TEST 5

2. WORD CHOICE (5 PTS): Choose the best options to complete the following
sentences.
1. The president was eventually _______ by a military coup.
A. disposed B. despised C. deposed D. dispersed
2. The collapse of the silver market left him financially _______.
A. desolate B. dejected C. destitute D. derelict
3. He _______ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never
fully recovered.
A. indicted B. inferred C. induced D. inflicted
4. Union leaders called for_______ between themselves and the government.
A. speeches B. elections C. debates D. consultations
5. It was clear from the beginning of the meeting that Jack was _______ on
causing trouble.
A. inclined B. predisposed C. bent D. obsessed
6. The Internet has led to the faster and more effective _______ of information.
A. expansion B. coverage C. spread D. dissemination
7. This is the kind of crime that all decent people in society _______.
A. appall B. frown C. deplore D. disallow
8. For many young people, driving cars at high speed seems to _______ a rather
fatal fascination.
A. contain B. comprise C. weave D. hold
9. On the news there was some dramatic _______ of the earthquake that had been
captured by an amateur cameraman.
A. shooting B. scenery C. clipping D. footage
10.I did not mean to offend her but she took my comments _______ and now will
not talk to me.
A. amiss B. awry C. apart D. aside

3. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5 PTS)

Choose the best options to complete the following sentences:
1. _______ appear, they are really much larger than the Earth.

A. As the small stars B. Despite of the small stars

C. Small as the stars D. The stars as small
2. When all the students _______, the professor began his lecture.

A. were seated B. sat C. seated D.

were sitting

3. Are you going to repair your car, or are you going to _______?
 A. have it repaired B. ask it to repair C. take it to repair D.
get it to repair

4. As soon as you hear the alarm, you all have to leave the building _______.

A. under law  B. without delay C. on the verge  D. at

no time

5. _______the eldest of five children and trained as a teacher, Dick never married.

A. Being born as B. Being born C. Born as D.

Born

6. It is believed _______causes weight loss.

A. much stress that B. that much stress C. much stress

D. it is much stress

7. He manages to visit his parents _______ Saturday.

A. other every B. every other C. every the other D.

another every

8. The cake is gone and Peter was out during this morning. He _______ it.

A. can’t have eaten B. mustn’t eat C. shouldn’t have eatenD.

mightn’t eat

9. The doctor insisted that his patient _______.

A. doesn’t work too hard for three months B. taking it easy for
three months

C. to take some vacations for three months D. take it easy for

three months

10. _______ have made communication faster and easier through the use of email and
Internet is widely recognized.

A. That it is computer B. That computers C. Computers that

D. It is that computers

4. PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS (5 PTS)

1. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted _______ a good answer.

A. put up with B. made way for C. came up with D. keep pace

with

2. Sportsmen _______ their political differences on the sports field.

A. take part B. put aside C. take place D. keep apart

3. When he realized the police had spotted him, the man _______  the exit

as quickly as possible.

A. made up B. made for C. made off D. made out

4. No one’s supposed to know yet, so don’t _________, whatever you do!

A. pass on B. let on C. go on D. speak to

5. The police are _______ the murder in the forest.

A. looking for B. bringing about C. looking into D. bringing up

6. I’m afraid we have _________ a lot of criticism over our decision to close the
hospital.

A. come in for B. come round C. come out with D. come up with

7. The US Congress office building is adjacent to the Capitol building.

A. within B. next to C. far from D. behind

8. They stared up into the sky until the noise of the rocket _______ .

A. died away B. went out C. gave up D. wore off

9. I don’t want to sound like I’m _______ the law, but if you don’t keep the noise
down, you’ll have to leave.

A. giving over B. putting in C. passing over D. laying down

10. I agree with most of what you said, but I can’t _______ your idea of

letting children leave school at 14.

A. catch up with B. keep up with C. go along with D. put up with

5. GUIDED CLOZE 1 ( 5 PTS): Read the text below and decide which answer A,
B, C or D best fits each space.

THE RETURN OF THE AIRSHIP

The first balloons flew in the 18th century. By 1900 the Germans were pproducing
rigid airships capable of carrying (1)______ loads over long distances. These airships
consisted of a cigar-shaped, covered frame (2)______ hydrogen gas. The first craft
reached speeds (3)______ 32 km/h. By the mid-1930s, the zeppelins had (4)______ in
size. The largest airship ever built, the Hindenburg, was 245 metres long and could
reach a maximum speed of 135 km/h. In 1936 this airship carried a (5)______ of 1,002
passengers on 10 scheduled round (6)______ between Germany and the United States.
On 6 May 1937, while (7)______ at Lakehurst, New Jersey, the Hindenburg was
completely (8)______ when it crashed and burst into (9)______, with a loss of 36
lives. Now, over 60 years since the last giant commercial airship was built, a new
(10)______ of high-tech giant airships is being planned..

1. A. strong B. considerable C. notable D. important

2. A. containing B. consisting C. comprising D. composing

3. A. arriving B. almost C. nearly D. approaching

4. A. twofold B. multiplied C. doubled D. duplicated

5. A. total B. sum C. figure D. number

6. A. travels B. trips C. voyages D. journeys

7. A. grounding up B. getting down C. landing D. returning

8. A. demolished B. ruined C. damaged D. destroyed

9. A. flames B. fires C. blazes D. burns

10. A. brand B. breed C. race D. family

GUIDED CLOZE 2 ( 5 PTS): Read the text below and decide which answer A, B,
C or D best fits each space.
PICTURE IMPERFECT

A couple who arranged a second wedding ceremony after photographs of the

original ceremony were ruined is claiming (1) ...... from the photographer who
captured their special day on film. The bride, Tracey Lloyd, burst into tears when she
was given the initial (2) ...... of her ‘big day’. Most of the photographs were out of
focus and in some her face was actually obscured. She and her husband Gary are (3)
...... in dispute with the company that took the wedding photographs. Two days after
the ceremony, the Lloyds had to (4) …... the ceremony again with a different
photographer. The final (5) ...... was perfect, but they insist that the distress ruined
their honeymoon. They have already (6) ...... the offer of a refund of three hundred
pounds. The new Mrs Lloyd said, ‘I was absolutely (7) ...... . I couldn’t believe that it
had happened to us after we had saved up for so long. It was supposed to be a perfect
day, but the photographs were more like holiday snaps that had been taken by a real
(8) ......’. Her husband added, ‘The second set of pictures is excellent but the company
gave the (9) ...... impression that everything went well the first time around. Now all
those initial moments have passed. They are something you can never (10) ......’.
1. A. damage B. refunds C. repayments D. compensation

2. A. record B. model C. copy D. likeness

3. A. at first B. currently C. at once D. momentarily

4. A. go through B. pass through C. go over D. pass over

5. A. effect B. product C. output D. work

6. A. dismissed B. denied C. dropped D. rejected

7. A. devastated B. demolished C. overpowered D. overwhelmed

8. A. newcomer B. apprentice C. amateur D. trainee

9. A. untrue B. wrong C. false D. imitation

10. A. take back B. bring back C. take in D. bring in

6. READING COMPREHENSION:
Passage 1: Read the passage and choose the correct answer
The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to
large boulders. The most abundant particles—sand, silt, and clay—are the focus of
examination in studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the
composite sizes of particles in a soil sample, typically several representative
handfuls. To measure soil texture, the sand, silt, and clay particles are sorted out by
size and weight. The weights of each size are then expressed as a percentage of the
sample weight.

In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and
squeezing the damp soil into three basic shapes; (1) cast, a lump formed by squeezing
a sample in a clenched fist; (2) thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between
the palms; and (3) ribbon, a flatfish shape formed by squeezing a small sample
between the thumb and index finger. The behavioral characteristics of the soil when
molded into each of these shapes, if they can be formed at all, provides the basis for a
general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in the hand test is determined
by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly cohesive, and when
dampened, behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a sample, the
more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.

Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called
sediment sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered
through a group of sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become
grouped in corresponding size categories. Each category can be weighed to make a
textural determination. Although sieves work well for silt, sand, and larger particles,
they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is far too small to sieve accurately;
therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine particles are measured on the
basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water .Since clays settle so slowly,
they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn off and
evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Characteristics of high quality soil

(B) Particles typically found in most soils

(C) How a high clay content affects the texture of soil

(D) Ways to determine the texture of soil

2. The author mentions “several representative handfuls” in the first paragraph in

order to show ______.

(A) the range of soil samples

(B) the process by which soil is weighed

(C) the requirements for an adequate soil sample

(D) how small soil particles are

3. The phrase “sorted out” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

(A) mixed

(B) replaced

(C) carried

(D) separated

4. It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2
reflect ______.

(A) the way the soil is extracted

(B) the results of squeezing the soil

(C) the need to check more than one handful

(D) the difficulty of forming different shapes

5. The word “dampened” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to______.

(A) damaged

(B) stretched
 (C) moistened

(D) examined

6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about a soil sample with
little or no clay in it?

(A) It is not very heavy.

(B) It may not hold its shape when molded.

(C) Its shape is durable

(D) Its texture cannot be classified

7. The word “they” in the third paragraph refers to ______.

(A) categories

(B) sieves

(C) larger particles

(D) clay particles

8. It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over the
hand test in determining soil texture because ______.

(A) using the sieve takes less time

(B) the sieve can measure clay

(C) less training is required to use the sieve

(D) the sieve allows for a more exact measure

9. During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed into
water they ______.

(A) stick to the sides of the water container

(B) take some time to sink to the bottom

(C) separate into different sizes

(D) dissolve quickly

10. The word “fine” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

(A) tiny

(B) many
 (C) excellent

(D) various

Passage 2: Read the passage and choose the correct answer

The countryside of Britain is well known for its beauty and many contrasts: its
bare mountains and moorland, its lakes, rivers and woods, and its long, often
wild coastline. Many of the most beautiful areas are national parks and are
protected from development. When British people think of the countryside they
think of farmland, as well as open spaces. They imagine cows or sheep in
green fields enclosed by hedges or stone walls, and fields of wheat and
barley. Most farmland is privately owned but is crossed by a network of public
footpaths.

Many people associate the countryside with peace and relaxation. They spend
their free time walking or cycling there, or go to the country for a picnic or a pub
lunch. In summer people go to fruit farms and pick strawberries and other fruit. Only
a few people who live in the country work on farms. Many commute to work in
towns. Many others dream of living in the country, where they believe they would
have a better and healthier lifestyle.

The countryside faces many threats. Some are associated with modern
farming practices, and the use of chemicals harmful to plants and wildlife. Land is
also needed for new houses. The green belt, an area of land around many cities, is
under increasing pressure. Plans to build new roads are strongly opposed by
organizations trying to protect the countryside. Protesters set up camps to prevent,
or at least delay, the building work.

America has many areas of wild and beautiful scenery, and there are many
areas, especially in the West in states like Montana and Wyoming, where few
people live. In the New England states, such as Vermont and New Hampshire, it
is common to see small farms surrounded by hills and green areas. In Ohio,
Indiana, Illinois and other Midwestern states, fields of corn or wheat reach to the
horizon and there are many miles between towns.

Only about 20% of Americans live outside cities and towns. Life may be
difficult for people who live in the country. Services like hospitals and schools may
be further away and going shopping can mean driving long distances. Some people
even have to drive from their homes to the main road where their mail is left in a
box. In spite of the disadvantages, many people who live in the country say that
they like the safe, clean, attractive environment. But their children often move to a
town or

city as soon as they can.

 As in Britain, Americans like to go out to the country at weekends. Some
people go on camping or fishing trips, others go hiking in national parks.

1. We can see from the passage that in the countryside of Britain ______.

A. none of the areas faces the sea

B. only a few farms are publicly owned

C. most beautiful areas are not well preserved

D. it is difficult to travel from one farm to another

2. The word “enclosed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. rotated B. embraced C. blocked D.

surrounded

3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an activity of relaxation in the

countryside of Britain?

A. Going swimming B. Picking fruit C. Going for a walk D. Riding a

bicycle

4. What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. Those who dream of living in the country B. Those who go to fruit farms
in summer

C. Those who go to the country for a picnic D. Those who commute to work in
towns

5. Which of the following threatens the countryside in Britain?

A. Protests against the building work B. Modern farming practices

C. Plants and wildlife D. The green belt around cities

6. The phrase “associated with” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. supported by B. referred to C. separated from D. related to

7. According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT ______.

A. the use of chemicals harms the environment of the countryside

B. camps are set up by protesters to stop the construction work

C. the green belt is under pressure because of the need for land

D. all organizations strongly oppose plans for road construction

 8. The phrase “reach to the horizon” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
______.

A. are limited B. are endless C. are horizontal D. are varied

9. According to the passage, some Americans choose to live in the country

because

A. their children enjoy country life

B. they enjoy the safe, clean, attractive environment there

C. hospitals, schools and shops are conveniently located there

D. life there may be easier for them

10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. The majority of American people live in cities and towns.

B. Many British people think of the country as a place of peace and relaxation.

C. Towns in some Midwestern states in the US are separated by long distances.

D. Both British and American people are thinking of moving to the countryside.

B. WRITTEN TEST
I. CLOZE TEST: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits
each space. Use only ONE WORD for each space.
OPEN CLOZE 1 (10PTS)
IT'S EASY TO WORK OUT

Many people exercise with the aim of achieving a flat tummy but it isn't necessary to
contort your body painfully to do so. Both yoga and Pilates (1)_ARE_____ known to
build amazing abdominal strength and give you greater awareness of your pelvic floor
muscles. It is (2) __THE____ muscles, once strengthened, that will provide greater
support (3)__FOR____ vulnerable backs. Doing crunches is one of the best ways to
flatten your tummy. (4)__IT____ involves first lying on the floor, with your hands
(5)__EITHER____ side of your head. Raise your head approximately fifteen
centimetres off the ground, then pause in this position for five seconds
(6)__BEFORE____ lowering it back down. You should also bend your legs, raise
them and cross your ankles while doing the crunches so as to ensure that your stomach
muscles do the work, not your back. (7)___WHEN___ you do have back problems,
using a Swiss ball when you're exercising will help protect it, too. You can place it
between you and a wall, for example, and roll down it (8)___UNTIL___ you reach a
squatting position. It's also fun to try to balance on one while you're lifting weights
because not (9)__ONLY____ are the muscles in your arms (10)__BEING____ used
but your abdomen will be working hard to keep you from falling off.

OPEN CLOZE 2 (10PTS)

SNORING

Sleep deprivation can make us very angry, which is why snoring - the human
equivalent of a car alarm (1)__BEING____ set off at night - can be so irritating. Most
people snore occasionally, but in middle age about 40 per cent of men and 20 per cent
of women do so regularly. Snoring can ruin relationships and be intensely
embarrassing. Snorers (2)_WHO_____ go into hospital, for example, may worry that
they'll keep the whole ward awake. But snoring doesn't (3)__ONLY____ afflict the
unafflicted; snorers may also disturb themselves and feel sleepy during the day.
Snoring can sometimes be a symptom of a more serious condition. Up to six per cent
of men and two per cent of women suffer from sleep apnoea, a syndrome in which
breathing (4)__IS____ significantly disrupted during sleep. Some people may start off
(5)__AS____ uncomplicated snorers, but develop sleep apnoea as they get older. The
word apnoea is derived (6)___FROM___ the Greek and means 'no breathing'. People
with sleep apnoea have airways that become obstructed during sleep. Typically, they
snore loudly, stop breathing, struggle (7)__FOR____ air, partly wake up (although
often unaware of it), gulp a bit, and then recommence snoring. The cycle may be
repeated over 100 times an hour. (8)___NOT___ surprisingly, people with sleep
apnoea feel unrefreshed in the morning. They may have problems concentrating during
the day, feel depressed and fall asleep (9)__AT____ socially unacceptable times. At
worst, they can fall asleep (10)__WHILE____ driving or operating dangerous
machinery.

II. WORD FORMATION: (20PTS)

PART 1: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in
parentheses.

MILLIONAIRE CHEAT

Three people who attempted to defraud the television quiz show Who Wants to be a
Millionaire? have all been found guilty of (1) _DECEPTION_____ ( DECEIVE) at
Southwark Crown Court. Major Charles Ingram appeared as a (2)
_CONTESTANT_____ ( CONTEST) on the programme in in September 2001, when,
with the help of his wife, Diana, and accomplice Tecwen Whittock, he won the top
prize of £1 million. But his (3)_WINNING_____(WIN) appearance was never
broadcast and the cheque was cancelled. Production staff called to the
(4)__TRIAL____(TRY) said they grew suspicious of Ingram's
(5)__NUMEROUS____(NUMBER) hesitations and changes of mind, and became
aware of the (6)__PERSISTENT____(PERSIST) coughing of a member of the
audience. Chris Tarrant, the show's host, noticed how Ingram often seemed
(7)__UNSURE____(SURE) about the answers he gave, Whitlock, a college lecturer
from Cardiff, coughed (8)___STRATEGICALLY___(STRATEGY) from his seat to
indicate the correct answer as Ingram said the four alternatives to each question out
loud. A video (9)_RECORDED_____(RECORD) of the programme was played in
court as part of the prosecution case, The defendants, who had denied all accusations
of (210)__UNHONESTY____(HONEST), listened impassively as sentence was
passed.

PART 2: Complete the passage with appropriate forms from the words given .

Violent Colour Gift Cubism Compose

Mythodology Delight Tradition Impress Simple

Nancy Andrews’ Nancy Andrews' latest exhibition at the Seagull Gallery proves that
she is one of our most (1)_IMPRESSIVE_____ painters. She has emerged from her
(2)__CUBISM____ phase, in which the influence of Picasso was apparent, and
returned to a more (3)__SIMPLISTIC____ style of painting, but without losing her
(4)__GIFTED____sense of colour and form. She has chosen
(5)__TRADITIONAL____ themes for this show, and her portrait of Bacchus, for
example, has a wonderful (6)_MYTH_____ about it. But the most
(7)__DELIGHTFUL____ work is the large canvas called simply" Mars". It is a
(8)__COLOURING____ study, in various shades of red and gold, and its balanced
(9)___COMPOSITION___gives it a pleasing, even restful feel, despite the
(10)_VIOLENCE_____ of its subject matter.

III. ERROR CORRECTION: The passage below contains 10 errors. Find the
errors and correct them. Write your corrections in the answer sheet in the order
in which the mistakes appear in the passage. Remember to write the word(s)
before the mistake to help the examiners locate the mistake.

SHOPPING CENTERS
In many old cities of Europe, there are narrow twisting roads with many shops
huddled together along the two sides. These commercial places are not so modern and
convenient as those calling shopping centers in modern cities, especially in the suburbs
of the big cities in the United States.
Shopping centers have developed rapidly because of the shift of the population
to the suburbs, the growing use of and dependence upon the automobile and the heavy
traffic in downtown areas.
A shopping center is a little group of stores facing a huge central enclosed mall
which may be covered, heated, and air-conditioned. A shopping center is also
surrounding by a parking area with space for thousand of cars.
 We can buy all kinds of food and get nothing we need in a shopping center.
Like a supermarket, where groceries are chiefly sold, a shopping center provides us
with all services beside food. We can get our hair cut, eyes examined, clothes washed;
we can book our tickets for a world tour and even enroll in special classes.
Shopping centers are, therefore, very inconvenient for customers, but they lack
the "senses of closeness" as felt in older commercial centers.
IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: (20 PTS)
Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same
as the sentence printed before it.

1. In a nutshell, Joseph's not up to the job.

The long and the short of it is that John’s not up to the job.

2. What alienated the workforce was that management never consulted them.

It was the fact that management never consulted them that alienated the
workforce.

3. The thought of what might happen next fills me with horror.

I dread to think what might happen next.

4. If you have finished your homework by midnight you can go to the party.

Get your homework finished by midnight or you can’t go to the party.

5. Her remarks on the teacher’s bad behavior were ignored.

Nobody cared about her remarks on the teacher’s bad behavior.

Part 2: Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write
a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the
original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s).

6. They disapprove of smoking in this restaurant. (frowned)

Smoking in this restaurant is frowned on.

7. When she sold the jewellery at such a low price she was cheated. (ride)

When she sold the jewellery at such a low price, she was taken for a ride.

8. We’d been thinking about helping them for some time. (backing)

We’d been thinking abouut backing up for them some time.

9. You’ll just have to take a chance! (pot)

You’ll just have to take pot luck.

10. Nowadays goods are often acquired but not paid for immediately. (credit)

Nowadays goods are often bought on credit.

-The End-