1. A 26/M presented with progressive dyspnoea on exertion for 5 months.

He is a stone
crusher. He had a long‐standing cough with whitish sputum production, but denied fever,
chills, weight loss, night sweats, and other symptoms. The patient undergoes bronchoscopy
with bronchoalveolar lavage. The effuent appears milky. The cytopathology shows
amorphous debris with periodic acid-Schif (PAS)–positive macrophages. What is the
diagnosis?
A. Tuberculosis B. Cryptogenic organising Pneumonia
C. ARDS D. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

2. A 58/M with a smoking history of 30 pack-years presents to the emergency department

after an episode of acute chest pain and shortness of breath. On physical examination, there
is marked reduction of the breath sounds in the left hemithorax and tympanic note on
percussion. Diagnosis ?
(A) Bacterial pneumonia (B) Pneumothorax (C) Bronchial obstruction (D) Pleural effusion

3. A 60 Y M smoker patient presented with haemoptysis and persistent cough. The CXR is
normal. The next best investigation is
a)Reassure b) Chest CT c) Bronchoscopy d) Angiography

4. A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For
angiographic treatment which vascular structure should be evaluated first
a. pulmonary artery b. bronchial artery c. pulmonary vein d. superior venacava

5. A bed-ridden patient on liquid diet develops aspiration pneumonia resulting a lung abscess.
Which of the following is bronchopulmonary segment is most likely affected
A Posterior segment of right upper lobe
B Inferior lingular of left upper lobe
C Apical of Left lower lobe
D Posterior segment of Right lower lobe

6. DLCO is decreased in all except

a. Pulmonary fibrosis b. ILD c. Alveolar hemorrhage d. Severe emphysema

7 . A 65/M, chronic smoker is evaluated or progressive dyspnea with a low-pitched inspiratory and
expiratory wheeze. His medical history is significant for an episode of necrotizing pancreatitis that
resulted in ARDS and mechanical ventilation for 6 weeks prior to his recovery The flow volume curve is
shown in Figure . What is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
 A. Aspirated foreign body B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Idiopathic pulmonary Fibrosis D. Subglottic stenosis

8. A 74-year-old man is evaluated for a 5-year history of gradually progressive dyspnea and dry
cough without wheezing or hemoptysis. For the past 2 years he has had pain and occasional
swelling in both knees. He has not had fever or lost weight. He smoked one pack of cigarettes a
day from the age of 18 to 60 years. He worked as an roofer for 40 years. Physical examination
shows no digital clubbing or cyanosis. Auscultation of the lungs reveals bilateral end-inspiratory
crackles. Pulmonary function testing shows:

Total lung capacity 67% of predicted

Residual volume 72% of predicted
FVC 65% of predicted
FEV1 75% of predicted
FEV1/FVC ratio 89% (Normal)
DLCO 52% of predicted

His chest radiograph is suggestive of Bilateral lower zone predominant lesions. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Emphysema B. Asbestosis C. Pneumonia D. Bronchogenic Carcinoma

9. Identify the correct combination of the spirometric curves

a)A :Restrictive B: Obstructive C: Normal
b) A : obstructive B:Restrictive C: Normal
c) A : Normal B: Obstructive C: Restrictive
d) A: Obstructive B: Normal C: Restrictive

10. All of the following are typically characterized as an obstructive lung disease EXCEPT:

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Asthma
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Chronic bronchitis

11. A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance as his family found
him unresponsive at home. He has a history of intravenous drug abuse and human immune
deficiency virus (HIV) with medical noncompliance. His last CD4 count was <200/µL. On initial
evaluation, his BP 120/75 mmHg, Pulse 105 bpm, respiratory rate 8/min, ABG on room air
reveals pH : 7.16, PaCO2 : 70 mmHg & PaO2 : 55 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Asthma B. Narcotic overdose C. Pneumococcal pneumonia D. Pneumocystis pneumonia

12. All of the following are true about respiratory failure in ILD except ?
a. Decreased PaO2 b. Decreased PaCO2 c. Type 1 is seen d. Normal A-a gradient

13. In ARDS not true is

a. Decreased pulmonary compliance

b. Diffuse alveolar damage

c. Increased Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

d. Severe hypoxemia

14. A 30 year old presented with features of acute pancreatitis. Few days later he developed
dyspnea. His chest Xray is shown below. The probable respiratory failure is ?
 A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

15. All are true for Pulmonary Embolism except

a. Plasma D- dimer assay has high negative predictive value b. ABG lacks diagnostic utility
c. Westermarks sign is dilated pulmonary artery d. A normal or nearly normal chest x-ray often occurs in PE.

16. A 75 /M admitted in ICU for 5 days developed sudden onset dyspnea with chest pain. D dimer is positive . CT
angiography shows pulmonary artery thrombus. BP is 70/50 mmHg. Anticoagulation with unfractionated heparin is
administered. After a fluid bolus of 1 L, the patient’s blood pressure remains low at 88/50 mmHg. Echocardiogram
demonstrates hypokinesis of the right ventricle. On 100% non-rebreather mask, the SaO2 is 92%. What is the next
best step in management of this patient?
A. Continue current management.
B. Continue IV fuids at 500 mL/hr for a total of 4 L of fluid resuscitation and refer to surgical
embolectomy.
C. Refer for inferior vena cava filter placement and continue current management.
D. Treat with dopamine and recombinant tissue plasminogen activator, 100 mg IV

17. Match the pulmonary function test results to Idiopathic Pulmonary hypertension
which it is most likely to be found.
A. Increased total lung capacity (TLC), decreased vital capacity (VC), decreased FEV1/FVC ratio
B. Decreased TLC, decreased VC, decreased residual volume (RV), increased FEV1/FVC ratio,
C. Decreased TLC, increased RV, normal FEV1/FVC ratio, decreased DLCO
D. Normal TLC, normal RV, normal FEV1/FVC ratio, decreased DLCO

18. Most common cause of Pulmonary Hypertension

a. WHO Group I b. WHO Group II c. WHO Group III d. WHO Group IV

19. A 60 yr old Diabetic was diagnosed to have CAP and was to be treated on Outpatient basis. Most appropriate
choice of drugs
a.Clindamycin b. Azithromycin alone c. Amoxicillin + Azithromycin d. Doxycycline alone

20. A 68/M presented with shortness of breath, fever, chills and cough with purulent sputum production for the
last 2 days. He is conscious coherent, BP :105/70 mmHg, Pulse : 110 beats per min, breathing rate 32 breaths per
min, and temperature 38.9 °C. Bronchial breath sounds are heard on auscultation of the right chest. Blood tests
show elevated WBC count , urea 9 mMol/L, creatinine 1.6 mg% sodium 142 mmol/l and oxygen saturation (room
air) 92%. A chest radiograph demonstrates moderate cardiomegaly and a right lower lobe infiltrate with air
bronchograms. Which one of the following is the appropriate management decision for this patient?
a. Treat as an outpatient, start empirical antibiotic therapy without further examinations
b. Treat as an outpatient, take blood and sputum cultures, start empirical antibiotic therapy
c. Admit to hospital, start empirical antibiotic therapy within 4 h of admission
d. Admit to ICU, take blood and sputum cultures and Gram stains, start antibiotic therapy according
to results
21. Regarding Lung abscess all are true except :
a. The posterior upper lobes and superior lower lobes of right lung are the most common locations of primary lung
abscesses.
b. For primary lung abscesses, the recommended treatment is with clindamycin
c. Primary lung abscesses are most common in ~80% of cases
d. Secondary lung abscesses usually arise from aspiration

22. The most common causative organism for lobar pneumonia is

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Haemophilus influenzae

23. 60 Y/M , Diabetic and chronic alcoholic was admitted to the hospital with a with fever and cough.
Physical examination is remarkable for a temperature of 39_C and the presence of bronchial breath
sounds on right side chest. Except for an elevated white count. Chest radiography reveals Right sided
opacity. Which of the following organism can produce the below feature?

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b. E.coli

c. Klebsiella pneumoniae

d. Staphylococcus aureus

24. All of following features are seen in the viral pneumonia except :
a. Presence of interstitial inflammation
b. Predominance of alveolar exudates
c. Bronchiolitis
d. Multinucleate giant cells in the bronchiolar wall
25. All are false regarding TB effusion except :
A Usually bilateral in nature
B The most common cause of an exudative pleural effusion
C Tubercular pleural effusions are Lymphocyte predominant and with Low ADA levels
D In tuberculous pleurisy, pleural effusions smears for acid-fast bacilli are positive in 60% of tuberculous effusions

26. A 40-year-old man is evaluated for shortness of breath and left-sided chest discomfort without cough, fever, or
hemoptysis. He had a contusion to the left side of his chest and back 3 weeks ago in an automobile accident. The
patient has a history of lymphoma. Chest radiograph shows a moderate-sized, left-sided pleural effusion without a
pneumothorax. Thoracentesis yields 500 mL of pleural fluid, and analysis shows: Total protein 3.5 g/dL , LDH 250
U/L , Amylase 25 U/L Triglycerides 145 mg/dL , Cholesterol 38 mg/dL Cytology, Gram stain, acid-fast bacilli stain,
and bacterial culture are negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Chylothorax B Lymphomatous pleural effusion
C Parapneumonic effusion D Tuberculous pleural effusion

27. All are true Rheumatoid arthritis associated Pleural effusion except :
a. High protein b. High LDH c. High glucose d. High RA factor

28.A 64/M requires endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation for COPD. You are called acutely
to the bedside when his BP abruptly drops to 70/40 mmHg. You notice high peak inspiratory pressures
alarm on the ventilator. Breath sounds are inaudible on the right side and are clear on the left. What is the
best course of action at this time?
A. Administer a fluid bolus to improve venous return.
B. Disconnect the patient from the ventilator to allow a full exhalation.
C. Place a large-bore needle into the right second anterior intercostal space to alleviate a tension
pneumothorax.
D. Sedate the patient to achieve ventilator synchrony.

29. A 58-year-old male smoker with a smoking history of 50 pack-years presents to the emergency department after
an episode of acute chest pain and shortness of breath and low BP. On physical examination, there is marked
reduction of the breath sounds in the left hemithorax with hyper resonant note. Following are true about this
patient except
a. This condition is usually a clinical diagnosis
b. Pressure in the pleural space is positive throughout the respiratory cycle.
c. decreased venous return to the heart and reduced cardiac output.
d. Shift of the mediastinum to the ipsilateral side of disease
30. In a patient with clinical signs of asthma which of the following tests will suggest diagnosis?
A. Increase in FEV1/FVC B. > 200 ml increase in FeV1 after methacholine
C. Diurnal variation PEFR > 20% D. Reduction in FeV1> 20% after bronchodilators

31. Test to measure eosinophilic airway inflammation in asthma

a. ventilation-perfusion scan b. FENO c. DLCO d. Helium dilution method

32. The following are indications for assisted ventilation in acute severe asthma EXCEPT
a. rising paCo2> 45 mm.Hg. b. PEFR 50-60% of predicted value
c. silent chest d. diminishing level of consciousness

33. Bronchial thermoplasty is approved in treatment of

A. Bronchogenic Carcinoma
B. Asthma
C. COPD
D. Bronchiectasis

34. In a patient with COPD, the most appropriate method for measuring lung volumes is
A. body plethysmography
B. diffusing capacity of carbon monoxide
C. spirometry
D. helium dilution
35. Following drug has been approved to reduce exacerbation frequency in patients with severe COPD
A. Roflumilast
B. Riocugat
C. Rivaroxaban
D. Reslizumab

36. True regarding 02 therapy in COPD

A. Indicated if Resting PaO 2 of < 65 mmHg
B. Indicated if Resting PaO 2 of 56-59 mmHg with evidence of end-organ dysfunction such as
pulmonary hypertension.
C. Oxygen should be prescribed to hypoxemic patients, with a target SpO2 between 94 - 98%.
D. Supplemental O2 did not demonstrate decrease mortality rates in patients with COPD

37. Following comes under very severe COPD according to GOLD staging of COPD
a. FEV1 < 80 % Predicted b. FEV1 < 60 % Predicted
c. FEV1 < 40 % Predicted d. FEV1 < 30 % Predicted

38. Long term antibiotics used in patients of bronchiectasis with recurrent exacerbations are all except:
a. Inhaled Colistin b. Azithromycin
c. Intermittent IV antibiotics d. Clindamycin

39. Which of the following statements about cystic fibrosis is/are correct?
1. The most common mutation is F508del mutation on chromosome 7.
2. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis occurs in ~5% of individuals
3. Congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens leads to infertility in men with cystic fibrosis.
4. Long-term, low-dose macrolide therapy (azithromycin) should be considered to reduce the frequency of
exacerbations
A. Only 1 & 2 B. Only 1,2 & 3 c. Only 1& 3 d. All
40. Bronchiectasis more pronounced in mid lung fields is commonly seen in
a. Post radiation fibrosis b. cystic fibrosis
c. chronic reccurrent aspiration d. Mycobacterium avium infection

41.Regarding Invasive Pulmonary Aspergillosis all are true except :

A. More than 80% of invasive disease cases involve the lungs; in pts who are significantly immunocompromised
B. A. fumigatus is responsible for most cases of invasive aspergillosis
c. Halo signs are present late in the course of infection in neutropenic patients
d. Voriconazole is the primary treatment

42. . A 37 year-old patient presents with adult-onset asthma. Due to increased production of brownish sputum
production, and perihilar and upper lobe opacities on a conventional chest radiograph. A CT image is shown
below .Which of the following statements concerning a suspected underlying disorder is correct?

a. Fungal invasion of the bronchial mucosa is typically found in bronchoscopic biopsy specimens.
b. Total serum IgE and blood eosinophils are typically normal.
c. A skin prick test to A. fumigatus is usually positive
d. Immunosuppressive therapy should be started with a combined regimen of glucocorticoids and
cyclophosphamide or a monoclonal antibody against CD20 receptor.

43. A 34-year-old woman seeks evaluation for a complaint of dry cough and dyspnea on exertion
that has gradually worsened over 3 months. Her duties in a pet shop include cleaning the
bird cages. Clinical examination reveals inspiratory crepitations. Chest X-ray shows diffuse pulmonary infiltrates.
Peripheral blood picture shows normal eosinophil count and serum IGE levels are normal. A transbronchial biopsy
shows noncaseating granulomas. All cultures are negative for bacterial, viral, and fungal pathogens. What is the
diagnosis?
a. Sarcoidosis. b. Allergic bronchopulmonaryAspergillosis[ABPA].
c. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis. d. Poorly controlled asthma
44. Hot tub lung is best related to
a. Molds in air conditioners b. Pigeon dust
c. Mycobacterium avium complex d. Thermophilic actinomycetes
45. A 75/M is referred for dyspnoea on exertion and chronic cough that have worsened progressively over the past
12 months. PFT shows restriction with DLCO of 38% predicted. The chest radiograph shows bilateral patchy
infltrates, mostly at the lung bases. HRCT is shown below. What is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?

a. Pirfenidone
b. Bosentan
c. Acetylcysteine
d. Prednisolone/azathioprine
46.ILD that is less prevalent in smokers
a. RBILD b. Acute eosinophilic pneumonia
c. Pulmonary hemorrhage syndrome d. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
47. Which of the following is true regarding non specific interstitial pneumonia
a. Diffuse Honey combing on CT
b. fibroblastic foci very common
c. elderly aged
d. good prognosis with steroids
48. Most common pulmonary manifestation of Rheumatoid arthritis
a. Caplan syndrome b. Pleuritis c. Pulmonary HTN d. cavities
49. Which of the following statements regarding interstitial lung disease (ILD) associated with
connective tissue disorder is false?
A) Intrapulmonary nodules are seen in cases with rheumatoid arthritis
B) Chronic progressive ILD is the most common manifestation of SLE
C) Diffuse Alveolar haemorrhage can occur with SLE
D) Reduced lung volumes due to diaphragmatic dysfunction is a known pulmonary complication of
SLE

50. What would be the expected finding on bronchoalveolar lavage in a patient with diffuse alveolar
hemorrhage?
 A. Milky appearance with foamy macrophages B. Ferruginous bodies
C. Hemosiderin laden macrophages D. Lymphocytosis with an elevated CD4:CD8 ratio

51. A 60 Y/M is referred for dyspnoea on exertion and chronic cough. His dyspnoea and cough
have worsened continuously during the past 12 months. He is a smoker. On Auscultation B/L
Inspiratory Fine crepts are heard. Pulmonary function testing reveals an FEV1 of 65%
predicted, FVC of 67% predicted, FEV1/FVC ratio of 74%, TLC of 68% predicted, and difusion
capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO) of 62% predicted. Which test is next step to determine
the etiology of the patient’s dyspnea?
A. Bronchoscopy with transbronchial lung biopsy
B. CT pulmonary angiography
C. Echocardiography
D. High-resolution CT scan of the chest
52. Which of the following is not a component of polysomnography?
a. EEG b. EOG
c. Intra arterial oxygen monitoring d. Limb movements
53. In STOP BANG questionnaire A stands for

A. Apnea  B. Age  C. Any Comorbidities D. Altered sensorium

54.Immunotherapy approved in treatment of Lung cancer

1. Mepolizumab 2.Nivolumab 3. Pembrolizumab 4. Reslizumab 5.Omalizumab
A. All B. only 1234 C. Only 2 & 3 D. Only 123

55. False regarding pneumoconiosis is

a. Coal worker pneumoconiosis is associated with lung cancer
b. Pleural plaques in asbestosis doesn’t cause functional impairement
c. Caplan syndrome is rheumatoid arthritis with silicosis
d. Silicosis is associated with increased risk of rheumatoid arthritis

56. A 70-year-old man is referred because of 2-year history of progressive exertional dyspnea and an abnormal lung
examination. He has no significant cough, hemoptysis, or chest pain, and he has never smoked. He worked as an
roofer for 30 years and retired 10 years ago. On physical examination, fine end-inspiratory crackles are auscultated
at both lung bases. He has clubbing of the fingers. Chest radiograph and pulmonary function tests are ordered. In
addition to bilateral lower lobe reticular interstitial opacities, what radiographic feature is likely to be found in this
patient? A.
Eggshell calcification of lymph nodes B. Upper lobe pulmonary nodules
C. Calcified pleural plaques D. Cavitating pulmonary nodules and masses

57. Which of the following is a known consequence of asbestos exposure?

(A) Mesothelioma is the most common cancer associated with asbestosis
(B) Pleural effusions, often initially benign
(C) Smoking does not increase the risk of lung cancer in those with asbestos exposure
(D) An obstructive pattern, typically revealed by pulmonary function testing
58. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy are most commonly associated with which lung cancer
a. Adenocarcinoma b. squamous c. small cell d. large cell
59. Which of the following is correct regarding small cell lung cancer compared to non-small cell lung
cancer?
(A) Small cell lung cancer is more radiosensitive.
(B) Small cell lung cancer is less chemosensitive.
(C) Small cell lung cancer is more likely to present peripherally in the lung.
(D) Small cell lung cancer has better prognosis
60. A 60 / M , known case of bronchogenic carcinoma presenting with polyuria, pain abdomen, nausea, vomiting,
altered sensorium was found to have hypercalcemia .The histological variant can be mostly
a. Small cell b. Large cell
c. Adenocarcinoma d. Squamous cell

61. An oncologist is considering treatment options for patients with lung cancer, including small-molecule
therapy targeting the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR). Which of
the following patients is most likely to have an EGFR mutation?
A. A 23-year-old man with a hamartoma
B. A 33-year-old woman with a carcinoid tumor
C. A 45-year-old woman who has never smoked with an adenocarcinoma
D. A 56-year-old man with a 100-pack-year history of tobacco use with small-cell lung carcinoma

62. A 20 years old women presents with a dry cough and dyspnoea. A Chest X-ray has been performed and
demonstrates bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with bilateral well defined 3mm parenchymal nodules All of the
following investigations are used except :
A. CD4/CD8 count in blood B. Serum ACE levels
C. CT chest D. Gallium scan

63. Regarding sarcoidosis all are true except

a. Lofgren’s syndrome is associated with a good prognosis
b. Usually the infiltrates in sarcoidosis are predominantly an upper lobe process.
c. The most common symptoms are cough and shortness of breath
d. The association of fever, parotid enlargement, trigeminal nerve palsy, and uveitis is known as uveoparotid fever, or
Heerfordt syndrome

64. Which of the following is TRUE regarding tuberculosis?

a) Primary tuberculosis usually involves the upper zones
b) The most common presentation of extrapulmonary TB is lymphnode TB
c) Primary tuberculosis carries a high level of transmissibility
d) Hilar / paratracheal lymphadenopathy is characteristically absent in primary tuberculosis

65. Regarding Miliary TB all are true except

a. Sputum-smear microscopy is negative in most cases.
b. It is due to bronchogenous spread of tubercle bacilli.
c. Eye examination may reveal choroidal tubercles, which are pathognomonic of miliary TB
d. Can occur either as consequence of primary infection or as reactivation of old disseminated foci

66. A 55-year-old man presents with a history of cough and massive haemoptysis of 2 weeks’ duration. Six months
ago he was diagnosed with sinusitis and started on some nasal drops. His CXR shows bilateral infiltrates and nodules
with cavitations. He has never smoked and works in a zoo. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Bronchogenic carcinoma B Pulmonary tuberculosis
C Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis D Wegener’s granulomatosis

67. A 45-year-old HIV-positive male (CD4 cells 250 per uL), is referred to you for pulmonary evaluation. He has no
specific complaints, has not had contact with tuberculosis patients in the past. Chest radiography is normal. Which
one of the following is the most appropriate next step?
a. Perform an inteferon-γ release assay (IGRA).
b. No further action is necessary at this time.
c. Perform skin test if CD4 cells fall below 200/uLd.
d. Prophylactic therapy with isoniazid for 6 months
68 In the newly recommended shorter treatment regimen of 9 to 11 months for Multi Drug Resistant TB (MDR TB),
what is the fluoroquinolone drug that is used as a part of the treatment regimen?
A. Ofloxacin b.Levofloxacin c. Gatifloxacin d. Moxifloxacin
69. A patient presents with following parameters ph 7.5, pco2 30 mmhg, PaO2 102mmhg and hco3
16meq/1. Which of following correctly describes the abnormality?
a. Respiratory alkalosis. b.Metabolic alkalosis.
c. Respiratory acidosis. d. Metabolic acidosis.

70. A 60 year-old man with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is brought into clinic by his family who are concerned that
he is more somnolent than normal. On further history, they report that he has been having problems with morning
headaches and does not feel very refreshed when he wakes up. An arterial blood gas is performed and reveals:
pH= 7.34, PCO2= 60, PO2 70, HCO3- =34.
a. Acute respiratory acidosis b. Compensated respiratory acidosis
c. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis d. metabolic alkalosis and respiratory acidosis

71. A 22/m is being evaluated for persistant metabolic acidosis.blood tests show Na+ 140mEq/L K+ 3mEq/L ;Ca2+
8mEq/L ;Mg+2mEq/L phosphate 3mEq/L pH 7.22 bicarbonate 16mEq/L and chloride 112mEq /L . the plasma anion
gap is
a) 9 b) 12 c) 22 d) 25
72. A normal anion gap metabolic acidosis occurs in
a) Diarrhoea b) diabetic ketoacidosis c) Methyl alcohol poisoning d) acute renal failure
73. The following condition is not associated with an increased anion gap type of metabolic acidosis
a) Salicylate poisoning b) ingestion of ante freeze c) Diabetic keto acidosis d) copd

74. An 44-year-old female with diarrhoea was found to have a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, heart rate
101beats/min, temperature 37.8°C. Laboratory data are obtained: sodium 137 meq/L, potassium 2.8meq/L,,
chloride 117 meq/L, BUN 17 mg/dL, creatinine 0.9 mg/dL. ABG shows pH 7.29, PCO2 24 mmHg, HCO3 10 meq/L.
What is the acid-base disorder?
A. High Anion-gap metabolic acidosis
B. Normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis
C. Normal anion-gap metabolic acidosis and compensatory respiratory alkalosis
D. Mixed metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis

75. All of the following are chloride responsive causes of metabolic alkalosis except
a) Recurrent vomiting b) NG aspiration c) Excessive loop diuretic use d) Primary hyperaldosteronism