 ksi D. 110 deg

18. If the ends are joined by wire lacing 24. The recommended initial tension of
with machine, the usual efficiency of belt is:
joint is: A. 75 lb/in of width
A. 75% B. 71 lb/in of width
B. 85% C. 73 lb/in of width
C. 88% D. 80 lb/in of width
D. 100%
25. The recommended net belt pill for
19. The tension in the belt due to rubber belt is:
centrifugal force increases rapidly
above A. 11.34 lb/ply per inch of width B.
13.75 lb/ply per inch of width C.
A. 2500 fpm 16.35 lb/ply per inch of width D.
B. 3000 fpm 20.34 lb/ply per inch of width
C. 3500 fpm
D. 4000 fpm 26. If two intersecting shafts are to be
belt connected, how many guide
pulley/s is used? A. It can be used with high
speed drives
A. 1 B. It can be used in dusty and
B. 2 abrasive environments
C. 3 C. It allows long distances
D. 4 between shafts
D. All of these
27. Two shafts at right angles to each
other may be connected by the _____ 33. The best leather has an ultimate
arrangement strength of about

A. Half turn A. 3000 psi

B. Three-fourths turn B. 4000 psi
C. One turn C. 5000 psi
D. Quarter turn D. 6000 psi

28. It offers long life, high efficiency and 34. Initial tensions should range from ___
low cost and low maintenance for leather belts and 10 to 12 lb/ply per
inch of width for rubber belts
A. Flat belt
B. V-belt A. 200 to 240 psi
C. Tooth belt B. 220 to 260 psi
D. All of these C. 240 to 280 psi
D. 260 to 300 psi
29. It is used to connect pulleys to
convey materials by transmitting motion 35. The density of a balata belt is:
and power
A. 0.031 lb/in3
A. Rope B. 0.42 lb/in3
B. Wires
C. 0.51 lb/in3
C. Belt
D. 0.61 lb/in3
D. Flat

30. A crossed belt wider than ______ 36. In the selection of the proper belt, it
is not considered good practice to use
inches should be avoided
single-ply leather belts more than ____
wide
A. 7
B. 8
A. 6 in.
C. 9
B. 7 in.
D. 10
C. 8 in.
D. 9 in.
31. If the pulley ratio is 3:1 or more, the
reduction should be:

A. 25%
B. 50% 37. According to the Goodrich
C. 75% company, the permissible net belt pull is
D. 95% ____ that it gives a simple means for
quick estimation
32. The advantage of flat belt is that:
A. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width B.
 15.75 lb/ply per inch of width C. pitches of chain represents good
16.75 lb/ply per inch of width D. practice.
17.75 lb/ply per inch of width
A. 10 to 20
38. Which type of chain is used in B. 20 to 30
motorcycle? C. 30 to 50
D. 40 to 60
A. Bush roller
B. Pintle 44. The tension ratio of flat belt is:
C. Silent
D. None of these A. 2
B. 3
39. The minimum number of teeth on the C. 4
smaller sprocket for low speeds is: D. 5

A. 12 45. The tension ratio of V-belt is:

B. 14
C. 16 A. 2
D. 18 B. 3
C. 4
40. The minimum number of teeth on the D. 5
smaller sprocket for moderate speeds is:
46. Balata belt is about _____ stronger
A. 15 than rubber
B. 17
C. 19 A. 10%
D. 21 B. 15%
C. 20%
41. The minimum number of teeth on the D. 25%
smaller sprocket for high speeds is:
47. The coefficient of friction between
A. 19 the belt and the pulley for leather belt
B. 21 running on steel pulley is:
C. 23
D. 25 A. 0.1
B. 0.2
42. For maximum quietness, use C. 0.3
sprockets with _____ or more teeth D. 0.5
A. 21
B. 23 48. The capacity of a crossed belt
C. 25 should be reduced to _____ that of an
D. 27 open belt

43. For the average application a A. 25%

center distance equivalent to ____ B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 75%

49. What is the usual factor of safety

used with leather belts?
A. 3
 B. 5
C. 7
D. 10

50. In practice, it is found that arcs less

than ______ required high belt tensions.

A. 155o
B. 165o
C. 175o
D. 180o
TEST 15
A. 96% or more
1. The minimum recommended worm B. 89% or more
pitch diameter is ¼ in and the maximum C. 85% or more
is: D. 98% or more

A. 1 ¾ in 6. The surface of the gear between the

B. 2 ¾ in fillets of adjacent teeth is called:
C. 3 in
D. 2 in A. Bottom land
B. Flank
2. Vertex distance is a term used in ____ C. Top land
gearing D. Flank of tooth

A. Spiral
B. Worm
C. Bevel 7. Bevel gears subjected to corrosion
D. Zerol and lightly loaded are usually made
of:
3. The arc of action to circular pitch or
length of action to base pitch A. Bronze
B. Brass
A. Approach C. Duralumin
B. Contact ratio D. All of these
C. Arc of action
D. Arc of approach 8. If a set of spur gears are made
installed and lubricated properly, they
4. Recommended hardness of pinion normally may be subjected to failures
for helical/herringbone gear tooth like:
should be _____ BHN point to sustain life:
A. Tooth spalling
A. 50-58 B. Tooth penning
B. 48-65 C. Pitting
C. 40-50 D. Shearing
D. 30-60
9. Which of the following is an example
5. In designing gears of power of rectilinear translation?
transmission, consider and efficiency of
_____ as recommended. A. Locomotive wheels
B. Rack gear
 C. Piston of an engine
D. Jack
10. For economical cost in the
manufacturing large worm gears, the
following materials are usually
applied:
15. The amount by which the width of a
tooth space exceeds the thickness of
the engaging tooth on the pitch circles
A. Backlash
B. Clearance

A. Bronze rim with cast steel C. Undercut

spider D. Chordal thickness
B. Cast iron rim with bronze
spider
16. Height of tooth above pitch circle or
radial distance between pitch circles
C. Cast steel rim with brass and top land of the tooth is called:
spider
D. Alloyed aluminum rim with
A. Top tooth
cast iron spider
B. Addendum
C. Land
11. Intermediate gear is also called ____ D. Hunting
gear in a gear train engagement.
17. In involutes teeth, the pressure angle
A. Idler is often defined as the angle between
B. Pinion the line of action and the line of tangent
C. Third gear to pitch circle. It is termed as:
D. Mounted gear
12. The distance of a helical gear or A. Helix angle
worm would thread along its axis in one
B. Angle of recess
revolution if it were to move axially is
C. Angle of obliquity
called:
D. Arc of action

A. Lead
18. The reciprocal of a diametrical pitch
B. Thread or the ratio of pitch diameter to number
C. Pitch of teeth is called:
D. Land
A. Lead
13. Range of helix angle on helical gear
B. Module
is _________.
C. Involute
D. Clearance
A. Less than 18
B. 15 - 25
19. For evenly distributed and uniform
C. 20 - 35
wear on each meshing gear tooth, the
D. 35 – 40
ideal design practice is to consider a:

14. What will be the effect in bushing

A. Wear resistance alloy
gears without backlash?
addition to tooth gear
B. Heat treatment of the gears C.
A. Jamming Hardening of each
B. Overheating D. Hunting tooth addition
C. Overload
D. All of these
20. It is used to transmit power at high
velocity ratios between non-intersecting
 shafts that are usually but not necessarily
at right angle. 26. _______ is the difference of
addendum and dedendum, which is
A. Helical gear equivalent to the whole depth less
B. Bevel gear working depth.
C. Worm gear
D. Spiral gear A. Fillet Space
B. Fillet Radius
21. In gear design, the ratio of pitch C. Clearance
diameter, in inches to the number of D. Backlash
teeth is called:
27. For moderate speed of mating
A. Module gears, the ideal ratio contact is:
B. Diametral Pitch
C. English Module A. 1.25 – 4.00
D. Circular Pitch B. 1.20 – 1.45
C. 1.00 – 1.30
22. The concave portion of tooth profile D. 1.35 – 1.45
where it joints the bottom of the tooth
filler curve is called:
28. The distance a helical gear or worm
would thread along its axis in one
A. Fillet curve revolution if it free to move axially is
B. Fillet radius called:
C. Bottom depth
D. Fillet A. Length of action
23. The distance of the tooth, which is B. Length of contact
equal to the sum of the addendum and C. Land
dedendum is known as: D. Lead

A. Full depth 29. Hyphoid gear is a special type of

B. Whole depth gear like:
C. Working depth
D. Dedendum A. Worm Gear
B. Spur Gear
24. It is used to change rotary motion to C. Herring Gear
reciprocating motion. D. Bevel Gear

A. Helical Gear 30. What type of gear is used for high

B. Rack Gear speed operation?
C. Worm Gear
D. Spur Gear A. Helical
B. Spur
25. Tooth width measure along the C. Bevel
chord at the pitch circle is known as: D. Worm
31. In a pair of gears, _____ is the plane
A. Flank perpendicular to the axial plane and
B. Face Width tangent to the pitch surface.

C. Width of face A. Pitch

D. Chordal Thickness B. Pitch Plane
 C. Pitch Circle
D. Pitch point 37. Fillet radius in machine parts is usually
introduced to:
32. What type of gear, which can
transmit power at a certain angle? A. Improve the look of the
patch
A. Helical Gear B. Reduce concentration of stress
B. Worm Gear and extend life of the parts
C. Bevel Gear C. Avoid obstruction
D. Herringbone Gear D. Necessary to lessen casting
weight
33. _______ commonly used in a parallel
shaft transmission especially when a 38. A type of gear tooth cut inside a
smooth continuous action is essential as cylinder or ring is termed as:
in high speed drives up to 12,000 fpm.
A. Rack Gear
A. Bevel Gear B. Ring Gear
B. Herringbone Gear C. Miter Gear
C. Spur Gear D. Internal Gear
D. Helical Gear
34. The hardness of helical and 39. The length of arc between the two
herringbone gear teeth after heat sides of a gear tooth on the pitch
treatment is 210 to 300 Brinell Hardness, circle.
for gear and pinion is at:
A. Circle Thickness
A. 360 Brinell minimum B. Axial Plane
B. 400 Brinell maximum C. Helix Angle
C. 340 – 350 normal D. Chordal Curves
D. All of these 40. Which of the following materials to
be utilized to reduce cost in the
35. The path of contact involute gears manufacture of large worm gears?
where the force/power is actually
transmitted, it is a straight imaginary line A. Alloyed Aluminum
passing through the pitch point and B. Bronze Rim with Cast Iron
tangent to the base circle is known as Spider
_____. C. Cast Iron Rim with Bronze
Spider
A. Principal Reference Plane B. D. All of these
Pitch point
C. Front Angle 41. A circle bounding the bottom of the
D. Line of Action teeth

36. _______ is the angle at the base A. Addendum Circle

cylinder of an involute gear that the B. Addendum Cylinder
tooth maxes with the gear axis C. Pitch Circle
D. Dedendum Circle
A. Base Helix Angle
B. Pressure Angle 42. ______ is one in which angle is 90
C. Arc of Recess degrees that is the pitch cone has
D. Arc of Approach become a plane
 B. Bevel Cones
A. Crown Gear C. Spherical Cones
B. Angular Gear D. Friction
C. Miter Gear
D. Spiral Gear TEST 16
43. A ______ formed by elements, which
1. Tooth width measurement along the
are perpendicular to the elements of the
chord at the pitch circle
pitch cone at the large end.

A. Cone Distance A. Chord Space

B. Back Cone B. Chord Clearance
C. Root Cone C. Chordal Thickness
D. Cone Center D. Chordal Length

44. A bevel gear of the same size
mounted on a shaft at 90 degrees is
called:
A. Crown Gear
B. Spur Gear
C. Angular Gear
D. Miter Gear
45. Gearing in which motion or power
that is transmitted depends upon the
friction between the surfaces in
contact
A. Bevel Gears
B. Spur Friction wheels
C. Evans Friction Cones
D. Friction Gearing
46. Wheels are sometimes used for the
transmission of high power when an
approximately constant velocity ratio is
desired is called:
A. Bevel Cones
B. Friction Gearing
C. Spur Friction Wheels
D. Evans Friction Wheels
2. Herringbone gears are gears which:
A. Do not operate parallel shafts B.
Have a line contact between the
teeth
C. Tend to produce and thrust on
the shafts
D. Consists of two left handed
helical gears
3. In usual spur gearing, the:
A. Pitch circle and base circle are
the same
B. Working depth induces
clearance
C. Tooth outline are always
cycloidal curves
48. If gears cannot, parallel shafts, they
are called:
A. Cycloidal Gears
B. Helical Gears
C. Spur Gears
D. Toothed Gears
49. ______ is used to transmit power
between shafts axis of which it
intersect

A. Spur Gears
47. The frustums of two cones used in a
B. Bevel Gears
manner to permit a variation of velocity
C. Helical Gears
ratio between two parallel shafts are
D. Straight Bevel Gears
called:
50. The space between the adjacent
A. Evans Friction Cones
teeth is called:
 C. Helical Gear
A. Tooth D. Bevel Gear
B. Flank
C. Backlash 9. The ratio of the number of teeth to
D. Width the number of mm of pitch diameter
equals number of gear teeth to each
mm pitch diameter

A. Diametral Pitch
D. Tooth outlines are usually
B. Module
involute curves
C. Circular Pitch
D. English Module
4. _____ is a kind of gear used to
transmit motion from one shaft to
10. The depth of tooth space below the
another shaft at angle to the first
pitch circle

A. Worm Gear
A. Dedendum
B. Bevel Gear
B. Working Depth
C. Helical Gear
C. Full Depth
D. Spur Gear
D. Tooth Depth
5. A circle coinciding with a tangent to
11. The total depth of a tooth space,
the bottom of the tooth spaces A. Pitch
equal to addendum plus Dedendum
Circle
B. Root Circle
C. Base Circle A. Full Depth
D. Outside Circle B. Working Depth
C. Whole Depth
D. Dedendum
6. A circle the radius of which is equal to
the distance from the gear axis to the
pitch point 12. A circle coinciding with a tangent to
the bottom of the tooth space
A. Pitch Circle
B. Root Circle A. Root circle
C. Base Circle B. Pitch circle
D. Outside Circle C. Addendum circle
D. Dedendum
7. Ratio of pitch diameter to the
number of teeth 13. The diameter of a circle coinciding
with the top of the teeth of an internal
gear
A. Diametral Pitch
B. Module
C. Contact Ratio A. Pitch diameter
D. Helical Overlap B. Root diameter
C. Internal diameter
D. Central diameter
8. A kind of gear used for duty works
where a large ratio of speed is required
and are extensively used in speed 14. A gear with teeth on the outer
reducer is known as: cylindrical surface.

A. Worm Gear A. Outer gear

B. Spiral Gear B. External gear
 C. Spiral gear indications of the size of the gear
D. Helical gear teeth

15. Addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth A. Module

B. Pitch Circle
A. Cycloid C. Diametral Pitch
B. Epicycloid D. Circular Pitch
C. Straight Rack 21. An imaginary circle passing through
D. Involute the points at which the teeth of the
16. When meshed with a gear, it is used meshing gears contact each other.
to change rotary motion to
reciprocating motion is: A. Pitch Circle
B. Addendum Circle
A. Gear Shaft C. Dedendum Circle
B. Gear Tooth D. Base Circle
C. Gear Rack
D. Gear Motor 22. If the lead angle of a worm is 22.5
degrees then the helix angle will be
______

17. The portion of a gear tooth space

that is cut below the pitch circle and is A. 45 degrees
equal to the addendum plus the B. 67.5 degrees
clearance C. 22.5 degrees
D. 90 degrees
A. Root
B. Dedendum 23. Refers to the smallest wheel of a
C. Addendum gear train
D. Tooth Space
A. Pinion
18. The portion of a gear tooth that B. Idler
projects above or outside the pitch C. Spur
circle D. Driver

A. Top Relief 24. Spiral Gears are suitable for

B. Dedendum transmitting:
C. Addendum A. Small power
D. Tooth Space B. Any power
C. Huge power
19. The distance from the center of one D. Pulsating power
tooth of a gear to the center next
consecutive tooth measured on the 25. Zero axial thrust is experienced in:
pitch.
A. Helical gears
A. Circular Pitch B. Herringbone gears
B. Module C. Spiral gears
C. Diametral Pitch D. Bevel gears
D. Circular Pitch
26. Bevel gears are used to transmit
20. The number of teeth per inch of rotary motion between two shafts whose
pitch diameter and which gives some axes are:
 D. The surface of the top of the
A. Parallel tooth
B. Non-coplanar
C. Non-intersecting 32. A reverted gear train is one in which:
D. None of these
A. The direction of rotation of first
27. According to the law of gearing: and last gear is opposite
B. The direction of rotation of first
A. Teeth should be involute type B. and last gear is the same
Clearance between mating teeth C. The first and last gear are
should be provided essentially on separate but
C. Dedendum should be equal to parallel shafts
1.57 M D. None of these
D. None of these
33. For best running conditions of a gear,
28. Gears for watches are generally the contact ratio should be about:
manufactured by:
A. 1.25 to 1.40
A. Die casting B. 1.20 to 1.45
B. Machining on hobber C. 1.34 to 1.56
D. 1.62 to 1.45
C. Machining on a gear shaper D. 34. The _____ full depth teeth have the
Stamping advantages of the greater capacity
and less interference trouble.
29. In case of gears, the addendum is
given by A. 14.5o
B. 24o
A. One module C. 20o
B. 2.157 x module D. 30o
C. 1.57 x module
D. 1.25 x module 35. _______ is the average tangential
force on the teeth is then obtained from
30. In case of cross helical worm, the the horsepower
axes of two shafts are:
A. Total load
A. Parallel B. Separation load
B. Intersecting C. Pressure load
C. Non-parallel D. Tangential load
D. Non-parallel/non-intersecting 36. The service factor of a gear may be
taken as ____ _is an electric motor drives
31. In case of spur gears, the flank of the a centrifugal blower
tooth is: A. 1
B. 2
A. The part of the tooth surface lying C. 3
below the pitch surface D. 4
B. The curve forming face and flank
37. The kind of a wear occurs because
of a fatigue failure of the surfaces
C. The width of the gear tooth material as a result of high contact
measured axially along the pitch stresses is known as:
surface
 A. Slotting A. Hunting tooth
B. Pitting B. Tooth profile
C. Involuting C. Dummy tooth
D. Curving D. Add tooth

38. ______ is caused by foreign matter 43. The length of the hub should not be
such as grit or metal particles or by a made ____ the face width of the gear.
failure of the oil film at low speed
A. Less than
A. Suction B. Equal
B. Scoring C. Greater
C. Abrasion D. None of these
D. Corrosion
44. _____ is a gear that has teeth cut on
39. _______ occurs when the oil film fails the inside of the rim instead of on the
but in this case, the load and speed are outside
so high that the surface metal is melted
and the metal is melted and the metal is A. External gear
smeared down the profile. B. Involute gear
C. Stub gear
A. Abrasion D. Annular gear
B. Corrosion
C. Spalling 45. To estimate fouling, let the minimum
D. Scoring differences in tooth numbers between
the internal gear and pinion be _____ for
40. _______ is a surface fatigue of 14.5 deg involute depth
greater extent than pitting that is the
flakes are much larger. This type of A. 10 teeth
failure occurs in surface-hardened B. 12 teeth
teeth. C. 14 teeth
D. 16 teeth
A. Abrasion
B. Corrosion TEST 17
C. Spalling
D. Scoring 1. Helical gears mounted on non
parallel shafts are called _____
41. Buckingham says that mating
phenolic gears with steel of BHN less A. Open gear
than ____ leads to excessive abrasive B. Crossed helical gear
wear C. Closed helical gear
D. Herringbone gear
A. 200 46. The loss pair of spur, helical or bevel
B. 300 gears in an ordinary train should not
C. 400 exceed:
D. 500
A. 4%
42. ____ is the extra tooth in gear, which B. 6%
is used to distribute the wear more C. 2%
evenly. D. 5%
 C. Pitch cone
47. The typical helix angle ranges from D. Cylinder
_____ to _____
4. It refers to the length of pitch cone in
A. 10 deg to 12 deg a bevel gear
B. 12 deg to 15 deg
C. 14 deg to 20 deg A. Cone center
D. 15 deg to 25 deg B. Lead
C. Center distance
48. _____ is the advance of the tooth in D. Pitch
the face width divided by circular
pitch. 5. Refers to the cone that is performed
by the elements of top lands
A. Face contact ratio
B. Speed ratio A. Face cone
C. Profile ratio B. Root face
D. Advance ratio C. Dial face
D. Pitch face
49. The distance between the teeth
measured on the pitch surface along a
normal to the helix 6. The cone formed by the elements of
bottom lands
A. Lead A. Face cone
B. Lead angle B. Root cone
C. Normal circular pitch
D. Pitch C. Back cone
D. Rake cone
50. The hardness of a helical and
herringbone teeth cut after heat 7. An imaginary cone whose elements
treatment will generally fall between the are perpendicular to the pitch cone
limits of ______. elements at the large end of the tooth.
A. 210 and 300 Brinell
B. 147 and 300 Brinell A. Front cone
C. 230 and 320 Brinell B. Side cone
D. 220 and 320 Brinell C. Rear cone
D. Back cone

2. _____ is used to connect intersecting 8. _____ is one whose tooth profiles

shafts, usually but not necessarily at 90 consists of straight elements that
degrees converge to a point at the cone
center.
A. Bevel gear
B. Helical gear A. Circular bevel gear
C. Spur gear B. Straight bevel gear
D. Worm gear C. Path bevel gear
3. Bevel gear teeth are built with D. Herringbone gear
respect to a ____ rather than to a pitch 9. The desired quality in gear is A.
cylinder as ion spur gears. Quietness
B. Durability
A. Pitch pedal C. Strength
B. Pitch profile D. All of these
 10. Straight and zerol bevel gears should C. Miter gear
not be sued when the pitch line velocity D. Tangent gear
is greater than:
16. The use of gearbox provides:
A. 800 rpm
B. 850 rpm A. Gear leverage
C. 875 rpm B. More torque
D. 900 rpm C. More speed
D. None of these
11. The spiral bevel gears are 17. For equalizing the rotation of two
recommended when the pitch line gears, a gearbox employs”
speed exceeds:
A. Dog and clutch
B. Crown gear
A. 1000 fpm C. Star pinion
B. 1100 fpm D. None of these
C. 1500 fpm
D. 2000 fpm 18. In a constant mesh gearbox, all the
speed gears remain:
12. When the pitch line speed is above
800 fpm the teeth should be: A. Separate
B. Joined to their couple
A. Ground after hardening B. C. Of the same measurements D.
Should be cooled in air None of these
C. Should be quenched after D.
None of these 19. If a big gear is moved by a small
gear then the big gear
13. ______ have curved teeth as in spiral
bevels, but with zero angle. A. Will not rotate
B. Will rotate reverse direction C.
A. Spiral gears Will not rotate fastly
B. Zerol bevel gears D. None of these
C. Zero bevel gears
D. Straight bevel gears 20. ______ are bevel gears mounted on
intersecting shafts at angle other than 90
14. ______ is a gear that has an degrees.
advantage of smoother tooth
engagement quietness of operation A. Right angle gears
greater and higher permissible B. Half gears
speeds. C. Inclined gears
D. Angular gears
A. Zerol bevel gear
B. Straight bevel gear 21. The pitch angle is 90 degrees that is,
C. Hypoid bevel gear the pitch has become a plane
D. Spiral bevel gear
15. When the pair of bevel gears of the A. Atten gear
same size is on shafts intersecting at right B. Crown gear
angle, they are called _____ C. Cool gear
D. Hiphap gear
A. Mold gear
B. Helix angle 22. ____ is used to transmit power
between non-intersecting shafts, nearly
always at right angle to each other

A. Spur gear
B. Ordinary gear
C. Bevel gear
D. Worm gear

23. What are the two types of

construction for the worm?

A. Shell and cylindrical

B. Shell and zigzag
C. Shell and integral
D. Tube and integral

24. The standard pressure angle for fine

pitch gears is ______ gears and is
recommended for most applications

A. 14.5 degrees
B. 16 degrees
C. 20 degrees
D. 21 degrees

25. The contact ratio of a pair of mating

spur gears must be well over ____ to
insure a smooth transfer of load from
one pair of teeth to the next pair.

A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 3.0
D. 4.0

26. As general rule contact ratio should

not be less than:

A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:3
D. 1:4

27. Surface roughness on active profile

surfaces on gear is about ____ pitch