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(WWW - Technocyber8.bogspot - Com) O NCERT XTRACT PHYSICS
(WWW - Technocyber8.bogspot - Com) O NCERT XTRACT PHYSICS
(WWW - Technocyber8.bogspot - Com) O NCERT XTRACT PHYSICS
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by
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Sanjeev Kumar Jha
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Typeset by Disha DTP Team
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DISHA PUBLICATION
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© Copyright Publisher
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No part of this publication may be reproduced in any form without prior permission of the publisher. The author and
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the publisher do not take any legal responsibility for any errors or misrepresentations that might have crept in. We have
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tried and made our best efforts to provide accurate up-to-date information in this book.
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(ii)
Contents
1. Physical World 1-4
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3. 17-34
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5. Laws of Motion 55-74
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6. Work, Energy and Power 75-94
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7. System of Particles and Rotational Motion 95-114
8. Gravitation
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8.
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15. Waves
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229-246
(iii)
EBD_7208
19. Moving Charges and Magnetism 303-322
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23. Electromagnetic Waves 369-378
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24. Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 379-398
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25. Wave Optics
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399-416
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26. 417-430
Mock Test - 2
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MT-7-12
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(iv)
1
PHYSICAL WORLD
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FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. C.V. Raman got Nobel Prize for his experiment on
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(a) dispersion of light (b) reflection of light
1. The branch of science which deals with nature and natural
(c) deflection of light (d) scattering of light
phenomena is called
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(a) Sociology (b) Biology 10. Louis de-Broglie is credited for his work on
(c) Civics (d) Physics (a) theory of relativity
2.
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Science is exploring, ...x... and ...y... from what we see (b) electromagnetic theory
around us. Here, x and y refer to
(c) matter waves
(a) qualitative, modify (b) experiment, predict
3.
(c) verification, predict (d) reasoning, quantitative
The person who has been awarded the title of the Father of 11
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(d) law of distribution of velocities
Madam Marie Curie won Nobel Prize twice which were in
.b
Physics of 20th century is the field of
(a) Madame Curie (b) Sir C.V. Raman (a) Physics and chemistry(b) Chemistry only
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(c) Neils Bohar (d) Albert Einstein (c) Physics only (d) Biology only
4. 12. A scientific way of doing things involve
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(a) phenomena at the laboratory 13. Two Indian born physicists who have been awarded Nobel
(b) terrestrial scales Prize in Physics are
(c) astronomical scales (a) H. J. Bhabha and APJ Kalam
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7. Prof. Albert Einstein got nobel prize in physics for his work (c) Ampere (d) Newton
on 15. Who discovered X-rays?
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(d) Strong nuclear force > electromagnetic force > weak (D) Ernest Rutherford (4) Circular orbit theory
nuclear force > gravitational force (a) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (1)
20. The exchange particles for the electromagnetic force are (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (4)
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(a) gravitons (b) gluons (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
(c) photons (d) mesons
(d) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
21.
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Which of the following is true regarding the physical
27. Column I Column II
science?
(a) They deal with non-living things (A) Galileo Galilei (1) Explanation of
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(b) The study of matter are conducted at atomic or ionic photoelectric effect.
levels (B) JC Bose (2) Law of inertia.
(c) Both (a) and (b) lo
(d) None of these (C) Albert Einstein (3) Discovery of Ultra short
22.
.b
Which of the following is the weakest force? radio waves.
(a) Nuclear force (b) Gravitational force (D) JJ Thomson (4) Discovery of electron.
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magnetic fields is
(a) super conductivity (b) digital logic (c) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (4)
(c) photoelectric effect (d) laws of thermodynamics (d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (2)
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24 Consider the following statements and select the correct the prediction of
statement(s). electromagnetic force.
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I. Optics deal with the phenomena involving light. (B) Cario Rubia (2) Unified electricity,
II. Unification means physical phenomena in terms of
magnetism and optics,
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scales of atoms and nuclei. (C) Isaac Newton (3) Unified celestial and
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B (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
30. Assertion : The concept of energy is central to Physics
and expression for energy can be written for every
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(a) polonium sample and aluminium foil
physical system.
(b) polonium sample and gold foil
Reason : Law of conservation of energy is not valid for
(c) uranium sample and gold foil
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all forces and for any kind of transformation between
(d) uranium sample and aluminium foil
different forms of energy.
31. Assertion : Electromagnetic force is much stronger than
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the gravitational farce.
Reason : Electromagnetic force dominates all phenomena
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at atomic and molecular scales.
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EBD_7208
4 PHYSICAL WORLD
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laboratory, terrestrial and astronomical scales. gravitation apply to both the
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) domains.
10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) Michael 1830 Showed phenomena of
14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) Faraday electromagnetism.
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17. (a) When we hold a book in our hand , we are balancing J.C. Maxwell 1873 Unified electricity,
the gravitational force on the book due to the huge mass of magnetism and optics,
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the Earth by the ‘normal force’ provided by our hand. showed that light is an
18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (c) electromagnetic wave.
22. (b) 23. (a)
Cario Rubia 1984 Verified experimentally the
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STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS predictions of the theory of
24. (a) Optics deals with the phenomena involving light. The electromagnetic force.
working of telescopes and microscopes, colours
exhibited by thin films, etc., are topics in optics.
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DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
.b
The microscopic domain of Physics deals with the 29. (b) The alpha particle scattering experiment of Rutherford
constitution and structure of matter at the minute gave the nuclear model of the atom as shown in figure
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circular orbits in heliocentric theory (Sun at the centre of expressions for energy can be written for every
the solar system) imagined by Nicolas Copernicus had to physical system. When all forms of energy e.g., Heat,
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be replaced by elliptical orbits to fit the data better. mechanical energy, electrical energy etc., are counted,
27. (a) it turns out that energy is conserved. The general law
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FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. One yard in SI unit is equal to
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(a) 1.9144 metre (b) 0.9144 metre
1. Which of the following systems of units is not based on (c) 0.09144 kilometre (d) 1.0936 kilometre
units of mass, length and time alone ? 10. Which one of the following is the smallest unit?
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(a) SI (b) MKS (a) millimetre (b) angstrom
(b) CGS (d) FPS (c) fermi (d) metre
2. Number of base SI units is 11.
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The prototype of the international standard kilogram
(a) 4 (b) 7 supplied by the International Bureau of Weights and
(c) 3 (d) 5 Measures (BIPM) are available at
3. Second is defined in terms of periods of radiation from
Cesiuim 133 because
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(a) National Physics Laboratory
(b) National science centre
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(a) it is not affected by the change of place (c) CSIR
(b) it is not affected by the change of time (d) None of these
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(c) it is not affected by the change of Physical conditions 12. Illuminance of a surface is measured in
(d) All of these. (a) lumen
4.
be
6. One unified atomic mass unit is equal to (d) oscillations of quartz crystal
(a) 12 times the mass of one carbon-12 atom 15. 1 Parsec is equal to
(a) 3.1 × 10 –16 m. (b) 3.26 ly
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12
17. Systematic errors can be
(d) 12 times the mass of 12 atoms of C-12
(a) positive only
7. Light year is
(b) negative only
(a) light emitted by the sun in one year.
(c) either positive or negative
(b) time taken by light to travel from sun to earth.
(d) None of these
(c) the distance travelled by light in free space in one year.
18. Instrumental errors are due to
(d) time taken by earth to go once around the sun.
(a) imperfect design
8. Length cannot be measured by
(a) fermi (b) debye (b) zero error in the instrument
(c) micron (d) light year (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
EBD_7208
6 UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS
19. ____ is the ratio of the mean absolute error to the mean 31. The unit of percentage error is
value of the quantity measured. (a) same as that of physical quantity
(a) Absolute error (b) Relative error (b) different from that of physical quantity
(c) Percentage error (d) None of these (c) percentage error is unitless
20. Random error can be eliminated by
(a) careful observation (d) errors have got their own units which are different
(b) eliminating the cause from that of physical quantity measured
(c) measuring the quantity with more than one instrument 32. If L = 2. 331 cm, B = 2.1 cm, then L + B =
(d) taking large number of observations and then their (a) 4.4 cm (b) 4 cm
mean. (c) 4.43 cm (d) 4.431 cm
21. When two quantities are added or subtracted, the 33. When two quantities are divided, the relative error in the
absolute error in the final result is the result is given by
(a) sum of the absolute errors in the individual quantities
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(a) the product of the relative error in the individual
(b) sum of the relative errors in the individual quantities quantities
(c) can be (a) or (b) (b) the quotient of the relative error in the individual
(d) None of these quantities
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22. Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. Then (c) the difference of the relative error in the individual
error in the measurement of volume is quantities
(a) 1% (b) 5%
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(d) the sum of the relative error in the individual
(c) 3% (d) 8% quantities
23. The _____ is a measure of how closed the measured
value is to the true value of quantity. Z
34. If Z = A3, then
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= –––––
(a) Precision (b) accuracy Z
(c) Error (d) None of these. 3
A3 A
24. Which of the following is not a systematic error ? (a) lo (b)
(a) Instrumental error A A
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(b) Imperfection in experimental technique 1/3
A A
(c) Personal error (c) 3 (d)
A A
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(c) random error (d) least count error The number of significant figures in 0.00060 m is
27. Absolute error is always (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) positive (b) negative (c) 3 (d) 4
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(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 38. The sum of the numbers 436.32, 227.2 and 0.301 in
28. The magnitude of the difference between the individual appropriate significant figures is
measurement and true value of the quantity is called (a) 6663.821 (b) 664
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(a) absolute error (b) relative error (c) 663.8 (d) 663.8
(c) percentage error (d) None of these 4.327 g
29. 39.
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The pitch and the number of circular scale divisions in a Number of significant figures in expression is
2.51 cm3
screw gauge with least count 0.02 mm are respectively
(a) 2 (b) 4
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30. A student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50 40. The dimensions of force are
cm. Which instrument did he use to measure it? (a) [ML2T–1] (b) [M2L3T–2]
(a) A meter scale. (c) [MLT–2] (d) None of these
(b) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in vernier scale 41. The dimensions of speed and velocity are
matches with 9 division in main scale and main scale (a) [L2T], [LT –1] (b) [LT–1], [LT –2]
has 10 divisions in 1 cm. (c) [LT], [LT] (d) [LT–1], [LT –1]
(c) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale 42. By equating a physical quantity with its dimensional
and pitch as 1 mm. formula we get
(d) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale (a) dimensional analysis (b) dimensional equation
and pitch as 1 mm. (c) dimensional formula (d) none of these
UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS 7
–13
43. Dimensional analysis can be applied to III. 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10 Joule
(a) check the dimensional consistency of equations IV. 1 newton = 10–5 dyne
(b) deduce relations among the physical quantities. (a) I, II and III (b) III and IV
(c) to convert from one system of units to another (c) I only (d) IV only
(d) All of these 55. Which the following is/are correct?
44. Two quantities A and B have different dimensions which I. Pressure = energy per unit area
mathematical operation given below is physically II. Pressure = energy per unit volume
meaningful? III. Pressure = force per unit volume
(a) A/B (b) A + B IV. Pressure = momentum per unit volume per unit time
(c) A – B (d) A = B (a) I and II (b) II only
45. Which is dimensionless? (c) III only (d) I, II, III and IV
(a) Force/acceleration (b) Velocity/acceleration 56. Consider the following statements and select the correct
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(c) Volume/area (d) Energy/work option.
46. Which of the following quantities has a unit but I. Every measurement by any measuring instrument
dimensionless? has some error
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(a) Strain (b) Reynolds number II. Every calculated physical quantity that is based on
(c) Angular displacement(d) Poisson’s ratio measured values has some error
47. The wrong unit conversion among the following is III. A measurement can have more accuracy but less
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(a) 1 angstrom = 10–10m precision and vice versa
(b) 1 fermi = 10–15m (a) I and II (b) II and III
= 9.46 × l015m
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(c) 1 light year (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
(d) 1 astronomical unit = 1.496 × 10–11m 57. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
48. The physical quantity that does not have the dimensional I. 345.726 has six significant figures
formula [ML–1T–2] is
(a) force (b) pressure
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II. 0.004289 has seven singificant figures
III. 125000 has three significant figures
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(c) stress (d) modulus of elasticity IV. 9.0042 has five significant figures
49. The dimensions of pressure is equal to (a) I only (b) II only
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(a) force per unit volume (b) energy per unit volume (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
(c) force (d) energy 58. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
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50. The dimensional formula of angular velocity is I. Change of units does not change the number of
significant digits
(a) [MLT–1] (b) [M0L0T]
0 –2 II. All the non– zero digits are significant
(d) [M0L0T–1]
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(c) [ML T ]
III. All the zero between two non-zero digits are
51. The physical quantity that has no dimensions is
significant
(a) strain (b) angular velocity
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52. Consider the following statements and select the correct MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
statement(s).
59. Match the columns I and II.
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statement(s)?
I. If l1= 0.6 cm ; l2 = 0.60 cm and l3 = 0.600 cm, then (b) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (1)
l3 is the most accurate measurement. (c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
II. l3 = 0.600 cm has the least error so it is most accurate (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(a) I only (b) II only 60. Column-I Column-II
(c) Both I and II (d) None of these (A) Distance between earth & stars (1) micron
54. Consider the following statements and select the correct (B) Inter-atomic distance in a solid (2) angstrom
statement(s). (C) Size of the nucleus (3) light year
I. 1 calorie = 4.18 joule
(D) Wavelength of infrared laser (4) fermi
–10 (5) kilometre
II. 1A = 10 m
EBD_7208
8 UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS
(a) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (2) 66. Column I Column II
(b) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1) (A) Mean absolute error (1) amean/ amean
(c) (A) (5); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1) a mean
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) (B) Relative error (2) 100
a mean
61. Column I Column II
(A) Length (1) burette n
(C) Percentage error (3) | ai | / n
(B) Volume (2) Vernier callipers i=1
(C) Diameter of a thin wire (3) screw gauge (D)Absolute error (4) an – amean
(D) Mass (4) common balance (a)(A) (3); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (4)
(b)(A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
(a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
(c)(A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
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(b) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
(d)(A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1)
67. Column I Column II
(d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
(A) Joule (1) MLT –2
62. Match the following column I and II.
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(B) Newton (2) ML–1 T –2
Column I Column II (C) Hertz (3) ML2 T –2
(A) 1 Fermi (1) 3.08 × 1016 m (D) Pascal (4) M0L0 T –1
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(B) 1 Astronomical unit (2) 9.46 × 1015 m (a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
(C) 1 Light year (3) 1.496 × 1011 m (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
(D) 1 Parsec (4) 10–15 m (c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
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(a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3) (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1) 68. Column - I Column - II
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
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(A) Force
(B) Angular velocity
(1) T–1
(2) MLT–2
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63. Column I Column II (C) Torque (3) ML–1T–2
(A) Meter scale (1) 3.08 × 1016 m (D) Stress (4) ML–1T–1
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(D) Parallax method (b) (A) (2); B (1); (C) (5); (D) (4)
(a) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (2); (D) (3) (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
(b) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1) (d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
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(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1) 69. Match the columns I and II.
(d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) Column I Column II
64. Column I Column II (A) Angle (1) ML2 T–3
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(A) Size of atomic nucleus (1) 1011 m (B) Power (2) M0L0T 0
(B) Distance of the (2) 107 m (C) Work (3) ML2 T–2
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(a) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
(b) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3) (d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
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Earth r
(B) Average human (2) 1017s
life – span d dA
(C) Travel time for light (3) 105s
from Sun to Earth
(D) Age of universe (4) 102s
(a) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3) (a) r2dA steradian (b) dA/r2 steradian
(c) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2) r2
(d) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) (c) steradian (d) dA/r steradian
dA
UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS 9
71. The accompanying diagram represents a screw gauge. Reason : The permissible error is calculated by the
The circular scale is divided into 50 divisions and the
A 4 r
linear scale is divided into millimeters. If the screw formula
advances by 1 mm when the circular scale makes 2 A r
complete revolutions, the least count of the instrument 79. Assertion : Absolute error may be negative or positive.
and the reding of the instrument in figure are respectively. Reason : Absolute error is the difference between the real
value and the measured value of a physical quantity.
80. Assertion : The number of significant figures depends on
40 the least count of measuring instrument.
35
30 Reason : Significant figures define the accuracy of
0 1 2 3 25 measuring instrument.
20
81. Assertion : Out of three measurements I = 0.7 m; I = 0.70
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m and I = 0.700 m, the last one is most accurate.
(a) 0.01 mm and 3.82 mm Reason : In every measurement, only the last significant
(b) 0.02 mm and 3.70 mm digit is not accurately known.
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(c) 0.11 mm and 4.57 mm 82. Assertion : Number of significant figures in 0.005 is one
(d) 1.0 mm and 5.37 mm and that in 0.500 is three
Reason : This is because zeros are not significant.
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ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS 83. Assertion: ‘Light year’ and ‘Wavelength’ both measure
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, distance.
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Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four Reason : Both have dimension of time.
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You 84. Assertion : Dimensional constants are the quantities
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
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whose values are constant.
Reason : Dimensional constants are dimensionless.
.b
explanation for assertion. 85. Assertion : Avogadro’s number is the number of atoms
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a in one gram mole.
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(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. Reason : Dimensions for energy and volume are different.
72. Assertion : Now a days a standard metre is defined in terms
87. Assertion : Angle and strain are dimensionless.
of the wavelength of light.
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Reason : Light has no relation with length. Reason : Angle and strain have no unit.
73. Assertion : Parallax method cannot be used for measuring mass
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distances of stars more than 100 light years away. 88. Assertion : In the equation momentum, P = x, the
area
Reason : Because parallax angle reduces so much that it
dimensional formula of x is LT – 2.
cannot be measured accurately.
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74. Assertion : A.U. is much bigger than Å. Reason : Quantities with different dimensions can be multi-
Reason : A.U. stands for astronomical unit and A plied.
89. Assertion : Force cannot be added to pressure.
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Reason : Smaller the unit of measurement smaller is its 90. Assertion : The time period of a pendulum is given by
numerical value.
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the formula, T = 2 g/
76. Assertion : The cesium atomic clocks are very accurate
Reason : According to the principle of homogeneity of
Reason : The vibration of cesium atom regulate the rate
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CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 101. One centimetre on the main scale of a vernier callipers is
divided into 10 equal parts. If 10 divisions of vernier coincide
92. If unit of length and force are increased 4 times. The unit of with 8 small divisions of the main scale, the least count of
energy vernier callipers is
(a) is increased by 4 times (a) 0.01 cm (b) 0.02 cm
(b) is increased by 16 times (c) 0.05 cm (d) 0.005 cm
(c) is increased by 8 times 102. The pitch of the screw gauge is 0.5 mm. Its circular scale
(d) remains unchanged contains 50 divisions. The least count of the screw gauge
93. The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3. is
In a system of units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit (a) 0.001 mm (b) 0.01 mm
of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be
(c) 0.02 mm (d) 0.025 mm
(a) 0.4 (b) 40 (c) 400 (d) 0.04
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103. Relative density of a metal may be found with the help of
94. Resistance R = V/I, here V= (100 5)V and I = (100 0.2 ) spring balance. In air the spring balance reads (5.00 ± 0.05)
A. Find percentage error in R. N and in water it reads (4.00 ± 0.05) N. Relative density
(a) 5% (b) 2%
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would be
(c) 7% (d) 3% (a) (5.00 ± 0.05)N (b) (5.00 ± 11%)
95. Find equivalent resistance when R1 = (100 3) and
(c) (5.00 ± 0.10) (d) (5.00 ± 6%)
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R2 = (200 4) when connected in series
104. A quantity is represented by X = Ma Lb Tc. The % error
(a) (300 7) (b) (300 1) in measurement of M, L and T are a%, b% and g%
(c) (100 7) (d) None of these
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respectively. The % error in X would be
96. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured
(a) ( a b c) % (b) ( a b c) %
with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively.
Quantity P is calculated as follows (c) lo
( a b c) 100% (d) None of these
.b
a 3b 2 Z
P= % error in P is 105. If Z = A4 B1/3/ CD3/2, than relative error in Z. is
cd Z
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4 1/3 3/2
A B C D
(N – 1) divisions of main scale in which length of a division (a) –
A B C D
is 1 mm. The least count of the instrument in cm is
cy
(a) N (b) N – 1 A 1 B C 3 D
(b) 4
1 A 3 B C 2 D
no
(c) (d) (1 / N) – 1
10N
A 1 B C 3 D
1 (c) 4
98. A 3 B C 2 D
ch
1.32 and 1.36; the mean value of refractive index with (c) 6% (d) 8%
percentage error is L
107. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T = 2 .
(a) 1.35 ± 1.48 % (b) 1.35 ± 0 % g
(c) 1.36 ± 6 % (d) 1.36 ± 0 % Measured value of L is 20.0 cm known to 1 mm accuracy
100. A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003 g, radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be
length 6 ± 0.06 cm. The maximum percentage error in the 90 s using a wrist watch of 1s resolution. The accuracy in
the determination of g is
measurement of its density is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 1% (b) 5%
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 2% (d) 3%
UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS 11
108. ln a simple pendulum experiment, the maximum percentage 116. If P,Q, R are physical quantities, having different
error in the measurement of length is 2% and that in the dimensions, which of the following combinations can never
observation of the time-period is 3%. Then the maximum be a meaningful quantity?
percentage error in determination of the acceleration due (a) (P – Q) / R (b) PQ – R
to gravity g is (c) PQ / R (d) (PR – Q2) / R
(a) 5% (b) 6% 117. Dimensions of specific heat are
(c) 1% (d) 8% (a) [ML2 T–2 K] (b) [ML2 T–2 K–1]
109. Diameter of a steel ball is measured using a Vernier callipers 2 2
(c) [ML T K ] –1 (d) [L2 T–2 K–1]
which has divisions of 0.1 cm on its main scale (MS) and 10
118. The dimensions of torque are
divisions of its vernier scale (VS) match 9 divisions on the
main scale. Three such measurements for a ball are given (a) [ MLT 2 ] (b) [ ML2 T 2 ]
below:
om
(c) [ ML2T 1 ] (d) [ M 2 L2T 2 ]
S.No. MS(cm) VS divisions 119. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck’s constant and that
1. 0.5 8 of the moment of inertia is the dimensions of
t.c
2. 0.5 4 (a) time (b) frequency
(c) angular momentum (d) velocity
3. 0.5 6
120. Identify the pair whose dimensions are equal.
po
If the zero error is – 0.03 cm, then mean corrected diameter is (a) Torque and work (b) Stress and energy
(a) 0.52 cm (b) 0.59 cm (c) Force and stress (d) Force and work.
gs
(c) 0.56 cm (d) 0.53 cm 121. The physical quantities not having same dimensions are
110. The respective number of significant figures for the number (a) torque and work
23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are respectively. (b) momentum and Planck’s constant
lo
(a) 5, 1 and 2 (b) 5, 1 and 5 (c) stress and Young’s modulus
.b
(c) 5, 5 and 2 (d) 4, 4 and 2 1/ 2
(d) speed and ( o o)
111. The value of resistance is 10.845 and the value of current is
122. Which one of the following represents the correct
r8
what will be its volume, with regard to significant digits? 123. The density of a material in CGS system is 8 g / cm3. In a
(a) 26.312 cm3 (b) 26 cm3 system of a unit in which unit of length is 5 cm and unit of
no
, where T is tension in the string, L is the length, n is (a) [FL–1T2] (b) [FL–1T–2]
m –1 –1
number of harmonics. The dimensional formula for m is (c) [FL T ] (d) [FL2T2]
126. Which one of the following represents the correct
(a) [M0 L T] (b) [M1 L–1 T–1]
dimensions of the gravitational constant?
(c) [M1 L–1 T0] (d) [M0 L T –1] (a) [M–1L3T–2 ] (b) [MLT–1]
115. Which of the following pairs has same dimensions? –1
(c) [ML T ] –2 (d) [ML–2T–2]
(a) Angular momentum and Plank’s constant 127. The dimensions of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (coulomb)
(b) Dipole moment and electric field is given as
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(a) [MLT–1 C–1] (b) [MT2 C–2]
(d) None of these. –1 –1
(c) [MT C ] (d) [MT–2 C–1]
EBD_7208
12 UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS
128. The dimensions of coefficient of self inductance are 135. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as the
(a) [ ML2 T–2 A–2 ] (b) [ ML2 T–2 A–1 ] fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of surface
–2
(c) [ MLT A ] –2 (d) [ MLT–2 A–1 ] tension will be
(a) [EV–1T–2] (b) [EV–2T–2]
129. In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the force is 100 dynes. In –2 –1 –3
(c) [E V T ] (d) [EV–2T–1]
another system where the fundamental physical quantities
136. The dimensions of mobility are
are in kilogram, metre and minute, the magnitude of the
(a) [M–2T2A] (b) [M–1T2A]
force is –2 3
(c) [M T A] (d) [M–1T3A]
(a) 0.036 (b) 0.36 (c) 3.6 (d) 36 137. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as
130. The division of energy by time is X. The dimensional formula fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are
of X is same as that of (a) [F V T– 1] (b) [F V T– 2]
–1 –1
(a) momentum (b) power (c) [F V T ] (d) [F V– 1 T]
om
(c) torque (d) electric field 138. If the capacitance of a nanocapacitor is measured in terms
of a unit ‘u’ made by combining the electric charge ‘e’,
131. The Solar constant is defined as the energy incident per
Bohr radius ‘a0’, Planck’s constant ‘h’ and speed of light ‘c’
unit area per second. The dimensional formula for solar
then
t.c
constant is
(a) [M0L0T0] (b) [MLT–2] e2 h u
hc
(a) u (b)
po
2 –2 2
(c) [ML T ] (d) [ML0T–3] a0 e a0
132. Which of the following is a dimensional constant?
(a) Refractive index (b) Dielectric constant e2 c e2 a 0
gs
(c) u (d) u
(b) Relative density (d) Gravitational constant ha 0 hc
133. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by
139. If electronic charge e, electron mass m, speed of light in
lo
Ma Lb Tc, then the physical quantity will be vacuum c and Planck’s constant h are taken as
(a) velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1 fundamental quantities, the permeability of vacuum 0
.b
(b) acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2 can be expressed in units of
(c) force if a = 0, b = – 1, c = – 2
r8
h hc
(d) pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2 (a) (b)
134. [MLT–1] + [MLT–1] = ............. me 2 me2
be
38. (b)
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
39. (c) In multiplication or division the final result should
1. (a) SI is based on seven fundamental units. return as many significant figures as there are in the
2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) original number with the least significant figures.
7. (c) 1 light year = speed of light in vacuum × no. of seconds
L
in one year = (3 × 108) × (365 × 24 × 60 × 60) 40. (c) Force, F = m × a and a =
= 9.467 × 1015 m. T2
om
8. (b) 9. (b) distance displacement
10. (c) 1 fermi = 10–5 metre 41. (d) speed = and velocity =
time time
11. (a)
t.c
12. (c) Illuminance is intensity of illumination measured in 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (a)
lux. 45. (d) Both energy and work have same unit.
13. (d) Parallactic second is the unit of distance. energy/work is a pure number.
po
14. (c) 46. (c) Angular displacement has unit
15. (b) 1 parsec = 3.08 × 1016 m (degree or radian) but it is dimensionless.
1 ly = 9.46 × 1015 m Note : vice-versa is not possible.
gs
47. (d) 1 astronomical unit = 1.496 × 1011m
1Parsec 30.8 1015
3.26 v L
1ly 9.46 1015 lo
48. (a) Force F = ma = M MLT 2 v
t T
1 Parsec = 3.26 ly –2
.b
Force has dimensional formula [MLT ]
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c)
19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (a) Energy ML2 T 2
r8
49. (b)
4 3 Volume L3
22. (c) V r ; = [ML–1T–2] = Pressure
be
3
V r 50. (d) Angular velocity = = [M0L0T–1]
100 3 100 3 1% 3% t
cy
V r
23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (a) Change in length
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (a) 51. (a) Strain =
no
Original length
29. (c) Least count of a screw gauge
Hence no dimension.
Pitch
ch
=
Number of circular scale divisions STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
1 mm 52. (d) 53. (c)
.te
= = 0.02 mm
50
54. (a) 1 newton = 105 dyne
Therefore the pitch and no. of circular scale divisions
w
For vernier scale with 1 Main Scale Division = 1 mm 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (d)
9 Main Scale Division = 10 Vernier Scale Division,
w
om
decreases, and great degree of accuracy is required
for its measurement. Keeping in view the practical 91. (d) Mass × acceleration (ma) = F (force)
limitation in measuring the parallax angle, the
maximum distance of a star we can measure is limited
t.c
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
to 100 light year.
74. (b) A.U. (Astronomical unit) is used to measure the 92. (b) The work done = force × displacement
po
average distance of the centre of the sun from the unit, u1 = Fs
centre of the earth, while angstrom is used to and u2 = 4F × 4s = 16u.
measure very short distances. 1 A.U. = 1.5 × 1011m; g
93. (b) In CGS system, d 4 3
gs
1Å =10–10m. cm
75. (c) We know that Q = n1u1 = n2u2 are the two units of The unit of mass is 100g and unit of length is 10 cm, so
measurement of the quantity Q and n1, n2 are their
respective numerical values. From relation Q1= n1u1
lo 4
100g 4
100
.b
100 (100g)
= n2u2, nu = constant n 1/ u i.e. , smaller the unit density = 3 = 3
of measurement, greater is its numerical value. 10 1 (10cm)3
cm
r8
(10)3 · = 40 unit
A 2 r
100 (10cm) 3
Fractional error 94. (c)
A r
cy
95. (a)
A
100 2 0.3% 0.6% a 3b 2 P a b
96. (d) P =
no
A , × 100% = 3 × 100% + 2 ×
cd P a b
79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (b) The last number is most accurate because it has c d
ch
atoms in 1 gram mole of an element, i.e. it has the 98. (c) The percentage error = = 0.8%
5 25
dimensions of mol–1. 99. (a) The mean value of refractive index,
86. (d)
87. (c) Angle is dimensionless, but it has unit radian. 1.34 1.38 1.32 1.36
1.35
4
mass
88. (d) P x and
area
| (1.35 1.34) | | (1.35 1.38) | | (1.35 1.32) | | (1. 35 1.36) |
P area MLT 1 4
x L2 L3T 1
= 0.02
mass M
0.02
Quantities with different dimensions can be multiplied. Thus 100 = 100 1.48
1.35
UNITS AND MEASUREMENTS 15
om
The value of 1 division of vernier scale = Mean diameter =
10 3
= 0.08 cm = 0.59 cm
Thus L.C. = 0.1 – 0.08
t.c
= 0.02 cm
110. (a) Number of significant figures in 23.023= 5
0.5
102. (b) Least count 0.01 mm Number of significant figures in 0.0003 = 1
po
50
Number of significant figures in 2.1 × 10–3 = 2
Weight of body in air
103. (d) Relative density = Loss of weight in water 111. (b) The significant number in the potential, V = iR; should
gs
be the minimum of either i or R. So corresponding to i
5.00 5.00 = 3.23 A, we have only three significant numbers in V
5.00 – 4.00 1.00
112. (b)
lo
= 35.02935 V. Thus the result is V = 35.0 V.
.b
0.05 0.05 113. (c) [at] = [F] amd [bt2] = [F]
100 100
5.00 1.00 [a] = MLT–3 and [b] = MLT–4
r8
4f 2 L2 T 2 .L2
Relative density = 5.00 6% 115. (a) 116. (a)
cy
105. (b) 2 I
nh
119. (b) Planck's constant n [As I ]
F F 2
.te
om
Voltage
Charge a = 1, b = – 2, c = – 2
Hence, the dimensions of surface tension are [E V–2 T–2]
125. (a) Let m = KFa Lb Tc
(ms 1) m2 s 3
t.c
Substituting the dimensions of drift velocity Vd
136. (b) Mobility =
[F] = [MLT–2], [L] = [L] and [T] = [T] and comparing electric field E (Vm 1 ) V
both side, we get m = FL–1T2
po
GMm joule(J)
126. (a) F 2
Volt V
R coulomb(C)
gs
FR 2
G= G = [ML3T–2] lo m 2 s 1C m 2 s 1 As
Mm = [Coulomb,c As]
127. (c) We know that F = q v B
J kg m 2 s 2
.b
F MLT 2 = kg–1 s2 A = M–1 T2 A
1 1
r8
L [L] [ML2 T 2 A 2
] =
velocity / time
I2 [A]2
138. (d) Let unit ‘u’ related with e, a0, h and c as follows.
no
103 gm m min
e 2 a0
1
u=
1 2 hc
w
gm cm sec
100 139. (c) Let µ0 related with e, m, c and h as follows.
103 gm 102 cm 60sec a b c d
w
0 = ke m c h
3600 [MLT–2A–2] = [AT]a [M]b [LT–1]c [ML2T–1]d
b + d c + 2d a – c – d a
w
n2 3.6 = [M L T A]
103 On comparing both sides we get
Energy a = – 2 ...(i)
130. (b) Power b+d=1 ...(ii)
time
c + 2d = 1 ...(iii)
131. (d) Energy incident per unit area per second
a – c – d = –2 ...(iv)
Energy ML2 T 2
By equation (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) we get,
= = MT–3 a = – 2, b = 0, c = – 1, d = 1
area×second L2 T
132. (d) h
[ 0]
ce 2
3
MOTION IN A
STRAIGHT LINE
om
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. Area under velocity-time curve over a given interval of time
t.c
represents
1. Which of the following is a one dimensional motion ? (a) acceleration (b) momentum
(a) Landing of an aircraft (c) velocity (d) displacement
po
(b) Earth revolving around the sun 10. The distance travelled by a body is directly proportional to
(c) Motion of wheels of a moving train the time taken. Its speed
(d) Train running on a straight track
gs
(a) increases (b) decreases
2. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving (c) becomes zero (d) remains constant
object is
11. The slope of velocity-time graph for motion with uniform
(a) always less than 1
(c) always more than 1
(b) always equal to 1
(d) equal to or less than 1
lo
velocity is equal to
(a) final velocity (b) initial velocity
3.
.b
Which of the following can be zero, when a particle is in
motion for some time? (c) zero (d) none of these
(a) Distance (b) Displacement 12. The ratio of the numerical values of the average velocity
r8
about its displacement? (c) unity or more (d) less than unity
(a) It may or may not be zero 13. The slope of the tangent drawn on position-time graph at
(b) It cannot be zero
cy
5. The location of a particle has changed. What can we say (c) velocity (d) momentum
about the displacement and the distance covered by the 14. Which of the following is the correct definition for
particle?
ch
Average speed?
(a) Neither can be zero
(b) One may be zero total displacement
(a) Average speed =
.te
total time
(d) depends upon the acceleration
7. A body is moving along a straight line path with constant sum of all the speeds
velocity. At an instant of time the distance travelled by it (d) Average speed =
total time
is S and its displacement is D, then
(a) D < S (b) D > S 15. What is the numerical ratio of velocity to speed of an
(c) D = S (d) D S object ?
8. Speed is in general _____ in magnitude than that of the (a) Always equal to one
velocity. (b) Always less than one
(a) equal (b) greater or equal (c) Always greater than one
(c) smaller (c) none of these (d) Either less than or equal to one.
EBD_7208
18 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE
16. The graph between displacement and time for a particle 27. Stopping distance of a moving vehicle is directly
moving with uniform acceleration is a/an proportional to
(a) straight line with a positive slope (a) square of the initial velocity
(b) parabola (b) square of the initial acceleration
(c) ellipse (c) the initial velocity
(d) straight line parallel to time axis (d) the initial acceleration
17. The acceleration of a moving body can be found from 28. The path of a particle moving under the influence of a
(a) area under velocity - time graph force fixed in magnitude and direction is
(b) area under distance -time graph
(a) straight line (b) circle
(c) slope of the velocity- time graph
(c) parabola (d) ellipse
(d) slope of distance-time graph
29. Velocity-time curve for a body projected vertically upwards
18.
om
What determines the nature of the path followed by the
particle? is
(a) Speed (b) Velocity (a) parabola (b) ellipse
(c) Acceleration (d) Both (b) and (c) (c) hyperbola (d) straight line
t.c
19. Acceleration of a particle changes when 30. An object accelerated downward under the influence of
(a) direction of velocity changes force of gravity. The motion of object is said to be
(a) uniform motion
po
(b) magnitude of velocity changes
(c) speed changes (b) free fall
(d) Both (a) and (b) (c) non uniformly accelerated motion
gs
20. The area under acceleration time graph gives (d) None of these
(a) distance travelled (b) change in acceleration 31. Choose the wrong statement from the following.
(c) force acting (d) change in velocity lo
(a) The motion of an object along a straight line is a
21. Acceleration is described as rate of change of
rectilinear motion
(a) distance with time
.b
(b) velocity with distance (b) The speed in general is less than the magnitude of the
(c) velocity with time velocity
r8
(d) distance with velocity (c) The slope of the displacement-time graph gives the
22. Which of the following is the correct expression of velocity of the body
be
instantaneous acceleration ? (d) The area under the velocity-time graph gives the
v dv displacement of the body
(a) a = 2 (b) a =
32.
cy
2 t
dt
23. If a body travels with constant acceleration, which of the (c) variable acceleration
following quantities remains constant ? (d) constant momentum
ch
(a) Displacement (b) Velocity 33. A ball thrown vertically upwards after reaching a maximum
(c) Time (d) None of these. height h, returns to the starting point after a time of l0 s. Its
24. A body is thrown vertically upwards. If air resistance is displacement is
.te
to be taken into account, then the time during which the (a) h (b) 2 h
body rises is (c) 10 h (d) zero
w
25. Velocity time curve for a body projected vertically upwards (b) velocity varies non-uniformly
is (c) acceleration is constant
(a) parabola (b) ellipse (d) acceleration changes continuously
(c) hyperbola (d) straight line 35. The total distance travelled by the body in the given time
26. A body is thrown upwards and reaches its maximum height. is equal to
At that position (a) the area which v– t graph encloses with displacement
(a) its acceleration is minimum axis
(b) its velocity is zero and its acceleration is also zero (b) the area which x – t graph encloses with time axis
(c) its velocity is zero but its acceleration is maximum
(c) the area which v – t graph encloses with time axis
(d) its velocity is zero and its acceleration is the
acceleration due to gravity. (d) the area which a – t graph encloses with axis
MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 19
36. Choose the correct equation to determine distance in a 46. Two trains, each Xm long are travelling in opposite
straight line for a body with uniform motion. direction with equal velocity 20 m/s. The time of crossing
v
is
(a) s = (b) s = v2t X X
t s s
(a) (b)
40 20
1 2
(c) s = ut + gt (d) s = v × t2
2 2X
(c) s (d) Zero
37. If the v-t graph is a straight line inclined to the time axis, 20
then
(a) a = 0 (b) a 0 STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
(c) a constant 0 (d) a constant 0
38. For a moving body at any instant of time 47. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect
om
(a) if the body is not moving, the acceleration is statements.
necessarily zero I. The magnitude of instantaneous velocity of a particle
(b) if the body is slowing, the retardation is negative is equal to its instantaneous speed
t.c
(c) if the body is slowing, the distance is negative II. The magnitude of the average velocity in an interval is
(d) if displacement, velocity and acceleration at that equal to its average speed in that interval.
instant are known, we can find the displacement at III. It is possible to have a situation in which the speed of
po
any given time in future. the particle is never zero but the average speed in an
39. A particle moves 2m east then 4m north then 5 m west. interval is zero.
gs
The distance is IV. It is possible to have a situation in which the speed of
(a) 11m (b) 10m particle is zero but the average speed is not zero.
(c) –11m (d) 5m (a) II, III and IV (b) I and II
40. The ball is projected up from ground with speed 30 m/sec.
What is the average velocity for time 0 to 4 sec?
lo
(c) II and III (d) IV only
48. Select the incorrect statements from the following.
.b
(a) 10 m/sec (b) 20 m/sec I. Average velocity is path length divided by time
(c) 15 m/sec (d) zero interval
r8
41. A body moves in straight line with velocity v1 for 1/3rd II. In general, speed is greater than the magnitude of
time and for remaining time with v2. Find average velocity. the velocity.
be
42. A particle moves in straight line with velocity v1 and v2 (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
for time intervals which are in ratio 1:2. Find average 49. The incorrect statement(s) from the following is/are
velocity. I. A body having zero velocity will not necessarily
ch
zero acceleration
III. A body having uniform speed can have only
2v1 v 2 2v 2
(c) (d) v1 uniform acceleration
3 3 3
w
(c) 2i – 2jm (d) –2i + 2jm 50. Which of the following statements are correct?
44. If a train travelling at 20 m/s is to be brought to rest in I. A body can have zero velocity and still be accelerated
a distance of 200 m, then its retardation should be II. A body can have a constant velocity and still have a
(a) 1 m/s2 (b) 2 m/s2 varying speed
2
(c) 10 m/s (d) 20 m/s2 III. A body can have a constant speed and still have a
45. A body starts from rest and travels ‘s’ m in 2nd second, varying velocity
then acceleration is IV. The direction of the velocity of a body cannot change
(a) 2s m/s2 (b) 3s m/s2 when its acceleration is constant.
(a) I and II (b) I and III
2 3 (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
(c) s m/s2 (d) s m/s2
3 2
EBD_7208
20 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE
51. Select the correct statements from the following (C) u = + ve, and a = – ve (3) v
I. A body can have constant velocity but variable
speed
II. A body can have constant speed but variable t
velocity 0
III. A body can have zero velocity but non–zero
acceleration
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III v
52. A body is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity u. (D) u = – ve, and a = – ve (4)
Select the incorrect statements from the following.
I. Both velocity and acceleration are zero at its highest
om
point
t
II. Velocity is maximum and acceleration is zero at the 0
highest point.
III. Velocity is maximum and acceleration is g downwards (a) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (1)
t.c
at its highest point. (b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (4)
po
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III (d) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
53. Which of the following is/are correct statements ? 56. For a particle in one dimensional motion, match the following
I. When a body reaches highest point in vertical columns :
gs
motion, its velocity becomes zero but acceleration is Column I Column II
non -zero. (A) Zero speed but non-zero (1) Body which is about
II. Average velocity of an object is not equal to the lo
acceleration. to fall
instantaneous velocity in uniform motion. (B) Zero speed non-zero (2) Extreme position of
.b
III. Average speed can be zero but average velocity can velocity. oscillating body
never be zero (C) Constant speed (3) Possible
(a) I and II (b) II and III
r8
non-zero acceleration.
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(D) Positive acceleration (4) Not possible
54. The relative velocity VAB or VBA of two bodies A and B may
be
III. less than the velocity of body A (c) (A) (1, 2, 3); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (1, 3)
IV. less than the velocity of body B (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
(a) I and II only (b) III and IV only
no
v
body at the peak point
(A) u = + ve and a = + ve (1) (a) (A) (4); (B) (5); C (1); (D) (3) ; (E) (2)
w
(b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) ; (E) (5)
w
t
(c) (A) (5); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1) ; (E) (4)
0 (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) ; (E) (5)
58. Column I Column II
(A) Zero acceleration (1) Retardation
(B) u = – ve, and a = + ve (2) v
(B) Velocity time graph (2) Speed
(C) Speed in a direction (3) Constant
motion
(D) Acts in opposite direction of (4) Acceleration
t motion
0
(E) Slope of a distance time graph (5) Velocity
MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 21
(a) (A) (4); (B) (5); C (1); (D) (3) ; (E) (3)
s
(b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) ; (E) (5)
(c) (A) (5); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1) ; (E) (4)
(d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (5); (D) (1) ; (E) (2) (C) Uniform velocity (3)
59. Column I Column II t
0
s
v
(A) Uniform retardation (1)
t (D) Constant motion (4)
t
a 0
om
v
(B) Uniform velocity (2)
t
(5)
t
t.c
v 0
(C) Uniform acceleration with initial (3) (a) (A) (2, 3); (B) (2); C (3, 4); (D) (1, 5)
po
t (b) (A) (1, 2); (B) (3); C (5); (D) (4)
velocity (c) (A) (1, 2, 3); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (1, 3)
gs
a (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
62. Column I
lo Column II
(D) Constant acceleration (4) (A) Distance travelled (1) zero acceleration
t
.b
by a body
s 1
r8
t
rate. u2
cy
(a) (A) (2); (B) (5); C (1); (D) (4) ; (E) (3) (D) Height of a vertically (4)
2g
(b) (A) (5); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) ; (E) (2)
(c) (A) (5); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1) ; (E) (4) thrown body
no
(d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (5); (D) (1) ; (E) (2)
(a) (A) (2, 3); (B) (2); C (3, 4); (D) (1, 5)
60. Column I Column II
(1) m/s2 (b) (A) (1, 2); (B) (3); C (5); (D) (4)
ch
(A) Velocity
(B) Displacement (2) vector (c) (A) (1, 5); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4, 5)
(C) Speed (3) m/s
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
.te
u v
61. Column I Column II (B) v2 – u2 (2)
t
w
v
(C) Average speed (3) 2gh
om
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
t
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 69. The equation represented by the graph below is :
t.c
65. The graph shown below represent
po
object B
t(s)
Position
x02 object A O
gs
x01
y
(m)
Time lo
(a) A and B are moving with same velocity in opposite
.b
directions 1 1
(b) velocity of B is more than A in same direction (a) y = gt (b) y = gt
2 2
r8
(c) y = (d) y =
uniform motion? 2 2
70. Wind is blowing west to east along two parallel tracks. Two
cy
Displacement
Displacement
Time Time u
ch
shown below u
Displacemnt
2 2 A
A
68. Which of the following graphs gives the equation B
(a) B (b)
1 2
x = vot + at
2 Time Time
MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 23
A a
A a
Displacemnt
Displacemnt
B
(c) (d)
(c) (d) B
r r
Time Time
72. Figure shows the v-t graph for two particles P and Q. Which ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
of the following statements regarding their relative motion Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
is true ? Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
V alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
om
P have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
Q
explanation for assertion.
t.c
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
correct explanation for assertion
po
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
O T (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Their relative velocity is
gs
75. Assertion : Displacement of a body may be zero when
(a) is zero distance travelled by it is not zero.
(b) is non-zero but constant Reason : The displacement is the longest distance
lo
(c) continuously decreases between initial and final position.
.b
(d) continuously increases 76. Assertion : Displacement of a body is vector sum of the
area under velocity– time graph.
73. The displacement of a particle as a function of time is shown
r8
10
20 30 40 50 uniform motion along a straight path is a straight
Time in sec line parallel to the time axis.
.te
(a) the velocity of the particle is constant throughout Reason : In uniform motion of an object velocity
(b) the acceleration of the particle is constant throughout increases as the square of time elapsed.
(c) the particle starts with a constant velocity and is 80. Assertion: The average velocity of the object over an
w
(d) the motion is retarded and finally the particle stops speed of the object over the same interval.
74. If a body moving in circular path maintains constant speed Reason: Velocity is a vector quantity and speed is a scalar
w
om
Reason : If u speed of each train and v speed of
Reason : In uniform motion, the velocity of an object wind then (u + v) = 2 (u – v) u = 3v
increases uniformly.
86. Assertion : A body may be accelerated even when it is
t.c
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
moving uniformly.
99. A truck and a car are moving with equal velocity. On
Reason : When direction of motion of the body is changing,
po
applying the brakes both will stop after certain distance,
the body must have acceleration. then
87. Assertion : For one dimensional motion the angle between (a) truck will cover less distance before rest
gs
acceleration and velocity must be zero. (b) car will coverless distance before rest
Reason : One dimensional motion is always on a straight (c) Both will cover equal distance
line. (d) None of these
88. Assertion : A particle starting from rest and moving with
lo
100. If Position of a particle is given by
x = (4t2 – 8t), then which of the following is true?
.b
uniform acceleration travels' a length of x and 3x in first two (a) Acceleration is zero at t = 0
and next two-seconds. (b) Velocity is zero at t = 0
r8
the direction.
Reason : A body cannot have acceleration if its velocity is with the positive x-direction with a velocity 'v' that varies
zero at a given instant of time. as v = x . The displacement of the particle varies with
cy
constant.
Reason : If the acceleration of a body is zero then its 102. A man leaves his house for a cycle ride. He comes back to
motion is known as uniform motion. his house after half-an-hour after covering a distance of
ch
91. Assertion : A positive acceleration of a body can be one km. What is his average velocity for the ride ?
associated with ‘slowing down’ of the body. (a) zero (b) 2 km h–1
Reason : Acceleration is a vector quantity. 1
km s 1
.te
and the bus starts moving with a constant acceleration ‘a’ The mean velocity of the point, averaged over the whole
then the minimum speed of the passenger in order to time of motion is
w
om
(c) v 0 / 2 (d) v 0
114. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f through a
107. A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation distance S, then continues at constant speed for time t and
x = (t + 5)–1. The acceleration of particle is proportional to f
(a) (velocity) 3/2 (b) (distance)2 then decelerates at the rate to come to rest. If the total
t.c
–2 2
(c) (distance) (d) (velocity)2/3 distance traversed is 15 S , then
108. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5 ms–1. In 1 2
po
10 seconds the velocity changes to 5 ms–1 northwards. (a) S = ft (b) S = f t
6
The average acceleration in this time is
1 1 2
(c) S = ft 2 (d) S = ft
gs
1 2 72
(a) ms towards north 4
2 115. A body is projected vertically upwards. If t1 and t2 be the
times at which it is at height h above the projection while
(b)
1
2
ms 2 towards north - east
lo
ascending and descending respectively, then h is
1
.b
(a) gt1t2 (b) gt1t2
2
1 2
(c) ms towards north - west
r8
110. An object, moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s, is decelerated 117. A rocket is fired upward from the earth’s surface such that
dv
at a rate given by:
dt
2.5 v where v is the instantaneous it creates an acceleration of 19.6 m s 2 . If after 5 s, its engine
ch
speed. The time taken by the object, to come to rest, would is switched off, the maximum height of the rocket from
be earth’s surface would be
.te
any time ?
t (s) 0 1 2 3
(a) Only with speed 19.6 m/s
w
om
(b) vA = vB
(c) vA < vB h 2h
(d) their velocities depend on their masses. (c) (d)
2g g
122. A ball is released from the top of tower of height h metre. It
127.
t.c
takes T second to reach the ground. What is the position of If two balls of masses m1 and m2(m1= 2m2) are dropped
the ball in T/3 second ? from the same height, then the ratio of the time taken by
them to reach the ground will be
po
h (a) m1 : m2 (b) 2m2 : m1
(a) metre from the ground
9 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
128. Two cars A and B approach each other at the same
gs
7h
(b) metre from the ground speed, then what will be the velocity of A if velocity of
9 B is 8 m/s ?
(c)
8h
9
metre from the ground
lo
(a) 16 m/s
(c) – 8 m/s
(b) 8 m/s
(d) Can’t be determined.
.b
129. A train of 150 m length is going towards north direction at a
17h speed of 10 ms–1. A parrot flies at a speed of 5 ms–1 towards
(d) metre from the ground south direction parallel to the railway track. The time taken
r8
18
123. A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground. by the parrot to cross the train is equal to
(a) 12 s (b) 8 s
be
2
d
(a) 5 sec (b) 4 sec
h h 3
(a) (b) d
(c) 2 sec (d) 6 sec
ch
d d 2 –4n+1
h h (c) –2nb e (d) –2nb2x–2n–1
(c) (d)
132. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 km h –1
w
124. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is between them becomes shortest, is
h below the top of the well. If v is velocity of sound, the
time T after which the splash is heard is given by (a) 5 h (b) 5 2h
(c) 10 2 h (d) 0 h
(a) T = 2h/v (b) 2h h
T 133. From a balloon moving upwards with a velocity of 12 ms -1,
g v
a packet is released when it is at a height of 65 m from the
ground. The time taken by it to reach the ground is
2h h h 2h (g = 10 ms–2)
(c) T (d) T
v g 2g v (a) 5 s (b) 8 s
(c) 4 s (d) 7 s
MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 27
134. A bus is moving with a velocity of 10 ms–1
on a straight
road. A scootorist wishes to overtake the bus in one minute. (y2 – y1 ) m
If the bus is at a distance of 1.2 km ahead, then the velocity 240
with which he has to chase the bus is (c)
(a) 20 ms–1 (b) 25 ms–1
(c) 60 ms –1 (d) 30 ms–1
135. A ball dropped from a point A falls down vertically to C, t(s)
t 8 12
through the midpoint B. The descending time from A to B
and that from A to C are in the ratio (y2 – y1 ) m
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 240
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1: 2 (d)
136. Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of
om
a cliff 240 m high with initial speed of 10 m/s and 40 m/s
t(s)
respectively. Which of the following graph best represents 12
the time variation of relative position of the second stone 137. A ball is dropped from the top of a tower of height 100 m
t.c
with respect to the first ? and at the same time another ball is projected vertically
(Assume stones do not rebound after hitting the ground upwards from ground with a velocity 25 ms–1. Then the
and neglect air resistance, take g = 10 m/ s2) distance from the top of the tower, at which the two balls
po
(The figures are schematic and not drawn to scale) meet is
(a) 68.4 m (b) 48.4 m
gs
(y2 – y1) m (c) 18.4 m (d) 78.4 m
240 138. The ratio of distances traversed in successive intervals of
time when a body falls freely under gravity from certain
(a) lo
height is
(a) l : 2 : 3 (b) l : 5 : 9
.b
t(s)
8 12 (c) 1 : 3 : 5 (d) 1: 2 : 3
r8
2 2
(a) 2gH n2u 2 (b) gH n 2 u d
.te
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 17. (c) Slope of velocity-time graph shows acceleration.
18. (d) The nature of the path is decided by the direction
of velocity, and the direction of acceleration. The
1. (d) Motion of a body along a straight line is one
trajectory can be a straight line, circle or a parabola
dimensional motion.
depending on these factors.
Displacement 19. (c) Because acceleration is a vector quantity.
2. (d) 1
distance 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d)
om
3. (b) 24. (b) Let the initial velocity of ball be u
4. (d) Distance covered by a particle is zero only when it is u
at rest. Therefore, its displacement must be zero. Time of rise t1 and height reached
g a
t.c
5. (a) When location of a particle has changed, it must have
covered some distance an d undergone some u2
displacement.
po
2( g a)
6. (c)
7. (c) If a body is moving along a straight line path with Time of fall t2 is given by
gs
constant velocity then distance travelled =
1 u2
displacement i.e., D = S ( g – a )t22
8. (b) In general, in magnitude of speed velocity 2 2( g a )
9. (d) Area under velocity-time curve represents
displacement.
lot2
u u g a
.b
( g a)( g a) ( g a) g –a
s
10. (d) When s t, so constant .
r8
t 1 1
11. (c) The velocity-time graph for a uniform motion is a t2 > t1 because
g a g a
be
straight. line parallel to time axis. Its slope is zero. 25. (d) Velocity time curve will be a straight line as shown:
12. (b)
|Average velocity| |displacement|
cy
v
|Average speed| | distance |
because displacement will either be equal or less
no
BC
O Time
Using equation of motion v2 – u2 = 2aS
02 – u2 = 2aS
w
14. (b)
u2
w
Stopping distance, S –
velocity 2a
15. (d) 1
speed 28. (a)
16. (b) For a particle moving with uniform acceleration the 29. (d) Because acceleration due to gravity is constant so
displacement-time graph is a parabola. the slope of line will be constant i.e. velocity time
curve for a body projected vertically upwards is
S straight line.
30. (b)
31. (b) The speed in general the magnitude of velocity
32. (b) Free fall of an object (in vacuum) is a case of motion
t with uniform acceleration.
MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 29
33. (d) As ball returns to starting point so displacement is 54. (d) All options are correct :
zero. (i) When two bodies A & B move in opposite
1 2 directions then relative velocity between A & B either
34. (c) As, s = at VAB or VBA both are greater than VA & VB.
2
(ii) When two bodies A & B move in same direction
If a is constant, then s t2
35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) then VAB VA VB VAB VA
40. (a) We should know the displacement in this time. VBA VB VA VBA VB
at 2
S ut (we take upward as positive) MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
2
55. (b) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
4
S 30 4 10 4 40 m. 56. (c) (A) (1, 2, 3); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (1, 3)
om
2 57. (a) (A) (4); (B) (5); C (1); (D) (3) ; (E) (2)
The average velocity will be 10 m/sec. 58. (d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (5); (D) (1) ; (E) (2)
v1t / 3 v 2 2t / 3 v1 2v 2 59. (b) (A) (5); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4) ; (E) (2)
t.c
41. (a) vav 60. (a) (A) (2, 3); (B) (2); C (3, 4); (D) (1)
t 3 3
61. (b) (A) (1, 2); (B) (3); C (5); (D) (4)
v1t / 3 v 2 2t / 3 v1 2v 2 62. (c) (A) ( 2); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (4)
po
42. (a) vav 63. (a) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
t 3 3
64. (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
43. (c)
gs
u2 (20)2 DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
44. (a) v2 – u2 = 2as a= = 1 m/s2
2as 2 200 65. (d) lo66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (d)
70. (c) Let v be velocity of wind and u be velocity of each
a train.
.b
45. (c) Sn = u + (2n – 1)
2 Rel. vel. of one train w.r.t. wind = 2 × Rel. vel. of other
train w.r.t. wind
r8
a 2
or, S= (2 2 – 1) a= m/s2 u + v = 2 (u – v)
2 3 v + 2 v = 2u – u = u.
be
equal to the magnitude of the instantaneous velocity 74. (c) Speed, V = constant (from question)
at the given instant. Centripetal acceleration,
V2
.te
displacement
48. (c) Average velocity = a=
time interval r
A particle moving in a given direction with non-zero ra = constant
w
velocity cannot have zero speed. Hence graph (c) correctly describes relation between
acceleration and radius.
w
om
automobile. dt
82. (a) Since velocity is a vector quantity, hence as its 101. (a) v x
direction changes keeping magnitude constant,
t.c
velocity is said to be changed. But for constant dx
x
speed in equal time interval distance travelled dt
should be equal. dx
po
dt
83. (c) Negative slope of position time graph represents x
that the body is moving towards the negative x t
direction and if the slope of the graph decrease with dx
gs
dt
time then it represents the decrease in speed i.e. x
0 0
retardation in motion.
84. (c) If the position-time graph of a body moving
uniformly in a straight line parallel to position axis,
lo 2 x
x
[ t ]0t
.b
it means that the position of body is changing at 1
0
constant time. The statement is abrupt and shows
r8
motion. x t2
86. (a) In uniform circular motion, there is acceleration of 4
constant magnitude. 102. (a) Since displacement is zero.
cy
87. (d) One dimensional motion is always along straight line. 103. (d) Let the total distance be d. Then for first half distance,
But acceleration may be opposite of velocity and so
d
no
angle between them will be 180°. time = , next distance. = v1t and last half distance
2v 0
88. (c)
89. (c) Assertion is True, Reason is False. = v2t
ch
91. (b) A body having positive acceleration can be Now average speed
associated with slowing down, as time rate of d
w
2v0 (v1 v2 )
acts on it in vertically downward direction. Due to
(v1 v 2 ) 2v0
this downward acceleration the velocity of a body
increases and will be maximum when the body 104. (c) When particle comes to rest,
touches the ground. dx d
97. (a) A body has no relative motion with respect to itself. V=0= (40 + 12t – t3)
dt dt
Hence, if a frame of reference of body is fixed, then
12 – 3t2 = 0
the body will be always at relative rest in this frame
of reference. 12
t2 = 4 t = 2 sec
98. (a) 3
MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 31
Therefore distance travelled by particle before coming v 5 2 1
to rest, Avg. acc. = m / s2
t 10 2
x = 40 + 12t – t3 = 40 + 12 × 2 – (2)3 = 56m
5
105. (a) As the coin falls behind him, force due to air must be tan 1
backwards. Therefore, the train must be accelerating 5
forward. which means is in the second quadrant. (towards north-
dv dv west)
106. (a) kv 3 or k dt 109. (a) Differentiate two times and put x = 0.
dt v3
1 dv dv
Integrating we get, kt c ...(1) 110. (a) 2.5 v = – 2.5 dt
dt v
2v 2
1 Integrating,
om
At t = 0, v = v0 c
2v2o 0
½
t
v dv 2.5 dt
Putting in (1) 6.25 0
t.c
1 1 1 1 0
kt or kt v ½
2v2 2v02 2v20 2v2 2.5 t
t
(½) 0
po
6.25
or
1 1
or 1 2v 02 kt v 02 – 2(6.25)½ = – 2.5t t = 2 sec
kt
2 v 02 2v 2
v 2
gs
1 2
111. (a) x = x0 (ut at )
2
v 20 v0 At t = 0, x = – 2,
or v 2 or v lo
1 2 v 20 kt 1 2v 02 kt –2 = x0 + 0
or x0 = – 2
.b
1 dx 1 1
107. (a) x v= Thus,0 = 2 (u 1 a 12 ) ...(i)
r8
2 2
t 5 dt (t 5)
1
d2x 2 and 6 = 2 (u 2 a 22 ) ...(ii)
be
a= = = 2x3 2
dt 2 (t 5)3 After solving equations, we get u = 0, a = 4 m/s2.
1 3
1 1 Now for t = 3,
cy
Now v2 a v2
(t 5) (t 5)3 1
x = 2 (u 3 4 32 )
change in velocity 2
no
= tion.
t 112. (d) Let the car accelerates for a time t 1 and travels a
v2
distance s1. Suppose the maximum velocity attained
.te
N
by the car be v Then
v v2 ( v1 ) 1 2
s1 t1 and v t1 , t1 v / ,
w
2
1 v2
s1 (v2 / 2 ) ...(1)
w
90 2 2
W E
v1 v1 Let the car decelerates for a time t2 and travels a
w
= 5 2 m/s v2 v2 v2
or s 2 ...(2)
2 2
EBD_7208
32 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE
As per question, S f t1t 2S 15 S
Let max. velocity is v
then v = t1 & v – t2 = 0, where t = t1 + t2 f t1t 12 S ............. (i)
v v 1 2
Now t1 + t2 = t or t f t1 S ............ (ii)
2
t
t Dividing (i) by (ii), we get t1 =
v t and 6
1 1
2
1 t f t2
S f
2 6 72
s
v2 v2 v2 1 1
s1 s2
1 2
om
2 2 2 115. (a) = ut1 gt1
h
2
113. (d) Given : u = 0, t = 5 sec, v = 108 km/hr = 30m/s
By eqn of motion ut2
1 2
gt2
Also h =
v = u + at 2
t.c
v 30 After simplify above equations, we get
or a 6 m / s2 [ u 0] 1
t 5
po
h = gt1t2 .
2
1 2 116. (c) If h is the height of the building, then
S1 at
2
gs
v2A = v 2 2 gh
1
6 52 75 m and vB2 = ( v ) 2 2 gh .
2
Distance travelled in first 5 sec is 75m.
Distance travelled with uniform speed of 30 m/s is S2
lo
Clearly vA = vB.
117. (b) Velocity when the engine is switched off
.b
395 = S1 + S2 + S3 v 19.6 5 98 m s 1
395 = 75 + S2 + 45
r8
1 2 9. 8 4 19 . 6 m
Now by, S = ut + at 2
2
the same distance will be covered in 2 second (for
ch
1 descent)
45 = 30t +(–10)t 2
2 Time interval of throwing balls, remaining same. So,
45 = 30t – 5t2 for two balls remaining in air, the time of ascent or
.te
1 2
114. (d) Distance from A to B = S = ft 1
2 1
w
= × 10 × 182 = 90 × 18 = 1620 m
Distance from B to C = (ft 1 ) t 2
Distance moved in 12 s by 2nd ball
u2 (ft 1 ) 2
Distance from C to D = 1 2
2a 2( f / 2) = ut + gt 1620 = 12 v + 5 × 144
2
ft 12 2S v = 135 – 60 = 75 ms –1
A f B C f /2 D 1 2
120. (a) h= gt
2
t1 t 2t 1
1
h1 = g(5)2 = 125
15 S 2
MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 33
A
1 4S 4S 2S
h1 + h2 = g(10)2 = 500 t1 t2 , t2
2 g g g S
h2 = 375 6S B
1 t1 t2 t3
h1 + h2 + h3 = g(15)2 = 1125 g 2S S
3S
2
h3 = 625 C
6S 4S
h2 = 3h1 , h3 = 5h 1 t3 S
g g
h2 h3
or h1 = = t1 : t 2 : t 3 : : 1 : ( 2 1) : ( 3 2) D
3 5
121. (b) As the ball moves down from height ‘h’ to ground the 1 2
P.E. at height ‘h’ is converted to K.E. at the ground 126. (a) h ut gt
2
om
(Applying Law of conservation of Energy).
1 2
1 h gt [ u 0]
Hence, mAvA2 = mAghA or vA = 2gh ; 2
2
t.c
t 2h / g
Similarly, vB = 2 gh or vA = vB 127. (c)
128. (c) Velocity of A is same as that of B in magnitude but
po
1 2 opposite in direction.
122. (c) h gT
2 129. (d) So by figure the velocity of parrot
gs
w.r. t. train is = 5–(–10) = 15m/sec
2
T 1 T h so time taken to cross the train is
In sec, the distance travelled g
3 2 3 9
Position of the ball from the ground
lo length of train
relative velocity
150
15
10 sec
.b
h 8h
h m
9 9 North
r8
123. (a) Before hitting the ground, the velocity is given by train
2 10m/sec
be
v 2gd
West East
2 d parrot
Further, v ' 2g gd ;
2 5m/sec
cy
v South
2 or v v' 2
v'
no
130. (b) Relative speed of each train with respect to each other
As the direction is reversed and speed is decreased
be, = 10 + 15 = 25 m/s
and hence graph (a) represents these conditions
Here distance covered by each train = sum of their lengths
ch
correctly.
= 50 + 50 = 100 m
124. (b) Time taken by the stone to reach the water level
100
.te
Time taken by sound to come to the mouth of the well, V (x) = bx–2n
w
h dv
t2 So, = – 2 nb x– 2n – 1
v dx
w
om
Distance OB = 100 cos 45° = 50 2 km Sn = u + a (2 n 1)
Time taken to each the shortest distance between 2
Here, u = 0, a = g
OB 50 2 1
A and B 5h
t.c
Sn = g (2n 1)
VBA 10 2 2
1 2 Distance traversed in 1st second i.e., n = 1
133. (a) s = ut + at 1 1
po
2 S1 = g (2 1 1) g
–65 = 12t – 5t2 on solving we get, t = 5s 2 2
134. (d) Speed to cover 1200 m by scootarist Distance traversed in 2nd second i.e., n = 2
gs
vr × 60 = 1200 vr = 20 1 3
speed to overtake bus S2 = g (2 2 1) g
2 2
v = vr + 10 = 30 m/s Distance traversed in 3rd second i.e., n = 3
135. (d) For A to B
1 2
lo 1
S3 = g (2 3 1)
5
g
.b
S= gt ...(i) 2 2
2 1 3 5
For A to C S1 : S2 : S3 = g : g : g 1: 3 : 5
r8
2 2 2
1 2 139. (d) Let u be the initial velocity that have to find and a be
2S = gt ...(ii)
2
be
t 2
136. (b) y1 = 10t – 5t2 ; y2 = 40t – 5t2 1
12 = u × 3 + a 32
for y1 = – 240m, t = 8s 2
no
1
y2 – y1 = 240 – 40t – gt2 2
2 or 42 = 6u + 18a ...(ii)
137. (d) Let the two balls Pand Q meet at height x m from the On solving, we get u = 1 m s–1
.te
u
(100 – x)m
w
100 m H
–1 B
w
25 m s
xm
P Now, v = u + at
A
For ball P u2 2 gh u gt
S = x m, u = 25 m s–1, a = –g
u
1 Time taken to reach highest point is t ,
From S = ut + at 2 g
2
1 2 u u2 2 gH nu
x = 25t – gt .......... (i) t (from question)
2 g g
2gH = n(n –2)u2
4
MOTION IN A PLANE
om
FACT/ DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. The resultant of A 0 will be equal to
t.c
1. A scalar quantity is one that (a) zero (b) A
(a) can never take negative values (c) zero vector (d) unit vector
10.
po
(b) has magnitude as well as direction In a clockwise system
(c) does not vary from one point to another in space (a) j× k i (b) i×k 0
(d) has the same value for observers with different
gs
orientations of axes. (c) j× j 1 (d) k × i 1
2. Which of the following conditions are sufficient and 11. The component of a vector r along x-axis will have
essential for a quantity to be a vector?
(a) Magnitude and direction
lo
maximum value if
(a) r is along positive y-axis
.b
(b) Magnitude and addition, subtraction, multiplication (b) r is along positive x-axis
by ordinary rules of algebra (c) r makes an angle of 45° with the x-axis
r8
(c) Magnitude, direction, and addition, subtraction (d) r is along negative y-axis
multiplication and division by vector laws 12. It is found that | A + B | = | A |. This necessarily implies,
(d) Magnitude, direction and combination of vectors by
be
(a) B = 0
ordinary rules of algebra (b) A and B are antiparallel
3. If is the angle between two vectors, then the resultant
(c) A and B are perpendicular
vector is maximum, when value of is
cy
(a) 90° (b) 0° 15. If tm is the time taken by a projectile to achieve the maximum
height, then the total time of flight Tf related to tm as
w
om
(a) 80 km/h (b) 60 km/h (c) and (d) and
4 g 2 g
(c) 15 km/h (d) 145 km/h
20. A bullet is dropped from the same height when another 30. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the acceleration
bullet is fired horizontally. They will hit the ground
t.c
is
(a) one after the other (a) maximum (b) minimum
(b) simultaneously
(c) zero (d) g
po
(c) depends on the observer
(d) None of these 31. Centripetal acceleration is
21. What determines the nature of the path followed by a (a) a constant vector
gs
particle? (b) a constant scalar
(c) a magnitude changing vector
(a) Velocity (b) Speed
(d) not a constant vector
22.
(c) Acceleration (d) None of these
The time of flight of a projectile on an upward inclined
lo
32. The force required to keep a body in uniform circular
motion is
.b
plane depends upon
(a) angle of inclination of the plane (a) centripetal force (b) centrifugal force
(c) resistance (d) None of these
r8
radius r
24. In a projectile motion, velocity at maximum height is 34. Two stones are moving with same angular speeds in the
u cos radii of circular paths 1 m and 2 m. The ratio of their linear
ch
and the maximum height of a projectile are equal, is: (b) the inward radius
(a) 45° (b) = tan–14 (c) the outward radius
w
(c) –1
= tan (0.25) (d) none of these. (d) the axis of rotation
26. For an object thrown at 45° to horizontal, the maximum 36. If ar and at represent radial and tangential accelerations,
w
height (H) and horizontal range (R) are related as the motion of particle will be uniformly circular, if
(a) R = 16 H (b) R = 8 H (a) ar = 0 and at = 0 (b) ar = 0 but at 0
(c) R = 4 H (d) R = 2H (c) ar 0 and at = 0 (d) ar 0 and at 0
37. In uniform circular motion
27. The vertical component of velocity of a projectile at its
(a) both velocity and acceleration are constant
maximum height (u - velocity of projection, -angle of
(b) acceleration and speed are constant but velocity
projection) is
(a) u sin (b) u cos changes
(c) both acceleration and velocity change
u (d) both acceleration and speed are constant
(c) (d) 0
sin
MOTION IN A PLANE 37
38. When a body moves with a constant speed along a circle 47. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(a) no work is done on it I. A scalar quantity is the one that is conserved in a
(b) no acceleration is produced in the body process.
(c) no force acts on the body II. A scalar quantity is the one that can never take
(d) its velocity remains constant negative values.
39. A body is travelling in a circle at a constant speed. It III. A scalar quantity has the same value for observers
(a) has a constant velocity with different orientations of the axes.
(b) is not accelerated (a) I and III (b) II only
(c) has an inward radial acceleration (c) II and III (d) I and II
(d) has an outward radial acceleration 48. Which of the following is/are correct ?
40. A body is moving with a constant speed v in a circle of
radius r. Its angular acceleration is I. A B B A
(a) vr (b) v/r
om
II. A B B A
(c) zero (d) vr2
41. A stone of mass m is tied to a string of length and rotated III. A ( B C ) ( A B ) C
in a circle with a constant speed v, if the string is released (a) I only (b) II and III
t.c
the stone flies (b) I and III (d) I and II
(a) radially outward 49. Three vectors A, B and C add up to zero. Select the correct
(b) radially inward statements.
po
(c) tangentially outward I (A × B) . C is not zero unless B, C are parallel
(d) with an acceleration mv2/ II If A,B,C define a plane, (A × B) × C is in that plane
42. III (A × B) .C = | A | | B | C | C2 = A2 + B2
gs
If a particle moves in a circle describing equal angles in
equal interval of time, its velocity vector (a) I and II (b) II and III
(a) remains constant (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(b) changes in magnitude
(c) changes in direction
50. lo
In a two dimensional motion, instantaneous speed v0 is
a positive constant. Then which of the following statements
.b
(d) changes both in magnitude and direction is/are incorrect?
43. The circular motion of a particle with constant speed is I. The average velocity is not zero at any time.
r8
(a) periodic but not simple harmonic II. Average acceleration must always vanish.
(b) simple harmonic but not periodic III. Equal path lengths are traversed in equal intervals.
be
angular velocity. The motion of the body has constant parabolic path.
(a) acceleration (b) velocity I. At the highest point the vertical component of velocity
is zero
w
horizontally
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS III. At the highest point, the acceleration of the ball acts
w
vertically downwards
46. Consider the following statements and select the correct
(a) I and II (b) II and III
statements from the following.
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
I. Addition and subtraction of scalars make sense only
53. Select the incorrect statement(s) from the following.
for quantities with same units
I. In projectile motion, the range depends on the mass.
II. Multiplication and division of scalars with different
It is greater for heavier object
units is possible
II. In projectile motion, the range is independent of the
III. Addition, subtraction, multiplication and division of
angle of projection.
scalars with same unit is possible
(a) I only (b) II only
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and II (d) None of these
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
EBD_7208
38 MOTION IN A PLANE
54. A ball is thrown upwards and it returns to ground describing (D) The difference of vector, A B (4) 20
a parabolic path. Which of the following has the same (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3)
value at the time of throw and the time of return? (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
I. Kinetic energy of the ball (c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
II. Speed of the ball (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
III. Vertical component of velocity 59. Given two vectors; A = ˆi ˆj and B = ˆi ˆj . Then match the
(a) I and II (b) II and III
following columns :
(c) III only (d) I, II and III Column - I Column - II
55. For a particle performing uniform circular motion, select
the correct statement(s) from the following. (A) A B /2 (1) î
om
I. Magnitude of particle velocity (speed) remains
constant. (B) A B /2 (2) ĵ
II. Particle velocity remains directed perpendicular to
t.c
radius vector. (C) A B /2 (3) kˆ
III. Angular momentum is constant.
(a) I only (b) II and III A B /2
po
(D) (4) 0
(c) III only (d) I and II
56. Which of the following statements are correct ? (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (2)
gs
I. Centripetal acceleration is always directed towards the (b) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (1)
centre. (c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
v2 (d) (A)
lo (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
II. Magnitude of the centripetal acceleration is . 60. The velocity v of a particle moving in the xy – plane is
R
.b
III. Direction of centripetal acceleration changes pointing
always towards the centre. given by v = 6t – 4t 2 ˆi + 8ˆj , with v in m/s and t(>0) in
r8
Column - I Column - II
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
(A) Acceleration magnitude is 10 m/s2 (1) ¾ s
cy
(B)The magnitude of A B (2) – 2 (b) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (1)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
.te
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) (magnitude only)
(A) angle of projection, tan q (1) ¼
58. Given two vectors A = 3ˆi 4ˆj and B = ˆi 2 ˆj . Then match
(B) time of flight, T (2) 1
the following columns : (C) maximum height attained, H (3) 2
Column I Column II
(D) horizontal range, R (4) 4
(A) Magnitude of vector A or B (1) 5 (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (2)
0.6iˆ 0.8ˆj (b) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
(B) Unit vector of A (2)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
(C) The magnitude of A B (3) 2ˆi 6ˆj (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
MOTION IN A PLANE 39
62. A particle is projected with some angle from the surface of
the planet. The motion of the particle is described by the b
2 a c
equation; x t , y t t . Then match the following columns:
Column - I Column - II d e
f
(quantity) (magnitude only)
(A) velocity of projection (1) 1
(a) b c f (b) d c f
(B) acceleration (2) 2
(C) time of flight (3) 2 (c)d e f (d) b e f
1
66. Which law is governed by the given figure ?
(D) maximum height attained (4)
4
A
om
C B
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (2)
(b) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
(c) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4) R B
t.c
(d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (2)
63. A ball is thrown at an angle 75° with the horizontal at a O A
C
po
speed of 20 m/s towards a high wall at a distance d. If the
ball strikes the wall, its horizontal velocity component (a) Associative law of vector addition
reverses the direction without change in magnitude and (b) Commutative law of vector addition
gs
the vertical velocity component remains same. Ball stops (c) Associative law of vector multiplication
(d) Commutative law of vector multiplication
after hitting the ground. Match the statement of column I
67. Which of the following figures represents
lo
with the distance of the wall from the point of throw in
column II . A AXiˆ Ayjˆ Az k ?
.b
Column I Column II
(A) Ball strikes the wall directly (1) 8 m
r8
Ay Ay
(B) Ball strikes the ground at x = 12 m (2) 10 m
be
68.
w
(a) A B C Which of the following holds true for the given figure?
D
w
C C
(b) B C A
B
(c) C A B
(d) A B C 0 A A B
65. Six vectors, a through f have the magnitudes and (a) AC BD 2BC (b) AB BC 2CD
directions indicated in the figure. Which of the following (c) (d) All of these
AC AB 2BD
statements is true?
EBD_7208
40 MOTION IN A PLANE
69. A swimmer wants to cross a river straight. He swim at (a) (b)
2i 3 j 2i 3 j
5 km/hr in still water. A river 1 km wide flows at the rate of
3 km/hr. Which of the following figure shows the correct (c) 2i 3 j (d) 2i 3 j
direction for the swimmer along which he should strike?
(Vs velocity of swimmer, Vr velocity of river, V 72. A particle moves in a circle of radius 4 cm clockwise at
resultant velocity) constant speed 2 cm/s. If x̂ and ŷ are unit acceleration
B C vectors along X and Y-axis respectively (in cm/s2), the
acceleration of the particle at the instant half way between
P and Q is given by
1 km
V y
VS (a) 4(xˆ y)ˆ P
(a)
(b) 4(xˆ y)
ˆ
O V A
om
r
(c) (xˆ y)
ˆ / 2 O x
Q
(d) (xˆ y)
ˆ /4
1 km
V Vr
t.c
(b)
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
VS
po
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
1 km
gs
(c) have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
explanation for assertion.
lo
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
.b
correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
1 km
(d)
73. Assertion: A physical quantity cannot be called as a vector
if its magnitude is zero.
be
m/s its velocity (in m/s) at point B is are zero, it implies that one of the vector A and B must
be a null vector
Y Reason : Null vector is a vector with zero magnitude.
79. Assertion : The magnitude of velocity of two boats relative
to river is same. Both boats start simultaneously from same
point on one bank may reach opposite bank simultaneously
B moving along different paths.
A X Reason : For boats to cross the river in same time. The
component of their velocity relative to river in direction
normal to flow should be same.
MOTION IN A PLANE 41
80. Assertion : Two balls of different masses are thrown 89. Assertion : The maximum horizontal range of projectile
vertically upward with same speed. They will pass through is proportional to square of velocity.
their point of projection in the downward direction with Reason : The maximum horizontal range of projectile is
the same speed. equal to maximum height attained by projectile.
90. Assertion : The trajectory of projectile is quadratic in y
Reason : The maximum height and downward velocity
and linear in x.
attained at the point of projection are independent of the
Reason : y component of trajectory is independent of x-
mass of the ball. component.
81. Assertion : If a body of mass m is projected upwards with 91. Assertion : When range of a projectile is maximum, its
a speed V making an angle with the vertical, than the angle of projection may be 45° or 135°.
change in the momentum of the body along X–axis is zero. Reason : Wheather is 45° or 135° value of range
Reason : Mass of the body remains constant along X–axis remains the same, only the sign changes.
82. Assertion : The horizontal range is same when the angle
om
92. Assertion : A body of mass 1 kg is making 1 rps in a circle
of projection is greater than 45° by certain value and less of radius 1 m. Centrifugal force acting on it is 4 2 N.
than 45° by the same value.
mv 2
Reason: If = 45° + , then Reason : Centrifugal force is given by F =
t.c
r
u 2sin2(45 ) u 2 cos 2 93. Assertion : K.E. of a moving body given by as where s is
2
R1 = =
po
g g the distance travelled in a circular path a refers to variable
acceleration.
u 2sin2(45 ) u 2 cos 2 Reason : Acceleration varies with direction only in this
gs
If = 45° – then R2 = =
g g case of circular motion.
83. Assertion : If there were no gravitational force, the path 94. Assertion : Centripetal and centrifugal forces cancel each
of the projected body always be a straight line.
Reason : Gravitational force makes the path of projected
lo
other.
Reason : This is because they are always equal and opposite.
.b
body always parabolic.
84. Assertion: The maximum possible height attained by the CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
r8
2 95. For which angle between two equal vectors A and B will
projected body is u , where u is the velocity of
be
2g
the magnitude of the sum of two vectors be equal to the
magnitude of each vector?
projection. (a) = 60° (b) = 120°
cy
Reason : To attain the maximum height, body is thrown (c) = 0° (d) = 90°
vertically upwards. 96. A can be written in terms of components as
no
parabolic path. If it explodes at the top of the trajectory, outside this plane, the sum of these vectors A + B + C
then no part of the shell can fly vertically. (a) can be zero
(b) can never be zero
w
87. Assertion : A body is thrown with a velocity u inclined to (d) lies in a plane containing A B
98.
w
the horizontal at some angle. It moves along a parabolic ABCDEF is a regular hexagon. The centre of hexagon is
path and falls to the ground. Linear momentum of the body, a point O. Then the value of
during its motion, will remain conserve. AB AC AD AE AF is
Reason : Throughout the motion of the body, a constant
force acts on it. (a) 2AO (b) 4AO (c) 6 AO (d) Zero
88. Assertion : Two projectiles having same range must have 99. For two vectors A and B, | A + B | = | A B| is always
true when
the same time of flight.
(a) | A | = | B | 0 (b) | A B
Reason : Horizontal component of velocity is constant in (c) | A | = | B | 0 and A and B are parallel or anti parallel
projectile motion under gravity. (d) None of these
EBD_7208
42 MOTION IN A PLANE
108. A body of 3kg. moves in X-Y plane under the action of
100. If a vector 2 i 3 j 8 k is perpendicular to the vector
force given by 6t î 4 tĵ . Assuming that the body is at rest
4 j 4i k , then the value of
is
at time t = 0, the velocity of body at t = 3 sec is
(a) 1/2 (b) –1/2
(c) 1 (d) –1 (a) 9î 6ˆj (b) 18î 6 ĵ
101. The sum of magnitudes of two forces acting at a point is
(c) 18î 12ˆj (d) 12î 68 ĵ
16 N and their resultant 8 3 N is at 90° with the force of
smaller magnitude. The two forces (in N) are 109. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given
(a) 11, 5 (b) 9, 7 by x = a t2 and y = b t2. The speed of the particle is
(c) 6, 10 (d) 2, 14
(a) 2 t (a + b) (b) 2t a2 b2
102. The coordinates of a particle moving in x–y plane at any
om
instant of time t are x = 4t2; y = 3t2. The speed of the
particle at that instant is (c) 2t a2 b2 (d) a2 b2
(a) 10 t (b) 5 t 110. A boat which has a speed of 5 km h –1 in still water crosses
t.c
(c) 3 t (d) 2 t a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15
103. If r is the position vector of a particle at time t, r is the minutes. The velocity of the river water is
(a) 1 km h –1 (b) 3 km h –1
po
position vector of the particle at time t’, and r is the
(c) 4 km h –1 (d) 1
displacement vector, then instantaneous velocity is given 41 km h
by 111. If rain falls vertically with a velocity Vr and wind blows
gs
lim r lim r With a velocity vw from east to west, then a person standing
(a) V t 0 (b) V t 0
t t on the roadside should hold the umbrella in the direction
(c) V lim
t 0
r r r
(d) V = (a)
lo
tan
Vw
(b) tan
Vr
.b
t t Vr Vw
104. For motion in two or three dimensions, the angle between
Vrw Vr
r8
(c) 180° 112. If Vr is the velocity of rain falling vertically and Vm is the
(d) Any angle between 0° & 180° velocity of a man walking on a level road, and is the
angle with vertical at which he should hold the umbrella to
cy
constant), its velocity component in the x-direction is (a) Vrm Vr 2 Vm 2 2VrVm cos
2b a
ch
(a) (b)
a 2b (b) Vrm Vr 2 Vm 2 2VrVm cos
a b
(c) Vr 2 Vm 2
.te
where t is in second and the coefficients have proper units 113. A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly at a monkey
on a tree. At the instant the bullet leaves the barrel of the
w
(b) 3 m s–2 along x-direction (a) The bullet will never hit the monkey
(c) 4 m s–2 along x-direction (b) The bullet will always hit the monkey
(d) 2 m s–2 along z-direction (c) The bullet may or may not hit the monkey
107. The position vector of a particle is
(d) Can’t be predicted
r (a cos t )î (a sin t ) ĵ. The velocity of the particle is 114. A particle moves in a plane with a constant acceleration
(a) directed towards the origin in a direction different from the initial velocity. The path
(b) directed away from the origin of the particle is a/an
(c) parallel to the position vector (a) straight line (b) arc of a circle
(d) perpendicular to the position vector (c) parabola (d) ellipse
MOTION IN A PLANE 43
115. A stone is just released from the window of a moving train to catch the ball. Will the person be able to catch the ball?
moving along a horizontal straight track. The stone will If yes, what should be the angle of projection ?
hit the ground following a
(a) No (b) Yes, 30°
(a) straight line path (b) circular path
(c) Yes, 60° (d) Yes, 45°
(c) parabolic path (d) hyperbolic path
123. A projectilel can have the same range R for two angles of
116. Two bullets are fired horizontally with different velocities projection. If t1 and t2 be the times of flight in two cases,
from the same height. Which will reach the ground first?
then what is the product of two times of flight?
(a) Slower one (a) t1t2 R (b) t1t2 R2
(b) Faster one (c) t1t2 1/R (d) t1t2 1/R2
(c) Both will reach simultaneously 124. A small particle of mass m is projected at an angle with
(d) It cannot be predicted the x-axis with an initial velocity in the x-y plane as
om
117. A stone is projected with an initial velocity at an angle to 0 sin
the horizontal. A small piece separates from the stone before shown in the figure. At a time t , the angular
g
the stone reaches its maximum height. Then this piece will
momentum of the particle is
(a) fall to the ground vertically
t.c
(b) fly side by side with the parent stone along a parabolic where iˆ, ˆj and k̂ are unit vectors along x, y and z-axis
path respectively.
po
(c) fly horizontally initially and will trace a different y
parabolic path
(d) lag behind the parent stone, increasing the distance v0
gs
from it
118. A ball is thrown from rear end of the compartment of train
to the front end which is moving at a constant horizontal lo
velocity. An observer A sitting in the compartment and
another observer B standing on the ground draw the x
.b
trajectory. They will have mg 0t cos kˆ
(a) mg 0 t 2 cos ˆj (b)
(a) equal horizontal and equal vertical ranges
r8
(d) different vertical and different horizontal ranges 125. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity making
119. Two balls are projected simultaneously in the same vertical an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The magnitude of
cy
plane from the same point with velocities v1 and v2 with angular momentum of the projectile about the point of
angle 1 and 2 respectively with the horizontal. If v1 cos projection when the particle is at its maximum height h is
1 = v2 cos 2, the path of one ball as seen from the position 3m 2
no
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4 127. A body projected at an angle with the horizontal has a range
121. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity 300 m. If the time of flight is 6 s, then the horizontal
of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the range of the missile is component of velocity is
(a) 40 m (b) 50 m (a) 30 m s–1 (b) 50 m s–1
(c) 60 m (d) 20 m (c) 40 m s–1 (d) 45 m s–1
122. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed ‘v0’ at an 128. A particle of unit mass is projected with velocity u at an
elevation angle of . From the same point and at the same inclination above the horizon in a medium whose
resistance is k times the velocity. Its direction will again
'v 0 '
instant, a person starts running with a constant speed make an angle with the horizon after a time
2
EBD_7208
44 MOTION IN A PLANE
2 2
1 2ku 1 2ku (a) cos iˆ sin ˆj
(a) log 1 sin (b) log 1 sin
k g k g R R
2 2
(b) sin iˆ cos ˆj
1 ku 1 2 ku R R
(c) log 1 sin (d) log 1 sin
k g k 3g 2 2
(c) cos iˆ sin ˆj
129. The greatest range of a particle, projected with a given R R
velocity on an inclined plane, is x times the greatest vertical 2 2
altitude above the inclined plane. Find the value of x. (d) iˆ ˆj
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d)1/2 R R
130. A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity u, 136. When a particle is in uniform circular motion it does not
after time t another body is projected vertically upwards have
om
from the same point with a velocity v, where v < u. If they (a) radial velocity and radial acceleration
meet as soon as possible, then choose the correct option (b) radial velocity and tangential acceleration
(c) tangential velocity and radial acceleration
u v u2 v2 u v u2 v2
t.c
(a) t (b) t (d) tangential velocity and transverse acceleration
g g 137. A particle moves in a circular orbit under the action of a
central attractive force inversely proportional to the distance
po
u v u2 v2 u v u2 v2 ‘r’. The speed of the particle is
(c) t (d) t
g 2g (a) proportional to r 2 (b) independent of r
131. A cricket ball is hit at an angle of 30° to the horizontal
gs
(c) proportional to r (d) proportional to 1/r
with a kinetic energy E. Its kinetic energy when it reaches 138. A particle describes uniform circular motion in a circle of
the highest point is radius 2 m, with the angular speed of 2 rad s –1 . The
(a)
E
(b) 0
lo
magnitude of the change in its velocity in s is
2
.b
2
(a) 0 m s–1 (b) 1
2 2m s
2E 3E
r8
velocity of 5 ms–1 and angle with the horizontal. Another (a) 40 m/sec2 (b) 40 m/sec2
projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 (c) 640 m/sec 2 (d) 160 m/sec2
ms– 1 at the same angle follows a trajectory which is 141. A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is whirled in
w
identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes
w
earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the 22 revolution in 44 seconds, what is the magnitude and
planet is (in ms– 2) given g = 9.8 m/s2 direction of acceleration of the stone?
w
(a) 3.5 (b) 5.9 (a) 2 m s–2 and direction along the radius towards the
(c) 16.3 (d) 110.8 centre.
135. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the acceleration (b) 2 m s–2 and direction along the radius away from
a at a point P(R, ) on the circle of radius R is (Here is the centre.
measured from the x-axis ) (c) 2 m s–2 and direction along the tangent to the circle.
(d) 2/4 m s–2 and direction along the radius towards the
centre.
MOTION IN A PLANE 45
FACT/ DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 14. (d) Position vector, r (a cos t )iˆ (a sin t ) ˆj
1. (d) A scalar quantity has only magnitude and the same Velocity vector
value for observers with different orientations of axes. dr
2. (c) A vector quantity is defined as the quantity which has v (– a sin t) i + (a cos t) j
dt
magnitude and direction and for which all the (– a sin t)(a cos t) + (– a cos t) + (a cos t) = 0
mathematical operations are possible only through
om
vector laws of algebra. v r
15. (c) Vy = u sin – gtm = 0
3. (a) Resultant vector of two vectors A & B inclined at an
u y sin
t.c
angle , is given by
tm = (time to reach the maximum height)
2 2 g
R= A B 2ABcos if = 0°; cos 0° = 1
po
2(u sin )
R= A2 B2 2AB = (A B)2 Total time of flight Tf =
g
R=A+B Tf = 2tm
gs
This is the maximum resultant possible.
4. (c) The resultant of any three vectors will be cancel out u 2 sin 2
16. (d) Horizontal range =
lo g
by Fourth vector
5. (d) All the three unit vectors have the magnitude as unity For maximum range = 45°
.b
ˆi ˆj kˆ 1 u 2 sin 90 u2
Rmax = = ( sin 90° = 1)
g g
r8
y
6. (c) | iˆ ˆj | (1)2 (1)2 2 17. (c) Force due to viscosity, air – resistance are all dissipative
be
V BA = V B V A
The product of a vector with a scalar gives a vector.
= 80 – 65 = 15 km/h
10. (a) In a clockwise system, 20. (b) In both the cases, the initial velocity in the vertical
.te
And i i j j = k k 0
particle. For example in uniform circular motion the
transverse acceleration is zero & only radial acceleration
w
om
horizontal component i.e. u cos remains the same. r ar
o
o
y
t.c
So, ar 0 and at = 0.
u sin u P
u cos When, ar = 0 and at = 0 motion is accelerated translatory.
po
Also, when ar = 0 and then motion is uniform translatory.
H 37. (c) In circular motion with constant speed, acceleration
x is always inward, its magnitude is constant but
gs
u cos direction changes, hence acceleration changes, so does
velocity. K.E. is constant.
28. (c) In our discussion, we shall assume that the air
resistance has negligible effect on the motion of the
projectile.
lo a
.b
v2
29. (c) If the angle of projection is , then range = 0 sin ( /2)
r8
a centripetal acceleration is not a constant vector. (tangential velocity) & aC. If aC = 0 then it implies
32. (a) 33. (a) that the body is no longer bound to rotate in circle &
w
v2 r2 2
vT
35. (d) v r
O a
As linear velocity vector v is along the tangent to the C
om
Speed is same, so K.E. is same.
43. (a) In circular motion of a particle with constant speed, 55. (c)
particle repeats its motion after a regular interval of 56. (d) Centripetal acceleration has a constant magnitude and
time but does not oscillate about a fixed point. So, is always directed towards the centre.
t.c
motion of particle is periodic but not simple harmonic.
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
po
57. (a) A (1) ; B (4) ; C (2) ; D (3)
(A) A 2iˆ 3 ˆj and B 4iˆ 5 ˆj A B 6iˆ 8 ˆj
gs
(B) | A B | 62 82 = 10
44. (a) In uniform circular motion speed is constant. So, no lo
tangential acceleration. (C) A B (2iˆ 3 ˆj ) (4iˆ 5 ˆj ) = 2iˆ 2 ˆj
.b
v2
It has only radial acceleration a R [directed (D) | A B | ( 2) 2 ( 2)2 2 2.
R
r8
A
two are perpendicular to each other.
45. (d) and B iˆ 2 ˆj , B 12 ( 2) 2 5
cy
speed, it experiences the centripetal acceleration which (D) A B (3iˆ 4 ˆj ) (iˆ 2 ˆj ) = 2iˆ 6 ˆj .
along the radius. Since velocity acts along the tangent 59. (d) A (1) ; B (2) ; C (4) ; D (3)
therefore acceleration is perpendicular to the direction
w
A+ ( B + C )
dt +B
C
B+ B
dx
and Uy = = 1 – 2t
dt
C
Ut=0 = u x2 y 2y = 1 It illustrates the associative law of addition.
2
1 =
2 2 m/s.
67. (a)
d 2x y
ax = =0
om
2
dt
Ay
d 2y
dy = =–2
t.c
dt 2 Ay
A
For time of flight,
x
po
y= 0 Ax
or 0 = t – t2 Az Az
gs
Ax
t = 1s. z
For maximum height,
t=
1
s.
68. (a)
lo D C
.b
2
r8
2
1 1 1
H = t – t2 = = m.
2 2 4
be
A B
63. (a) (A) (1,2); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (4)
AC BD (AB BC) (BC CD)
Range of the ball in absence of the wall
cy
= AB 2BC CD
u 2 sin 2 20 2 sin150
= m 20m = AB 2BC AB
no
g 10
= 2BC
When d < 20m, ball will hit the wall, when d = 25m, ball 69. (d) The swimmer will cross straight if the resultant
ch
will fall 5m short of the wall. velocity of river flow and swimmer acts perpendicular
When d < 20m, ball will hit the ground, at a distance, x = to the direction of river flow. It will be so if the
.te
20m – d in front of the wall. swimmer moves making an angle with the upstream.
i.e. goes along OB.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS B
w
A B
1 km
v
65. (c) Using the law of vector addition, (d e ) is as VS
w
d e f 1
V2 V
2 1
MOTION IN A PLANE 49
71. (b) At point B the direction of velocity component of the
u2
projectile along Y - axis reverses. h = .
2g
Hence, V B 2i 3 j
2u sin
2 85. (d) T = , it will maximum, when = 0°.
v g
72. (c) a = 1 cm/s. Centripetal acceleration is directed
r
towards the centre. Its magnitude = 1. Unit vector at u2
Rmax = , for = 45°.
the mid point on the path between P and Q is g
ˆ / 2.
(xˆ y) 86. (d) At the highest point of the trajectory,
vy = 0, and
om
73. (d) If a vector quantity has zero magnitude then it is called For the two pieces, it is
a null vector. That quantity may have some direction P1y P2 y = 0.
t.c
even if its magnitude is zero.
87. (d) Linear momentum during parabolic path changes
74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (c)
continuously.
po
88. (d) Statement-1 is false because angles of projection and
79. (b) Boat 2 v Boat 1 (90° – give same range but time of flight will be
different. Statement-2 is true because in horizontal
gs
v
river direction acceleration is zero.
Vr,g=5m/s
lo u 2 sin 2
If component of velocities of boat relative to river is 89. (c) Maximum horizontal range, R Rmax
same normal to river flow (as shown in figure) both g
.b
boats reach other bank simultaneously.
u2
= when = 45
r8
1 2
80. (b) h ut gt and v2 = u2 – 2gh; g
2
Rmax u2
be
2
u 2 sin 2
82. (a) R = If = 45° +
g gx 2
90. (d) y = x tan –
2u 2 cos 2
ch
If – g
u 2 sin 2 (45 ) u 2 sin(90 )
then R2 = u2 u2
w
u 2 cos
= R1 = R2 u2 u2
g
w
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 102. (a) According to the question, at any instant t,
x = 4t2, y = 3t2
95. (b) | A B | = A2 B2 2AB cos120 ( = 120°) dx d
vx = (4t 2 ) 8t
dt dt
1 1
= A2 B2 2 AB cos120 dy d
2 2 and vy = (3t 2 ) 6t
dt dt
= A2 B2 A(A) The speed of the particle at instant t.
om
103. (b) Average velocity = time interval =
t
|A| Ax 2 Ay 2 Az 2 Instantaneous velocity is limiting value of average velocity
Even if one component is non – zero the sum as the time interval approaches zero.
t.c
Ax2 + Ay2 + Az2 can’t be zero.
lt r
V = t 0
for | A | = 0, Ax = Ay = Az = 0. t
po
104. (d) Along same straight line, velocity & acceleration can
97. (b) Given A and B lie in a plane and vector C be in the same direction, opposite to each other or
lies outside this plane. perpendicular as in circular motion with uniform
gs
Resultant vector of A and B lies in the same speed. Thus can be anywhere between 0 & 180°.
105. (b) y = bx2
plane as that vectors A and B . Differentiating w.r.t to t an both sides, we get
lo
dy dx
b2x
.b
Resultant vector of A , B and C in non. dx dt
coplanar vector therefore, their resultant can vy = 2bxvx
Again differentiating w.r.t to t on both sides we get
r8
never be zero.
98. (c) 99. (b) dv y dx dv
2bv x 2bx x 2bv 2x 0
100. For two vectors to be perpendicular to each other
be
dt dt dt
dv x
A B =0 [ = 0, because the particle has constant
dt
cy
4 1 dt
–8 + 12 + 8 = 0 or
8 2 a
v 2x
101. (d) D C
ch
2b
a
vx =
2b
.te
F F2 2ˆ
F2 106. (c) r 2t i 3tjˆ 4kˆ
w
dr d
90° v (2t 2 iˆ 3tjˆ 4k)
ˆ 4tiˆ 3jˆ
dt dt
w
A F1 B
In ABC, dv d
a (4tiˆ 3j)
ˆ 4iˆ
w
dt dt
F22 F 2
F12 or F 2
F22 – F12
2 along x-direction
a 4ms
2
8 3 F22 – F12 107. (d) r (a cos t )î (a sin t )ˆj
192 = (F2 + F1) (F2 – F1)
d(r ) d
v {(a cos t )î (a sin t )ˆj}
192 dt dt
F2 – F1 = 12N [ F1 + F2 = 16N]
16
( a sin t )î (a cos t ) ĵ
On solving we get,
F1 = 2N, F2 = 14 N [( a sin t )î (a cos t )ˆj]
MOTION IN A PLANE 51
so u x = ot a x dt = t 2 (u x ) t=3 = 9m/sec
2t 2
and u y = ot a y dt = (u y ) t 3 6 m / sec
3
VW Vm
(because ux & uy = 0 at t = 0 sec)
O
om
dr
109. (b) r = i a t2 +j b t2 , v i 2a t j2 b t
dt
Magnitude of v 4a 2 t 2 4b2 t 2
t.c
B Vrm
Vr
2t a2 b2
po
110. (b) v
1km
4 km h 1, 1 113. (b)
vb 5 km h
1
gs
h
4
A
vw
lo
.b
v
u sin
vb
u
B
r8
vw vb 2 v2 25 16 9 3 km h 1 y
be
111. (a) Man should hold the umbrella in the direction of the
relative velocity of the rain. If Vr velocity of rain, O u cos C
cy
N OC x
t=
u cos u cos
AC = x tan
ch
VW –Vw y = u sin t– gt
W C
O E 2
1 2
w
Vr AB = x tan – (u sin t – gt )
2
w
B D x 1 2
Vr = x tan – (usin × – gt )
2
w
u cos
S
distance trevelled by monkey
Vw
1 2 1 2
= x tan – x tan +
gt = gt
2 2
. bullet will always hit the monkey)
114. (c) Only in case of parabolic motion, the direction and
Vw
tan = magnitude of the velocity changes, acceleration
Vr remains same. Morever, in case of uniform circular
motion, the direction changes.
R Vr
EBD_7208
52 MOTION IN A PLANE
115. (c) The horizontal velocity of the stone will be the same 3
sin 2 cos
m 3m 3
as that of the train. In this way, the horizontal motion L
2g 16 g
will be uniform. The vertical motion will be controlled
by the force of gravity. Hence it is accelerated motion. 126. (c) For projectile A
The resultant motion is a parabolic trajectory. u 2A sin 2 45
Maximum height, HA =
116. (c) The time taken to reach the ground depends on the 2g
height from which the projectile is fired horizontally.
For projectile B
Here height is same for both the bullets and hence
they will reach the ground simultaneously. u 2B sin 2
117. (b) The piece will fly side by side because the velocity of Maximum height, HB =
2g
the piece is the same.
As we know, HA = HB
118. (b)
om
119. (c) u 2A sin 2 45 u 2B sin 2
120. (a) Note that the given angles of projection add upto 90°. 2g 2g
So, the ratio of horizontal ranges is 1 : 1.
t.c
sin 2 u 2A
121. (a) For maximum range, the angle of projection, = 45°
sin 2 45 u B2
po
2 2
u 2 sin 2 20 sin 2 45 400 1 uA
R 40m. sin 2 sin 2 45
uB
gs
g 10 10
122. (c) Yes, the person can catch the ball when horizontal 1
2
1
2
1
velocity is equal to the horizontal component of ball’s sin 2
lo =
velocity, the motion of ball will be only in vertical direction 2 2 4
w.r.t person
.b
1 1
sin sin 1 30
v 2 2
for that 0
r8
v 0 cos or 60
2 127. (b) As we know, R = u cos × t
Given, R = 300 m, t = 6 s
be
2u sin
123. (a) t1 and R 300
g u cos 50ms –1
t 6
cy
g g g g 2 dt
dt
where R is the range.
d2 y dy
.te
k g ............. (2)
Hence t 1 t 2 R dt 2 dt
124. (c) L m( r v ) Integrating (1) and (2) and using the initial conditions,
w
we get
1 2 ˆ dx
m v0 cos t iˆ (v0 sin t
w
L gt ) j kt
u cos .e ............. (3)
2 dt
w
om
kt 2ku They are equidistant from the point of projection.
or e 1 sin
g
1 1
Hence, u (t + T) – g (t + T)2 = vT – gT2
t.c
1 2 ku 2 2
or t log 1 sin
k g
1
po
129. (b) P be the point where the tangent is parallel to the or u (t + T) – g (t2 + 2tT) = vT
2
inclined plane. If PN = z be perpendicular from P on
the inclined plane and PM the vertical altitude of P or gt2 + 2t (gT – u) + 2 (v – u) T = 0 ......... (2)
gs
then evidently for all points on the path, P is the point 1 2
where z is the greatest and consequently PM is greatest. Also from (1) we get, h = vT – gT
2
P
lo dh
v gT
.b
dT
u h increases as T increases
r8
gt2 + 2t (v – u) + 2 (v – u) (v/g) = 0
Now for the point P, velocity perpendicular to the or g2t2 – 2gt (u – v) + 2v (u – v) = 0
inclined plane is zero. Now the velocity and
no
u v u2 v2
u 2 sin 2 ( ) or t
z g
.te
2 g cos
neglecting the negative sign which gives negative
For max. range or value of t.
4 2 4 2
w
Hence, z
2 g cos 4 2 1
Etop= mu 2 cos 2
w
2
u2
= 1 cos 1 2
4 g cos 2 Here mu = E
2
u2
= (1 sin ) or PM = z sec
4 g cos 3
and cos = 30
2 2 2
u u 1
= (1 sin ) (max.
4 g cos 2 4 g (1 sin ) 4 3
Etop E
range) 4
Maximum range = 4 × PM
EBD_7208
54 MOTION IN A PLANE
u 2sin 2 2
134. (a) Horizontal range = so g u2 = 8 m s–1
g 139. (a) As T = mr 2
om
2 T 900
g planet (u planet ) or 2
900 = 30 rad s–1
or = mr 2 0.5
g earth (u earth ) 2
140. (b) Circumference of circle is 2 r = 40m
t.c
2 Total distance travelled in two revolution is 80m.
3
Therefore gplanet = (9.8 m / s2 ) Initial velocity u = 0, final veloctiy v = 80 m/sec
5
so from
po
= 3.5 m/s2
v2 =u2+2as
135. (c) Clearly Y (80)2 = 02+2×80×a
gs
a ac cos ( iˆ) ac sin ( ˆj ) P( R, )
a = 40m/sec2
R 141. (a) ar = 2 R
=
v2
R
cos iˆ
v2
R
sin ˆj O
X lo
.b
136. (c) It has only tangential velocity vT & radial acceleration
r8
2 v
ar = (2 2)2R = 4 222R = 4 (1)
44 44
O a
C dv
cy
at 0
dt
anet = ar = 2 ms–2 and direction along the radius
mv 2 1 towards the centre.
no
om
9. According to Galileo's experiment for a double inclined plane,
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
if slope of second plane is zero and planes are smooth, then
1. Inertia is the property of a body linked to tendency of a a ball is released from rest on one of the planes rolls down
body and move on the second plane ...X... distance.
po
(a) to change its position Here, X is
(b) to change its direction (a) zero
gs
(c) to change the momentum (b) infinite
(d) to resist any change in its state (c) equal to length of first plane
2. Physical independence of force is a consequence of (d) None of these
(a) third law of motion (b) second law of motion
(c) first law of motion (d) all of these
10.
lo
When a body is stationary
(a) there is no force acting on it
.b
3. Newton's first law of motion describes the (b) the force acting on it is not in contact with it
(a) energy (b) work (c) the combination of forces acting on it balances each
r8
5. Which motion does not require force to maintain it ? (b) an object moving in circular motion
(a) Uniform circular motion (c) an object moving with constant acceleration
no
6. A ball is travelling with uniform translatory motion. This (a) force acting on it at that instant
means that (b) acceleration of the train
(a) it is at rest. (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
.te
(b) the path can be a straight line or circular and the ball 13. Which of the following expression is correct?
travels with uniform speed. m
(c) all parts of the ball have the same velocity (magnitude (a) F = ma (b) F =
w
a
and direction) and the velocity is constant.
a
w
(d) the centre of the ball moves with constant velocity (c) F = (d) None of these
and the ball spins about its centre uniformly. m
14.
w
7. An object will continue moving uniformly when Newton’s second law measures the
(a) the resultant force on it is increasing continuously (a) acceleration (b) force
(b) the resultant force is at right angles to its rotation (c) momentum (d) angular momentum
(c) the resultant force on it is zero 15. A reference frame attached to the earth
(d) the resultant force on it begins to decrease (a) is an inertial frame by definition
(b) cannot be an inertial frame because earth is revolving
8. External agencies like gravitational and magnetic forces ...X...
round the sun
exerts force on a body from a distance.
(c) is an inertial frame because Newton's laws are
Here, X refers to
applicable
(a) can (b) cannot (d) is an inertial frame because the earth is rotating about
(c) never (d) None of these its own axis
EBD_7208
56 LAWS OF MOTION
16. Impulse equals 27. Swimming is possible on account of
(a) rate of change of momentum (a) first law of motion
(b) change in momentum (b) second law of motion
(c) momentum multiplied by time (c) third law of motion
(d) rate of change of force (d) newton's law of gravitation
17. The direction of impulse is 28. Newton’s second and third laws of motion lead to the
(a) same as that of the net force conservation of
(b) opposite to that of the net force
(a) linear momentum (b) angular momentum
(c) same as that of the final velocity
(d) same as that of the initial velocity (c) potential energy (d) kinetic energy
18. A particle of mass m is moving with velocity v1, it is given an 29. Rocket engines lift a rocket from the earth surface,
impulse such that the velocity becomes v2. Then magnitude because hot gases with high velocity
om
of impulse is equal to (a) push against the air
(a) m( v2 v1 ) (b) m( v1 v 2 ) (b) push against the earth
(c) react against the rocket and push it up
t.c
(c) m (v 2 v1 ) (d) 0.5m(v 2 v1 ) (d) heat up the air which lifts the rocket.
19. Impulse is 30. A cannon after firing recoils due to
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(a) a scalar quantity (a) conservation of energy
(b) equal to change in the momentum of a body (b) backward thrust of gases produced
(c) equal to rate of change of momentum of a body (c) Newton’s third law of motion
gs
(d) a force (d) Newton’s first law of motion
20. A large force is acting on a body for a short time. The impulse 31. A man is standing at the centre of frictionless pond of ice.
imparted is equal to the change in
(a) acceleration (b) momentum
lo
How can he get himself to the shore?
(a) By throwing his shirt in vertically upward direction
.b
(b) By spitting horizontally
(c) energy (d) velocity
(c) He will wait for the ice to melt in pond
21. China wares are wraped in straw of paper before packing.
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23. In which of the following cases, net force acting on the (d) All of these
body is zero? 33. Law of conservation of momentum follows from
ch
(a) A car moving with uniform velocity (a) Newton's first law of motion
(b) A book lying on the table (b) Newton's second law of motion
(c) Both (a) & (b) (c) Newton's third law of motion
.te
zero. Acceleration can be ...Y... only, if there is a net external (a) velocity (b) force
force on the body. Here, X and Y refer to (c) acceleration (d) All of the above
w
(a) zero, zero (b) zero, non-zero 35. In an explosion, a body breaks up into two pieces of unequal
(c) non-zero, zero (d) non-zero, non-zero masses. In this
w
25. The same change in momentum about in ...X... time needs (a) both parts will have numerically equal momentum
...Y... force applied. Here, X and Y refer to (b) lighter part will have more momentum
(a) longer, lesser (b) shorter, greater (c) heavier part will have more momentum
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) longer, greater (d) both parts will have equal kinetic energy
26. We can derive Newton’s 36. A jet engine works on the principle of
(a) second and third laws from the first law (a) conservation of mass
(b) first and second laws from the third law (b) conservation of energy
(c) third and first laws from the second law (c) conservation of linear momentum
(d) All the three laws are independent of each other (d) conservation of angular momentum
LAWS OF MOTION 57
37. Which one of the following motions on a smooth plane box as that of the train, keeping it stationary relative to the
surface does not involve force? train. Here, X refers to
(a) Accelerated motion in a straight line (a) kinetic friction (b) static friction
(b) Retarded motion in a straight line (c) limiting friction (d) None of these
(c) Motion with constant momentum along a straight line 45. If s, k and r are coefficients of static friction, kinetic friction
(d) Motion along a straight line with varying velocity and rolling friction, then
38. Identify the correct statement. (a) s < k < f (b) k < r < s
(a) Static friction depends on the area of contact (c) r < k < s (d) r = k = s
(b) Kinetic friction depends on the area of contact 46. It is difficult to move a cycle with brakes on because
(c) Coefficient of kinetic friction does not depend on the (a) rolling friction opposes motion on road
surfaces in contact (b) sliding friction opposes motion on road
om
(c) rolling friction is more than sliding friction
(d) Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than the coefficient
(d) sliding friction is more than rolling friction
of static friction
47. Which of the following statements about friction is true?
39. If the resultant of all the external forces acting on a system
(a) Friction can be reduced to zero
t.c
of particles is zero, then from an inertial frame, one can
(b) Frictional force cannot accelerate a body
surely say that
(c) Frictional force is proportional to the area of contact
(a) linear momentum of the system does not change in
po
between the two surfaces
time
(d) Kinetic friction is always greater than rolling friction
(b) kinetic energy of the system does not change in time
48. A thin cushion of air maintained between solid surfaces in
gs
(c) angular momentum of the system does not change in
...X... is another effective way of ...Y... friction. Here, X and Y
time
refer to
(d) potential energy of the system does not change in lo
time (a) relative motion, reducing
40. Frictional force that opposes relative motion between (b) motion, increasing
.b
surfaces in contact is called ...X... and denoted by ...Y.... (c) relative motion, increasing
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(c) kinetic friction, fk (d) static friction, fk direction perpendicular to the direction of motion?
41. The coefficient of static friction between two surfaces (a) The speed changes uniformly
depends upon (b) The acceleration changes uniformly
cy
(c) the area of contact 50. When a car moves on a level road, then the centripetal force
(d) None of the these required for circular motion is provided by ________
42. A rectangular block is placed on a rough horizontal surface (a) weight of the car
ch
the surface.
F (d) All of these
F
51. On a banked road, which force is essential to provide the
w
(a) friction will be more in case (a) (a) Component of normal reaction
(b) friction will be more in case (b)
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om
(c) R1 > R2 (d) None of these moving
56. A cyclist bends while taking turn in order to III. The reaction of the force which the man exerts on floor
(a) reduce friction keeps him moving
t.c
(b) provide required centripetal force (a) I only (b) II only
(c) reduce apparent weight (c) I and III (d) I and II
po
(d) reduce speed 63. Select the wrong statement(s) from the following.
I. Newton's laws of motion hold good for both inertial
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS and non-inertial frames
gs
II. During explosion, linear momentum is conserved
57. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect III. Force of friction is zero when no driving force is applied
statement(s).
I. To move a football at rest, some one must kick it.
lo
(a) I only
(c) I and II
(b) II only
(d) II and III
.b
64. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following.
II. To throw a stone upwards, one has to give it an upward
I. Recoiling of a gun is an application of principle of
push.
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(c) III and IV (d) I and II I. Static friction exists on its own
58. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? II. In the absence of applied force static friction is maximum
no
I. Newton’s first law of motion defines force III. Static friction is equal and opposite to the applied force
II. Newton’s first law of motion defines inertia upto a certain limit
III. Newton’s first law of motion is a measure of force (a) I only (b) II and III
ch
(a) I only (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I and II
(c) I and III (d) I and II 66. Select the incorrect statement(s) from the following.
59. Choose the incorrect statement(s) from the following.
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II. If the net force acting on a body be zero then the body coefficient of kinetic fiction
will essentially remain at rest. (a) I only (b) I and III
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om
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3)
72. Which equation holds true for the given figure?
(b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
t.c
(d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3) F1
69. Column I Column II
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(A) Accelerated motion (1) Newton’s 1st law
(B) Impulse (2) Mass
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(C) Law of inertia (3) Force×time F2
(D) Measure of inertia (4) Change in speed and
direction F3
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3)
lo
.b
(b) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3) (a) F1 – F2 = F3 (b) F1 + F2 = F3
(c) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (2) (c) F1 + F2 + F3 = 0 (d) F2 + F3 = F1
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horizontal and AB and CD make 150° and 120° with CB. (a) 4 kg and zero kg
B
Match the columns : (b) zero kg and 4 kg
no
(c) 4 kg and 4 kg
4kg
(d) 2 kg and 2 kg
ch
74. Which figure shows the correct force acting on the body
D
A sliding down an inclined plane? (m mass, fs force of
.te
150°
friction)
120°
B C E
300 N N B N B
w
w1 w2 fs fs
w
T1
m 3F
(a) F3 = F1 + F2 (b) F3 = F F2 F3
1
T2
m 3F m 3F
(c) F3 = m m2 m3 (d) F3 = m
1 1 m2
W = 60N
om
79. Which of the following is true about acceleration, a for the
system?
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(c) 0° (d) 90° m2
t.c
76. The acceleration of the system shown in the figure is given m1
by the expression (ignore force of friction) T T B
F A
po
a (a) Acceleration is more in A, when force is applied on A.
(b) Acceleration is more in B, when force is applied on B.
gs
m1 T
(c) Acceleration is same and does not depend on whether
the force is applied on m1 or m2
T
a
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(d) Acceleration depends on the tension in the string.
80. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected
.b
m2 by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass m1 hangs
freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table (the
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(Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)
m2g m1g
(a) a = (b) a = g(1 – g )
(m1 m 2 ) (m1 m 2 )
cy
(a)
g m2 m3
P
m1 m2 2g
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(c) a = (c) a =
(m1 m 2 ) g (m1 m 2 ) g (b)
3
77. What is the direction of force on the wall due to the ball in
ch
g(1 – 2 )
two cases shown in the figures? (c) m1
3
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u g(1 – 2 )
(d)
2
30° 81. The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by
w
(a) (b) 6
3
(a) In (a) force is normal to the wall and in (b) force is
0
F(N)
om
are allowed to fall from the same height if the air resistance
mv 2 mv 2
(c) N cos + f = (d) N sin + f = for each be the same then both the bodies will reach the
R R
earth simultaneously.
t.c
Reason : For same air resistance, acceleration of both the
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS bodies will be same.
po
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, 93. Assertion : A block placed on a table is at rest, because
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four action force cancels the reaction force on the block.
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
gs
Assertion : The net force on the block is zero.
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct 94. Assertion : On a rainy day, it is difficult to drive a car or bus
explanation for assertion. at high speed.
lo
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a Reason : The value of coefficient of friction is lowered due
.b
correct explanation for assertion to wetting of the surface.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 95. Assertion : Frictional forces are conservating forces.
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(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. Reason : Potential energy can be associated with frictional
forces.
83. Assertion : Mass is a measure of inertia of the body in
be
85. Assertion : If the net external force on the body is zero, Reason : A man standing at rest on smooth horizontal surface
then its acceleration is zero. cannot start walking due to absence of friction (The man is
Reason : Acceleration does not depend on force. only in contact with floor as shown).
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87. Assertion : Impulse of force and momentum are same physi- 97. Assertion: Friction is a necessary evil
cal quantities. Reason: Though friction dissipates power, but without
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om
a train which is just going to stop on the railway station, (a) MV (b) 1.5 MV (c) 2 MV (d) zero
drops an apple aiming at the open hand of his brother 110. If rope of lift breaks suddenly, the tension exerted by the
situated vertically below his own hand at a distance of surface of lift (a = acceleration of lift)
t.c
2m. The apple will fall (a) mg (b) m(g + a)
(a) in the hand of his brother (c) m(g – a) (d) 0
(b) slightly away from the hand of his brother in the 111. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal
po
direction of motion of the train plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The
(c) slightly away from the hand of his brother opposite first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms–1 and the
gs
to the direction of motion of the train second part of mass 2 kg moves with speed 8 ms–1. If the
(d) None of the above third part flies off with speed 4 ms–1 then its mass is
103. A person sitting in an open car moving at constant lo
(a) 5 kg (b) 7 kg
velocity throws a ball vertically up into air. The ball falls
(c) 17 kg (d) 3 kg
.b
(a) outside the car
112. A stationary body of mass 3 kg explodes into three equal
(b) in the car ahead of the person
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in newton is
(a) 0.5 N (b) zero
4
(c) 50 N (d) 5 N (a) (3iˆ 4j)
ˆ 10 y
no
(d) i
(3
106. When an elevator cabin falls down, the cabin and all the (–
1×
bodies fixed in the cabin are accelerated with respect to
w
(a) ceiling of elevator (b) floor of elevator 113. A spacecraft of mass 100 kg breaks into two when its velocity
(c) man standing on earth is 104 m s–1. After the break, a mass of 10 kg of the space
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(d) man standing in the cabin craft is left stationary. The velocity of the remaining part is
w
107. A monkey is climbing up a rope, then the tension in the rope (a) 103 m s–1 (b) 11.11 × 103 m s–1
(a) must be equal to the force applied by the monkey on (c) 11.11 × 10 m s 2 –1 (d) 104 m s–1
the rope 114. A ball is thrown up at an angle with the horizontal. Then
(b) must be less than the force applied by the monkey on the total change of momentum by the instant it returns to
the rope. ground is
(c) must be greater than the force applied by the monkey (a) acceleration due to gravity × total time of flight
on the rope. (b) weight of the ball × half the time of flight
(d) may be equal to, less than or greater the force applied (c) weight of the ball × total time of flight
by the monkey on the rope. (d) weight of the ball × horizontal range
LAWS OF MOTION 63
115. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man 122. The force required to just move a body up the inclined plane
hangs his bag on the spring and the spring reads 49 N, when is double the force required to just prevent the body from
the lift is stationary. If the lift moves downward with an sliding down the plane. The coefficient of friction is . The
acceleration of 5m / s 2 , the reading of the spring balance inclination of the plane is
will be (a) tan–1 (b) tan–1 ( /2)
(c) tan 2–1 (d) tan–1 3
(a) 24 N (b) 74 N
(c) 15 N (d) 49 N 123. A hockey player is moving northward and suddenly turns
westward with the same speed to avoid an opponent. The
116. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination
force that acts on the player is
. The whole system is accelerated horizontally so that the
(a) frictional force along westward
block does not slip on the wedge. The force exerted by the
(b) muscles force along southward
wedge on the block (g is acceleration due to gravity) will be
om
(c) frictional force along south-west
(a) mg/cos (b) mg cos
(d) muscle force along south-west
(c) mg sin (d) mg
124. The coefficient of static friction s, between block A of mass
117. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and
2 kg and the table as shown in the figure is 0.2. What would
t.c
presses the button on control panel. The lift starts moving
be the maximum mass value of block B so that the two blocks
upwards with an acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 ms–2, the
do not move? The string and the pulley are assumed to be
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tension in the supporting cable is
smooth and massless. (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 8600 N (b) 9680 N
(c) 11000 N (d) 1200 N 2 kg
gs
A
118. Three blocks with masses m, 2 m and 3 m are connected by
strings as shown in the figure. After an upward force F is
applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant
speed v. What is the net force on the block of mass 2m?
lo
(a) 0.4 kg (b) 2.0 kg
B
.b
(g is the acceleration due to gravity) (c) 4.0 kg (d) 0.2 kg
125. A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2m/s. A box
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(a) 2 mg
is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between
(b) 3 mg
be
them is µ = 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to
(c) 6 mg belt before coming to rest on it taking g = 10 ms–2, is
(a) 1.2 m (b) 0.6 m (c) zero (d) 0.4 m
cy
(d) zero
126. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination is per-
119. The net force on a rain drop falling down with a constant fectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block starting
no
speed is ________ from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the
(a) weight of drop W bottom, if the coefficient of friction between the block and
(b) viscous drag of air F lower half of the plane is given by
ch
T depends on 127. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity
(a) the force applied on the system of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in 10 s. Then the coefficient of
w
1 1
1 2
(c) 1 (d) (a) m (b) m
6 3
n2 1 n2
1 1
130. The minimum force required to start pushing a body up rough (c) m (d) m
(frictional coefficient ) inclined plane is F1 while the 3 2
om
minimum force needed to prevent it from sliding down is F2. 137. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 2 kg moving with same
If the inclined plane makes an angle from the horizontal velocities are stopped by the same force. Then the ratio of
F their stopping distances is
such that tan 2 then the ratio 1 is
t.c
F (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(a) 1 (b) 2 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 2 :1 (d) 1 : 2
po
131. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude
which is always perpendicular to the velocity of the 138. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light
particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. string connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at the
gs
It follows that edge of table and from its other end another block B of mass
(a) its velocity is constant m2 is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction between
(b) its acceleration is constant lo
the block and the table is µk. When the block A is sliding on
(c) its kinetic energy is constant
(d) it moves in a straight line. the table, the tension in the string is
.b
132. If n bullets each of mass m are fired with a velocity v per
second from a machine gun, the force required to hold the (m 2 – k m1 ) g m1m 2 (1 k )g
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mv m1m 2 (1 – k )g (m 2 km1 )g
(a) (n + 1) mv (b) (c) (d)
n2 (m1 m 2 ) (m1 m2 )
cy
133. A car moves at a speed of 20 ms–1 on a banked track and coefficient of friction between the tyre of the car and the
describes an arc of a circle of radius 40 3 m. The angle of road is
banking is (g = 10 ms–2 )
ch
134. A ball of mass 10 g moving perpendicular to the plane of the 140. A hammer weighing 3 kg strikes the head of a nail with a
wall strikes it and rebounds in the same line with the same speed of 2 ms–1 drives it by l cm into the wall. The impulse
velocity. If the impulse experienced by the wall is 0.54 Ns, imparted to the wall is
w
135. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are attached by an 141. A balloon with mass ‘m’ is descending down with an
inextensible light string as shown in the figure. If a force of acceleration ‘a’ (where a < g). How much mass should be
120 N pulls the blocks vertically upward, the tension in the removed from it so that it starts moving up with an
string is (take g = 10 ms–2) acceleration ‘a’?
F = 120 N 2ma 2ma
(a) 20 N
4 kg (a) g a (b) g a
(b) 15 N
(c) 35 N ma ma
(c) (d)
(d) 40 N 2 kg g a g a
LAWS OF MOTION 65
142. The time required to stop a car of mass 800 kg, moving at a (a) have a horizontal inward component
speed of 20 ms–1 over a distance of 25 m is (b) be vertical
(a) 2s (b) 2.5s (c) equilibriate the centripetal force
(c) 4s (d) 4.5s
(d) be decreased
143. A particle rests on the top of a hemisphere of radius R.
Find the smallest horizontal velocity that must be imparted 148. A sphere is suspended by a thread of length . What
to the particle if it is to leave the hemisphere without minimum horizontal velocity has to be imparted to the sphere
sliding down is for it to reach the height of the suspension?
(a) g (b) 2 g
(a) gR (b) 2g R
(c) g (d) 2g
(c) 3g R (d) 5g R
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149. A car when passes through a bridge exerts a force on it
144. A train is moving with a speed of 36 km/hour on a curved which is equal to
path of radius 200 m. If the distance between the rails is 1.5
m, the height of the outer rail over the inner rail is Mv 2 Mv 2
t.c
(a) 1 m (b) 0.5 m (a) Mg (b)
r r
(c) 0.75 m (d) 0.075 m
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145. A car moving on a horizontal road may be thrown out of the Mv 2
road in taking a turn (c) Mg – (d) None of these
r
(a) by the gravitational force
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150. A bridge is in the from of a semi-circle of radius 40m. The
(b) due to the lack of proper centripetal force
greatest speed with which a motor cycle can cross the bridge
(c) due to the rolling frictional force between the tyre and
road
(d) due to the reaction of the ground
lo
without leaving the ground at the highest point is
(g = 10 m s–2) (frictional force is negligibly small)
.b
146. A car sometimes overturns while taking a turn. When it (a) 40 m s–1 (b) 20 m s–1
overturns, it is (c) 30 m s–1 (d) 15 m s–1
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(a) the inner wheel which leaves the ground first 151. A particle tied to a string describes a vertical circular motion
(b) the outer wheel which leaves the ground first
be
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3. (c) Newton's first law of motion defines the inertia of
dp
body. It states that every body has a tendency to 14. (b) F
remain in its state (either rest or motion) due to its dt
inertia. 15. (b) The frame of reference which are at rest or in uniform
t.c
4. (c) According to Newton’s 2nd law of motion motion are called inertial frames while frames which
are accelerated with respect to each other are non–
change in momentum
po
F= inertial frames. Spinning or rotating frames are
time accelerated frame, hence these are non-inertial frames.
Thus force depends directly on the rate of change of 16. (b) Impulse = Force × time duration. …(1)
gs
momentum. According to Newton’s second law
5. (c) According to Newton's second law of motion,
Change in momentum
F = ma Force = …(2)
When body is moving uniformly along a straight line
and there is no force of friction, acceleration /
lo time duration
Force × time = change in momentum
.b
retardation of the body a = 0, i.e., Impulse = change is momentum.
F = ma = 0 17. (a)
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6. (c) 20. (b) If a large force F acts for a short time dt the impulse
imparted I is
7. (c) The body will continue accelerating until the resultant
no
21. (a)
released from some height. Earth exerts gravitational
22. (a) Impulse is not a force.
force from distance, ball moves faster with time. Impulse = Force × Time duration
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9. (b) 23. (c) A book lying on the table is acted by its weight
downwards and a reaction upwards.
A car moving on a road, has an applied forward force
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om
surface. So plastic disc can be moved on surface with
31. (b)
very less frictional dissipation of energy. This is
32. (b) Since no nearby stars are there to exert gravitational because friction between solid and air is very small.
force on the astronaut, so the net force acting on him is
49. (c) When force is applied on a moving body in a direction
t.c
zero when he moves out of the spaceship. Thus in perpendicular to the direction of motion, then it takes a
accordance with first law of motion the acceleration of circular path. Thus the direction of motion changes
po
astronaut will be zero. without changes in the speed.
33. (d) 50. (c) Normal reaction N = weight mg thus the centripetal
34. (a) It works on the principle of conservation of linear force required by the car for circular motion is provided
gs
momentum. by the component of the force of friction b/w the road
35. (a) If m1, m2 are masses and u1, u2 are velocity then by and the car tyres.
conservation of momentum m 1u1 + m 2u2 = 0 or
| m1u1 | | m2 u 2 |
lo N
.b
36. (c)
37. (c) Motion with constant momentum along a straight line. f
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38. (d) k < s coefficient of static friction is always greater 51. (a) Optimum speed is given by V0 = (Rg tan )1/2 on a
than kinetic friction. banked road, the normal reaction’s component is
cy
39. (a) Since there in no resultant external force, linear enough to provide the necessary centripetal force to a
momentum of the system remains constant. car driven at optimum speed.
40. (c) Frictional force that opposes relative motion between 52. (a) Material forces like friction, gravitational force etc. act
no
surfaces in contact is called kinetic friction and denoted on the body and provide the centripetal force. The
by fk. centripetal force cannot be regarded as any kind of
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contact. 55. (b) Due to centrifugal force, the inner wheel will be left up
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43. (d) Coefficient of friction is independent of normal force. when car is taking a circular turn. Due to this, the reaction
44. (b) When a box is in stationary position with respect to on outer wheel is more than that on inner wheel.
w
train moving with acceleration, then relative motion is 56. (b) The cyclist bends while taking turn in order to provide
opposed by the static friction. necessary centripetal force.
45. (c)
46. (d) When brakes are on, the wheels of the cycle will slide STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
on the road instead of rolling there. It means the sliding
friction will come into play instead of rolling friction. 57. (b) A breeze causes branches of tree to swing. In general
The value of sliding friction is more than that of rolling force is required to put a stationary object in motion.
friction. 58. (d) Newton’s 2nd law of motion gives F = ma. Thus it is a
47. (d) measure of force. Newton’s first law of motion simply
gives a qualitative definition of force.
EBD_7208
68 LAWS OF MOTION
59. (d) If a body is moving with a constant velocity then the Applying Lami's equation, we have
net force on the body is zero. Also if net force is zero,
TBC W2 300
the body may be moving uniformly along a straight = =
sin150 sin120 sin 90
line. Thus both the given statements are false.
60. (b) There are three types of inertia. TAB W1 TBC
Inertia of rest : The resistance of a body to change its and
sin 90
=
sin150
=
sin120
state of rest is called inertia of rest.
After simplifying, we get
Inertia of motion : The resistance of a body to change
its state of motion is called inertia of motion. TAB = 173 N, TBC = 150 N, W1 = 87 N, W2 = 260 N.
Inertia of direction : The resistance of a body to change 71. (c) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (2)
its direction of motion is called inertia of direction.
61. (d) Action & reaction forces act simultaneously: There is DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
om
no cause effect relation between action and reaction as
any of the two mutual forces can be called action and 72. (c) Equilibrium under three concurrent forces F1, F2and F3
the other reaction since action & reaction act on requires that vector sum of the three forces is zero.
t.c
different bodies, so they cannot be cancelled out. F1 + F2 + F3 = 0.
62. (c) When the men push the rough surface on walking, R F1 F2 F1
then surface (from Newton’ third Law) applies reaction R
po
force in forward direction. It occurs because there is F3 R (In eqbm)
friction between men & surface. If surface is frictionless
F3 (F1 F2 )
gs
(such as ice), then it is very difficult to move on it.
F2
63. (a) Newton's laws of motion are applicable only for inertial
F1 F2 F3 = 0 F3
frames. All refrence frames present on surface of earth
64.
are supposed to be inertial frame of refrence.
(a) According to third law of motion bullet experiences a
lo
.b
force F then, give experiences an equal and opposite 73. (c) In series each spring will have same force.
force F. According to second law, F t is change in Here it is 4 kg-wt.
r8
the final momentum = 0. Pb + Pg = 0. Thus the total upwards along the plane weight(mg) act vertically
momentum of (bullet + gun) is conserved. downwards.
65. (d) The static friction comes into play, the moment there is 75. (b)
cy
to the applied force upto a certain limit. But if the applied T1 cos
T1
force increases so much, it overcomes the static friction
and the body starts moving.
ch
66. (c) Limiting friction is the maximum static friction beyond T1 sin T2
which the object starts moving. It decreases a little bit 2m
before the object comes into motion. Thus limiting T2
.te
67. (b) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2) T1sin = 60 N …(2)
68. (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (3) tan = 1
w
69. (d) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2) = 45°.
70. (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) 76. (a) Equations of motion of m1 & m2 are as:
T = m1a …(1)
300N
m2g – T = m2a …(2)
A Adding eqn. (i) and (ii)
150° 120°
C
m2g = (m1 + m2) a
B
TBC TBC
m2g
a= m m
2
w1 w2
LAWS OF MOTION 69
77. (d) Case (a) ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
(Px)i = mu Py(initial) = 0
(Px)f = f = –mu Py(final) = 0
F
Impulse = P = –2mu (along x –axis) 83. (a) According to Newton's second law of motion a =
Impulse = 0 along y–axis m
parallaly in case (b) i.e. magnitude of the acceleration produced by a
(Px)i = mu cos30° (Py)i = –mu sin30° given force is inversely proportional to the mass of
(Px)f = f = –mu cos30° (Py)f = –mu sin30°
the body. Higher is the mass of the body, lesser will
Impulse = –2mu cos 30°(along x-axis)
Impulse = 0 (along y–axis) be the acceleration produced i.e. mass of the body is
Force and impulse are in the same direction the force a measure of the opposition offered by the body to
on wall due to the ball is normal to the wall along change a state, when the force is applied i.e. mass of
om
positive x–direction in both (a) & (b) case. a body is the measure of its inertia.
78. (c) Common acceleration of system is 84. (a)
F 85. (c) According to Newton's second law
t.c
a=
m1 m2 m3
force
Acceleration = i.e. if net external force on the
m 3F mass
po
Force on m3 is F3 = m3 × a = m m2 m3 body is zero then acceleration will be zero
1
86. (c) Newton's second law can not be used for any object.
gs
F 87. (d) Impulse and momentum are different quantities, but
79. (c) a = m m2
1 both hae same unit (N–s).
So the acceleration is same whether the force is applied
on m1 or m2.
88. (d) lo
A cricket player moves his hands backward to increase
the time interval for reducing the momentum of the ball
.b
80. (c) Acceleration to zero. Thus the ball does not hit him hard as force is
r8
m1g (m 2 m3 )g g P1 P2
= = (1 2 ) F1 = F2 =
m1m 2 m3 3 t1 t2
cy
( m1 = m2 = m3 = m given) F1 × t1 = F2 × t2
81. (c) Change in momentum,
P1 = P2
no
p = Fdt Thus the same force for the same time causes the same
= Area of F-t graph change in momentum for different bodies.
ch
= ar of – ar of + ar of
90. (d) Law of conservation of linear momentum is correct
1 when no external force acts. When bullet is fired form
= 2 6 3 2 4 3
.te
N cos 2m
N energy of the rifle is less than that of bullet because
w
f cos E 1/m
w
om
an evil but without friction walking. Stopping a vehicle
etc. would not be possible. So it is necessary for us. 111. (a) y
98. (c) The assertion is true for a reason that when the car is
t.c
2 kg m2
driven at optimum speed. Then the normal reaction
8 m/sec Presultant
component is enough to provide the centripetal force.
po
99. (b) When a body is moving in a circle, its speed remains
12 m/sec
same but velocity changes due to change in the m1
c x
/se
gs
direction of motion of body. According to first law of
4m 1 kg
motion, force is required to change the state of a
3
body. As in circular motion the direction of velocity m
of body is changing so the acceleration cannot be
zero. But for a uniform motion acceleration is zero (for
lo
.b
rectilinear motion).
100. (c) In uniform circular motion, the direction of motion Presultant = 122 162
r8
1 –(3iˆ 4j)
ˆ kg ms–1
102. (b) The apple will fall slightly away from the hand of his
brother in the direction of motion of the train due to Impulse = Average force × time
.te
y
the same speed and therefore, falls slightly away
Change in momentum
w
om
115. (a) 49 mg mg
Mass 5 kg
9.8 mg Cos mN Sin mg Cos S in
t.c
mg mg
Apparent weight = 5(9.8 – 5) = 5 × 4.8 = 24 N
116. (a) N = m a sin + mg cos ......(1)
po
mg sin = F1 – N
also m g sin = m a cos ......(2)
N = mg cos
from (2) a = g tan
gs
mg sin + mg cos = F1
sin 2 In second case (b)
N mg mg cos ,
cos
loN + F2 = mg sin
mg mg cos – F2 = mg sin
or N
.b
cos or F2 = mg sin – mg cos
m but F1 = 2F2
r8
ac
os therefore mg sin + mg cos
N = 2(mg sin – mg cos )
be
ma
mg sin = 3 mg cos
cos
mg m or tan = 3 or = tan–1 (3 )
g
cy
cos sin
ma mg
123. (c) Frictional force is always opposite to the direction of
motion
no
W E
.te
m = 1000 kg
S
mB = s mA
Total mass = (60 + 940) kg = 1000 kg
w
or mB = 0.2 × 2 = 0.4 kg
Let T be the tension in the supporting cable, then
w
om
For lower half of inclined plane tan 2 3
3
0 = u2 + 2 g (sin – cos ) S/2 tan 2
– gS sin = gS ( sin – cos ) 131. (c) It is a case of uniform circular motion in which
t.c
2 sin = cos velocity and acceleration vectors change due to
change in direction. As the magnitude of velocity
po
2 sin
= = 2 tan remains constant, the kinetic energy is constant.
cos
132. (d) By Newton’s second law of motion
gs
6 F = n(mv) = nmv
127. (a) a g [using v = u + at]
10
v2 20 2
6 6 133. (d) lo
Angle of banking is tan =
= 0.06 rg 40 3 10
10 g 10 10
.b
1
tan =
128. (c) fs 3
r8
N = 30º
be
m 2.0 kg
T
2s 2s F 4g 2g 120 40 20
a=
.te
T – 2g = 2a 2g
1 2 FBD of block
here = 45º n 2 or (1 1 / n ) T = 2 (a + g) = 2 (10 + 10)
w
1
= 40 N
130. (c) F1 N2 136. (a) At limiting equilibrium,
N1
2
F
= tan
f2 m
dy x 2 y
tan = =
mg sin
dx 2
mg sin
f1 mg cos mg cos (from question)
mg mg
Coefficient of friction = 0.5
LAWS OF MOTION 73
x2 2ma
0.5 Therefore m =
2 g a
x=+1 u v
3
142. (b) As we know, S = t
x 1 2
Now, y m
6 6
0 20
137. (a) Energy of both bodies is given by 2
t = 25 t = 2.5s
KE1 = F.S1
143. (a) The velocity should be such that the centripetal
KE2 = F.S2
acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to gravity
As force is equal
om
v2
S1 m1v12 m1 1 g or v gR
v1 v2 R
S2 m 2 v 22 m2 2
144. (d) tan = v2 / rg, tan = H / 1.5, r = 200 m, b = 1.5 m
t.c
138. (b) For the motion of both the blocks v = 36 km/hour = 36 × (5/18) = 10 m/s.
m1a = T – Putting these values, we get H = 0.075 m.
km1g
po
145. (b) It means that car which is moving on a horizontal road
m2g – T = m2a
& the necessary centripetal force, which is provided
a
gs
T by friction (between car & road) is not sufficient.
k m1g m1
If is friction between car and road, then max speed of
k safely turn on horizontal road is determined from figure.
lo
m2
.b
a
N
r8
m2g car of
f mass m
m 2g – k m1g
be
a= m1 m 2 mg
m 2 g – k m1g
cy
m2g – T = (m2) m1 m 2
solving we get tension in the string N = mg ...(i)
no
m1mg (1 k )g mv 2
T= f ...(ii)
m1 m 2
ch
r
F Where f is frictional force between road & car, N is the
139. (b) As we know, coefficient of friction =
N normal reaction exerted by road on the car. We know
.te
ma a that
= (a = 7.35 m s–2 given)
mg g f sN s mg ......(iii)
w
s mg s rg or v s rg
= |p2 – p1| r
= |0 – mv1| = |0 – 3 × 2| = 6 Ns & v max s rg
141. (a) Let upthrust of air be Fa then If the speed of car is greater than vmax at that road,
For downward motion of balloon then it will be thrown out from road i.e., skidding.
Fa = mg – ma 146. (a) The car over turn, when reaction on inner wheel of car
mg – Fa = ma is zero, i.e., first the inner wheel of car leaves the ground
For upward motion (where G is C.G of car, h is height of C.G from the ground,
Fa – (m – m)g = (m – m)a f1 & f2 are frictional force exerted by ground on inner &
EBD_7208
74 LAWS OF MOTION
outer wheel respectively). The max. speed for no over Where is angle of banking of rail track, N is normal
turning is reaction exerted by rail track on rail.
G It is clear from the equation (i) & (ii) that N cos balance
N1 N2 the weight of the train & N sin provide the necessary
h centripetal force to turn.
f1 B
A If width of track is (OB) & h (AB) be height of outside
inner wheel f2 mg outer wheel
of car of track from the inside, then
of car
2a h v2 v2
tan or h .................(iv)
rg rg
gra So it is clear from the above analysis that if we increase
om
v max
h the height of track from inside by h metre then resultant
where r is radius of the path followed by car for turn & 2a force on rail is provided by railway track & whose
direction is inwards.
is distance between two wheels of car (i.e., AB)
t.c
147. (a) If the outside rail is h units higher than inside of rail track 1
148. (d) mv 2 m g or v (2 g )
as shown in figure then 2
po
N cos = mg....................(i) 149. (c) Force exerted by a car when passes through a bridge
Mv 2
gs
F Mg .
N Ncos Train
r
N
sin A
h
150. (b) lov gr 10 40
151. (c) Tension at the highest point
20 m s 1
O
.b
mg B
inside mv2
Ttop – mg 2mg ( vtop = 3gr )
r8
r
trrack
Rail
r .
Tbottom 8mg 4
v2
& tan
no
....................(iii)
rg
ch
.te
w
w
w
6
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
om
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 8. According to work-energy theorem, the work done by the
t.c
net force on a particle is equal to the change in its
1. No work is done if (a) kinetic energy (b) potential energy
(a) displacement is zero (c) linear momentum (d) angular momentum
po
(b) force is zero 9. A light and a heavy body have equal momentum. Which
(c) force and displacement are mutually perpendicular one has greater K.E.?
(d) All of these
gs
(a) The lighter body
2. The magnitude of work done by a force (b) The heavier body
(a) depends on frame of reference (c) Both have equal K.E.
(b) does not depend on frame of reference
10.
lo
(d) Data given is incomplete
A particle of mass m has momentum p. Its kinetic energy
.b
(c) cannot be calculated in non-inertial frames.
will be
(d) both (a) and (b) (a) mp (b) p2m
r8
(d) None of these (c) negative (d) both (b) and (c)
4. A boy carrying a box on his head is walking on a level road 12. Total ....X.... energy of a system is conserved, if the forces,
no
from one place to another is doing no work. This statement doing work on it, are .....Y..... .
is Here, X and Y refer to
(a) correct (b) incorrect (a) conservative, mechanical
ch
6. In which of the following work is being not done? (d) both (a) and (c)
(a) Shopping in the supermarket 14. Unit of energy is
(b) Standing with a basket of fruit on the head (a) kwh (b) joule
(c) Climbing a tree (c) electron volt (d) All of these
(d) Pushing a wheel barrow 15. Which of the following is not a conservative force?
(a) Gravitational force (b) Frictional force
7. A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it, he does
(c) Spring force (d) None of these
(a) negative work
16. If a light body and heavy body have same kinetic energy,
(b) positive but not maximum work
then which one has greater linear momentum?
(c) no work at all
(a) Lighter body (b) Heavier body
(d) maximum positive work
(c) Both have same momentum (d) Can’t be predicted
EBD_7208
76 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
17. The time rate of change of kinetic energy is equal to 27. Work done by a conservative force is positive if
(a) P.E. of the body increases
1 dv dv
(a) m (b) m v (b) P.E. of the body decreases
2 dt dt
(c) K.E. of the body increases
dv 1 dv (d) K.E. of the body decreases
(c) m (d) mv
dt 2 dt 28. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done
18. Two bodies of different masses are moving with same kinetic (a) upon the system by a non conservative force
energy. Then the ratio of their momenta is equal to the ratio (b) by the system against a conservative force
of their (c) by the system against a non conservative force
(d) upon the system by a conservative force
(a) masses (b) square of masses
29. The ...X... energy V(x) of the spring is said to be zero when
(c) square root of masses (d) cube root of masses block and spring system is in the ...Y... position.
19. A spring with force constant k is initially stretched by x1 . If
om
Here, X and Y refer to
it is further stretched by x2, then the increase in its potential
(a) potential, equilibrium
energy is
(b) kinetic, equilibrium
1 1 (c) mechanical, equilibrium
t.c
(a) k(x 2 x1 ) 2 (b) kx 2 (x 2 2x1 )
2 2 (d) vibrational, left
30. For a conservative force in one dimension, potential energy
po
1 1 1
(c) kx12 kx 2 2 (d) k(x1 x 2 )2 function V(x) is related to the force F(x) as
2 2 2
dV(x) dV(x)
20. The speed of an object of mass m dropped from an inclined (a) F(x) (b) F(x)
gs
dx dx
plane (frictionless), at the bottom of the plane, depends on:
(a) height of the plane above the ground –dV(x)
(c) F(x) = V(x) dx (d) F(x)
(b) angle of inclination of the plane lo dx
(c) mass of the object 31. The total mechanical energy of a system is conserved if the
force, doing work on it is
.b
(d) All of these
21. A particle is taken round a circle by application of force. (a) constant (b) variable
(c) conservative (d) non-conservative
r8
23. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done 34. The work done in stretching a spring of force constant k
(a) upon the system by a non conservative force from length 1 and 2 is
(b) by the system against a conservative force
ch
1
(c) by the system against a non conservative force (a) k( 2
2
2
1) (b) k ( 22 12 )
2
(d) upon the system by a conservative force
k
.te
24. The temperature at the bottom of a high water fall is higher (c) k ( 2 1 ) (d) ( 2 1)
2
than that at the top because 35. Which of the following force(s) is/are non-conservative?
(a) by itself heat flows from higher to lower temperature
w
25. If two particles are brought near one another, the potential (b) energy is zero
energy of the system will (c) work done is constant
(a) increase (b) decrease (d) energy of world is constant
(c) remains the same (d) equal to the K.E 37. If a force F is applied on a body and it moves with a velocity
26. Which of the following is correct? V, the power will be
(a) W = FS cos (a) F×v (b) F/v
(b) P. E. = mgh (c) F/v 2 (d) F×v2
1 38. Unit of power is
(c) K. E. = mv2
2 (a) kilowatt hour (b) kilowatt/hour
(d) All of these (c) watt (d) erg
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER 77
39. Which of the following must be known in order to determine (a) is extremely small
the power output of an automobile? (b) is moderately small
(a) Final velocity and height (c) is extremely large
(b) Mass and amount of work performed (d) depends on particular case
(c) Force exerted and distance of motion 49. In a one-dimensional elastic collision, the relative velocity
(d) Work performed and elapsed time of work of approach before collision is equal to
40. If a shell fired from a cannon, explodes in mid air, then (a) sum of the velocities of the bodies
(a) its total kinetic energy increases (b) e times the relative velocity of separation after collision
(b) its total momentum increases (c) 1/e times the relative velocity of separation after
(c) its total momentum decreases collision
(d) None of these (d) relative velocity of separation after collision
41. Which one of the following statements is true? 50. In case of elastic collision, at the time of impact.
om
(a) Momentum is conserved in elastic collisions but not in (a) total K.E. of colliding bodies is conserved.
inelastic collisions (b) total K.E. of colliding bodies increases
(b) Total kinetic energy is conserved in elastic collisions (c) total K.E. of colliding bodies decreases
t.c
but momentum is not conserved in elastic collisions (d) total momentum of colliding bodies decreases.
(c) Total kinetic energy is not conserved but momentum is 51. When two spheres of equal masses undergo glancing elastic
conserved in inelastic collisions collision with one of them at rest, after collision they will
po
(d) Kinetic energy and momentum both are conserved in move
all types of collisions (a) opposite to one another
42. When after collision the deformation is not relived and the
gs
(b) in the same direction
two bodies move together after the collision, it is called
(a) elastic collision (c) together
(b) inelastic collision
(c) perfectly inelastic collision 52.
lo
(d) at right angle to each other
In an inelastic collision
.b
(d) perfectly elastic collision (a) momentum is not conserved
43. In an inelastic collision, which of the following does not (b) momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not
r8
(b) kinetic energy (d) neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved
(c) Total energy 53. In an elastic collision, what is conserved ?
(d) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy (a) Kinetic energy (b) Momentum
cy
44. The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly elastic (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
collision is 54. In elastic collision, 100% energy transfer takes place when
(a) m1 = m2 (b) m1 > m2
no
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) (d) –1 (c) m1 < m2 (d) m1 = 2m2
45. The coefficient of restitution e for a perfectly inelastic collision
ch
46. When two bodies stick together after collision, the collision I. No work is done if the displacement is perpendicular to
is said to be the direction of the applied force
w
(a) partially elastic (b) elastic II. If the angle between the force and displacement vectors
(c) inelastic (d) perfectly inelastic is obtuse, then the work done is negative
w
47. Consider the elastic collision of two bodies A and B of equal III. All the central forces are non-conservative
mass. Initially B is at rest and A moves with velocity v. After (a) I only (b) I and II
w
om
(a) I and II (b) II and III MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
59. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following. 65. A small block of mass 200g is kept at the top of a an incline
I. Work-energy theorem is not independent of Newton's which is 10 m long and 3.2 m high. Match the columns
t.c
second law. Column I Column II
II. Work-energy theorem holds in all inertial frames. (A) Work done, to lift the block from (1) 6.4 J
po
III. Work done by friction over a closed path is zero. the ground and put it at the top
(a) I only (b) II and III (B) Work done to slide the block (2) 7.2 J
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III up the incline
gs
60. Which of the following statements are incorrect ? (C) the speed of the block at the (3) 4 m/s
I. If there were no friction, work need to be done to move ground when left from the top
a body up an inclined plane is zero.
II. If there were no friction, moving vehicles could not be
lo
of the incline to fall vertically
(D) The speed of the block at the (4) 8 m/s
.b
stopped even by locking the brakes. ground when side along the incline
III. As the angle of inclination is increased, the normal (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
r8
reaction on the body placed on it increases. (b) (A) (1); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (3)
IV. A duster weighing 0.5 kg is pressed against a vertical (c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (2)
be
board with a force of 11 N. If the coefficient of friction (d) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
is 0.5, the work done in rubbing it upward through a 66. If W represents the work done, then match the two columns:
distance of 10 cm is 0.55J. Column I Column II
cy
(a) I and II (b) I, II and IV (A) Force is always along the velocity (1) W = 0
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV (B) Force is always perpendicular to (2) W < 0
no
the object
(a) Only I (b) I and III
(a) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (2)
(c) Only II (d) I, II and III
(b) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (2,3); (D) (1)
w
62. Choose the correct conversion taking place in the generation (c) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
of electricity by burning of coal in a thermal station in all the (d) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1)
w
om
(c) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
(d) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (2)
69. Column I Column II 3
Fx (N)
(A) Kinetic Energy (1) Stretched spring
t.c
(B) Potential Energy (2) Watt
(C) Collision (3) Elastic or inelastic
0 5 15 20
po
(D) Power (4) A boy running on the x(m)
roof
The work done by the particle as it moves from x = 0 to 20 m
(a) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
gs
is
(b) (A) (1); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (3)
(a) 37.5 J (b) 10 J
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (2)
(c) 45 J (d) 22.5 J
(d) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (2)
74.
lo
The figure gives the potential energy function U(x) for a
system in which a particle is in one-dimensional motion. In
.b
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS which region the magnitude of the force on the particle is
greatest :
r8
cy
no
Distance
(a) Torque (b) Impulse (a) OA (b) AB
ch
3
2
w
1 (a) (b)
x(m)
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(a) 18.0 J (b) 13.5 J
(c) 9.0 J (d) 4.5 J
72. Figure shows three forces applied to a trunk that moves
leftward by 3 m over a smooth floor. The force magnitudes
(c) (d)
are F1 = 5N, F2 = 9N, and F3 = 3N. The net work done on the
trunk by the three forces
EBD_7208
80 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
76. Figure shows a bob of mass m suspended from a string of (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
length L. The velocity is V0 at A, then the potential energy correct explanation for assertion
of the system is _______ at the lowest point A. (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
C mg (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
om
mg
1 2
81. Assertion : A man rowing a boat upstream is at rest with
(a) mv 0 (b) mgh respect to the bank. He is doing no external work.
2
1 2 Reason : Work done by constant force, W = F s cos .
t.c
(c) mv0 (d) zero
2 82. Assertion : The rate of change of total momentum of a many
77. For the given case which figure is correctly showing the particle system is proportional to the sum of the internal
po
after inelastic collision situation? forces of the system.
Reason : Internal forces can change the kinetic energy but
m1 not the momentum of the system.
gs
u1 m2
83. Assertion : A work done by friction is always negative.
Before collision
u 2= 0 Reason : If frictional force acts on a body its K.E. may
v1
lo
decrease.
84. Assertion : The change in kinetic energy of a particle is
.b
v2
equal to the work done on it by the net force.
(a) m2 Reason : Change in kinetic energy of particle is equal to
r8
m1
workdone only in case of a system of one particle.
m2 85. Assertion: Kinetic energy of a body is quadrupled, when
be
1
(d) m1 m2 Reason : Kinetic energy , K.E.= mv2
–v 2
78. A ball of mass m hits the floor making an angle as shown in 87. Assertion: Kinetic energy of a system can be increased or
ch
the figure. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then which decreased without applying any external force on the system.
relation is true, for the velocity component before and after 1
Reason: This is because K.E. = mV2, so it independent of
.te
collision? 2
any external forces.
88. If two springs S1 and S2 of force constants k1 and k2 ,
w
om
always remain conserved.
94. Assertion : Mass and energy are not conserved separately, (c) zero (d) None of these
but are conserved as a single entity called mass-energy. 105. A force acts on a 30 g particle in such a way that the position
Reason : Mass and energy are inter-convertible in of the particle as a function of time is given by x = 3t – 4t 2
t.c
accordance with Einstein's relation. + t3, where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The work done
E = mc2 during the first 4 seconds is
95. Assertion : When a machine gun fires n bullets per second (a) 576mJ (b) 450mJ
po
each with kinetic energy K, the power of a gun is P = nK (c) 490mJ (d) 530mJ
Reason : Power P = work done / time 106. A uniform force of (3iˆ ˆj ) newton acts on a particle of
gs
96. Assertion : Power developed in circular motion is always
zero. mass 2 kg. The particle is displaced from position (2i k )
Reason : Work done in case of circular motion is not zero. lo
97. Assertion: Linear momentum is conserved in both elastic meter to position (4i 3 j k ) meter. The work done by the
.b
and inelastic collisions but total energy is not conserved in force on the particle is
inelastic collision. (a) 6 J (b) 13 J
Reason: Law of conservation of momentum states that
r8
(c) 15 J (d) 9 J
momentum has to be conserved in an isolated system. 107. The position of a particle of mass 4 g, acted upon by a
98. Assertion : A point particle of mass m moving with speed
be
t
their kinetic energy decreases during the time of collision.
Reason : During collision intermolecular space decreases 110. Two bodies of masses 4 kg and 5 kg are moving with equal
w
and hence elastic potential energy increases. momentum. Then the ratio of their respective kinetic energies
101. Assertion : Two particles moving in the same direction do is
not lose all their energy in a completely inelastic collision. (a) 4 : 5 (b) 2 : 1
Reason : Principle of conservation of momentum holds true (c) 1 : 3 (d) 5 : 4
for all kinds of collisions. 111. A crate is pushed horizontally with 100 N across a 5 m floor.
102. Assertion : In an elastic collision of two billiard balls, the If the frictional force between the crate and the floor is 40 N,
total kinetic energy is conserved during the short time of then the kinetic energy gained by the crate is
collision of the balls (i.e., when they are in contact).
(a) 200 J (b) 240 J
Reason : Energy spent against friction follow the law of
(c) 250 J (d) 300 J
conservation of energy.
EBD_7208
82 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
112. An electron and a proton are moving under the influence
(a) E (b) 2E
of mutual forces. In calculating the change in the kinetic
(c) E /8 (d) E /2
energy of the system during motion, one ignores the
119. Two springs have their force constant as k 1 and
magnetic force of one on another. This is because,
k2 (k1 > k2). When they are stretched by the same force
(a) the two magnetic forces are equal and opposite, so (a) no work is done in case of both the springs.
they produce no net effect. (b) equal work is done in case of both the springs
(b) the magnetic forces do no work on each particle. (c) more work is done in case of second spring
(c) the magnetic forces do equal and opposite (but non- (d) more work is done in case of first spring.
zero) work on each particle. 120. One end of a light spring of spring constant k is fixed to a
(d) the magnetic forces are necessarily negligible. wall and the other end is tied to a block placed on a
113. A particle moves in a straight line with retardation smooth horizontal surface. In a displacement, the work
proportional to its displacement. Its loss of kinetic energy done by the spring is 1/2 k x2. The possible cases are
om
for any displacement x is proportional to (a) the spring was initially compressed by a distance x,
(a) x2 (b) ex was finally in its natural length
(c) x (d) loge x (b) it was initially stretched by a distance x and was finally
t.c
in its natural length
114. A weight hangs freely from the end of a spring. A boy
(c) it was initially in its natural length and finally in a
then slowly pushes the weight upwards until the spring
compressed position
becomes slack. The gain in gravitational potential energy
po
(d) it was initially in its natural length and finally in the
of the weight during this process is equal to
stretched position
(a) the work done by the boy against the force of gravity
121. If the extension in a spring is increased to 4 times then the
gs
acting on the weight
potential energy
(b) the loss of stored energy by the spring minus the
(a) remains the same (b) becomes 4 times
work done by the tension in the spring lo
(c) becomes one fourth (d) becomes 16 times
(c) the work done on the weight by the boy plus the
122. Before a rubber ball bounces off from the floor, the ball is in
stored energy lost by the spring
.b
contact with the floor for a fraction of second. Which of the
(d) the work done on the weight by the boy minus the following statements is correct?
work done by the tension in the spring plus the stored
r8
mgl
(a) mgl (b) 123. A spherical ball of mass 20 kg is stationary at the top of a hill
2 of height 100 m. It rolls down a smooth surface to the ground,
mgl mgl then climbs up another hill of height 30 m and finally rolls
no
(c) (d)
3 4 down to a horizontal base at a height of 20 m above the
116. A mass of m kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a horizontal ground. The velocity attained by the ball is
smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring of
ch
a factor of
(a) 0.5 kg (b) 0.15 kg
16 2
w
om
equal to earth's radius before returning to the earth. The of a force F = r2 which is directed towards centre of the circle.
power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest Total mechanical energy (kinetic energy + potential energy) of
(a) at the highest position of the body the particle is (take potential energy = 0 for r = 0)
t.c
(b) at the instant just before the body hits the earth
1 3 5 3
(c) it remains constant all through (a) r (b) r
2 6
po
(d) at the instant just after the body is projected
129. Johnny and his sister Jane race up a hill. Johnny weighs 4 3
twice as much as jane and takes twice as long as jane to (c) r (d) r3
3
gs
reach the top . Compared to Jane
136. When a body is projected vertically up from the ground
(a) Johnny did more work and delivered more power.
with certain velocity, its potential energy and kinetic energy
(b) Johnny did more work and delivered the same amount
of power.
lo
at a point A are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the same body is projected
with double the previous velocity, then at the same point A
.b
(c) Johnny did more work and delivered less power
the ratio of its potential energy to kinetic energy is
(d) Johnny did less work and johnny delivered less power.
r8
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 2 : 9
130. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly
explodes into three pieces. Two pieces, each of mass (m) (c) 1 : 9 (d) 9 : 2
137. The total energy of a solid sphere of mass 300 g which rolls
be
3
(a) mv2 (b) mv2 (a) 5.25 J (b) 3.25 J
2 (c) 0.25 J (d) l.25 J
no
(c) 2 mv2 (d) 4 mv2 138. A bullet when fired into a target loses half of its velocity
131. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a after penetrating 20 cm. Further distance of penetration before
constant power of k watts. If the particle starts from rest the it comes to rest is
ch
om
transfer of momentum
149. Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities v1
(b) When m1 > m2 and m2 at rest, after collision the ball
of mass m2 moves with four times the velocity of m1 and v2 . At the initial moment their position vectors are r1
t.c
(c) When m1 = m2 and m2 at rest, there will be maximum
and r2 respectively. The condition for particles A and B for
transfer of K.E.
(d) When collision is oblique and m 2 at rest with their collision is
po
m1 = m2, after collisions the ball moves in opposite (a) r1.v1 r2 .v2
direction
gs
143. A ball of mass m moving with a constant velocity strikes (b) r1 v1 r2 v2
against a ball of same mass at rest. If e = coefficient of (c) r1 r2 v1 v 2
restitution, then what will be the ratio of velocity of two lo
balls after collision? r1 r2 v2 v1
(d)
.b
| r1 r2 | | v2 v1 |
1 e e 1
(a) (b) 150. On a frictionless surface a block of mass M moving at speed
1 e e 1
r8
(c) (d)
1 e e 1 v
at an angle to its initial direction and has a speed . The
144. A particle of mass m1 moving with velocity v strikes with a 3
cy
mass m2 at rest, then the condition for maximum transfer of second block's speed after the collision is
kinetic energy is 3
3
no
the loss in kinetic energy due to collision is with an initial velocity v0. It collides with the ground loses
(a) 140 J (b) 100 J 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the
w
another stationary ball of double the mass. If the coefficient (a) 20 ms-1 (b) 28 ms-1
w
of restitution is 0.5, then their velocities (in m/s) after collision (c) 10 ms-1 (d) 14 ms-1
will be 152. A particle of mass m moving in the x direction with speed 2v
(a) 0, 1 (b) 1, 1 is hit by another particle of mass 2m moving in the y direction
(c) 1, 0.5 (d) 0, 2 with speed v. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the
147. A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to
v collides and sticks to mass of 3m moving vertically upward (a) 56% (b) 62%
(along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the (c) 44% (d) 50%
combination is
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER 85
om
W = 0.
11. (b) K. E = mv
2. (a) 2
It is always positive
3. (c) (i) Since work W F.s Fs cos 12. (b) The principle of conservation of total mechanical
t.c
If = 90º W = 0 , but force is acting on it so energy can be stated as, the total mechanical energy of
a system is conserved if the forces, doing work on it,
option (a) is not correct.
po
are conservative.
(ii) A person carrying a suit case vertically in his hand 13. (c) Only momentum is conserved. Some kinetic energy is
walks in a horizontal direction, no work is done, lost when bullet penetrates the block.
gs
because the angle between the direction of force 14. (d) 1Kwh = 3.6 × 106 J
applied by hand on weight & direction of 1 ev = 1.6 × 10–19 J
displacement is 90º. So option (b) is also not lo J, Kwh and ev all are units of energy.
correct. 15. (b) As work done by frictional force over a closed path is
not zero, therefore, it is non-conservative force.
.b
(iii) According to work energy theorem
work done on body = change in kinetic energy of 1 1 V m1
16. (b) E1 = E2 m1v12 = m2v22 or 2
r8
the bod 2 2 V1 m2
4. (a) When a person carrying load on his head moves over
be
5. (b) If m2 > m1, then P2 > P1 i.e. heavier body has greater linear
6. (b) momentum.
no
of the particle. p2
This is according to work energy theorem. 18. (c) Kinetic energy is given by k.E
2m
9. (a) Since momentum of both bodies are equal
w
p12 p 22
w
M1 u2 2m1 2m 2
So p1= p2 u2 u1 (let M1>M2)
M2 u1
w
p1 m1
or
p2 m2
E k1 P12 / 2M1 M2 Ek1 Ek 2
so 1 2
E k2 P22 / 2M 2 M1 19. (b) P.E in case of spring = kx
2
It means that light body has greater kinetic energy, if Increase in potential energy
they have equal momentum. 1 1 2 1
k ( x1 x2 )2 kx1 = k 2 x1x2 x22
10. (d) Let the velocity of the particle be v m/s. 2 2 2
Momentum of the particle (p) = mv
1
Kinetic energy of the particle = kx2 x2 2 x1
2
EBD_7208
86 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
20. (a) If an object of mass m is released from rest from top of 39. (d) Power is defined as the rate of doing work. For the
a smooth inclined plane, its speed at the bottom is automobile, the power output is the amount of work
done (overcoming friction) divided by the length of time
2gh , independent of angle and mass.
in which the work was done.
21. (c) Displacement of the particle when it takes a complete 40. (a)
round the circular path is zero.
41. (c) The law of conservation of momentum is true in all type
Work done = force × displacement
of collisions, but kinetic energy is conserved only in
W=F×0=0
elastic collision. The kinetic energy is not conserved in
Therefore, work done by the force is zero.
inelastic collision but the total energy is conserved in all
P2 1 type of collisions.
22. (b) E E [If P = constant] 42. (c) In a perfectly inelastic collision, the two bodies move
2m m
om
together as one body.
i.e. the lightest particle will possess maximum kinetic
43. (b) In an inelastic collision, momentum remains conserved,
energy and in the given option mass of electron is
but K.E is changed.
minimum.
t.c
23. (d) When work is done upon a system by a conservative – (v1 v2 ) -velocity of separation
force then its potential energy increases. 44. (a) Since e
(u 2 u1 ) velocity of approach
po
24. (d) By the principle of conservation energy
(i) For perfectly elastic collision e =1
25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (b)
28. (d) When work is done upon a system by a conservative (ii) For perfectly inelastic collision e = 0
gs
force then its potential energy increases. (iii) For other collision 0 < e < 1
29. (a) We define the potential energy V(x) of the spring to be 45. (b) For a perfectly inelastic collision, e = 0.
lo
zero when block and spring system is in the equilibrium 46. (d) When the two bodies stick together after collision, then
position.
.b
it is perfectly inelastic collision and in this case, the
30. (a) Conservative force is negative gradient of potential coefficient of restitution e is equal to zero.
r8
–dV(x) 47. (b) When two bodies of equal mass collide head on
F(x) = elastically, their velocities are mutually exchanged.
dx
be
31. (c) Principle of conservation of energy states that, the total 48. (a) In physics, collision does not means that are particle
mechanical energy is conserved if the forces doing work strike another particle. Infact, two particles may
cy
on it are conservative. not even touch each other & may still said to be
colliding.
1 2
32. (a) For a given spring, u = kx
no
2
u2 2 2 2x
u1 1 = =4:1 (ii) The motion of the particles (at least one of the
Kx12 x2
2 particle) is changed abruptly.
.te
velocity of seperation
Where x is compression or elongation of spring & k is e
w
om
2
central forces are conservative. 1 C
56. (a) When a body is moved on a rough horizontal surface x(m)
0
with a constant velocity, then work is done against 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
t.c
friction but K.E. is constant. So, even if work is done Work done = area under F-x graph
on a body by some force, K.E. remains unchanged
po
1
57. (c) When a bomb explodes; momentum is conserved K.E. = area of trapezium OABC = ( 3 6)( 3) = 13.5 J
changes and in uniform circular motion , K.E remains 2
72. (a) F = –5iˆ 9cos 60 iˆ 9sin 60 ˆj 3 ˆj
gs
constant but momentum changes due to change in
directions of motion. 9ˆ 9 3ˆ
58. (c) When spring oscillates, its velocity is minimum at the = –5iˆ i j 3 ˆj
9 3
2
3 ˆj
.b
position. = 2 2
59. (c) Friction is a non-conservative force. Work done by a
r8
61. (d) A force F(x) is conservative, if it can be derived from a 73. (c) W = area of F – x graph
scalar quantity V(x) by the relation given by eq, = area of + area of rectangle + area of
no
dU
W = Kf – Ki = V(Xi) – V(Xf) 74. (d) |F | = , which is greatest in the reagion CD.
dx
which depends on the end points.
.te
x x 1 2
A third definition states that the work done by this 75. (a) U Fdx kxdx kx .
0 0 2
force in a closed path is zero. This is once again apparent
w
om
This relationship is valid for particle as well as and partly potential. So K.E. is less than the total
system of particles. energy. The energy spent against friction is dissipated
as heat which is not available for doing work.
1 2
t.c
85. (a) K = mv K v2
2 CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
If velocity is doubled the K.E. will be quadrupled
po
103. (d) Though an equal and opposite force acts on the road
1
86. (a) K.E. = mv 2 if V is tripled then K.E. = v2 = (3)2 but since road does not undergo any displacement,
2
gs
hence no work is done on the road.
87. (c) K.E. can be increased or decreased without applying 104. (c) Motion without slipping implies pure rolling. During
any external force, as internal forces can do work e.g., pure rolling work done by friction force is zero.
explosion of a bomb.
lo dx
88. (b) 3 8 t 3t 2
.b
105. (a) x = 3t –4t2 + t3
89. (a) dt
r8
1 2
90. (d) Potential energy U kx i.e. U x2 d 2x
2 Acceleration = 8 6t
be
dt 2
This is a equation of parabola, so graph between U
and x is a parabola not a straight line. Acceleration after 4 sec = –8 + 6 × 4 = 16
cy
94. (a) Both reason and assertion are true and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion. r1 = 2i k , r2 = 4i 3j k
.te
W K
95. (a) Power = nK
t 1/ n r = r2 r1 = 4i 3j k – 2i k
w
96. (d) Work done and power developed one zero in uniform
or r = 2i 3j – 2k
w
P2 P2 = 3i j . 2i 3j 2k = 6 + 3 = 9J
98. (d) Maximum energy loss =
2m 2(m M)
107. (c) here, m = 4 , g = 4 × 10–3 kg
2
P 1
K.E. mv2 x 4t 2 t
2m 2
dx d2 x
P2 M 1 M 8t 1 8
mv 2 dt dt 2
2m (m M) 2 m M
WORK, ENERGY AND POWER 89
114. (a) In this case the boy has done work (see the fig.) against
d 2 x dx
Work done, W fdx m dt force of gravity acting on the weight and this work is
dt 2 dt stored in weight in the form of gravitational potential
2
energy (work done on weight = mgh = gravitation P.E
(4 10 3 )(8)(8 t 1) dt of weight).
0
2 2
3 3 8t 2
32 10 (8t 1)dt 32 10 t
2
0 0 h
= 32 × 10–3 [4(2)2 + 2 – 0] = 576 mJ
om
108. (d) The average speed of the athelete ground
boy
100 115. (d) For any uniform rod, the mass is supposed to be
v 10m / s
t.c
10 concentrated at its centre.
height of the mass from ground is, h = (l/2) sin 30º
1
K.E. mv 2 Potential energy of the rod
po
2
m g sin 30º
1 2
40 (10) 2 l
gs
If mass is 40 kg then, K.E. 2000 J 60º
2 m
1 mg
If mass is 100 kg then, m g 30º
lo 2 2 4
1
K.E. 100 (10) 2 5000 J
.b
2
m
dk /2
r8
k t v t
dk 116. (a) 1 1 2 mv2 = kx2 or m × (1.5)2 = 50 × (0.15)2
Also, P Fv constant mv 2 kx
cy
dt 2 2
1 1 m = 0.5 kg
no
F F
v t 117. (b) Let the blow compress the spring by x before stopping.
Kinetic energy of the block = (P.E of compressed spring)
p2
ch
( 15) x
K1 m2 5 2 2
K2 m1 4 10,000 x2 + 30x – 32 = 0
w
F – fr = ma
(15)2 4 (5000)( 16)
w
100 – 40 = ma 15
x
Now kinetic energy gained is = ma × d 2 5000
= 60 × 5 = 300 J
112. (b) = 0.055m = 5.5cm.
113. (a) This condition is applicable for simple harmonic 118. (d) According to Hooke's law, FP = – kI xP
motion. As particle moves form mean position to FP kP xP
extreme position its potential energy increases FQ = – kQxQ or F kQ xQ
Q
1 2
according to expression U kx and according xP kQ
2
kinetic energy decreases. FP = FQ (Given) xQ kP
EBD_7208
90 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
Using conservation of energy,
1 2
Energy stored in a spring is U kx
2 1 2
m (10 × 100) m v 10 20
2
2
UP k P x P2 kP kQ
2
UQ kQ xQ kQ k P2 1 2
or v 800 or v = 1600 = 40 m/s
2
UP kQ kP
kQ Alternative method :
UQ kP 2 Loss in potential energy = gain in kinetic energy
om
1
m g 80 mv2
2 2
UQ E 1 2
t.c
or UP ( UQ = E) 10 80 v
2 2 2
119. (c) From Hooke’s law v2 = 1600 or v = 40 m/s
po
F x F = kx., where k is spring constant 124. (b) According to principle of conservation of energy
Potential energy = kinetic energy
gs
Since force is same in stretching for both spring so
F=k1x1 = k2x2 x1<x2 because k1>k2 1
mgh mv2 v 2gh
1 W x1
W2 k 2 x 22 so 1 W1 W2 Loss in velocity, v v1 – v 2 2gh 1 – 2gh 2
be
2 W2 x2
fractional loss in velocity
It means that more work is done in case of second
cy
5 5
block tied to it, which is equal to ½kx2, so both option
(a) & b are correct. 125. (b) u = 0; v = u + aT; v = aT
.te
1 2 2
121. (d) P.E. = kx Instantaneous power = F × v = m. a. at = m. a . t
2
w
1 1 v2
If x = 4x, then P.E = k(16x2) = 16 kx 2 Instantaneous power = m t
w
2 2 T2
126. (d)
w
om
2 0.1u + m(0) = 0.1(0) + m(3)
v
m 0.1u = 3m
t.c
1 1
m 0.1u 2 m(3)2
v 2 2
po
Solving we get, u = 3
2m
v1 2
1 2 1 x 1
As two masses of each of mass m move perpendicular kx K (0.1)32
gs
2 2 2 2
to each other.
Total KE generated 3 2
1
= mv
2
mv 2 1
(2m)v12
lo 4
kx 0.9
.b
2 2 2 3 1 2
kx 0.9
2 2
r8
mv2 3 2
= mv2 mv
2 2 1 2
Kx J total initial energy of the spring
be
dw 2
131. (d) As we know power P =
dt 135. (b) As we know, dU = F.dr
1
cy
w = Pt = mV 2
2 r
ar 3
U r 2 dr ...(i)
2Pt 3
no
So, v = 0
m
dV 2P 1 mv 2
r2
ch
2Km 2 1 Km mK –1/2 1 3
= ma = . t or, 2m(KE) = r ...(ii)
m 2 t 2t 2 2
w
mgh r3 r3 5 3
Therefore power of A, PA = t = r
A 3 2 6
136. (c) Let E be the total energy then
mgh
and power of B, PB = t P.E mgh 2 5
B = = E= mgh
K .E E mgh 3 2
PA tB 4 When velocity is double then inital energy becomes
2 :1 4E.
PB tA 2
EBD_7208
92 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
om
B
1 1 v2
i.e., K = Mv 2 I 2
2 2
t.c
(a) By law of conservation of momentum
1 2 12 2
= Mv MR 2 2 I solid sphere MR 2 (i) along x axis
2 25 5
po
mu1 0 mv1 cos mv 2 cos .........(i)
1 2 1
= Mv Mv 2 ( v=R ) (ii) along y axis
2 5
gs
7 7 0 mv1 sin mv 2 sin . ........(ii)
= Mv 2 0.3 52 5.25 J
10 10 (b) By law of conservation of energy
lo
138. (a) Let the bullet be fired with velocity .
For 20 cm penetration of bullet 1 1 1
.b
mu 12 mv12 mv 22 u12 v12 v 22 .......(iii)
using v2 – u2 = 2as 2 2 2
r8
2
collision, then
0– 2ax
2
(m1 m 2 ) 2m 2 u 2
.te
2 2 v1 u1
160 m1 m 2 (m1 m 2 )
or x=– 6.66 cm (using eq. (i))
8a 3 2 8
w
m1 m 2 m1 m 2
139. (c) Work done in stretching the rubber-band by a distance
w
v2 v1 v2 v1 1 v1 / v 2 1 m1m2 2
Also, e , Ek u1 u 2
u1 v2 v1 1 v1 / v 2 2 m1 m 2
om
2m = mv1' + 2mv2' ... (ii)
Fractional loss
v2 ' v1 '
1 1 From (i), 0.5 =
m1u12 m1v12
t.c
2
Ki Kf 2 2
Ki 1 v2' = 1 + v1'
m1u12
po
2 From (ii), 2 = v1'+ 2 + 2 v1'
v1 = 0 and v2 = 1 ms–1
2
v12
gs
m1 m 2 4m1m 2 147. (a) As the two masses stick together after collision, hence
1 1
u12 m1 m 2 2
m1 m 2 2 it is inelastic collision. Therefore, only momentum is
conserved.
lo
Kf 4n
m2 m ; m1 nm 1 2v
.b
Ki 2
1 n
r8
3m
2
1 4n 1 n2 2n n 2 1 2n 0
1 n
mviˆ 3m(2v)ˆj (4m)v
cy
2 n 1 ie. m 2 m , m1 m
n 1 0 vˆ 6 ˆ
v i vj
Transfer will be maximum when both masses are equal 4 4
no
1 1 1
v=
(m1 m 2 ) K.Ei mu 2 M(0) 2 0.5 2 2 0 1J
2 2 2
Here v1 = 36 km/hr = 10 m/s, For collision, applying conservation of linear momentum
w
m1 = 2 kg, m2 = 3 kg m × u = (m + M) × v
w
10 2 0.5 2 (0.5 1) v
v 4 m/s
w
5 2
vm/s
1 3
K.E. (initial) = 2 (10) 2 100 J
2 Final kinetic energy of the system is
1 1 1 2 2 1
K.E. (Final) = (3 2 ) ( 4 ) 2 40 J K.E f (m M)v 2 (0.5 1) J
2 2 2 3 3 3
Loss in K.E. = 100 – 40 = 60 J
1
Alternatively use the formula Energy loss during collision 1 J 0.67J
3
EBD_7208
94 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER
149. (d) For collision V B/A should be along B A rA/B 151. (a) When ball collides with the ground it loses its 50% of
energy
V 2 V1 r1 r2 1
So, KEf 1 mVf2
V2 V1 r1 r2 2 1
KEi 2 1 2
mVi2 M
V1 V2 2
Vf 1
or V
i 2
A B
A B 2gh 1
or, M
V02 2gh 2
om
150. (d) Here, M1 = M2 and u2 = 0
V or, 4gh = V02 2gh
u1 = V, V1 = ; V2 = ?
3 = 20ms–1
t.c
V0
V1=V/3
Y
po
pf = 3 m V
u2=0 M1
u1=V
M1 M2 m pi
2v 45°
gs
M2 152. (a) X
Vcombined
+ = = 90° 3
2
Loss in energy
ch
2
and u1 V12 V22 1 1 1
E m1V12 m2V22 2
(m1 m2 )Vcombined
2 2 2 2
.te
V V
V2 = V22 u1 V and V1
3 3 4 2 5 2
E 3mv2 mv mv = 55.55%
3 3
w
2
V Percentage loss in energy during the collision 56%
or, V2 – = V22
w
V2
w
V2 = V22
9
8 2 2 2
or V22 = V V2 = V
9 3
7
SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND
ROTATIONAL MOTION
om
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 10. The position of centre of mass of a system of particles does
t.c
not depend upon the
1. The centre of mass of a body is the average position of its (a) mass of particles
(a) mass (b) weight (b) symmetry of the body
po
(c) either mass or weight (d) None of these (c) position of the particles
2. The centre of mass of a body (d) relative distance between the particles
(a) lies always outside the body 11. In rotatory motion, linear velocities of all the particles of the
gs
(b) may lie within, outside on the surface of the body
body are
(c) lies always inside the body
(a) same
lo (b) different
(d) lies always on the surface of the body
3. Position vector of centre of mass of two particles system is (c) zero (d) cannot say
12. Which of the following is invalid equation? (where , , L
.b
given by
and have their usual meanings)
m1 r1 m 2 r2 m 1 r1 .m 2 r2
r8
(a) total external forces (b) total internal forces (c) torque (d) linear momentum
(c) sum of (a) and (b) (d) None of these 14. Which component of force contributes to the torque?
no
(c) neither (a) nor (b) (d) either (a) or (b) (c) Both (a) and (b)
6. The sum of moments of all the particles in a system about (d) Either radial or transverse
the centre of mass is always 15. The wide handle of screw is based upon
.te
om
The motion of a rigid body which is not pivoted or fixed in (b) translational
some way is either a pure ...A... or a combination of translation (c) rotational and translational in general
and rotation. The motion of a rigid body which is pivoted or (d) None of the above
fixed in some way is ...B... 30.
t.c
Moment of inertia of a circular wire of mass M and radius R
Here, A and B refer to about its diameter is
(a) rotation and translation (a) MR2/2 (b) MR2
po
(b) translation and rotation (c) 2MR 2 (d) MR2/4.
(c) translation and the combination of rotation and 31. Moment of inertia does not depend upon
(a) angular velocity of body
gs
translation
(d) None of the above (b) shape and size
22. The moment of inertia of a ...A... body about an axis ...B... to (c) mass
its plane is equal to the sum of its moments of inertia about
two ...C... axes concurrent with perpendicular axis and lying 32.
lo
(d) position of axis of rotation
Moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder of mass M and radius
.b
in the plane of the body. r about its own axis is
Here, A, B and C refer to 2 2
r8
(a) Mr 2 (b) Mr 2
(a) three dimensional, perpendicular and perpendicular 3 5
(b) planar, perpendicular and parallel 1 2
be
23. During summersault, a swimmer bends his body to when each of them has the same mass and the same outer
(a) increase moment of Inertia radius
(a) a ring about its axis, perpendicular to the plane of the
no
24. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius ‘R’ ring
and mass ‘M’ about an axis passing from the edge of the disc (c) a solid sphere about one of its diameters
(d) a spherical shell about one of its diameters
.te
(c) MR (d) MR
2 2 gyration k and mass M of the body is
25. Rotational analogue of force in linear motion is (a) K = I2M (b) K = IM2
w
om
40. What is the moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its 49. The angular momentum of a system of particle is conserved
diameter? (a) when no external force acts upon the system
2 1 (b) when no external torque acts upon the system
MR2 MR2
t.c
(a) (b)
5 5 (c) when no external impulse acts upon the system
2 (d) when axis of rotation remains same
(c) MR2 (d) MR2
po
3 50. Angular momentum of the particle rotating with a central
41. If Ixy is the moment of inertia of a ring about a tangent in the force is constant due to
plane of the ring and Ix y is the moment of inertia of a ring
gs
(a) constant torque
about a tangent perpendicular to the plane of the ring then
(b) constant force
1
(a) Ixy = Ix y (b) Ixy = I (c) constant linear momentum
lo
2 xy
(d) zero torque
3 3
.b
(c) Ix y = I (d) Ixy = Ix y 51. When a body starts to roll on an inclined plane, its potential
4 xy 4
energy is converted into
42. Moment of inertia of a rigid body depends on
r8
1 3
(a) MR2 (b) MR2 (a) rough horizontal surface
2 2
(b) smooth horizontal surface
no
53. A fan is moving around its axis, What will be its motion
mechanical equilibrium of a body? regarded as ?
(a) Total force on the body should be zero (a) Pure rolling (b) Rolling with shipping
.te
(b) Total torque on the body should be zero (c) Skidding (d) Pure rotation
(c) Both (a) and (b) 54. A sphere rolls on a rough horizontal surface and stops. What
(d) Total linear momentum should be zero does the force of friction do?
w
45. Which of the following is incorrect? (a) It decreases the angular velocity
(a) (b)
w
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS II. If A points vertically upwards and B points towards
east then, A B points along South
56. Consider the following statements and select the correct
statements. (a) I only (b) II only
I. The position of centre of mass depends upon the shape (c) I and II (d) None of these
of the body 62. Select the correct statement(s) from the following.
II. The position of centre of mass depends upon the I. Moment of inertia is a scalar quantity
distribution of mass II. Angular acceleration requires torque
III. The positon of centre of mass is independent of the III. The rotational equivalent of distance is radius
co-ordinate system chosen IV. State of rest or motion of centre of mass can never be
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only changed
(c) I and III only (d) I, II and III (a) I only (b) II only
om
57. Which of the following statements are incorrect about centre (c) I and II (d) II and IV
of mass? 63. Consider the following statements and select the correct
I. Centre of mass can coincide with geometrical centre of statement(s).
t.c
a body I. Two satellites of equal masses orbiting the earth at
II. Centre of mass of a system of two particles does not different heights have equal moments of inertia
II. If earth were to shrink suddenly, length of the day will
po
always lie on the line joining the particles
III. Centre of mass should always lie on the body. increase
(a) II and III (b) I and II III. Centre of gravity cannot coincide with centre of mass
gs
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III (a) I only (b) II only
58. Consider the following statements and choose the correct (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
option. lo
I. Position vector of centre of mass of two particles of MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
.b
equal mass is equal to the position vector of either
64. Match Column I and Column II
particle.
Column I Column II
r8
II. Linear velocity is a vector quantity (C) Angular momentum (3) The root mean square
III. About a fixed axis, angular velocity has fixed direction distance of the particles from
ch
IV. Every point on a rigid rotating body has different the axis of rotation
angular velocity (D) Torque (4) The product of force and its
(a) I only (b) II only perpendicular distance
.te
(c) II and III (d) III and IV (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
60. Consider the following statements and select the correct (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
w
option.
I. Moment of a couple depends on the point about which (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (3)
w
F1 and F2 are perpendicular to the lever (B) Rate of change of (2) Rotatory motion
III. Centre of mass depends on the gravity angular momentum
IV. Centre of mass depends on the distribution of mass of (C) Hollow cylinder (3) Iz + Ma2
the body about axis
(a) I and II (b) III and IV (D) Theorem of parallel (4) MR2
(c) I, II and III (d) IV only axes
61. Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect (a) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (2)
statement(s). (b) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
I. A body in translatory motion cannot have angular (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (3)
momentum (d) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (2); (D) (4)
SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION 99
66. Column I Column II Column I Column II
(A) Translational equilibrium (1) F= 0 (A) Circular ring (1) 1/2
(B) Moment of inertia of disc (2) MR2
(B) Circular disc (2) 1
1 2
(C) Rotational equilibrium (3) I (C) Solid sphere (3) 3/2
2
(D) Spherical shell (4) 2
1 1
(D) Kinetic energy of rolling (4) mVcm2 + I 2
(5) 5/2
2 2
body (5) =0 (a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
(E) Moment of inertia of ring (6) MR2/2 (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3)
(a) (A) (1); (B) (6); C (5); (D) (4); (E) (2) (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); C (5); (D) (3)
om
(b) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1); (E) (6) (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (5); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (6); (B) (5); C (3); (D) (4); (E) (2) 70. A rigid body of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping
(d) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (5); (E) (6) on an inclined plane of inclination , under gravity. Match
t.c
67. Match Column I and Column II. the type of body Column I with magnitude of the force of
Column I Column II friction Column II
(Quantity) (Expression) Column I Column II
po
(A) Angular momentum (1) r (mv )
(A) For ring (1) Mg sin
gs
1 2 2.5
(B) Impulse (2) I
2
(C) Torque (3) lo Mg sin
r F (B) For solid sphere (2)
3
(D) Rotational energy (4) m v
.b
(a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3) Mg sin
(b) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (3) (C) For solid cylinder (3)
r8
3.5
(c) (A) (2,4); (B) (1); C (5); (D) (3)
(d) (A) (1); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (2) Mg sin
be
2
(D) Moment of inertia of disc about (4) MR2
w
5
tangent in the plane of disc.
w
5
(5) MR2 s2
4
(a) (A) (3,2); (B) (3); C (5); (D) (4) (a) motion of the CM and motion about the CM
(b) (A) (5); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3) (b) motion about the CM and motion of one star
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (5) (c) position of the CM and motion of the CM
(d) (A) (4); (B) (5); C (2); (D) (1) (d) motion about CM and position of one star
69. Match Column I (Body rolling on a surface without slipping) 72. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc (figure) is
with Column II (Ratio of Translational energy to Rotational maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and passing
energy. through
EBD_7208
100 SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTAATIONAL MOTION
76. The moment of inertia of the rectangular plate
C ABCD, (AB = 2 BC) is minimum along the axis
(a) G H
D
B (b) E F
A
(c) B C
(d) A C
77. A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod
(a) B (b) C is kept horizontal by a massless string tied to point Q as
(c) D (d) A shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular
73. A uniform square plate has a small piece Q of an irregular acceleration of the rod is
shape removed and glued to the centre of the plate leaving
om
a hole behind. Then the moment of inertia about the z-axis
y y
t.c
Hole
Q
po
x x
(a) g /L (b) 2g/L
gs
2g 3g
(a) increases (c) (d)
3L 2L
(b) decreases lo
(c) remains same 78. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal plane
with velocity v0 at a radius R0. The mass is attached to
.b
(d) changed in unpredicted manner.
74. Three particles, each of mass m gram, are situated at the string which passes through a smooth hole in the plane as
shown.
r8
3 2
(a) m
2 X
no
m C
The tension in the string is increased gradually and finally
3 2 R
(b) m mass m moves in a circle of radius 0 . The final value of
4 2
ch
B (a)
5 2 A 4
(d) m
4 m l m
1 2
w
75. Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius r (c) mv0 (d) mv02
2
are placed as shown in figure. Consider an axis XX' which is
w
shell. Moment of inertia of the system consisting of these Let Vp, Vq and Vc be the magnitude of velocities of points P, Q
three spherical shells about XX' axis is and C respectively, then
(a) 3mr2 X
16 2 Q
(b) mr C
5 P
(c) 4mr2
11 2 X (a) VQ > VC > VP (b) VQ < VC < VP
(d) mr
5 1
(c) VQ = VP , VC VP (d) VQ < VC > VP
2
SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION 101
90. Assertion : For a system of particles under central force
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
field, the total angular momentum is conserved.
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, Reason : The torque acting on such a system is zero.
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four 91. Assertion : It is harder to open and shut the door if we
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You apply force near the hinge.
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Reason : Torque is maximum at hinge of the door.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct 92. Assertion : Torque is equal to rate of change of angular
explanation for assertion. momentum.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a Reason : Angular momentum depends on moment of
correct explanation for assertion inertia and angular velocity.
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect 93. Assertion: When no external torque acts on a body, its
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. angular velocity remains constant as long as moment of
om
inertia is constant.
80. Assertion: Centre of mass of a ring lies at its geometric
dL
centre though there is no mass. Reason: Torque = 0; = 0, L = constant.
dt
Reason: Centre of mass is independent of mass.
t.c
L = I = constant
81. Assertion : When you lean behind over the hind legs of the 94. Assertion: Torque is a vector quantity directed opposite to
chair, the chair falls back after a certain angle. the applied force.
po
Reason : Centre of mass lying outside the system makes the
Reason: Torque = r F
system unstable.
95. Assertion: When axis of rotation passes through the centre
gs
82. Assertion : The centre of mass of a two particle system of gravity, then the moment of inertia of a rigid body
lies on the line joining the two particle, being closer to the increases.
heavier particle. Reason: At the centre of gravity mass gets concentrated
lo
Reason : Product of mass of particle and its distance from and moment of inertia increases.
centre of mass is numerically equal to product of mass of 96. Assertion: An ice-skater stretches out arms-legs during
.b
other particle and its distance from centre of mass. performance.
83. Assertion : The centre of mass of system of n particles Reason: Stretching out arms-legs helps the performer to
r8
is the weighted average of the position vector of the n balance his or her body so that he or she does not fall.
particles making up the system. 97. Assertion : If polar ice melts, days will be longer.
be
Reason : The position of the centre of mass of a system Reason : Moment of inertia decreases and thus angular
in independent of coordinate system. velocity increases.
84. Assertion : The centre of mass of an isolated system has 98. Assertion : Moment of inertia of a particle is same,
cy
Reason : Centre of mass of body is a point, where the Reason : The radius of gyration of a body about an axis
whole mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated. of rotation may be defined as the root mean square
86. Assertion : The position of centre of mass of body distance of the particle from the axis of rotation.
.te
depend upon shape and size of the body. 100. Assertion: A rigid disc rolls without slipping on a fixed rough
Reason : Centre of mass of a body lies always at the horizontal surface with uniform angular velocity. Then the
centre of the body
w
particles, then the centre of mass will not move in any rough horizontal surface, the velocity of the lowest point on
direction.
the disc is always zero.
w
om
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x = 70 cm. The distance of the centre
of mass from the origin is
105. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) attract each
other with a force inversely proportional to the square of the (a) 40 cm (b) 45 cm
t.c
distance between them. If the particles are initially held at (c) 50 cm (d) 30 cm
rest and then released, the centre of mass will 112. A body A of mass M while falling vertically downwards
1
po
(a) move towards m1 (b) move towards m2 under gravity breaks into two parts; a body B of mass M
(c) remains at rest (d) None of these 3
2
106. A shell following a parabolic path explodes somewhere in its and a body C of mass M. The centre of mass of bodies B
gs
3
flight. The centre of mass of fragments will continue to move and C taken together shifts compared to that of body A
in
(a) vertical direction (b) any direction
(c) horizontal direction (d) same parabolic path
lo
(a) does not shift
(b) depends on height of breaking
.b
107. A man stands at one end of a boat which is stationary in (c) towards body B
water. Neglect water resistance. The man now moves to the
(d) towards body C
r8
(a) ,1 (b) ,
the ‘compartment plus passengers’ system is C2. If the 3 3 3
passengers move about inside the compartment then
1 1 4
.te
(a) both C1 and C2 will move with respect to the ground (c) , (d) 1,
2 2 3
(b) neither C1 nor C2 will be stationary with respect to the
ground 115. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating
w
(c) C1 will move but C2 will be stationary with respect to wheel is given by the equation (t) = 2t3 – 6t2. The torque on
the wheel becomes zero at
w
the ground
(d) C2 will move but C1 will be stationary with respect to (a) t = 1s (b) t = 0.5 s
w
om
18 15
119. When sand is poured on a rotating disc, its angular
velocity will
(c) Nm (d) Nm
(a) decrease (b) increase 12 15
t.c
(c) remain constant (d) None of the above
128. A round disc of moment of inertia I 2 about its axis
120. A disc is given a linear velocity on a rough horizontal surface
perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre is
po
then its angular momentum is
placed over another disc of moment of inertia I1 rotating
(a) conserved about COM only
with an angular velocity about the same axis. The final
(b) conserved about the point of contact only
gs
angular velocity of the combination of discs is
(c) conserved about all the points
(d) not conserved about any point. (I1 I 2 ) I2
121. Standing on a turn table, you are rotating holding weights
in your hands outstretched horizontally, If you suddenly
(a) lo I1
(b)
I1 I 2
.b
draw your hands and weights towards your chest, you I1
will now (c) (d)
r8
I1 I 2
(a) stop rotating (b) rotate as before
(c) rotate slower (d) rotate faster 129. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a
be
122. Of the two eggs which have identical sizes, shapes and tangential axis in the plane of the disc and of a circular ring
weights, one is raw, and other is half boiled. The ratio between of the same radius about a tangential axis in the plane of the
cy
the moment of inertia of the raw to the half boiled egg about ring is
central axis is (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
no
When she pulls her arms and legs in energies of rotation are equal, their angular momenta will be
(a) the angular velocity decreases in the ratio
.te
same mass and same outer radii, Their moments of inertia length L about an axis passing through its midpoint and
about their diameters are respectively IA and IB, such that
w
om
(c) (d) ma
12 3 (a) 25 N (b) 50 N
134. Point masses 1, 2, 3 and 4 kg are lying at the points (0, 0, 0), (c) 78.5 N (d) 157 N
(2, 0, 0), (0, 3, 0) and (–2, –2, 0) respectively. The moment of 140. A rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife edges
t.c
inertia of this system about X-axis will be A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal position. The
(a) 43 kg m2 (b) 34 kg m2 knives are at a distance d from each other. The centre of
2 (d) 72 kg m2
po
(c) 27 kg m mass of the rod is at distance x from A. The normal reaction
135. The moment of inertia of a circular disc of mass M and on A is
radius R about an axis passing through the centre of mass is
gs
I0. The moment of inertia of another circular disc of same Wd W(d – x)
(a) (b)
mass and thickness but half the density about the same axis x x
is
I0 I0 (c)
lo
W(d – x)
(d)
Wx
.b
(a) (b) d d
8 4
(c) 8I0 (d) 2I0 141. A uniform solid cylindrical roller of mass ‘m’ is being pulled
r8
136. An automobile moves on a road with a speed of 54 km h -1. on a horizontal surface with force F parallel to the surface and
The radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and the moment of inertia applied at its centre. If the acceleration of the cylinder is ‘a’
be
of the wheel about its axis of rotation is 3 kg m2. If the and it is rolling without slipping then the value of ‘F’ is
vehicle is brought to rest in 15s, the magnitude of average
5
cy
3
137. Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the opposite ends of (c) ma (d) 2 ma
2
a rigid rod of length L, and negligible mass. The rod is to be
142. Consider a thin uniform square sheet made of a rigid material.
ch
ma 2 ma 2
w
(c) I (d) I
m1 P m2 24 12
w
om
About the point of suspension:
the velocity of P is v and that of Q is 2v, the velocity of (a) angular momentum is conserved.
centre of mass of the system is (b) angular momentum changes in magnitude but not in
(a) v (b) 3v
t.c
direction.
(c) 2v (d) zero (c) angular momentum changes in direction but not in
146. A body rolls down an inclined plane. If its kinetic energy of magnitude.
po
rotation is 40% of its kinetic energy of translation motion, (d) angular momentum changes both in direction and
then the body is magnitude.
gs
(a) hollow cylinder (b) ring 152. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 0.1 m rolls down an
(c) solid disc (d) solid sphere inclined plane of height 3m without slipping. Its rotational
147. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube of lo
kinetic energy when it reaches the foot of the plane would
maximum possible volume is cut. Moment of inertia of cube be :
.b
about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular (a) 22.7 J (b) 19.6 J
to one of its faces is (c) 10.2 J (d) 9.8 J
r8
4MR 2 4MR 2 153. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material
(a) (b)
9 3 3 3 and of a same size can be distinguished without weighing
be
148. Two discs rotating about their respective axis of rotation (c) by rotating them about a common axis of rotation
with angular speeds 2 rads–1 and 5 rads–1 are brought into (d) by applying equal torque on them
no
contact such that their axes of rotation coincide. Now, the 154. A solid sphere rolls down two different inclined planes of
angular speed of the system becomes 4 rads–1. If the moment same height, but of different inclinations. In both cases
(a) speed and time of descent will be same
ch
power is switched off, it comes to rest in 2 minutes. Then 155. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass ‘m’
w
the angular retardation in rad s–1 is and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline of angle ‘ ’ without
(a) 2 (b) slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is
w
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 2 : 3
(c) (d) (c) 2 : 5 (d) 7 : 5
2 4
EBD_7208
106 SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTAATIONAL MOTION
om
mass ‘M’ about an axis passing through C.M. and
and their respective position vectors i.e. normal to the disc is
(m1 m 2 ) R m1 r2 m r r2 1 2
I C.M. MR
4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a)
t.c
2
8. (c) 9. (a)
10. (d) The position of centre of mass of a system depends
po
upon mass, relative distance, position and symmetry
of the body.
mi ri
gs
RCM =
mi
11. (b) From v = r , linear velocities (v) for particles at different
12.
distances (r) from the axis of rotation are different.
(a) Since torque is rotational analogue of force F and
lo
.b
F = mass × acceleration, therefore torque = moment From parallel axis theorem
of inertia xangular acceleration (I ) as moment of inertia 1 3
MR 2 MR 2 MR 2 MR 2
r8
IT I C.M .
is rotational analogue of mass. 2 2
13. (c) In analogy to Newton’s second law of motion in linear 25. (d) Force in linear motion corresponds to torque in
be
15. (c) Turning moment of force = Force × distance from the plane perpendicular to the axis and has its centre on
axis of rotation. the axis.
Thus a small force is required to produce a given turning 28. (c)
ch
moment, when distance is large. That is why handle of 29. (c) Force changes the linear momentum of the body. The
a screw is made wider. external force (or force) change the translational motion
16. (a) P = . (P = FV in translational motion) of the rigid body. But this is not the only effect of the
.te
Since = I force. The total torque due to the force on the body
P= I changes the rotational state of motion of the rigid body.
17. (a) From L = I , we find that angular momentum is directly 30. (a)
w
linear motion. n
19. (b) As L = I = constant, therefore, when I decreases, by I m i ri2
w
i 1
will increase.
20. (d) As angular momentum, L r p , therefore, direction
mi
of L is along a line perpendicular to the plane of ri
rotation.
21. (b) The motion of a rigid body which is not pivoted or
fixed in some way is either a pure translation or a
combination of translation and rotation. The motion of where m i is the mass of i th particle at a distance of ri
a rigid body which is pivoted or fixed in some way is
from axis of rotation.
rotation.
Thus it does not depend on angular velocity.
SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION 107
32. (d) Moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder of mass M and 47. (a) Angular momentum of particle is given by :
2
radius r about its own axis is Mr .
L = I = mr2 = 2 mr2f [ W 2 f]
33. (a)
(a) Moment of inertia of a ring about its axis and If frequency is halved then,
perpendicular to its plane = Mr2
(b) Moment of inertia of disc about its axis and L I mr 2 mr 2f
1 2
perpendicular to its plane = Mr 2 = 0.5 Mr2
2 L
(c) Moment of inertia of a solid sphere about one of its L
2
2
diameter = Mr 2 = 0.4 Mr2 48. (a) Moment of inertia of ring is greater than disc.
5
About a diameter
(d) Moment of inertia of a spherical shell about one of
1
MR 2
om
2 1ring =
its diameter = Mr 2 = 0.66 Mr2 2
3
Therefore, the moment of inertia of the ring is highest 1
34. (a) Radius of gyration of a body depends on the axis of and Idisc = MR 2
t.c
4
rotation.
35. (d) dL
49. (b) We know that ext
36. (b) Moment of inertia is a tensor quantity. dt
po
if angular momentum is conserved, it means change in
37. (d) Ratio of M.I is angular momentum = 0
MAr 2 IA or, dL 0
gs
2 IB
M B 2r dL
0 ext 0
IA 1 lodt
[ MA MB ]
IB 4 Thus total external torque = 0.
.b
IB dL c
or, I A 50. (d) We know that c
4 dt
r8
38. (a)
39. (b) Because the entire mass of a ring is at its periphery i.e. where c Torque about the center of mass of the body
at maximum distance from the centre and I = Mr 2
be
plane of ring Ixy = 2MR2 51. (b) P.E. of the body is converted into both translational KE
3 3 1 1
(2MR 2 ) = MR 2 and rotational K.E i.e., P.E Mv 2 2
ch
Ixy = I
4 2 2 2
3 52. (d)
or Ixy = I x1y1 53. (d) A rigid body performs a pure rotational motion of
.te
4
42. (d) From I = MR2, moment of inertia depends on the mass every particle of the body moves in a circle and the
and size of the body. It also depends on the distribution centres of all the circles lie on a straight line called
w
of mass, thus it depends on the shape of the body as the axis of rotation. Particles lying on the axis of
well. rotation remain stationary. Hence, motion of fan
w
43. (d) moving around the axis satisfies this criteria is purely
44. (c) A rigid body is in mechanical equilibrium if
rotational.
w
om
k2 For translational equilibrium, total ext force = 0
1
R2 F 0
Thus it is independent of the mass of the bodies.
t.c
MR 2
For ring, k2 = R2 Moment of inertia of disc =
2
V= gh For rotational equilibrium, net external torque =0
po
For cylinder, k2 = R2/2 =0
Kinetic energy of rolling body = K. E. of translation +
4gh K. E. of rotation.
gs
V=
3 1 1 2
K= mVcm 2 I
For solid sphere, k2 = 2R2/5 2 2
V=
10gh 67. (d)
lo
Moment of inertia of a ring = MR2
(A) (1); (B) (4); C (3); (D) (2)
7 68. (c)
.b
(A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (5)
Thus sphere has greatest and ring has least velocity of centre 69. (d) (A) (2); (B) (4); C (5); (D) (3)
70. (a) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
r8
geometrical centre when the body has a uniform mass frame, the two stars will seems to move in a circle about
density. the CM with diametrically opposite positions.
no
58. (c) Centre of mass does not necessarily lie only where s1
there is mass. It can lie outside the body as well. For
e.g. Centre of mass of circular ring lies in the centre of s1
ch
I. A body in translatory motion shall have angular (a) Trajectories of two stars. S1 (dotted line) and S2 (solid
momentum unless the fixed point about which angular line) forming a binary system with their centre of mass
w
X
1 2
Cm Therefore, new KE = m (2V0)2 = 2mv0
O 2
60º
79. (a) VQ
v VCQ
C C
P
r r
60º
om
Am Bm O O
(I) (II)
75. (c) Moment of inertia of shell 1 along diameter From Fig. (I), we have OC = r (radius)
t.c
2 2
Therefore, v r
Idiameter = MR Since , = constant, therefore v r
3
Now, form Fig (II), it is clear that the distance,
Moment of inertia of shell 2 = m. i of shell 3
po
OP < OC < OQ VP < VC < VQ or VQ > VC > VP.
2 5
= Itengential = MR 2 MR 2 MR 2 ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
3 3
gs
X 80. (b) 81. (c)
82. (a) If centre of mass of system lies at origin then
1 lo
r cm 0
.b
2 3
y
r8
X
So, I of the system along x x1 m1 m2 x
r1 r2
be
= Idiameter + (Itengential) × 2
2 5
or, Itotal = MR 2 MR 2 2
cy
3 3
m1 r1 m2 r 2
r cm
12 m1 m2
= MR 2 4MR 2
no
3
76. (b) The distribution of mass about axis EF is minimum so m1 r1 m2 r 2 0
ch
d
84. (b) External force on the system Fext = M v
dt cm
77. (d)
w
om
momentum of the earth – moon system is conserved. part of rolling, the tangential acceleration of lowest point
90. (a) Both the assertion and reason are true. is zero and centripetal acceleration is non-zero and
For central forces, upwards). Hence assertion is false.
101. (b)
t.c
dL
0 102. (b)
dt
103. (a) In sliding down, the entire potential energy is
L = constant converted into kinetic energy. While in rolling down
po
91. (c) Torque = Force × perpendicular distance of line of some part of potential energy is converted into K.E.
action of force from the axis of rotation (d). of rotation. Therefore linear velocity acquired is less.
Hence for a given applied force, torque or true 104. (c) KN = KR + KT
gs
tendency of rotation will be high for large value of d. This equation is correct for any body which is rolling
If distance d is smaller, then greater force is required with slipping
to cause the same torque, hence it is harder to open
or shut down the door by applying a force near the
lo
For the ring and hollow cylinder only KR = KT i.e. KN
= 2KT
.b
hinge.
dL
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
r8
95. (d) The moment of inertia of a rigid body reduces to its 300 (0) 500(40) 400 70
X cm
minimum value, when the axis of rotation passes 300 500 400
ch
respectively and hence the angular velocity of spin 112. (a) Does not shift as no external force acts. The centre of
motion decreases or increases accordingly. mass of the system continues its original path. It is
w
97. (c) As the polar ice melts, water so formed flows towards only the internal forces which comes into play while
breaking.
w
om
4 R2 R2
the person decreases.
R2 R According to law of conservation of angular
x c.m
3 R2 momentum if no external torque acts on a system,
t.c
then the angular momentum of the system remains
R
x c.m conserved, ie,
3
po
L = I = constant
1 or I1 1 = I2 2
3 As the moment of inertia decreases, the angular
gs
m1x1 m 2 x 2 m 3 x 3 velocity will increase and therefore, person will rotate
114. (d) XCM
m1 m 2 m 3 faster.
122. (b) A raw egg behaves like a spherical shell and a half
lo
1 0 1 3 1 0 boiled egg behaves like a solid sphere
1
1 1 1
.b
Ir 2 / 3 m r2 5
m1 y1 m 2 y2 m3 y3 1
Is 2 3
YCM 2/5 mr
r8
m1 m 2 m3
123. (b) Since no external torque act on gymnast, so angular
1 0 1 0 1 4 4 momentum (L=I ) is conserved. After pulling her arms
be
× t = L0 { since Lf = 0}
d2 × t=I
12t 12 0
dt or × 60 = 2 × 2 × 60 /60
w
t = 1 sec. 60
116. (a) Tube may be treated as a particle of mass M at distance ( f 60rpm 2 f 2
60
w
ML 2
2 15
Centripetal force Mr
2 128. (d) Angular momentum will be conserved
117. (b) Since no external torque is applied on planet + sun
system, hence the angular momentum of the planet I1
I1 = I 1 ' + I 2 '
about the sun is constant. I1 I 2
since L = mrv
y1 y1
(i) At the nearest point, r is minimum, so v is maximum
to conserve L. 129. (d) Circular disc (1)
(ii) At the farthest point, r is maximum, so v is minimum
to conserve L.
EBD_7208
112 SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTAATIONAL MOTION
MR 2 n m
Iy
1 4
A
MR 2 5 D
Iy MR 2 MR 2
1 4 4
y2 y2
om
MR 2 n' m'
Iy
2 2 DB 2a a
Also, DO
2 2 2
MR 2
t.c
3
Iy MR 2 MR 2 According to parallel axis theorem
2 2 2 2
a Ma 2 Ma 2
Imm ' Inn ' M
po
Iy MK 12 , I y2 MK 22 2 6 2
1
Ma 2 3Ma 2 2
Ma 2
gs
K12 Iy 6 3
1
K1 : K 2 5: 6 134. (a) Moment of inertia of the whole system about the axis
K 22 Iy
2 of rotation will be equal to the sum of the moments of
2
lo
inertia of all the particles.
.b
L Y
130. (d) K L2 = 2KI L 2 KI
2I
(0, 3, 0)
r8
L1 K1 I1 K I 1 3 kg
L2 K2 I 2 K 2I 2 X
be
(0, 0, 9) (2, 0, 0)
(–2,–2, 0) 1 kg 2 kg
L1 : L2= 1 : 2 4 kg
cy
/2 2
A B then R 2 t 2
R 12 t M
2
w
R22 = 2R12
n'
w
R2 = 2R1 2R
Inn' = M.I due to the point mass at B + As we know, moment of inertia I (Radius)2
w
om
2 R
K.E. = I
2 ma
Work is minimum when I is minimum. f ...(ii)
2
I is minimum about the centre of mass
t.c
Put this value in equation (i),
So, (m1) (x) = (m2) (L – x)
ma 3ma
or, m1x = m2L – m2x ma = F – or F
2 2
po
m 2L 142. (d) For a thin uniform square sheet
x= m m
1 2 ma 2
I1 = I2 = I3 =
gs
138. (d) From Newton's second law for rotational motion, 12
dL
= , if L = constant then =0 lo
dt
So, = r F = 0 I1
.b
2iˆ 6ˆj 12kˆ ( ˆi 3jˆ 6k)
ˆ 0
I2
r8
Solving we get = –1 I3
143. (a) Angular momentum,
139. (d) Here = 2 revolutions/s2 = 4 rad/s2 (given)
be
As = I so TR = I
25
ch
(4 )
I 4
T= N = 50 N = 157 N 0.8m
R (0.5) 1m
.te
W(d – x)
NA 144. (b) Centre of mass of the rod is given by:
d
w
NA NB L
bx2
(ax ) dx
w
L
A B xcm 0
L
bx
(a )dx
d L
0
x d–x
aL2 bL2 L
a b
W 2 3 2 3
141. (c) From figure,
bL b
ma = F – f ....(i) aL a
2 2
EBD_7208
114 SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTAATIONAL MOTION
0 –
b a Angular retardation =
t
7L 3 2
Now 60 0
12 b =rad s –2
a 120 2
2 150. (a) From the relation, angular momentum, L = mvr
On solving we get, b = 2a L
145. (d) Centre of mass is at rest v=
mr
VCM = 0 Centripetal force acting on the particle
2
L
1 2 k2 2 m
mv mv mr L2
KErot 2 R2 K2 2 F=
146. (d) = = 0.4 r r mr 3
KEtrans 1 2 R 2 5 151. (c) Torque working on th e bob of mass m is,
mv
om
2 mg sin . (Direction parallel to plane of rotation
2 2 of particle)
k2 =
R
5
t.c
Therefore it is a solid sphere.
2 l l
147. (a) Here a R
po
3
4 3 m mg
R
M 3 As is perpendicular to L , direction of L changes
gs
Now,
M a3 but magnitude remains same.
1 1 2
4 3
R lo
152. (b) mgh mv 2 lw
3 3 2 2
3
. a
.b
2 2
2 1 1 MR 2 V
R mv2
3 2 2 2 R
r8
2M 1 1 2 3 2
M mv2 mv mv
3 2 4 4
be
6 mgh
2 9.8 (3 / 3) 19.6J
2 3
2M 2
no
148. (d) According to law of conservation of angular Therefore, when heights of inclines are equal, speed
momentum, of sphere will be same in both the case. But as
.te
–3 kg m2 plane, acceleration
2 = I 10
I1 2 + 1 10–3, 5 = (I1 + 1 10–3) 4 g sin
w
a1 =
2I1 + 5 10–3 = 4I1 + 4 10–3 K2
1
w
2I1 = 1 10–3 R2
1 10 –3 For solid sphere slipping on inclined plane without
I1 = 0.5 10 –3 kg m 2 rolling, acceleration
2 a2 = g sin
149. (c) Given, no. of rotation n = 1800 rpm = 1800 rps
a
Time, t = 2 minutes = 120s Therefore required ratio = 1
a2
2 1800
Initial angular speed 0= rad s –1
60 1 1 5
= 60 rad s–1 = 2 2
K 7
Final angular speed (as wheel comes to rest) 1 1
=0 R2 5
8
GRAVITATION
om
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 8. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and
t.c
the gravitational force between them is F. The space
1. Newton's universal law of gravitation applies to around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific
(a) small bodies only gravity 3. The gravitational force will now be
po
(b) planets only (a) 3 F (b) F
(c) both small and big bodies
F F
gs
(d) only valid for solar system (c) (d)
3 9
2. For a particle inside a uniform spherical shell, the
gravitational force on the particle is 9. Consider Earth to be a homogeneous sphere. Scientist A
(a) infinite (b) zero
lo
goes deep down in a mine and scientist B goes high up in a
balloon. The gravitational field measured by
.b
G m1 m2 G m1 m2
(c) (d) (a) A goes on decreasing and that by B goes on increasing
2
r r2 (b) B goes on decreasing and that by A goes on increasing
r8
3. The value of G varies with (c) each decreases at the same rate
(a) height above the earth's surface (d) each decreases at different rates
be
(b) depth below the ground 10. In some region, the gravitational field is zero. The
(c) radius of the planet gravitational potential in this region.
(d) None of these
cy
(c) 2 (d) no fixed number 13. Earth is flattened at poles, bulged at the equator. This is due
6. Who among the following gave first the experimental value to
of G
w
(c) Brok Taylor (d) None of these (b) the angular velocity of spinning about its axis is more
7. Mass of the Earth has been determined through at equator
w
om
17. Intensity of the gravitational field inside the hollow of a planet is a consequence of the law of conservation of
spherical shell is
(a) variable (b) minimum (a) energy (b) angular momentum
(c) maximum (d) zero (c) linear momentum (d) None of these
t.c
18. The value of acceleration due to gravity on moving from 29. In planetary motion, the angular momentum conservation
equator to poles will leads to the law of
po
(a) decrease (b) increase (a) orbits
(c) remain same (d) become half
(b) areas
19. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is
(c) periods
gs
(a) zero
(b) infinite (d) conservation of kinetic energy
(c) same as on the surface of earth 30. Weightlessness experienced while orbiting the earth in
lo
(d) None of these spaceship is the result of
20. In motion of an object under the influence of gravitational
.b
(a) inertia
force of another object, which of the following quantity is (b) acceleration
not conserved?
r8
(c) Total mechanical energy 31. If the earth is at one-fourth of its present distance from the
(d) None of these sun, the duration of the year will be
21. As we go down below the earth's surface, the acceleration (a) half the present year
cy
due to gravity decreases by a factor (d distance, R (b) one-eighth the present year
radius of earth) (c) one-sixth the present year
no
d
(c) 1 (d) remains constant
R (a) zero (b)
22. There is no atmosphere on moon, because of (c) T (d) 2 T
.te
(a) smaller value of G (b) smaller value of g 33. Which of the following is always positive?
(c) smaller value of R (d) smaller value of m (a) Potential energy of an object
23. If measured by a spring balance, then 1 kg of salt will weigh (b) Total energy of a satellite
w
36. The relay satellite transmits the TV programme 44. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit near a planet is
continuously from one part of the world to another because independent of
its (a) the mass of the planet
(a) period is greater than the period of rotation of the earth
(b) the radius of the planet
(b) period is less than the period of rotation of the earth
about its axis (c) the mass of the satellite
(c) period has no relation with the period of the earth (d) All of the above
about its axis 45. If a satellite is orbiting the earth very close to its surface, then
(d) period is equal to the period of rotation of the earth the orbital velocity mainly depends on
about its axis
(a) the mass of the satellite
37. To an astronaut in a spaceship the sky appears black due to
(a) absence of atmosphere in his neighbourhood (b) the radius of earth
om
(b) light from the sky is absorbed by the medium (c) the orbital radius
surrounding him (d) the mass of earth
(c) the fact at that height, sky radiations are only in the 46. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving
t.c
infra-red and the ultraviolet region round the earth in circular orbits of radii r1 and r 2 (r1 > r2)
(d) None of these
respectively. Which of the following statements is true
38. To have an earth synchronous satellite it should be launched
po
regarding their velocities v1 and v2?
at the proper height moving from
(a) north to south in a polar plane (a) v1 = v2 (b) v1 < v2
gs
(b) east to west in an equatorial plane (c) v1 > v2 (d) (v1 / r2) = (v2 / r2)
(c) south to north in a polar plane 47. The escape velocity of a body depends upon mass as
(d) west to east in an equatorial plane (a) m0 (b) m1
39. A missile is launched with a velocity less than escape
velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential energies is
lo
(c) m2 (d) m3.
.b
(a) zero 48. The minimum velocity of projection to go out from the
(b) negative earth’s gravitational pull is called
r8
40. The orbital speed of Jupiter is 49. There is no atmosphere on the moon because
(a) greater than the orbital speed of earth
(a) it is closer to the earth
(b) less than the orbital speed of earth
cy
(c) equal to the orbital speed of earth (b) it revolves round the earth
(d) zero (c) it gets light from the sun
no
41. The total energy of a circularly orbiting satellite is (d) the escape velocity of gas molecules is lesser than
(a) twice the kinetic energy of the satellite their root mean square velocity
(b) half the kinetic energy of the satellite
50.
ch
(a) remains stationary at a fixed height from the earth’s (c) 11.2 km/sec (d) 1.1 km/sec
surface 51. The escape velocity of an object projected from the surface
w
(b) revolves like other satellites but in the opposite of a given planet is independent of
direction of earth’s rotation (a) radius of the planet
w
does about its own axis (c) the mass of the planet
(d) None of these (d) None of these
43. An artificial satellite orbiting the earth does not fall down 52. Escape speed on the moon is _______ than escape speed
because the earth’s attraction on the earth.
(a) is balanced by the attraction of the moon (a) five times smaller (b) five times greater
(b) vanishes at such distances (c) six times greater (d) six times smaller
(c) is balanced by the viscous drag produced by the 53. The orbit traced by planet around a star is in general
atmosphere (a) a circle (b) an ellipse
(d) produces the necessary acceleration of its motion in
(c) a parabola (d) a straight line
a curved path
EBD_7208
118 GRAVITATION
54. If Ve is escape speed from the earth and Vp is that from a shell. Consider the following two statements and select the
planet of half the radius of earth, then correct statement(s).
Vp I. The plot of V against r is discontinuous
(a) Ve = Vp (b) Ve =
2 II. The plot of E against r is discontinuous.
Vp (a) Both I and II (b) I only
(c) Ve = 2Vp (d) Ve =
4 (c) II only (d) None of these
55. In which of the following cases, a person feels weightless? 64. Select the incorrect statements from the following.
(a) A person standing on the moon I. The orbital velocity of a satellite increases with the
(b) A person sitting in an artificial satellite of earth
radius of the orbit
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these II. Escape velocity of a particle from the surface of the
56. When does the object in a satellite escapes to infinity? earth depends on the speed with which it is fired
om
(a) When the total energy is positive III. The time period of a satellite does not depend onthe
(b) When total energy is zero radius of the orbit
(c) Both (a) & (b) IV. The orbital velocity is inversely proportional to the
t.c
(d) None of these sequare root of the radius of the orbit.
57. In case of a circular orbiting satellite which option is correct
(a) I and II (b) I and IV
for its energies?
po
(a) Kinetic energy is negative (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II and III
(b) Potential energy is positive 65. Which of the following is/are not a relevant statement(s) to
gs
(c) Total energy is positive Kepler's laws of planetary motion?
(d) None of these I. Kepler's second law is based on law of conservation of
58. What is the distance of a geostationary satellite from the angular momentum.
earth's centre?
(a) 4.22 × 104 km (b) 4.22 × 104 m
lo
II. Every planet revolves around the sun in circular orbits
.b
6 with sun at the centre of the orbit.
(c) 4.22 × 10 km (d) 4.22 × 106 m
III. Planets situated at larger distances from the sun take
59. Persons sitting in artificial satellite of the earth have
r8
(a) zero mass (b) zero weight longer time to complete one rotation
(c) certain definite weight (d) infinite weight (a) I only (b) II only
be
60. Consider the following statements and select the correct I. When height of a satellite is increased, its potential
statement(s). energy increases & kinetic energy decrease
no
I. Gravitational force may be attractive or repulsive II. When speed of satellite increases, the total energy
II. Gravitational force between two particles is independent increases & it starts orbiting in a circular path
of presence of other particles
III. For a satellite orbiting in circular orbit, the kinetic energy
ch
61. For a body taken to the moon which of the following (c) III only (d) I, II and III
statements is/are true?
I. Weight of the body will become 1\6 of that on earth MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
w
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (A) Force between any two bodies (1) Maximum at the
62. Which of the given statements is/are true? earth’s surface
I. Motion of a particle under a central force is always (B) Acceleration due to gravity (2) Always attractive
confined to a plane (C) Escape velocity (3) gR
II. Under the influence of central force, position vector
sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time (D) Orbital velocity (4) 2. gR
(a) I only (d) II only (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) Both (I) and (II) (d) None of these (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
63. Let V and E be the gravitational potential and gravitational (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
field at a distance r from the centre of a uniform spherical (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
GRAVITATION 119
68. Column I Column II 72. Two concentric spherical shells are as shown in figure. Match
the following:
2h
(A) Gravitational force Fg (1) g 1–
R B
A
(B) gsurface of earth (2) G Mm D
R2
C
(C) Escape velocity (3) 2gR
(D)
g height (4) GM/R2
(a)
(A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
om
(b)
(A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
Column I Column II
(c)
(A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(A) Potential at A (1) greater than B
(d)
(A) (2) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
(B) Gravitational field at A (2) less than B
69. Column I Column II
t.c
(C) As one moves from C to D (3) potential remains
(A) Gravitational constant (1) Law of periods
constant
(B) g h (2) 24 Hrs (D) As one moves from D to A (4) gravitational field
po
(C) T 2 R3 (3) 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2kg–2 decreases
(D) Time period of a (5) None
gs
2h (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
geostationary satellite (4) g0 1 –
R (b) (A) (3) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4)
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) (c) lo
(A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(b) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) (d) (A) (5) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
.b
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) 73. Column I Column II
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) (A) Acceleration due (1) 2g R E
r8
Gm1m 2
(B) gequator (2) Zero (B) Escape speed (2)
r
(C) g poles (3) Vector (C) Total energy of a (3) Gm/R2
cy
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) 2(R h)
(c) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2) energy.
ch
(d) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) (a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
71. On the surface of earth acceleration due to gravity is g and (b) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); C (4); (D) (1)
.te
(B) At depth h = R/2, (2) decreases by a (B) Total energy of (2) Negative
satellite
w
r2
A C
O x S
om
D
The correct option is
z
(a) the time taken in travelling DAB is less than that for
t.c
BCD
(a) r1 (b) r2
(b) the time taken in travelling DAB is greater than that for
po
(c) r (d) r ABC
76. Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation (c) the time taken in travelling CDA is less than that for
of acceleration due to gravity with the height above the
gs
ABC
earth's surface? (d) the time taken in travelling CDA is greater than that for
g ABC
lo
g 79. The gravitational field strength due to a solid sphere (mass
M, radius R) varies with distance r from centre as
.b
E
E
r8
(a) (b)
be
R
O r O r (a) r (b) r
R
cy
g
no
E E
(c) R r (d) R r
O r
.te
77. A central particle M is surrounded by a square array of other 80. The gravitational potential due to a hollow sphere
particles, separated by either distance d or distance d/2 along (mass M, radius R) varies with distance r from centre as
w
particles is
w
(a) R r (b) R r
2m 3m
4m
7m 5m
V V
R
3m
M
5m 7m R
(c) r (d) r
2m
4m 3m
GRAVITATION 121
81. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun 87. Assertion: The value of acceleration due to gravity i.e. 'g' is
S. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded area SAB. If t 1 different at different places on the surface of earth.
is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the Reason: Earth is flattened at poles and bulging out at the
time to move from A to B then equator. Therefore radius is smaller at poles and larger at
v 1
m equator and g , so, g is smaller at equator than at
R2
B C poles.
88. Assertion: A body loses weight when it is at the centre of
S the earth.
A D Reason: At the centre of earth, g = 0
weight = mg = 0.
89. Assertion: The gain in potential energy of an object of mass m
om
(a) t1 = 4t2 (b) t1 = 2t2 1
(c) t1 = t2 (d) t1 > t2 raised to height equal to the radius of earth is mg R
2
82. Two satellites of masses m and 2m are revolving around a
t.c
1
planet of mass M with different speeds in orbits of radii r Reason: Kinetic energy at surface = P.E at the top mv2
and 2r respectively. The ratio of minimum and maximum forces 2
on the planet due to satellites is
po
1
and at the top v = gR . PE = mgR.
1 2
(a) r 90. Assertion : The tidal waves in sea are primarily due to the
2
gs
gravitational effect of earth.
1 2r M
(b) Reason : The intensity of gravitational field of earth is
4
maximum at the surface of earth.
lo
1 91. Assertion : Smaller the orbit of the planet around the sun,
(c)
3
.b
shorter is the time it takes to complete one revolution.
(d) None of these Reason : According to Kepler's third law of planetary motion,
r8
explanation for assertion. is parabolic but it is elliptical for projectiles going to a very
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a large height.
correct explanation for assertion Reason : The path of a projectile is independent of the
ch
83. Assertion : Gravitational force between two particles is to shift a unit mass from infinity to a given point in
negligibly small compared to the electrical force. gravitational attraction force field.
w
Reason : The electrical force is experienced by charged 95. Assertion : Gravitational potential of earth at every place
particles only. on it is negative.
w
84. Assertion : A body becomes massless at the centre of earth. Reason : Every body on earth is bound by the attraction
d
w
om
Reason : When object is projected with velocity less than (b) directly proportional to the cube of the radius
escape velocity from horizontal surface and greater than (c) directly proportional to the fourth power of the radius
orbital velocity path of object will be ellipse. (d) inversely proportional to the square of the radius
t.c
101. Assertion : The atmosphere of Jupiter contains light gases, 112. Two air bubbles in water
where as earth’s atmosphere has little amount of hydrogen (a) attract each other
gas. (b) repel each other
po
Reason : The escape velocity from the Jupiter is smaller (c) neither attract nor repel
than the escape velocity from the earth. (d) None of these
gs
102. Assertion : An astronaut in an orbiting space station above 113. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between earth
the earth experiences weightlessness. and a satellite revolving around it becomes zero, then the
Reason : An object moving around earth under the influence satellite will
lo
of earth s gravitational force is in a state of free fall. (a) continue to move in its orbit with same velocity
103. Assertion : Space rocket are usually launched in the (b) move tangentialy to the original orbit in the same
.b
equatorial line from west to east velocity
Reason : The acceleration due to gravity is minimum at the (c) become stationary in its orbit
r8
4R 3R
projection.
Reason : Escape velocity from the surface of earth is 2gR Gm Gm
ch
(c) (d)
where R is radius of earth. 2R R
106. Assertion : If the total energy of a satellite moving around 115. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the
.te
earth is E, its potential energy is 2 E. surface of the earth is the same as at a depth ‘d’ below the
Reason : Total energy E = KE + PE. surface of earth. When both ‘d’ and ‘h’ are much smaller
107. Assertion : The speed of satellite always remains constant than the radius of earth, then which one of the following is
w
in an orbit. correct ?
w
2 2
around earth feels weightless.
(c) d = h (d) d =2 h
Reason : There is no gravitational force on the satellite.
116. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes
g
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS (where g = the acceleration due to gravity on the surface
9
of the earth) in terms of R, the radius of the earth, is
109. If three equal masses m are placed at the three vertices of an
equilateral triangle of side 1/m then what force acts on a R
(a) (b) R / 2
particle of mass 2m placed at the centroid? 2
(a) Gm2 (b) 2Gm2 (c) 2R (d) 2 R
(c) Zero (d) –Gm2
GRAVITATION 123
117. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of Gm
earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the (a) Zero (b) 4 2
a
planet is equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the
radius of the earth is R, the radius of the planet would be Gm Gm 2
(c) 4 2 (d) 4 2
(a) ½ R (b) 2 R a a
(c) 4 R (d) 1/4 R 126. If value of acceleration due to gravity is 'g' at a height 50 km
118. Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of above the surface of earth, then at what depth inside the
earth but it is 3 times bigger than the earth in size. If the earth will the acceleration due to gravity be same as 'g'?
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g and (a) 100 km (b) 50 km
that on the surface of the new planet is g’, then (c) 25 km (d) 75 km
(a) g’ = g/9 (b) g’ = 27g 127. The tail of the comet Halley is directed away from the sun
(c) g’= 9g (d) g’ = 3g due to the fact that
om
119. Average density of the earth (a) the comet rotates around the sun the lighter mass of
(a) is a complex function of g the comet is pushed away due to centrifugal force
(b) does not depend on g only
t.c
(c) is inversely proportional to g (b) the comet rotates the lighter mass of the comet is
(d) is directly proportional to g attracted by some star situated in the direction of the
120. A uniform spherical shell gradually shrinks maintaining tail
po
its shape. The gravitational potential at the centre (c) the radiation emitted by the sun exerts a radiation
(a) increases (b) decreases pressure of the comet throwing its tail away from the
(c) remains constant (d) cannot say sun
gs
121. If the earth were to rotates faster than its present speed, the (d) the tail of the comet always exists in the same
weight of an object will orientation
(a) increase at the equator but remain unchanged at the
poles
lo
128. The time period T of the moon of planet Mars (mass M m) is
related to its orbital radius R (G = Gravitational constant) as
.b
(b) decrease at the equator but remain unchanged at the
2
poles 4 2R3 4 GR 3
(a) T2 (b) T2
r8
same as that in 10 km deep mine below the surface of earth? 129. The planet mercury is revolving in an elliptical orbit around
(a) 20 km (b) 10 km the sun as shown in fig. The kinetic energy of mercury will
(c) 15 km (d) 5 km be greatest at D
no
everywhere. 5R above that surface of the earth, R being the radius of the
(b) will have the same value everywhere but not directed earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height
towards the centre. of 2R from the surface of the earth is
w
124. If a person goes to height equal to the radius of the earth, 131. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical
from its surface, then his weight (w ) relative to the weight shell of same mass and radius a. The gravitational potential
on earth (w) will be a
at a point situated at distance from the centre, will be
(a) W = W (b) W = 2W 2
4
3GM 2 GM
(a) (b)
(c) W = W (d) W = W a a
2
125. The gravitational potential at the centre of a square of side GM 4 GM
'a' and four equal masses (m each) placed at the corners of a (c) (d)
a a
square is
EBD_7208
124 GRAVITATION
132. The mass of a spaceship is 1000 kg. It is to be launched from (a) 1.1 km s–1 (b) 11 km s–1
the earth's surface out into free space. The value of g and R (c) 110 km s –1 (d) 0.11 km s–1
(radius of earth) are 10 m/s2 and 6400 km respectively. The 135. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio
required energy for this work will be of kinetic energy to potential energy is
(a) 6.4 × 1011J (b) 6.4 × 108 J
9 1 1
(c) 6.4 × 10 J (d) 6.4 × 1010 J (a) (b)
2 2
133. A particle of mass m is thrown upwards from the surface of
the earth, with a velocity u. The mass and the radius of the (c) 2 (d) 2
earth are, respectively, M and R. G is gravitational constant
136. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the
and g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the
earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the speed of satellite A is
earth. The minimum value of u so that the particle does not
om
3 V, then the speed of satellite B will be
return back to earth, is
(a) 3 V/4 (b) 6 V
2GM 2GM (c) 12 V (d) 3 V/2
(a) (b) 137. What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of
t.c
R R2
mass m from the surface of a planet of mass M and radius R
2GM in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R?
po
(c) 2gR 2 (d)
R2 5GmM 2GmM
(a) (b)
134. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive 6R 3R
gs
than the earth and its radius is 10 times smaller. Given that
the escape velocity from the earth is 11 km s–1, the escape GmM GmM
(c) (d)
velocity from the surface of the planet would be lo
2R 2R
.b
r8
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
GRAVITATION 125
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 19. (a) The weight (= mg) of the body at the centre of the earth
is zero, because the value of g at centre is zero.
1. (c) It is applicable to both small & big bodies. 20. (a) In the motion of an object under gravitational influence
2. (b) Various regions of spherical shell attract the point mass of another object, angular momentum and total
inside it in various directions. These forces cancel each mechanical energy is conserved but linear momentum
other completely. Therefore the gravitational force on is not conserved.
om
the particle is zero. 21. (c) Acceleration due to gravity g varies with dpth as
3. (d) G is a universal gravitational constant as the value of G
is same for all pairs of bodies situated anywhere in the d
g = g 1
universe. RE
t.c
4. (a) The gravitational force of attraction on a body of 22. (b) Because of smaller value of acceleration due to gravity
mass m is given by on moon, the value of escape velocity is small there.
po
GMm The molecules of atmospheric gases have thermal
F speeds much greater than the escape velocity. So all
R2
the molecules have escaped and there is no atmosphere.
gs
1 23. (b) Value of g is larger at poles than the equator so, if salt
Therefore, F 2 is weighed by a spring balance 1 kg will weigh more at
R
The radius of earth is maximum at equator, therefore,
gravitational force of attraction is least at equator. 24.
lo
poles.
(c) Gravitational potential energy associated with two
.b
5. (c) The inertial mass & gravitational mass are equivalent particles of masses m1 & m2 separated by distance r is
& ratio of inertial mass to gravitational mass = 1 to a given by
r8
dt
GMr
w
is given by Eg . ie, E g r 28. (b) Since areal velocity A & angular momentum L of a
R3
17. (d) At a point inside a spherical shell, the value of planet are related by equation A L , where M is the
gravitational intensity, I = 0. 2M
If V = 0 then gravitational field is necessarily zero. mass of planet. Since in planetary motion L is constant
18. (b) Acceleration due to gravity (g) is given by
GM 1 ( ext. = 0), hence A is also constant.
g= g 29. (b) In planetary motion, the angular momentum
R2 R2 conservation leads to the law of areas. Which means it
As one moves from the equator to the poles, the radius
sweeps out equal area in equal internals of tine or areal
of the earth decreases, hence g increases.
velocity is constant.
EBD_7208
126 GRAVITATION
30. (c) Weightlessness means that there is no reaction on a 43. (d)
body from the floor. Since both the artificial satellite & 44. (c) The orbital velocity of satellite moving in circular orbit
the astronaut have same centripetal acceleration (as in GM
a lift; which is falling freely, we does not feel any weight, near a planet is v 0
R
because both lift & we fall with same acceleration). so
2 R R R3
the astronaut does not feel any weight inside the space so period T 2 R 2
craft. v0 GM GM
Where R & M are the radius & mass of that planet.
T12 r13 Since satellite moves very near to planet, hence the
31. (b) = (4)3
T22 r23 radius of its circular orbit is approximately equal to
T2 = T1 /8. radius of the planet.
45. (b) When satellite is orbiting close to the surface of earth,
om
l
32. (b) Since T 2 GM
g orbital velocity, vo where M and R are the
R
but inside the satellite g = 0 mass and radius of earth.
t.c
So T = GM
46. (b) Since v 0 (orbital velocity )
1 r
33. (c) Kinetic energy = mv 2 is always positive but
po
2 v 01 r2
So v 01 v 02 r1 r2
potential energy and total energy are negative for a v 02 r1
satellite.
gs
47. (a) vesc = 2 gR , where R is radius of the planet.
34. (c) T2 R 3 (According to Kepler’s law)
Hence escape velocity is independent of m.
T12 (1013 )3 and T2 2 (1012 )3 lo
48. (b) It is called escape velocity ( v e 2 gR e )
.b
T12 T1 49. (d) There is no atmosphere at moon, because escape
(10)3 or 10 10 .
T2 2 T2 velocity is less than the root mean square velocity of
r8
rotation of earth about its own axis & it seems to be at ve 2gRe , where Re is radius of earth
one point about the equator and so is able to transmit sinceg = 9.8m/sec2, Re = 6.4×106 metre
cy
the sense of rotation of earth i.e., from west to east. vescape 2gR 2GM / R
39. (b)
where R & M are the radius & mass of the planet.
ch
1 52. (a) Since 'g' on moon is smaller than earth and radius of
40. (b) orbital speed v ; As Jupiter is farther than earth
r moon is also smaller, therefore escape velocity on moon
.te
from sun, so its orbital speed is less than orbital speed is just 2.3 km/s, which is approximately five times smaller
of earth. than earth 11.2 km/s.
41. (d) Total energy of satellite is half the potential energy i.e., 53. (b) According to Kepler's law of planetary motion all the
w
satellite. They always remain about the same path on 54. (c) Escape speed, Ve = R 8 Gs
equater, i.e., it has a period of exactly one day (86400 3
sec) Ve R.
55. (b) When a person is sitting in an artificial satellite of earth,
r3 the gravitational pull on the person due to earth is
So orbit radius T 2 comes out to be
GM counterbalanced by the centrifugal force acting on the
person. Thus the net force acting on the person in the
42400 km, which is nearly equal to the circumference of satellite is zero & the person feels weightless but on
earth. So height of Geostationary satellite from the earth the moon his weight is due to the gravitational pull of
surface is 42,400 – 6400 = 36,000 km. the moon.
GRAVITATION 127
56. (c) Since total energy of a body is positive or zero, when it 72. (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
is at infinity from the earth therefore, the satellite will GM
Inside a shell V = constant and E = 0
escape to infinity if its total energy becomes zero or R
positive.
GM GM
57. (d) For a satellite in circular orbit the kinetic energy is Outside the shell, V and E
r r2
positive, potential energy and total energy is negative.
As r increases, V increases and E decreases.
Hence none of the given options is correct.
58. (a) A geostationary satellite moves in a circular orbit in the 73. (b) (A) (3); (B) (1); C (4); (D) (2)
equatorial plane at an approx. distance of 4.22 × 104 km Acceleration due to gravity, g = Gm/R2
from zero the earth's centre.
59. (b) The reaction force of the artificial satellite acting on Escape velocity, VE = 2gR E
om
the person sitting in satellite is zero. Therefore, the Total energy of a satellite at a height, h above the earth
weight of the person is zero in artificial satellite is G m1m 2
zero. surface =
2(R h)
t.c
G m1m 2
Gravitational potential energy =
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS r
74. (c) (A) (2); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
po
60. (b) Gravitational force is always attractive and a long range Potential energy of a satellite = Negative
force. It is independent of the presence of other bodies. Total energy of a satellite = Negative
gs
61. (d) All the three statements are true. Kinetic energy of a satellite = Positive
62. (c) 63. (c) Grav P.E of a satellite at infinity = zero.
GM (3m) 3GMm
67. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) 77. (c) F = .
d2 d2
no
68. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
78. (a) The speed of the planet is faster in region DAB in
69. (b) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) comparision to the region BCD.
70. (c) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
ch
g
71. (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) 79. (a)
gr
g'= – for r R and g' = (1 r / R)2 for r R
R
GM
.te
At height h = R: g' R r
h 2
1 option (b) is correct.
w
R
81. (b) According to Kepler’s law, the areal velocity of a planet
around the sun always remains constant.
w
1
i.e., g' decreases by a factor .
2 SCD : A1– t1 (areal velocity constant)
2 SAB : A2 – t2
Similarly, at height h = R/2, g g.
A1 A 2
3
,
t1 t2
R h 1 g
At depth h = : g' g 1 1 A
2 R 2 2 t1 = t2 . 1 , (given A1 = 2A2)
A2
3 2A 2
Similarly at h = R/4, g g = t2 . t1 = 2t2
4 A2
EBD_7208
128 GRAVITATION
GM m GM (2m ) 101. (c) Escape velocity for Jupiter is greater than escape
82. (c) F min = r 2
(2r ) 2 velocity for earth.
102. (a) Freely faling body experiences weightlessness.
GMm 103. (b) Space rocket are usually launched from west to east to
=
2r 2 take the advantage of rotation of earth.
GMm GM (2 m) Also g' = g – 2R cos2 , at equator = 0, and so cos
and F ma x = 2 + (2r ) 2 = 1, and g' is least.
r
104. (d) 105. (a)
3 GMm
= . U
2 r2 106. (a) K = – E = – .
2
Fmin 1
= . 107. (d) If the orbital path of a satellite is circular, then its speed
Fmax 3 is constant and if the orbital path of a satellite is elliptical,
om
then its speed in its orbit is not constant. In that case
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS its areal velocity is constant.
108. (c) Gravitational force on the person in satellite is not zero,
t.c
but normal reaction of the satellite on the person is
Fg zero.
83. (b) For two electron 10 43 i.e., gravitational force is
Fe
po
negligible in comparison to electrostatic force of
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
attraction.
84. (d) At the centre of the earth, weight is zero but mass cannot
gs
109. (c) y
be and never zero.
Am
85. (c) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (a)
89. (c) Work done in raising the body
2R
lo G 2m x
.b
GMm 30°
= dx
R x2 m m
r8
B C
2R 2R z
gR 2 1
mdx = mgR 2 .
be
= 2 x Gm(2 m) ˆ
R x R
FGA = j
1
cy
1 1
= mgR 2 Gm(2 m) ˆ ˆjsin 30 )
2R R FGB = ( i cos30
1
no
1 2 1 Gm(2 m) ˆ
= mgR 2 = mgR FGC = (i cos30 ˆjsin 30 )
2R 2 1
90. (d) The tidal effect is due to the gravitation effect of moon Resultant force on (2m) is FR = FGA + FGB + FGC
ch
R sin 30 )
91. (a) According to Kepler's third law T2 r3 1
if r is small then T will also be small. = 2Gm 2 ˆj.2Gm 2 ˆj 2
w
2
92. (a) To counter balance the effect of gravity.
93. (c) 94. (b) = 2Gm 2 ˆj 2Gm 2 ˆj 0.
w
nature and every body is bound by this gravitational 111. (c) The gravitational force of attraction between two
force of attraction of earth. identical spheres of radius r is
96. (a)
97. (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not G
4 3
r
4 3
r
correct explanation of the assertion. Gm1m 2 3 3
F
From Kepler's laws of period T2 r3 r2 (2r)2
For more r, T is more.
98. (d) Escape velocity on the moon is five times smaller than 4 2 2 4 r r
on the earth 11.2 km/s. p r m1 m2
9
99. (c) 100. (c)
ie. F r 4
GRAVITATION 129
112. (a) The two air bubbles in water attract each other. The
GM 4
mass of air bubble in water (denser medium in 117. (a) g also M d R3
2 3
comparision to air) behave like a negative mass as far R
as gravitational attraction is concerned. The absolute 4
value of mass of bubble in water is equal to the mass of g d R at the surface of planet
3
an equal volume of water. So by Newton’ Law of
gravitation 4 4
gp (2d ) R , g e (d ) R
3 3
m1m 2
F G r̂ ge = gp dR = 2d R'
r2
R' = R/2
but in water F
G ( m1 )( m 2 ) Gm1m 2 118. (d) We know that
om
2
r̂ r̂
r r2 4 3
GM G R
It means that force has attractive nature between two 3 4
g= 2 = = GR
air bubble in water. R R2 3
t.c
113. (b) When gravitational force becomes zero, centripetal force
g' R' 3R
on satellite becomes zero so satellite will move 3 g' 3g
g R R
po
tangentially to the original orbit with same velocity.
114. (a) Here, centripetal force will be given by the gravitational 4
G R3
force between the two particles. GM G V 3
gs
119. (d) g = g=
R2 R2 R2
Gm2 2
2
m R
2R R lo
g=
4
3
G. R where average density
.b
Gm 2
m m
4R 3 3g
=
r8
4 GR
Gm
4 R3 is directly proportional to g.
be
If the velocity of the two particles with respect to the 120. (a) The gravitational potential at the centre of uniform
centre of gravity is v then v = R spherical shell is equal to the gravitational potential at
cy
a
115. (d) Variation of g with altitude is,
Now, if the shell shrinks then its radius decrease then
2h density increases, but mass is constant. so from above
ch
gh g1 ;
R expression if a decreases, then V increases.
variation of g with depth is, 121. (b) At the equator, g' = g – R 2
.te
g' R2 d 2h
122. (d) g 1 g 1
w
om
Gm 4 4Gm 4 2Gm R2 R
= = =
OA a/ 2 a
2GM p
2h d
126. (a) As we know, g = g 1 =g 1
t.c
R R (ve ) p Rp Mp Re
134. (c)
2h d d (ve )e 2GM e Me Rp
= h= or d = 2h.
po
R R 2 Re
d = 2 × 50 = 100 km.
127. (c) A comet consists of solid mass of rocks surrounded 10M e Re
gs
10
by large volume of combustible gases. The Me R e /10
gravitational force acting between the sun and comet
attracts the comet's mass, due to which head of lo (ve )p 10 (ve )e 10 11 110 km / s
comet points towards the sun. The radiations emitted 135. (a) K.E. of satellite moving in an orbit around the earth is
.b
by the sun exerts a radiation pressure on the comet 2
throwing its tail away from the sun. 1 1 GM GMm
K= mv 2 m
2 2 r 2r
128. (a) Time period of satellite is given by :
r8
GM m GM m r
R 136. (b) Orbital velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius
Squaring both sides, we get a is given by
no
4 2R 3 GM 1 v2 a1
T2 v v =
GM m a a v1 a2
ch
24 24
8 Ef mv02 m
T22 2 3R 2 3R 3R
24 24 GMm 1 GMm
T22 = 72 = 36 × 2 1
8 3R 2 6R
T2 6 2 GMm
Ei K
131. (a) Potential at the given point = Potential at the point due R
to the shell + Potential due to the particle Ei Ef
GM 2GM 3GM 5GMm
= = Therefore minimum required energy, K
a a a 6R
9
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES
OF SOLIDS
om
12. Which of the following is not a type of stress?
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
(a) Tensile stress (b) Compressive stsress
1. The property of a body by virtue of which it tends to regain (c) Hydraulic stress (d) None of these
its original size and shape when the applied force is removed 13. If the load is increased beyond the _______ point, the strain
po
is called increases rapidly for even a small change in the stress.
(a) elasticity (b) plasticity (a) elastic point (b) yield point
(c) plastic point (d) fracture point
gs
(c) rigidity (d) compressibility
2. Which of the following materials is most elastic? 14. What is the phenomenon of temporary delay in regaining
(a) Steel (b) Rubber the original configuration by an elastic body, after the
3.
(c) Copper (d) Glass
When forces are applied on a body such that it is still in
lo
removel of a deforming force?
(a) Elastic fatigue (b) Elasticity
.b
static equilibrium, then the extent to which the body gets (c) Plasticity (d) Elastic after effect
deformed, depends on 15. Which of the following types of stress causes no chang in
r8
(a) hydraulic force (b) hydraulic pressure 17. If a mass M produces an elongation of L in a wire of radius
(c) restoring force (d) hydraulic strain r and length L, then the young's modulus of the material of
6. Substances which can be stretched to cause large strains the wire is given by
ch
are called Mg Mg L
(a) brittle (b) ductile (a) Y (b) Y
2 2
( r L) ( r L)
.te
(a) volume stress (b) shearing strain (a) Young's modulus (b) Shear modulus
(c) longitudinal strain (d) metallic strain (c) Bulk modulus (d) Both (a) & (b)
w
9. Shearing strain is expressed by 19. When a fluid compresses an object, then the Hooke's law is
(a) angle of shear (b) angle of twist expressed as
(c) decrease in volume (d) increase in volume V
10. Which of the following substance has the lowest elasticity? (a) F = kV (b) P =
V
(a) Steel (b) Copper
V V
(c) Rubber (d) wood (c) P = B (d) F = B
V V
11. Which of the following affects the elasticity of a substance?
(a) Hammering and annealing 20. Which of the following is the correct relation? Y = Young's
(b) Change in temperature modulus & G = modulus of rigidity?
(c) Impurity in substance (a) Y < G (b) Y > G
(d) All of the above (c) Y = G (d) None of these
EBD_7208
132 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS
21. The expression of force constant for a spring following 33. The only elastic modulus that applies to fluids is
Hooke's law is given by (a) Young's modulus (b) modulus of rigidity
ya ya (c) bulk modulus (d) shear modulus
(a) k = (b) k =
34. The reciprocal of the bulk modulus is called
ya ya (a) modulus of rigidity (b) volume stress
(c) k = (d) k =
(c) volume strain (d) compressibility
22. How is modulus of rigidity related to young's modulus?
35. Modulus of rigidity of a liquid is
G Y
(a) Y = (b) G = (a) constant (b) infinite
3 3
(c) zero (d) cannot be predicted
Y
(c) G = Y (d) G = 36. According to Hook’s law of elasticity, if stress is increased,
2
then the ratio of stress to strain
om
23. For an equal stretching force F, the young's modulus (Ys) for
steel and rubber (Yr) are related as (a) becomes zero (b) remains constant
(a) Ys = Yr (b) Ys < Yr (c) decreases (d) increases
t.c
(c) Ys > Yr (d) Ys Yr
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
24. A 2 m long rod of radius 1 cm which is fixed from one end is
37. Which of the following statements are correct ?
po
given a twist of 0.8 radians. The shear strain developed will
be I. Elastic fatigue is the property by virtue of which
(a) 0.002 (b) 0.004 (c) 0.008 (d) 0.016 behavior becomes less elastic under the action of
gs
25. The isothermal bulk modulus of a gas at atmospheric pressure repeated alternating deforming forces.
is II. Elasticity is the property due to which the body regains
(a) 1 mm of Hg
(c) 1.013 × 105 N/m2
(b) 13.6 mm of Hg
(d) 2.026 × 105 N/m2
lo
its original configuration, when deforming forces are
removed.
.b
26. Hooke's law states that III. Plasticity is the property due to which the regain in
(a) stress is directly proportional to strain
r8
(d) stress and strain are independent of each other (a) I and II (b) II and III
27. The ratio of stress and strain is called (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(a) elastic limit (b) plastic deformation 38. The diagram shows a force - extension graph for a rubber
cy
(c) modulus of elasticity (d) tensile strength band. Consider the following statements :
28. The ratio of tensile stress to the longitudinal strain is I. It will be easier to compress this rubber than expand it
no
defined as
II. Rubber does not return to its original length after it is
(a) modulus of elasticity (b) Yong's modulus
(c) bulk modulus (d) None of these stretched
ch
29. The correct increasing order of coefficient of elasticity of III. The rubber band will get heated if it is stretched and
Copper, Steel, Glass and Rubber is released
(a) Steel, Rubber, Copper, Glass
.te
the
(a) half load (b) same load Force
w
om
elastic 48. Column I Column II
(a) I and II (b) II and III (A) Young's modulus (1) Rubber
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III of elasticity
t.c
42. Which of the following statements is/are true? (B) Hooke's law (2) Solids
I. Water is more elastic than air (C) Hydraulic stress (3) Sraight line
(D) Elastomers (4) Solids, liquids & gases
po
II. Modulus of elasticity is more for steel than that of
copper. (a) (A) (2), (B) (3), (C) (4), (D) (1)
III. Young's modulus of elasticity for a perfectly rigid body (b) (A) (4), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (1)
gs
is infinte (c) (A) (1), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (4)
(a) I only (b) II only (d) (A) (2), (B) (1), (C) (3), (D) (4)
(c) I and II only (d) I, II and III 49. Column -I Column-II
43. Consider the following statements and select the correct
lo
(A) Equal force acting
perpendicular to each
(1) Balance
the net weight to be
.b
option.
I. Young's modulus for a perfectly rigid body is zero point on a spherical supported
surface
r8
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1, 3); (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
same length and same mass.
(b) (A) (3); (B) (1, 2); (C) (4) ; (D) (3, 4)
II. Reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity is called
(c) (A) (2); (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
ch
compressibility.
(d) (A) (3); B (1, 4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (2)
III. It is difficult to twist a long rod as compared to small
50. A copper wire (Y = 1011 N/m2) of length 8 m and steel wire
rod.
.te
Column-I Column-II
I Normal stress = force/area (A) Elongation in copper (1) 0.25
w
om
(c) (d)
L 2L
The tension in the strings will be
(a) the same in all cases 56. Th e adjacent graph
shows the extension ( l) 4
t.c
(b) least in (a)
(l ×10 )m
3
(c) least in (b) of a wire of length 1m
–4
(d) least in (c) 2
suspended from the top
po
52. The graph given is a stress-strain curve for 1
of a roof at one end with
a load W connected to the
gs
other end. if the corss- 20 40 60 80 W(N)
1.0 sectional area of the wire is 10–6m2, calculate the Young’s
Stress (N/ m2)
0.5
lo
modulus of the material of the wire
(a) 2 × 1011 N/m2 (b) 2 × 10–11 N/m2
.b
(c) 2 × 10–12 N/m2 (d) 2 × 10–13 N/m2
57. A beam of metal supported at the two edges is loaded at the
r8
Strain
.te
I II
O
w
Strain
(a) I, II are true (b) I is true, II is false
(a) OA (b) C
w
60. The value of tan (90° – ) in the graph gives ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
Strain
om
(d) tensile strength 64. Assertion: Solids are least compressible and gases are most
61. The diagram below shows the change in the length X of a compressible.
thin uniform wire caused by the application of stress F at Reason: solids have definite shape and volume but gases
t.c
two different temperatures T1 and T2. The variation shown do not have either definite shape or definite volume.
suggests that 65. Assertion: Rubber is more elastic than lead
(a) T1 > T2 T2
Reason: If same load is attached to lead and rubber, then the
po
F
(b) T1 < T2 T1 strain produced is much less in rubber than in lead.
(c) T2 > T1 66. Assertion: Hollow shaft is found to be stronger than a solid
(d) T1 T2 shaft made of same equal material.
gs
X Reason: Torque required to produce a given twist in hollow
62. Stress vs strain curve for the elastic tissue of the aorta, the cylinder is greater than that required to twist a solid cylinder
large tube (vessel) carrying blood from the heart, will be :
[stress is proportional to square of the strain for the elastic 67.
lo
of same length and material.
Assertion : Bulk modulus of elasticity (k) represents
.b
incompressibility of the material.
tissue of the aorta]
Reason : Bulk modulus of elasticity is proportional to
r8
change in pressure.
68. Assertion : Stress is the internal force per unit area of a
body.
be
(a) (b)
Reason : Rubber is less elastic than steel.
69. Assertion : Young’s modulus for a perfectly plastic body is
cy
zero.
Reason : For a perfectly plastic body, restoring force is zero.
(c) (d) 70. Assertion : Identical springs of steel and copper are equally
no
molecules as a function of the distance x between atoms has for two materials A and B are shown in figure. Young's
been shown in the figure. The atoms are modulus of A is greater than that of B.
.te
Stress
A
B
w
O
U
w
w
Strain
Reason : The Young's modules for small strain is,
A B C x
stress
Y = slope of linear portion, of graph; and slope of
strain
(a) attracted when x lies between A and B and are repelled
A is more than slope that of B.
when x lies between B and C
(b) attracted when x lies between B and C and are repelled 72. Assertion : Strain causes the stress in an elastic body.
Reason : An elastic rubber is more plastic in nature.
when x lies between A and B
73. Assertion: Girders are given I shape.
(c) are attracted when they reach B from C
Reason: To bear more pressure, depth is increased as per
(d) are repelled when they reach B from A
P=h g
EBD_7208
136 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS
om
(c) twice that on A (d) half that on A
76. An iron bar of length cm and cross section A cm2 is pulled b l
by a force of F dynes from ends so as to produce an (c) (d)
l b l
elongation cm. Which of the following statement is
t.c
correct ? 83. An iron rod of length 2m and cross-sectional area of 50 mm 2
(a) Elongation is inversely proportional to length stretched by 0.5 mm, when a mass of 250 kg is hung from its
po
(b) Elongation is directly proportional to cross section A lower end. Young’s modulus of iron rod is
(c) Elongation is inversely proportional to cross-section 18 2
(d) Elongation is directly proportional to Young’s modulus (a) 19.6 10 20 N / m 2 (b) 19.6 10 N / m
gs
77. Two wires of equal lengths are made of the same material.
(c) 19.6 1010 N / m 2 (d) 19.6 1015 N / m 2
Wire A has a diameter that is twice as that of wire B. If identical
weights are suspended from the ends of these wires, the 84. What per cent of length of wire increases by applying a stress
lo
increase in length is of 1 kg weight/mm2 on it?
(Y = 1 × 1011 N/m2 and 1 kg weight = 9.8 newton)
.b
(a) four times for wire A as for wire B
(b) twice for wire A as for wire B (a) 0.0067% (b) 0.0098%
(c) half for wire A as for wire B (c) 0.0088% (d) 0.0078%
r8
(d) one-fourth for wire A as for wire B 85. A wooden wheel of radius R is made of
78. A steel ring of radius r and cross-section area 'A' is fitted on
be
R R r
(a) AE (b) AE area S and length L. L is slightly less
r r
no
79. If a spring extends by x on loading, then the energy stored by it presses the semicircular parts together. If the coefficient
the spring is (if T is tension in the spring and k is spring of linear expansion of the metal is and its Young’s modulus
.te
constant)
is Y, the force that one part of the wheel applies on the other
T2 T2 2x 2T 2 part is
(a) (b) (c) 2 (d)
w
2x 2k T k (a) 2 SY T (b) SY T
80. A steel wire of length ‘L’ at 40°C is suspended from the (c) SY T (d) 2SY T
w
ceiling and then a mass ‘m’ is hung from its free end. The 86. The extension in a string obeying Hooke’s law is x. The
w
wire is cooled down from 40°C to 30°C to regain its original speed of sound in the stretched string is v. If the extension
length ‘L’. The coefficient of linear thermal expansion of the in the string is increased to 1.5 x, the speed of sound will be
steel is 10–5 /° C, Young’s modulus of steel is 1011 N/m2 and (a) 1.22 v (b) 0.61 v (c) 1.50 v (d) 0.75 v
radius of the wire is 1 mm. Assume that L >>diameter of the 87. An elevator cable is to have a maximum stress of 7 x 107 N/
wire. Then the value of ‘m’ in kg is nearly m2 to allow for appropriate safety factors. Its maximum
upward acceleratiom is 1.5 m/s2. If the cable has to support
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
the total weight of 2000 kg of a loaded elevator, the area of
81. When a pressure of 100 atmosphere is applied on a spherical cross–section of the cable should be
ball, then its volume reduces to 0.01%. The bulk modulus of (a) 3.28 cm2 (b) 2.38 cm2
(c) 0.328 cm 2 (d) 8.23 cm2
the material of the rubber in dyne/cm2 is
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS 137
88. A steel wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support. 96. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The
When loaded with a weight in air, it extends by a and when compressibility of water is 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 and density of
the weight is immersed completely in water, the extension is water is 103 kg/m3.What fractional compression of water will
reduced to w. Then the relative density of material of the be obtained at the bottom of the ocean ?
weight is
(a) 1.0 × 10–2 (b) 1.2 × 10–2
a (c) 1.4 × 10 –2 (d) 0.8 × 10–2
(a) a / w (b)
a w
97. Consider four steel wires of dimensions given below
(c) w /( a w) (d) w/ a (d = diameter and l = length) :
89. If a rubber ball is taken at the depth of 200 m in a pool, its (a) l = 1m, d = 1mm (b) l = 2m, d = 2 mm
volume decreases by 0.1%. If the density of the water is 1 × (c) l = 2m, d = 1mm (d) l = 1m, d = 2 mm
103 kg/m3 and g = 10m/s2, then the volume elasticity in N/m2
om
If same force is applied to all the wires then the elastic
will be potential energy stored will be maximum in wire:
(a) 108 (b) 2 × 108
(a) A (b) B
(c) 109 (d) 2 × 109
t.c
90. A uniform cube is subjected to volume compression. If each (c) C (d) D
side is decreased by 1%, then bulk strain is 98. If in a wire of Young’s modulus Y, longitudinal strain X is
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.06 produced, then the value of potential energy stored in its
po
(c) 0.02 (d) 0.03 unit volume will be
91. To break a wire, a force of 106 N/m2 is required. If the density (a) Y X2 (b) 2 Y X2
gs
of the material is 3 × 103 kg/m3, then the length of the wire
which will break by its own weight will be (c) Y2 X/2 (d) Y X2/2
(a) 34 m (b) 30 m 99. A steel ring of radius r and cross sectional area A is fitted
92.
(c) 300 m (d) 3 m
When a 4 kg mass is hung vertically on a light spring that
lo
onto a wooden disc of radius R (R > r). If the Young’s modulus
of steel is Y, then the force with which the steel ring is
.b
obeys Hooke’s law, the spring stretches by 2 cms. The work expanded is
required to be done by an external agent in stretching this (a) A Y (R/r) (b) A Y (R – r)/r
r8
spring by 5 cms will be (g = 9.8 m/sec2) (c) (Y/A)[(R – r)/r] (d) Y r/A R
(a) 4.900 joule (b) 2.450 joule
100. For the same cross-sectional area and for a given load, the
be
(a) 3 : (b) :3
and then released to project a missile of mass 5 gm. Taking
(c) 1 : (d) :1
Yrubber = 5 × 108 N/m2. Velocity of projected missile is
no
94. The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two 1 2 1T2 2T1
wires of same length and of same area of cross section, one (a) (b)
2 T1 T2
of steel and another of brass are suspended from the same
.te
roof. If we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the same 1T2 2T1
level, then the weights added to the steel and brass wires (c) T2 T1
(d) T1T2 1 2
must be in the ratio of :
w
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 102. A wire elongates by l mm when a load W is hanged from it.
w
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 If the wire goes over a pulley and two weights W each are
95. Copper of fixed volume ‘V; is drawn into wire of length ‘l’. hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be
w
When this wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’, the (in mm)
extension produced in the wire is ‘ l’. Which of the following (a) l (b) 2l
graphs is a straight line? (c) zero (d) l/2
1 103. A thick rope of density and length L is hung from a rigid
(a) l versus (b) l versus l2 support. The Young’s modulus of the material of rope is Y.
l
The increase in length of the rope due to its own weight is
1 (a) (1/4) g L2/Y (b) (1/2) g L2/Y
(c) l versus 2 (d) l versus l
l (c) 2
g L /Y (d) g L/Y
EBD_7208
138 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS
om
of the applied force.
A L r2 L
4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) normal stress
18. (d) Young's modulus =
x longitudinal stran
t.c
9. (a) tan = angle of shear = shearing strain
L
T angential stress
Shear modulus =
po
Shearing strain
Ftangential
Longitudinal & shearing strains are possible only in solids.
A x A' B B' 19. (c) When an object undergoes hydraulic compression due
gs
to a stress exerted by a surrounding liquid the Hooke's
L law takes the form P = B ( v/v)
lo
20. (b) Young's modulus Y = 2G(1 – )
G = modulus of rigidity and = poissons's ratio
.b
D
C F
21. (a) Y = . or F YA
r8
A L
ABCD is the shape of body, before we apply tangential
force and A B CD is the shape of body after applying
Hence force constant = F YA
be
tangential force.
10. (a) 22. (b) Modulus of rigidity is, generally less than that of
11. (d) The hammering increases elasticity while annealing
cy
modulus i.e.
The impurity in the substance increases the elasticity. G = Y/3.
12. (d) A cylinder stretched by two equal forces applied normal 23. (c) Young's modulus of steel is highest.
ch
13. (b) Yield point is the point, beyond which the wire starts 32. (c) For a perfectly rigid body strain produced is zero for
w
showing increase in strain without any increase in the given force applied, so
stress. Y = stress/strain =
14. (d) Elastic after effect is defined as the temporary delay in 33. (c) Bulk modulus = change in volume
regaining the original configuration by an elastic body
1
after the removal of a deforming force. 34. (d) Compressibility =
Bulk modulus
15. (b) Hydraulic stress is relevant to volumetric strain, V/V,
but there is no change in shape. 35. (c)
16. (d) The three elastic moduli viz young's modulus, shear 36. (b) The ratio of stress to strain is always constant. If stress
modulus and bulk modulus are used to describe the is increased, strain will also increase so that their ratio
remains constant.
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS 139
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 50. (a) (A) (3), (B) (4), (C) (2), (D) (1)
F 500 8
(A) = AY 0.8 mm
37. (d) copper
0.5 10 4
1011
38. (c) From the figure, it is clear that
F 500 4
Fcom < Fext. (B) steel 0.2 mm
4
AY 0.5 10 2 1011
(C) copper steel 1.0 mm
x
e 2Ycopper e 2Ysteel
(D) U Vol = 0.25 J
2 2
om
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
F 51. (c)
Fcom Fext 52. (c) The given graph does not obey Hooke's law. and there
t.c
is no well defined plastic region. So the graph represents
elastomers.
39. (c) 53. (c) Since OE is a straight line so, stress
po
strain.
x Hooke's law is obeyed in the region OE of the graph.
40. (b) Shearing strain = = tan 54. (b) The wire starts behaving like a liquid at point b. It behaves
L
gs
like a viscous liquid in the region bc of the graph.
x 55. (a)
F 56. (a) From the graph l = 10–4m, F = 20 N
lo
A = 10–6m2, L = 1m
.b
FL 20 1
Y 6 4
Al
r8
10 10
41. (a) A material for which strain is less for a given load is 20 1010 2 1011 N/m 2
be
more elastic.
42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c)
57. (c)
cy
normal stress
45. (b) Young's modulus Y =
longitudinal strain For a beam, the depression at the centre is given by,
no
force fL
chage in length Area change in length [f, L, b, d are constants for a particular beam]
original length
1
46. (d) i.e.
.te
Y
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 58. (d)
w
59. (b)
47. (b) (A) (3), (B) (1), (C) (2), (D) (1)
stress
w
om
64. (b) The incompressibility of solids is primarily due to the lA
or l B
tight coupling between the neighbouring atoms. 4
Molecules in gases are very poorly coupled to their 78. (b) Initial length (circumference) of the ring = 2 r
t.c
neighbours. Final length (circumference) of the ring = 2 R
65. (d) Lead is more elastic than rubber because for same load Change in length = 2 R – 2 r
po
strain produced is much less in lead than rubber.
change in length 2 (R–r) R r
66. (a) Torque required to produce a given twist in hollow strain = =
original length 2 r r
cylinder is greater than solid cylinder thus both are
gs
true. F/A F/A
Now Young's modulus E
67. (a) l/L (R r ) / r
68. (b) Stress is defined as internal force (restoring force) per
unit area of a body. Also, rubber is less elastic than
lo F AE
R r
.b
steel, because restoring force is less for rubber than r
steel.
r8
stress F2 T2
69. (a) Young’s modulus of a material, Y 79. (b) U
strain 2K 2K
be
m 3
beam large as compared to its breadth. But on increasing g 10
the depth too much, the beam bends. To check this
w
V
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS = 10 N/m = 10 dyne/cm2
11 2 12
w
om
= 9.8 × 10–3 = 0.0098 % S 106 100
85. (d) Elongation due to change in temperature, 91. (a) L 3
34 m
dg 3 10 10 3
l L T
t.c
Which is compensated by elastic strain, F 4 9.8
92. (b) K 2
19.6 102
When temperature becomes normal, i.e., x 2 10
po
TL
l 1
YS Work done = 19.6 102 (0.05)2 2.45 J
F 2
gs
TL
Thus, L T 93. (c) Young’s modulus of rubber, Yrubber
YS
T T F
T VS T
At equilibrium force exerted by one half on other,
lo
A
F YA.
.b
On putting the values from question,
F 2T 2YS T
T 5 108 25 10 6
5 10 2
86. (a) Speed of sound in a stretched string v
r8
…(i) F
2
10 10
Where T is the tension in the string and is mass per
be
7 A l
u 7 10
W1 W2
= 3.28 × 10–4 m2.
88. (b) Let V be the volume of the load and its relative density Y1 Y2
w
So, Y .....(1)
A a A a
w
F b4
I1
A Fl 12
95. (b) As Y = l l
AY
l r4
V For a beam of circular cross-section, I2
But V = Al so A = 4
l
W 3 12 4W 3
Fl 2
Therefore l = l2 1
3Y b 4
Y b4
VY
Hence graph of l versus l2 will give a straight line. (for sq. cross section)
96. (b) Compressibility of water,
K = 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 3 3
om
W 4W
density of water P = 103 kg/m3 and 2
3Y ( r 4 / 4) 3Y ( r 4 )
depth of ocean, h = 2700 m
(for circular cross-section)
V
t.c
We have to find ?
V
1 3 r4 3 r4 3
Now
As we know, compressibility, 4
( r 2 )2
po
2 b
1 ( V / V)
K= (P Pgh) ( b2 r 2 i.e., they have same cross-sectional area)
B P
gs
So, ( V/V) = KPgh 101. (c) If is the original length of wire, then change in length
= 45.4 × 10–11 × 103 × 10 × 2700 = 1.2258 × 10–2 of first wire,
where k
A 1
d2 Now, Y
T1 T2
4 A A
be
1 2
2
d T1 T2
U T1 T2
l or or
cy
1 2 1 2
1 or T1 – T1 = T2 – T2
98. (d) P .E . stress strain volume 2 1
no
2
T2 1 T1 2
1 or
or (P.E./ volume) (Y strain) (strain) T2 T1
ch
2 T
102. (a) Case (i)
1 1
Y (strain)2
= Y X2 At equilibrium, T = W
.te
2 2
W/A W
99. (b) Let T be the tension in the ring, then Y .....(1)
/L
w
T .2 r Tr Case (ii)
Y
A.2 ( R r ) A(R r) At equilibrium T = W
w
T Y Y
r /2 /L
L/2
W 3 T T
100. (a) , where W = load, = length of beam and I is Elongation is the same.
3Y
geometrical moment of inertia for rectangular beam, F ( L / 2) ( A L g )( L / 2) W W
3
103. (b)
bd AY AY
I where b = breadth and d = depth
12
1
For square beam b = d = g L2 / Y
2
10
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES
OF FLUIDS
om
11. If a solid floats with 1/4th of its volume above the surface of
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
water, then density of the solid ( s) is related to density of
1. The most characteristic property of a liquid is water ( w) as
(a) elasticity (b) fluidity
po
1
(c) formlessness (d) volume conservation (a) s = w (b) s = w
4
2. _________ and _________ play the same role in case of
3 4
gs
fluids as force and mass play in case of solids. (c) = (d) s =
s 4 w 3 w
(a) Thrust and density (b) Pressure and density
(c) Pressure and thrust (d) thrust and volume 12. Smaller the area on which the force acts, greater is the
3. Which of the following is a unit of pressure?
(a) atm (b) pascal
lo
impact. This concept is known as
(a) impulse (b) pressure
.b
(c) bar (d) All of these (c) surface tension (d) magnus effect
4. Which of the following pressure-measuring device measures 13. Pressure in a fluid at rest is same at all points which
r8
(b) shape of the liquid surface liquid open to the atmosphere is called
(c) height of the liquid column (a) atmospheric pressure (b) hydrostatic paradox
(c) gauge pressure (d) None of these
no
(d) directions
6. Hydraulic lifts and hydraulic brakes are based on 15. A pressure equivalent to 1 mm is called
(a) Archimedes' principle (b) Bernoulli's principle (a) 1 Pa (b) 1 torr
ch
(c) Stoke's law (d) Pascal's law (c) 1 atm (d) 1 N/m2
7. According to archimedes' principle, loss of weight of a body 16. When a body is wholly or partially immersed in a fluid at
immersed in a liquid is equal to
.te
(b) weight of the body in water (c) increased in proportion to the mass of the fluid and
(c) relative density of the body then transmitted
(d) density of body in water (d) transmitted unchanged to every portion of the fluid
9. Which of the following parameters decrease as we go up? and wall of containing vessel.
(a) Density of air (b) Acceleration due to gravity 18. The pressure at the bottom of a tank containing a liquid
(c) Atmospheric pressure (d) All of these does not depend on
10. Which liquid is used in an open-tube manometer for
(a) acceleration due to gravity
measuring small pressure differences?
(b) height of the liquid column
(a) Oil (b) Mercury
(c) Water (d) None of these (c) area of the bottom surface
(d) nature of the liquid
EBD_7208
144 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
19. Streamline flow is more likely for liquids with 32. Choose the correct statement from the following.
(a) high density and low viscosity (a) Terminal velocities of rain drops are proportional to
(b) low density and high viscosity square of their radii
(c) high density and high viscosity (b) Water proof agents decrease the angle of contact
(d) low density and low viscosity between water and fibres
20. Beyond the critical speed, the flow of fluids becomes (c) Detergents increase the surface tension of water
(a) streamline (b) turbulent (d) Hydraulic machines work on the principle of Torricelli's
(c) steady (d) very slow law
33. According to stokes law, the relation between terminal
21. For flow of a fluid to be turbulent
velocity (vt) and viscosity of the medium (n) is
(a) fluid should have high density
(a) vt = n (b) vt n
(b) velocity should be large
(c) reynold number should be less than 2000 1
(c) vt (d) vt is independent of n.
om
(d) both (a) and (b) n
22. In a stream line (laminar flow) the velocity of flow at any 34. When the temperature increases, the viscosity of
point in the liquid (a) gases decreases and liquid increases
(a) does not vary with time (b) gases increases and liquid decreases
t.c
(b) may vary in direction but not in magnitude (c) gases and liquids increases
(c) may vary in magnitude but not in direction (d) gases and liquids decreases
(d) may vary both in magnitude and direction 35. Fevicol is added to paint to be painted on the walls, because
po
23. In Bernoulli’s theorem which of the following is conserved? (a) it increases adhesive force between paint and wall.
(a) Mass (b) Linear momentum (b) it decreases adhesive force between paint and wall
molecules.
gs
(c) Energy (d) Angular momentum
24. Bernoulli’s equation is important in the field of (c) it decreases cohesive force between paint molecules
(a) electrical circuits (b) magnetism (d) None of these
(c) flow of fluids (d) photoelectric effect 36. lo
A rectangular glass plate is held vertically with long side
25. Paint-gun is based on horizontal and half the plate immersed in water. Which of the
following forces is acting on the plate?
.b
(a) Bernoulli’s theorem (b) Archimedes’ principle
(a) Weight of the plate acting vertically upwards
(c) Boyle’s law (d) Pascal’s law
(b) Force of surface tension acting vertically downwards
r8
26. Magnus effect is very near to the (c) Force of viscosity acting horizontally
(a) magnetic field (b) electric field (d) All of these
(c) bernoulli’s theorem (d) magnetic effect of current
be
(a) the speed is high at the wider end and high at the narrow
r r
end.
(b) the speed is low at the wider end and high at the narrow 2s 4s
(c) Pi – Po = +h g (d) Pi – Po =
no
end. r r
38. For a given volume which of the following will have
(c) the speed is same at both ends in a stream line flow.
minimum energy?
(d) the liquid flows with uniform velocity in the tube.
ch
(b) the velocity of flow of liquid through a pipe. slowly, then the graph between excess pressure inside the
(c) terminal velocity bubble with time will be a
(d) critical velocity (a) straight line sloping up
w
29. The device which measures the flow speed of incompressible (b) straight line sloping down
fluid is (c) parabolic curve sloping down
w
30. As the temperature of a liquid is raised, the coefficient of (a) gravitational force between molecules
(b) electrical force between molecules
viscosity
(c) adhesive force between molecules
(a) decreases (b) increases (d) cohesive force between molecules
(c) remains the same 41. Surface tension may be defined as
(d) may increase or decrease depending on the nature of (a) the work done per unit area in increasing the surface
liquid area of a liquid under isothermal conditions
31. After terminal velocity is reached, the acceleration of a body (b) the work done per unit area in increasing the surface
falling through a fluid is area of a liquid under adiabatic conditions
(a) equal to g (b) zero (c) the work done per unit area in increasing the surface
(c) less than g (d) greater than g area of a liquid under adiabatic conditions
(d) free surface energy per unit volume
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS 145
42. At critical temperature, the surface tension of a liquid is STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) zero
(b) infinity 52. Which of the following statements are true about streamline
(c) the same as that at any other temperature
flow?
(d) None of these
I. Path taken by a fluid particle under a steady flow is a
43. If two soap bubbles of different radii are in communication
streamline
with each other then
(a) air flows from the larger bubble into the smaller one II. No two streamlines can cross each other
until the two bubbles are of equal size III. Velocity increases at the narrower portions where the
(b) the size of the bubbles remains the same streamlines are closely spaced
(c) air flows from the smaller bubble into the larger one (a) I & II only (b) II & III only
and the larger one grows at the expense of the smaller (c) I & III only (d) I, II & III
om
one 53. Select the correct statements from the following.
(d) the air flows from the larger into the smaller bubble I. Bunsen burner and sprayers work on Bernoulli's
until the radius of the smaller one becomes equal to principle
that of the larger one and of the larger one equal to
t.c
II. Blood flow in arteries is explained by Bernoulli's principle
that of the smaller one.
III. A siphon works on account of atmospheric pressure.
44. Two water droplets merge with each other to form a larger
(a) I & II only (b) II & III only
po
droplet. In this process
(a) energy is liberated (c) I & III only (d) I, II & III
(b) energy is absorbed 54. Consider the following statements : In a streamline flow of a
gs
(c) energy is neither liberated nor absorbed liquid
(d) some mass is converted into energy I. the kinetic energies of all particles arriving at a given
45. When a pinch of salt or any other salt which is soluble in point are same.
lo
water is added to water, its surface tension II. the momenta of all particles arriving at a given point are
(a) increases
.b
same.
(b) decreases III. the speed of particles are below the critical velocity.
(c) may increase or decrease depending upon salt
r8
(a) decreases (b) becomes zero (c) I &III only (d) I, II & III
(c) remains same (d) increases 55. Consider the following statements :
47. A drop of oil is placed on the surface of water. Which of the I. Magnus effect is a consequence of Bernoulli’s principle.
cy
(b) It will spread as a thin layer Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) It will partly be a spherical droplet and partly a thin (a) I only (b) II only
film
ch
49. Kerosene oil rises up in a wick of a lantern because of II. density of liquid
(a) diffusion of the oil through the wick III. height of liquid from the hole
w
(d) the gravitational pull of the wick (a) I & II only (b) I, III & IV
50. Due to capillary action, a liquid will rise in a tube if angle of (c) III & IV only (d) II, III & IV
contact is 57. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(a) acute (b) obtuse
I. For gases, in general, viscosity increases with
(c) 90º (d) zero
temperature
51. With the increase in temperature, the angle of contact
(a) decreases II. For liquids, viscosity varies directly with pressure
(b) increases III. For gases, viscosity is independent of pressure
(c) remains constant (a) I & II (b) II & III
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases (c) I & III (d) I, II, & III
EBD_7208
146 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
58. Which of the following statements is/are true? 60. Select the false statement(s) about surface tension from the
I. Solid friction is independent of area of surface in contact following?
and viscous drag is also independent of area of layers I. Surface tension is the extra energy that the molecules
in contact. at the interface have as compared to the molecules in
II. Solid friction depends on the relative velocity of one the interior
body on the surface of another body while viscous II. The value of surface tension is independent of the
drag is independent of the relative velocity between temperature
two layers of the liquid. III. Surface tension causes capillary action
III. Solid friction is directly proportional to the normal (a) I only (b) II only
reaction while viscosity is independent of the normal (c) I & II (d) I, II & III
reaction between two layers of the liquid. 61. Consider the following statements and select the true
(a) I, II & III (b) I & II statement(s)?
om
(c) III only (d) II only I. A large soap bubble shrinks while a small soap bubble
59. Which of the following are incorrect statement(s) about expands when they are connected to each other by a
viscosity of liquids? capillary tube, in order to gain equilibrium
t.c
I. Viscosity decreases with increase in density II. The raindrops fall on the surface of earth with the same
II. Viscosity decreases with increase in temperature constant velocity
III. Viscosity of liquids (except water) decreases with III. A hydrogen filled balloon stops rising after it has
po
increase in pressure attained a certain height in the sky
(a) I only (b) II only (a) I only (b) II only
gs
(c) III only (d) I & III (c) III only (d) I & III
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4) (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
cy
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
64. Column I Column II
.te
(A) Terminal velocity (1) Average density becomes less than that of liquid
(B) Objects of high density can also float (2) Upthrust is zero
w
(C) A beaker having a solid iron under free fall (3) Varies with velocity
(D) Viscous drag (4) Upthrust and viscous force
w
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
w
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
65. Column I Column II
(A) Bernoullis theorem (1) Narrower pipes have less pressure
(B) Ball moving with spin (2) Paint gun
(C) Artificial high pressure (3) Non-viscous fluids
(D) Streamline flow (4) Conservation of energy
(5) Uplift due to pressure difference
(a) (A) (3,4) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1,3) (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS 147
om
(C) More than gauge pressure (3) Actual pressure
(D) Mixing of drops of smaller dimension (4) Increase the angle of contact
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (5) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
t.c
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
68. Column I Column II
po
(A) Capillaries of smaller radii (1) Flat meniscus
(B) Fc > 2Fa where Fc and Fa are cohesive (2) Greater height difference
gs
and adhesive force
(C) Angle of contact is zero (3) Drop in level
(D) Lower angle of contact (4)
lo
Welding agents
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2,3)
.b
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
r8
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
ch
(a) 3< 1 2
Water Water
w
(b) 1> 3 2
w
(a) the pressure on the bottom of tank (a) is greater than at (d) 1< 3 2
the bottom of (b)
(b) the pressure on the botttom of the tank (a) is smaller 72. A ball is made of a material of density where
than at the bottom (b) oil with oil and water representing the
water
(c) the pressure depend on the shape of the container densities of oil and water, respectively. The oil and water are
(d) the pressure on the bottom of (a) and (b) is the same. immiscible. If the above ball is in equilibrium in a mixture of
71. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having this oil and water, which of the following pictures represents
densities 1 and, 2 respectively. A solid ball, made of a its equilibrium position?
EBD_7208
148 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
76. On heating water, bubbles being formed at the bottom of the
vessel detach and rise. Take the bubbles to be spheres of
water Oil radius R and making a circular contact of radius r with the
bottom of the vessel. If r << R and the surface tension of
(a) (b) water is T, value of r just before bubbles detach is:
Oil water (density of water is )
w
water Oil
(c) (d)
om
Oil water
t.c
accelerated with acceleration a as shown. If d is the
separation between the limbs, then what is the difference in 2r
po
the levels of the liquid in the U-tube is
2 g 2 wg
(a) R
w
(b) R2
h = h1–h2 3T 3T
gs
2 g 3 g
(c) R
w
(d) R2 w
a lo T T
77. A thin liquid film formed between a U-
.b
d shaped wire and a light slider supports a
ad ag weight of 1.5 × 10–2 N (see figure). The Film
r8
(a) g
(b) length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight
d
negligible. The surface tension of the
a dg
be
(a) 3.81 × 105 N/m2 (b) 6 × 106 N/m2 78. Assertion: Mercury is preferred as a barometric substance
w
om
in water. Reason : Water works as glue and sticks two glass plates.
83. Assertion : The blood pressure in humans is greater at the 96. Assertion : It is better to wash the clothes in cold soap
feet than at the brain solution.
Reason : Pressure of liquid at any point is proportional to
t.c
Reason : The surface tension of cold solution is more than
height, density of liquid and acceleration due to gravity the surface tension of hot solution.
84. Assertion : Hydrostatic pressure is a vector quantity. 97. Assertion : The concept of surface tensiton is held only for
po
Reason : Pressure is force divided by area, and force is vector liquid
quantity.
Reason : Surface tension does not hold for gases.
85. Assertion : The velocity of flow of a liquid is smaller when
gs
98. Assertion : When height of a tube is less than liquid rise in
pressure is larger and vice-versa.
the capillary tube, the liquid does not overflow
Reason : According to Bernoulli’s theorem, for the stream
line flow of an ideal liquid, the total energy per unit mass Reason : Product of radius of meniscus and height of liquid
lo
remains constant in capillary tube always remains constant.
.b
86. Assertion : A bubble comes from the bottom of a lake to the
top. CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
r8
storm. water is 1.03 g/cc and that of ice is 0.92 g/cc. The fraction of
Reason : Air flows from higher pressure to lower pressure. total volume of iceberg above the level of sea water is near
88. Assertion : As wind flows left to right and a ball is spinned by
cy
1
state in water its part remains inside the water. On this
the pressure more than that above the ball. 3
89. Assertion : Lifting of aircraft is caused by pressure floating piece of wood what maximum weight is to be put
w
Reason : As the wings/ aerofoils move against the wind, (a) 15 kg (b) 14 kg
the streamlines crowd more above them than below, causing (c) 10 kg (d) 12 kg
w
higher velocity above than below. 102. A vessel contains oil (density = 0.8 gm/cm3) over mercury
90. Assertion: The pressure of water reduces when it flows (denisty = 13.6 gm/cm3). A homogeneous sphere floats with
from a narrow pipe to a wider pipe. half of its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in
Reason: Since for wider pipe area is large, so flow of speed oil. The density of the material of the sphere in gm/cm3 is
is small and pressure also reduces proportionately. (a) 3.3 (b) 6.4
91. Assertion : Falling raindrops acquire a terminal velocity. (c) 7.2 (d) 12.8
Reason : A constant force in the direction of motion and a 103.In a hydraulic lift, compressed air exerts a force F1 on a small
velocity dependent force opposite to the direction of motion, piston having a radius of 5 cm. This pressure is transmitted
always result in the acquisition of terminal velocity. to a second piston of radius 15 cm. If the mass of the load to
EBD_7208
150 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
be lifted is 1350 kg, find the value of F1 ? The pressure the magnitude of q is
necessary to accomplish this task is (a) 1.6 × 10–19 C (b) 3.2 × 10–19 C
(a) 1.4 × 105 Pa (b) 2 × 105 Pa (c) 4.8 × 10–19 C (d) 8.0 × 10–19 C
5
(c) 1.9 × 10 Pa (d) 1.9 Pa 111. A solid sphere of density 1 times lighter than water is
104. The two thigh bones, each of cross - sectional area
suspended in a water tank by a string tied to its base as
10 cm 2 support the upper part of a human body of mass shown in fig. If the mass of the sphere is m, then the tension
40 kg. Estimate the average pressure sustained by the in the string is given by
bones. Take g = 10 m/s2
(a) 2 × 105 N/m2 (b) 5 × 104 N/m2
(c) 2 × 107 N/m2 (d) 3 × 106 N/m2
105. A hemispherical bowl just floats without sinking in a liquid
om
of density 1.2 × 103 kg/m3. If outer diameter and the density
of the bowl are 1 m and 2 × 104 kg/m3 respectively then the
inner diameter of the bowl will be 1
t.c
(a) mg (b) mg
(a) 0.94 m (b) 0.97 m
(c) 0.98 m (d) 0.99 m mg
(c) (d) 1 mg
po
106. A uniform rod of density is placed in a wide tank containing 1
a liquid of density 0( 0 > ). The depth of liquid in the tank 112. An air bubble of radius 1 cm rises with terminal velocity 0.21
is half the length of the rod. The rod is in equilibrium, with its cm/s in liquid column. If the density of liquid is 1.47 × 103 kg/
gs
lower end resting on the bottom of the tank. In this position m3. Then the value of coefficient of viscosity of liquid
the rod makes an angle with the horizontal ignoring the density of air, will be
1 (a) 1.71 × 104 poise
lo (b) 1.82 × 104 poise
1 0 4
(a) sin 0 / (b) sin . (c) 1.78 × 10 poise (d) 1.52 × 104 poise
2 2 113. The relative velocity of two parallel layers of water is 8 cm/
.b
(c) sin / 0 (d) sin 0 / sec. If the perpendicular distance between the layers is 0.1
cm. Then velocity gradient will be
r8
(coefficient of viscosity 4
8.5 10 Pa s ) then its
108. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of water
density 1. It is falling through a liquid of density 2 ( 2< terminal velocity in glycerine ( 12 gcm 3 ,
no
13.2 Pa s)
1). Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on the would be nearly
ball that is proportional to the square of its speed v, i.e.,
(a) 1.6 × 10–5 cms–1 (b) 6.25 × 10–4 cms–1
Fviscous = –kv2 (k > 0). The terminal speed of the ball is
ch
–4
(c) 6.45 × 10 cms –1 (d) 1.5 × 10–5 cms–1
Vg ( 1 – 2) Vg 1 115. A glass tube of uniform internal radius (r) has a valve
(a) (b)
.te
om
(c) r1 – r2 (d) 126. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from
2 radius 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly (surface tension of soap solution
118. A boy can reduce the pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of = 0.03 Nm–1)
t.c
mercury. Using a straw he can drink water from a glass upto (a) 0.2 mJ (b) 2 mJ
the maximum depth of (atmospheric pressure = 760 mm of
(c) 0.4 mJ (d) 4 mJ
mercury; density of mercury = 13.6 gcm–3)
po
127. Two soap bubbles A and B are kept in a closed chamber
(a) 13.6 cm (b) 9.8 cm where the air is maintained at pressure 8 N/m2. The radii of
(c) 10 cm (d) 76 cm bubbles A and B are 2 cm and 4 cm, respectively.Surface
gs
119. An open glass tube is immersed in mercury in such a way tension of the soap-water used to make bubbles is 0.04 N/m.
that a length of 8 cm extends above the mercury level. The Find the ratio nB/nA, where nAand nB are the number of
open end of the tube is then closed and sealed and the tube
is raised vertically up by additional 46 cm. What will be
lo
moles of air in bubbles A and B, respectively. [Neglect the
effect of gravity]
.b
length of the air column above mercury in the tube now? (a) 2 (b) 9
(c) 8 (d) 6
(Atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg)
128. An isolated and charged spherical soap bubble has a radius
r8
(a) rises till half the number of stones are unloaded and
then begins to fall (c) 7 (d) 2
(b) remains unchanged
no
129. Two parallel glass plates are dipped partly in the liquid of
(c) rises density 'd' keeping them vertical . If the distance between
(d) falls the plates is 'x', surface tension for liquids is T and angle of
ch
121. A solid ball of volume V experiences a viscous force F when contact is , then rise of liquid between the plates due to
falling with a speed v in a liquid. If another ball of volume capillary will be
.te
8 V with the same velocity v is allowed to fall in the same T cos 2T cos
liquid, it experiences a force (a) (b)
xd xdg
(a) F (b) l6 F
w
2T T cos
(c) 4 F (d) 2 F (c) (d)
122. xdg cos xdg
w
the surface of the liquid is up to 8 cm. If the entire arrangement is put in a freely falling
(a) 0.075 N (b) 1.5 × 10–2 N elevator the length of water column in the capillary tube will
(c) 0.225 N (d) 2.25 × 10–2 N be
123. A water film is formed between two straight parallel wires of (a) 10 cm (b) 8 cm
(c) 20 cm (d) 4 cm
10 cm length 0.5 cm apart. If the distance between wires is
131. In a capillary tube, water rises to 3 mm. The height of water
increased by 1 mm. What will be the work done ?
that will rise in another capillary tube having one-third radius
(surface tension of water = 72 dyne/cm)
of the first is
(a) 36 erg (b) 288 erg
(a) 1 mm (b) 3mm
(c) 144 erg (d) 72 erg
(c) 6 mm (d) 9mm
EBD_7208
152 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
132. A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof of a water is T then the pressure in water between the plates is
house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. Assuming that the lower by
pressure inside the house is atmospheric pressure, the force
exerted by the wind on the roof and the direction of the force Cylindrical surface
will be ( air = 1.2 kg/m3) of water
(a) 4.8 × 105 N, upwards
(b) 2.4 × 105 N, upwards 2T 4T
(a) (b)
(c) 2.4 × 105 N, downwards R R
(d) 4.8 × 105 N, downwards T T
(c) (d)
4R R
133. In a surface tension experiment with a capillary tube water 139. Water rises to a height 'h' in a capillary tube. If the length of
rises upto 0.1 m. If the same experiment is repeated on an capaillary tube above the surface of water is made less than
om
artificial satellite, which is revolving around the earth, water 'h' then
will rise in the capillary tube upto a height of (a) water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays there
without overflowing
(a) 0.1 m
t.c
(b) water rises upto a point a little below the top and stays
(b) 0.2 m there
(c) 0.98 m
po
(c) water does not rise at all.
(d) full length of the capillary tube (d) Water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts
134. Water rises in a capillary tube to a certain height such that overflowing like fountain.
gs
the upward force due to surface tension is balanced by 7.5 × 140. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius, R, one end
10–4N force due to the weight of the liquid. If the surface of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the speed of the
tension of water is 6 × 10–2Nm–1, the inner circumference of liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid
lo
the capillary tube must be through the holes is
.b
(a) 1.25 × 10–2m (b) 0.50 × 10–2m
(c) 6.5 × 10 m–2 (d) 12.5 × 10–2m VR 2 VR 2
(a) (b)
nr 2 n3r 2
r8
136. If the surface tension of water is 0.06 Nm –1, then the capil- coalesce to form a single drop of radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’.
lary rise in a tube of diameter 1 mm is ( = 0°) If ‘T’ is the surface tension of the liquid, then :
no
r R
2Scos
by h = this is for which of the following cases, 1 1
h g (b) energy = 3VT is absorbed
.te
separated by very small distance (see figure), it is very (d) energy is neither released nor absorbed
difficult to pull them apart. It is because the water in between 142. Two capillary tubes A and B of diameter 1 mm and 2 mm
w
forms cylindrical surface on the side that gives rise to lower respectively are dipped vertically in a liquid. If the capillary
pressure in the water in comparison to atmosphere. If the rise in A is 6 cm, then the capillary rise in B is
radius of the cylindrical surface is R and surface tension of (a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm
(c) 4 cm (d) 6 cm
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS 153
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 23. (c) In Bernoulli’s theorem only law of conservation of
energy is obeyed.
1. (d) 2. (b) 24. (c) Bernoulli’s equation is a indespensable tool for the
3. (d) 1 atm = 1.01 × 105 Pa; 1 bar = 105 Pa analysis of flow of liquids.
Pa, atm, Bar, all are the units of pressure. 25. (a)
4. (b) Sphygmomanometer is the blood pressure gauge and 26. (c) Magnus effect of the ball can be explained easily by
it measures the gauge pressure. Bernoulli’s theorem.
om
5. (c) Liquid pressure depends upon the height of liquid 27. (b) The theorem of continuity is valid.
column and is independent of the shape of liquid surface A1v1 = A2v2 as the density of the liquid can be
and the area of liquid surface. The liquid at rest exerts taken as uniform.
t.c
equal pressure in all directions.
A2
6. (d) Hydraulic machines & lifts are based on A1
F1 F2
po
P1 = P2 ;
A1 A 2
7. (a) Archimedes's principle states that when a body is A1v1 = A2v2
immersed in a liquid, it loses it weight and the loss in
gs
Smaller the area, greater the velocity.
weight of body is equal to the weight of the liquid 28. (a) 29. (c)
displaced by the immersed part of the body. 30. (a) As the temperature rises the atoms of the liquid become
8. (c) Specific gravity of a body is defined as ratio of weight
of body in air to the loss of weight of body in water at 31. (b)
lo
more mobile and the coefficient of viscosity falls.
When terminal velocity is reached then body moves
.b
4°C. with constant velocity hence, accelesation is zero.
Vsg s 32. (a) Terminal velocities of rain drops are proportional to
r8
is used for measuring small pressure differenes. 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a)
11. (c) Weight of water displaced 36. (b) The various forces acting on the plate are,
no
3
(i) Weight of the plate acting vertically downward
(Below the water volum = v) (ii) Surface tension acting vertically downwards
4
=V g (iii) Upthrust due to liquid acting vertically upward
ch
15. (b) 16. (a) between like molecules of a liquid i.e., cohesive force
17. (d)
w
18. (c) P = h g i.e. pressure does not depend upon the area the surface area of a liquid under isothermal condition.
of bottom surface. 42. (a) The surface tension of liquid at critical temperature is
19. (b) zero.
20. (b) Beyond the critical speed, the flow of fluids becomes 1
43. (c) Excess of pressure in a soap bubble, P = 4T/r i.e., P
turbulent as the flow loses its steadiness. r
21. (d) Reynold’s number N for turbulent motion is more than therefore pressure in a smaller bubble is more than that
v r of a bigger bubble. When two bubbles of different radii
3000 and N i.e., N v are in communication, then the air flows from higher
22. (a) In stream line flow velocity of flow at any point in the pressure to lower pressure i.e. from smaller bubble into
liquid does not vary with time. larger one.
EBD_7208
154 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
44. (a) When two drops merge together to form one drop, the 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (d)
surface area of drop will decrease, due to which the 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (b)
energy of bigger drop is less than the sum of the energy
of two smaller drops. Due to it, the energy is released. DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
45. (a) When a highly soluble salt (like sodium chloride) is
70. (d) Pressure = h g i.e. pressure at the bottom is
dissolved in water, the surface tension of water
independent of the area of the bottom of the tank. It
increases.
depends onthe height of water upto which the tank is
46. (b) When a sparingly soluble salt (like detergent) added to
filled with water. As is both the tanks, the levels of
water, the surface tension of water decreases.
water are the same, pressure at the bottom is also the
47. (b) The surface tension of oil is less than that of water, so
same.
the oil spreads as a thin layer.
71. (d) From the figure it is clear that liquid 1 floats on liquid 2.
48. (b) The contact angle between water & glass is acute but
om
The lighter liquid floats over heavier liquid. Therefore
that of water & mercury is obtuse.
the liquid meniscus is common for mercury. we can conclude that 1 2
49. (b) Kerosene oil rises up in wick of a lantern because of Also 3 < 2 otherwise the ball would have sink to the
t.c
capillary action. If the surface tension of oil is zero, bottom of the jar.
then it will not rise, so oil rises up in a wick of a lantern Also 3 > 1 otherwise the ball would have floated in
po
due to surface tension. liquid 1. From the above discussion we conclude that
1 < 3 < 2.
2 T cos
50. (a) 72. (b)
gs
h ; The liquid will rise i.e., h is positive oil water
r g
Oil is the least dense of them so it should settle at the
if cos is +ve; It is so if < 90º or is acute. top with water at the base. Now the ball is denser than
51. (a) With the increase in temperature, the surface tension
of liquid decreases and angle of contact also decreases.
lo
oil but less denser than water. So it will sink through oil
.b
but will not sink in water. So it will stay at the oil-water
interface.
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
r8
53. (d) According to Bernoulli's theorem, when velocity of Force due to pressure difference in the two limbs
liquid flow increases, the pressure decreases. As the = (h1 g – h2 g) A
two boats moving in parallel directions close to each Equating both the forces
cy
other, the stream of water between the boats is set into (h1 – h2) gA = Ad a
vigorous motion. As a result the presssure exerted by
no
other.
74. (a)
54. (d) For streamline flow, all are correct.
.te
55. (c)
56. (c) Velocity of efflux, ve 2 gh , clearly ve depends on g
w
and h.
57. (d) For gases, T ; for liquids, increases with
w
of pressure.
58. (c) 59. (d)
60. (b) Surface tension depends on the temperature like
viscosity, surface tension decreases with rise in
temperature. Suppose Pgas is the pressure of the gas on the oil. As
61. (c) the points A and B are at the same level in the mercury
columns, so
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS PA = PB
62. (a) (A) (3) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4) or Pgas + oil ghoil = Pa + Hg g hHg
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS 155
or Pgas + 820 9.8 (1 + 1.50) = 80. (a)
Pa + 13.6 103 9.8 (1.5 + 0.75) 81. (b) According to Pascal's law, if gravity effect is neglected,
the pressure at every point of liquid in equilibrium of
or Pgas + 20.09 103 = Pa + 299.88 103 rest is same
Pgas – Pa = 299.88 103 – 20.09 103
F1
or [Pgas]gauge = 279.8 103 N/m2 Load
a1 C D a2
= 2.8 105 N/m2
Absolute pressure of gas F2
[Pgas] absolute = [Pgas]gauge + Pa
= 2.8 105 + 1.01 105
= 3.81 105 N/m2
om
F1 F2 a2
75. (b) The candle floats on the water with half its length above P1 P2 i.e., a or F2 F1
1 a2 a1
and below water level. Let its length be 10 cm. with 5
As a2 >> a1 F2 >> F1
t.c
cm. below the surface and 5 cm. above it. If its length is
reduced to 8 cm, it will have 4 cm. above water surface. This shows that small force (F1) applied onthe smaller
So we see tip going down by 1 cm. So rate of fall of tip piston (of area a1) will be appearing as a very large
po
force onthe larger piston.
= 1 cm/hour.
76. (b) None of the given option is correct. 82. (a) Since the net buoyant force on the brick completely
When the bubble gets detached, submerged in water is independent of its depth below
gs
Bouyant force = force due to surface tension the water surface, the man will have to exert same force
on both the bricks. Hence statement 1 is true, statement
83.
lo
2 is a correct explanation for statement 1.
(a) Height of the blood column in the human body is more
.b
at feet than at the brain. As P = h g. therefore the
R blood exerts more pressure at the feet than at the brain.
r8
2T 85. (a)
Access pressure in air bubble =
R 86. (a) Since, the fluid move from higher pressure to lower
no
at the top than that at the bottom (p0 + h g). So, the air
2 R4 w g 2 wg bubble moves from the bottom to the top and does not
r2 r R2
3T 3T move sideways, since the pressure is same at the same
.te
77. (d) At equilibrium, weight of the given block is balanced level. Further in coming from bottom to top the pressure
by force due to surface tension, i.e., decreases. According to Boyle's law pV = constant.
2L. S = W
w
or S 0.025 Nm
2L 2 0.3 m 87. (a) 88. (a) 89. (a)
90. (d) Pressure of water reduces when it comes from wide
w
om
Due to it the forces of cohesion in the gas molecules
are very small and these are quite large for liquids. W' 2/3
Therefore, the concept of surface tension is applicable W' 2W W' 2 6 12 kg
W 1/ 3
to liquid but not to gases.
102. (c)
t.c
2T 2T
98. (a) h hR hR constant
Rdg dg
po
Hence when the tube is of insufficient length, radius of Oil
curvature of the liquid meniscus increases, so as to
gs
maintain the product hR a finite constant. Mercury
i.e., as h decreases, R increases and the liquid meniscus
becomes more and more flat, but the liquid does not
overflow.
lo
As the sphere floats in the liquid. Therefore its weight
.b
will be equal to the upthrust force on it
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 4 3
r8
R g R 0.8 g R 13.6 g
Thus the fraction of total volume of iceberg above the 3 3 3
sea level 2 0.8 13.6 14.4 7.2
ch
100% 100%
V V A1 (5 5)
F1 F2 (1350 9.81)
A2 (15 15)
0.11
w
100. (b) The volume of liquid displaced by floating ice F1 1.5 103
1.9 105 Pa
w
P=
M A1 (5 10 2 m) 2
VD
L 104. (a) Total cross-sectional area of the thigh bones
M A = 2 (10 × 10–4) = 2 × 10–3 m2
Volume of water formed by melting ice, VF Force acting on the bones = mg = 40 10
w
= 400 N
M M
If L w , then i.e., VD VF F 400
L w Pav = A 3 = 2 × 105 N/m2
2 10
i.e., volume of liquid displaced by floating ice will be
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS 157
105. (c) Weight of the bowl = mg P1 = P2 + 1/2 v2
P1 – P2 = P = 1/2 v2.
3 3
4 D d Since the area of the roof is A, the aerodynamic lift
V g g
3 2 2 exerted on it = F = ( P) A
F = 1/2 Av2
Where D = Outer diameter where = density of air = 1.3 kg/m3
d = Inner diameter , = Density of bowl A = 20 m2, v = 29.44 m/sec.
Weight of the liquid diplaced by the bowl F = {1/2 × 1.3 × 20 × (29.44)2} N = 1.127 × 104 N.
3 108. (a) The condition for terminal speed (vt) is
D Weight = Buoyant force + Viscous force
V g g
3 2 Fv B=V 2 g
om
where is the density of the liquid
For the floation
3 3 3
4 D 4 D d
t.c
g pg
3 2 3 2 2
W=V 1 g
po
3 3 3
1 1 d
1.2 103 2 104 Vg ( 1 2)
2 2 2 V 1g V 2 g kvt2 vt
k
gs
By solving we get d = 0.98 m. 109. (b)
106. (a) Let L = PQ = length of rod
L
SP = SQ =
2
lo vf 2
3
2
vf = Weff
3
.b
Weight of rod, W = Al g. acting
At point S
r8
Weff = vf
Q
be
R Weff
Weff
When the When the ball attains
ball is released When the ball attains
terminal velocity
2/3 of terminal velocity
cy
FB S L
h = L/2 When the ball is just released, the net force on ball is
no
2 2
l2 l 2
w
2 1
h L 1 0 Hence net force is Weff Weff Weff
From figure, sin 3 3
l 2l 2
required acceleration is a/3
107. (a) Air flows just above the roof and there is no air flow 110. (d) When the electric field is on
just below the roof inside the room. Therefore v1 = 0 Force due to electric field = weight
and v2 = v. Applying Bermaulli’s theorem at the points 4 3
inside and outside the roof, we obtain. qE = mg qE = R g
3
(1/2) v12 + gh1 + P1 = (1/2) v22 + gh2 + P2. 4 R3 g
Since h1 = h2 = h, v1 = 0 and v2 = v1 q ...(i)
3E
EBD_7208
158 MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
When the electric field is switched off
Weight = viscous drag force
mg = 6 Rvt
4 3
R g 6 Rvt
3 2 1
Subhemispherical Hemispherical
9 vt
R ...(ii) radius = r2 radius = r1
2 g
3
116. (c) Velocity of efflux v = 2gh
4 9 vt 2 g 1
From (i) & (ii) g = 2 10 0.2 2 ms
3 2 g E
117. (a) Volumes of two soap bubbles
om
3
4 3 4 3
4 9 1.8 10 5 2 10 3 2
900 9.8 7 V1r1 and V2 r
3 3 2
3 2 900 9.8 81 105
t.c
where r1 and r2 are the radii of soap bubbles.
= 7.8 × 10–19 C Let s be the surface tension of the soap solution. The
111. (d) T mg = Fb Fb excess pressure inside the two soap bubbles, then
po
T = Fb – mg 4S 4S
P1 and P2
=V wg mg r1 r2
gs
m When these two bubbles coalesce under isothermal
= wg mg T
w/ conditions a bigger bubble of radius R is formed. If V
mg
=( 1)mg .
lo
and P be the volume and excess pressure inside this
bigger bubble, then
.b
112. (d) Using the formula of the terminal velocity of a body 4 3 4S
VR and P
falling through a viscous medium, 3 R
r8
9 9v
i.e., P1V1 + P2V2 = PV
Where is the density of material of body and is the
density of medium. 4S 4 3 4S 4 3 4S 4 3
cy
2 2 3 = (760 –750) mm of Hg
2 (10 ) 1.47 10
2 1.47 9.8 10 9.8
–2
9 0.21 = 10 mm of Hg = 1 cm of Hg
9 0.21 10
Let the boy can suck water from depth h. Then
.te
3 4
= 1.52 × 10 decapoise = 1.52 × 10 Poise
113. (a) dv = 8 cm/s and dx = 0.1 cm Pressure difference = h water g = 1 cm of Hg
or, h × 1g cm–3 × 980 cm s–2
dv 8
w
om
greater than outside pres-
4 3 r
121. (d) From stoke's law, F = 6 R1v, and V = R
3 sure in bubble.
pa
t.c
4
F' = 6 R2v, volume 8 V (2R)3 pa
3
po
=6 (2R)v
This excess pressure is provided by charge on bubble.
= 2F
gs
122. (d) Surface tension = 0.075 N/m; diameter = 30 cm = 0.30 m 4T 2
4T Q2 Q
Force = 0.075 × 0.30 = 0.0225 N = 2.25 × 10–2N. ; 2 4
r 2 0 r 16 r 2 0 4 r2
123. (c) Work done = Surface tension × increase in area of the lo
film Q 8 r 2rT 0
.b
W=S× A 129. (b) x
b
Increase in area = Final area – initial area
r8
Surface tension, S =
2 (change in area)
Let the width of each plate is b and due to surface
ch
4
3 10 tension liquid will rise upto height h then upward force
= 3 × 10–2 N/m
2 10(11 6) (10 2 ) 2 due to surface tension.
.te
= 2Tbcos ...(i)
125. (a) W = T A = 4 R2T(n1/3 – 1) Weight of the liquid rises in between the plates
= 4 × 3.14 × (10–2)2 × 460 × 10–3 [(106)1/3 –1] = 0.057 = Vdg = (bxh)dg ...(ii)
w
126. (c) Work done = Change in surface energy Equating (i) and (ii) we get, 2T cos = xhdg
w
2T 2T 2 6 10 –2
For second, h 2 = 136. (b) h 2.4 10 2 m 2.4cm
r2 g rdg 5 10 4
103 10
h1 r2 3 r1 r1 2s cos
= r2 = 137. (d) Since h =
h2 r1 h2 3×r1 3 h g
if is obtuse, cos is negative. Hence h is negative
h 2 = 9mm
and water is depressed in the tube.
132. (b) According to Bernoulli’s theorem,
T T
P 1
v2 P0 0 138. (d) Here excess pressure, Pexcess =
2 r1 r2
om
1 2 P
So, P= v T r1 R
2 Pexcess =
R r2 O
1 2 P0
t.c
F = PA = vA
2 139. (a) Water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays
there without overflowing.
po
1 140. (a) Inflow rate of volume of the liquid = Outflow rate of
= × 1.2 × 40 × 40 × 250
2 volume of the liquid
= 2.4 × 105 N (upwards)
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R 2V VR 2
133. (d) In the satellite , the weight of the liquid column is zero. R2V = n r2(v) v=
n r2 nr 2
So the liquid will rise up to the top of the tube. lo
141. (c) As surface area decreases so energy is released.
134. (a) Weight of the liquid column = T cos × 2 r.
Energy released = 4 R2T[n 1/3 – 1]
.b
For water = 0°. Here weight of liquid column
where R = n 1/3r
W = 7.5 × 10–4 N and T = 6 × 10 –2 N/m. Then
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4
F 6.28 10
135. (b) T 3
5 10 –2 N / m 142. (b) For capillary rise, according, to zurin’s law
2 r 2 3.14 2 10 h1r1 = h2r2
cy
6 × 1 = h2 × 2 h2 = 3 cm
no
ch
.te
w
w
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11
THERMAL PROPERTIES
OF MATTER
om
7. When water is heated from 0ºC to 4ºC, its volume
t.c
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) increases
1. Heat is associated with (b) decreases
po
(a) kinetic energy of random motion of molecules (c) does not change
(b) kinetic energy of orderly motion of molecules (d) first decreases and then increases
gs
(c) total kinetic energy of random and orderly motion of 8. 4200 J of work is required for
molecules (a) increasing the temperature of 10 g of water through
(d) None of these 10°C
2. Heat content of a body depends on
(a) mass of the body (b) temperature of the body
lo
(b) increasing the temperature of 100 g of water through
10°C
.b
(c) specific heat capacity (d) all of the above (c) increasing the temperature of 1 kg of water through
3. Which of the following is not a unit of heat energy ? 10°C
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(a) joule (b) kelvin (d) increasing the temperature of 10 g of water through
10°C
be
180 100 12. Which of the following is an expression for heat capacity?
5. Which of the following pairs may give equal numerical values 1 Q Q
w
om
27. Which law is obeyed when temperature difference
(a) thermal capacity of the body
between the body and the surroundings is small?
(b) specific heat capacity of the body
(a) Stefan’s law (b) Newton’s law of cooling
(c) latent heat capacity of the body
t.c
(d) water equivalent of the body (c) Planck’s law (d) All of these
17. Which of the following is the unit of specific heat 28. Heat is transmitted from higher to lower temperature through
(a) J kg°C–1 (b) J/kg°C actual mass motion of the molecules in
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(c) kg°C/J (d) J/kg°C–2 (a) conduction (b) convection
(c) radiation (d) None of these
TF 32 T
= c , relates the Fahrenheit and 29.
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18. The equation Good absorbers of heat are
180 100
(a) poor emitters (b) non-emitters
Celsius scale temperature. The TF versus Tc graph will be a (c) good emitters (d) highly polished
(a) straight line parallel to x-axis
(b) straight line parallel to y-axis
30.
lo
Three bodies A, B and C have equal area which are
painted red, yellow and black respectively. If they are at
.b
(c) straight line inclined to x-axis same temperature, then
(d) parabolic curve
(a) emissive power of A is maximum.
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(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (c) emissive power of C is maximum.
20. The phenomenon of refreezing the water into ice on (d) emissive power of A, B and C are equal.
removing the increased pressure is called 31. Sweet makers do not clean the bottom of cauldron
cy
21. The value of molar heat capacity at constant temperature is (b) absorption power of black and bright surface is
(a) zero (b) infinity more.
(c) unity (d) 4.2 (c) black and rough surface absorbs more heat.
ch
22. The latent heat of vaporization of a substance is always (d) transmission power of black and rough surface is
(a) greater than its latent heat of fusion more.
32.
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(b) greater than its latent heat of sublimation Lamp black absorbs radiant heat which is near about
(c) equal to its latent heat of sublimation (a) 90% (b) 98%
(d) less than its latent heat of fusion (c) 100% (d) 50%
w
23. A quantity of heat required to change the unit mass of 33. At temperature T, the emissive power and absorption
a solid substance, from solid state to liquid state, while power of a body for certain wavelength are e and a
w
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II. Water can be boiled below room temperature by
II. Heat flows from A to B. lowering the pressure.
III. Heat flows from B to A.
III. On releasing the excess pressure water refreezes into
(a) I and II (b) Only I ice.
t.c
(c) II and III (d) I and III
(a) I only (b) II only
37. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect
(c) I and II (d) II and III
statements.
po
44. Which of the following statements is/are true ?
I. Water expands on heating between 0°C & 4°C
II. The density of water is minimum at 4°C I. Steam causes more severe burns than boiling water.
II. Specific heat capacity of water is maximum
gs
III. Density of water increases on heating above 4°C
IV. Water contracts on heating between 0°C & 4°C (a) I only (b) II only
(a) I and II only (b) III and IV only (c) I and II (d) None of these
(c) I , II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
38. Which of the following statements regarding specific heat
lo
45. Which of the following statements is/ are false about
mode of heat transfer?
.b
capacity of a substance are correct ? It depends on I. In radiation, heat is transfered from one medium to
I. mass of substance. another without affecting the intervening medium
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II. nature of substance. II. Radiation and convection are possible in vaccum
III. temperature of substance. while conduction requires material medium.
be
39. Consider the following statements and select the correct (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
statement(s). 46. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
no
I. Water and ice have same specific heats I. Convection is a mode of heat transfer by actual motion
II. Water and ice have different specific heats of matter.
III. Specific heat of water is more than that of ice II. Convection is possible only in gases.
ch
IV. Specific heat of ice is more than that of water III. Convection can be natural or forced process in nature.
(a) I only (b) II only (a) Only I (b) I and III
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(c) II and III (d) III and IV (c) Only II (d) I, II and III
40. Consider the following statements and select the correct
statement(s). MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
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copper.
(a) I only (b) II only (A) Amount of substance (1) J kg–1 K–1
(c) I and II (d) II and III (B) Coefficient of volume (2) J s–1 K–1
41. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? expansion
I. Gases are poor thermal conductors. (C) Specific heat (3) K–1
II. Liquids have conductivities intermediate between (D) Thermal conductivity (4) mol
solids and gases
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
III. Heat conduction can be take less from old body to
(b) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
hotter body.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
(c) Only III (d) I and II (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
EBD_7208
164 THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER
48. Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(A) Bimetalic strip (1). Change in length (A) A and B are mixed (1). 33.3°C
(B) Steam engine (2) Energy conversion (B) A and C are mixed (2) 52°C
(C) Linear expansion (3) Change in area (C) B and C are mixed (3) 50°C
(D) Area expansion (4) Thermal expansion (D) A, B and C all three (4) 46.67°C
are mixed
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
(a) (A) (1) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (4)
(b) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (3)
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
49. Match the column I and column II.
Column I Column II
om
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
(A) PV = RT (1) Molar specific heat
53. A cylindrical metal rod is shaped into a ring with a small gap
(B) = 3 (2) Newton’s law of cooling
as shown. On heating the system :
t.c
1 Q
(C) C = (3) Ideal gas equation
T
po
dQ
(D) = – k(T2 – T1) (4) Coefficient of expansion
dt
gs
(a) x decreases, r and d increase
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
(b) x and r increase, d decreases
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c)
(d)
(A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C)
(A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C)
(1) ; (D) (2)
(2) ; (D) (1)
lo
(c) x, r and d all increase
(d) x and r decreased, d remains constant
.b
54. Which of the following graphs is correct for pressure
50. Column I Column II
versus temperature, for low density gases?
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(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) –273.15°C 0°C Temperature
(c) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
Gas A
ch
capacity S l1 1 = l2 2 × Gas C
(b)
(B) Two metals (l1, a1) (2) Y is same ×
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(C) Thermal stress (3) S= for T = 0 (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
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(D) Four wires of same (4) Y t 55. In the given pressure-temperature diagram, for water,
material which point indicates triple point ?
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2) D B
(a) A
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) water
(c) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (b) C steam
Pressure (P)
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) ice C A
(c) P P
52. Three liquids A, B and C having same specific heat and
mass m, 2m and 3m have temperatures 20°C, 40°C and 60°C (d) E F E
respectively. Temperature of the mixture when
Temp. (T)
THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER 165
56. In the diagram given above, the CD curve is known as
Temperature
(a) hoarfrost line (b) steam line
Temperature
(c) vapourisation line (d) ice line
57. There rods of the same dimensions have thermal (c) (d)
conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged as shown
in fig. with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 20°C. The
temperature of their junction is Heat supplied Heat supplied
50°C 61. A student takes 50gm wax (specific heat = 0.6 kcal/kg°C)
2K and heats it till it boils. The graph between temperature and
100°C 3K time is as follows. Heat supplied to the wax per minute and
boiling point are respectively
Temperature (°C)
250
om
(a) 500 cal, 50°C
K 200
(b) 1000 cal, 100°C 150
20°C 100
(a) 60° (b) 70° (c) 50° (d) 35°
t.c
(c) 1500 cal, 200°C 50
58. The rate of heat flow through the cross-section of the rod
0
shown in figure is (T2 > T1 and thermal conductivity of the 1 2 3 4 56 7 8
(d) 1000 cal, 200°C
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material of the rod is K) Time (Minute)
62. In the plot of temperature versus time showing changes
r1 r2 in the state of ice on heating, which part represents
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constant temperature ?
L
D
T1 T2 lo
10°C B
C
.b
K r1r2 (T2 T1 ) K (r1 r2 )2 (T2 T1 )
(a) (b)
L
(in °C)
4L
Temp.
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L 2L O tm
59. The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite Time (in sec.)
slab, consisting of two materials having coefficients of
cy
(a) OA (b) AB
thermal conductivity K and 2K and thickness x and 4x,
(c) CD (d) All of these
respectively, are T2 and T1 (T2 T1 ) . The rate of heat 63. Which portion of the graph above indicates that two
no
transfer through the slab, in a steady state is states co-exist in thermal equilibrium ?
A(T2 T1 ) K (a) OA (b) BC
f , with f equal to
ch
2K T1
K
(c) 1
w
1 T T
(d) 0
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3 (a) (b)
60. A block of ice at – 10°C is slowly heated and converted to
steam at 100°C. Which of the following curves represents O t O t
the phenomenon qualitatively
Temperature
Temperature
T T
0 0
(a) (b) (c) (d)
O t O t
Heat supplied Heat supplied
EBD_7208
166 THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER
65. A solid substance is at 30°C. To this substance heat energy 69. Assertion : It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same
is supplied at a constant rate. Then temperature versus distance on the sides.
time graph is as shown in the figure. The substance is in Reason : Air surrounding the fire conducts more heat
liquid state for the portion (of the graph) upwards.
70. Assertion: The triple point of water is a standard fixed
Temperature (T°C)
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(c) ED (d) EF than glass.
66. Which of the given graphs proves Newton’s law of 72. Assertion: In insulators electrons do not contribute to
cooling? their conductivity.
t.c
Reason: In insulators, no free electrons are present, they
cannot conduct heat.
73. Assertion : Specific heat capacity is the cause of
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formation of land and sea breeze.
log (T – T 0)
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log(T – T0)
capacities.
(c) (d) None of these
76. Assertion : A beaker is completely filled with water at 4°C.
cy
4°C.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS 77. Assertion : Water kept in an open vessel will quickly
evaporate onthe surface of the moon.
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
ch
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
of pressure.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
Reason : Ice contracts on melting.
explanation for assertion.
w
79. Assertion : The molecules at 0°C ice and 0°C water will
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a have same potential energy.
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system.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. 80. Assertion : Melting of solid causes no change in internal
67. Assertion : Fahrenheit is the smallest unit measuring energy.
temperature. Reason : Latent heat is the heat required to melt a unit
Reason : Fahrenheit was the first temperature scale used mass of solid.
for measuring temperature. 81. Assertion: The rate of cooling and the rate of loss of heat
68. Assertion : The temperature at which Centigrade and are same thing.
Fahrenheit thermometers read the same is –40° Reason: In both the cases, the material has to cool down
Reason : There is no relation between Faherenheit and and for a given material, rate of cooling and rate of loss
Centigrade temperature. of heat will be same.
THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER 167
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 90. A glass flask is filled up to a mark with 50 cc of mercury at
18°C. If the flask and contents are heated to 38°C, how
82. A metal sheet with a circular hole is heated. The hole much mercury will be above the mark? ( for glass is 9 ×
(a) gets larger 10 –6/ºC and coefficient of real expansion of mercury is 180
(b) gets smaller × 10–6/ºC)
(c) remains of the same size (a) 0.85 cc (b) 0.46 cc (c) 0.153 cc (d) 0.05 cc
(d) gets deformed 91. A bar of iron is 10 cm at 20°C. At 19°C it will be ( of iron
83. A solid ball of metal has a spherical cavity inside it. The ball = 11 × 10–6/°C)
is heated. The volume of cavity will (a) 11 × 10–6 cm longer (b) 11 × 10–6 cm shorter
(a) decrease (b) increase (c) 11 × 10 cm shorter (d) 11 × 10–5 cm longer
–5
(c) remain unchanged (d) have its shape changed 92. The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass
om
84. On a linear temperature scale Y, water freezes at – 160° Y vessel is 153 × 10–6/ºC and in a steel vessel is 144 × 10–6/ºC.
and boils at – 50° Y. On this Y scale, a temperature of 340 K If for steel is 12 × 10–6/ºC , then that of glass is
would be read as : (water freezes at 273 K and boils at 373 K) (a) 9 × 10–6/ºC (b) 6 × 10–6/ºC
(c) 36 × 10–6/ºC (d) 27 × 10–6/ºC
t.c
(a) – 73.7° Y (b) – 233.7° Y
(c) – 86.3° Y (d) – 106.3° Y 93. A lead bullet strikes against a steel plate with a velocity 200
85. On heating a liquid of coefficient of cubical expansion m s–1. If the impact is perfectly inelastic and the heat
po
in a container having coefficient of linear expansion /3, produced is equally shared between the bullet and the
the level of liquid in the container will target, then the rise in temperature of the bullet is (specific
heat capacity of lead = 125 J kg–1 K–1)
gs
(a) rise
(a) 80°C (b) 60°C
(b) fall
(c) 160°C
lo (d) 40°C
(c) remain almost stationary
94. Certain amount of heat is given to 100 g of copper to
(d) It is difficult to say
increase its temperature by 21° C. If the same amount of
.b
86. An iron tyre is to be fitted on to a wooden wheel 1m in
heat is given to 50 g of water, then the rise in its
diameter. The diameter of tyre is 6 mm smaller than that of
temperature is
r8
1 kW at 27°C. The lid of the container is open and energy 95. A hammer of mass 1 kg having speed of 50 m/s, hit a iron
dissipates at rate of 160 J/s. In how much time temperature nail of mass 200 gm. If specific heat of iron is 0.105 cal/gm°C
no
will rise from 27°C to 77°C? [Given specific heat of water is and half the energy is converted into heat. the raise in
4.2 kJ/kg] temperature of nail is
(a) 8 min 20 s (b) 6 min 2 s
ch
temperature is increased by few degrees above 4°C and at becomes water at 100°C which converts y g of ice at 0°C
another time it is decreased by a few degrees below 4°C. into water at 100°C. The numeric value of y is
One shall observe that:
w
(b) in first case water flows while in second case its level entire K.E. of water is converted into heat, the rise in
comes down temperature of water will be
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(c) in second case water over flows while in first case its (a) 0.23°C (b) 0.46°C
comes down (c) 2.3°C (d) 0.023°C
(d) water overflows in both the cases 98. 19 g of water at 30°C and 5 g of ice at – 20°C are mixed
89. Assuming no heat losses, the heat released by the together in a calorimeter. What is the final temperature of
condensation of x g of steam at 100°C can be used to convert the mixture? Given specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal g–1(°C)–1
y g of ice at 0°C into water at 100°C, the ratio x : y is : and latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal g–1
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (a) 0°C (b) –5°C
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1 (c) 5°C (d) 10°C
EBD_7208
168 THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER
99. Steam is passed into 22 g of water at 20°C . The mass of 107. The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures
water that will be present when the water acquires a 100°C and 110°C. The rate of heat flow in the rod is found to
temperature of 90°C is (Latent heat of steam is 540 cal/gm) be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 200°C
(a) 24.8 gm (b) 24 gm (c) 36.6 gm (d) 30 gm and 210°C, the rate of heat flow will be
(a) 16.8 J/s (b) 8.0 J/s
100. A 2 kg copper block is heated to 500°C and then it is placed
(c) 4.0 J/s (d) 44.0 J/s
on a large block of ice at 0°C. If the specific heat capacity of
108. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine
copper is 400 J/kg°C and latent heat of fusion of water is 3.5
is 5 × 10-4 K-1. The fractional change in the density of
× 105 J/kg, the amount of ice that can melt is
glycerine for a rise of 40°C in its temperature, is:
(a) (7/8) kg (b) (7/5) kg (a) 0.020 (b) 0.025
(c) (8/7) kg (d) (5/7) kg (c) 0.010 (d) 0.015
101. Two spheres of different materials one with double the radius 109. Four identical rods of same material are joined end to end to
om
and one-fourth wall thickness of the other are filled with form a square. If the temperature difference between the
ends of a diagonal is 100°C, then the temperture difference
ice. If the time taken for complete melting of ice in the larger
between the ends of other diagonal will be
sphere is 25 minute and for smaller one is 16 minute, the
t.c
ratio of thermal conductivities of the materials of larger 100 100
(a) 0°C C (c)
(b) º C (d) 100°C
spheres to that of smaller sphere is l 2l
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 25 : 8 (d) 8 : 25
po
(where l is the length of each rod)
102. Ice starts forming in a lake with water at 0ºC when the 110. Three very large plates of same area are kept parallel and
atomspheric temperature is –10ºC. If the time taken for the close to each other. They are considered as ideal black
gs
first 1 cm of ice to be formed is 7 hours, then the time taken surfaces and have very high thermal conductivity. The first
for the thickness of ice to change from 1 cm to 2 cm is and third plates are maintained at temperatures 2T and 3T
respectively. The temperature of the middle (i.e. second)
lo
(a) 7 hours (b) 14 hours
plate under steady state condition is
(c) 21 hours (d) 3.5 hours
.b
1/ 4 1/ 4
103. A kettle with 2 litre water at 27°C is heated by operating coil 65
T
97
T
(a) (b)
heater of power 1 kW. The heat is lost to the atmosphere at 2 4
r8
(c) 14 min (d) 7 min radii r1 and r 2 are kept at temperatures T1 and T 2 ,
104. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When respectively. The radial rate of flow of heat in a substance
between the two concentric spheres is proportional to
no
om
(c) 4.0 × 10–5/°C (d) 2.0 × 10–5/°C 121. In a surrounding medium of temperature 10°C, a body takes
116. A pendulum clock is 5 seconds fast at temperature of 15ºC 7 min for a fall of temperature from 60°C to 40°C. In what
and 10 seconds slow at a temperature of 30ºC. At what time the temperature of the body will fall from 40°C to 28°C?
t.c
temperature does it give the correct time? (take time interval (a) 7 min (b) 11 min
= 24 hours) (c) 14 min (d) 21 min
(a) 18ºC (b) 20ºC
po
122. A container contains hot water at 100°C. If in time T1
(c) 22ºC (d) 25ºC temperature falls to 80° C and the time T2 temperature falls
117. The tempertaure of equal masses of three different liquids to 60°C form 80°C, then
gs
A, B and C are 12°C, 19°C and 28°C respectively. The (a) T1 = T2 (b) T1 > T2
temperature when A and B are mixed is 16°C and when B (c) T1 < T2 (d) None of these
and C are mixed is 23°C . The temperature when A and C are 123. lo
Consider two hot bodies B1 and B2 which have temperatures
mixed is 100°C and 80°C respectively at t = 0. The temperature of the
.b
(a) 18.2°C (b) 22°C (c) 20.2°C (d) 25.2°C surroundings is 40°C. The ratio of the respective rates of
118. A solid copper cube of edges 1 cm each is suspended in an cooling R1 and R2 of these two bodies at t = 0 will be
r8
om
18. (c)
TC 0 TF 32 TK 273.15 Temp.(°F)
= =
100 180 100
t.c
5. (a) The normal temperature of a person is 98.6°F or 37°C.
6. (c) Solids, liquids and gases all expand on being heated,
as a result density (=mass/volume) decreases.
po
Temp.°C
7. (d)
8. (b) Work done to raise the temperature of 100 gm water 19. (c) Dry ice and iodine pass from solid to vapour state
gs
through 10°C is without going into the liquid state.
W = JQ = 4.2 × (100 × 10–3× 1000 ×10) =4200 J 20. (d)
9. (b) Triple point of water is 273.16 K 21. (b) At constant temperature molar heat capacity
lo
10. (a) Let the readings of two thermometers coincide at C =
Q
.b
F=x
CT =
C F 32 n T
As
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5 9 T is const. T=0
x x 32
be
Q
5 9 CT = =
0
or 9x = 5x – 160
22. (a) The latent heat of vaporization is always greater
cy
4x = – 160, x = – 40°C
11. (a) Among glass, wood and metals, metals expand more than latent heat of fusion because in liquid to
for same rise in temperature. vapour phase change there is a large increase in
no
12. (b) Heat capacity is the amount of heat absorbed by a volume. Hence more heat is required as compared to
substance for a unit rise in temperature. solid to liquid phase change
ch
Q 23. (d)
Q 24. (d) H = ncp t
Q S S=
.te
T 25. (c) Water has highest specific heat capacity and hence
13. (d) Thermal conductivity of air is very-very low 0.024. it is used as a coolant in car radiators as well as
14. (a) V + V = (L + L)3 = (L + L T)3 heater in hot water bags.
w
and 3 terms are neglected. a transport medium. These modes of heat transfer
V (1 + T) = V (1 + 3 T) cannot operate between bodies separated by distance
w
1+ T=1+3 T in vacuum. But the Earth does receive heat from the
3 Sun across a huge distance and we quickly feel the
Q1 Q2 warmth of the fire near by even though air conducts
15. (c) poorly and before convection can set in. We receive
t t
heat from Sun by radiation. Radiation can occur in
T1 T2 T T vacuum.
K1A1 = K2 A 2 1 2 (L1 = L2)
L1 L2 27. (b) When the temperature difference between the body
and surroundings is small, then Newton’s law of
A1 K2
cooling is obeyed.
A2 K1
THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER 171
28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (c) 31. (c) 32. (b)
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (c)
53. (b) Material expands outward and so x, r increases. Due
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS to linear expansion diameter of rod will increase.
54. (a) The graph refers to absolute zero which is same for
36. (a) If TA > TB body 'A' is hotter than body B and heat
low density gases.
flows from A to B i.e., from body at higher temperature
55. (c) The three curves AB, CD and EF meet at point P
to body at lower temperature till the temperature
which is called the triple point of water. It is the
becomes same.
point where all three states solid, liquid and gas of
37. (c)
water co-exists.
38. (b) Specific heat capacity is given by C
S 1 Q 56. (d) Line CD is the border between ice and water. At
m m T every point of line CD, the temperature and pressure
om
It is defined as the amount of heat per unit mass values are such that substance co-exist in solid and
absorbed or rejected by the substance to change its liquid phase.
temperature by one unit. It depends on the nature of dQ T
t.c
the substance and its temperature. It is independent 57. (b) KA
dt L
of mass of substance.
39. (b) Water and ice have different specific heats. Specific
po
dQ 3KA
heat of water is 1 Jg–1°C–1 while that of water ice For the first rod, (100 – )
dt L
is 0.5 Jg–1°C–1. 1
40. (c)
gs
Thermal conductivity of copper is more than that of dQ A
steel, hence stainless steel cooking pans are provided Similarly, 2K ( – 50)
dt 2 L
with extra copper bottoms.
41. (d) Gases are poor thermal conductors while liquids have
conductive intermediate between solids and gases.
lo dQ
K
A
( – 20)
.b
dt 3 L
Heat conduction may be described quantitatively as
the time rate of heat flow in a material for a given dQ dQ dQ
r8
reff r1r2
The temperature at which the liquid and the vapour
states of the substance coexists is called its boiling dQ KA(T2 T 1 ) K r1r2 (T2 T1 )
point.
no
dt L L
43. (d) Water can be boiled, even at low temperature on
59. (d) The thermal resistance is given by
releasing the excess pressure, water refreezes into
ch
om
a negative slope; as a proof of Newton’s law of 3.6 10 –5 497 R
cooling. 500°C
87. (a) Heat gained by the water = (Heat supplied by the coil)
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
– (Heat dissipated to environment)
mc = PCoil t – PLoss t
67. (c) 68. (c)
2 × 4.2 × 103 × (77 – 27) = 1000 t – 160 t
po
69. (c) Heat is carried away from a fire sideways mainly by
4.2 105
radiations. Above the fire, heat is carried by both t = 500 s = 8 min 20 s
radiation and by convection of air. The latter process 840
gs
88. (d) water expands on both sides of 4 °C.
carries much more heat.
89. (c) The heat lost in condensation = x × 540 cal.
70. (a)
71. (a) Metals generally have higher coefficient of linear
expansion. Since copper has 1.7 K–1 and glass has
lo x 540
x
= y 80 y 1 (100 – 0)
.b
1
0.32 K–1 coefficient of linear expansion so, copper or y
=
3
.
expands five times more than glass.
r8
82. (a) The area of circular hole increases when we heat the Length is shorten by
metal sheet & expansion of metal sheet will be 10 – 9.99989 = 0.00011 = 11 × 10–5 cm.
.te
app
Reading on any scale – LFP
84. (c)
w
1 1 99. (a) Let m g of steam get condensed into water (By heat
93. (a) Heat produced = ms T = mv 2 loss). This happens in following two steps.
2 2
2 100°C
v2 200 4 104 Water
T= 80 C 100°C
4s 4 125 4 125 Steam (H1= m × 540)
94. (a) The amount of heat requir ed to increase the
temperature of copper by 21ºC is
[H2= m ×1× (100× 90)]
Q m T 100 10 –3 400 21 J
CuSCu
om
Water
Q1 m T1 50 10 –3 4200 T1
w Sw Heat gained by water (20°C) to raise it's temperature
upto 90°C = 22 × 1× (90 – 20)
t.c
According to question, Q = Q1
100 × 10–3 × 400 × 21 = 50 × 10–3 × 4200 × T1 Hence , in equilibrium, heat lost = Heat gain
m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 90) = 22 × 1 × (90 – 20)
po
2 21 4
T1 4º C m = 2.8 gm
42
The net mass of the water present in the mixture
gs
1 1 = 22 +2.8 =24.8 gm.
95. (a) W = JQ Mv2 J(m.c. )
2 2 100. (c) Let x kg of ice can melt
1
1 (50) 2 4.2[200 0.105 ] 7.1 C
loUsing law of Calorimetry,
Heat lost by copper = Heat gained by ice
.b
4
2 × 400 × (500 – 0) = x × 3.5 × 105
96. (c) Specific heat of water = 4200 J/kg-K
r8
x × 10–3 × 22.68 × 105 J = y × 10–3 × 3.36 × 105 J 101. (d) Radius of small sphere = r
+ y × 10–3 × 4200 × 100 Thickness of small sphere = t
cy
97. (a) 0.0023h 0.0023 100 0.23 C Mass of ice melted = (volume of sphere) × (density of
98. (c) Here, specific heat of ice, Sice = 0.5 cal g–1°C–1 ice)
ch
Specific heat of water, Swater = 1 cal g–1°C–1 Let K1 and K2 be the thermal conductivities of larger
Latent heat of fusion of ice Llice = 80 cal g–1 and smaller sphere.
For bigger sphere,
.te
Here ice will absorb heat while hot water will release it.
4
Let T be the final temperature of the mixture. K1 4 (2r)2 100 (2r)3 L
3
Assuming water equivalent of calorimeter to be
w
t/4 25 60
neglected.
For smaller sphere,
w
K2 3 K1 8
Heat absorbed by ice. K2 25
t 16 60
Q2 = mice × Sice × [0 – (–20)] + mice × Lf ice
102. (c)
+ mice × Swater × (T – 0)
103. (a) By the law of conservation of energy, energy given
= 5 × 0.5 × 20 + 5 × 80 + 5 × 1 × T
by heater must be equal to the sum of energy gained
= 450 + 5T
by water and energy lost from the lid.
According to principle of calorimetry, Q1 = Q2
Pt = ms + energy lost
120 1000t = 2 × 4.2 × 103 × 50 + 160t
i.e., 570 – 19T = 450 + 5T T= 5 C
24 840t = 8.4 × 103 × 50 = 500 sec = 8 min 20 sec
EBD_7208
174 THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER
104. (d) According to the principle of calorimetry.
Heat lost = Heat gained C
mLv + msw = mwsw
H/2 H/2
m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 80)
= 20 × 1 × (80 – 10) B
A
m = 2.5 g
H H
Therefore total mass of water at 80°C
= (20 + 2.5) g = 22.5 g H/2 H/2
105. (a) Let the temperature of surroundings be 0
By Newton's law of cooling D
om
1 2
k 1 2 Heat current will flow from A to B via path ACB and
0
t 2 ADB. Since all the rod are identical, so, ( )AC = ( )AD
t.c
70 60 70 60 (Because heat current H ; here R = same for all)
k 0 R
5 2
po
2 = k [65 – A C A D C D
0] ...(i)
i.e., temperature difference between C and D will be
60 54 60 54 zero.
gs
Similarly, k 0
5 2 110. (c) Under steady conditions, the heat gained per second
by a plate is equal to the heat released per second by
6
5
= k [57 – 0] ...(ii)
lo
the plate.
.b
2T T' 3T
By dividing (i) by (ii) we have
r8
10 65 0
0 = 45º
6 57 0
be
A A
106. (a) From Wein’s displacement law, m × T = constant
P – max. intensity is at violet m is minimum temp
cy
maximum 1 2 3
R – max. intensity is at green m is moderate
Heat gained Heat gained
no
Rise in temperature t = 40°C 111. (d) Consider a shell of thickness (dr) and of radii (r) and
w
0
dQ
Coefficient of volume expansion = rate of flow of heat through it
= 5 × 10–4K–1 dt
= 0 (1 – t) KA[(T dT ) T ] KAdT
= =
dr dr
= T = (5 × 10–4) (40) = 0.02
0 dT
= 4 Kr 2 ( A 4 r2 )
109. (a) Suppose temperature difference between A and B is dr
100°C and A B
THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER 175
Let T be temperature of the junction
T dT
Here, K A 2K B , T TB 50K
dr
At the steady state,
T1 r
r1 HA HB
K A A(TA T) K B A(T TB )
T2
L L
r2
2K B (TA T) K B (T TB )
To measure the radial rate of heat flow, integration
T TB
technique is used, since the area of the surface TA T
through which heat will flow is not constant. 2
om
r2 T2
50K
25K
dQ 1 2
Then, dr 4 K dT
dt
r1 r2 T1 115. (d) 5m t1 = 0°C
t.c
2 5.01m t2 = 100°C
dQ 1 1
4 K T2 T 1 5.01 5
po
dt r1 r2 2 1
2 10 5 / C .
1 (t 2 t1 ) 5 100
dQ 4 Kr1r2 (T2 T1 ) dQ r1 r2 1
gs
or dt (r2 r1 ) 116. (c) t T t
dt (r2 r1 ) 2
mL 1
CB 5
113. (a) 0.1 m A = 0.36 m2 and CB (23 19) Cc (28 23)
CC 4
no
ice 0ºC
CA 15
Rate of heat given by steam = Rate of heat taken by CC
...(i)
16
ch
ice
If is the temperature when A and C are mixed then,
where K = Thermal conductivity of the slab
m = Mass of the ice CA 28
.te
dQ KA(100 0) dL
m , A (T 4 T04 )
118. (c) Rate of cooling
w
dt 1 dt
t mc
w
5
K 100 0.36 4.8 3.36 10
m
0.1 60 60 t [ , t , , (T 4 T04 ) are constant]
A
K =1.24 J/m/s/°C
m Volume a3 t1 a1
TA T TB t t a
2 t2 a2
114. (c) A Area a
A B
100 1
t2 200sec
t2 2
L L
EBD_7208
176 THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER
121. (a) According to Newton's law of cooling,
50 – 49.9 50 49.9
119. (b) K – 30 ....(i)
5 2 1 2 1 2
K 0
t 2
40 – 39.9 40 39.9
K – 30 ....(ii) where
t 2 0 is the surrounding temperature.
From equations (i) and (ii), we get t 10 s. 60 40 60 40
K 10
120. (c) From Newtwon's law of cooling 7 2
dQ dT 20 1
KA 40K K
dt dx 7 14
Area of cross-section A and thickness dx is the same.
40 28 40 28
om
12
Also dQ mCd K 10 24K
t 2 t
Thus in first case
12 12 14
t.c
m C (61 – 59 ) KA 61 51 or t 7 min
30 (i) 24K 24
4 dx 2
d
po
In second case, 122. (c) Rate of colling 1 2
0
dt 2
m C (51 49 ) KA 51 49 In second case average temperature will be less hence
30 (ii)
gs
t dx 2 rate of colling will be less. Therefore time taken will be
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii) more than 4 minutes.
123. (a) Initially at t = 0
lo
t 30 Rate of cooling (R) Fall in temperature of body
or t = 6 minutes.
.b
4 20 ( – 0)
R1 – 100 – 40 3
r8
1 0
R2 2 – 0 80 – 40 2
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
12
THERMODYNAMICS
om
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 7. The first law of thermodynamics is a special case of
t.c
(a) Newton’s law
1. The branch of physics that deals with the concepts of heat
(b) the law of conservation of energy
and temperature and the interconversion of heat and other
po
forms of energy is called (c) Charle’s law
(a) calorimetry (b) thermometry (d) the law of heat exchange
gs
(c) thermodynamics (d) Pyrometry 8. Energy transfer brought about by moving the piston of a
2. Thermodynamics is concerned in part with transformations cylinder containing the gas is known as
between (a) work
lo (b) heat
(a) different forms of heat energy (c) pressure (d) temperature
.b
(b) internal energy at various temperatures 9. Which of the following macroscopic variable is not
(c) one form of mechanical energy into other forms measurable ?
r8
(d) heat, internal energy and mechnical work (a) Pressure (b) Volume
3. A system X is neither in thermal equilibrium with Y nor with Z. (c) Mass (d) None of these
be
(b) cannot be in thermal equilibrium (c) Internal energy (d) All of these
(c) may be in thermal equilibrium
11. The internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of
no
bodies will be equal (b) in liquid state is less than that in gaseous state.
w
5. Temperature is a measurement of coldness or hotness of (c) in liquid state is more than that in gaseous state.
an object. This definition is based on
(d) is equal for the three states of matter.
w
om
(c) It introduces the concept of entropy (c) the attraction between the molecules increases at
(d) It introduces the concept of internal energy constant pressure.
18. First law of thermodynamics states that (d) the molecular attraction increases at constant volume.
t.c
(a) system can do work 26. Which of the following holds good for an isochoric
(b) system has temperature process?
po
(c) system has pressure (a) No work is done on the gas
(d) heat is a form of energy (b) No work is done by the gas
gs
19. Which of the following statements is correct for any (c) Both (a) and (b)
thermodynamic system ? (d) None of these
(a) The change in entropy can never be zero 27. lo
Which process will increase the temperature of the
(b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions system without heating it ?
.b
(c) The internal energy changes in all processes (a) Adiabatic compression
(d) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero. (b) Adiabatic expansion
r8
20. For one mole of solid, at constant pressure how is C (c) Isothernal compression
related to R ? (C moler specific heat, R universal
be
(a) C = (b) C = 3R
T (b) Volume only
1 1 (c) Pressure, volume and temperature
no
(c) C = RT (d) C = R
3 3 (d) Number of moles
21. If CP and CV are specific heat capacities at constant 29. Which of the following is not a thermodynamics co-
ch
(a) PV = constant
(c) V (d) R
P 30. The specific heat of a gas in an isothermal process is
(c) PV = constant (d) = constant
w
constant pressure and volume satisfy the relation 31. The work done in an adiabatic change in a particular gas
w
(a) CP + CV = R (b) CP – CV = R
depends only upon
CP CV (a) change in volume
(c) =R (d) =R
CV CP (b) change in temperature
23. Which of the following formula is wrong? (c) change in pressure
(d) None of these
R R
(a) Cv (b) Cp 32. Which one of the following is an isoentropic process?
1 1
(a) Isothermal (b) Adiabatic
(c) Cp / C v (d) Cp Cv 2R (c) Isochoric (d) Isobaric
THERMODYNAMICS 179
33. In all natural processes, the entropy of the universe 43. Choose the incorrect statement related to an isobaric
(a) remains constant process.
(b) always decreases
V
(c) always increases (a) constant
T
(d) may increase or decrease
(b) W = P V
34. During isothermal expansion, the slope of P-V graph
(c) Heat given to a system is used up in raising the
(a) decreases (b) increases
temperature only.
(c) remains same (d) may increase or decrease
(d) Q > W
35. Which of the following processes is adiabatic ?
44. In thermodynamic processes which of the following
(a) Melting of ice
statements is not true?
(b) Bursting of tyre
om
(a) In an isochoric process pressure remains constant
(c) Motion of piston of an engine with constant speed
(b) In an isothermal process the temperature remains
(d) None of these constant
36. For adiabatic processes (Letters have usual meanings)
t.c
(c) In an adiabatic process PV = constant
(a) P V = constant (b) T V = constant (d) In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from
–1
(c) TV = constant (d) TV = constant
po
the surroundings
37. We consider a thermodynamic system. If U represents the 45. When heat is given to a gas in an isothermal change, the
increase in its internal energy and W the work done by the result will be
gs
system, which of the following statements is true? (a) external work done
(a) U = – W in an adiabatic process (b) rise in temperature
(b)
(c)
U = W in an isothermal process
U = – W in an isothermal process
lo
(c) increase in internal energy
(d) external work done and also rise in temperature
.b
(d) U = W in an adiabatic process 46. Which of the following statements about a thermodynamic
38. Ice contained in a beaker starts melting when process is wrong ?
r8
(a) the specific heat of the system is zero (a) For an adiabatic process Eint = – W
(b) internal energy of the system remains constant (b) For a constant volume process Eint = + Q
be
39. Which of the following parameters does not characterize 47. No heat flows between the system and surrounding. Then
the thermodynamic state of matter? the thermodynamic process is
no
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) work done in a cyclic process
1 2 1 2
(d) a thermodynamic process
w
1 2 1 2
41. The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related (c) (d)
as 2 1
w
om
(c) every heat engine has an efficiency of 100% 61. Efficiency of carnot engine is 100% if
(d) a refrigerator can reduce the temperature to absolute (a) T2 = 273 k (b) T2 = 0 k
zero (c) T1 = 273 k (d) T1 = 0 k
t.c
53. In a cyclic process, work done by the system is 62. The first operation involved in a Carnot cycle is
(a) zero (a) isothermal expansion
po
(b) equal to heat given to the system (b) adiabatic expansion
(c) more than heat given to the system (c) isothermal compression
gs
(d) independent of heat given to the system (d) adiabatic compression
54. Which of the following processes is reversible? 63. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Transfer of heat by conduction (a) All reversible cycles have same efficiency
lo
(b) Transfer of heat by radiation (b) Reversible cycle has more efficiency than an
.b
(c) Isothermal compression irreversible one
(d) Electrical heating of a nichrome wire (c) Carnot cycle is a reversible one
r8
55. Which of the following processes is irreversible? (d) Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency in all cycles
(a) Transfer of heat by radiation 64. Even Carnot engine cannot give 100% efficiency because
be
58. Universal relation in a Carnot cycle is (a) normal states and change
(b) original states and change
1 T2 1 T1
(a) (b) (c) final states and change
2 T1 2 T2
(d) None of these
67. An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by
1 P1
(c) (d) All of these means of several processes. Which of the process results
2 P2
in the maximum work done on the gas?
59. The correct relation between coefficient of performance (a) Isobaric (b) Isochoric
and efficiency of refrigerator is (c) Isothermal (d) Adiabatic
THERMODYNAMICS 181
68. A measure of the degree of disorder of a system of a system II. No process is possible whose sole result is the
is known as transfer of heat from a colder object to a hotter
(a) enthalpy (b) isotropy object.
(c) entropy (d) None of these (a) I only (b) II only
(c) I and II (d) None of these
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 75. Consider the following statements and select the correct
69. Which of the following statements are incorrect ? option.
I. If Q > 0, heat is added to the system. I. A real engine has efficiency greater than that of
Carnot engine.
II. If W > 0, work is done by the system.
II. A real engine can’t have efficiency greater than that
III. If W = 0, work is done by the system.
of Carnot engine.
(a) II and III (b) I, II and III
om
III. Working substance in Carnot engine is an ideal gas.
(c) I and II (d) I and III
(a) I only (b) II only
70. Choose the false statement(s) from the following.
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III
I. Specific heat of a substance depends on the mass
t.c
76. Choose the correct statements from the following.
of substance.
I. Efficeincy of Carnot engine cannot be 100%.
II. Specific heat of substance depends on the
po
II. Two systems in thermal equilibrium with a third
temperature of the substance.
system are in equiliburium with each other.
III. Specific heat depends on the nature of material.
III. Change in internal energy in the melting process is
gs
(a) I only (b) II only due to change in internal potential energy.
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (a) I and II (b) II and III
71. Which of the following statements is/are true about lo
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
internal energy ? 77. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?
.b
I. Internal energy of a gas does not change in an I. Carnot cycle consists of three isothermal process
isothermal process. connected by one adiabatic process.
r8
II. Internal energy of a gas does not change in an II. Carnot engine is a reversible engine.
adiabatic process
III. Efficiency of Carnot engine is 100%.
be
(c) III only (d) I and II (a) I and III (b) II, III and IV
73. Which of the following statements are correct about (c) I, III and IV (d) I and IV
isothermal and adiabatic changes ?
w
surroundings.
II. The combustion reaction of a mixture of petrol and air
II. Adiabatic system is thermally insulated from the
w
om
(d) (A) – (3), (B) – (1), (C) – (2), (D) – (4) (A) For process AB (1) U > 0, Q > 0
81. Column-I Column-II (B) For process BC (2) U < 0, Q < 0
(A) The coefficient of (1) decrease in pressure (C) For process CD (3) Q× U× W=0
t.c
volume expansion at (D) For process DA (4) Q× U<0
constant pressure (a) (A) – (1), (B) – (2), (C) – (4), D – (3)
po
(B) At constant temperature, (2) at all temperature (b) (A) – (3), (B) – (1), (C) – (2), D – (2)
an increase in volume
(c) (A) – (2), (B) – (1), (C) – (4), (D) – (3)
results in
gs
(d) (A) – (4), (B) – (3), (C) – (2), (D) – (1)
(C) An ideal gas obeys (3) same for all gases
Boyle’s and Charle’s law
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
lo
(D) A real gas behaves as (4) at high temperature
an ideal gas at low pressure 84. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle ABCD
.b
(a) (A) – (3), (B) – (1), (C) – (2), D – (4) as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas during the
cycle is
r8
Pressure
P B
no
P A B
V 3V
ch
Volume
1 atm
A 455K C (a) 2 PV (b) 4 PV
.te
V
1
Column I Column II (c) PV (d) P V
2
w
om
P P
d c a b
i b (a) (b)
a b d c
t.c
(a) 14 cal (b) 6 cal
(c) 16 cal (d) 66 cal V V
po
87. The P-V diagram of a gas system undergoing cyclic process
is shown here. The work done during isobaric compression P P
d c a b
is
gs
(c) a b (d) d c
A D
2 × 102
–2
P(N m )
lo V V
.b
B C 90. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA
102
as shown in fig. The work done by the system in the cycle
r8
is
(a) P0V0 P C B
3P0
be
(b) 2P0V0
0 1 2 3 2P0
–3
V(m ) P0 V0 P0
(c) A D
cy
2
(a) 100 J (b) 200 J (d) Zero V0 2V0 V
91. Figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a gas
no
P B C
P P 6×104 Pa
Isothermal
.te
Adiabatic
Isothermal
Isothermal
Adiabatic
2×104 Pa
Adiabatic
A
w
(a) (b)
w
–
Isothermal 2 × 10 3 m3 4 × 10–3 m3
V
w
Isothermal
Adiabatic
Isothermal
V V
EBD_7208
184 THERMODYNAMICS
Reason: The internal energy of a body increases on
heating.
B 96. Assertion: Heat cannot be added to a system without
800 K increasing its temperature.
Reason: Adding heat will increase the temperature in
P every situation.
97. Assertion : The heat supplied to a system is always equal
600 k to the increase in its internal energy.
A C Reason : When a system changes from one thermal
400 K
equilibrium to another, some heat is absorbed by it.
V 98. Assertion : In isothermal process whole of the heat energy
om
(a) The change in internal energy in whole cyclic process supplied to the body is converted into internal energy.
is 250 R. Reason : According to the first law of thermodynamics
(b) The change in internal energy in the process CA is 700 Q = U + W.
t.c
R. 99. Assertion : First law of thermodynamics is a restatement of
(c) The change in internal energy in the process AB is -350 the principle of conservation
R.
po
Reason : Energy is fundamental quantity
(d) The change in internal energy in the process BC is
100. Assertion : At a given temperature the specific heat of a
– 500 R.
gas at constant volume is always greater than its specific
gs
93. The temperature-entropy diagram of a reversible engine
heat at constant pressure.
cycle is given in the figure. Its efficiency is
Reason : When a gas is heated at constant volume some
T
lo
extra heat is needed compared to that at constant pressure
for doing work in expansion.
.b
2T0 101. Statement-1 : The specific heat of a gas in an adiabatic
process is zero but it is infinite in an isothermal process.
r8
T0
Statement-2 : Specific heat of a gas directly proportional to
heat exchanged with the system and inversely proportional
be
S to change in temperature.
S0 2S0
102. Assertion : Adiabatic expansion is always accompanied by
cy
1 1 fall in temperature.
(a) (b) Reason : In adiabatic process, volume is inversely
4 2
no
proportional to temperature.
2 1 103. Assertion : When a bottle of cold carbonated drink is
(c) (d)
3 3 opened a slight fog forms around the opening.
ch
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, 104. Assertion : In an adiabatic process, change in internal
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four energy of a gas is equal to work done on or by the gas in the
process.
w
om
and allowed to cool, its entropy decreases (d) 465.6 K and 4.2 × 106 N/m2
Reason : Allowing hot object to cool does not violate the 120. The specific heat capacity of a metal at low temperature (T)
second law of thermodynamics.
t.c
3
111. Assertion: The efficiency of a reversible engine is –1 –1 T
is given as C p (kJK kg ) 32 . A 100 g vessel
maximum. 400
po
Reason: In such a device no dissipation of energy takes of this metal is to be cooled from 20 K to 4 K by a special
place. refrigerator operating at room temperature (27°C). The
112. Assertion : Reversible systems are difficult to find in real amount of work required to cool in vessel is
gs
world. (a) equal to 0.002 kJ
Reason : Most processes are dissipative in nature. (b) greater than 0.148 kJ
113. Assertion : Thermodynamic processes in nature are
lo
(c) between 0.148 kJ and 0.028 kJ
irreversible (d) less than 0.028 kJ
.b
Reason : Dissipative effects can not be eliminated. 121. The amount of heat supplied to 4 × 10–2 kg of nitorgen at
r8
114. Assertion : In cyclic process, initial and final state are room temperature to rise its temperature by 50°C at constant
same. Therefore net work done is zero. pressure is (Molecular mass of nitrogen is 28 and R = 8.3 J
mol–1K–1)
be
reducing the temperature of sink. 122. When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0°C, the
Reason : Efficiency of a Carnot engine is defined as the resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat of ice to
no
ratio of net mechanical work done per cycle by the gas to be 80 cal/°C, is
the amount of heat energy absorbed per cycle from the (a) 273 cal/K (b) 8 × 104 cal/K
ch
Reason : The Carnot cycle provides a way of determining temperature rises from 27°C to 927°C. The pressure of the
the maximum possible efficiency achievable with reservoirs gas in final state is
w
117. When the state of a gas adiabatically changed from an to one eighth of its original volume. The temperature after
equilibrium state A to another equilibrium state B an amount compression will be
of work done on the stystem is 35 J. If the gas is taken from (a) 18ºC (b) 668.4ºK
state A to B via process in which the net heat absorbed by (c) 395.4ºC (d) 144ºC
the system is 12 cal, then the net work done by the system
125. 2 k mol of hydrogen at NTP expands isobarically to twice its
is (1 cal = 4.19 J)
initial volume. The change in its internal energy is (Cv = 10
(a) 13.2 J (b) 15.4 J
kJ/kg.K and atm pressure = 1 × 105 N/m2)
(c) 12.6 J (d) 16.8 J
(a) 10.9 MJ (b) 9.10 MJ
118. The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed
2 kcals of heat and done 500 J of work is (c) 109 MJ (d) 1.09 MJ
EBD_7208
186 THERMODYNAMICS
126. What will be the final pressure if an ideal gas in a cylinder (a) 64P (b) 32P
1 P
is compressed adiabatically to rd of its volume? (c) (d) 16P
3 64
(a) Final pressure will be three times less than initial 133. A spring stores l J of energy for a compression of l mm. The
pressure. additional work to be done to compress it further by l mm is
(b) Final pressure will be three times more than initial (a) l J (b) 2 J
pressure. (c) 3 J (d) 4 J
(c) Change in pressure will be more than three times the 134. The change in internal energy of a thermodynamical system
initial pressure. which has absorbed 2 kcal of heat and done 400 J of work is
(d) Change in pressure will be less than three times the (1 cal = 4.2 J)
om
initial pressure. (a) 2 kJ (b) 8 kJ
127. In a heat engine, the temperature of the source and sink are (c) 3.5 kJ (d) 5.5 kJ
500 K and 375 K. If the engine consumes 25 × 105 J per 135. In an air condition room, the heat exchange between the
t.c
cycle, the work done per cycle is room and the space outside the room
(a) 6.25 × 105 J (b) 3 × 105 J (a) will be more when the air conditioner is off
po
(c) 2.19 × 105J (d) 4 × 104 J (b) will be more rapid when the air conditioner is on
1 (c) will not take place at all
128. A refrigerator with coefficient of performance releases
gs
3 (d) will depend upon the floor area of the room
136. If internal energy of a box is U and the box is moving with
200 J of heat to a hot reservoir. Then the work done on the
some velocity, then which of the following is not to be
lo
working substance is
included in U
100
.b
(a) Kinetic energy of the box
(a) J (b) 100 J
3 (b) Translational kinetic energy of molecules of the gas
r8
3
gas
129. If the co-efficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5 and 137. If the temperatures of source and sink of a Carnot engine
operates at the room temperature 27°C, the temperature having efficiency are each decreased by 100 K, then the
cy
(a) the temperature of the room will reduce a little at 627°C, and gives it to a sink at 27°C. The work done by
(b) the room can be cooled considerably but this will the engine is
.te
131. If an air conditioner is put in the middle of a room and engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the
w
(b) the temperature of the room will not change (a) 100 J (b) 99 J
(c) the room will become slightly warmer (c) 90 J (d) 1 J
(d) the same temperature will be attained in the room as 140. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a car engine as the working
by putting it on the window in the standard position substance. If during the adiabatic expansion part of the
132. A monoatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V cycle, volume of the gas increases from V to 32 V, the
expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically efficiency of the engine is
to a volume 16V. The final pressure of the gas is : (a) 0.5 (b) 0.75
5 (c) 0.99 (d) 0.25
(take = )
3
THERMODYNAMICS 187
om
when it transfers heat from reservoir to sink is
(c) 300 K, 250 K (d) 300 K, 200 K
12.6 × 106J, the quantity of heat absorbed by the engine
from the reservoir is 146. If the energy input to a Carnot engine is thrice the work it
performs then, the fraction of energy rejected to the sink is
t.c
(a) 16.8 × 106 J (b) 4 × 106 J
6
(c) 7.6 × 10 J (d) 4.2 × 106 J 1 1
(a) (b)
143. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the
po
3 4
inside temperature of freezer is -20°C, then the temperature
of the surroundings to which it rejects heat is 2 2
gs
(c) (d)
(a) 41°C (b) 11°C 5 3
(c) 21°C (d) 31°C
lo
.b
r8
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
EBD_7208
188 THERMODYNAMICS
om
lowering some weight connected to it. 30. (a) In isothermal process temperature remains constnat.
9. (d) Pressure, volume, temperature and mass are all i.e., T = 0. Hence according to
macroscopic variables which can be measured.
10. (c) Heat and work are not state variables. They are Q
t.c
C Ciso
energy, transfer to a system which change the m T
internal energy of a system, which is a state variable. 31. (b) In adiabatic process, no heat is taken or given by the
po
11. (c) Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on the Q 0
system i.e., U W
temperature.
If W is negative (work done on system), then U
12. (c) 13. (b)
gs
increases & temperature increases and vice-versa. So
14. (a) Zeroth law defines temperature and first law defines work done in adiabatic change in particular gas (ideal
internal energy. gas) depends on change in temperature.
15. (b) 32. (a)
lo
33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c)
16. (b) From FLOT Q U W 37. (a) From first law of thermodynamics,
.b
Heat supplied to the system so H= u+ w
r8
17. (c)
condition of a system.
18. (d) Heat always refers to energy transmitted from one body
to another because of temperature difference. Slope of adiabatic curve (dP / dV )adi
no
41. (c)
19. (b) Internal energy and entropy are state function, they Slope of isothermal curve (dP / dV )iso
do not depend upon path but on the state.
ch
C= = 3R Isothermal
T T
curve
w
CP
PV = const where
CV
V
22. (b) 23. (d) Adiabatic curve
CP 42. (a) 43. (c)
24. (d) & it is always larger than unity, even if gas is
CV 44. (a) In an isochoric process volume remains constant
whereas pressure remains constant in isobaric
mono, dia or polyatomic. process.
= 1.67 monatomic gas 45. (a)
= 1.40 dia-atomic gas
THERMODYNAMICS 189
46. (a) For adiabatic process Q = 0. 67. (d) Since area under the curve is maximum for adiabatic
By first law of thermodynamics, process so, work done (W = PdV) on the gas will be
Q= E+ W maximum for adiabatic process
Eint = – W. P
47. (c) In an adiabatic process Q = 0.
48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (b)
51. (a) External amount of work must be done in order to flow Isothermal Adiabatic
heat from lower temperature to higher temperature. This
is according to second law of thermodynamics.
Isobaric
52. (b)
53. (b)
om
54. (c) For process to be reversible it must be quasi-static. V
For quasi static process all changes take place 68. (c)
infinitely slowly. Isothermal process occur very slowly
so it is quasi-static and hence it is reversible. STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
55. (a) Slow isothermal expansion or compression of an ideal
69. (a)
gas is reversible process, while the other given
70. (a) Specific heat of a substance does not depend on
po
processes are irreversible in nature.
mass. It depends only on temperature and nature of
56. (d) In reversible cyclic Process
the material.
U= 0
gs
71. (a) In isothermal process, the temperature remains
W constant so the internal energy does not change but
57. (d) Efficiency and W = –
in adiabatic process, the temperature changes and
lo
1
hence the internal energy also changes.
– 72. (c) Work done in compressing the gas increases the
.b
1 2 2
= 1 internal energy of the gas.
1 1
73. (c)
r8
58. (b)
74. (c) is Kelvin-Planck’s statement and (b) is clauss
59. (b) statement of second law of thermodynamics. Both
be
62. (a) 63. (a) no heat engine working between the same two
64. (c) Absolute zero temperature is practically not reachable. temperatures can have efficiency greater than that of
65. (b) Heat engine is device by which a system is made to
ch
Carnot engine.
undergo cyclic process that result in conversion of 76. (d) 77. (c)
heat into work. 78. (c) Internal energy is a macroscopic state variable that
.te
1 2
irreversibility is a rule.
w
3
4 MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
w
om
According to 1st law of thermodynamics P0 V0 P0 V0
= 0
Q U W 2 2
So heat absorbed 91. (b) In cyclic process ABCA
t.c
Q = W = Area under the curve Qcycle = Wcycle
= – (2V) (P) = – 2PV QAB + QBC + QCA = ar. of ABC
po
So heat rejected = 2PV
1
85. (a) Initial and final condition is same for all process + 400 + 100 + QC A= (2 × 10–3) (4 × 104)
2
gs
U1 = U2 = U3
from first law of thermodynamics QC A = – 460 J
Q= U+ W QA C = + 460 J
Work done 92.
lo
(d) In cyclic process, change in total internal energy is
zero.
.b
W1 > W2 > W3 (Area of P.V. graph)
So Q1 > Q2 > Q3 Ucyclic = 0
r8
W = 20 cal
Where, Cv = molar specific heat at constant volume.
a f For BC, T = –200 K
cy
UBC = –500R
i b 93. (d)
no
T
By first law of thermodynamics,
U Q W = 50 – 20 = 30 cal.
ch
2T0
For path ibf Q1
Q' = 36 cal Q3
.te
W' = ? T0
Q2
or, W' = Q' – U' S
Since, the change in internal energy does not depend S0 2S0
w
U ' = 30 cal
W' = Q' – U ' = 36 – 30 = 6 cal. 1 3
Q1 T0S0 T0S0 T0S0
w
om
PV
isochoric process, then whole of the heat energy 119. (b) n=
supplied to the system will increase internal energy RT
only. But, in any other process it is not possible.
1.6 106 0.0083
t.c
Also heat may be adsorbed or evolved when state of = = 5.33
8.31 300
thermal equilibrium changes.
98. (d) In isothermal process, T = 0 and so U = 0.
po
Q = nCv T
Thus Q = 0 + W = W.
99. (c) First law of thermodynamics is restatement of the or 2.49 × 104 = 5.33 ×
3 8.31
× T
gs
principal of conservation of energy as applied to heat 2
energy.
or T = 375 K
100. (a) 101. (b) 102. (d) lo Tf = Ti + 375 = 675 K.
103. (a) The opening of bottle is the rapid or adiabatic process.
120. (c) Heat required to change the temperature of vessel by
.b
In the process temperature falls.
104. (c) In adiabatic process, Q = 0 a small amount dT
– dQ = mCpdT
r8
0 = U + W or U = –W.
Temperature will change in adiabatic process. Total heat required
be
W = Q1 – Q2 Q2 – 1 Q2
information produces a contradiction in second law of Q2 T2
thermodynamics, therefore it is not possible to produce
temperature of 8000 K by collecting the sun rays with T1 – T2
.te
W Q2
a lens. T2
110. (b) When milk cools, its energy content decreases. For T2 = 20 K
w
T
115. (a) = 1 2 ; clearly when T2 is decreases will 20
T1
For T2 = 4 K
w
increase.
116. (a) Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency. W2 300 – 4
0.001996 = 0.148 kJ
4
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS As temperature is changing from 20k to 4 k, work done
required will be more than W1 but less than W2.
117. (b) In the first-case adiabatic change,
121. (a) Given, m = 4 × 10–2 kg = 40 g, T = 50°C
Q = 0, W = –35 J
From 1st law of thermodynamics, m 40
Q = U + W, Number of moles, n 1.43
M 28
or 0 = U – 35
EBD_7208
192 THERMODYNAMICS
As nitrogen is a diatomic gas, molar specific heat at 1
constant pressure is V
T2 293 1
V2
7 7
Cp R 8.3Jmol –1K –1 29.05J mol –1K –1
2 2 7
1
As Q = nCp T T2 293(8) 5 = 293 × 2.297 = 668.4K
Q = 1.43 × 29.05× 50
Cp 7
= 2.08 × 103 J = 2.08 kJ For diatomic gas
122. (d) Change in entropy is given by Cv 5
om
T T 273
= 10.9 MJ.
1000 80 126. (c) P1V1 = P2V2 (Adiabatic change)
S 293cal / K.
273
t.c
V1 V1
123. (c) T1 = 273 + 27 = 300K P2 P1 = P1 = P2(3)
V2 V1 / 3
po
T2 = 273 + 927 = 1200K
For adiabatic process, 127. (a) Here, T1 = 500 K, T2 = 375 K
P1– T = constant Q1 = 25 × 105 J
gs
P11– T1 = P21– T2 T2 375
1 1 0.25
1 lo T1 500
P2 T1
= W = Q = 0.25 × 25 × 105 = 6.25 × 105 J
P1 T2
.b
128. (d) The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is given
by
r8
1
P1 T2 Q2 Q2
=
T2 T1 W Q1 Q2
be
1 Q2
P2 300 3 200 Q2
no
4
0.4 W = Q1 – Q2 = 200 J – 50 J = 150 J
P2
.te
1.4
4 129. (b) Here, Coefficient of performance ( ) = 5
P1
T1 = 27°C
= (27 + 273)K
w
1.4 7
0.4 2 = 300 K
P2 P1 4 P1 4
w
T2 T2
= P1 (27) = 2 × 128 = 256 atm As, 5
w
T1 T2 300 – T2
124. (b) Initial temperature (T1) = 18°C = 291 K
Let Initial volume (V1) = V or 1500 5T2 T2 or 6T2 1500
V 1500
Final volume (V2) = T2 250 K
8 6
According to adiabatic process, 130. (c) By running a refrigerator with open door in a room.
TV – 1 = constant The room will get a little hotter because now
compressor will do more work which in turn increases
1 1
According to question, T1V1 T2V2 the room's temperature.
THERMODYNAMICS 193
131. (c) The working of an air coditioner is similar to the
T2
working of a refrigerator. An air conditioner removes 137. (d) Efficiency, 1– 100
T1
heat from the room, does some work and rejects the
heat to the surroundings. As air conditioner is put (T2 – 100)
in the middle of the room then due to continuous, 1– 100
(T1 – 100)
external work the room will become slightly warmer.
132. (c) For isothermal process P1V1 = P2V2 (T1 –100 – T2 100)
100
P T1 –100
PV = P2(2V) P2 =
2
T1 – T2
For adiabatic process 100.
T1 –100
om
P2 V2 P3V3 Comparing with we get, the efficiency increases.
( 627 273 ) ( 273 27 )
P 138. (b)
t.c
(2v) P316v) 627 273
2
900 300 600 2
po
5/3 =
3 1 P 900 900 3
P3 =
2 8 64 2
3 10 6
gs
work = ( ) × Heat = 4 .2 J
133. (c) As we know, energy stored in a spring 3
1 2 = 8.4 × 106 J
U
2
kx lo
139. (c) The efficiency ( ) of a Carnot engine and the coefficient
of performance ( ) of a refrigerator are related as
.b
x = extension (or compression) in the spring.
k = spring constant of the spring 1
r8
U 1J .......(i) Here,
2 10
If spring is further compressed by 1 mm then
cy
1
1 1
U k (2 10 3 m) 2 .......(ii) 10 9.
2 1
no
4 or U 4U
U
Q2
Work done , where Q2 is the energy absorbed from the
W
.te
W = U – U = 4U – U reservoir.
= 3U = 3 × 1 J = 3J
Q2
w
W = 400 J
U=Q–W T2
1–
= 8400 – 400 T1
= 8000 J For adiabatic process
135. (c) The heat exchange between the air conditioned T V –1 = constant
room and the space outside the room will not take 7
For diatomic gas
place at all. 5
–1 –1
136. (a) Kinetic energy of box is not included in the internal T1V1 = T2V2
energy of the gas.
EBD_7208
194 THERMODYNAMICS
–1 144. (b) Efficiency of carnot engine
V2
T1 T2
V1 T2 1 T2
n = 1 – T i.e., 10 1 – T
1 1
7
–1
T1 T2 (32) 5 T2 (25 ) 2 / 5 T2 4 T2 1 9 T1 10
=1–
T1 = 4T2 T1 10 10 T2 9
T1
1 3 w = Q2 . T – 1
1– 0.75 2
4 4
10 1
i.e., 10 = Q2 – 1 10 = Q
T 1 T T2 5 9 2 9
141. (d) 1 1– 2 1– 2 … (i)
om
T1 6 T1 T1 6 Q2 = 90J
So, 90 J heat is absorbed at lower temperature.
T2 – 62 1 T – 62 …(ii) 145. (b) When efficiency of carnot engine, = 0.2
2 1– 1– 2
t.c
T1 3 T1 Efficiency of a Carnot engine,
On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii) T2 T
1– or, 0.2 1– 2
po
T1 = 372 K and T2 = 310 K T1 T1
W T2 T2
142. (a) As we know 1– or 0.8 ...(i)
gs
Q1 T1 T1
T1 ...(ii)
Q1= 16.8 × 106J.
Dividing eqn. (i) by (ii)
be
Cop =
T1 T2
3T2 = 4T2 – 200 or T2 = 200 K
no
1518
T1 = = 303.6 Q2 1
5 1
Q1 3
w
Q1 3
w
13
KINETIC THEORY
om
7. The absolute temperature of a gas determines
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
(a) the average momentum of the molecule
1. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the pressure (b) the velocity of sound in the gas
exerted by a gas on the wall of the container is measured as (c) the number of molecules in the gas
po
(a) rate of change of momentum imparted to the walls per (d) the mean square velocity of the molecules
second per unit area.
8. At a given temperature the force between molecules of a
gs
(b) momentum imparted to the walls per unit area gas as a function of intermolecular distance is
(c) change of momentum imparted to the walls per unit (a) always constant
area.
2.
(d) change in momentum per unit volume
According to kinetic theory of matter, a molecule is the
lo
(b) always decreases
(c) always increases
.b
(d) first decreases and then increases
smallest particle of a substance and it possesses
9. The temperature of gas is produced by
(a) all the properties of the substance
r8
temperature
(a) pressure alone
(a) water freezes
w
om
(d) At high pressure and low temperature (a) perfectly elastic
17. When temperature is constant, the pressure of a given (b) perfectly inelastic
mass of gas varies inversely with volume. This is the (c) partly inelastic
(d) may be perfectly elastic or perfectly inelastic
t.c
statement of
(a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law depending on nature of gas
(c) Avogadro’s law (d) None of these 27. Pressure exerted by a gas is
po
18. The equation which should be satisfied exactly at all (a) independent of density of the gas
pressures and temperatures to be an ideal gas is (b) inversely proportional to the density of the gas
gs
(a) PV = RT (b) PV = kBNT (c) directly proportional to the square of the density of
(c) P = kB nT. (d) All of these the gas
19. In a diatomic molecules, the rotational energy at a given (d) directly proportional to the density of the gas
temperature 28.
lo
The internal energy of a gram-molecule of an ideal gas
depends on
(a) obeys Maxwell’s distribution
.b
(b) have the same volue for all molecules (a) pressure alone
(b) volume alone
r8
21. In a mixture of gases at a fixed temperature (a) perfect and of constant mass and temperature
(a) heavier molecule has higher average speed (b) real and of constant mass and temperature
.te
due to
(c) Volume of the gas (d) Both (b) & (c)
(a) colourless molecules
23. Cooking gas containers are kept in a lorry moving with
(b) covalent bonding of molecules
uniform speed. The temperature of the gas molecules inside
will. (c) attraction of molecules
(a) increase (d) absolute scale of temp.
(b) decrease 33. In Boyle’s law what remains constant ?
(c) remains the same (a) PV (b) TV
(d) decrease for some and increase for others V P
(c) (d)
T T
KINETIC THEORY 197
34. At a given temperature which of the following gases 42. The ratio of the molar heat capacities of a diatomic gas at
possesses maximum r.m.s. velocity? constant pressure to that a constant volume is
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
7 3 3 7
(c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon dioxide (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 5 5
35. Pressure exerted by a perfect gas is equal to
43. The specific heat of a gas
(a) mean kinetic energy per unit volume
(a) has only two values cp and cv
(b) half of mean kinetic energy per unti volume
(b) has a unique value at a given temperature
(c) two third of mean kinetic energy per unit volume
(c) can have any value between 0 and
(d) one third of mean kinetic energy per unit volume (d) depends upon the mass of the gas
36. The ratio of molar specific heat at constant pressure CP, 44. The mean kinetic energy of a perfect monatomic gas
to molar specific heat at constant volume Cv for a molecule at the temperature TºK is
om
monoatomic gas is
1 3
CP 3 CP 5 (a) kT (b) k T (c) kT (d) 2 k T
(a) (b) 2 2
t.c
CV 5 CV 3 45. The total internal energy of one mole of rigid diatomic gas
CP 7 is
CP 9
(c) (d)
po
CV 9 CV 7 3 7
(a) RT (b) RT
37. The average velocity of the molecules in a gas in equilibrium 2 2
gs
is proportional to 5 9
(c) RT (d) RT
(a) (b) T 2 2
T
46. The specific heats at constant pressure is greater than
lo
1 that of the same gas at constant volume because
(c) T2 (d)
.b
T (a) at constant pressure work is done in expanding the
gas
38. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the r.m.s. velocity
r8
39. The average kinetic energy of a molecule of a perfect gas is 47. If E is the translational kinetie energy, then which of the
(a) (2/3) k T (b) 1.5 k T following relation holds good ?
no
2
(b) the total translational kinetic energy. (c) PV = 3E (d) PV = E
3
(c) the total kinetic energy of randomly moving molecules. 48. Which of the following formula is wrong?
.te
(a) 1 (b) 2
1 (c) 3 (d) 0
(b) (v12 v 22 v 32 ... v n 2 )
n 50. A fly moving in a room has ...X... degree of freedom.
Here, X refers to
1
(c) (v12 v 22 v32 ... v n 2 ) (a) one (b) two
n (c) three (d) four
51. The number of degrees of freedom for each atom of a
(v1 v 2 v3 ... v n ) 2 monatomic gas is
(d) n (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 1
EBD_7208
198 KINETIC THEORY
52. The total number of degree of freedom of a CO2 gas molecule STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
is
(a) 3 (b) 6 60. In the kinetic theory of gases, which of these statements
is/are true ?
(c) 5 (d) 4
I. The pressure of a gas is proportional to the mean speed
53. A polyatomic gas with n degrees of freedom has a mean
of the molecules.
energy per molecule given by
II. The root mean square speed of the molecules is
nkT nkT proportional to the pressure.
(a) (b) III. The rate of diffusion is proportional to the mean speed
N 2N
of the molecules.
nkT 3kT IV. The mean translational kinetic energy of a gas is
(c) (d)
2 2 proportional to its kelvin temperature.
om
54. The degree of freedom of a molecule of a triatomic gas (a) II and III only (b) I, II and IV
is (c) I and III only (d) III and IV only
(a) 2 (b) 4 61. From the following statements, concerning ideal gas at any
t.c
(c) 6 (d) 8 given temperature T, select the correct one(s)
I. The coefficient of volume expansion at constant
55. If a gas has ‘n’ degrees of freedom, the ratio of the specific
po
pressure is same for all ideal gas
heats of the gas is
II. The average translational kinetic energy per molecule
1 n n 1 2 of oxygen gas is 3 KT (K being Boltzmann constant)
gs
(a) (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) 1
2 2 n n III. In a gaseous mixture, the average translational kinetic
energy of the molecules of each component is same
56. How is the mean free path ( ) in a gas related to the
interatomic distance ?
(a) is 10 times the interatomic distance
lo
IV. The mean free path of molecules increases with
decrease in pressure
.b
(a) I, II and III (b) III and IV only
(b) is 100 times the interatomic distance
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
(c) is 1000 times the interatomic distance
r8
(b) inversely proportional to diameter of the molecule (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(c) directly proportional to the square root of the absolute 63. Which of the following statements is/are true ?
temperature I. Average kinetic energy of a molecule is independent
ch
(d) directly proportional to the molecular mass of the pressure of the gas.
58. Maxwell's laws of distribution of velocities shows that II. Average kinetic energy of a molecule is independent
.te
(a) the number of molecules with most probable velocity of the volume of the gas.
is very large III. Average kinetic energy of a molecule is independent
of the nature of the gas.
w
om
II. the pressure while keeping the volume constant freedom
III. the temperature while keeping the pressure constant (C) Pressure (3) (2kT / m)
IV. the pressure while keeping the temperature constant. (D) R.M.S. velocity (4) kT / 2
t.c
Select the correct statements. (a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(a) I and II (b) II and III (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
po
(c) I and III (d) I, III and IV (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
67. Consider the following statements and select the correct (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (2)
option.
72. Column I Column II
gs
I. The ratio of CP / CV for a diatomic gas is more than
that of a monoatomic gas.
lo
(A) Average speed vav (1 ) 3RT
II. The ratio of CP / CV is more for helium gas than for
hydrogen M
.b
(a) I only (b) II only
(B) Root mean square (2 ) 8RT
(c) I and II (d) None of these
r8
2RT
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (D) Speed of sound vsound (4 )
69. Which of the following is/are incorrect statement(s) M
regarding the law of equipartition of energy ?
ch
II. The total energy of a gas is equally divided between (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
kinetic and potential energies.
73. Column I Column II
III. The total kinetic energy of a gas molecules is equally
w
divided among translational and rotational kinetic (A) An ideal gas obeys gas (1) with decrease in
energies. equation pressure
w
(a) I only (b) II and III (B) A real gas behaves as (2) at all temperature
w
om
V
Then relation between T1 and T2 may be
(a) T1 T2 (b) T2 T1 (a) Boyle’s law (b) Charle’s law
t.c
(c) T1 = T2 (d) All the three are possible (c) Avogadro’s law (d) Gaylussac’s law
75. Which of the following graphs represents the real gas 77. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition
po
approaching ideal gas behaviour ? from A to B along a path AB as shown in the figure.
A
5
gs
P(in kPa) 2 B
T1 T1 < T2 < T3
lo
.b
T2
PV
µT
4 6
(a) T3
V(in m3)
r8
0 200 400 600 800 The change in internal energy of the gas during the
P (atm) transition is
be
(a) – 20 kJ (b) 20 J
(c) –12 kJ (d) 20 kJ
cy
graphs?
T1 T1 > T2 > T3 V
(a) P1 > P2 P2
(b)
ch
T2
PV
µT
(b) P1 < P2 P1
T3 (c) P1 = P2 2
(d) No inferen ce can be
.te
om
expansion of the gas.
Reason: At low temperature, the molecular motion ceases
C
and due to high pressure, volume decreases and PV 94. Assertion : The ratio V for a monatomic gas is less than
becomes constant. CP
t.c
for a diatomic gas.
82. Assertion: One mole of any substance at any temperature Reason : The molecules of a monatomic gas have more
or volume always contains 6.02 × 1023 molecules. degrees of freedom than those of a diatomic gas.
po
Reason: One mole of a substance always refers to S.T.P.
95. Assertion : For an atom the number of degrees of freedom
conditions.
is 3.
83. Assertion : The total translational kinetic energy of all the
gs
Reason : The ratio of specific heats at constant pressure
molecules of a given mass of an ideal gas is 1.5 times the
product of its pressure and its volume. Cp
Reason : The molecules of a gas collide with each other
and the velocities of the molecules change due to the
lo
and volume is a constant. i.e., C
v
.
train, its internal kinetic energy increases. Reason : rms speed of ideal gas, depends upon it’s type
(monoatomic, diatomic and polyatomic)
Reason : Its temperature remains constant.
be
Reason : Internal kinetic energy depends on temperature change in momentum of the molecule, if it suffers an
and internal potential energy depends on volume. elastic collision with the plane wall parallel to yz-plane
87. Assertion : Each vibrational mode gives two degrees of and rebounds with the same velocity ?
.te
each degree of freedom in thermal equilibrium is 2kB T. (c) – mvx (d) – 2mvx.
88. Assertion : For an ideal gas, at constant temperature, the 99. A flask contains a monoatomic and a diatomic gas in the
w
product of pressure and volume is constant. ratio of 4 : 1 by mass at a temperature of 300 K. The ratio
Reason : The mean square velocity of the molecules is
w
om
103. If a gas is heated at constant pressure, its isothermal A and B is :
compressibility 3
(a) remains constant (a) (b) 2
t.c
4
(b) increases linearly with temperature 1 2
(c) decreases linearly with temperature (c) (d)
po
2 3
(d) decreases inversely with temperature
Cp
104. A gas in a container A is in thermal equilibrium with antoher 111. The ratio of the specific heats C in terms of degrees
gs
v
gas of the same mass in container B. If we denote the
of freedom (n) is given by
corresponding pressures and volumes by the suffixes A
and B, then which of the following statement is most likely lo n 2
(a) 1 (b) 1
to be true? 3 n
.b
(a) PA PB , VA VB (b) PA PB , VA VB n 1
(c) 1 (d) 1
2 n
r8
(c) PA / VA PB / VB (d) PA VA PB VB
112. For hydrogen gas Cp – C v = a and for oxygen gas
105. In a cubical vessel are enclosed n molecules of a gas each
be
will be
113. The temperature at which protons in hydrogen gas would
n mv 2 n m2 v m n v2 nmv have enough energy to overcome Coulomb barrier of
no
of two gases. On mixing, new temperature and volume are (a) 2 × 109 K (b) 109 K
respectively T and V. Final pressure of the mixture is (c) 6 × 109 K (d) 3 × 109 K
.te
(a) P (b) 2P 114. The temperature at which oxygen molecules have the same
(c) zero (d) 3P root mean square speed as that of hydrogen molecules at
w
om
Cv
gas due to its thermal motion? (a) 1.62 (b) 1.59
(a) 3 × 104 J (b) 5 × 104 J (c) 1.54 (d) 1.4
4 (d) 7 × 104 J
(c) 6 × 10 J 124. Half mole of helium gas is contained at STP. The heat energy
t.c
119. If CP and CV denote the specific heats of nitrogen per unit needed to double the pressure of the gas keeping the
mass at constant pressure and constant volume volume constant (specific heat of the gas = 3J/g –K) is
po
respectively, then (a) 3276 J (b) 1638 J
(a) CP – CV = 28R (b) CP – CV = R/28 (c) 819 J (d) 409.5 J
(c) CP – CV = R/14 (d) CP – CV = R 125. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas of
gs
5 molecular mass M and ratio of specific heats . It is moving
120. If one mole of monoatomic gas is mixed with one with speed v and it suddenly brought to rest. Assuming no
3
mole of diatomic gas
7
5
, the value of for the mixture by
lo
heat is lost to the surroundings, its temperature increases
.b
is ( –1)
Mv 2 K Mv 2
(a) 1.40 (b) 1.50 (a) (b) K
2 R 2R
r8
122. The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure (a) 2 (b) 3
and volume are denoted by Cp and Cv, respectively. If (c) 5 (d) 1
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
EBD_7208
204 KINETIC THEORY
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 27. (d) Pressure exerted by a gas is given by
1 mn 2
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) P v
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 3 V
10. (c) Boyle’s and Charle’s law follow kinetic theory of gases. 1 –2
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) or P v P
3
om
3 Therefore, pressure exerted by a gas is directly
15. (c) E RT , so it is same for all ideal gases at same
2 proportional to the density of the gas.
temperature. 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
16. (b) At low pressure and high temperature the molecules 31. (b) According to boyle's law, at constant temperature.
t.c
are far apart and molecular interactions are negligible.
Without interactions the gas behaves like an ideal 1
P or P1V1 P2 V2
po
one. V
17. (a) 32. (c)
18. (c) Perfect gas equation is PV = RT. 33. (a) According to Boyle’s law PV = constant.
gs
is the number of moles, R = NAkB
3RT
M N 34. (a) Vrms M is least for hydrogen among the
M
M0 NA
lo
hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
PV = kBNT or P = kBnT
.b
2E
19. (a) 35. (c) Pressure, P
3
20. (c) In equilibrium, the average kinetic energy of
r8
molecules of different gases will be equal. That is 36. (b) For a monoatomic gas, the average energy of a
3
be
1 1 3 molecule at temperature T is k BT .
m1v1 2 m2 v2 2 k BT 2
2 2 2
3
21. (c) Lighter the molecule, higher the average speed. Internal energy U RT
cy
1 2 3 dT 2
mv k BT For an ideal gas, CP – CV = R
2 2
ch
23. (c) The centre of mass of the gas molecules moves with 5 CP 5
uniform speed along with lorry. As there is no change CP = R and
2 CV 3
in relative motion, the translational kinetic energy and
.te
M
P1V1 P2 V2 P2 V2 39. (b) 40. (d) 41. (c)
w
or T2 T1
T1 T2 P1V1 42. (d) For a diatomic gas,
Molar heat capacity at constant pressure,
P V 7
T T
2 2 T2 CP R
T2 4 2
PV Molar heat capacity at constant volume,
26. (a) According to kinetic theory of gases there is no loss
7
of energy during the collisions between the R
5 CP 2 7
molecules. Therefore, collision between the molecules CV R
2 CV 5 5
is perfectly elastic. R
2
KINETIC THEORY 205
om
3 2 d2P
47. (d) Translational kinetic enegy E = kBNT
2 increases)
62. (d) 63. (d)
t.c
2
PV = E [ k B NT PV] 64. (a) Mean kinetic energy per molecule will be equal for
3
both the gases because it depends only upon the
48. (d) The difference of CP and CV is equal to R, not 2R.
po
3
49. (b) Law of equipartition of energy states that the energy temperature. (E = k B T)
for each degree of freedom in thermal equilibrium is 2
gs
65. (d) 66. ( c)
1
k T. Thus each vibrational mode gives 2 degrees 67. (b) Helium is monoatomic and hydrogen is diatomic.
2 B Helium has smaller number of degrees of freedom
of freedom (kinetic and potential energy modes)
lo
than hydrogen. So CP / CV for helium is more than
that for hydrogen.
.b
1
corresponding to the energy 2 k T = kBT 68. (a) CP – CV = R is true for any gas.
2 B
69. (b) In all the three directions x, y and z gas possess equal
r8
50. (c) A fly moving in a room has three degrees of freedom, energies.
because it is free to move in space.
be
1 71. (a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
per degree of freedom is kT .
2 72. (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
no
For a polyatomic gas with n degrees of freedom, the 73. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4)
1
mean energy per molecule = nkT
ch
M M P RT P T
No. of degree of freedom = 3 (3) – 3 = 6
w
distance. Hence T2 T1
1 75. (c) 76. (a)
57. (a) Mean free path, 2 77. (a) Change in internal energy from A B
2 d n
where, f f
n = number of molecules per unit volume, U= nR T = nR (Tf – Ti)
2 2
d = diameter of the molecules
58. (a) Based on Maxwell's velocity distribution curve. 5
= {P V – P V }
59. (b) 2 f f i i
EBD_7208
206 KINETIC THEORY
(As gas is diatomic f = 5) i.e, kinetic and potential energy modes, corresponding
5 1
= {2 × 103 × 6 – 5 × 103 × 4} to the energy 2 kBT k BT .
2 2
5
= {12 – 20} × 103 J = 5 × (–4) × 103 J 3kT
2 88. (b) PV constant and vrms
U = –20 KJ m
V V 89. (b) When a person is driving a car then the temperature of
78. (a) 1 2 tan 1 tan 2 T 1 T air inside the tyre is increased because of motion. From
2
the Gay Lussac’s law,
V 1 P T
From PV RT ;
T P Hence, when temperature increases the pressure also
1 1 increase.
Hence P P1 P2 . 90. (d) A vapour above the critical temperature is a gas and
om
1 P 2
gas below the critical temperature for the substance is
a vapour. As gas cannot be liquidfied by the
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS application of pressure alone, how so ever large the
t.c
pressure may be while vapour can be liquified under
79. (a) 80. (d)
pressure alone. To liquify a gas it must be cooled upto
81. (d) The real gases obey the gas equation at low or below its critical temperature.
po
pressure and high temperature as, at high temperature 91. (a) At high temperature and low pressure (low density),
the intermolecular force is negligible due to increased real gas behaves like an ideal gas.
volume of the gas. 92. (d) The specific heat of a gas can be from 0 to .
gs
82. (c) The number 6.02 × 1023 is Avogadro’s number and 93. (a) Cv is used in increasing the internal energy of the gas
one mole of a substance contains Avogadro’s while Cp is used in two ways (i) to change the internal
number of molecules.
3 3 94.
lo
energy and (ii) to do expansion of gas. Hence Cp > Cv.
(c) For monatomic gas, f = 3,
.b
83. (b) Total translational kinetic energy nRT PV 3R 5R Cv 3
2 2 Cv , Cp ;
In an ideal gas all molecules moving randomly in all 2 2 Cp 5
r8
direction collide and their velocity changes after For diatomic gas, f = 5
collision. Cv 5
be
5R 7R
84. (c) Internal energy can be increased when molecules of Cv , Cp ; C 7
2 2 p
gas will get greater velocity w.r.t. container.
95. (b) An atom can have only translatory motion, so its
85. (a) The motion of the container is known as the ordered
cy
1 2 1 2 1 2
motion of the gas and zigzag motion of gas molecules degrees of freedom can be mvx , mv y , mvz .
2 2 2
within the container is called disordered motion
no
Disordered motion dv
w
Therefore, internal energy of real gas is sum of internal 97. (a) The mean free path of a gas molecule is the averge
kinetic and internal potential energy which are function distance between two successive collisions. It is
w
om
= 1.6 =
the temperature and is independent of the mass and 10 5
nature of the gas. CP 8
100. (c) V and T will be same for both gases. Also, = C 5
t.c
P1V = 1RT and P2V = 2RT V
5 5 8 5
(P1/P2) = 1 So, CP = = 8JK–1mol–1 [CV = 5.0 JK–1 given]
po
3 3 5
2
110. (a) From PV = nRT
N1 N2
gs
By definition, 1= and 2=
NA NA A MA BMB
PA = and PB
RT RT
N1 1 5 lo
From question,
N2 2 3 PA A MA 2 MA 3
.b
101. (d) VA = 2VB ; TA = 2TB ; PA = 2PB PB B MB MB 2
PAVA PV MA 3
r8
(2 PB ) (2VB ) (TB ) 1 R
Cp 2 2
= =2 1
PB VB (2TB ) Cv n n
no
R
102. (b) As the temperature increases, the average velocity 2
increases. So, the collisions are faster.
103. (a) 112. (d) Both are diatomic gases and Cp – Cv = R for all gases.
ch
P
V where Kav is the average kinetic energy of the proton.
105. (c) 2K av
106. (b) Let n1 and n2 be the number of moles of each gas. T
w
Then 3k B
w
PV PV 2 4.14 10 –14 J
n1 =
RT
and n2 =
RT T= 2 109 K.
w
–23 –1
3 1.38 10 JK
When the two gases are mixed, total number of moles,
n = n 1 + n2 114. (c) According to given problem
(v rms ) O 2 (v rms ) H 2
P 'V PV PV
=
RT RT RT
(where P is the pressure of the mixture.) 3RTO2 3R(300)
P = 2P M O2 M H2
om
=1+ = –1 Cv =
1.84 Cv Cv 1
CO 2 = = 0.46 km/s 123. (a) For mixture of gas,
4
3 3 n1Cv1 n 2 Cv 2
t.c
116. (d) E 300 ; E ' R(600) = 2E = 2 × 6.21 × 10–21 Cv
2 2 n1 n 2
= 12.42 × 10–21 J.
31 5 5
po
3R 300 3R 600 4 R R 6R R
vrms ; v 'rms 2 vrms 22 2 4
M M
1 9
= 682.44 m/s 4
gs
117. (c) If a gas is heated at constant volume then no work is 2 2
done. The heat supplied is given by 29R 23 29R
dQ nCv dT
f
lo 9 4 18
5R 1 7R
.b
But Cv R where f is the degree of freedom of the n1Cp1 n 2Cp2 4
2 and Cp 2 2 2
gas (n1 n 2 ) 1
r8
4
nfRdT 2
dQ 7
2 10R R
be
4 47R
2 3 R (373 273) 9 18
= = 300 R
2 2
cy
f Cp 47 R 18
118. (b) For 1kg gas energy, E rT 1.62
2 Cv 18 29 R
no
2 4 doubled, so
E = 5 × 104 Joule. T = T2 T1 273 K
119. (b) According to Mayer's relationship
.te
1
Cp – Cv = R Thus Q = nCv T 12 273 1638 J
2
Cp Cv R 125. (c) As no heat is lost,
w
n1 n2 n1 n2 mv nCV T mv T
120. (b) = 2 2 M –1
w
–1 1 1 2 –1
mv 2 ( –1)
2 1 1 T K
or –1
= 5 7 2R
3
–1
5
–1 126. (a) As degree of freedom is defined as the number of
independent variables required to define body’s motion
3 completely. Here f = 2(1 Translational + 1 Rotational).
= .
2
14
OSCILLATIONS
om
(a) simple harmonic
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
(b) on a straight line
t.c
1. A periodic to-and-fro motion is called (c) on a circle
(a) Periodic motion (b) orbital motion (d) with constant acceleration.
po
(c) oscillatory motion (d) rectilinear motion 10. The displacement of a particle in simple harmonic motion
2. A particle moves in a circular path with a uniform speed. Its in one time period is
motion is (a) A (b) 2 A
gs
(a) periodic (b) oscillatory (c) 4 A (d) Zero
(c) simple harmonic (d) angular simple harmonic 11. In a periodic motion, displacement is a periodic function of
3. Force acting in simple harmonic motion is always time given by
lo
(a) directly proportional to the displacement (a) f (t) = A cos t
(b) inversely proportional to the displacement (b) f (t) = sin t
.b
(c) directly proportional to the square of displacement (c) f (t) = A sin t + A cos t
(d) inversely proportional to the square of displacement (d) All of these
r8
4. For which of the following conditions will there be an effect 12. Which of the following is a non-periodic motion as
on the periodic-time of the swing, if a girl is sitting on the represented by the equation? ( is any positive constant
be
(c) Both (a) and (b) 13. The function sin 2 ( t ) represents
(d) None of these (a) a periodic, not simple harmonic motion with a period
no
(a) Hz (b) Hz
2 2 2
.te
(c) Hz (d) 2 Hz
2 (c) a simple harmonic motion with a period
6. Which of the following expressions is that of a simple
harmonic progressive wave ? 2
w
om
(b) Acceleration = k(x + a)
(a) linear harmonic (b) non-linear harmonic
(c) Acceleration = kx
(c) cubic harmonic (d) projectile (d) Acceleration = – k0x + k1x2
19. Suppose a tunnel is dug along a diameter of the earth. A where k, k0, k1 and a are all postive.
t.c
particle is dropped from a point, a distance h directly above 31. Which of the following quantities are always negative in
the tunnel, the motion of the particle is a simple harmonic motion ?
(a) simple harmonic (b) parabolic
po
(c) oscillatory (d) non-periodic (a) F. r . (b) v. r .
20. A particle moves in a circular path with a continuously (c) a.r. (d) Both (a) & (c)
gs
increasing speed. Its motion is 32. Which of the following is true about total mechanical energy
(a) periodic (b) oscillatory of SHM ?
(c) simple harmonic (d) None of these (a) It is zero at mean position.
lo
21. The motion of a particle is given by x = A sin t + B cos t. (b) It is zero at extreme position.
The motion of the particle is (c) It is always zero.
.b
(a) not simple harmonic (d) It is never zero.
(b) simple harmonic with amplitude (A–B)/2 33. If a is the amplitude of SHM, then K.E. is equal to the P.E. at
r8
(c) simple harmonic with amplitude (A + B)/2 ............ distance from the mean position.
a a
be
on
23. For a body executing simple harmonic motion, which (a) a 2 (b)
parameter comes out to be non-periodic ?
1 1
ch
a y a y
k
(a) Ux (x a) 2 (b) U x k1 x k2x2 k3 x 3
w
om
the following statement is not correct ? (c) constant throughout the motion
(a) The total energy of the particle always remains the (d) Cannot be predicted
same. 48. The ratio of energies of oscillations of two exactly identical
t.c
(b) The restoring force of always directed towards a fixed pendulums oscillating with amplitudes 5 cm and 10 cm is :
point. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(c) The restoring force is maximum at the extreme (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
po
positions.
49. The period of vibration for a simple pendulum of length
(d) The acceleration of the particle is maximum at the
equilibrium position. I is
gs
41. If a body is executing simple harmonic motion, then l l
(a) at extreme positions, the total energy is zero (a) T 2 (b) T 2
g g
(b) at equilibrium position, the total energy is in the form lo
of potential energy 1 l 1 l
(c) at equilibrium position, the total energy is in the form (c) T (d) T
.b
2 g 2 g
of kinetic energy
50. The potential energy of a simple pendulum is maximum
(d) at extreme positions, the total energy is infinite
r8
when it is
42. In a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean position
(a) at the turning points of the oscillations
(a) kinetic energy is minimum, potential energy
be
execute SHM is
series. The effective spring constant of the combination is
(a) the length of pendulum should be small
given by
(b) the mass of bob should be small
w
om
(Re = radius of Earth) 66. If a body oscillates at the angular frequency d of the driving
force, then the oscillations are called
Re 2R e
(a) T 2 (b) T 2 (a) free oscillations (b) coupled oscillations
g g
t.c
(c) forced oscillations (d) maintained oscillations
67. In case of a forced vibration, the resonance wave becomes
Re very sharp when the
(c) T 2 (d)
po
T
2g (a) quality factor is small
58. A simple pendulum is set into vibrations. The bob of the (b) damping force is small
(c) restoring force is small
gs
pendulum comes to rest after some time due to
(a) Air friction (d) applied periodic force is small
(b) Moment of inertia 68. What is the amplitude of simple harmonic motion at
(c) Weight of the bob
(d) Combination of all the above
lo
resonance in the ideal case of zero damping?
(a) Zero (b) – 1
.b
59. A simple pendulum oscillates in air with time period T and (c) 1 (d) Infinite
amplitude A. As the time passes 69. Resonance is an example of
r8
(a) T and A both decrease (a) tuning fork (b) forced vibration
(b) T increases and A is constant (c) free vibration (d) damped vibration
be
(a) Time period of a simple pendulum depends on I. A simple harmonic motion is necessarily periodic.
amplitude II. A simple harmonic motion may be oscillatory
no
(b) Time shown by a spring watch varies with acceleration III. An oscillatory motion is necessarily periodic
due to gravity g. (a) I only (b) II and III
(c) In a simple pendulum time period varies linearly with
(c) I and III (d) I and II
ch
61. Which of the following will change the time period as condition for SHM.
they are taken to moon? II. Restoring force displacement is a sufficient
condition for SHM.
w
62. The total mechanical energy of a harmonic oscillator is given (c) I and II (d) None of these
as 72. Select the false statement(s) from the following.
w
om
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (E) Min. displacement (5)
75. Choose the false statement(s) for a forced oscillation. 4
I. Displacement amplitude of an oscillator is (a) (A) - (2), (B) - (4), (C) - (3), (D) - (5), (E) - (1)
(b) (A) - (1), (B) - (4), (C) - (5), (D) - (3), (E) - (2)
t.c
independent of the angular frequency of the driving
force. (c) (A) - (5), (B) - (1, 4), (C) - (3), (D) - (5), (E) - (1, 2, 4)
II. The amplitude tends to infinity when the driving (d) (A) - (1, 3), (B) - (3, 4), (C) - (5), (D) - (1, 2), (E) - (5, 4)
81. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving on a straight line under
po
frequency equals the natural frequency.
III. Maximum possible amplitude for a given driving the action of force F = (8 – 2x) N. The particle is released at
rest from x = 6m. For the subsequent motion match the
frequency is governed by the driving frequency and
gs
following (All the values in the column II are in their S.I.
the damping.
units)
(a) I only (b) II only
Column I
lo Column II
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III
(A) Equilibrium position at x (1) /4
76. Select the correct statement(s) from the following.
(B) Amplitude of SHM is (2) /2
.b
I. In sitar, guitar the strings vibrate and produce sound.
(C) Time taken to go directly (3) 4
II. Sound waves propagate due to vibration of air
from x = 2 to x = 4
r8
molecules.
(D) Energy of SHM is (4) 2
III. In solids, atoms oscillate to produce the temperature
(a) (A) - (3), (B) - (4), (C) - (2), (D) - (3)
be
sensation. (b) (A) - (4), (B) - (3), (C) - (2), (D) - (1)
(a) I only (b) II only (c) (A) - (1), (B) - (2), (C) - (3), (D) - (4)
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (d) (A) - (2), (B) - (4), (C) - (1), (D) - (3)
cy
77. Choose the false statement(s) from the following. 82. A block of mass m is projected towards a spring with velocity
I. Natural frequency of a body depends upon the v0. The force constant of the spring is k. The block is
elastic properties of material of the body.
no
d2y dy A
(D) 2 + 2k + 2y (4) Forced vibration
dt dt
Y
= F sin pt
om
(5) Progressive wave
(a) (A) - (1), (B) - (3), (C) - (2, 4), (D) - (5) 88. In the given displacement time curve for SHM at what value
(b) (A) - (1, 3), (B) - (2, 5), (C) - (3), (D) - (4, 5) of t is the amplitude negative?
t.c
(c) (A) - (5), (B) - (2), (C) - (3), (D) - (1, 4)
(d) (A) - (1), (B) - (2), (C) - (3), (D) - (4) y
84. Column I Column II
po
(A) Motion of a satellite (1) Damped oscillations
a T
(B) Motion of a simple (2) Resonant oscillations t
O
gs
pendulum
(C) Oscillation of (3) Periodic motion
stretched string in air
(D) Flying off of a paper (4) Simple harmonic
rider placed on the motion
lo
T T
.b
stretched string (a) (b)
2 4
(a) (A) - (2), (B) - (3), (C) - (4), (D) - (1)
r8
Velocity
85. The displacement vs time of a particle executing SHM is
shown in figure. The initial phase is
no
–a O +a Displacement
ch
.te
(a) (b) 90. For a particle executing SHM the displacement x is given
2 2
w
om
(a) Frequency of KE and PE is double the frequency of
SHM explanation for assertion.
(b) Frequency of KE and PE is four times the frequency (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
SHM. correct explanation for assertion
t.c
(c) Frequency of PE is double the frequency of K.E. (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Frequency of KE and PE is equal to the frequency (d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
po
of SHM. 95. Assertion : An oscillatory motion is necessarily periodic.
92. A simple pendulum is made of a body which is a hollow Reason : A simple harmonic motion is necessarily oscillatory.
sphere containing mercury suspended by means of a wire. 96. Assertion : All oscillatory motions are necessarily periodic
gs
If a little mercury is drained off, the period of pendulum will motion but all periodic motion are not oscillatory
Reason : Simple pendulum is an example of oscillatory
lo
motion.
97. Assertion : In oscillatory motion, displacement of a body
.b
from equilibrium can be represented by sine or cosine
function.
Reason : The body oscillates to and fro about its mean
r8
position.
98. Assertion : Sine and cosine functions are periodic functions.
be
(a) remain unchanged (b) increase Reason : Sinusoidal functions repeats it values after a
(c) decrease (d) become erratic difinite interval of time
93. A graph of the square of the velocity against the square of 99. Assertion : A S.H.M. may be assumed as composition of
cy
v2 v2
of same frequency will be a S.H.M.
100. Assertion : In simple harmonic motion, the motion is to and
(a) (b) fro and periodic
ch
a2 a2
Reason : Velocity of the particle ( v) k 2 x (where
.te
2 2
v v x is the displacement).
101. Assertion : In SHM, the the velocity is maximum when
(c) (d) acceleration is minimum.
w
a2
a2 Reason : Displacement and velocity of SHM differ in phase
w
94. For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted between its kinetic by rad.
energy (KE) and potential energy (PE) against its 2
w
displacement d. Which one of the following represents these 102. Assertion : The force acting on a particle moving along
correctly? (graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale) x-axis is
F = – k(x + v0t), where k is a constant.
E
E
Reason : To an observer moving along x-axis with constant
KE PE velocity v0, it represents SHM.
103. Assertion : At extreme positions of a particle executing
(a) d (b) KE SHM, both velocity and acceleration are zero.
Reason : In SHM, acceleration always acts towards mean
PE
position.
EBD_7208
216 OSCILLATIONS
104. Assertion : A particle executing simple harmonic motion 116. Assertion: Amplitude of a forced vibration can never reach
comes to rest at the extreme positions . infinity.
Reason : The resultant force on the particle is zero at these Reason: The driving frequency cannot be increased beyond
positions. a certain limit.
105. Assertion : The graph of total energy of a particle in SHM 117. Assertion : Resonance is special case of forced vibration
w.r.t. position is a straight line with zero slope. in which the natural frequency of vibration of the body is
Reason : Total energy of particle in SHM remains constant the same as the impressed frequency of external periodic
throughout its motion. force and the amplitude of forced vibration is maximum
106. Assertion : In a S.H.M. kinetic and potential energies Reason : The amplitude of forced vibrations of a body
become equal when the displacement is 1/ 2 times the increases with an increase in the frequency of the externally
amplitude. impressed periodic force.
om
Reason : In SHM, kinetic energy is zero when potential
energy is maximum. CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
107. Assertion : If the amplitude of simple harmonic oscillator is 118. A particle executing simple harmonic motion covers a
t.c
doubled, its total energy becomes four times. distance equal to half of its amplitude in one second. Then
Reason : The total energy is directly proportional to the the time period of the simple harmonic motion is
square of amplitude of oscillations. (a) 4 s (b) 6 s (c) 8 s (d) 12 s
po
108. Assertion : The graph between velocity and displacement 119. Two particles are executing simple harmonic motion of the
for a harmonic oscillator is an ellipse. same amplitude A and frequency along the x-axis. Their
mean position is separated by distance X0(X0 > A). If the
gs
Reason : Velocity does not change uniformly with
maximum separation between them is (X0 + A), the phase
displacement in harmonic motion. difference between their motion is
109. Assertion : The periodic time of a hard spring is less as lo
compared to that of a soft spring. (a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 6 2
.b
Reason : The periodic time depends upon the spring
120. Two particles are oscillating along two close parallel straight
constant, and spring constant is large for hard spring. lines side by side, with the same frequency and amplitudes.
r8
110. Assertion: Time period of a loaded spring does not change They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when
when taken to moon. their displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean
be
Reason: Time period of a loaded spring depends upon the positions of the two particles lie on a straight line
mass attached and the spring constant and not on perpendicular to the paths of the two particles. The phase
cy
top.
Reason: On the mountain top the length of the pendulum x 10sin 2t metre. When its displacement is 6 m,
6
ch
will decrease and T l , so it will also decrease. the velocity of the particle (in m s–1) is
112. Assertion: If amplitude of simple pendulum increases then (a) 8 (b) 24 (c) 16 (d) 10
122. The maximum velocity of a particle, executing simple
.te
so the motion is no longer SHM. (a) 0.01 s (b) 10 s (c) 0.1 s (d) 100 s
123. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the
w
om
amplitude a and frequency . The average kinetic energy V12 – V22 x12 x 22
during its motion from the position of equilibrium to the
end is V12 – V22 x12 – x 22
t.c
(c) 2 (d) 2
2 2
ma 2 2 x12 – x 22 V12 – V22
(a) 2 ma 2 2 (b)
1 136. If the differential equation for a simple harmonic motion is
po
(c) ma 2 2 (d) 4 2 ma 2 2
4 d 2 y2
+ 2y = 0, the time-period of the motion is
128. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with dt 2
gs
amplitude A. When the ratio of its kinetic energy to the
1 2s
potential energy is , its displacement from its mean (a) 2s (b) s
4 lo
position is
(c) s (d) 2 s
2
.b
2 3 3 1
(a) A (b) A (c) A (d) A 137. The total energy of the particle executing simple harmonic
5 2 4 4
motion of amplitude A is 100 J. At a distance of 0.707 A from
r8
130. The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a line. In first s, after starting from rest it travels a distance
spring of negligible mass is T. If along with it another mass a, and in next s it travels 2a, in same direction, then:
(a) amplitude of motion is 3a
no
is t2. If the period of oscillation with the two springs in Then its time period of vibration will be :
series is T then 2
w
1 1 1 2 (a) (b)
(a) T t1 t2 (b) T t12 t 22
w
(c) T = t1 + t2 T 2 t1 2 t 2 2
(d) 2
2
(c) (d)
132. The displacement of an object attached to a spring and 2
w
executing simple harmonic motion is given by x = 2 × 10–2 140. When the displacement of a particle executing simple
cos t metre.The time at which the maximum speed first harmonic motion is half of its amplitude, the ratio of its
occurs is kinetic energy to potential energy is `
(a) 0.25 s (b) 0.5 s (c) 0.75 s (d) 0.125 s (a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 1
133. When two displacements represented by y1 = asin( t) and (c) 3 : l (d) l : 2
y2 = b cos( t) are superimposed the motion is: 141. A body oscillates with SHM according to the equation
a
(a) simple harmonic with amplitude
b
(in SI units), x = 5 cos 2 t .
2 2 4
(b) simple harmonic with amplitude a b
EBD_7208
218 OSCILLATIONS
Its instantaneous displacement at t = 1 second is 150. When two springs A and B with force constants kA and kB
are stretched by the same force, then the respective ratio of
2 1
(a) m (b) m the work done on them is
5 3 (a) kB : kA (b) kA : kB
5 1 (c) kAkB : 1 (d) kB : kA
(c) m (d) m
2 2 151. Two oscillating simple pendulums with time periods T and
142. The length of a simple pendulum executing simple harmonic 5T
motion is increased by 21%. The percentage increase in the are in phase at a given time. They are again in phase
4
time period of the pendulum of increased length is after an elapse of time
(a) 11% (b) 21% (c) 42% (d) 10% (a) 4T (b) 3T (c) 6T (d) 5T
143. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic 152. A pendulum made of a uniform wire of cross sectional area
om
motion in water with a period t, while the period of oscillation A has time period T. When an additional mass M is added
of the bob is t0 in air. Neglecting frictional force of water to its bob, the time period changes to TM. If the Young's
and given that the density of the bob is (4/3) × 1000 kg / m3.
1
What relationship between t and t0 is true modulus of the material of the wire is Y then is equal to:
t.c
(a) t = 2t0 (b) t = t0 / 2 Y
(g = gravitational acceleration)
(c) t = t0 (d) t = 4t0
144. If a simple pendulum has significant amplitude (upto a factor 2
po
2
TM A T A
of 1/e of original) only in the period between t = 0s to t = s, (a) 1 (b) 1
T Mg TM Mg
then may be called the average life of the pendulum. when
gs
the spherical bob of the pendulum suffers a retardation
2 2
(due to viscous drag) proportional to its velocity with b as TM A TM Mg
(c) 1 (d) 1
the constant of proportionality, the average life time of the T Mg T A
pendulum is (assuming damping the small) in seconds
lo
153. A pendulum of time period 2 s on earth is taken to another
.b
0.693 1 2 planet whose mass and diameter are twice that of earth.
(a) (b) b (c) (d) Then its time period on the planet is (in second)
b b b
r8
again start swinging together is 154. A simple harmonic oscillator of angular frequency 2 rad s–1
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 2 is acted upon by an external force F = sin t N. If the oscillator
146. A simple pendulum has a metal bob, which is negatively is at rest in its equilibrium position at t = 0, its position at
cy
A damping force Fd , acts on the block by the surrounding (c) sin t sin 2t (d) sin t sin 2t
2 2
medium. Given as Fd = – bV b is a positive constant which
155. A pendulum with time period of 1s is losing energy due
depends on :
.te
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 12. (c) e–2 t is not periodic. It decreases with increasing t
and never repeats its value.
1. (c) 13. (c) Clearly sin2 t is a periodic function as sin t is periodic
2. (a) The motion of the particle is periodic, (not oscillatory),
beacuse it returns to its starting point after a fixed time with period
3. (a) F x in SHM.
4. (b) Since T is independent of mass, so a girl sitting 14. (b)
om
accompanied by another girl will not affect T but if the 15. (b) The motion is S.H.M. (as seen from fig.) with an
girl stands up then due to the shift in the location of amplitude B.
centre of mass upwards, the effective length decreases Displacement
t.c
and hence T decrease (T L) . ×
5. (a) y = 10 sin (20 t + 0.5) B
t
po
y (t) = a sin ( t + ) A B
20
Frequency, v =
gs
2 2
6. (c) General equation of wave motion should be 16. (d) In simple harmonic motion, frequency remains constant
represented by lo
and else changes with time.
y = f (ax bt) or f (at bx) 17. (b) The simplest type of oscillatory motion is SHM
.b
when y is a sine or cosine function such as In SHM
y = a sin ( t – kx) F x
r8
S.H.M. which are perpendicular to each other oscillating body is directly proportional to its
superimpose on the particle. The particle moves on a displacement from the mean position, which is also
(i) Ellipse if amplitudes of two S.H.M. are different the equilibrium position.
ch
(ii) Circle, if amplitudes of two S.H.M. are same. Further, at any point in its oscillation, this force is
10. (d) As seen from figure after one time period the bob return directed towards the mean position. Displacement and
.te
centre of tunnel.
A A
h
11. (d) A periodic motion is a periodic function of time.
f (t) = A cos t and f (t) = A sin t (i) It will oscillate, through the earth to a height h on both
A linear combination of the two is sides.
f (t) = A sin t + A cos t (ii) The motion of particle is periodic.
are all periodic motion equation. (iii) The motion of particle will not be S.H.M.
EBD_7208
220 OSCILLATIONS
20. (d) Its motion is complex, but not periodic, oscillatory or position. Also the acceleration is in the opposite
S.H.M. direction of displacement.
21. (d) The motion of particle is S.H.M. with 31. (d)
x = A sin t + B cos t 32. (d) Total mechanical energy is constant throughout the
= a sin ( t + )
1
motion and equals m 2 A2 .
2 2 2
Where a A B , A = a cos , B = a sin ,
–1
= tan B/A. 33. (a) If displacement of particle is y, then
22. (b) Elasticity brings the particle towards mean position 1 2
and inertia needed to cross mean position. KE = m (a 2 y2 )
2
23. (d) x (t) = A cos ( t + )
1 2 2
dx & P.E. = m y
om
V(t) = = – A sin ( t + ) 2
dt
If KE = PE
dv
a(f )= = – 2A cos ( t + ) 1 2 2 1
m 2 2
a
1
m 2 2
y
m y =
t.c
dt
2 2 2
24. (c) Displacement, y = r sin t
a
2y2 = a2
po
dy y=
V= =r cos t 2
dt
34. (a) Energy of a particle in simple harmonic motion is
gs
dV given by
a= = – 2 r sin t
dt 1
a = – 2y E m 2a2 E a2
25.
a y
(c) Displacement in simple harmonic motion is given by
lo 2
Therefore, the energy in simple harmonic motion
.b
depends on a2.
y = a sin t .... (i)
35. (a) At any instant the total energy is
Differentiating with respect to time t
r8
1 2 1 1
dy d kx mv 2 kA 02 = constant
(a sin t ) 2 2 2
be
dt dt
A0 = amplitude
v = a (cos t)
hence U is independent of x.
36. (a) P.E. of body in S.H.M. at an instant,
cy
= a (1 sin 2 t )
Substituting value of sin t from Eq. (i), we get 1 1 2
U m 2 y2 ky
no
2 2
y2 If the displacement, y = (a – x) then
v a (1
a2 1 1
ch
2
a2 37. (b) K = m ( A2 x2 )
2
v a2 y2 1 2 2
w
K max = m A , at x = 0.
2
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d)
w
dy
vinst A cos t A sin( t / 2) 1
dt 39. (d) E m 2a 2 E a2
2
Acceleration A 2 sin t 40. (d) The acceleration of the particle at equilibrium position
= A 2sin( + t) is zero.
41. (c)
0.5 42. (c) In S.H.M., kinetic energy of particle at any point P is
2
30. (a) a = – kX, X = x + a. 1 2
In simple harmonic motion acceleration is directly Kinetic energy m (a 2 x2)
2
proportional to the displacement from the mean
OSCILLATIONS 221
50. (a) Potential energy of a simple pendulum is given by
1 2 2
Potential energy m x
2 1
U m 2 y2
Where a is amplitude of particle and x is the distance 2
from mean position. Potential energy is maximum when the displacement
So, at mean position, x = 0 of the pendulum is maximum, i.e., at the turning
points of the oscillations.
1 2 2
K.E. m a (maximum) 51. (c)
2 52. (c) Let a simple pendulum be taken as shown. The
P.E. = 0 restoring force on the bob is
43. (c) For spring mass m system, the time period of the F = – mg sin
oscillation of mas m is defined as
om
S
T 2 m/k 2 y/g
where m = mass of particle
k = spring constant l T
t.c
y = extension in spring A
L = natural length of spring O
If g is changed, then y also changes so that y/g is
po
constant, so the time period T of spring mass is mg sin mg cos
independent from the variation in g. Hence
gs
(frequency) will also not change. where m is mass of bob, g the acceleration due to
gravity. When angular displacement of bob is small
sin and measured in radians, then
L + y0
losin
OA x
.b
ky SA l
r8
mg arc
F x angle =
l radius
be
44. (a) k k1 k2 keq k1k2 Therefore, the motion of bob is simple harmonic.
eq
53. (c) The motion of a planet around the sun is periodic
k1k2
no
(K) of springs
K = K1 + K2 + ...
Hence, option (b) is wrong. L
56. (a) Time period T = 2
.te
g
L
46. (b) Time period of a simple pendulum T = 2 57. (a) The both of the pendulum will more along a straight
g
w
line AB.
47. (b) T = mg cos
w
1
m 2 r12 2 2
E1 2 r1 5 x
48. (c) =1:4 A B
E2 1 r2 10
m 2 r22
2
49. (b) Time period of a simple pendulum of length l is mg
given by Re
l
T 2 where g is acceleration due to gravity..
g
EBD_7208
222 OSCILLATIONS
The direction of the Earth's gravitational field is radial 72. (c) In SHM, acceleration of particle is always directed
towards mean position but velocity is either towards
GM e m
Now, F mg or away from mean position. Similarly displacement is
R e2 always away from the position. So they can not be in
phase always.
x GM e m 73. (c) In one vibration the particle goes twice to extreme
Fx F cos F x = –kx
Re R 3e positions and twice crosses the mean position. So
does the PE and KE.
GM e m 74. (b)
where k 3 75. (a) Displacement amplitude of an oscillator depends on
Re
the angular frequency of the driving force.
Time period of a simple harmonic oscillator, 76. (d) Examples of oscillatory motion can be found around
om
m m us very easily.
T 2 2 In most of the musical instruments either string or some
k GM e m / R 3e memberane oscillates to produce pleasant sound. Due
to the oscillation of air molecules sound propagates in
t.c
Re a air.
GM e Re 77. (d)
or T 2 2 78. (b) ( t + ) represents the phase of the particle in SHM.
po
R e2 g
represents the phase constant and is the value of
58. (a) 59. (c) phase at t = 0
l
gs
79. (c) Fs = –K x (spring force) ... (i)
l F = – m 2x (For SHM condition) ... (ii)
60. (d) T 2
g On comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii),
lo
T
g 2 k m 2
T
.b
l T T 2
2 m k
4
r8
l T2 1
T m T
61. (a) k
be
1 2 1
62. (c) Kinetic energy, K = mv = m 2 A2 sin 2 ( t ) So, T does not depends on the amplitude of the
2 2 oscillation T depend on m, k.
1
cy
2 2 2
Potential energy, U = m A cos ( t ) MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
2
1 80. (c)
no
2 2
Total mech. energy = m A
2 81. (a)
63. (a) In case of sustained force oscillations the amplitude (A) For equilibrium, F = 8 – 2x = 0
ch
65. (b)
66. (c) In forced oscillations, the body oscillates at the angular A = 2m
w
T
damping force is small. or A to O is , which differes in phase by .
4 2
68. (d) 69. (b)
6
6
70. (b) Every simple harmonic motion (S.H.M.) is necessarily 6
periodic, but a periodic motion may or may not be = (8 2 x) dx 8x x2 4
simple harmonic motion. 4
71. (b) = 4 J.
OSCILLATIONS 223
1 2
Energy of oscillation = mv0 . O O
2
83. (c) 84. (d)
om
sin curve cos curve
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 99. (b) So rod remains stationary after the release.
85. (a) For x = (– A), we have 100. (c) S.H.M. is to and fro motion of an object and it is periodic.
t.c
–A = A sin( 0 0) v k2 x2
If x = 0, v has maximum value. At x = k, v has minimum
po
or 0 = – . velocity. Similarly, when x = – k, v has zero value, all
2
these indicate to and from movement.
So for x ( A) , 0 (– / 2) .
101. (b)
gs
x A sin t
86. (a) At point 2, the acceleration of the particle is maximum,
which is at the extreme position. At extreme position, and v A cos t A sin( t / 2)
the velocity of the particle will be zero. 102. (a) With respect to an observer, the force on the particle
lo
y F – k[ x (v0 v0 )t ] kx , so it represents SHM.
87. (b) = sin
.b
a 103. (d) At extreme position, a 2
A and v = 0.
y = a sin
r8
which SHM completes one vibration. Thus frequency T/4 2T/4 3T/4
of PE or KE is double than that of SHM.
92. (b) When some mercury is drained off, the centre of gravity 1 2 1
106. (b) In SHM. K.E.= m (a 2 y 2 ) and P.E. = m 2 2
y .
.te
93. (d) v 2 = 2
(A – x )2 2 … (i) energy remains constant through out the motion,
which is E = K.E. + P.E. So, when P.E. is maximum then
w
2
and a2 = ( x )2 4 2
x … (ii)
K.E. is zero and viceversa.
From above equations, we have
w
om
1 g ( t + ) is called phase.
pendulum is independent T 2 l of amplitude. A
When x = , then
2
115. (b) Energy of damped oscillator at an any instant t is given
t.c
by 1
sin ( t + ) =
2
1 2
po
bt/m
E E0 e [ where E 0
kx = maximum energy] 1
2 t A
6
Due to damping forces the amplitude of oscillator will
gs
go on decreasing with time whose energy is expressed or 1 A
6 2 x = A/2
by above equation.
For second particle, x=0
116. (c) Damping can never be zero in reality, so amplitude can lo
never be infinity. 5
2
117. (c) Amplitude of oscillation for a forced damped oscillatory 6 6
.b
F0 / m 4 2
is A , where b is constant 2 1=
r8
2 2
6 3
( 0 ) (b / m) 2
related to the strength of the resistive force, 121. (c) Given, x = 10 sin 2t –
be
6
0 k / m is natural frequency of undamped A = 10 and = 2 Hz
oscillator (b = 0)
cy
A2 – d2 2 (10)2 – (6)2
When the frequency of driving force ( ) 0 , then
–1
amplitude A is very larger. 2 100 – 36 2 8 16m s
no
x = A sin t 3
2 a 2 3.14 7 10
A T 0.01 s
Here, x and t = 1 v max 4.4
w
2
A dy1
123. (b)
w
dy 2
1 v2 0.1 sin t 0.1 cos t
or, sin , dt 2
2 6
2 2 3
or T = 12 s Phase diff. = 1 2 = = =–
T 6 3 2 6 6
119. (a) Let x1 = A sin( t + 1) and x2 = A sin ( t + 2) 124. (b) Using v 2 2
(a 2 2
y ) we have
x2 – x1 = A[sin ( t + 2) – sin( t – 1)]
2 t 10 2 2
(a 2 4 2 ) and 8 2 2
(a 2 5 2 ) ;
1 2 2 1
= 2A cos sin so 102 – 82 = 2 (52 – 42) = (3 2) or 6 = 3 or = 2
1 2
or T = 2 / = 2 /2 = s.
OSCILLATIONS 225
125. (a) Here, 128. (a) As we know,
x = x0 cos ( t – /4 ) 1 2
Velocity, kinetic energy m (A 2 – x 2 )
2
dx
v x 0 sin t 1 2 2
dt 4 Potential energy m x
2
Acceleration,
1
a
dv
x0 2
cos t m 2 (A 2 – x 2 ) A2 – x 2 1
2 1
dt 4 2
1 4 x 4
m 2x2
2 2
x0 cos t
4
om
4 2
= x0 2 4A2 – 4x2 = x2 x2 A
5
3
cos t ...(1) 2
4
t.c
x A.
Acceleration, a = A cos ( t + ) ...(2) 5
Comparing the two equations, we get 129. (d) Here, m = 4 kg; k = 800 Nm–1; E = 4 J
po
3 1 2
A = x0 2 and In SHM, E kA
4 2
126. (a) K.E. of a body undergoing S.H.M. is given by
gs
1
1 4 800 A 2
K.E. ma 2 2 cos 2 t 2
2 lo
1 8 1
T.E. ma 2 2 A2 , A = 0.1 m
.b
2 800 100
Maximum acceleration, amax = 2A
Given K.E. = 0.75 T.E.
r8
0.75 cos 2 t t k k
6 A
m m
be
2 1
t t t s
6 6 2 6 1
800 Nm 2
127. (b) The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 0.1 m 20ms
cy
4 kg
given by
1 m T1 M1
no
a = amplitude M2 2M
= angular frequency T2 = T1 M1 = T 1 M
t = time
.te
2 131. (b) t1 2 , t2 2
k1 k2
w
1 2a2 <sin 2
= m t> k1k 2
2 when springs are in series then, k eff
w
kl k 2
1 1 1
= m 2a2 sin 2
2 2 2 m( k l k 2 )
T 2
1 k1k 2
2 2
m a
4
m m t 22 t 12
1 T 2 2
= ma2 (2 )2 ( 2 ) k2 k1 (2 ) 2 (2 ) 2
4
or, <K>
2
ma 2 2 T2 t12 t 22
EBD_7208
226 OSCILLATIONS
132. (b) Here, x = 2 × 10–2 cos t 136. (a) The differential equation of simple harmonic motion is
Speed is given by
d2y d2y
dx 2y 0 or –2 y ...(i)
v = –2 × 10–2 sin t dt 2 dt 2
dt
Standard equation of simple harmonic motion is
For the first time, the speed to be maximum,
sin t = 1 d2y 2
2
– y ...(ii)
or, sin t = sin dt
2 Comparing eq. (i) and (ii),
2 = 2 or =
1 2
t = 0.5 sec.
or t =
2 2 2
om
133. (b) The two displacements equations As we know,
T
are y1 = a sin( t)
2 2
t Time period, T 2s
t.c
and y2 = b cos( t) = b sin 2
2
yeq = y1 + y2 1 2
137. (b) In SHM, Total energy, E total m A2
po
2
= a sin t + b cos t = a sin t + b sin t 1
2 and, Kinetic energy, E K m 2 ( A2 – x 2 )
2
gs
Since the frequencies for both SHMs are same, where x is the distance from the mean position.
resultant motion will be SHM. At x = 0.707A
1
EK 0.5m 2A2 0.5 100J 50J
2
be
2
V12 2
(A 2 – x12 ) A 3a
2
A a
1
A A
w
V22 (A – 2 2
x 22 )
Substructing we get, 2 A2 2a 2 4 Aa A2
w
A 3a
V12 V22 A A2
w
2
x12 2
x 22
A2 – 3aA = A2 + 2a2 – 4Aa
V12 – V22 2a2 = aA
2
x 22 – x12 A = 2a
V12 – V22 a 1
w A 2
x 22 – x12
Now, A – a = A cos
x 22 – x12
T 2 A a
V12 – V22 cos
A
OSCILLATIONS 227
Bob in air
1 2
cos or
2 T 3
T= 6 1000 Vg
139. (c) As, we know, in SHM
Maximum acceleration of the particle, = A 2
4
Maximum velocity, = A 1000 Vg
3
Bob in water
2 4 1000
2 2 Net force 1 1000 Vg Vg
T= 3 3
om
T
A 1000Vg g 4
140. (c) Given, x = g eff Mass 1000 V
4 4 3
2 3 1000V
t.c
3
from x = A sin t
t = 30°
po
t 2
KE 2 2 g/4
And, cot t 3
PE
t 2t 0
gs
=3
144. (d) For damped harmonic motion,
141. (c) Given t = 1s
ma = – kx – mbv
x = 5 cos 2
4
or
lo ma + mbv + kx = 0
Solution to above equation is
.b
bt
5 k b2 2=
r8
5
i.e., displacement at t = 1s is m b
2 i.e., A A0 e 2
cy
b
A0 2
1 Thus, A =A0e
log T log( 2 ) log e
ch
2 g
b 2
or 1 or =
1 1
.te
2 b
log T log(2 ) log( ) log(g)
2 2
145. (c) (n 1)TS nTL
w
T 1
Differentiating, 0 0 (n 1) 1 n 1.44
T 2
w
1
T 1 (n 1) 1.2n n 5
100 100
w
0.2
T 2
146. (b)
1
21 10.5 10% 147. (d) F = – bV, b depends on all the three i.e, shape and size
=
2 of he block and viscosity of the medium.
Note: In this method, the % error obtained is an bt
approximate value on the higher side. Exact value is 2m
148. (c) A A0 e (where, A0 = maximum amplitude)
less than the obtained one.
According to the questions, after 5 seconds,
143. (a) t 2 t0 2 b(5)
g eff ; g 2m … (i)
0.9A 0 A 0e
EBD_7208
228 OSCILLATIONS
After 10 more seconds, 2
b(15)
1 TM A
1
A A0 e 2m …(ii) y T Mg
From equations (i) and (ii) 153. (b) The time period of pendulam is given by
A = 0.729A0
l
= 0.729 T 2
149. (b) Amplitude of a damped oscillator at any instant t is g
given by Acceleration due to gravity of earth is
A = A0e–bt/2m
GM
where A0 is the original amplitude ge
From question, R e2
om
A0 Value of 'g' on planet is
When t = 2 s, A =
3 GM p G.2M ge
gp
A0 R 2p 4R 2 2
t.c
= A0e–2b/2m
3
l .2
1 Tp 2 2T
po
or, = e–b/m … (i) ge
3
A0 i.e. Tp 2 2
gs
When t = 6 s, A =
n 154. (c) As we know,
F = ma a F
A0 lo
= A0e–6b/2m or, a sin t
n
dv
.b
1 sin t
or, = e–3b/m = (e–b/m)3 dt
n
r8
0 t
3
1 1 dV sin t dt
or, = (Using eq. (i))
be
n 3 0 0
n = 33 V – cos t + 1
150. (a) Force on a spring F = k.x
cy
x t
1 2 F .x F F F2 dx ( cos t 1) dt
W= kx = . 0 0
no
2 2 2 k 2k
W1 k2 kB 1
x = sin t – sin 2t
Now, = 2
ch
W2 k1 kA
bt
5T –
151. (d) (n + 1)T = n 155. (d) As we know, E E0 e m
.te
4
n =4 b15
–
Time t = (n + 1) T = 5T 15 45e m
w
om
(c) Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
(d) Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum
1. Water waves produced by a motor boat sailing in water are 10. With the propagation of a longitudinal wave through a
(a) only longitudinal material medium, the quantities transmitted in the
po
(b) only transverse propagation direction are
(c) both longitudinal and transverse (a) energy, momentum and mass
(d) neither longitudinal nor transverse (b) energy
gs
2. For which of the following do the longitudinal waves (c) energy and mass
exist? (d) energy and linear momentum
(a) Vacuum
(c) Water
(b) Air
(d) Both (b) and (c)
11. lo
When a sound wave goes from one medium to another,
the quantity that remains unchanged is
.b
3. Which of the following is a transverse wave ? (a) frequency (b) amplitude
(a) Wave produced in a cylinder containing a liquid by (c) wavelength (d) speed
r8
moving its position back and forth. 12. Speed of a progressive wave is given by
(b) Ultrasonic wave in air produced by a vibrating quartz (a) v = n (b) v = n/
be
5. What type of vibrations are produced in a sitar wire ? (b) they have constant frequency
(a) Progressive transverse (c) the height of antenna required, should be very high
(b) Progressive longitudinal (d) velocity of sound waves is very less
.te
(c) Stationary transverse 15. For a sinusoidal wave represented by y (x, t) = a sin
(d) Stationary longitudinal (kx – t + ), for a given a, the factor determines the
w
6. The waves associated with the moving particles are called displacement of the wave of any position and at any
(a) mechanical waves (b) ultrasonic waves instant is
w
(c) matter waves (d) shock waves (a) constant k (b) angular velocity
7. The property of a medium necessary for wave propagation is (c) time interval t (d) phase (kx – t +
w
om
density of gas
(a) v v r.m.s. ( / 3)1 / 2 (b) v r.m.s. v( 2 / 3)1 / 2
20. For which of the following waves, the speed depends on
temperature ? (c) v v r.m.s. (d) v r.m.s. (3 / )1 / 2
t.c
v
(a) Light (b) Sound
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 29. What is the effect of humidity on sound waves when
humidity increases?
po
21. The velocity of sound in a gas
(a) increases by 0.61 m/s when the temperature rises by (a) Speed of sound waves is more
1° C (b) Speed of sound waves is less
gs
(b) decreases by 0.61 m/s when the temperature rises by (c) Speed of sound waves remains same
1° C (d) Speed of sound waves becomes zero
(c) depends upon the pressure of the gas 30. The bulk modulus of a liquid of density 8000 kg m–3 is
lo
(d) depends upon the coefficient of the shearing of the 2 × 109 N m–2. The speed of sound in that liquid is (in m s–1)
.b
gas (a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 100 (d) 500
22. Ultrasonic, infrasonic and audible waves travel through a 31. A wave travelling on a string is described by
r8
medium with speeds vu, vi, va respectively, then y (x, t) = 0.005 sin (80.0x – 3.0t)
(a) vu, vi, va are nearly equal The period of the wave is
be
L m L m
(b) d 2 y / dx 2 v 2 d 2 y / dt 2 1 T T
(c) v (d) v 2L
ch
1 2 2L m m
(c) d 2 y / dx 2 d y / dt 2
v 33. The SI unit of propagation constant k is
.te
elasticity is E and isothermal elasticity E'. The velocity of (a) depends upon its frequency and not on its amplitude
sound waves is proportional to
w
amplitude
E (d) depends neither on frequency nor on its amplitude
(c) E' (d)
E' 35. Standing waves in a string are due to
25. The speed of sound in a perfectly rigid rod is (a) beats (b) reflection of waves
(a) infinite (b) zero (c) interference of waves (d) Doppler's effect
(c) 332 m/s (d) 3 × 108 m/s 36. Of the following, the equation of plane progressive wave is
26. The ratio of the speed of a body to the speed of sound is (a) y = r sin t (b) y = r sin ( t – kx)
called
a a
(a) Mach number (b) Doppler ratio (c) y sin ( t kx) (d) y sin ( t kr)
(c) sonic index (d) refractive index r r
WAVES 231
37. In ordinary talk, the amplitude of vibration is approximately
2
(a) 10–12 m (b) 10–11 m 47. The equation y a sin (vt x ) is expression for
(c) 10 m–8 (d) 10–7 m
38. Phon is unit of (a) stationary wave of single frequency along x-axis
(a) wavelength (b) loudness (b) a simple harmonic motion
(c) frequency (d) intensity (c) a progressive wave of single frequency along x-axis
39. The equation of plane progressive wave motion is (d) the resultant of two SHMs of slightly different
frequencies
y a sin vt x . Velocity of the particle is 48. Consider the three waves z 1, z2 and z3 as
z1 = A sin (kx – t)
z2 = A sin (kx + t)
om
dv dy dv dy
(a) y (b) v (c) y (d) v z3 = A sin (ky – t)
dx dx dx dx
Which of the following represents a standing wave?
40. The rate of transfer of energy in a wave depends
(a) z1 + z2 (b) z2 + z3
t.c
(a) directly on the square of the wave amplitude and
(c) z3 + z1 (d) z1 + z2 + z3
square of the wave frequency
49. Shock waves are produced by objects
po
(b) directly on the square of the wave amplitude and root
(a) carrying electric charge and vibrating
of the wave frequency
(b) vibrating with frequency greater than 20000 Hz
(c) directly on the wave amplitude and square of the wave
gs
(c) vibrating with very large amplitude
frequency
(d) moving with a speed greater than that of sound in the
(d) None of these
41. Two waves are said to be coherent, if they have
(a) same phase but different amplitude
lo
medium
50. A travelling wave reflected at an open boundary undergoes
.b
a phase change of
(b) same frequency but different amplitude
(a) (b) 0
r8
43. When a wave is reflected from a denser medium, the change (c) Both pressure and density
in phase is (d) Neither pressure nor density
ch
(a) 0 (b) 52. The notes of frequencies which are integral multiple of
(c) 2 (d) 3 the fundamental frequencies are called
44. On reflection of a wave from a rarer medium, change in (a) beats (b) harmonics
.te
(a) y = A sin(kx + t) (b) y = A cos(kx + t) (a) difference in frequencies of two sources should be
(c) y = –A sin(kx – t) (d) y = –A sin(kx + t) 10
46. When temperature increases, the frequency of a tuning fork (b) difference in frequencies of two sources should be
(a) increases < 10
(b) decreases (c) difference in frequencies of two sources should be
(c) remains same > 10
(d) increases or decreases depending on the material (d) difference in frequencies of two sources should be
10
EBD_7208
232 WAVES
55. Possible wavelength of stationary waves are constrained 65. When two sound waves are superimposed, beats are
by the relation produced when they have different
L 2L (a) amplitudes and phases
(A) (B)
n n (b) velocities
(c) phases
L L
(C) (D) (d) frequencies
2n 3n
66. Two sound waves of slightly different frequencies
56. The pipe open at both ends will produce
propagating in the same direction produce beats due to
(a) all the harmonics
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction
(b) all the odd harmonics
(c) Polarization (d) Refraction
(c) all the even harmonics
67. For which of the following cases, there will be no Doppler
om
(d) None of the harmonics
57. Reverberation time does not depend upon effect ?
(a) temperature (b) volume of room (a) If source and listener, both move in the same
direction with same speed.
t.c
(c) size of window (d) carpet and curtain
58. The reason for introducing Laplace correction in the (b) If one of the source/listener is at the centre of a
expression for the velocity of sound in a gaseous medium circle, while the other is moving on it.
po
is (c) When both the source and listener are at rest.
(a) no change in the temperature of the medium during (d) All of these
gs
the propagation of the sound through it 68. Doppler's effect in sound takes place when source and
(b) no change in the heat of the medium during the observer are
propagation of the sound through it
(c) change in the pressure of the gas due to the
compression and rarefaction
lo
(a) stationary
(b) moving with same velocity
.b
(c) in relative motion
(d) change in the volume of the gas
59. On account of damping, the frequency of a vibrating body (d) None of these
r8
(a) remains unaffected (b) increases 69. Doppler’s effect is not applicable for
(c) decreases (d) changes erratically (a) audio waves (b) electromagnetic waves
be
60. Frequencies of sound produced from an organ pipe open (c) shock waves (d) None of these
at both ends are 70. A train moving at a speed vs towards a stationary observer
cy
(a) only fundamental note on a platform emits sound of frequency f and velocity v.
(b) only even harmonics Then the apparent frequency heard by him is
(c) only odd harmonics
no
(c) constructive and destructive interference (a) frequency of the wave produced
(d) superposition of two waves of nearly equal
w
om
(a) I and III (b) Only IV I. In a standing wave the disturbance produce is confined
(c) I, II and III (d) I, III and IV to the region where it is produced.
75. A pebble is dropped in a pond of a still in water disturb the II. In a standing wave, all the particles cross their mean
position together.
t.c
water surface.
Which of the given statements are correct for the above III. In a standing wave, energy is transmitted from one
situation ? region of space to other.
po
I. The disturbance produced does not remain confined (a) I and II (b) Only II
to one place but propagates outward along a circle. (c) Only III (d) I, II and III
81.
gs
II. If a cork piece is put on the disturbed surface, it moves Which of the following statements related to organ pipe is/
along with the disturbance in the same direction. are correct ?
III. The water mass does not flow outward with the circles I. In a closed organ pipe closed at one end longitudinal
lo
formed but rather a moving disturbance is created. standing waves are present.
(a) I and III (b) II and III II. In a closed organ pipe only odd harmonics are present.
.b
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III III. The harmonics which are present in a pipe, open at
76. Consider the following statements and select the correct
r8
I. Mechanical wave can travel without a medium (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
II. When a wave motion passes through a medium 82. Choose the false statement(s) from the following.
particle of medium only vibrate simple harmonically I. Change in frequency due to Doppler effect will be
cy
about their mean position positive if the distance between source and listener
III. There is no phase difference amongst successive increases.
no
particles of the medium. II. Change in frequency due to Doppler effect will be
(a) I only (b) II only negative if the distance between source and listener
(c) I and III (d) II and III (a) I only (b) II only
ch
77. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect (c) I and II (d) None of these
statement(s) from the following.
.te
I. Mechanical waves transfer energy and matter both MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
from one point to another.
II. Mechanical waves transfer only energy from one 83. Match the Columns I and II.
w
III. Mechanical waves transfer only matter from one (A) A region of low pressure (1) Particles oscillate
point to another. and low density at right angle
w
(a) I only (b) II only (B) A region of high pressure (2) Particles oscillate
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III and high density in the same direction
78. Which of the following statements are correct ? (C) Longitudinal wave (3) Compression
I. A steel bar possesses both bulk and shear elastic
(D) Transverse wave (4) Rarefaction
moduli.
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
II. A steel bar propagate both longitudinal as well as
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
transverse waves having different speeds.
III. Air can propagate both longitudinal and transverse (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
wave. (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (2)
EBD_7208
234 WAVES
84. Column I Column II (a) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(A) Mechanical waves (1) Disturbance for short (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (1)
time
(B) Pulse (2) Independent of (c) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
amplitude of vibrations (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(C) Velocity of sound in air (3) SONAR
(D) Tracking of fish in ocean (4) Require a material 89. Source has frequency f. Source and observer both have
medium same speed. For the apparent frequency observed by
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) observer match the following.
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
Column-I Column-II
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (3)
(d) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (2) (A) Observer is approaching (1) More than f
the source but source is
om
85. Column I Column II
(A) y = 4 sin (5x – 4t) + (1) Particles at receding from the observer
3 cos (4t – 5x + /6) every position (B) Observer and source both (2) Less than f
t.c
are performing approaching towards
SHM each other
x x
(B) y 10 cos t sin (100) t (2) Equation of (C) Observer and source both (3) Equal to f
po
330 330
receding from each other
travelling wave
(D) Source is approaching but (4) Infinite
gs
(C) y = 10 sin (2 x – 120t) (3) Equation of
+ 10 cos (120t + 2 x) standing wave observer is receding
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
(D) y = 10 sin (2 x – 120t) (4) Equation of lo
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
+ 8 cos (118t – 59/30 x) Beats
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
.b
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) (d) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (3)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2)
r8
(d) (A) (1,2) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1,3) ; (D) (4) DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
86. Column I Column II
be
(A) Sound (1) Frequency 90. The diagram below shows the propagation of a wave. Which
(B) SONAR (2) Mechanical wave points are in same phase ?
(C) Reflection of sound (3) Finding depth of the sea
cy
F G
87. Column I Column II C
(A) Pitch (1) Waveform
(B) Quality (2) Frequency (a) F and G (b) C and E
.te
amplitude
waves get modified to
(a) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
w
om
(b) Progressive waves formed from superposition of
two harmonic waves travelling in opposite directions.
(c) Stationary wave formed from superposition of two
(a) (b) harmonic waves travelling in same directions.
t.c
(d) Stationary wave formed from superposition of two
harmonic waves travelling in opposite directions
po
96. The fifth harmonic for vibrations of a stretched string is
shown in figure. How many nodes are present here?
(c) (d)
gs
(a) 4 (b) 6
93. Two pulses in a stretched string whose centres are initially (c) 5 lo (d) 10
8 cm apart are moving towards each other as shown in the 97. What will be the frequency of beats formed from the
superposition of two harmonic waves shown below?
.b
figure. The speed of each pulse is 2 cm/s. After 2 s, the total
y
energy of the pulses will be
r8
1.0
0
be
t(s)
8 cm
–1.0 (a)
y
cy
(a) Zero
(b) Purely kinetic 1.0
no
y
and an observor O are located at some distance from each
other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms-1 at an
w
om
107. Assertion : A transverse waves are produced in a very long
f f string fixed at one end. Only progressive wave is observed
near the free end.
t.c
(c) (d) Reason : Energy of reflected wave does not reach the free
end.
t0 t 108. Assertion: Explosions on other planets are not heard on
po
t0 t
Earth.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS Reason: Sound waves cannot travel to a far off distance
gs
109. Assertion: Two astronauts can talk to each other on
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
moon through microphone.
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
Reason: Microphone can convert their sound signals
lo
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
into transverse waves which can travel even in vacuum.
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
.b
110. Assertion : The base of Laplace correction was that
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct exchange of heat between the region of compression and
r8
Reason : When particles are compressed, density of medium medium is proportional to square of amplitude only.
increases and when they are rarefied, density of medium 112. Assertion : Principle of superposition can be used for any
ch
medium oscillate perpendicular to the direction of wave place a complete reversal of phase.
propagation. Reason: On reflection from a denser medium, both the
103. Assertion : Particle velocity and wave velocity both are particle velocity and wave velocity are reversed in sign.
independent of time. 115. Assertion : Velocity of particles, while crossing mean
Reason : For the propagation of wave motion, the medium position in case of stationary waves varies from maximum
must have the properties of elasticity and inertia. at antinodes to zero at nodes.
104. Assertion : Waves on strings are always transverse. Reason : Amplitude of vibration at antinodes is maximum
Reason : It is because a string is non stretchable so and at nodes, the amplitude is zero, and all particles between
compressions and rarefaction cannot be produced in two successive nodes cross the mean position together.
WAVES 237
116. Assertion : To hear distinct beats, difference in frequencies (a) y = sin (2 x – 2 t) (b) y = sin (10 x – 20 t)
of two sources should not be greater than 10. (c) y = sin (2 x + 2 t) (d) y = sin (x – 2t)
Reason : Persistance of human ear is 10 per second. 127. The pressure variations in the propagation of sound
117. Assertion : In the case of a stationary wave, a person hear waves in gaseous medium are
a loud sound at the nodes as compared to the antinodes. (a) adiabatic (b) isothermal
Reason : In a stationary wave all the particles of the medium (c) isobaric (d) isochoric
vibrate in phase. 128. The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be
118. Assertion : Sound produced by an open organ pipe is richer
6
than the sound produced by a closed organ pipe. expressed as, y 10 sin 100t 20 x m where t is
4
Reason : Outside air can enter the pipe from both ends, in
case of open organ pipe. in second and x in meter. The speed of the wave is
om
119. Assertion : The fundemental frequency of an open organ (a) 20 m/s (b) 5 m/s
pipe increases as the temperature is increased. (c) 2000 m/s (d) 5 m/s
Reason : As the temperature increses, the velocity of sound 129. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/s. For a particular
t.c
increases more rapidly than length of the pipe. sound wave in air, a path difference of 40 cm is equivalent
120. Assertion: Stringed instruments are provided with hollow to phase difference of 1.6 . The frequency of this wave is
boxes. (a) 165 Hz (b) 150 Hz
po
Reason: It increases the surface area of vibration which (c) 660 Hz (d) 330 Hz
in turn increases the loudness of the sound. 130. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density
121. Assertion : Speed of mechanical wave in the medium
gs
0.04 kg m–1 is given by
depends on the velocity of source, relative to an observer
at rest. t x
Reason : Speed of mechanical wave is independent of the
elastic and other properties such as mass density of the
y lo
0.02(m)sin 2 –
0.04( s) 0.50(m)
.b
The tension in the string is
medium. (a) 4.0 N (b) 12.5 N
122. Assertion : Doppler formula for sound wave is symmetric
r8
Reason : Motion of source with respect to stationary y (x, t) = a sin (kx – t + ). The value of displacement
observer is not equivalent to the motion of an observer will
with respect to stationary source.
cy
123. Two waves are represen ted by the equations superposition of two waves is given by y (x, t) = 2a sin
y1 = a sin ( t + kx + 0.57) m and y2 = a cos ( t + kx) m, where kx cos t. The position of nodes will be given by
ch
x is in meter and t in sec. The phase difference between (a) sin kx = – 1 (b) sin kx = 0
them is
(a) 1.0 radian (b) 1.25 radian n
.te
2 string is :
(c) 2 A (d) A (a) 205 Hz (b) 10.5 Hz
125. A balloon is filled with hydrogen. For sound waves, this (c) 105 Hz (d) 155 Hz
balloon behaves like 134. Which of the following represents the equation of a
(a) a converging lens (b) a diverging lens spherical progressive wave ?
(c) a concave mirror (d) Nothing can be said
126. A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement (a) y a sin t (b) y a sin ( t kr )
along y-direction as 1m, wavelength 2 m and frequency
a a
1 (c) y sin ( t kr ) (d) y sin ( t kr )
Hz is represented by 2 r
EBD_7208
238 WAVES
135. Two sound waves travel in the same direction in a medium. 143. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length
The amplitude of each wave is A and the phase difference 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of an organ pipe
between the two waves is 120°. The resultant amplitude will open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at
both the ends is
be
(a) 100 cm (b) 120 cm
(a) 2A (b) 2A (c) 140 cm (d) 80 cm
(c) 3A (d) A 144. Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T
136. A sonometer wire supports a 4 kg load and vibrates in have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional
fundamental mode with a tuning fork of frequency 416 Hz. increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to
The length of the wire between the bridges is now doubled. occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate
In order to maintain fundamental mode, the load should be together would be
changed to (a) 0.02 (b) 0.03
om
(a) 1 kg (b) 2 kg (c) 0.04 (d) 0.01
(c) 4 kg (d) 16 kg 145. Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves
137. A sonometer wire of length 1.5 m is made of steel. given by Y1 = 4 sin 500 t and Y2 = 2 sin 506 t. Number of
The tension in it produces an elastic strain of 1%. What
t.c
beats produced per minute is
is the fundamental frequency of steel if density and (a) 360 (b) 180
elasticity of steel are 7.7 × 103 kg/m3 and 2.2 × 1011 N/m2 (c) 60 (d) 3
po
respectively ? 146. A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats per second
(a) 188.5 Hz (b) 178.2 Hz with the vibrating string of a piano. The beat frequency
(c) 200.5 Hz (d) 770 Hz decreases to 2 beats per sec when the tension in the piano
gs
138. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of three string is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano
segments into which a string is divided, then the original string before increasing the tension was
fundamental frequency n of the string is given by lo
(a) 510 Hz (b) 514 Hz
1 1 1 1 (c) 516 Hz (d) 508 Hz
.b
(a) 147. The velocity of a moving galaxy is 300 km s–1 and the
n n1 n2 n3
apparent change in wavelength of a spectral line emitted
r8
(d) n = n1 + n2 + n3
emitting progressive waves given by y1 = 4 sin 600 t and
139. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental
y2 = 5 sin 608 t. An observer located near these two sources
frequency, f, in air. The tube is dipped vertically in water so
no
(a) f (b) (b) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between
2
3f waxing and waning
(c) (d) 2 f (c) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between
.te
4
140. Tube A has both ends open while tube B has one end closed, waxing and waning
otherwise they are identical. The ratio of fundamental (d) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between
w
overtone and another pipe P2 open at both ends vibrating segments of the wire ?
in third overtone are in resonance with a given tuning fork. (a) 3 : 2 : 1 (b) 6 : 3 : 2
The ratio of the length of P1 to that of P2 is (c) 6 : 2 : 3 (d) 2 : 3 : 6
(a) 8/3 (b) 3/8 150. A source of sound is moving with a uniform speed along a
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/3 circle. The frequency of sound as heard by listener stationed
142. The number of possible natural oscillation of air column in at the centre of the path
a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm whose frequencies (a) increases
lie below 1250 Hz are : (velocity of sound = 340 ms– 1) (b) decreases
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) remains the same
(c) 7 (d) 6 (d) may increase and decrease alternately
WAVES 239
151. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then (a) v /2 (b) v / 2
which of the following statements is not true ? (c) v /3 (d) v /4
(a) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be 155. A speeding motorcyclist sees trafic jam ahead of him. He
generated slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds that traffic has eased
(b) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be and a car moving ahead of him at 18 km/hour is honking at
generated a frequency of 1392 Hz. If the speeds of sound is 343 m/s,
(c) Pressure change will be maximum at both ends the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be
(d) Antinode will be at open end (a) 1332 Hz (b) 1372 Hz
152. If wind blows from a stationary sounding object to a (c) 1412 Hz (d) 1464 Hz
stationary listener, then the apparent frequency n' and actual 156. A train moving at a speed of 220 ms–1 towards a stationary
frequency n are related as object, emits a sound of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the
(a) n n (b) n' < n sound reaching the object gets reflected back to the train
om
(c) n' = n (d) n' > n as echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the
153. A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when driver of the train is (speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1)
sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The (a) 3500 Hz (b) 4000 Hz
t.c
second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives (c) 5000 Hz (d) 3000 Hz
five beats per second, when sounded with a source of 157. A whistle producing sound waves of frequencies 9500 HZ
frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is and above is approaching a stationary person with speed
po
(a) 246 Hz (b) 240 Hz vms–1. The velocity of sound in air is 300 ms–1. If the
(c) 260 Hz (d) 254 Hz person can hear frequencies upto a maximum of 10,000 HZ,
154. A car is moving towards a high cliff. The car driver sounds the maximum value of v upto which he can hear whistle is
gs
a horn of frequency f. The reflected sound heard by the 15 1
driver has as frequency 2f. If v be the velocity of sound, (a) 15 2 ms 1 (b) ms
lo 2
then the velocity of the car, in the same velocity units, will
be (c) 15 ms 1 (d) 30 ms 1
.b
r8
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
EBD_7208
240 WAVES
om
shrink at their position without any forward or v
Frequency of wave n
backward motion. Therefore, there is no transmission
of energy in stationary waves. Therefore, the frequency of wave varies directly
t.c
5. (c) When vibrations are produced in a sitar wire the with speed of wave.
superposition takes place between incident and Frequencies, nu > na > ni
reflected wave from the rigid ends and a new wave Therefore speeds of waves
po
is produced which appears stationary in the medium. vu > va > vi
This wave is called stationary wave and its nature 23. (a) The correct form of differential eqn. of a wave is
is transverse.
gs
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) d2 y d2y
v2
9. (b) Sound waves in air are longitudinal while light waves dt 2 dx 2
are transverse. Sound waves require material medium
to propagate but transverse waves do not require any
lo P E
.b
material medium. 24. (b) v
10. (b) With the propagation of a longitudinal wave, energy
25. (a)
r8
T
13. (c) Sound can travel longitudinally as well as transversly 27. (a) As shown in the figure, the prongs of the tuning fork
in solids. are kept in a vertical plane.
no
1
v 103 500m s –1 . y = a sin t kx
2
48. (a) Standing waves are produced when two waves
2 propagate in opposite direction
31. (b) Time period, T = ; from given eqn.
As z 1 & z 2 are propagating in +ve x-axis &
= 3.0 s–1 –ve x-axis
so, z1 + z2 will represent a standing wave.
2 49. (d)
om
or T = = 2.09 s
3 50. (b) In case of an open boundry :
32. (c) Incident wave is y1 = a sin (wt – kx)
2 2 (rad) and reflected wave is y2 = a sin (wt + kx)
t.c
33. (a) or k No phase change occurs,
k (m)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (b)
34. (c) The intensity of wave
56. (a) A pipe open at both ends produce all odd and even
po
I = 2 2a2n2 v harmonics.
I a2 n2 57. (d) The time for which sound continues to be heard
gs
Therefore the intensity of a wave depends upon after the source has stopped producing sound is
both, its frequency and amplitude. called reverberation time. Sabine formula for
reverberation time of a hall is
lo
35. (c) When two waves, one incident and other reflected
wave, interfere with each other in the string than a 0.16V
T
.b
new type of wave is produced, which appears as
stationary in the medium. This wave is called
where V is volume of the hall in m3 and as is total
r8
waves.
36. (b) The position of such a wave changes in two covering the walls with absoring materials.
dimensional plane with time. 58. (b) According to Laplace when sound propagate in a
gaseous medium the compressions and rarefactions
cy
60. (d)
are same at a given time or at a given place in space are
61. (a) The even number of harmonics possible in open pipe.
known as coherent waves.
62. (d)
42. (c) The contrast will be maximum, when I1 = I2 i.e.
w
phase = (radian)
44. (a) On reflection at a rarer medium, no change of phase 7
L = three full loops + one half loop, which would
occures 4
45. (d) yz A sin (kx – t) for the wave progressing along the x- make four nodes and four antinodes.
axis and for the reflected wave, 65. (d) For producing beats, their must be small difference in
y = A sin (kx + t). frequency.
But the position of the rigid wall is at x = 0. 66. (a) 67. (d)
For the given wave, its reflected wave 68. (c) These apparent change in frequency due to motion
y = – A sin (kx + t). of source and observer relative to the medium along
46. (b) the line of sight is called Doppler's effect.
EBD_7208
242 WAVES
69. (c) 81. (c) In a closed organ pipe, two waves travelling in opposite
70. (c) The apparent frequency heard by the stationary direction (one incident and other reflected wave from
observer boundary) superimpose with each other to develop a
wave pattern which is standing or stationary.
v 1 Harmonics in closed organ pipe :
f f f
v vs v v1 : v2 : v3 ....... = 1 : 3 : 5 : ......
1 s
v So, only odd harmonics are present. II correct
nv
vs
1 Natural frequencies = v ; n = 1, 2, 3, .....
f 1 2L
v Thus, even and odd i.e., all the harmonics are present.
82. (c) Change in frequency has nothing to do with
v distance between source and listener.
f 1 s
om
(By expanding binomially)
v
71. (d) 72. (c) 73. (a) MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
83. (c) A (4); B (3); C (2); D (1)
t.c
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 84. (c) A (4); B (1); C (2); D (3)
74. (d) Waves are kind of disturbances which moves from 85. (d) (A) (1, 2), (B) (4), (C) (1, 3), (D) (4)
po
one place to another without the actual physical
(A) y 4sin (5 x 4t ) 3cos 4t 5 x
transfer of matter of the medium as a whole. The 6
particles of the medium only oscillate but do not travel is super position of two coherent waves, so their
gs
from one place to another. equivalent will be an another travelling wave
Waves transport energy and the pattern of disturbance x x
(B) y 10cos t sin(100) t
has information that propagate from one point to
another. Here, wave pattern propagates.
lo 330 330
Lets check at any point, say at x = 0, y = (10 cos t) sin
.b
All our communication essentially depend on (100t) at any point amplitude is changing sinusoidally.
transmission of signals through the waves. so this is equation of beats.
r8
75. (a) When a stone is dropped in a pond still water following (C) y 10sin (2 x 120t ) 10cos (120t 2 x)
observation/conclusion may deduced.
= superposition of two coherent waves travelling in
be
flow outward with the circle, but rather a moving ( 1 120, 2 118) equation of beats
disturbance is created. 86. (d) A (2); B (3); C (4); D (1)
87. (b) A (2); B (1); C (3); D (4)
ch
76. (b)
77. (b) Mechanical waves only transfer energy from one 88. (c) Change in apparent frequency due to relative motion
point to another. between source and listener is Doppler effect.
.te
78. (c) A steel bar possessing both bulk and shear elastic A - (3)
moduli can propagate longitudinal as well as transverse Intensity of sound varies with time in case of beats.
waves. But air can propagate only longitudinal B - (1)
w
om
106. (d) Two waves moving in uniform string with uniform
tension shall have same speed and may be moving in
96. (a) opposite directions. Hence both waves may have
t.c
N N N N velocities in opposite direction. Hence statement-1 is
Total no. of nodes = 4 false.
107. (b)
po
97. (d) Figure(a) represents a harmonic wave of frequency
108. (c) There is no material medium over a long distance
7.0 Hz, figure (b) represents a harmonic wave of
between earth and other planets. So explosions on
frequency 5.0 Hz. Therefore beat frequency
other planets are not heard on Earth.
gs
vs = 7 – 5 = 2.0 Hz.
109. (a) Two astronauts cannot talk to each other on moon
98. (a) Here, original frequency of sound, f0 = 100 Hz because moon has no atmosphere and hence there
Speed of source Vs = 19.4 cos 60° = 9.7 lo
is no medium for propagation of sound.
110. (c) Laplace assumed adiabatic process during sound
19.4
.b
propagation.
1 2 2
r8
as velocity of wave.
60° Also I1 = I2
S 112. (d) Principle of superposition can be used for vector
cy
O
19.4 cos 60° = 9.7 quantity or tensor quantity.
113. (a) In case of independent sources, the phase difference
From Doppler's formula
no
f1 = 100
V ( 9.7) 117. (c) At nodes pressure is maximum. Particles within a loop
vibrate in phase.
V 118. (b) Open pipe can produce more number of harmonics in
w
f1 = 100
9.7 comparison to close pipe.
V 1
w
v
V 119. (a) As f ; and so with increase in temperature v
2l
w
om
position of nodes (where amplitude is zero) are
3.14
= 0.57 = 1.57 – 0.57 = 1 radian given by sin kx = 0 or kx = n where n = 0, 1, 2, 3,
2 ...
124. (c) y = A sin ( t–kx) 133. (c) In a stretched string all multiples of frequencies can
t.c
Particle velocity, be obtained i.e., if fundamental frequency is n then
higher frequencies will be 2n, 3n, 4n ...
po
dy 75 cm
vp = =A cos ( t – kx)
dt
vp max = A
gs
So, the difference between any two successive
wave velocity = lo
frequencies will be 'n'
k
According to question, n = 420 – 315
.b
A = = 105 Hz
k So the lowest frequency of the string is
r8
1 2 105 Hz.
i. e., A = But k = 134. (d) In the spherical source, the amplitude A of wave is
k
be
=2 A 1
inversely proportional to the distance r i.e., A
125. (b) As density of hydrogen is less than density of air, r
Where r is distance of source from the point of
cy
= 2 f= =2 [ f= ]
A2 A2 2AA cos 120
.te
2 2 1
k= = =1 [ =2 ] = A2 A2 A2 cos120
2 2
w
Y = 1 sin (2t – x + )[ A = 1 m] = AR = A
127. (a) The pressure variations in the propagation of sound 136. (d) Load supported by sonometer wire = 4 kg
w
100
1 T
2 100 then frequency
100 2l
T 2
1 4g
2 2 416
20 2l
20
When length is doubled, i.e., l = 2l
2 100 Let new load = L
v 5m / s
20 2 As,
WAVES 245
1 Lg 1 4g v v lc 3v 2 3
141. (b) 3 4 or
2l 2l 4l c 2l0 l0 4 4v 8
142. (d) In case of closed organ pipe frequency,
1 Lg 1 4g
v
4l 2l fn = (2n + 1)
4l
L 2 2 L = 16 kg for n = 0, f0 = 100 Hz
137. (b) Fundamental frequency, n = 1, f1 = 300 Hz
n = 2, f2 = 500 Hz
v 1 T 1 T T m n = 3, f3 = 700 Hz
f v and
2 2 2 A n = 4, f4 = 900 Hz
om
n = 5, f5 = 1100 Hz
T T Y 1
Also, Y f ....(i) n = 6, f6 = 1300 Hz
A A 2 Hence possible natural oscillation whose frequencies
< 1250 Hz = 6(n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5)
t.c
= 1.5 m, = 0.01, = 7.7 × 103 kg/m3 (given)
143. (b) Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe
= 2.2 × 1011 N/m2 (given) V
po
Vc = 4l
Putting the value of , , and in eqn. (i) we get, c
Fundamental frequency of open organ pipe
gs
2 103
f V
7 3 V0 = 2l
or, f 178.2 Hz
138. (a) Total length of string = 1 + 2 + 3
lo 0
Second overtone frequency of open organ pipe
.b
(As string is divided into three segments)
3V
1 = 2l
r8
But frequency 1 T 0
f
length 2 m From question,
be
V 3V
1 1 1 1
so 4lc 2l0
n n1 n2 n3
cy
l0 = 6lc = 6 × 20 = 120 cm
139. (a) Initially for open organ pipe, fundamental frequency, 144. (a) For fundamental mode,
v
no
v0 f (given) 1 T
2l f=
But when it is half dipped in water, then it becomes 2
ch
closed organ pipe of length l . In this case, Taking logarithm on both sides, we get
2
fundamental frequency, 1 T
log f = log log
.te
v v v 2
vc f
4l 4 l 2l
2 1 1 T
= log log
w
2 2
A 1 nA 2
140. (c)
w
B 2 nB 1 1 1
or log f = log [log T log ]
2 2
w
om
508 as frequency of string increases with tension. Now for the reflected wave cliff. acts as a source
147. (b) Here, = 0.5 nm = 0.5 × 10–9 m f (v v c )
2f ......(2)
= 300 km s–1 = 300 × 103 ms–1 v
t.c
c
As, (v v c ) f v
c 2f 2v – 2 vc = v + vc or vc
po
v vc 3
9 8 1
(0.5 10 m)(3 10 ms )
7 155. (c) According to Doppler's effect
(300 103 ms 1 ) 5 10 m
Apparent frequency
gs
= 5000 × 10–10 m = 5000 Å v v0 343 10
148. (d) 2 f1 = 600 n = n 1392 .
lo v vs 343 5
f1 = 300 ... (1)
2 f2 = 608 1412 Hz
.b
f2 = 304 ...(2) 156. (c) Frequency of the echo detected by the driver of the
|f1 – f2| = 4 beats train is
r8
I m.n ( A1 A2 ) (5 4) 1 v u
f' f
v u
where A1, A2 are amplitudes of given two sound wave.
where f = original frequency of source of sound
cy
1 1 1 330 220
l1 : l2 : l3 =
: : 6 : 3: 2 f' 1000 = 5000 Hz
1 2 3 330 220
ch
change. 300 v
152. (c) Frequency is not affected by blowing of wind so
w
om
9. Quantisation of charge implies
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
(a) charge cannot be destroyed
1. Charge is the property associated with matter due to which it (b) charge exists on particles
produces and experiences (c) there is a minimum permissible charge on a particle
po
(a) electric effects only (d) charge, which is a fraction of a coulomb is not possible.
(b) magnetic effects only 10. If an object possesses an electric charge, it is said to be
gs
(c) both electric and magnetic effects electrified or ... A ... When it has no charge, it is said to
(d) None of these be ... B ... Here, A and B refer to
2. Charge is (a) charged, neutral
lo (b) neutral, charged
(a) transferable (b) associated with mass (c) discharged, charged (d) active, reactive
11.
.b
(c) conserved (d) All of these A positively charged rod is brought near an uncharged
3. A body is positively charged, it implies that conductor. If the rod is then suddenly withdrawn, the charge
r8
(a) there is only positive charge in the body. left on the conductor will be
(b) there is positive as well as negative charge in the body (a) positive (b) negative
be
but the positive charge is more than negative charge (c) zero (d) cannot say
(c) there is equal positive and negative charge in the body 12. Two spheres A and B of exactly same mass are given equal
but the positive charge lies in the outer regions positive and negative charges respectively. Their masses
cy
other negatively charged, the electrons transferred from (c) mass of A < mass of B (d) Nothing can be said
positively charged body to negatively charged body are 13. When a comb rubbed with dry hair attracts pieces of paper.
(a) valence electrons only This is because the
ch
(b) electrons of inner shells (a) comb polarizes the piece of paper
(c) both valence electrons and electrons of inner shell (b) comb induces a net dipole moment opposite to the
.te
6. If a body is negatively charged, then it has 14. When some charge is transferred to ...A... it readily gets
(a) excess of electrons (b) excess of protons distributed over the entire surface of ... A... If some charge
w
(c) deficiency of electrons (d) deficiency of neutrons is put on ... B..., it stays at the same place.
Here, A and B refer to
7. When a body is charged by induction, then the body
(a) becomes neutral (a) insulator, conductor (b) conductor, insulator
(b) does not lose any charge (c) insulator, insulator (d) conductor, conductor
(c) loses whole of the charge on it 15. Quantisation of charge was experimentally demonstrated by
(d) loses part of the charge on it (a) Einstein’s photoelectric effect
8. On charging by conduction, mass of a body may (b) Frank-Hertz experiment
(a) increase (b) decreases (c) Davisson and Germer experiment
(c) increase or decrease (d) None of these (d) Millikan’s oil drop experiment
EBD_7208
248 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
16. In annihilation process, in which an electron and a positron 27. A point charge is kept at the centre of metallic insulated
transform into two gamma rays, which property of electric spherical shell. Then
charge is displayed? (a) electric field out side the sphere is zero
(a) Additivity of charge (b) electric field inside the sphere is zero
(b) Quantisation of charge (c) net induced charge on the sphere is zero
(c) Conservation of charge (d) electric potential inside the sphere is zero
(d) Attraction and repulsion 28. If one penetrates a uniformly charged spherical cloud,
17. The law, governing the force between electric charges is electric field strength
known as (a) decreases directly as the distance from the centre
(a) Ampere's law (b) Ohm's law (b) increases directly as the distance from the centre
(c) Faraday's law (d) Coulomb's law (c) remains constant
18. The value of electric permittivity of free space is (d) None of these
om
(a) 9 × 109 NC2/m2 (b) 8.85 × 10–12Nm2/C2 sec 29. Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are
(c) 8.85 × 10 –12 C /Nm (d) 9 × 109C2/Nm2
2 2 (a) circular anticlockwise
19. Coulomb’s law is true for (b) circular clockwise
t.c
(a) atomic distances (= 10–11 m) (c) radial, inwards
(b) nuclear distances (= 10–15 m) (d) radial, outwards
po
(c) charged as well as uncharged particles 30. Electric lines of force
(d) all the distances (a) exist everywhere
20. What happens when some charge is placed on a soap (b) exist only in the immediate vicinity of electric charges
gs
bubble? (c) exist only when both positive and negative charges
(a) Its radius decreases (b) Its radius increases are near one another
(c) The bubble collapses (d) None of these lo
(d) are imaginary
21. Two point charges + Q and + q are separated by a certain 31. Positive electric flux indicates that electric lines of force are
distance. If + Q > + q then in between the charges the electric
.b
directed
field is zero at a point (a) outwards (b) inwards
(a) closer to + Q
r8
(c) V / m (d) J / Cm
(d) the charge in the vicinity of the surface must be zero
24. If an electron has an initial velocity in a direction different
34. Electric flux over a surface in an electric field may be
from that of an electric field, the path of the electron is
.te
(c) along a line of force, if it has some initial velocity in the (c) ( 1 + 2) × o (d) ( 2 – 1) × o
direction of an acute angle with the line of force 36. For distance far away from centre of dipole the change in
(d) none of the above magnitude of electric field with change in distance from the
26. If a linear isotropic dielectric is placed in an electric field of centre of dipole is
strength E, then the polarization P is (a) zero.
(b) same in equatorial plane as well as axis of dipole.
(a) independent of E
(c) more in case of equatorial plane of dipole as compared
(b) inversely proportional to E
to axis of dipole.
(c) directly proportional to E (d) more in case of axis of dipole as compared to equatorial
(d) directly proportional to E plane of dipole.
ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS 249
37. A region surrounding a stationary electric dipoles has 47. An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a sphere
(a) magnetic field only then
(b) electric field only (a) the flux of the electric field through the sphere is not
(c) both electric and magnetic fields zero.
(d) no electric and magnetic fields (b) the electric field is zero at every point of the sphere.
(c) the electric field is not zero anywhere on the sphere.
38. The electric field at a point on equatorial line of a dipole
(d) the electric field is zero on a circle on the sphere.
and direction of the dipole moment
(a) will be parallel 48. If a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric
(b) will be in opposite direction
field E , then torque acting on it is given by
(c) will be perpendicular
(d) are not related (a) p.E (b) p E
39. Debye is the unit of
om
(c) p E (d) p E
(a) electric flux (b) electric dipole moment
(c) electric potential (d) electric field intensity 49. An electric dipole has a pair of equal and opposite point
40. An electric dipole will experience a net force when it is placed charges q and –q separated by a distance 2x. The axis of
t.c
in the dipole is
(a) from positive charge to negative charge
(a) a uniform electric field
po
(b) from negative charge to positive charge
(b) a non-uniform electric field
(c) Perpendicular to the line joining the two charges
(c) both (a) and (b)
drawn at the centre and pointing upward direction
(d) None of these
gs
(d) Perpendicular to the line joining the two charges
41. An electric dipole is kept in a non-uniform electric field. It drawn at the centre and pointing downward direction
experiences 50. Gauss’s law states that
(a) a force and a torque
(b) a force but not a torque
lo
(a) the total electric flux through a closed surface is
1
.b
(c) a torque but no force 0
times the total charge placed near the closed surface.
(d) neither a force nor a torque
r8
0
(a) short distance (b) long distance times the total charge enclosed by the closed surface.
(c) above each other (d) none of these
(c) the total electric flux through an open surface is 1 times
cy
(c) p E (d) p E
the open surface.
44. If Ea be the electric field strength of a short dipole at a 51. The Gaussian surface
point on its axial line and Ee that on the equatorial line at
.te
(c) Ea = Ee (d) None of the above (d) can pass through a continuous charge distribution as
45. When an electric dipole P is placed in a uniform electric well as any system of discrete charges.
w
om
56. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface (a) Only I (b) Only II
charge density is (c) Only IV (d) Only III
(a) zero
64. Select the correct statements Coulomb's law correctly
t.c
(b) constant different from zero describes the electric force that
(c) proportional to the distance from the curve
I. binds the electrons of an atom to its nucleus
(d) None of the above
po
II. binds the protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an
57. The electric field near a conducting surface having a
atom
uniform surface charge density is given by
III. binds atoms together to form molecules
gs
(a) and is parallel to the surface (a) I and II (b) I and III
0 (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
(b)
2
0
and is parallel to the surface
lo
65. Select the correct statements from the following
I. Inside a charged or neutral conductor, electrostatic
.b
field is zero
(c) and is normal to the surface
II. The electrostatic field at the surface of the charged
r8
0
conductor must be tangential to the surface at any
2 point
(d) and is normal to the surface
be
(c) beyond 2 m (d) beyond 100 m (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
59. Charge motion within the Gaussian surface gives changing
66. In a uniform electric field E a charge +q having negligible
no
physical quantity
(a) electric field (b) electric flux mass is released at a point. Which of the following statements
(c) charge (d) gaussian surface area are correct?
ch
60. Gauss’s law is true only if force due to a charge varies as I. Velocity increases with time.
(a) r–1 (b) r–2 II. A force acts on it in the direction of electric field.
.te
(b) It is valid for conservative field obeys inverse square 67. Field due to multiple charges at a point is found by using
root law I. superposition principle.
w
69. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in a uniform (a) (A) (3), (B) (2), (C) (4), (D) (1)
(b) (A) (1), (B) (3), (C) (4), (D) (2)
electric field E. Then (c) (A) (3), (B) (4), (C) (2), (D) (1)
I. the torque on the dipole is p E. (d) (A) (1), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (4)
74. Column I Column II
II. the potential energy of the system is p E.
Charge
III. the resultant force on the dipole is zero. (A) Linear charge density (1)
Volume
Which of the above statements is/are correct
(a) I, II and III (b) I and III Charge
(c) Only I (d) I and II (B) Surface charge density (2) Length
om
70. Select the incorrect statements from the following.
I. Polar molecules have permanent electric dipole moment. Charge
II. CO2 molecule is a polar molecule. (C) Volume charge density (3)
Area
t.c
III. H2O is a non-polar molecule.
(D) Discrete charge (4) System consisting of
(a) II and III (b) I and II
distribution ultimate individual
po
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III
charges
71. Select the correct statements from the following.
(a) A (2), B (3), C (1), D (4)
gs
I. The electric field due to a charge outside the Gaussian
(b) A (1), B (3), C (1), D (4)
surface contributes zero net flux through the surface.
(c) A (3), B (1), C (2), D (4)
II. Total flux linked with a closed body, not enclosing any lo
(d) A (3), B (2), C (1), D (4)
charge will be zero.
75. Column II describe graph for charge distribution given in
.b
III. Total electric flux, if a dipole is enclosed by a surface is
column-I. Match the description.
zero.
Column I Column II
r8
1 235 144
(A) Additivity of charge (1) 0 n 92 U 56 Ba +89
36 Kr (B) Infinitely large charge (2)
conducting sheet r
+ 310 n
ch
alpha particle.
(D) Attraction and (4) q = ne
repulsion r
w
V
(c) (A) (2), (B) (1), (C) (4), (D) (3)
(D) Hollow non conducting (4)
w
om
infinite plane sheet
(a) (A) (2), (B) (3), (C) (1), (D) (4)
q
(b) (A) (3), (B) (1), (C) (2), (D) (4) (D) At a point inside a (4)
4 0 r2
(c) (A) (1), (B) (4), (C) (3), (D) (2)
t.c
uniformly charged thin
(d) (A) (1), (B) (2), (C) (3), (D) (4) spherical shell.
77. The curves in the graph show the variation of electric field E
po
with distance r for various kinds of charge distributions given (a) (A) (1), (B) (3), (C) (4), (D) (2)
in Column I. Match them with their correct curves in Column II. (b) (A) (4), (B) (3), (C) (2), (D) (1)
gs
(c) (A) (4), (B) (1), (C) (2), (D) (3)
(d) (A) (2), (B) (4), (C) (1), (D) (3)
Q lo
R DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
.b
P 79. The figure shows a charge + q at point P held in equilibrium
E S in air with the help of four + q charges situated at the vertices
r8
be
+q
cy
1 Distance r
+q +q
no
Column I Column II P
+q
(A) Electric field of a point (1) P
ch
+q
sized dipole.
(a) Gauss’s law
.te
(a) y (b) y
(c) (d)
E E
F F
Force
Force
O x O x
a 2a a 2a
Distance r Distance r
om
density. Two uncharged small metal rods A and B are placed
y
near the sheet as shown in figure. Then (c) y (d)
M
t.c
E E
A B
po
O x O x
a 2a a 2a
gs
(a) M attracts A (b) M attracts B
(c) A attracts B (d) All of the above
82. A metal sphere is being charged by induction using a
lo
84. In the figure, charge q is placed at origin O. When the charge
.b
q is displaced from its position the electric field at point P
charged rod, but the sequence of diagrams showing the
changes
process misplaced.
r8
y
be
P
cy
I. II.
Charged x
rod Ground O q
no
(b) V II III I IV 85. Figure shows some of the electric field lines corresponding
(c) V II I III IV to an electric field. The figure suggests that
w
(d) IV II III I V
83. Figure shows two charges of equal magnitude separated by
A B C
a distance 2a. As we move away from the charge situated at
x = 0 to the charge situated at x = 2a, which of the following
graphs shows the correct behaviour of electric field ?
+q +q (a) EA > EB > EC (b) EA = EB = EC
(c) EA = EC > EB (d) EA = EC < EB
x=0 x=a x = 2a
EBD_7208
254 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
86. The spatial distribution of electric field due to charges 89. Which of the following graphs correctly show the change of
(A, B) is shown in figure. Which one of the following electric flux with time t through the surface S when the
statements is correct ? charge +Q is moved away from the surface?
A B
+Q
om
87. In the figure the net electric flux through the area A is
E A S
when the system is in air. On immersing the system in water
the net electric flux through the area
t.c
(a) (b)
po
Electric flux
Electric flux
Q
gs
Time t Time t
A lo
(c) (d)
.b
(a) becomes zero (b) remains same
r8
Electric flux
Electric flux
Time t
S
90. Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation in
no
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
.te
Electric flux
Electric flux
Torque
Torque
w
w
Angle rotated ( )
(c) (d)
Electric flux
(c) (d)
Electric flux
Torque
Torque
om
96. Assertion : Coulomb force and gravitational force follow
the same inverse-square law.
Which of the following graphs correctly shows the behaviour
Reason : Both laws are same in all aspects.
of electric field intensity as we move from point O to A.
t.c
97. Assertion : The coulomb force is the dominating force in
the universe.
(a) (b) Reason : The coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational
po
Electric field
Electric field
E force.
E
98. Assertion : If there exists coulomb attraction between two
gs
bodies, both of them may not be charged.
O Distance A O Distance A Reason : In coulomb attraction two bodies are oppositely
99.
lo
charged.
Assertion : A deuteron and an -particle are placed in an
.b
(c) (d) electric field. If F1 and F2 be the forces acting on them and
Electric field
Electric field
om
Reason : Electric field at a point superimpose to give one will A and B develop when a negatively charged ebonite rod
resultant electric field. is brought near A?
107. Assertion : On bringing a positively charged rod near the (a) A will have a positive charge and B will have a negative
t.c
uncharged conductor, the conductor gets attracted towards charge
the rod. (b) A will have a negative charge and B will have a positive
Reason : The electric field lines of the charged rod are charge
po
perpendicular to the surface of conductor. (c) Both A and B will have positive charges
108. Assertion : Four point charges q1, q2, q3 and q4 are as (d) Both A and B will have negative charges
gs
shown in figure. The flux over the shown Gaussian surface 115. The force of repulsion between two electrons at a certain
depends only on charges q1 and q2. distance is F. The force between two protons separated by
the same distanceis (mp = 1836 me)
lo
q4 (a) 2 F (b) F
.b
F
q1 (c) 1836 F (d)
1836
r8
surface in air is
q3 (a) 4.5 × 10–2 N (b) 4.5 × 10–3 N
(c) 5.4 × 10 N –2 (d) 5.4 × 10–3 N
cy
Reason : Electric field at all points on Gaussian surface 117. Two charge q and –3q are placed fixed on x–axis separated
depends only on charges q1 and q2. by distance d. Where should a third charge 2q be placed
109. Assertion : On disturbing an electric dipole in stable
no
2 2
electric dipole, electric field decreases at the same rate in
both the cases. d 3d d 3d
(c) (d)
w
111. Assertion : The electric flux of the electric field E dA is centres separated by a distance of 60 cm. The radii of P
w
om
1 E = Ar, the charge contained in a sphere of radius r centred at
length l at points distant 0, and l respectively from one
2 the origin is
end. In order to make the net froce on q zero, the charge Q
1
t.c
must be equal to (a) A r3 (b) 4 3
oAr
(a) –q (b) – 2q 4 o
q
po
(c) (d) q 4
2 1 A oA
(c) (d)
122. Force between two identical charges placed at a distance of 4 o r 3
r3
gs
r in vacuum is F. Now a slab of dielectric of dielectric contrant 128. The electric field intensity just sufficient to balance the earth’s
4 is inserted between these two charges. If the thickness of gravitational attraction on an electron will be: (given mass
the slab is r/2, then the force between the charges will
become
3
lo
and charge of an electron respectively are 9.1 10 31
kg and
1.6 10 19 C .)
.b
(a) F (b) F
5 (a) –5.6 × 10–11 N/C (b) –4.8 × 10–15 N / C
r8
distance of 16 cm. They do not experience any force. The to a sphere of diameter 5 m is approximately
q (a) 2 × 10–2 C (b) 2 × 10–3 C
cy
value of is –4
m (c) 2 × 10 C (d) 2 × 10–5 C
130. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are placed at
no
(c) 4 (d) 4 0G
0
124. A metallic spherical shell has an inner radius R1 and outer
.te
r
radius R2. A charge is placed at the centre of the shperical
cavity. The surface charge density on the inner surface is O
r r
w
+q +q
R2
w
B C
R1
+q
w
1 q 1 q
(a) (b)
4 o r 4 o r2
1 3q
(c) (d) zero
q q 4 r2o
(a) (b)
4 R12 4 R12 131. A hollow insulated conduction sphere is given a positive
charge of 10 C. What will be the electric field at the centre
q2 q of the sphere if its radius is 2 m?
(c) (d) (b) 5 Cm–2
4 R22 4 R22 (a) Zero
(c) 20 Cm –2 (d) 8 Cm–2
EBD_7208
258 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
132. The number of electric lines of force that radiate outwards 140. Intensity of an electric field (E) depends on distance r, due to
from one coulomb of charge in vacuum is a dipole, is related as
(a) 1.13 × 1011 (b) 1.13 × 1010 1 1
(c) 0.61 × 10 11 (d) 0.61 × 109 (a) E (b) E
r r2
133. A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is
placed in a uniform electric field E (volt/m) acting along the 1 1
(c) E (d) E
same plane at an angle with the horizontal side of the r3 r4
square as shown in Figure. The electric flux linked to the 141. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and
surface is its dipole moment is p. It is placed in uniform electric field E.
If its dipole moment is along the direction of the field, the
E force on it and its potential energy are respectively.
(a) q.E and max. (b) 2 q.E and min.
om
(c) q.E and min (d) zero and min.
142. An electric dipole of moment ´p´ is placed in an electric field
of intensity ´E´. The dipole acquires a position such that
the axis of the dipole makes an angle with the direction of
t.c
the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole to
be zero when = 90°, the torque and the potential energy of
(a) EL2 (b) EL2 cos
po
the dipole will respectively be
(c) EL2 sin (d) zero (a) p E sin , – p E cos (b) p E sin , –2 p E cos
134. A charged particle q is placed at the centre O of cube of (c) p E sin , 2 p E cos (d) p E cos , – p E cos
gs
length L (A B C D E F G H). Another same charge q is placed 143. If the dipole of moment 2.57 × 10–17 cm is placed into an
at a distance L from O. Then the electric flux through ABCD electric field of magnitude 3.0 × 104 N/C such that the fields
is lo
lines are aligned at 30° with the line joining P to the dipole,
E F what torque acts on the dipole?
.b
D
C (a) 7.7 × 10–13 Nm (b) 3.855 × 10–13 Nm
O (c) 3.855 × 10 Nm –15 (d) 7.7 × 10–15 Nm
q q
r8
135. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface (c) 8 C (d) 2 mC
respectively is 1 and 2, the electric charge inside the surface 145. On decreasing the distance between the two charges of a
dipole which is perpendicular to electric field and decreasing
no
will be
(a) ( 2 + 2) × o (b) ( 2 – 2) × o the angle between the dipole and electric field, the torque on
(c) ( 1 + 2) × o (d) ( 2 – 1) × o the dipole
ch
136. In a region of space having a uniform electric field E, a (a) increases (b) decreases
hemispherical bowl of radius r is placed. The electric flux (c) remains same (d) cannot be predicted.
through the bowl is 146. An electric dipole is put in north-south direction in a
.te
(a) 2 RE (b) 4 R2E sphere filled with water. Which statement is correct?
(c) 2 R E 2 (d) R2E (a) Electric flux is coming towards sphere
w
137. A cylinder of radius R and length is placed in a uniform (b) Electric flux is coming out of sphere
electric field E parallel to the axis of the cylinder. The total (c) Electric flux entering into sphere and leaving the
w
flux over the curved surface of the cylinder is sphere are same
(a) zero (b) R2E (d) Water does not permit electric flux to enter into
w
om
4. (a) Valence electrons are outermost electrons these can 4 0 r3
get transferred on rubbing.
5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) d 1 d 3
Ea 2p r
t.c
10. (a) A body with charge is called charged body. A body dr 4 0 dr
without charge is called neutral body.When we say
that a body is charged, either it has excess electrons 1 p
po
6 ... (i)
or it has lesser elctrons as compared to number of 4 0 r4
protons inside body.
11. (c) 12. (c) d 1 d
gs
3
Ee p r
13. (a) Comb induces charge on paper due to which paper is dr 4 0 dr
attracted towards the comb.
14. (b) When some charge is given to conductor it spreads
on its surface. When some charge is given to
lo 3
4
1
0
p
r4
... (ii)
.b
insulator, it remains there, it do not spread, Free From equation (i) and (ii) the magnitude of change in
charges in conductor interact with added charge, so electric field w.r.t. distance is more in case of axis of
r8
16. (c) Electron having a charge of –1.6 × 10–19C undergoes 38. (b) The direction of electric field at equatorial point A or
annihilation with it’s antiparticle positron having a B will be in opposite direction, as that of direction of
charge of +1.6 × 10–19C as dipole moment.
cy
e e
Net charge before annihilation A
no
19 19
= 1.6 10 C 1.6 10 C 0
Net charge after annihilation = 0 + 0 = 0
i.e., net charge remains same.
ch
which get at cancelled with each other at a point closer 42. (a) Dipole is formed when two equal and unlike charges
to +q. are placed at a short distance.
w
will move along line of force. electric field = E . We know that dipole moment (p) = q.a
26. (d) For linear isotropic dielectric, (where q is the charge and a is dipole length). And when
polarization P = eE,
a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in uniform electric
P E,
27. (c) By Gauss Law field E , then Torque ( ) = Either force × perpendicular
28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (a) distance between the two forces = qaEsin or
N m2 J m pE sin or p E (vector form)
32. (c) S.I. unit of electric flux is =
C C
2kp kp
= Volt × m. 44. (b) We have Ea = and Ee = 3 ; Ea = 2Ee
3 r
r
EBD_7208
260 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
45. (a) 57. (c) Electric field near the conductor surface is given by
46. (c) +q and it is perpendicular to surface.
F1 0
58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b) 61. (d)
E1
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
F2
E2 62. (c) Like charges repel
–q
The electric field will be different at the location of force Unlike charges attract
on the two charges. Therefore the two charges will be To specify particular charge on body, term used is
unequal. This will result in a force as well as torque. polarity.
47. (c) On rubbing, plastic rod acquires negative charge,
om
cat’s fur acquires positive charge. There are only two
48. (b) Given : Dipole moment of the dipole = p and uniform kinds of charges: +, –.
electric field = E . We know that dipole moment (p) = q.a 63. (c) Milikan demonstrated the quantisation of charge
experimentally. Charge on electron = – e = –1.6 × 100–
(where q is the charge and a is dipole length). And when
t.c
19C. Addition of charge can occur in integral
a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in uniform electric multiples of e.
64. (b) Nuclear force binds the protons and neutrons in the
po
field E , then Torque ( ) = Either force × perpendicular nucleus of an atom.
distance between the two forces = qaEsin or 65. (b) (i) Electrostatic field is zero inside a charged
pE sin or p E (vector form) conductor or neutral conductor.
gs
49. (b) (ii) Electrostatic field at the surface of a charged
50. (b) Gauss’s law is applicable only for closed surface and conductor must be normal to the surface at every
for the charge placed inside it not near it. lo point.
1 (iii) There is no net charge at any point inside the
Total electric flux, Q conductor and any excess charge must reside at
.b
0
the surface.
51. (a) Gaussian surface cannot pass through any discrete 66. (d)
r8
charge because electric field due to a system of discrete 67. (a) Consider a system of charges q1,q2, ..., qn with
charges is not well defined at the location of the charges. position vectors r1,r2 ...,rn relative to some origin O.
be
But the Gaussian surface can pass through a Like the field due to a single charage, electric field at
continuous charge distribution. a point in space due to the system of charges is
52. (a) Gauss's law is valid for any closed surface, no matter defined to be the force experienced by a unit test
cy
what its shape or size. charge placed at that point,, without disturbing the
53. (a) According to Gauss’s law total electric flux through a original position of charges q1, q2, ..., qn. We can use
1 Coulomb’s law and the superposition principale to
no
closed surface is times the total charge inside that determine this field.
surface.
0
68. (a) Electric field lines start from positive charge and end at
q negative charge so they do not form closed loops.
ch
Electric flux, E= 69. (b) In a uniform electric field E, dipole experiences a torque
0
Charge on -particle = 2e given by
.te
2e p E
E= And potential energy of the dipole is
0
U – p.E
w
E 1
E MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
w
2 0r r
55. (c) E .dA 0, represents charge inside close surface is 72. (c) (A) (2); (B) (1) because total charge on L.H.S. is
zero. Electric field as any point on the surface may be equal to total charge on R.H.S. (C) (4) charge q is
zero. integer times the charge on an electron (D) (3) because
56. (a) Electric charge resides only on the surface of a both are positively charged.
spherical shell. According to Gauss's theorem the 73. (a) Electric dipole moment points from negative charge to
total electric flux over a closed surface is equal to the positive charge. Electric field points away from positive
1 charge. Electric flux is the scalar product of electric
times the total charge enclosed by the closed field and area vector and torque is vector product of
0 electric dipole moment and electric field.
surface.
ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS 261
charge 88. (a) The flux through the surface S is given by = ES cos .
74. (a) Linear charge density, = When surface is rotated takes values 45° 0° – 45°
Length
cos has maximum value at 0° therefore. The flux first
charge
Surface charge density, = increases, attain a maximum value and then decreases.
Area
89. (c) Since electric field due to a point charge is inversely
charge proportional to the square of distance therefore the
Volume charge density, =
volume field decreases at the place of surface S as the charge
75. (a) 76. (b)
+ Q moves away. Therefore the flux given by E S
1
77. (d) For a point sized dipole E , for an infinitely long also decreases.
r3 90. (a) Torque is given by t = pE sin q. When the dipole is
straight uniformly charged wire E 1 and for a point rotated from stable equillibrium to unstable equillibrium,
r takes values as 0° 90° 180° and sin takes
om
1 corresponding values as 0 1 0. Therefore torque
charge E .
r2 increases from 0, attains maximum value and then again
Therefore as distance decreases the increase in electric decreases to zero.
field is maximum for dipole [curve(c)], then for point
t.c
91. (c) The electric field due to a uniformly charged infinite
charge [curve (b)] and then for charged wire (curve
(a)). The electric field is constant for a uniformly charged plane sheet is given by E nˆ which is
2 0
po
plane sheet.
78. (c) independent of distance from the sheet. Therefore field
remains constant.
gs
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 92. (a) The flux is zero according to Gauss’ Law because it is a
open surface which enclosed a charge q.
79. (c) The weight mg of the charge hold in air is in equillibrium
with net electrostatic force exerted by the four charges
situated at the corners. The net electrostatic force is
lo
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
.b
given by the vector sum of the individual forces exerted 93. (a) Conservation of electric charge states that the total
by the charges at the corners. This is principle of charge of an isolated system remains unchanged with
r8
superposition. time
Kq1q 2 94. (b) Both the statements are independently correct.
80. (d) From Coulomb’s law F = i.e., F 1 which is 95. (a) Because of repulsion, the free electrons will mole to the
be
r2 r2
correctly shown by graph (d). outer surface.
81. (d) 96. (c) Coulomb force and gravitational force follow the
cy
82. (c) When charged rod is brought near uncharged same inverse-square law. But gravitational force has
conductor near end of conductor has opposite only one sign which is always attractive, while
charge.When for end of this conductor is connected coulomb force can be of both signs which are
no
is ground (i.e., earthed), charge of far end flows down attractive and repulasive.
to ground when for end connection and rod are 97. (d) Gravitational force is the dominating force in nature
ch
removed charge on conductor spreads uniformly on and not coulomb's force. Gravitational force is the
surface. weakest force. Also, Coulomb's force > > gravitational
83. (a) For the distances close to the charge at x = 0 the field is force.
.te
very high and is in positive direction of x-axis. As we 98. (b) Coulomb attraction exists even when one body is
move towards the other charge the net electric field charged, and the other is uncharged.
becomes zero at x = a thereafter the influence of charge 99. (c) qd = e, md = 2mp = 2m
w
F1 = F = eE, F2 = F = 2eE F1
closer and closer to the charge at x = 2a.
84. (b) The electric field around a charge propagates with the F1 eE
w
Further, a1
speed of light away from the charge. Therefore the 2m 2m
distance OP F2 2eE eE
required time = .
speed c and a 2 a1 s
2m 4m 2m
85. (c)
86. (a) Since lines of force starts from A and ends at B, so A is 100. (b) Force on any charge due to a number of other
+ve and B is –ve. Lines of forces are more crowded charges is the vector sum of all the forces on that
near A, so A > B. charge due to the other charges, taken one at a time.
The individual force are unaffected due to the
87. (d) Since electric field E decreases inside water, therefore presence of other charges. This is the principle of
flux .A also decreases. superposition of charges.
EBD_7208
262 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
101. (a) The electrostatic shielding is possible by metallic 116. (b) Here, q1 = 1 × 10–7C,
q2 and 2 × 10–7 C,
conductor. –2
r = 20 cm = 20 × 10 m
102. (c) The electric field will increase if positive charge is
brought in an electric field.
q1 q2
As F = 2
103. (b) If +ve charge is displaced along x-axis, then net force 4 0r
will always act in a direction opposite to that of
displacement and the test charge will always come back 9 109 1 10 7
2 10 7
om
105. (a) The electric field due to disc is superposition of electric d
field due to its constituent ring as given in Reason. Let a charge 2q be placed at P, at a distance I from
106. (d) Two field lines never intersect. A where charge q is placed, as shown in figure.
107. (b) Though the net charge on the conductor is still zero The charge 2q will not experience any force, when
t.c
but due to induction negatively charged region is nearer force, when force of repulsion on it due to q is
to the rod as compared to the positively charged region. balanced by force of attraction on it due to –3q at B
po
That is why the conductor gets attracted towards the where AB = d
rod.
108. (d) Electric field at any point depends on presence of all (2q)(q ) (2q )( 3q)
or
gs
2
charges. 4 0 4 0( d )2
109. (a) The restoring torque brings it back to its stable ( + d)2 = 3 2
equillibrium. lo
or 2 2 – 2 d – d2 = 0
110. (d) The rate of decrease of electric field is different in the
two cases. In case of a point charge, it decreases as
.b
2d 4d 2 2d 2 d 3d
1/r2 but in the case of electric dipole it decreases =
more rapidly, as E 1/r3. 4 2 2
r8
1 q1q2
Electrostatic force, F =
wire, E on moving a distance two times the 4 0 r2
2 0r
no
initial distance away from wire, the distance from wire 9 109 (3.2 10 7 ) 2
= = 2.56 × 10–3 N
becomes 3r. Therefore final value of electric field (0.6) 2
ch
E 119. (d) Let q charge is situated at the mid position of the line
E . AB. The distance between AB is x. A and B be the
2 0 3r 3
.te
x q x
113. (b) On touching the metal knob with a positively charged
2 2
rod some electrons from the gold leaves get transferred x
w
Q
q
4
Charge induced on the inner surface of shell
120. (c) Let n be the number of electrons missing.
om
=–q ... (i)
1 q2 Charge induced on the outer surface of shell
F q 4 2
4 d2 0d F ne =+q ... (ii)
0
t.c
q
2 Surface charge density on the inner surface = 4 R 2
4 0 Fd
n 1
e2
po
125. (d) Here, D = 2r = 4.4 m, or = r = 2.2 m
121. (a) (Fnet )q 0 = 60 C m–2
Charge on the sphere, q = × 4 r2
gs
Qq 4q 2 22
k k 0
2 2 = 60 × 10–6 × 4 × × (2.2)2 = 3.7 × 10–3 C
lo 7
2 126. (c) Here, = 2.4 m, r = 4.6 mm = 4.6 × 10–3 m
.b
q = – 4.2 × 10–7 C
/2 /2
q
q Q 4q Linear charge density,
r8
1 7
where k 4.2 10
= –1.75 ×10–7 C m–1
be
4 =
0 2.4
4Qq + 4q2 = 0
Electric field, E = 2
cy
Q=–q 0r
7
1 q2 1.75 10
122. (c) In vacuum, F …(i) =
no
12 3
r2 4 0 2 3.14 8.854 10 4.6 10
Suppose, force between the chrages is same when = –6.7 × 105 N C–1
ch
be
kQ E r2 3 106 (2.5)2
129. (b) E Q
w
1 q2 4 q2 4F r2 k 9 109
F'
4 2 9 4 0r2 9
0 r r 3
4 2 10 C
2 2
130. (d) Unit positive charge at O will be repelled equally by
123. (d) They will not experience any force if | FG | | Fe | three charges at the three corners of triangle. By
symmetry, resultant E at O would be zero.
m2 1 q2 q 131. (a) Charge resides on the outer surface of a conducting
G . 4 0G
(16 10 2 )2 4 0 (16 10 2 ) 2 m hollow sphere of radius R. We consider a spherical
surface of radius r < R.
EBD_7208
264 ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
By Gauss theorem
140. (c) Intensity of electric field due to a Dipole
++ +++
++ +
+ +
+ + p 1
+
+ R + E
+ +
E=
4 0r
3 3cos 2 1 r3
O
+ S +
+ r + 141. (d) When the dipole is in the direction of field then net
+ E +
+ + force is qE + (–qE) = 0
+ +
++
+ + ++ E
–q a q
1 1
E.ds charge enclosed or E 4 r 2 0
s 0 0 and its potential energy is minimum = – p.E.
om
E 0 = – qaE
i.e electric field inside a hollow sphere is zero. 142. (a) The torque on the dipole is given as
132. (a) Here, q = 1 C, 8.85 × 10–12 C2N–1m–2 = PE sin
t.c
Number of lines of force = Electric force The potential energy of the dipole in the electric field is
given as
q 1 U = – PE cos
= = 1.13 × 1011
po
12
0 8.85 10
17 N 1
143. (b) 2.57 10 Cm 3.0 104
133. (d) Electric flux, = EA cos , where C 2
gs
= angle between E and normal to the surface.
13
3.855 10 Nm.
Here
2
lo
144. (d) Torque, p E
4 = p × 2 × 105 × sin 30°
pE sin
.b
0
134. (b) The flux for both the charges exactly cancels the effect 4
or, p = 4 10 5 Cm
r8
Q enclosed by closed surface the dipole and electric field, sin decreases therefore
E.ds flux torque decreases.
o 146. (c) If electric dipole, the flux coming out from positive
ch
wall or one face is Q/6 o. law, total flux passing through the sphere = 0.
139. (a) Given : Length of the dipole (2l) = 10cm = 0.1m or l = 147. (d) According to Gauss's theorem,
0.05 m
q
w
E ]
on the given point (E) 0
1 2(q.2l )r or E / o
= 2 2 2
4 0 (r l ) Q in
148. (c) By Gauss’s theorem, =
6 0
2(500 10 0.1) 0.25
9 109 Thus, the net flux depends only on the charge enclosed
[(0.25) 2 (0.05) 2 ]2 by the surface. Hence, there will be no effect on the net
flux if the radius of the surface is doubled.
225 10 3
= 6.25 10 7 N / C (k = 1 for air)
3
3.6 10
17
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL
AND CAPACITANCE
om
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 7. A unit charge moves on an equipotential surface from a
t.c
point A to point B, then
1. In a region of constant potential (a) VA – VB = + ve (b) VA – VB = 0
(a) the electric field is uniform (c) VA – VB = – ve (d) it is stationary
po
(b) the electric field is zero 8. An equipotential surface is that surface
(c) the electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is (a) on which each and every point has the same potential
gs
placed outside the region (b) which has negative potential
(d) None of these (c) which has positive potential
2. The electric potential inside a conducting sphere (d) which has zero potential
lo
(a) increases from centre to surface 9. To obtain 3 F capacity from three capacitors of 2 F each,
(b) decreases from centre to surface they will be arranged.
.b
(c) remains constant from centre to surface (a) all the three in series
(d) is zero at every point inside (b) all the three in parallel
r8
3. It becomes possible to define potential at a point in an electric (c) two capacitors in series and the third in parallel with
field because electric field the combinatioin of first two
be
(a) is a conservative field (d) two capacitors in parallel and the third in series with
(b) is a non-conservative field the combinatioin of first two
cy
(c) is a vector field 10. There are two metallic spheres of same radii but one is
(d) obeys principle of superposition solid and the other is hollow, then
4. Which of the following about potential at a point due to a (a) solid sphere can be given more charge
no
given point charge is true ? (b) hollow sphere can be given more charge
The potential at a point P due to a given point charge (c) they can be charged equally (maximum)
ch
(a) is a function of distance from the point charge. (d) None of the above
(b) varies inversely as the square of distance from the point 11. If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to another
charge. over an equipotential surface, then
.te
of zero potential or zero potential energy? 12. On moving a charge of Q coulomb by X cm, W J of work is
(a) Potential at a point done, then the potential difference between the points is
w
om
17. An electric dipole is kept in non-uniform elecric field. it 27. In a charged capacitor, the energy is stored in
experiences (a) the negative charges
(a) a force and a torque (b) the positive charges
t.c
(b) a force but not a torque (c) the field between the plates
(c) a torque but not a force (d) both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither a force nor a torque 28. A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is introduced
po
18. The value of electric potential at any point due to any electric between the plates of a capacitor. The capacitance of the
dipole is capacitor
gs
p r p r (a) decreases (b) remains unchanged
(a) k. (b) k.
r 2
r3 (c) becomes infinite (d) increases
p.r
29. The potential gradient at which the dielectric of a
lo
p.r
(c) k. (d) k. condenser just gets punctured is called
r2 r3
(a) dielectric constant (b) dielectric strength
.b
19. An electric dipole of moment p is placed normal to the lines (c) dielectric resistance (d) dielectric number
of force of electric intensity E , then the work done in 30. When air in a capacitor is replaced by a medium of
r8
(c) – 2pE (d) zero (c) increases K2 times (d) remains constant
20. The energy required to charge a parallel plate condenser 31. A parallel plate condenser is immersed in an oil of dielectric
cy
of plate separation d and plate area of cross-section A constant 2. The field between the plates is
such that the uniform electric field between the plates is
(a) increased, proportional to 2
E, is
no
1 1
(a) E2Ad (b) 2 (b) decreased, proportional to
0 E Ad 2
2
ch
(a) zero (b) 10 V (c) 4 V (d) 10/3 V to another uncharged conductor of finite capacity, then the
22. A charge is brought from a point on the equatorial plane of a energy of the combined system is
w
dipole to its mid-point. Which of the following quantities (a) more than that of the first conductor
remains constant ? (b) less than that of the first conductor
w
om
I. It depends only on the initial and final position.
37. Capacity of a parallel plate condenser can be increased by
II. It is the work done per unit positive charge in moving
(a) increasing the distance between the plates
(b) increasing the thickness of the plates from one point to other.
t.c
(c) decreasing the thickness of the plates III. It is more for a positive charge of two units as compared
(d) decreasing the distance between the plates to a positive charge of one unit.
38. In a charged capacitor, the energy resides
po
(a) I only (b) II only
(a) in the positive charges. (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
(b) in both the positive and negative charges.
gs
(c) in the field between the plates. 46. An electric dipole of moment P is placed in a uniform
(d) around the edges of the capacitor plates.
electric field E . Then which of the following is/are
39. The resultant capacitance of n condenser of capacitances lo
C1, C2 .... Cn connected in series is given by correct?
.b
1 1 1 I. The torque on the dipole is p E .
(a) Cs ........
C1 C2 Cn
r8
Cs C1 Cn
(a) I, II and II (b) I and III
(c) Cs = C1 + C2 + ..... + Cn
(c) II and III (d) I, II and III
(d) Cs = C1 – C2 + ..... – Cn
cy
40. The resultant capacity of n condensers of capacitances C 1, 47. Consider the following statements and select the correct
C2 .... Cn connected in parallel is option
no
1 1 1 1 opposite directions.
(c) ......
Cp C1 C2 Cn II. In non –polar molecules displacement stops when
the external force on the constituent charges of the
.te
1 1 1
(d) Cp ...... molecule is balanced by the restoring force.
C1 C2 Cn
III. The non–polar molecule develops an induced dipole
w
41. ...X... is a machine that can build up high voltages of the moment.
order of a few million volts. Here, A refers to
(a) I and II (b) II and III
w
42. In case of a Van de Graaff generator, the breakdown field 48. Consider the following statements and select the correct
of air is statement(s).
(a) 2 × 108 V m–1 (b) 3 × 106 V m–1 I. Electric field lines are always perpendicular to
(c) 2 × 10 V m8 –1 (d) 3 × 104 V m–1 equipotential surface.
43. Van de Graaff generator is used to II. No two equipotential surfaces can intersect each other.
(a) store electrical energy III. Electric field lines are in the direction of tangent to an
(b) build up high voltage of few million volts
equipotential surface.
(c) decelerate charged particle like electrons
(a) I only (b) II only
(d) both (a) and (b)
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III
EBD_7208
268 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
49. The energy stored in a parallel plate capacitor is given by (C) Electric potential due (3) Varies inversly
2 to a charge at its own of radius
Q location is not defined
VE . Now which of the following statements is not
2C (D) Electric potential due (4) Infinite
true ? to uniformly charged
solid non-conducting
I. The work done in charging a capacitor is stored in the sphere
form of electrostatic potential energy given by (a) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
(b) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (2)
Q2
expression VE = (c) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (3); (D) (4)
2C (d) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (4)
II. The net charge on the capacitor is Q. 54. When a dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of one
om
III. The magnitude of the net charge on one plate of a of the two identical capacitors shown in the figure then match
capacitor is Q. the following:
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III
t.c
A
50. Which of the following statements is/are correct for V
equipotential surface ?
B
po
I. The potential at all the points on an equipotential
surface is same.
II. Equipotential surfaces never intersect each other. Column-I Column -II
gs
III. Work done in moving a charge from one point to other (A) Charge on A (1) Increases
on an equipotential surface is zero. (B) Potential difference (2) Decreases
(a) I only (b) II only across A
lo
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (C) Potential difference (3) Remains constant
51. When a metal plate is introduced between the two plates of a
.b
across B
charged capacitor and insulated from them, then which (D) Charge on B (4) Cannot say
of following statement(s) is/are correct ?
r8
II. Potential difference and energy distributes in the (D) Electric dipole (4) Torque = 0
reverse ratio of capacitance.
perpendicular to
III. Effective capacitance is even les than the least of teh
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(c) II and III (d) I, II and III (b) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (1)
(c) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (4)
w
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS (d) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (2)
56. Match the types of capacitors in Column I and expressions
53. Match the Column I and Column II. of capacitances in Column II.
Column-I Column -II Column I Column II
(A) Electric potential near (1) Negative
an isolated positive 0 KA
(A) Spherical capacitor (1)
charge d
(B) Electric potential near (2) Positive
A
an isolated negative (B) Cylindrical capacitor (2)
0
charge d
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE 269
2 0
(C) Parallel plate capacitor (3)
r (a) (b)
air filled ln 2
r1 V V
4 0 r1 r2
(D) Parallel plate capacitor (4)
r1 r2
with dielectric slab
P A O B Q P A O B Q
between the plates.
(a) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (1)
(b) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (2)
(c) (d)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
V V
(d) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
57. In the given circuit diagram, both capacitors are initially
om
uncharged. The capacitance C1 = 2F and C2 = 4F emf of
battery A and B are 2V and 4V respectively. P A O B Q P A O B Q
C2 59. In which of the following cases is the electric field zero but
t.c
C1
potential is not zero at a point on x-axis ?
S1
po
y y
(a) (b)
A
S2
gs
+q –q –q +q
B x x
(– a, 0)
lo (a, 0) (– a, 0) (a, 0)
Column - I Column - II
(Magnitude only)
.b
64
(A) On closing switch S1 (1)
r8
3
with S2 open work done
y y
by battery A is
be
by battery B is
x x
(C) Charge on capacitor (3) 8
C2 is (after S1 open
no
3
60. Figure below shows a hollow conducting body placed in an
both are closed
electric field. Which of the quantities are zero inside the body?
(5) zero
.te
om
62. A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The 67. Two charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart, as shown in
electric potential is the figure. A third charge q3 is moved along the arc of a
circle of radius 40 cm from C to D. The change in the
t.c
A
B ® potential energy of the system is
q3
k , , where k is
E 4 0
po
C q3
C
(a) maximum at B
gs
(b) maximum at C
(c) same at all the three points A, B and C 40 cm
(d) maximum at A lo
63. The figure shows the electric dipole placed along x-axis. As q2
q1
we move from point A to point B potential changes from
.b
B +q –q A A 30 cm B D
x
r8
(a) positive to negative (b) negative to positive (a) 8q1 (b) 6q1 (c) 8q2 (d) 6q2
(c) positive to zero (d) does not change 68. In a hollow spherical shell, potential (V) changes with respect
be
64. Charges are placed on the vertices of a square as shown. Let to distance (s) from centre as
E be the electric field and V the potential at the centre. If the (a) (b)
cy
q q
A B S S
ch
(c) (d)
V V
.te
D C
q q
S S
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(a) E changes, V remains unchanged 69. In the electric field of a point charge q, a certain charge
is carried from point A to B, C, D and E. Then the work
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om
–PE
–PE
+q
t.c
(c) PE (d) PE
po
U( ) U( )
+q +q
gs
O O
/2 /2
(a) a positive charge should be placed at centroid
–PE –PE
(b)
lo
a negative charge should be placed at centroid.
(c) distance between the charges should be decreased.
.b
71. Figure shows two hollow charged conductors A and B having
r8
same positive surface charge densities. B is placed inside A (d) it should be rotated by an angle of radian.
2
and does not touches it. On connecting them with a conductor
74. Which of the following figure shows the correct equipotential
be
(a) (b)
+ + + +
no
ch
om
(d) may rise or fall depending on the of charge amount
= 1.0006). For time 0 to t1 only air is in between the plates of
capacitor. For time t1 to t2 only water (dielectric constant = 80. What is the effective capacitance between points X and Y?
81) and for time t2 to t3 only glycerine (dielectric constant = (a) 24 F
t.c
C1 = 6 F
56) is there in between the plates of capacitor. Which of the (b) 18 F
following graphs shows the correct variation of capacitance C3 = 6 F C5 = 20 F C2 = 6 F
(c) 12 F
po
X Y
C with time t qualitatively? A C B D
(d) 6 F C4 = 6 F
gs
C is 6, 6 and 3 F respectively are
C 6 F 6 F 3 F
connected in series with 20 volt
(a) (b)
lo
line. Find the charge on 3 F.
.b
(a) 30 c
O t1 t2 t3 O t1 t2 t3 (b) 60 F
r8
t t (c) 15 F
20 F
(d) 90 F
be
C C
(c) (d)
no
C C C
O O
t1 t2 t3 t1 t2 t3
C C
ch
t t A B
2
A2
– –
83. In the circuit given below, the charge in C, on the capacitor
w
+ +
A1 r1 having capacitance 5 F is
+ + 3 F 2 F
– r2 – d
e
f 5 F
c
4 0 r1r2
4 F
a + b
(a) (b) 4 0 (r1 r2 )
r2 r1 6V
(c) 4 0 r2 (d) 4 0 r1 (a) 4.5 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 15
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE 273
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS 93. Assertion : Dielectric polarisation means formation of
positive and negative charges inside the dielectric.
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, Reason: Free electrons are formed in this process.
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four 94. Assertion : In the absence of an external electric field, the
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You dipole moment per unit volume of a polar dielectric is zero.
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. Reason : The dipoles of a polar dielectric are randomly
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct oriented.
explanation for assertion. 95. Assertion : For a point charge, concentric spheres centered
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a at a location of the charge are equipotential surfaces.
correct explanation for assertion Reason : An equipotential surface is a surface over which
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect potential has zero value.
96. Assertion : Electric energy resides out of the spherical
om
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
isolated conductor.
84. Assertion: The potential difference between any two points
Reason : The electric field at any point inside the conductor
in an electric field depends only on initial and final position.
is zero.
t.c
Reason: Electric field is a conservative field so the work done
97. Assertion : Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each
per unit positive charge does not depend on path followed.
other.
85. Assertion : Electric field inside a conductor is zero.
po
Reason : Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each
Reason: The potential at all the points inside a conductor is
same. other.
98. Assertion. Two equipotential surfaces can be orthogonal.
gs
86. Assertion : Electric field is discontinuous across the surface
of a spherical charged shell. Reason: Electric field lines are normal to the equipotential
Reason : Electric potential is continuous across the surface surface.
of a spherical charged shell.
lo
99. Assertion. The equatorial plane of a dipole is an equipotential
surface.
87. Assertion : Work done in moving a charge between any two
.b
points in an electric field is independent of the path followed Reason: The electric potential at any point on equatorial
plane is zero.
r8
dimensions, carrying the same positive charge have a Reason: The work done in bringing a unit positive charge
potential difference between them. from infinity to a point in equatorial plane is equal for the two
cy
Reason : The potential of a conductor depends upon the charges of the dipole.
charge given to it. 101. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected across
battery through a key. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant
no
charge electric potential energy = electric potential. Reason : The surface density of charge on the plate remains
90. Assertion : For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring constant.
102. Assertion : Two metal plates having charges Q, –Q face
.te
with net charge is zero, the electric field at any point on axis
of the ring is zero. each other at some separation and are dipped into an oil
tank. If the oil is pumped out, the electric field between the
Reason : For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring with
w
plates increases.
net charge zero, the electric potential at each point on axis of
Eair
w
the ring is zero. Reason : Electric field between the plates, Emed .
91. Assertion : For a charged particle moving from point P to
w
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 112. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at
each corner of the square. The relation between Q and q for
105. A long, hollow conducting cylinder is kept coaxially inside which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is
another long, hollow conducting cylinder of larger radius.
1
Both the cylinders are initially electrically neutral. Then (a) Q = – q (b) Q = –
(a) a potential difference appears between the two cylinders q
when a charge density is given to the inner cylinder.
1
(b) a potential difference appears between the two cylinders (c) Q = q (d) Q =
when a charge density is given to the outer cylinder. q
(c) no potential difference appears between the two 113. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The
cylinders when a uniform line charge is kept along the electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the
axis of the cylinders sphere respectively are:
om
(d) no potential difference appears between the two Q
(a) Zero and
cylinders when same charge density is given to both 4 0R 2
the cylinders. Q
106. Two equally charged spheres of radii a and b are connected (b) and Zero
t.c
4 0R
together. What will be the ratio of electric field intensity on
their surfaces? Q Q
po
(c) and 2
a a 2
b b 2 4 0R 4 0R
(a) (b) (c ) (d)
b b2 a a2 (d) Both are zero
gs
107. A given charge is situated at a certain distance from an 114. In a region, the potential is represented by
electric dipole in the end-on position experiences a force V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and x, y, z
F. If the distance of the charge is doubled, the force acting are in metres. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2
lo
on the change will be coulomb situated at point (1, 1, 1) is
.b
(a) 2F (b) F / 2 (a) 6 5 N (b) 30 N
(c) F / 4 (d) F / 8
108. An electric charge 10–3 m C is placed at the origin (0, 0) of (c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N
r8
X – Y co-ordinate system. Two points A and B are situated at 115. Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 having
charges Q1 and Q2 respectively are connected to each
( )
be
Q1R2 = Q2R1
charges situated on the x-axis is given by V(x) = 20/(x2 – 4) 116. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it to a
volt battery. Now the distance between the plates of the capacitor
ch
The electric field E at x = 4 m is given by is increased. Which of the following remains constant ?
(a) (10/9) volt/ m and in the +ve x direction (a) Capacitance
.te
(b) (5/3) volt/ m and in the –ve x direction (b) Charge on each plate of the capacitor.
(c) (5/3) volt/ m and in the +ve x direction (c) Potential difference between the plates of capacitor
(d) Energy stored in the capacitor.
w
direction in which long insulated thread such that it hangs freely in the centre
(a) increase in potential is steepest. of the two metallic plates. The ball, which is uncharged, is
(b) decrease in potential is steepest. taken slowly towards the positively charged plate and is
(c) change in potential is minimum. made to touch that plate. Then the ball will
(d) None of these (a) stick to the positively charged plate
111. Two parallel metal plates having charges + Q and – Q face (b) come back to its original position and will remain
each other ata certain distance between them. If the plates there
are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the electric field between (c) oscillate between the two plates touching each plate
the plates will in turn
(a) remain same (b) become zero (d) oscillate between the two plates without touch them
(c) increases (d) decrease
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE 275
118. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of force constant 123. A capacitor of capacity C1 is charged upto V volt and
K, the maximum force of attraction between two charges, then connected to an uncharged capacitor of capacity C2.
separated by a distance Then final potential difference across each will be
(a) decreases K-times (b) increases K-times
C 2V C2
1 (a) (b) 1 V
(c) remains unchanged (d) becomes times C1 C 2 C1
K2
119. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then isolated. What C1V C2
is the effect of increasing the plate separation on charge, (c) (d) 1 V
C1 C 2 C1
potential, capacitance, respectively?
(a) Constant, decreases, decreases 124. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates is
(b) Increases, decreases, decreases charged to a potential difference of 500V and then insulated.
om
(c) Constant, decreases, increases A plastic plate is inserted between the plates filling the whole
(d) Constant, increases, decreases gap. The potential difference between the plates now
120. A foil of aluminium of negligible thickness is inserted in becomes 75V. The dielectric constant of plastic is
t.c
between the space of a parallel plate condenser. If the foil is (a) 10/3 (b) 5 (c) 20/3 (d) 10
electrically insulated, the capacity of the condenser will 125. From a supply of identical capacitors rated 8 mF, 250V, the
minimum number of capacitors required to form a composite
po
16 mF, 1000V is
Foil (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 16 (d) 32
126. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected
gs
to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric
slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air gap of
(a) increase (b) decrease lo
the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is
(c) remain unchanged (d) become zero
incorrect ?
121. Eight drops of mercury of equal radii possessing equal
.b
(a) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.
charges combine to form a big drop. Then the capacitance
r8
2 A A k1 k2
(c) (k1 + k2) (d) .
t t 2
w
w
EBD_7208
276 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
om
forces like electrostatic force (and due to which 20. (a) Energy required to charge the capacitor is W = U =
electrostatic field is a conservative field). It is not defined QV
for non-conservative forces like friction.
0 A .V 2 0 Ad 2
U = CV2 = .V E2Ad
t.c
= 2 =
1 q d d
4. (a) Since V , for a given point charge, q is
4 0 r V
. E
po
d
constant, therefore V depends only on r. Hence V is a
21. (b) Potential at any point inside the sphere = potential at
function of distance.
the surface of the sphere = 10V.
gs
5. (b) 22. (d) The equatorial plane of a dipole is an equipotential
6. (d) Surface of metallic cube is an equipotential surface. surface, therefore potential remains constant.
Therefore, electric field is normal to the surface of the lo A
cube. 23. (d) Since capacitance C 0
, as d decreases capacitance
7. (b) 8. (a) d
.b
increases.
2 2
9. (c) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (b)
r8
C= 2 3 F
2 2 30. (b) Cmedium = K × Cair
10. (c) Because in case of metallic spheres either solid or 31. (b) In oil, C becomes twice, V becomes half. Therefore,
be
hollow, the charge will reside on the surface of the E = V/d becomes half.
sphere. Since both spheres have same surface area, 32. (b) Energy will be lost during transfer of charge (heating
so they can hold equal maximum charge.
cy
effect).
11. (d) On the equipotential surface, electric field is normal
33. (b)
v 1 2
to the charged surface (where potential exists) so that U CV dV CV
no
0 2
no work will be done.
34. (b)
12. (a) Potential difference between two points in a electric
ch
field is, 1 q2 (8 10 18 )2
35. (c) Work done = = = 32 × 10–32 J
W 2 C 2 100 10 6
VA VB
.te
q0 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (b) Van De graff generator is a machine that can built up
13. (d) When negative terminal is grounded, positive terminal high voltages of the order of a few million volts. The
w
of battery is at +12 V. When positive terminal is resulting large electric fields are used to accelerate
grounded, the negative terminal will be at –12 V. charged particles (electrons, protons, ions) to high
w
attraction. Since a positive and negative charge attract 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d)
each other therefore their energy is negative. When
both the charges are separated by infinite distance, STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
they do not attract each other and their energy is zero.
W
16. (d) 45. (c) Since V , more work will be done for a positive
Q
17. (a) As the dipole will feel two forces, which are although charge of two units as compared to positive charge of
opposite but not equal.
W
A net force will be there and as these forces act one unit, but the ratio is same. Therefore potential
Q
at different points of a body, a torque is also present.
difference is same.
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE 277
om
thus develops an induced dipole moment. The 58. (b) For regions outside the spherical shell potential is given
dielectric is said to be polarised by the external field.
48. (c) Electric field lines are always perpendicular to 1 Q 1 and it increases as we come
by V , i.e. V
t.c
equipotential surface so, they cannot be in a direction 4 0 r r
of tangent to an equipotential surface. closer to the spherical shell. Therefore potential
po
49. (b) There is equal and opposite charge on the plates of a
parallel plate capacitor. Therefore there is no net charge 1
increases as we move from P to A according to V .
on capacitor. r
gs
50. (d) Since potential at every point on an equipotential surface For the regions inside the shell potential has a constant
is same therefore, for any two points on equipotential value at that on the surface, hence it remains constant
51. (b)
surface the potential difference is zero.
52. (d)
lo
for A to B. After B as we move away from the spherical
.b
1
shell it decreases as V .
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS r
r8
53 (a) A - 2; B - 1; C - 4; D - 3 59. (c) In this case electric fields due to the two charges at
54. (b) If V is the potential applied across the capacitor then origin are just equal and opposite and thus cancel each
be
om
For A, 180 Ufinal =
4 0 0.3 0.1 0.4
1 P cos180 1 P a negative
VA q 2q3 q 2 q3
4 r2 4 r2 1
Ufinal – Uinitial =
t.c
0 0
4 0 0.1 0.5
quantity.
For B, = 0°. 1 q3
po
= 10q 2q3 2q 2q3 = (8q 2 )
1 P cos 0 1 P 4 0 4 0
VB a positive quantity..
4 r2 4 r2 68. (b) In shell, q charge is uniformly distributed over its
gs
0 0
q q q q q
A B A
V= potential at surface and inside
B 4 0R
cy
q
V
no
4 0R
E
D C D C Because of this it behaves as an equipotential surface.
ch
V 30º 30º
E= r U p E pE cos
r cos
w
pE cos .
(20 10)
w
om
C4
74. (c) Equipotential surfaces are normal to the electric field 3
lines. The following figure shows the equipotential Hence no charge will flow through 20 F
surfaces along with electric field lines for a system of
t.c
C1 C2 C'
two positive charges.
X Y X Y
po
C3 C4 C''
gs
C1 and C2 are in series, also C3 and C4 are in series.
Hence C' = 3 F, C'' = 3 F
lo
C' and C'' are in parallel hence net capacitance
= C' + C'' = 3 + 3 = 6 F
.b
75. (c) B and C are at the same potential, therefore potential 1 1 1 1
81. (a) In series
r8
capacitor is same.
both the cases.
76. (c) All the charge given to inner sphere will pass on to the C C
cy
KA C C
C 0
where K is dielectric constant of the
d
ch
dielectric. C C
Therefore more the dielectric constant, more will be the
.te
Cnet = CAB = 2C
dipole, get oriented along the electric field produced
83. (b) Potential difference across the branch de is 6 V. Net
w
C1 = 6 F
So, q = CV
80. (d) q = 2.1 × 6 µC
C3 C5 6 F q = 12.6 µ C
X A Y Potential across 3 µF capacitance is
6 F 20 F C2
C4 12.6
V 4.2 volt
6 F 3
Potential across 2 and 5 combination in parallel is
Equivalent circuit
6 – 4.2 = 1.8 V
So, q' = (1.8) (5) = 9 µC
EBD_7208
280 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
om
Eb 1 q2 2q q1 a 2 .
so no energy inside it. b a2 a
97. (c) Reason is false because the work done in bringing a 4 o b2
unit positive charge from infinity to a point in equatorial b:a
t.c
plane is equal and opposite for the two charges of the
k .2 p
dipole. 107. (d) Force on charge F = q (Ea) = q
r3
po
98. (d) Two equipotential surfaces never intersect each other
so they cannot be orthogonal. 1
F
99. (b) r3
gs
100. (d) Two equipotential surfaces are not necessarily parallel 1
When r doubled; F times
to each other. 8
r1
q2 q2
103. (c) C = kC, and U . With the introduction of
be
2C 2 kC O X
(0,0) r2 B (2,0)
dielectric, energy of the system decreases. As charge
on the capacitor remains same, and so force between
cy
1
104. (a) U CV 2 . In the battery connected capacitor V OA = | r1 | ( 2)2 ( 2)2
2
remains constant while C increases with the = 4 = 2 units.
ch
introduction of dielectric and so U will increase. The distance of point B(2, 0) from the origin,
Potential at B, VB = .
cylinder when the point of consideration is outside the 4 0 (OB)
w
Q 1 1 Q 1 1
a b
106. (c) 4 0 OA OB 4 0 2 2
3 6
10 10
0 = 0.
4 0
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE 281
om
(42 4) 2 144 9
get positively charged. It will be B
A
Positive sign indicates that E is in +ve x-direction. repelled by A and get attracted
+ –
110. (b) As we move towards a positive charge distribution towards B. After touching B it will + +
t.c
+ + + –
get negatively charged. It will + + +
–
dV now be repelled by B and +
V increases i.e., is positive. The increase in –
dr get attracted towards A.
po
+ –
potential is steepest when we move exactly towards Thus it will remain oscillating + –
charge distribution. But E is in a direction exactly away and at the extreme position touch the plates.
gs
from charge distribution, therefore E is in exactly
1 q1q 2
opposite direction in which increase in potential is 118. (a) In air Fair =
4 0 r2
steepest. Hence E
dV
dr
.
lo 1 q1q 2
.b
In medium Fm = 4
Q 0 Kr 2
111. (d) Electric field E
r8
A Fm 1 Fair
of kerosine oil is more than that of air.. Fm (decreases K-times)
Fair K K
As increases, E decreases.
be
119. (d)
112. (a) Let the side length of square be 'a' then potential at centre
O is 120. (c)
121. (c) Volume of 8 small drops = Volume of big drop
cy
–Q –q
4 3 4
8 R = R3 R = 2r
no
O 3 3
As capacity is proportional to r, hence capacity
2Q 2q becomes 2 times.
ch
a a a a C= (k1 + k2)
t 2
2 2 2 2
C1V C2 0 C1
w
C0
Q
And electric potential V = q V C0
4 0 R V
C V0 C
V V V
114. (d) E i j k C0 500 20
x y z
C 75 3
= [(6 8y)iˆ ( 8x 8 6z)ˆj (6y)k]
ˆ
20
By definition, C = kC0 k
At (1, 1, 1), E 2i 10 j 6k 3
EBD_7208
282 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
125. (d) Let ‘n’ such capacitors are in series and such ‘m’ such
branch are in parallel. Q2 Q2 C2 V 2 ui
uf
250 × n = 1000 n=4 … (i) 2f 2kc 2KC k
8 1 2 1
Also m 16 u = uf – u i = cv –1
n 2 k
As the capacitor is isolated, so change will remain
16 n
m =8 … (ii) conserved p.d. between two plates of the capacitor
8 Q V
No. of capacitor = 8 4 L=
32 KC K
127. (d) : Here, V = 15 × 106 V dielectric strength
Q
126. (c) Capacitance of the capacitor, C = 5 × 107 V m–1
om
V Maximum electric field, E = 10% of dielectirc stength
After inserting the dielectric, new capacitance
C1 = K.C 10
E= 5 × 107 = 5 × 106 V m–1
New potential difference 100
t.c
V V
V1 = As E =
K r
po
1 2 Q2 V 15 106
ui cv ( Q = cv) r= = =3m
2 2C E 5 106
gs
lo
.b
r8
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
18
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
om
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS (a) zero (b) independent of T
t.c
(c) proportional to T (d) proportional to T 2
1. In a current carrying conductor the net charge is 9. When a potential difference V is applied across a conductor
(a) 1.6 10–19 coulomb (b) 6.25 10–18 coulomb at a temperature T, the drift velocity of electrons is
po
(c) zero (d) infinite proportional to
2. The current which is assumed to be flowing in a circuit from (a) (b) V
V
gs
positive terminal to negative, is called
(c) T (d) T
(a) direct current (b) pulsating current
(c) conventional current (d) alternating current 10. For which of the following dependence of drift velocity vd on
lo
3. When no current is passed through a conductor, electric field E, is Ohm’s law obeyed?
(a) vd E2
.b
(a) the free electrons do not move (b) vd = E1/2
(b) the average speed of a free electron over a large period (c) vd = constant (d) vd = E
r8
of time is not zero 11. The current density (number of free electrons per m3) in
(c) the average velocity of a free electron over a large period metallic conductor is of the order of
be
4. A current passes through a wire of nonuniform cross- the average kinetic energy of the conduction electrons and
section. Which of the following quantities are independent the metal ions respectively then
no
(a) resistivity (b) conductivity When the temperature of the metal wire increases, the drift
(c) potential difference (d) resistance velocity of the electron in it
(a) increases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
w
om
to be divided by the still smaller product of the (c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance
number density and drift speed to get the electric will remain unchanged
current (d) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance
t.c
17. In conductor when electrons move between two collisons, will be doubled
their paths are ... A... when external fields are absent and 27. Nichrome or Manganin is widely used in wire bound
po
... B...when external filed is present. Here, A and B refer to standard resistors because of their
(a) straight lines, straight lines (a) temperature independent resistivity
(b) straight lines, curved lines (b) very weak temperature dependent resistivity.
gs
(c) curved lines, straight lines (c) strong dependence of resistivity with temperature.
(d) curved lines, curved lines (d) mechanical strength.
18. If N, e, and m are representing electron density, charge, 28. With increase in temperature the conductivity of
lo
relaxation time and mass of an electron respectively, then (a) metals increases and of semiconductor decreases.
.b
the resistance of wire of length and cross-sectional area A (b) semeconductors increases and metals decreases.
is given by (c) in both metals and semiconductors increases.
r8
temperature because
Ne 2 A Ne 2 A (a) the collisions of the conducting electrons with the
(c) (d)
2m 2m electrons increase
cy
19. The unit of specific resistance is (b) the collisions of the conducting electrons with the
1 lattice consisting of the ions of the metal increase
(a) m 1 (b) m 1
no
(a) diode (b) copper wire connecting the power stations to homes and factories, the
(c) filament lamp (d) carbon resistor transmission cables carry current
21. Constantan wire is used for making standard resistance,
.te
(b) low specific resistance (d) neither at a very high voltage nor at a very low voltage.
(c) high specific resistance 31. Appliances based on heating effect of current work on
w
(d) negligible temperature coefficient of resistance (a) only a.c. (b) only d.c.
22. At temperature 0K, the germanium behaves as a / an
w
om
44.
35. When potential difference is applied across an electrolyte, conservation of
then Ohm’s law is obeyed at (a) charge (b) energy
(a) zero potential (b) very low potential
t.c
(c) momentum (d) angular momentum
(c) negative potential (d) high potential
45. The Kirchhoff's second law ( iR = E), where the symbols
36. To draw a maximum current from a combination of cells, how
have their usual meanings, is based on
po
should the cells be grouped?
(a) conservation of momentum
(a) Parallel
(b) conservation of charge
(b) Series
gs
(c) conservation of potential
(c) Mixed grouping
(d) conservation of energy
(d) Depends upon the relative values of internal and
46. Why is the Wheatstone bridge better than the other methods
lo
external resistances.
of measuring resistances?
37. Under what condition will the strength of current in a wire of
.b
(a) It does not involve Ohm’s law
resistance R be the same for connection is series and in
(b) It is based on Kirchoff’s law
parallel of n identical cells each of the internal resistance r?
r8
(c) R > r (d) R = r/2 (c) depend on the internal resistance of cell and resistance
39. An energy source will supply a constant current into the of galvanometer
load if its internal resistance is (d) None of these
ch
(a) very large as compared to the load resistance 48. In a wheatstone bridge in the battery and galvanometer
(b) equal to the resistance of the load are interchanged then the deflection in galvanometer will
.te
(c) non-zero but less than the resistance of the load (a) change in previous direction
(d) zero (b) not change
40. The resistance of the coil of an ammeter is R. The shunt (c) change in opposite direction
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required to increase its range n-fold should have a resistance (d) none of these.
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om
(a) main circuit same speed as before the collision. However the
(b) galvanometer circuit direction of its velocity after the collision is completely
(c) potentiometer circuit random.
t.c
(d) both main and galvanometer circuits III. At a given time, there is no preferential direction for
53. Sensitivity of potentiometer can be increased by the velocities of the electrons. Thus, on an average,
the number of electrons travelling in any direction
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(a) increasing the e.m.f of the cell
(b) increasing the length of the potentiometer will be equal to the number of electrons travelling in
(c) decreasing the length of the potentiometer wire the opposite direction. So, there will be no net electric
gs
(d) None of these current.
54. Potentiometer measures potential more accurately because Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) it measures potential in open circuit
(b) it uses sensitive galvanometer for null deflection
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(a) I and II
(c) I and III
(b) II and III
(d) I, II and III
.b
(c) it uses high resistance potentiometer wire 60. What should be the characteristic of fuse wire?
(d) it measures potential in closed circuit I. High melting point, high specific resistance
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55. For measuring voltage of any circuit, potentiometer is II. Low melting point, low specific resistance
preferred to voltmeter because III. Low melting point, high specific resistance
be
(a) the potentiometer is cheap and easy to handle. (a) I only (b) I and II
(b) calibration in the voltmeter is sometimes wrong .
(c) I and III (d) III only
(c) the potentiometer almost draws no current during
61. In household electric circuit
cy
measurement.
I. all electric appliances drawing power are joined in
(d) range of the voltmeter is not as wide as that of the
parallel
no
potentiometer.
II. a switch may be either in series or in parallel with the
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS appliance which it controls
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III. The net charge in a current carrying conductor is infinite (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
(a) I and II (b) II and III 62. Consider the following statements and select the correct
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(D) Mobility (4) Based on law of
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) conservation of energy.
(b) (A) (1) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (4) (a) (A) (1); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (4)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (4)
t.c
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (c) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (1); (D) (3)
64. Column I Column II (d) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (1); (D) (2)
(A) Silver (1) Wire bound resistor 68. Column I gives certain situations in which a straight
po
(B) Semiconductor (2) Resistor of higher range metallic wire of resistance R is used and Column II gives
(C) Carbon resistor (3) Negative temperature some resulting effects.
Column I Column II
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coefficient of resistivity
(D) Manganin (4) Least resistivity (A) A charged capacitor (1) A constant current flows
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) is connected to the through the wire
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
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ends of the wire
(B) The wire is moved (2) Thermal energy is
.b
perpendicular to its generated in the wire
(d) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
length with a constant
65. Match the physical quantities in Column I and their
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velocity in a uniform
mathematical expressions in Column II. magnetic field
Column I Column II perpendicular to the
be
ne 2 plane of motion
(A) Current (1) (C) The wire is placed in (3) A constant potential
m a constant electric difference develops
cy
(D) Temperature coefficient (4) nq vd ends of the wire. ends of the wire
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (1, 2, 3)
of resistivity (b) (A) (1) ; (B) (2, 3) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
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(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) (c) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1, 3) ; (D) (4)
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (d) (A) (1) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (3) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2) 69. Match the entries of Column I with their correct mathematical
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(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) expressions in Column II
66. Match the Column I and Column II. Column I Column II
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Column I Column II
(A) Balanced condition (1) R1 R3
(A) Smaller the resistance (1) If the same voltager is
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of wheatstone bridge R2 R4
greater the current applied and resistance
R l1
are in series (B) Comparison of emf of (2)
(B) Greater or smaller the (2) If the same current is S 100 l1
two cells field.
resistance the current passed E1 l1
(C) Determination of (3)
is same internal resistance of E 2 l2
(C) Greater the resistance (3) When resistances are a cell
smaller the power connected in series
(D) Determination of (4) r R l1 1
(D) Greater the resistance (4) When resistances are l2
unknown resistance
greater the power connected in parallel
by meter bridge
EBD_7208
288 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
(a) (A) (4); (B) (2); C (3); (D) (1) 72. Which of the following I-V graph represents ohmic
(b) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (4); (D) (2) conductors ?
(c) (A) (3); (B) (4); C (2); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1) I I
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V (c) (d)
O V O V
V
t.c
R
73. The I-V characteristics shown in figure represents
Rh A
po
I
() I
(1) (2)
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V
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(a) ohmic conductors (b) non-ohmic conductors
(a) (b) (c) insulators (d) superconductors
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V
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T1
T1
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(c) (d)
O I
ch
71. The figure shows three conductors I, II and III of same (a) T1 > T2 (b) T1 < T2
material, different lengths l, 2l and 3l and of different areas of
.te
l
i1 3A i1 T. The graph can be of
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I
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i2 A 2l i2
II
2A 3l
III
i3 i3
( )
T
(a) i1 i2 i3 (b) i3 i2 i1
(c) i2 i1 i3 (d) i2 ` i3 i1 (a) copper (b) nichrome
(c) germanium (d) silver
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 289
76. Choose the correct circuit diagram which is equivalent to the R1
circuit diagram given in the figure.
R1 R2
R4 (d) R3
R2
R3 R4
78. A wire of length l is connected to a battery between point A
R1 and B as shown in fig (1). The same wire is bent in the form of
R4 a circle and then connected to the battery between the points
(a) A and B as shown in fig. (2). The current drawn from the battery
R2
om
A B
R3 A l B
()
t.c
()
R1 R4 (1) (2)
po
(b) (a) increases
(b) decreases
R2 R3 (c) remains same
gs
(d) increases if upper part of wire between A and B is a
major arc and decreases if it is minor arc.
79. Figure shows a cell in which electrodes P and N are dipped in
lo
R1 R4 electrolyte. Points A and B are just adjacent to the electrodes.
.b
P is positive electrode and N is negative electrode. Which of
(c) the following is true?
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R2 R3 R
+ –
be
P N
R1 R4
cy
(d) A B
no
R2 R3
ch
77. Four resistors R1, R2, R3 and R4 are connected in different Electrolyte
ways. Which of the following combinations will draw the (a) Inside the cell current flows from A to B.
.te
maximum current when connected to a battery ? (b) Inside the cell current flows from B to A.
R1 R2 R3 R4 (c) Current does not flow inside the cell.
(a) (d) Inside the cell current flows in both the directions A to
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R2 B and B to A.
w
R1 80. The figure shows the circuit diagram of five resistors, a battery
(b) and a switch. If the switch S is closed then current drawn
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R1 R4
2R 4R
(c)
S
R2 R3
3R 6R
EBD_7208
290 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
(a) increases 84. For the circuit diagram shown in the figure the value of I1
(b) decreases comes out to be negative. It implies that
(c) remains same B
(d) initially increases and when the resistance R gets heated I1
then decreases. R1 R2
I3
81. A cell having an emf and internal resistance r is I4
connected across a variable external resistance R. As the 2
resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference A C
1
V across R is given by
R5
R3
R4
om
I5
(a) (b) I2
V V D
0 0 (a) the actual current flows in opposite direction of arrow
t.c
R R (b) the actual current flows in the direction of arrow.
(c) Kirchhoff’s junction rule is wrongly applied to find
po
V current.
(d) Kirchhoff’s loop rule is wrongly applied to find the
V current.
gs
(c) (D)
85. The figure shows a circuit diagram of a Wheatstone
0 0
R R Bridge’ to measure the resistance G of the galvanometer.
82. A battery of e.m.f E and internal resistance r is connected
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The relation
P
Q G
=
R
will be satisfied only when
.b
to a variable resistor R as shown. Which one of the following
is true ?
P
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E r
be
R
cy
kirchhoff’s loop rule is applied to the loop BCDEB in clockwise (d) the galvanometer shows no deflection
direction? 86. The bridge is at balanced condition in figure. Now the battery
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C
B
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i3
i2 R2
B E
R1 R2 R4
i1
A F A G C
R1 R3
(a) –i3 R3 – i3 R4 – i2 R2 = 0
(b) –i3 R3 – i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0
(c) –i3 R3 + i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0 D
(d) –i3 R3 + i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 291
(b) to the right of D
(a) B (b) B
I1 I1 (c) at the same point D
I4 I4
R4 (d) to the left of D if S' has lesser value than S and to the
R1 R4 R1 right of D if S' has more value than S.
A C 89. AB is a wire of potentiometer with the increase in value of
I2 A
I2 I3 C
resistance R, the shift in the balance point J will be
R2 R3 R3
R2
R
I3 I5
D D
J B
G A
G
om
G
(c) I1
B (d) B
I1
I4 (a) towards B
R4 (b) towards A
t.c
R1 R4 R1 I4
(c) remains constant
A I3 C A C
I2 I2 (d) first towards B then back towards A
R3
po
R2 R2 R3
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
I3 I5 I3
D Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
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D
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
G G
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
87. In the figure in balanced condition of wheatstone bridge
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have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
.b
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
B
explanation for assertion.
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(c) Any of the two B or D can be at higher potential than carries a constant current is zero.
other arbitrarily.
Reason : Net charge on conducting wire is zero.
(d) B and D are at same potential.
93. Assertion: The statement of Ohm’s law is V = IR.
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88. The figure shows a meter bridge in which null point is obtained
at a length AD = l. When a resistance S' is connected in Reason: V = IR is the equation which defines resistance.
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parallel with resistance S the new position of null point is 94. Assertion : A current flows in a conductor only when there
obtained is an electric field within the conductor.
w
vd lim .
( ) t 0 t
(a) to the left of D
EBD_7208
292 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
96. Assertion : When a current is established in a wire, the free 107. Assertion : In meter bridge experiment, a high resistance
electrons drift in the direction opposite to the current and so is always connected in series with a galvanometer.
the number of free electrons in the wire continuously Reason : As resistance increase current more accurately
decrease. then ammeter.
Reason : Charge is a conserved quantity. 108. Assertion : The e.m.f of the driver cell in the potentiometer
97. Assertion : The electric bulb glows immediately when switch experiment should be greater that the e.m.f of the cell to
is on. be determined.
Reason : The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire is Reason : The fall of potential across the potentiometer
very high. wire should not be less than the e.m.f of the cell to be
determined.
98. Assertion: E j is the statement of Ohm’s law..
109. Assertion : A potentiometer of longer length is used for
Reason: If the resistivity of the conducting material is accurate measurement.
om
independent of the direction and magnitude of applied field Reason : The potential gradient for a potentiometer of
then the material obeys Ohm’s law. longer length with a given source of e.m.f becomes small.
99. Assertion: For a conductor resistivity increases with increase
t.c
in temperature. CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
m 110. The amount of charge Q passed in time t through a cross-
Reason: Since , when temperature increases the
po
ne 2 section of awireis Q = 5 t2 + 3 t + 1. The value of current at
random motion of free electrons increases and vibration of time t = 5 s is
ions increases which decreases . (a) 9 A (b) 49 A
gs
100. Assertion : The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic (c) 53 A (d) None of these
wire will decrease, if the temperature of the wire is 111. A conductor carries a current of 50 A. If the area of cross-
increased.
Reason : On increasing temperature, conductivity of
lo
section of the conductor is 50 mm2, then value of the current
density in Am–2 is
.b
metallic wire decreases. (a) 0.5 (b) 1
101. Assertion : Bending a wire does not effect electrical (c) 10–3 (d) 10–6
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resistance. 112. Two wires A and B of the same material, having radii in the
Reason: Resistance of wire is proportional ot resistivity of ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of drift
be
104. Assertion : Kirchoff s junction rule follows from conductor, due to their drift velocity only is
conservation of charge.
Reason : Kirchoff s loop rule follows from conservation of (a) I s (b) I/s
w
momentum.
(c) I/s (d) (I / s)2
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Reason : As resistance increases current through the velocity is v. If 2i current flows through the same metal but
circuit increases. having double the are of cross-section, then the drift
106. Assertion : In a meter bridge experiment, null point for an velocity will be
unknown resistance is measured. Now, the unknown (a) v \ 4 (b) v / 2
resistance is put inside an enclosure maintained at a higher (c) v (d) 4v
temperature. The null point can be obtained at the same 116. If the resistance of a conductor is 5 at 50º C & 7 at 100º C,
point as before by decreasing the value of the standard then mean temperature coefficient of resistance (of material)
resistance. is
Reason : Resistance of a metal increases with increase in (a) 0.013/ ºC (b) 0.004/ ºC
temperature. (c) 0.006/ ºC (d) 0.008/ ºC
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 293
117. If negligibly small current is passed though a wire of length 124. In the network shown below, the ring has zero resistance.
15 m and resistance of 5 , having uniform cross section of The equivalent resistance between the point A and B is
6 × 10–7 m2, then coefficient of resistivity of material is (a) 2R
(a) 1×10–7 –m (b) 2×10–7 –m 3R
(c) 3×10 –7 –m (d) 4×10–7 –m (b) 4R 3R A
B
118. The resistance of a wire at room temperature 30°C is found (c) 7R R
to be 10 . Now to increase the resistance by 10%, the 3R
(d) 10R
temperature of the wire must be [ The temperature coefficient
of resistance of the material of the wire is 0.002 per °C] 125. In the network shown, each resistance is equal to R. The
(a) 36°C (b) 83°C equivalent resistance between adjacent corners A and D is
(c) 63°C (d) 33°C
119. A wire is connected to a battery between the point M and N (a) R
om
as shown in the figure (1). The same wire is bent in the form 2
of a square and then connected to the battery between the (b) R
3
points M and N as shown in the figure (2). Which of the
t.c
following quantities increases ? 3
(c) R
7
M N
po
M N
8
(d) R
15
()
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() 126. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is
(1) (2) connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The current I,
in the circuit will be
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(a) Heat produced in the wire and resistance offered by
the wire.
.b
(b) Resistance offered by the wire and current through the
wire. 3
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(d) Heat produced in the wire and current through the wire.
120. When a piece of aluminium wire of finite length is drawn 3
cy
(c) eight times (d) sixteen times 127. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an external
121. A wire X is half the diameter and half the length of a wire Y resistance R. The internal resistance of the two sources are
ch
of similar material. The ratio of resistance of X to that of Y is R1 and R2 (R2 > R1). If the potential difference across the
(a) 8 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 source having internal resistance R2 is zero, then
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
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(a) R= R 2 R1
122. Each of the resistance in the network shown in fig. is equal
to R. The resistance between the terminals A and B is (b) R= R 2 (R1 R 2 ) /(R 2 R1 )
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L
(c) R= R 1R 2 /( R 2 R 1 )
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(d) R= R 1R 2 /( R 1 R 2 )
R R R
128. In the series combination of n cells each cell having emf
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A
R
om
2E/9 condition for the bridge to be balanced will be
P 2R P R (S1 S2 )
E/9 (a) (b)
Q S1 S2 Q S1S 2
t.c
0.33
E/3
P R (S1 S2 ) P R
po
E, r = 2.67 (c) (d)
Q 2S1S2 Q S1 S2
(a) 4.5 V (b) 1.5 V 137. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be
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(c) 2.67 V (d) 13.5 V
132. A battery of e.m.f. 10 V and internal resistance 0.5 is
connected across a variable resistance R. The value of R for
which the power delivered in it is maximum is given by
lo 10
.b
5 10 20
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
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2 5 volt
3
cy
6V 2.8
138. In a Wheatstone bridge all the four arms have equal
resistance R. If the resistance of galvanometer arm is also R,
ch
2V 2R
V
(a) V (b)
2
om
0.5 A, for the wire is 4 × 10–7 –m and area of cross- is connected in series with a resistance box and a 2 V storage
section of wire is 8 × 10–6 m2. The potential gradient in the cell. If the potential gradient along the wire is 0.1 m V/cm, the
wire would be resistance unplugged in the box is
t.c
(a) 25 mV/meter (b) 2.5 mV/meter (a) 260 (b) 760
(c) 25 V/meter (d) 10 V/meter (c) 960 (d) 1060
po
143. A cell when balanced with potentiometer gave a balance 147. In an experiment to measure the internal resistance of a cell,
length of 50 cm. 4.5 external resistance is introduced in by a potentiometer, it is found that the balance point is at a
the circuit, now it is balanced on 45 cm. The internal length of 2 m, when the cell is shunted by a 5 resistance
gs
resistance of cell is and is at a length of 3 m when the cell is shunted by a 10
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 resistance. The internal resistance of the cell is
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.5
lo
(a) 1.5 (b) 10
(c) 15 (d) 1
.b
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be
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no
ch
.te
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EBD_7208
296 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
cm)
1. (c) In a current carrying conductor, the net charge is zero.
Resistivity (
2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d)
5. (a) J E J E T
T (k)
J is current density, E is electric field
om
so B = = resistivity. 28. (b) Semiconductors having negative temperature
6. (b) Motion of conduction electrons due to random coefficient of resistivity whereas metals are having
collisions has no preffered direction and average to positive temperature coefficient of resistivity with
t.c
increase in temperature the resistivity of metal
zero. Drift velocity is caused due to motion of
increases where a resistivity of semiconductor
conduction electrons due to applied electric field E . decreases.
po
7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 29. (a) The conduction electrons collides with each other
10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (c) more. the specific resistance of a conductor increases
gs
13. (b) When the temperature increases, resistance increases. with temperature according to the reaction T =
eEg/kgT where
As the e.m.f. applied is the same, the current density 0 0 is the specific resistance at 0° C,
Eg = energy of the gap between the valence and the
decreases the drift velocity decreases. But the rms
velocity of the electron due to thermal motion is
lo
conduction band, kB is the Boltzmann constant and
T, the temperature of the resistor.
.b
proportional to T . The Thermal velocity increases. 30. (b) The power dissipated in the transmission cables is
14. (b) inversely proportional to the square of voltage at which
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26. (c) 1
, now A I B
R 2= 2
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1
A1
I2 R2
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(2 1 ) R 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a)
R2
4A1 2A 2 E
39. (d) I = , Internal resistance (r) is zero,
Resistance is halved, but specific resistance remains R r
the same. E
27. (b) These materials exhibit a very weak dependence of I= = constant.
R
resistivity on temperature. Their resistance values
would be changed very little with temperature as Ig R Ig
40. (b) S S R
shown in figure. Hence these materials are widely nIg Ig (n 1)I g
used as heating element.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 297
41. (c) Internal resistance = r, External resistance = nr. electron colliding with an ion emerges with the same
Let terminal voltage = V speed as before the collision. However, the direction
of its velocity after the collision is completely
Er
then V E Ir V E random. At a given time, there is no preferential
(n 1)r direction for the velocities of the electrons. Thus, on
the average, the number of electrons travelling in any
nE V n
V direction will be equal to the number of electrons
n 1 E n 1 travelling in the opposite direction. So, there will be
42. (a) : In the parallel combination, no net electric current.
60. (d) 61. (b)
eq 1 2 n
.... 62. (c) When resistances are connected in series the same
req r1 r2 rn
current flows through each resistance.
om
1 1 1 1 MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
....
req r1 r2 rn
63. (b) (A) (1) if the temperature is not very high.
t.c
( n = and r1 = r2= r3 = ... r) (B) (3)
(C) (2)
eq
.... n (D) (4)
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req r r r r .... (i)
64. (d) A - (4) as silver has least resistivity. B - (3) because the
resistivity of semiconductor decreases with temperature
1 1 1 n
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.... so they have negative temperature coefficient of
req r r r r req = r/n ...(ii) resistivity. C-(2) as carbon resistors have high range.
D-(1) because wires of alloys like managanin,
From (i) and (ii) lo
constantan, nichrome etc are used to make wire bound
resistors.
.b
eq n req n
req r r 65. (c) 66. (c)
67. (d) A-(3) Kirchhoff’s junction rule is based on law of
43. (b) The internal resistance of dry cells, is much higher
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45. (d) Kirchhoff's first law is based on conservation of charge is also an equivalent form of Ohm’s law. D-(2) as mobility
and Kirchhoff's second law is based on conservation is defined as the magnitude of drift velocity per unit
cy
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (c)
70. (d) Even if resistance R is changed with 2R, according to
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56. (a) is not correct? Because the slope of V.I. graph gives the
57. (a) The order of magnitude of current in lightening is very value of resistance. As the value of resistance is
high approx 10,000 of amperes. The order of magnitude increased from R to 2R, the slope of given graph must
of current in human body and galvanometer is also not also increase which is shown in fig. (d).
one ampere. l
58. (d) According to Ohm’s law, the plot of I versus V is linear 71. (d) As we know, resistance R = . The resistance of
A
so how can it fail if V depends on I linearly.
59. (d) Consider the case when no electric field is present. conductor l is given by
The electrons will be moving due to thermal motion l R l
during which they collide with the fixed ions. An RI where R
3A 3 A
EBD_7208
298 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
2l E E
Similarly, RII 2R 82. (c) I
A R r ( R r )2 2 R r
3l 3 I is maximum when R = r
and RIII R
2A 2 P I 2 R , when I is max, P is also max.
From this we conclude that RII > RIII > RI. Since in
parallel combination of resistances current distributes Pmax I 2max R .
in inverse ratio of resistances, therefore i2 < i3 < i1 83. (b) If we apply Kirchhoff’s loop rule to the loop BCDEB in
72. (a) Ohm’s law V = IR is an equation of straight line clockwise direction the changes in potential across R3
Hence I - V characteristics for ohmic conductors is and R4 are negative. Therefore i3 R3 and i3 R4 should
also a straight line and its slope gives resistance of have negative sign. But for this clockwise direction we
the conductor. are moving in a direction opposite to i2 across R2.
om
73. (b) The figure is showing I – V characteristics of non Current flows from higher potential to lower potential
ohmic or non linear conductors. but we are moving from lower potential to higher
potential i.e., potential is increasing. So the change in
V
t.c
potential is positive. Therefore i2 R2 has positive sign.
T1 84. (a) If the value of current comes out positive then actual
74. (a)
T1 current is in the direction of arrow and if it comes out
po
negative then actual current is in opposite direction of
I the arrow.
O
85. (c) In balances condition, no current will flow through
gs
The slope of V – I graph gives the resistance of a the branch containing S.
conductor at a given temperature. 86. (b) In the balance condition if the battery and galvanometer
From the graph, it follows that resistance of a
conductor at temperature T1 is greater than at
lo
are interchanged even then no current flows through
the galvanometer as A and C are at same potential.
.b
temperature T1 As the resistance of a conductor is 87. (d) In balance condition, since no current flows through
more at higher temperature and less at lower the galvanometer therefore B and D are at the same
r8
increase in temperature.
76. (d) This is a balanced Wheatstone bridge condition. R l
… (i)
77. (d) When all the resistances are connected in parallel the S 100 l
cy
equivalent resistance is minimum so, current drawn will When S' is connected in parallel with S we obtain
be maximum. equivalent resistance Seq of S and S' which is less than
78. (a) In figure (2) the upper and lower part of the wire between S. Thus if the value of denominator of L.H.S. of eq. (i)
no
A and B are in parallel. Therefore the equivalent decreases then value of denominator of R.H.S. of eq. (i)
resistance of these two parts is less than the resistance also decreases. For this to happen the null point shifts
ch
of each of the upper and lower part. Since the resistance to the right of D.
between A and B decreases in fig. (2) therefore the 89. (a) Due to increases in resistance R the current through
current drawn from the battery increases. the wire will decrease and hence the potential
.te
79. (b) Current does flow through the electrolyte inside the gradient also decreases, which results in increase in
cell and it flows from negative electrode to positive balancing length. So. J will shift towards B.
electrode.
w
80. (c) No current flows through the resistor R as A and C are ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
at same potential. Hence current drawn from battery
w
om
from negative and to the positive end of the conductor
and hence a current starts to flow from the conductor. high current, high resistance is connected to the
95. (c) Drift speed is the average speed between two galvanometer.
successive collision. 106. (d) With increase in temperature, resistance of metal wire
t.c
96. (d) The free electron density in any part of the conductor increases, but balance conduction will not change.
remains constant. 107. (c) The resistance of the galvanometer is flexed. In meter
bridge experiments, to protect the galvanometer from
po
97. (c) The drift velocity of electrons in metals is order of
10–4 m/s. a high current, high resistance is conneted to the
98. (a) We know that V = IR galvanometer in order to protect it from damage.
108. (a) If either e.m.f. of the driver cell or potential difference
gs
l
Since R across the whole potentiometer wire is lesser than the
A e.m.f. of then experimental cell, then balance point will
Therefore V I
l
A
… (i)
lo
not obtained.
.b
1
I 109. (a) Sensitivity (Length of wire)
Now j is the current density.. Potential gradient
A
r8
V
V j l or j
l dQ
110. (c) 10t 3
V dt
cy
114. (c)
of free electrons increase and so they collide more
rapidly with each other and hence their drift velocity J
w
om
resistance R of arm AD.
119. (d) When the wire is bent in the form of a square and
connected between M and N as shown in fig. (2), the
effective resistance between M and N decreases to one
t.c
fourth of the value in fig. (1). The current increases four
times the initial value according to the relation
V = IR. Since H = I2 Rt, the decrease in the value of
po
resistance is more than compensated by the increases
in the value of current. Hence heat produced increases.
120. (d)
gs
121. (c) R or R .
( D 2 / 4) D2 lo 2R R 2
Their effective resistance R1 R
2R R 3
.b
Rx x
D y2 y /2 D y2 2
The resistance of arms AB, BC and CD is
Ry Dx 2 y (D y / 2) 2
y 1
r8
2 8
R2 R R R R
122. (a) The equivalent circuit is shown in fig. Since the 3 3
be
Wheatstone’s bridge is balanced, therefore no current The resistance R1 and R2 are in parallel. The effective
will flow through the arm KL. Equivalent resistance resistance between A and D is
between
cy
AKM = R + R = 2 R 2 8
R R
Equivalent resistance between ALM = R + R = 2 R R1 R 2 3 3 8
R3 R.
The two resistances are in parallel. Hence equivalent 2 8
no
R1 R 2 15
R R
resistance between A and B is given by 3 3
126. (b)
ch
K
3 3
R R 2
.te
3 = 3 =
A R M B
3V 3V
3V
w
3
1. 5 A
w
R R
2
w
L 2
127. (c) I = R1 R2
R R1 R 2 I
1 1 1 2 1
R 2R 2R 2R R
i.e., R R
123. (b) Resistance of the wire of a semicircle = 12/2 = 6
For equivalent resistance between two points on any
R
diameter, 6 and 6 are in parallel.
or Pot. difference across second cell = V IR 2 0
CURRENT ELECTRICITY 301
2 Between A and B, voltage is same in both resistances,
= .R2 0
R R1 R 2 2I1 3I 2 where I1 I 2 I 1.5
R R1 R 2 2R 2 0
2I1 3(1.5 I1 ) I1 0.9A
R R1 R 2 = 0 R = R 2 R1
128. (d) Since due to wrong connection of each cell the total 134. (c) F
V R
E
emf reduced to 2 then for wrong connection of three I
om
I = 0.2 A, R = 10 I
Internal resistance r = ? B C
2V 2R
From formula.
t.c
– Ir = V = IR
2.1 – 0.2r = 0.2 × 10 V
Applying Kirchhoff’s law in BCDEFAB we get, I
2.1 – 0.2 r = 2 or 0.2 r = 0.1 3R
po
Let A be at 0 V. Then potential at G is V.
0.1
r = 0.5 Applying Krichhoff’s law for AFED, we get
0.2
gs
V 4V
130. (c) r = E / I = 1.5 / 3 = 0.5 ohm. 0 + V + IR = VD 0 V R VD VD
3R 3
2 E 2E
Share of bulb =
3 3 9
cy
2
2E 5
0.5 4.5 or E = 13.5 V..
9
no
7V
132. (a) According to maximum power theorem, the power in 40 120
the circuit is maximum if the value of external resistance Req =
ch
40 120
is equal to the internal resistance of battery.
133. (c) At steady state the capacitor will be fully charged and V 7
I= =
.te
7 1
I1
= = = 0.2 A.
5 30 5
w
A B
I2 3 S1S 2
P R
w
6 6 3 15
I 1.5A
2 3 2.8 1.2 2.8 2
2 3 1
5V
EBD_7208
302 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
143. (a)
15 30 V 5
Req = 10 I 0.5 A
15 30 R 10 Pot.Difference VA VB
144. (a) Hint : Potential gradient =
length of wire
138. (d)
139. (b) At Null point 145. (a) Pot. gradient = 0.2mV/cm
3
0.2 10 2
= 2 = 2 10 V/m
X 10 10
om
52 cm 48 cm R= = 4.9
1.98
X 10 146. (b) Potential gradient along wire
t.c
1 2 potential difference along wire
Here = 52 + End correction = 52 + 1 = 53 cm length of wire
1
po
= 48 + End correction = 48 + 2 = 50 cm I 40
2
or, 0.1 10 3 V / cm
1000
X 10 53
gs
53 50 X 10.6 1
5 or, Current in wire, I= A
400
P l l 20
140. (d)
Q 100 l
or P
100 l
Q
80
1 0.25 . lo
or,
2 1
or R 800 40 760
40 R 400
.b
7
VA VB i 0.1 10 147. (b) In case of internal resistance measurement by
141. (a) Potential gradient
r8
A 10 6 potentiometer,
2 V1 1 {E R1 /(R1 r)} R 1 (R 2 r)
10 V/m
be
V2 2 {E R 2 /(R 2 r )} R 2 (R1 r)
V
142. (a) Potential gradient of wire I Here 1 2 m, 2 3 m, R1 5 and R 2 10
A
cy
7
so V 4 10
0.5 25mV / meter
6
8 10
ch
.te
w
w
w
19
MOVING CHARGES AND
MAGNETISM
om
6. Ampere’s circuital law is given by
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
(a) H . dI 0 I enc (b) B . dI 0 I enc
1. According to oersted, around a current carrying conductor,
magnetic field exists
po
(c) B . dI 0I (d) H . dI 0I
(a) as long as there is current in the wire
(b) even after removing the current in the wire 7. The magnetic field around a long straight current carrying
gs
(c) only few seconds after removing the current wire is
(d) None of these (a) spherical symmetry (b) cylindrical symmetry
2. The magnetic field d B due to a small current element d (c) cubical symmetry
lo (d) unsymmetrical
at a distance r and element carrying current i is, 8. A current is passed through a straight wire. The magnetic field
established around it has its lines of force
.b
0 d r 0 2 d r (a) circular and endless
(a) dB = 4 i (b) dB = 4 i
r8
through the surface. (c) both inside and outside the rod
(b) the surface integral of magnetic field over the open (d) neither inside nor outside the rod
10. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r,
ch
of the open surface is equal to µ0 times the total current (b) inverseley proportional to I
passing near the surface. (c) directly proportional to I
(d) the line integral of magnetic field along the boundary (d) directly proprotional to I2
w
of the open surface is equal to µ0 times the total current 11. The magnetic field B at a point on one end of a solenoid
w
passing through the surface. having n turns per metre length and carrying a current of
4. Biot-Savart law indicates that the moving electrons velocity i ampere is given by
w
om
(b) magnetic force acting on a moving charged particle.
(d) negative direction of Z-axis
(c) the vector sum of electrostatic and magnetic force acting
21. An electric charge in uniform motion produces
on a moving charged particle.
(a) an electric field only
(d) the vector sum of gravitational and magnetic force acting
t.c
(b) a magnetic field only
on a moving charged particle.
(c) both electric and magnetic fields
16. Which one of the following is the correct expression for
(d) no such field at all
po
magnetic field on the axis of a circular current loop with x-
22. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct current, the
axis as its axis ?
magnetic field associated with the current will be
IR 2 iˆ IR 2
gs
(a) only inside the pipe
(a) B 0
(b) B 0
iˆ
2( x R 2 )2
2 32 (b) only outside the pipe
2 x2 R2
(c) neither inside nor outside the pipe
(c) B
2
0 IR
2
32
iˆ (d) B 0 IR 3 2
iˆ
lo
(d) both inside and outside the pipe
23. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the form of
.b
2 x R 2 2 2
2 x R (a) electric field (b) magnetic field
17. Which of the following is true ? (c) dielectric strength (d) heat
r8
(a) Parallel currents repel, and antiparallel currents attract. 24. Lorentz force can be calculated by using the formula
(b) Parallel currents attract, and antiparallel currents repel.
(a) F q ( E v B) (b) F q( E v B )
be
(a) The ampere is the value of that steady current which Two free parallel wires carrying currents in the opposite
directions
when maintained in each of the two very long, straight,
(a) attract each other
no
parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and (a) potential difference between them
placed one centimetre apart in vacuum, would produce (b) mutual inductance between them
on each of these conductors a force equal to 2 × 10–7 (c) electric forces between them
w
(c) The ampere is the value of that steady current which, A wire is placed parallel to the lines of force in a magnetic
when maintained in each of the two very long, straight, field and a current flows in the wire. Then
w
parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and (a) the wire will experience a force in the direction of the
placed one metre apart in vacuum, would produce on magnetic field
each of these conductors a force equal to 2 × 10–7 N/m (b) the wire will not experience any force at all
of length. (c) the wire will experience a force in a direction opposite
(d) The ampere is the value of that steady current which, to the field
when maintained in each of the two very long, straight, (d) it experiences a force in a direction perpendicular to
parallel conductors of negligible cross-section, and lines of force
placed ten metre apart in vacuum, would produce on 28. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic
each of these conductors a force equal to 2 × 10–7 N/m field. The torque acting on it does not depend upon
of length. (a) shape of the loop (b) area ot the loop
(c) value of the current (d) magnetic field
MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM 305
36. Two thin, long, parallel wires, separated by a distance ‘d’
29. The magnetic force F on a current carrying conductor of
carry a current of ‘i’ A in the same direction. They will
length I in an exteranal magnetic field B is given by
2
(a) repel each other with a force of 0i /(2 d)
I B I B 2
(a) (b) (b) attract each other with a force of 0i /(2 d)
I I
2
(c) repel each other with a force of 0i /(2 d 2 )
(c) I ( I B) (d) I2I B
30. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a (d) attract each other with a force of 0i
2
/(2 d 2 )
direction perpendicular to it. Then the
37. A charge q is moving with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic
(a) velocity remains unchanged field B. Force on the charge due to magnetic field is
(b) speed of the particle remains unchanged (a) q v B (b) q B/v
om
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged (c) zero (d) B v/q
(d) acceleration remains unchanged 38. A particle of mass m and charge q enters a magnetic field
31. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed B perpendicularly with a velocity v. The radius of the
t.c
v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circular path described by it will be
circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to (a) Bq / mv (b) mq / Bv
(c) mB / qv (d) mv / Bq
po
B B 39. Cyclotron is used to accelerate
(a) (b)
v v (a) electrons (b) neutrons
gs
(c) positive ions (d) negative ions
v v 40. The magnetic dipole moment of a current loop is
(c) (d)
B B independent of
32. A charged particle of mass m and charge q travels on a
lo
(a) magnetic field in which it is lying
(b) number of turns
circular path of radius r that is perpendicular to a magnetic
.b
field B. The time taken by the particle to complete one (c) area of the loop
revolution is (d) current in the loop
r8
(a) (b)
m B (b) inversely proportional to area of loop
(c) parallel to plane of loop and porportional to area of
2 m 2 qB
cy
(a) proportional to momentum 42. If m is magnetic moment and B is the magnetic field, then
(b) proportional to energy the torque is given by
ch
(c) the frequency of revolution of charged particle is (b) inversely proportional to the length of the wire in the
equal to the frequency of rotation of earth
w
coil
(d) the frequency of revolution of charged particle, (c) directly proportional to the square of the length of
frequency of A.C. source and frequency of magnetic the wire in the coil
field are equal (d) inversely proportional to the square of the length of
35. A long solenoid has n turns per meter and current I A the wire in the coil
is flowing through it. The magnetic field within the 44. To make the field radial in a moving coil galvanometer
solenoid is (a) the number of turns in the coil is increased
0 nI
(b) magnet is taken in the form of horse-shoe
(a) (b) nI (c) poles are cylindrically cut
2
(d) coil is wounded on aluminium frame
(c) zero (d) nI
EBD_7208
306 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
45. The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is III. If v has a component along B, then path of particle
(a) directly proportional to the torsional constant is helical.
(b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the IV. If v is along B, then path of particle is a circle.
coil (a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil (c) III and IV (d) IV and I
(d) inversely proportional to the current flowing 53. Consider the following statements and select the incorrect
46. In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection of the coil statement(s).
is related to the elecrical current i by the relation I. The presence of a large magnetic flux through a coil
(a) i tan (b) i maintains a current in the coil if the circuit is
continuous
(c) i (d) i II. A coil of a metal wire kept stationary in a non–
47. A moving coil galvanometer has N number of turns in a uniform magnetic field has an e.m.f induced in it
coil of effective area A, it carries a current I. The magnetic III. A charged particle enters a region of uniform
om
field B is radial. The torque acting on the coil is magnetic field at an angle of 85° to the magnetic lines
(a) NA2B2I (b) NABI2 of force, the path of the particle is a circle
2
(c) N ABI (d) NABI IV. There is no change in the energy of a charged
t.c
48. Two parallel circular coils of equal radii having equal number particle moving in a magnetic field although a
of turns placed coaxially and separated by a distance equal magnetic force is acting on it
to the radii of the coils carrying equal currents in same (a) I and II (b) II and III
po
direction are known as (c) II only (d) IV only
(a) Biot-savart’s coils (b) Ampere’s coils 54. When a positively charged particle enters a region of
(c) Helmholtz coils (d) Oersted’s coils. uniform magnetic field, its trajectory can be
gs
49. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is defined as I. a straight line. II. a circle.
(a) the current flowing through the galvanometer when a III. a helix. IV. a spiral
unit voltage is applied across its terminals.
(b) current per unit deflection.
lo
(a) Only I
(c) I or II
(b) II or III
(d) Anyone of I, II or III
55.
.b
(c) deflection per unit current. A velocity selector; (a region of perpendicular electric and
(d) dflection per unit current when a unit voltage is applied magnetic field)
r8
I. both are long range and inversely proportional to the IV. deflects all particles in a direction perpendicular to
square of distance from the source to the point of both E and B.
no
IV. both follow principle of superposition. 56. Select the correct statements about Lorentz Force.
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV I. In presence of electric field E (r ) and magnetic field
.te
IV. parallel to the direction of magnetic field. velocity and magnetic field are parallel or antiparallel.
IV. For a static charge the magnetic force is maximum.
Correct statements are
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only
(a) I and IV (b) I and II
(c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
(c) I and III (d) III and IV
57. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
52. Consider a moving charged particle in a region of I. The magnetic field in the open space inside the toroid
magnetic field. Which of the following statements are is constant.
correct ?
II. The magnetic field in the open space exterior to the
I. If v is parallel to B, then path of particle is spiral. toroid is constant.
II. If v is perpendicular to B, then path of particle is a III. The magnetic field inside the core of toroid is
circle. constant.
MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM 307
(a) I and II (b) II and III Column-I Column -II
(c) III only (d) I only (A) The charged particle (1) It is possible that both B
58. A proton and a deuterium nucleus having certain kinetic
energy enter in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to it. moves without change and G are zero.
in its direction.
Which of the following statements are incorrect ?
(B) The charged particle (2) It is possible that both
I. Proton has more frequency of revolution.
II. Deuterium nucleus has more frequency of revolution. moves without change B and G are non zero.
in its velocity.
III. The particle which has greater speed has more
frequency of revolution. (C) The charged particle (3) It is possible that B is
(a) I and II (b) II and III takes a circular path zero and G is not zero.
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III (D) The charged particle (4) It is possible that B is
59. The galvanometer cannot as such be used as an ammeter
takes a parabolic path non zero and G is zero.
om
to measure the value of current in a given circuit. The
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
following reasons are
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
I. galvanometer gives full scale deflection for a small
current. (c) (A) (1,2,3,4) ; (B) (1,2,4) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
t.c
II. galvanometer has a large resistance. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
III. a galvanometer can give inaccurate values. 63. A square loop of side a and carrying current i as shown in
the figure is placed in gravity free space having magnetic
po
The correct reasons are:
(a) I and II (b) II and III field B = B 0 k . Now match following :
(c) I and III (d) I, II and III y
gs
i
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
60. Match Column I and Column II. lo
Column I Column II x
.b
(A) Biot-Savart’s law (1) B.dl 0 i
r8
0
(A) Torque on loop (1) is zero
parallel current
carrying conductors (B) Net force on loop (2) is in direction (– k )
cy
(a) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (2) loop magnitudes
(b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) (b) (A) (1,2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
ch
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
61. Match the entries given in Column I to their analogue entries (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
of electrostatics given in Column II. 64. Match the physical quantities of Column I with their
.te
om
loop (c) × × × × (d)
(C) Magnetic moment of (3) Increases from zero to +
× +× × × ×
the loop maximum
× × V× × ×
t.c
(D) Magnetic flux through (4) Increases from
the loop minimum to zero. × × × × ×
(a) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4) 69. The figure shows n (n being an even number) wires placed
po
(b) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1) along the surface of a cylinder of radius r. Each wire carries
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1) current i in the same direction. The net magnetic field on the
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3) axis of the cylinder is
gs
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
66. A current of I ampere flows in a wire forming a circular arc of
radius r metres subtending an angle at the centre as shown.
lo
.b
The magnetic field at the centre O in tesla is
ni0
r8
(a) µ0 ni (b)
2 r
I
0 ni
be
of the loops is
0I 0I
(a) (b)
4 r 2 r
ch
0I 0I
(c) (d)
.te
R1
2r 4r R3
67. An element of 0.05 i m is placed at the origin as shown R4
w
is
i 1 1 1 1
w
0
(a) 4.5 × 10–8 T P ` (a) ...
2 R1 R2 R3 R4
(b) 5.5 × 10–8 T i 1 1 1 1
0
(b) ...
(c) 5.0 × 10–8 T 2 R1 R2 R3 R4
71. The correct plot of the magnitude of magnetic field B vs 74. The figure shows two long straight current carrying wire
separated by a fixed distance d. The magnitude of current,
distance r from centre of the wire is, if the radius of wire
flowing in each wire varies with time but the magnitude of
is R
current in each wire is equal at all times.
B
(a) (b)
r R r
0 R
B B
om
Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation
(c) (d) of force per unit length f between the two wires with
current i?
t.c
0 r 0 r
R R
72. The figure shows a closely wound coil on a square core of
f f
inside edge length l. The no. of turns per unit length of the
po
coil is n. Each turn carries current i into the plane of paper (a) (b)
and out of the plane of papers. ABCD is an Amperian loop
gs
enclosing an open surface in the plane of the paper. The
i i
current enclosed by the loop is
A D
(c)
lo
f
(d)
f
.b
r8
i i
75. A charged particle enters in a magnetic field in a direction
perpendicular to the magnetic field. Which of the following
be
(a) (b)
(a) 4 ni (b) 4 nli
K.E. K.E.
(c) 8 nli (d) zero
no
73. The figure shows a thin metalic rod whose one end is pivoted
at point O. The rod rotates about the end O in a plane
perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field with angular
ch
t t
frequency w in clockwise direction. Which of the following
is correct ? (c) (d)
.te
× × × × × × K.E. K.E.
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
w
× × × O× × × t t
76.
w
×× × × × × ×× ×× × × (a) B (b) B
×× × × × × ×× ×× × ×
×× × × × × ×× ×× × ×
(a) × ×
(b) × ×
×× × × ×× ××
×× ×× × ×
×× × × × ×
×× ×× ×× × ×
× × × × r r
× × × ×
× ×
× ×
× × × × (c) B (d) B
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
(c) × × × × (d)
× × × × × × × ×
om
× × × × × × × ×
× × × ×
× × r
× × × × × × × × × × r
77. The figure shows a thin rod pivoted at point O and rotating 80. A portion of a conductive wire is bent in the form of a
semicircle of radius r as shown below in fig. At the centre of
t.c
clockwise in the plane of paper with constant angular
semicircle, the magnetic induction will be
velocity w. A bead having charge + q can slide freely on the
rod as the rod rotates.
po
i
r
× × × × i
O
gs
× × +q × × (a) zero (b) infinite
× × O × × (c)
lo 0 .
r
i
gauss (d)
0 .
r
i
tesla
× × × ×
.b
81. Two long straight wires are set parallel to each other. Each
× × × × carries a current i in the same direction and the separation
r8
decreases. 82. Three wires are situated at the same distance. A current of
78. The figure shows a closed loop bent in the form of a semi- 1A, 2A, 3A flows through these wires in the same direction.
What is ratio of F1/F2, where F1 is force on 1 and F2 on 2?
ch
circular motion. Both take some time to travel from A to B. (c) 9/8
When both the beads are at the mid-point of their journey, (d) None of these 1A 2A 3A
w
then the forces exerted by lower bead and upper bead are
respectively 83. A very long straight wire carries a current I. At the instant
w
om
B
(a) contract
(b) expand
(c) neither contract nor expand
t.c
(d) tend to rotate about an axis passing through A
and B.
Reason : For the close path, the magnetic field at each point
po
on the path is zero.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
92. Assertion : A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
gs
field. The velocity of the particle at same instant makes an
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four acute angle with the magnetic field. The path of the particle
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You is a helix with constant pitch.
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
lo
Reason : The force on the particle is given by F q v B .
.b
explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a 93. Assertion: The work done by magnetic force on a charged
correct explanation for assertion particle is zero.
r8
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect Reason: The work done by magnetic force on a charged
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. particle is zero when the force is perpendicular to velocity of
be
85. Assertion : Ampere s law used for the closed loop shown in particle, in other cases it is not zero.
figure is written as B d 0 i1 i2 . Right side of it does 94. Assertion : Alternating current shows no magnetic effect.
not include i3, because it produces no magnetic field at the Reason : The magnetic field produced by alternating current
cy
over the close loop is zero. 96. Assertion : The force between two parallel current carrying
86. Assertion: Ampere’s circuital law is independent of conductors carrying currents in same direction is attractive
Biot-Savart’s law.
.te
om
mv
field is given by r . (c) 2.79 × 10 T –4 (d) 3 × 10–4 T
qB
110. A long solenoid has 200 turns per cm and carries a current i.
101. Assertion : A cyclotron cannot accelerate neutrons.
Reason : Neutrons are neutral. The magnetic field at its centre is 6.28 × 10–2 Weber/m2.
t.c
102. Assertion: To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter a Another long solenoid has 100 turns per cm and it carries a
i
small resistance is connected in parallel with it. current . The value of the magnetic field at its centre is
po
Reason: The small resistance increases the combined 3
(a) 1.05 × 10–2 weber/m2 (b) 1.05 × 10–5 weber/m2
resistance of the combination.
(c) 1.05 × 10–3 weber/m2 (d) 1.05 × 10–4 weber/m2
gs
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 111. A solenoid of length 1.5 m and 4 cm diameter possesses 10
turns per cm. A current of 5A is flowing through it, the
103. A current I flows along the length of an infinitely long, magnetic induction at axis inside the solenoid is
straight, thin walled pipe. Then
(a) the magnetic field at all points inside the pipe is the ( 0
lo 4 10 7 weber amp 1 m 1 )
.b
same, but not zero 5 5
(b) the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the pipe (a) 4 10 gauss (b) 2 10 gauss
r8
(d) the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero 112. A long solenoid is formed by winding 20 turns/cm. The
104. The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop of current necessary to produce a magnetic field of 20
radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a distance of 4 cm from millitesla inside the solenoid will be approximately
cy
thin walled tube, then the magnetic induction at any point 113. A solenoid of length 0.6 m has a radius of 2 cm and is
inside the tube is made up of 600 turns If it carries a current of 4 A, then the
magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is
.te
0 2i
(a) . tesla (b) zero (a) 6.024 × 10–3 T (b) 8.024 × 10–3 T
r –3
(c) 5.024 × 10 T (d) 7.024 × 10–3 T
w
106. long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a one arm of the loop is F , the net force on the remaining
current of 75 A in north of south direction, magnitude and
w
om
distance from the centre becomes approximately exerted by magnetic field cannot lift it. Select the correct
(a) double (b) three times option from the following.
(c) four times (d) one-fourth
t.c
118. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The × × × × ×
ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency f Hz. The
× × × × ×
po
magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of the ring is
× × × × ×
0 qf 0q × × × × ×
gs
(a) (b)
2R 2f R
(a) When the block moves to right the machine shows
0q 0 qf more reading and when to left, less reading.
(c) 2 fR
(d)
2 R
119. A current i ampere flows in a circular arc of wire which
lo
(b) When the block moves to right the machine shows less
reading and when to left, more reading.
.b
subtends an angle (3 /2) radians at its centre, whose radius (c) The machine shows same reading which is less than
is R. The magnetic induction B at the centre is the actual weight of the block in both cases.
r8
(a) 0 i/R (b) 0 i/2R (d) The machine shows same reading which is more than
(c) 2 0 i/R (d) 3 0 i/8R the actual weight of the block in both cases.
be
120. A steady current flows down a hollow cylindrical tube of 126. A proton and a deuterium nucleus having certain kinetic
radius a and is uniformly distributed around the tube. Let r energies enter in a uniform magnetic field with same
cy
be the distance from the axis of symmetry of the tube to a component of velocity in the direction of magnetic field.
given point. What is the magnitiude of the magnetic field B Which of the following is correct ?
at a point inside the tube? (a) Proton has greater pitch of helical motion.
no
(a) 0 (b) 2 I/r c (b) Deuterium nucleus has greater pitch of helical motion.
(c) 2 I r/a2c (d) 4 (r – a) /r2 (c) Both particles have same pitch of helical motion.
ch
121. A current i ampere flows along an infinitely long straight (d) Which particle has greater pitch depends on the fact
thin walled tube, then the magnetic induction at any point that which particle has greater component of velocity
inside the tube is perpendicular to magnetic field.
.te
(a) infinite (b) zero 127. A charged particle goes undeflected in a region containing
electric and magnetic fields. It is possible that
0 2i 2i
w
B is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magnetic (c) v || B but E is not parallel to B
force acting on the loop is
(a) i r B (b) 2 r i B (d) E || B but v is not parallel to E
(c) zero (d) riB 128. A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region
123. If a charged particle has a velocity component in a direction of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upwards. This
parallel to magnetic field in addition to the component particle will
perpendicular to magnetic field then charged particle moves (a) get deflected in vertically upward direction
in magnetic field in a (b) move in circular path with an increased speed
(a) circular path (b) parabolic path (c) move in a circular path with decreased speed
(c) helical path (d) straight line (d) move in a circular path with uniform speed
EBD_7208
314 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
129. A proton moving with a constant velocity passes through a (a) helix (b) straight line
region of space without any change in its velocity. If E and (c) ellipse (d) circle
B represent the electric and magnetic fields respectively, 137. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting
this region of space may not have along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is
(a) E = 0, B = 0 (b) E = 0, B 0 projected along the direction of the fields with a certain
(c) E 0, B = 0 (d) E 0, B 0 velocity then
130. A charged particle enters into a magnetic field with a velocity (a) its velocity will increase
vector making an angle of 30º with respect to the direction of (b) its velocity will decrease
magnetic field. The path of the particle is (c) it will turn towards left of direction of motion
(a) circular (b) helical (d) it will turn towards right of direction of motion
(c) elliptical (d) straight line 138. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged
131. If a charged particle goes unaccelerated in a region particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant
om
containing electric and magnetic fields, then speed v. The time period of the motion
(a) (a) depends on both R and v
E must be perpendicular to B
(b) is independent of both R and v
(b) v must be perpendicular to E
t.c
(c) depends on R and not v
(c) E must be perpendicular to v B (d) depends on v and not on R
(d) None of these 139. If an electron describes half a revolution in a circle of radius
po
132. Two long wires are hanging freely. They are joined first in r in a magnetic field B, the energy acquired by it is
parallel and then in series and then are connected with a
1
battery. In both cases which type of force acts between the (a) zero (b) mv 2
gs
two wires? 2
(a) Attraction force when in parallel and repulsion force 1
when in series (c) lomv 2 (d) r Bev
4
(b) Repulsion force when in parallel and attraction force 140. A cell is connected between two points of a uniformly thick
.b
when in series circular conductor and i1 and i2 are the currents flowing in
(c) Repulsion force in both cases two parts of the circular conductor of radius a. The magnetic
r8
(d) Attraction force in both cases field at the centre of the loop will be
133. A charged particle with charge q enters a region of constant,
be
0
uniform and mutually orthogonal fields E and B with a (a) zero (b) ( I1 I 2 )
4
velocity v perpendicular to both E and B , and comes out
cy
along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is a from the point O in a direction perpendicular to the plane
projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along ABCD is
.te
2 a 2 a I1 I 2
135. If an electron and a proton having same momenta enter
perpendicular to a magnetic field, then 142. A current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
w
(a) curved path of electron and proton will be same experiences maximum force when angle between current and
(ignoring the sense of revolution) magnetic field is
(b) they will move undeflected (a) 3 /4 (b) /2
(c) curved path of electron is more curved than that of the (c) /4 (d) zero
proton 143. A current of 3 A is flowing in a linear conductor having a
(d) path of proton is more curved length of 40 cm. The conductor is placed in a magnetic field
136. In a region, steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields of strength 500 gauss and makes an angle of 30º with the
are present. These two fields are parallel to each other. A direction of the field. It experiences a force of magnitude
charged particle is released from rest in this region. The path (a) 3 × 10–4 N (b) 3 × 10–2 N
2
(c) 3 × 10 N (d) 3 × 104 N
of the particle will be a
MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM 315
144. A current of 10 A is flowing in a wire of length 1.5 m. A carry current of 2.5 amp. and 5 amp. respectively in the same
force of 15 N acts on it when it is placed in a uniform direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between
magnetic field of 2 T. The angle between the magnetic field the wires is
and the direction of the current is
(a) 30° (b) 45°
(a) 0 / 17 (b) 3 0 /2
(c) 60° (d) 90° (c) 0 /2 (d) 3 0 /2
145. An 8 cm long wire carrying a current of 10 A is placed
153. Through two parallel wires A and B, 10A and 2A of currents
inside a solenoid perpendicular to its axis. If the magnetic
are passed respectively in opposite directions. If the wire A
field inside the solenoid is 0.3 T, then magnetic force on
is infinitely long and the length of the wire B is 2m, then
the wire is
force on the conductor B, which is situated at 10 cm distance
(a) 0.14 N (b) 0.24 N
from A, will be
(c) 0.34 N (d) 0.44 N
(a) 8 × 10–7 N (b) 8 × 10–5 N
om
146. A 10eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a –7
uniform field at a magnetic induction 10–4 Wb/m2 (= 1.0 (c) 4 × 10 N (d) 4 × 10–5 N
gauss). The orbital radius of the electron is 154. A circular loop of area 0.02 m2 carrying a current of 10A, is
(a) 12cm (b) 16cm held with its plane perpendicular to a magnetic field induction
t.c
(c) 11 cm (d) 18 cm 0.2 T. The torque acting on the loop is
147. An electron (mass = 9 × 10 kg, charge = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
–31 (a) 0.01 Nm (b) 0.001 Nm
po
moving with a velocity of 106 m/s enters a magnetic field. If it (c) zero (d) 0.8 Nm
describes a circle of radius 0.1m, then strength of magnetic 155. A coil carrying a heavy current and having large number of
field must be turns is mounted in a N-S vertical plane. A current flows in
gs
(a) 4.5 × 10–5 T (b) 1.4 × 10–5 T the clockwise direction. A small magnetic needle at its centre
(c) 5.5 × 10 T –5 (d) 2.6 × 10–5 T will have its north pole in
148. A charged particle with velocity 2 × 103 m/s passes
undeflected through electric and magnetic field. Magnetic
lo
(a) east-north direction (b) west-north direction
(c) east-south direction (d) west-south direction
.b
field is 1.5 tesla. The electric field intensity would be 156. A galvanometer having a resistance of 80 ohms is shunted
(a) 2 × 103 N/C (b) 1.5 × 103 N/C by a wire of resistance 2 ohms. If the total current is 1amp.,
r8
circular orbit of radius 50 pm is 2.2 × 106 ms–1. Then the 158. A galvanometer of resistance 5 ohms gives a full scale
magnetic dipole moment of an electron is deflection for a potential difference of 10 mV. To convert the
(a) 1.6 × 10–19 Am2 (b) 5.3 × 10–21 Am2
ch
meter in 2 sec. The value of the magnetic field induction B in (a) 0.495 ohm (b) 49.5 ohm
tesla at the centre of circle will be (c) 495 ohm (d) 4950 ohm
159. A galvanometer of resistance 100 gives a full scale
w
19 19
(a) 2 10 0 (b) 10 / 0 deflection for a current of 10–5 A. To convert it into a ammeter
w
152. Two long parallel wires P and Q are held perpendicular to the (a) 1 in parallel (b) 10–3 in parallel
plane of paper with distance of 5 m between them. If P and Q (c) 10 5 in series (d) 100 in series
EBD_7208
316 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
om
2 r 2 m
3. (d) According to Ampere’s circuital law B . dl o I T=
v qB
4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b)
t.c
i 10 mv2 mv
7. (b) Magnetic field is given by B i.e., B which 33. (a) Bqv = r
2 r r r Bq
implies that field has cylindrical symmetry.
po
34. (a)
8. (a) 9. (c)
10. (c) Field at the center of a circular coil of radius r is 35. (b)
gs
0I 36. (b)
B= i i
2r
11. (b) Magnetic field at a point on one end of a solenoid
lo F
.b
1
B= ni
2
r8
12. (b) B = ni
13. (b) Because B = ni B ni 2
be
F 0 i1 i 2 0i
14. (b) It will compress due to the force of attraction between =
2 d 2 d
two adjacent coils carrying current in the same direction.
cy
15. (c) As Lorentz force is given by (attractive as current is in the same direction)
37. (c)
F q E V B qE q V B
no
mv 2 mv
F FE FB 38. (d) F qVB R
R Bq
16. (b)
ch
17. (b) Parallel currents attract and anti-parallel currents repel 39. (c)
can be verified by the application of right hand thumb 40. (a) Current loop acts as a magnetic dipole. Its magnetic
.te
NiAB E
45. (b) N Number of turns Case I Fe = FB v=
C B
C E
46. (b) i i Case II Fe > FB v<
B
NAB
47. (d) sin max NiAB, [ = 90°] Case III Fe < FB v>E/B
48. (c) 56. (c) If charge is not moving then the magnetic force is
49. (c) Current sensitivity of a galvanometer is the amount of zero.
deflection produced in the galvanometer when unit
Since F m q (v B)
current flows through it.
om
As v = 0, for stationary charge
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
Fm = 0
50. (c) The Biot–Savart’s law for the magnetic field has
t.c
certain similarities as well as differences with the 57. (c)
Coulomb’s law for the electrostatic field. Some of 58. (b) The frequency of revolution is given by
po
these are :
qB
(i) Both are long range, since both depend inversly on .
2 m
the square of distance from the source to the point
gs
of interest. The principle of superposition applies to 1
If charge is constant, then
both fields. In this connection, note that the magnetic m
field is linear in the source Idl just as the electrostatic 59. (a) The galvanometer cannot as such be used as an
lo
field is linear in its source the electric charge. ammeter to measure the value of the current in a
.b
(ii) The electrostatic field is produced by a scalar source, given circuit. This is for two reasons (i) Galvanometer
namely, the electric charge. The magnetic field is is a very sensitive device, it gives a full-scale
r8
produced by a vector source Idl. deflection for a current of the order of A. (ii) For
51. (b) measuring currents, the galvanometer has to be
be
(i) Lorentz force depends on q, v and B (charge of the connected in series and as it has a large resistance,
particle, the velocity and the magnetic field). Force this will change the value of the current in the circuit.
cy
(become zero) if velocity and magnetic field are 62. (c) (A) (1, 2, 3, 4) ; (B) (1, 2, 4) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
parallel or anti-parallel. The force acts in a (sideways) 63. (b) (A) (1,2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (2)
.te
direction perpendicular to both the velocity and the 64. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (3)
magnetic field. Its direction is given by the screw 65. (b) A - (3) I = mB sin , as sin from 0 1.
w
om
which gives direction of force towards centre. on the section of loop where the field is pointing towards
69. (c) Since n is an even number, we can assume the wires in the reader.
pairs such that the two wires forming a pair is placed
77. (d) Since P.E. = – m B mB cos 0
t.c
diametrically opposite to each other on the surface of
P.E. = –mB
cylinder. The fields produced on the axis by them are
Since m increases in magnitude, therefore P.E.
po
equal and opposite and can get cancelled with each
other. decreases.
70. (b) Field at the centre of a circular current loop is given by 78. (d) Obviously gravitational and electric force is there as
gs
both the particle have mass and charge. Since both
i
B . Since the currents are alternately in opposite charges are in motion so they constitute currents which
2R lo
generate magnetic fields around them and thus exert
directions therefore the correct net field at centre is magnetic force on each other.
.b
given by vector sum of field produced by each loop 79. (c)
which are alternately in opposite directions. 80. (d) The straight part will not contribute magnetic field at the
r8
71. (b) The magnetic field from the centre of wire of radius centre of the semicircle because every element of the
R is given by straight part will be 0º or 180º with the line joining the
be
72. (d) Since the total current going into the surface is equal
to total current coming out of the surface, therefore i i
81. (c) B 0
. 0
. 0
current enclosed is zero. 2 r 2 r
.te
73. (b) The application of equation FB q V B on the 82. (a) Due to flow of current in same direction at adjacent
side, an attractive magnetic force will be produced.
w
× × F Q( v B) Q( v î ) B( k̂ ) QvBĵ
along OY..
× × ×
84. (b) As the current flows in the spiral in clockwise direction,
dl
× × ×
MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM 319
om
103. (d) There is no current inside the pipe. Therefore
equal and opposite and so B 0 .
89. (a) Reversing the direction of the current reverses the B.dt µo I
t.c
direction of the magnetic field. However, it has no effect
I=0 B= 0
on the magnetic-field energy density, which is
proportional to the square of the magnitude of the
po
0i a2
magnetic field. B
104. (c) 3
2(x 2 a2) 2
90. (c) Due to electric field, the force is F qE in the direction
gs
of E . Since E is parallel to B , the particle velocity v 3
lo 0i 0i a2 (x 2 a2 ) 2
(acquired due to force F ) is parallel to B . Hence B B'
2a 3 a2
2a(x 2 a2 ) 2
.b
will not exert any force since v B 0 and the motion
r8
velocity of the charged particle so, work done is always from symmetry.
zero.
ch
B.dl i
94. (d) Current shows magnetic effect, but in one cmplete cycle
the net magnetic field beocmes zero.
B 2 r i
.te
0
95. (c) The magnetic field inside conductor is given by
Here i is zero, for r < R, whereas R is radius
0 ir
B= 2 . 2 B 0
w
a
106. (c) From Ampere circuital law
For thin conductor, the point is on the axis of the
w
2
107. (d) 6.28 10 2
(1) B2 1.05 10 Wb / m 2
6
111. (d) B 0n 4 10 7
10 5 2 10 5 T.
(2)
B
112. (a) B = 0ni i=
0n
3
20 10
The magnetic field due to circular coil, = = 7.9 A = 8 A
7
4 10 20 100
3 10 2
om
µ0i1 0 i1 0
B1 600
2r 2 (2 10 2 ) 4 113. (c) Here, n = = 1000 turns / m I = A
0.6
1
t.c
0i2 0 4 102 I = 0.6 m, r = 0.02 m
r
= 30 i.e. I >> r
B2 Hence, we can use long solenoid formula, them
2(2 10 2 ) 4
B = 0nI = 4 × 10–7 × 103 × 4
po
= 50.24 × 10–4 = 5.024 × 10–3 T
B= B12 B 22 = 0
. 5 × 102
4 114. (b) The force on the two arms parallel to the field is zero.
gs
B = 10 7 5 10 2 B = 5 × 10–5 Wb / m2 <
108. (b) Let be length of wire lo <
<
F
.b
Ist case : =2 r r B
2 –F
r8
<
0I 0I
B
be
2nd Case : 2( 2 r ) N0
r 115. (c)
cy
B 0 N0 i ; B1 ( 0) (2 i) 0 N 0i B
4 2
B1 = B
no
0 In 2 0I
B (where n = 2) 116. (d) Since no current is enclosed inside the hollow
2 conductor. Hence Binside = 0.
4 2
ch
0 NI
117. (c) Baxis = R2
0I 3
B = 4 4B 2x
.te
R = 9 cm = 9 × 10–2 m, and I = 0.4 A So, when radius is doubled, magnetic field becomes
four times.
w
7
0 NI 2 10 100 0.4 118. (a) Magnetic field at the centre of the ring is
Now, B = 2
w
2R 9 10 0 qf
2R
2 3.14 0.4 3
= 10 119. (d) 120. (a) 121. (b) 122. (c)
9
123. (c) With parallel component it will move in the direction of
= 0.279 × 10–3 T = 0.279 × 10–4 T magnetic field and with perpendicular component it will
trace circular path and the combination of both these
i
100 yield helical path.
B2 0 n 2i2 B2 3
110. (a)
B1 0 n1i1 6.28 10 2 200 i
MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM 321
139. (a) Since magnetic force is always perpendicular to the
work done
124. (d) Power = velocity of electron, so it can only change the direction
time
of velocity of electron, but it (the magnetic force) cannot
As no work is done by magnetic force on the charged accelerate or deaccelerate the electron.
particle because magnetic force is perpendicular to 140. (a) Let 1, 2 be the lengths of the two parts PRQ and PSQ of
velocity, hence power delivered is zero. the conductor and be the resistance per unit length of
125. (b) When the block moves to the right application of the conductor. The resistance of the portion PRQ will be
equation FB q V B gives magnetic force in R1 = 1
om
126. (b) Due to perpendicular component both will execute S O Q
2 m R
circular motion for which T . Since q is same,
t.c
qB P I1
therefore T m. Hence deuterium nucleus will travel
po
more distance.
127. (a) 128. (d) 129. (c) The resistance of the portion PSQ will be R2 = 2
130. (b) 131. (a) 132. (a) Pot. diff. across P and Q = I1 R1 = I2 R2
gs
or I1 1 = I2 2 or I1 1 = I2 2 ...(1)
133. (b) Here, E and B are perpendicular to each other and the
Magnetic field induction at the centre O due to currents
velocity v does not change; therefore
E
lo
through circular conductors PRQ and PSQ will be
.b
qE = qvB v 0 1 1 sin 90º 0 2 2 sin 90º
B = B1 – B2 2 2
0.
4 r 4 r
r8
r
If velocity v is to both E and B , 141. (c) The point P is lying symmetrically w.r.t. the two long
straight current carrying conductors. The magnetic
be
E B E Bsin E B sin 90 E
Also, 2 2 2
|v| v fields at P due to these current carrying conductors are
B B B B
mutually perpendicular.
cy
Time period, T
2 R 2 mv 2 m
.....(2) m v2 mv (9 10 31 ) 10 6
147. (c) Bqv or B
v Bqv Bq r rq 0.1 (1.6 10 19 )
Time period T does not depend on both R and v because
when v is changed, R is also changed proportionately 5.5 10 5 T
and for period, it is R/v that is taken.
EBD_7208
322 MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
om
156. (c) [Hint S × (I – Ig) = Rg × Ig ]
2 i0
151. (c) B where 157. (b) Ig 0.1I, Is 0.9 I ; S I g R g / Is
4 r
t.c
19 0.1 900 / 0.9 100 .
2e 2 1.6 10 19
i 1.6 10 A 158. (c) Ig = 10 × 10–3/5 = 2 × 10–3 A;
t 2
po
19
V 1
i 1.6 10 R Rg 5 495 .
B 0 0
0 10 19
T Ig 2 10 3
2r 2 0.8
gs
159. (b) Here, Rg = 100 ; Ig = 10–5 A; I =1A; S = ?
lo
S
gRg
I - Ig
10 5
1 10
100
5
10 3
in parallel
.b
r8
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
20
MAGNETISM AND MATTER
om
8. When a current in a circular loop is equivalently replaced
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
by a magnetic dipole
1. The magnetism of magnet is due to (a) the pole strength m of each pole is fixed
(a) pressure of big magnet inside the earth
po
(b) the distance d between the poles is fixed
(b) earth (c) the product md is fixed
(c) cosmic rays (d) None of these
gs
(d) the spin motion of electron 9. Magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet do not intersect
2. The primary origin (s) of magnetism lies in because
(a) atomic currents
(b) polar nature of molecules
lo
(a) a point always has a single net magnetic field
(b) the lines have similar charges and so repel each other
.b
(c) extrinsic spin of electron (c) the lines always diverge from a single force
(d) None of these (d) the lines need magnetic lenses to be made to interest
r8
3. For bar magnet effective length (Le) related with geometrical 10. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet
length (Lg) as (a) are from N-pole to S-pole of magnet
be
(a) (b)
6. Current I is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns is r r2
N, then magnetic moment of the coil in M equal to
(a) NIA (b) NI/A 1
(c) (d) None of these
r3
(c) NI/ A (d) N2 AI
14. Magnetic field intensity is defined as
7. Magnetic dipole moment is a vector quantity directed from
(a) Magnetic moment per unit volume
(a) south pole to north pole (b) Magnetic induction force acting on a unit magnetic
(b) north pole to south pole pole
(c) east to west (c) Number of lines of force crossing per unit area
(d) west to east (d) Number of lines of force crossing per unit volume
EBD_7208
324 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
15. On cutting a solenoid in half, the field lines remain ...A..., 26. One can define ...A... of a place as the vertical plane which
emerging from one face of the solenoid and entering into passes through the imaginary line joining the magnetic
the other face. North and the South–poles.
Here, A refers to Here, A refers to
(a) irregular (b) discontinuous (a) geographic meridian (b) magnetic meridian
(c) continuous (d) alternate (c) magnetic declination (d) magnetic inclination
16. The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is thus ...A... to the 27. The ratio of intensity of magnetisation and magnetising
magnetic moment of an equivalent solenoid that produces field is called
the same magnetic field. (a) permeability (b) magnetic intensity
Here, A refers to (c) magnetic intensity (d) magnetic susceptibility
28. Susceptibility is positive and large for a
(a) unequal (b) different
(a) paramagnetic substance
(c) equal (d) same
(b) ferromagnetic substance
om
17. The lines of force due to earth’s horizontal magnetic field
(c) diamagnetic substance
are (d) non magnetic substance
(a) parallel and straight (b) concentric circles 29. The relation between B, H and in S. . units is
t.c
(c) elliptical (d) curved lines
18. The earth’s magnetic field always has a vertical component (a) B 0 (H ) (b) B H 4
except at the (c) H 0 (B ) (d) None of these
po
(a) magnetic equator (b) magnetic poles 30. If 0 is absolute permeability of vacuum and r is relative
(c) geographic north pole (d) latitude 45º magnetic permeability of another medium, then permeability
19. At magnetic poles, the angle of dip is
gs
of the medium is
(a) 45º (b) 30º (a) 0 r (b) 0/ r
(c) zero (d) 90º (c) r/ 0 (d) 1/ 0 r
20. The strength of the earth’s magnetic field is
(a) constant everywhere
31. lo
Which of the following is not correct about relative
magnetic permeability ( ,)?
.b
(b) zero everywhere (a) It is a dimensionsless pure ratio.
(c) having very high value (b) For vacuum medium its value is one.
r8
(d) vary from place to place on the earths surface (c) For ferromagnetic materials , > > 1
21. At the magnetic north pole of the earth, the value of the (d) For paramagnetic materials , > 1.
32.
be
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field and angle of Hysterisis is the phenomenon of lagging of
dip are respectively (a) I behind B (b) B behind I
(a) zero, maximum (b) maximum, minimum (c) I and B behind H (d) H behind I
cy
(c) maximum, maximum (d) minimum, minimum 33. Metals getting magnetised by orientation of atomic magnetic
moments in external magnetic field are called
22. The magnetic compass is not useful for navigation near the
(a) diamagnetic (b) paramagnetic
no
23. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal (c) large and positive (d) large and negative
plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It will 35. Which magnetic materials have negative susceptibility?
(a) stay in north-south direction only
.te
om
42. A material is placed in a magnetic field and it is thrown out (a) decreases in a diamagnetic material
of it. Then the material is (b) decreases in a paramagnetic material
(a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic (c) decreases in a ferromagnetic material
t.c
(c) ferromagnetic (d) non-magnetic (d) remains the same in a diamagnetic material
43. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves 53. Identify the correctly matched pair
(a) perpendicular to field (a) Diamagnetic - Gadolinium
po
(b) from stronger to weaker parts of field (b) Soft ferromagnetic - Alnico
(c) from weaker to stronger parts of the field (c) Hard ferromagnetic - Copper
(d) None of these
gs
(d) Paramagnetic - Sodium
44. A temporary magnet is made of 54. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field.
(a) cast iron (b) steel
It experiences
lo
(c) soft iron (d) stainless steel
(a) neither a force nor a torque
45. The hysteresis cycle for the material of permanent magnet is
(b) a torque but not a force
.b
(a) short and wide (b) tall and narrow
(c) a force but not a torque
(c) tall and wide (d) short and narrow
r8
46. Materials suitable for permanent magnet, must have (d) a force and a torque
which of the following properties? 55. If 0 is absolute permeability of vacuum and r is relative
magnetic permeability of another medium, then permeability
be
48. The materials suitable for making electromagnets should (d) non magnetic substance
have 57. Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are r and
(a) high retentivity and low coercivity
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om
(a) Ferromagnetic domains are perfectly arranged substance domains
(b) Ferromagnetic domains become random (a) align in the direction of magnetic field
(c) Ferromagnetic domains are not influenced (b) align in the opposite direction of magnetic field
t.c
(d) Ferromagnetic material changes into diamagnetic (c) remain undeflected
material (d) None of these
63. A substance which retains magnetic moment for a long 75. The magnetic moment of atoms of diamagnetic substances
po
time is is
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic (a) equal to zero (b) less than zero
gs
(c) Ferromagnetic (d) Non magnetic (c) greater than 1 (d) none of these
64. Ferromagnetism arises due to 76. If the susceptibility of dia, para and ferromagnetic materials
(a) vacant inner shells of an atom are d, p, f respectively, then
(b) filled inner sub shells of an atom
(c) partially filled inner sub shells
lo
(a) d < p < f (b) d < f < p
.b
(c) f < d < p (d) f < p < d
(d) large number of electrons in valence orbit
77. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substances
65. Domain is a region where in all atoms have their magnetic
r8
(d) para and ferromagnet substance 79. If a paramagnetic liquid is placed in a watch glass, resting
67. The magnetic susceptibility is given by on the pole pieces, the liquid accumulates where the field is
1 B (a) zero (b) weak
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(a) (b)
H H (c) strong (d) None of these
M net Mz
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
w
(c) (d)
V H
68. 80. Which of the following statements is / are correct about
w
Iron is ferromagnetic
(a) above 770°C (b) below 770°C magnetism ?
w
(c) at all temperature (d) above 1100°C I. The Earth behaves as a magnet with the magnetic
field pointing approximately from the geographic
69. According to Curie’s law,
South to the North.
1 II. When a bar magnet is freely suspended, it points in
(a) T Tc (b) T Tc the North–South direction. The tip which points to
the geographic North is called the North –pole and
1
(c) (d) T the tip which points to georaphic South is called the
T South–pole of magnet.
70. Susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance is III. There is a repulsive force when North–poles (or
(a) > 1 (b) < 1 South–poles) of two magnets are brought close
(c) 0 (d) 1 together. Conversely, there is an attractive force
MAGNETISM AND MATTER 327
between the North–pole of one magnet and the 85. Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect
South–pole of other. statement(s)
IV. We can isolate the North or South–pole of a magnet. I A paramagnetic material tends to move from a strong
(a) I and II magnetic field to weak magnetic field
(b) I, II and IV II A magnetic material is in the paramagnetic phase below
(c) III and IV its Curie temperature.
(d) I, II and III III The resultant magnetic moment in an atom of a
81. Consider the given statements with respect to the figure diamagnetic substance is zero
showing a bar of diamagnetic material placed in an (a) I only (b) II only
external magnetic field. (c) I and II (d) I, II and III
I. The field lines are repelled or expelled and the field
inside the material is reduced. MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
om
II. When placed in a non–uniform magnetic field, the 86. Match the columns I and II.
bar will tend to move from high to low field. Column I Column II
III. Reduction in the field inside the material slight, (A) Axial field for a short (1) – M.B
being one part in 105
t.c
dipole
(B) Equatorial field for a (2) M × B
short dipole
po
(C) External field torque (3) 0 2M/4 r3
(D) External field energy (4) – 0 M/4 r3
(a) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
gs
(b) (A) (3) ; (B) (4) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (1)
(c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I and II 87.
lo
(d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ;
Column I
(C) (4) ; (D) (3)
Column II
.b
(b) I and III (A) Horizontal component (1) BE sin
(c) II and III BV
r8
statement(s).
susceptibility
I Diamagnetism is temperature independent.
(C) Positive and large (3) Paramagnetic
II Paramagnetism is explained by domain theory.
.te
susceptibility
III Above curie temperature a ferromagnetic material
(D) Loadstone (4) Magnetite
becomes paramagnetic. (a) A (3); B (2); C (4); D (1)
IV Magnetic susceptibility is small and negative for
w
84. Consider the following statements and select the correct DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
statement(s).
I Diamagnetic materials do not have permanent magnetic 89. A steel wire of length has a magnetic moment M. It is
moment bent in L-shape (Figure). The new magnetic moment is
II Diamagnetism is explained in terms of electromagnetic (a) M
induction M
(b)
III Diamagnetic materials have a small positive 2 2
susceptibility
(a) I only (b) II only M
(c)
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III 2
2
(d) 2M
EBD_7208
328 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
90. Imagine rolling a sheet of paper into a cylinder and placing
a bar magnet near its end as shown in figure. What can you Y Y
say about the sign of B.dA for every area dA on the
surface?
(c) (d)
(a) Positive
X X
(b) Negative O 1/T O 1/T
(c) No sign
94. The B – H curve (i) and (ii) shown in fig associated with
(d) Can be positive or negative
91. Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in
om
different configurations. Each magnet has magnet ic dipole (i)
moment m . Which configuration has highest net magnetic (ii)
dipole moment ? H
t.c
N
N S
po
A. B. (a) (i) diamagnetic and (ii) paramagnetic substance
S N (b) (i) paramagnetic and (ii) ferromagnetic substance
S S N (c) (i) soft iron and (ii) steel
gs
(d) (i) steel and (ii) soft iron
N 95. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (x) with temperature
N for a diamagnetic substance is best represented by
C. 30º D.
60º (a)
lo (b)
S N
.b
S N
(a) A (b) B
r8
(c) C (d) D O T O T
92. A curve between magnetic moment and temperature of
be
magnet is
M M (c) (d)
cy
(a) (b)
no
T T
O O T
O T O
ch
M M
96. The magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet are correctly
shown in
.te
(c) (d)
T T N
O O N
w
(a) (b)
93. The graph between and 1/T for paramagnetic material
w
will be represented by S S
w
Y Y
N N
(a) (b) (c) (d)
X X S S
O 1/T O 1/T
MAGNETISM AND MATTER 329
97. The given figure represents a material which is 103. Assertion : The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer
is increased by placing a suitable magnetic material as a
core inside the coil.
Reason : Soft iron has high magnetic permeability and
cannot be easily magnetized or demagnetized.
104. Assertion : Magnetism is relativistic.
(a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic Reason : When we move along with the charge so that
(c) ferromagnetic (d) none of these there is no motion relative to us, we find no magnetic field
98. The basic magnetization curve for a ferromagnetic material associated with the charge.
is shown in figure. Then, the value of relative permeability 105. Assertion : The ferromagnetic substance do not obey
is highest for the point Curie’s law.
Reason : At Curie point a ferromagnetic substance start
om
behaving as a paramagnetic substance.
1.5 106. Assertion : A paramagnetic sample display greater
R S magnetisation (for the same magnetic field) when cooled.
t.c
Reason : The magnetisation does not depend on
1.0
temperature.
B(Tesla)
po
107. Assertion : Electromagnets are made of soft iron.
0.5 Reason : Coercivity of soft iron is small.
P
gs
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
108. A bar magnet has a length 8 cm. The magnetic field at a
O0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 lo
3 point at a distance 3 cm from the centre in the broad side-on
H (× 10 A/m) position is found to be 4×10–6 T. The pole strength of the
.b
magnet is.
(a) P (b) Q (a) 6 × 10–5 Am (b) 5 × 10–5 Am
r8
(c) R (d) S –4
(c) 2 × 10 Am (d) 3 × 10–4 Am
109. Two bar magnets of the same mass, same length and breadth
be
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four assembly in a magnetic field of strength H is 3 seconds. If
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You now the polarity of one of the magnets is reversed and
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. combination is again made to oscillate in the same field, the
no
om
114. Time periods of vibation of two bar magnets in sum and of earth’s field = 3.2 × 10–5 T, then pole strength of magnet
difference positions are 4 sec and 6 sec respectively. The is
ratio of their magnetic moments M1 / M2 is
(a) 5 ab-amp × c (b) 10 ab-amp × cm
t.c
(a) 6 : 4 (b) 30 : 16
(c) 2.5 ab-amp × cm (d) 20 ab-amp × cm
(c) 2 . 6 : 1 (d) 1 . 5 : 1
115. A magnet of magnetic moment 20 C.G.S. units is freely 122. At a certain place, the angle of dip is 30º and the horizontal
po
suspended in a uniform magnetic field of intensity 0.3 component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.50 oerested. The
C.G.S. units. The amount of work done in deflecting it by earth’s total magnetic field (in oerested) is
gs
an angle of 30° in C.G.S. units is
(a) 3 (b) 1
(a) 6 (b) 3 3
(c) 3(2 3) (d) 3 (c)
lo
1
3
(d)
1
2
.b
116. A magnet of length 0.1 m and pole strength 10–4 A.m. 123. Two magnets are held together in a vibration magnetometer
is kept in a magnetic field of 30 Wb / m2 at an angle 30°. and are allowed to oscillate in the earth’s magnetic field
r8
The couple acting on it is ........ × 10–4 Nm. with like poles together. 12 oscillations per minute are made
(a) 7.5 (b) 3.0 but for unlike poles together only 4 oscillations per minute
be
the earth with north pole pointing north. Neutral points (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 4
are found at a distance of 30 cm from the magnet on the 124. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is
no
10–5 tesla)
(a) 14.6 (b) 19.4 125. A torque of 10 5
Nm is required to hold a magnet at 90°
w
(c) 9.7 (d) 4.9 with the horizontal component H of the earth’s magnetic
118. A bar magnet of moment of inertia 9 × l0–5 kg m2 placed in field. The torque to hold it at 30° will be
w
om
(c) 104 (d) 103 be passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and number of
130. A permanent magnet in the shape of a thin cylinder of turns 100, so that the magnet gets demagnetized when inside
length 10 cm has magnetisation (M) = 106 A m–1. Its the solenoid, is:
magnetization current IM is
t.c
(a) 30 mA (b) 60 mA
(a) 105 A (b) 106 A (c) 3 A (d) 6 A
(c) 10 A7 (d) 108 A 136. A bar magnet has coercivity 4 × 103 Am–1. It is desired to
po
131. If relative permeability of iron is 2000. Its absolute demagnetise it by inserting it inside a solenoid 12 cm long
permeability in S. . units is and having 60 turns. The current that should be sent
(a) 8 × 10–4 (b) 8 × 10–3 through the solenoid is
gs
(c) 800/ (d) 8 × 109/ (a) 2 A (b) 4 A
132. The relative permeability of a medium is 0.075. What is its (c) 6 A (d) 8 A
magnetic susceptibility?
(a) 0.925 (b) – 0.925
lo
137. A magnetising field of 2 × 103 amp/m produces a magnetic
flux density of 8 tesla in an iron rod. The relative
.b
(c) 1.075 (d) –1.075 permeability of the rod will be
133. At a temperatur of 30°C, the susceptibility of a ferromagnetic (a) 102 (b) 100
r8
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 49. (c) Core of electromagnets are made of soft iron that is
a ferromagnetic material with high permeability and
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) low retentivity.
6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d) 50. (a) Permanent magnets are those substances that retain
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) their ferromagnetic property for a long period of time
14. (b) Number of lines of force passing through per unit at room temperature.
om
area normally is intensity of magnetic field, hence 51. (d) Permanent magnet – Loud speaker
option (c) is incorrect. The correct option is (b). 52. (d) When the temperature of a magnetic material
15. (c) The field lines remain continuous, emerging from decreases, the magnetization remains the same in a
t.c
one face of the solenoid and entering into the other diamagnetic material.
face. 53. (d)
16. (c) The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is thus equal 54. (d) A magnetic needle kept in non uniform magnetic field
po
to the magnetic moment of an equivalent solenoid experience a force and torque due to unequal forces
that produces the same magnetic field. acting on poles.
17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d)
gs
55. (a) r 0, as r / 0.
20. (d) The streangth of the earths magnetic field is not
56. (b) For ferromagnetic substances, m is large and
constant. It varies from one place to other place on
the surface of earth. Its value being of the order of
10–5 T.
lo
positive.
57. (a) 1 and r 1.
.b
r
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (d) 58. (c)
25. (a) The earth,s core is hot and molten. Hence,
r8
H H
26. (b) Magnetic meridian of a place is defined as the 60. (d)
vertical plane which passes through the imaginary 61. (b) A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves from
cy
line joining the magnetic North and South-poles. stronger to the weaker parts of the field.
This pane would intersect the surface of the Earth 62. (b) Beyond curie temperature, ferormagnetic material turns
in a longitude like circle.
no
32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (b)
74. (a) By the property of ferromagnetic substance.
37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 41. (a) 41. (a)
w
75. (a)
42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (d) Materials suitable for permanent magnets should 76. (a) d p f
have high retentivity, high coercivity and high
For diamagnetic substance d is small negative (10–5)
permeability.
47. (a) For paramagnetic substances p is small and positive
48. (b) Electro magnet should be amenable to magnetisation (10–3 to 10–5)
and demagnetization
retentivity should be low and coercivity should be For ferromagnetic substanes f is very large
low. (103 to 105)
MAGNETISM AND MATTER 333
82. (b)
1
77. (b) As magnetic susceptibility m , therefore 83. (b) Domain theory is for ferromagnetic substance.
T
84. (c) Susceptibility of diamagnetic substance is negative
and it does not change with temperature.
2 T1 273 73 200
2 2 85. (c) Diamagnetic substances are those substances in
1 T2 0.0060 273 173 100 which resultant magnetic moment in an atom is zero.
A paramagnetic material tends to move from a weak
2=2×0.0060 = 0.0120
78. (b) Ferromagnetic substance has magnetic domains magnetic field to strong magnetic field.
A magnetic material is in the paramagnetic phase above
whereas paramagnetic substances have magnetic
its Curie temperature.
dipoles which get attracted to a magnetic field.
Typical domain size of a ferromagnetic material in 1
Diamagnetic substances do not have magnetic dipole mm.
om
but in the presence of external magnetic field due to
their orbital motion of electrons these substances are
repelled. MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
79. (c)
86. (a) (A) 3; (B) 4; (C) 2; (D) 1
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 87. (b) 88. (c)
po
80. (d) (i) The Earth behaves as a magnet with the DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
magnetic field pointing appoximately from the 89. (b) Magnetic moment, M = m
gs
geographic South to the North.
(ii) When a bar magnet is freely suspended, it M
m , where m is the polestrength.
points in the North-South direction. The tip which
points to the geographic North is called the North
lo
Therefore distance between poles
.b
pole and the tip which points to the geographic
South is called the South-pole of the magnet. 2 2
2 2 =
r8
2
(iii) There is a repulsive force when North poles (or
South-poles) of two magnets are brought close
be
m M
together. Conversely there is an attractive force So, M'
2 2
between the North-pole of one magnet and the
90. (b) The field is entering into the surface so flux is negative.
cy
magnetic North and South poles known as magnetic 92. (c) Magnetism of a magnet falls with rise of temperatue
monopoles do not exist. and becomes practically zero above curie temperature.
93. (d) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (d) 97. (b)
.te
H
According to the given graph, slope of the graph is
w
highest at point Q.
w
om
1
r 0N M = (1.27 1021 ) (2.1 10 –23 )
s . 10
2 RBH
104. (b) A magnetic field is produced by the motion of electric = 2.7 × 10–3 J/T
111. (a) Magnetic moment = M; Initial angle through which
t.c
charge. Since motion is relative, the magnetic field is
also relative. magnet is turned ( 1) = 90º and final angle which
105. (c) The susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance magnet is turned ( 2)= 60º. Work done in turning the
po
decreases with the rise of temperature in a complicated magnet through
manner. After Curies point in the susceptibility of 90º(W1) = MB (cos 0º – cos 90º)= MB (1–0) = MB.
gs
ferromagnetic substance varies inversely with its
Similarly, W2 = MB (cos 0º – cos 60º)
absolute tempearture. Ferromagnetic substance obey’s
Curie’s law only above its Curie point. lo 1 MB
106. (d) A paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation
MB 1 .
2 2
when cooled, this is because at lower temperature, the
.b
tendency to disrupt the alignment of dipoles (due to W1 = 2W2 or n = 2.
magnetising field) decreases on account of reduced 112. (a) For stable equilibrium
r8
and off by switching the current on and off. or = 1.5 × 10–5 N–m.
As the material in electromagnets is subjected to cyclic
cy
purpose.
3
= 20 × 0.3(1 – cos 30°) = 6 1 2 = 3(2 3)
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
.te
108. (a) Magnetic field due to a bar magnet in the broad-side 116. (c) = MB sin = m × (2 ) × B sin
on position is given by = 10–4 × 0.1 × 30 sin 30° = 1.5 × 10–4 Nm
w
µ0 M
117. (c) Here, r = 30cm = 0.3cm
B = ;M m .
w
4 3/ 2
2
2 0M
r
4 we know BH 3.6 10 –5
w
3
4 r
After substituting the values and simplifying we get
B = 6 10 5 A -m 3.6 10–5
M (0.3)3
–7
T22 2M M
10
109. (b) 3 T2 T1 3 3 3 s.
T12 2M M Hence, M = 9.7 Am2
110. (c) The volume of the needle, 118. (d) Given, I = 9 × 10–5 kg m2, B = 16 2 × 10–5 T
V = (3 10 2 ) (1 10 3 ) (0.5 10 3 )
15 3
T= s
= 1.5 × 10–8 m3 20 4
MAGNETISM AND MATTER 335
In a vibration magnetometer 125. (a) The torque acting on the magnet of magnetic moment
om
W = MB (cos – cos 180°) = 2MB
Where BH1 = 24 10 6 T
3 3
M1 d1 40 64 The magnetic field produced by, wire
120. (c) For null deflection
t.c
M2 d2 50 125
µ0 i
B = .
2 r
po
6
121. (a) Here, 2 8 cm , 4 cm , d 3 cm .
2 –7 (18)
= (2 10 )
At neutral point, 0.20
gs
0 M = 1.8 10 6
T
H B
4 2 2 3/2
(d ) lo
Now BH 2 = BH1 B = 42 × 10–6 T
.b
M M
10 7 2 3 I
(5 10 ) 1250 T2 = 2 … (ii)
MBH 2
r8
5
M 1250 H 1250 3.2 10 Am 2 Using equations (i) and (ii) , and substituting the
be
values, we get
M 1250 3.2 10 5
m A m.
2 8 10 2 T2 = 0.076 s
cy
= 5 ab-amp cm.
µ = µr µ0 (5501) (4 10 7 )
H 0.50 0.50 2
122. (c)
ch
B 1/ 3 = 6.9 × 10–3
cos cos 30º 3
128. (a) Intensity of magnetisation
60 60
.te
H B
Since = = =
w
124. (c) H r
0 0H 0H
8
= 7 = 104
B V 4 10 2 103
Horizontal component of earth’s field, H Bcos , 130. (a) As B = MIM = (I + IM)
since, 60 Here, I =
1 Then MI = (IM)
5
3.6 10 B B 7.2 10 5 Tesla
2 IM = MI = 106 × 0.13 10–5 A
EBD_7208
336 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
om
T
m1 T2 273 333 606 N 60
2 n = 500 turn metre–1
T1 273 30 303 l 0.12
m2
t.c
m2 m1 /2 0.5 m1 0.5 . m1 H 4 103
i 8A
134. (b) The total magnetic moment per unit volume. i.e., n 500
po
magnetisation
B
(8.52 1028 ) (2 9.27 10 24
) 137. (d) r
I= 0H
gs
0
1
0
(Where n = number of turns per unit length)
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
21
ELECTROMAGNETIC
INDUCTION
om
8. The laws of electromagnetic induction have been used in
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
the construction of a
1. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with an electric circuit (a) galvanometer (b) voltmeter
changes, an emf is induced in the circuit. This is called (c) electric motor (d) generator
po
(a) electromagnetic induction 9. Two identical coaxial circular loops carry a current i each
(b) lenz’s law circulating in the same direction. If the loops approach each
(c) hysteresis loss other, you will observe that the current in
gs
(d) kirchhoff’s laws (a) each increases
2. An induced e.m.f. is produced when a magnet is plunged (b) each decreases
into a coil. The strength of the induced e.m.f. is independent
of
lo
(c) each remains the same
(d) one increases whereas that in the other decreases
.b
(a) the strength of the magnet 10. Which of the following represents correct formula for
(b) number of turns of coil magnetic flux?
r8
(b) magnetic field is produced by time varying electric (a) total charge per unit area.
flux. (b) total current through a surface.
(c) total number of magnetic field lines passing normally
no
(c) the number of turns in the coil of the galvanometer are v making an angle with length l and perpendicular to
changed magnetic field B is
w
om
(c) The induced e.m.f. is opposite to the direction of the
flux. 26. The S unit of inductance, the henry can be written as
(d) None of the above. (a) weber/ampere (b) volt second/ampere
17. (c) joule/ampere2 (d) all of the above
t.c
A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is
connected to galvanometer, its pointer is deflected, because 27. The mutual inductance between two coils depends on
(a) induced current is set up (a) medium between the coils
po
(b) no induced current is set up (b) separation between the two coils
(c) the coil behaves as a magnet (c) orientation of the two coils
(d) the number of turns is changed (d) All of the above
gs
18. A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis of a circular ML2
coil. On rotating the magnet about its axis, the coil will have 28. Which of the following units denotes the dimension ,
induced in it lo Q2
(a) a current (b) no current where Q denotes the electric charge?
.b
(c) only an e.m.f. (d) both an e.m.f. and a current (a) Wb/m2 (b) henry (H)
19. Direction of current induced in a wire moving in a (c) H/m2 (d) weber (Wb)
r8
magnetic field is found using 29. The emf is induced in a single, isolated coil due to ...A...
(a) Fleming’s left found rule of flux through the coil by means of varying the current
be
(b) Fleming’s right hand rule through the same coil. This phenomenon is called ...B...
(c) Ampere’s rule Here, A and B refer to
(d) Right hand clasp rule (a) constancy, mutual induction
cy
20. A circular coil expands radially in a region of magnetic (b) change, self induction
field and no electromotive force is produced in the coil (c) constancy, self induction
no
21. Whenever, current is changed in a coil, an induced e.m.f. is (a) Ampere's circuital law (b) Biot-Savart law
produced in the same coil. This property of the coil is due to (c) Lenz’s law (d) Fleming's right hand rule
w
(a) mutual induction (b) self induction 32. The self inductance of a coil is a measure of
(c) eddy currents (d) hysteresis (a) electrical inertia (b) electrical friction
w
22. When current i passes through an inductor of self (c) induced e.m.f. (d) induced current
inductance L, energy stored in it is 1/2. L i2. This is stored in 33. The coils in resistance boxes are made from doubled
the insulated wire to nullify the effect of
(a) current (b) voltage (a) heating (b) magnetism
(c) magnetic field (d) electric field (c) pressure (d) self induced e.m.f.
23. An inductor may store energy in 34. Two pure inductors each of self inductance L are connected
(a) its electric field in series, the net inductance is
(b) its coils (a) L (b) 2 L
(c) its magnetic field (c) L/2 (d) L/4
(d) both in electric and magnetic fields
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION 339
35. The self inductance associated with a coil is independent 47. Which of the following is not the application of eddy
of currents?
(a) current (b) induced voltage (a) Induction furnace (b) Dead beat galvanometer
(c) time (d) resistance of a coil (c) speedometer (d) X-ray crystallography
36. Induction coil is an instrument based on the principle of 48. Eddy currents do not cause
(a) electromagnetic induction (a) damping (b) heating
(b) mutual induction (c) sparking (d) loss of energy
(c) self induction 49. For magnetic breaking in trains, strong electromagnets
(d) induction furnace. are situated above the rails in some electrically powered
37. If the magnetic flux linked with a coil through which a trains. When the electromagnets are activated, the ...A...
current of x A is set up is y Wb, then the coefficient of self induced in the rails oppose the motion of the train. As
inductance of the coil is there are no ... B... linkages, the ...C... effects is smooth.
om
x Here, A, B and C refer to
(a) (x – y) henry (b) henry
y (a) eddy currents, mechanical, breaking
y
(c) henry (d) x y henry (b) induced currents, thermal, accelerating
t.c
x (c) induced emf, mechanical, accelerating
38. Production of induced e.m.f. in a coil due to the changes of
(d) eddy currents, thermal, flying
current in the same coil is
50. The pointer of a dead-beat galvanometer gives a steady
po
(a) self induction (b) mutual induction
deflection because
(c) dynamo (d) none of these
(a) eddy currents are produced in the conducting frame
39. Henry is the S.I. unit of
gs
over which the coil is wound.
(a) resistance (b) capacity
(b) its magnet is very strong.
(c) inductance (d) current
(c) its pointer is very light.
lo
40. Mutual induction is the production of induced e.m.f. in a
(d) its frame is made of ebonite.
coil due to the changes of current in the
51. Eddy currents do not produce
.b
(a) same coil (b) neighbouring coil
(a) heat (b) a loss of energy
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
(c) spark (d) damping of motion
r8
zero.
of electrical energy into heat depends on the ...A... of the
strength of electrical energy into heat depends on the (b) the flux linked with it is zero, while induced emf is
w
om
correct statement(s) is(are) (B) DC motor (2) Slip rings
I. The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current is (C) Dead beat galvanometer (3) Split ring
constant. (D) Solenoid (4) Insulated copper wire
t.c
II. The emf induced in the loop is finite if the current is wound in the form of a
constant. cylindrical coil
(a) A 2 ; B 3 ; C 2 ; D 1
po
III. The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current
decreases at a steady rate. (b) A 4 ; B 2 ; C 1 ; D 3
(a) I only (b) II only (c) A 2 ; B 3 ; C 1 ; D 4
gs
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (d) A 2 ; B 1 ; C 3 ; D 4
59. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with a coil changes, an 64. Match the column-I and column-II
induced e.m.f.is produced in the circuit. The e.m.f. lasts Column I
lo Column II
I. for a short time (A) Ring uniformly (1) Constant electrostatic
II. for a long time charged field out of system
.b
III. so long as the change in flux takes place (B) Rotating ring (2) Magnetic field strength
uniformly charged rotating with angular
r8
(b) A 3, 4 ; B 1 ; C 2, 3 ; D 2
(c) A 1 ; B 1, 2, 4 ; C 2, 4 ; D 3
N S
no
X (d) A 2 ; B 4, 2, 1 ; C 2, 1 ; D 4, 2
Current is induced in coil when
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
ch
IV. both coil and magnet move along y with same changing magnetic flux through 4
speed. it, is shown in figure as a
The correct statements are function of time. The
w
(c) III and IV (d) II and III through the coil in weber is 0 0.1
61. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual (a) 8 (b) 2
w
om
R
N
B
(a) increase
t.c
Here, A and B refer to
(b) decrease
(a) an attractive, air
(c) remain the same
(b) an attractive, induced current
po
(d) increase or decrease depending on whether the semi-
(c) repulsive, induced current circle buldges towards the resistance or away from it.
(d) attractive, vacuum 72. The figure shows a wire sliding on two parallel conducting
68. An electron moves along the line AB, which lies in the same
gs
rails placed at a separation I. A magnetic field B exists in
plane as a circular loop of conducting wires as shown in the a direction perpendicular to the plane of the rails. The
diagram. What will be the direction of current induced if force required to keep the wire moving at a constant
any, in the loop
lo
velocity v will be
(a) evB × × × × ×
.b
× × × × ×
0 Bv
(b) × × ×I × ×
r8
4 I V
× × × × ×
(c) BIv
× × × × ×
be
(d) the current will change direction as the electron What will be the direction of current if any, induced in the coil?
passes by a
no
om
(b) 2
(2x a) V of energy.
1 Reason : Induced emf always opposes the change in
(c) (2x – a)(2x + a)
magnetic flux responsible for its production.
t.c
1 a 83. Assertion : An induced current has a direction such that
(d) 2 the magnetic field due to the current opposes the change in
x
po
76. A conducting rod AB moves parallel to X-axis in a uniform the magnetic flux that induces the current.
magnetic field, pointing in the positive X-direction. The Reason : Above statement is in accordance with
end A of the rod gets conservation of energy.
gs
Y 84. Assertion : Acceleration of a magnet falling through a long
solenoid decreases.
B Reason : The induced current produced in a circuit always
lo
flow in such direction that it opposes the change to the
cause that produced it.
.b
V 85. Assertion : Figure shows a horizontal solenoid connected
to a battery and a switch. A copper ring is placed on a
r8
dt
increases with time. The induced current in the inner loop 86. Assertion : An emf can be induced by moving a conductor
(a) is clockwise in a magnetic field.
ch
ratio of the loop radii. magnetic field. The induced emf across its ends is zero.
78. The inductance between A and D is
(a) 3.66 H
w
(b) 9 H
w
(c) 0.66 H A 3H 3H 3H D Reason : The induced emf across the ends of a conductor
(d) 1 H is given by e = Bv sin .
w
om
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS the magnetic flux (wb) linked with the coil varies with time
t (sec) as = 50t2 + 4. The current in the coil at t = 2 sec is
93. A coil having an area A0 is placed in a magnetic field which (a) 0.5 A (b) 0.1 A
changes from B0 to 4 B0 in time interval t. The e.m.f. induced
t.c
(c) 2 A (d) 1 A
in the coil will be 101. A coil having n turns and resistance R is connected with
(a) 3 A 0 B0 / t (b) 4 A 0 B0 / t a galvanometer of resistance 4R . This combination is
po
moved in time t seconds from a magnetic field W1 weber to
(c) 3 B0 / A 0 t (d) 4A 0 / B0 t W2 weber. The induced current in the circuit is
94. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an uniform n ( W2 W1 )
gs
( W1 W2 )
magnetic field B directed along positive z axis. The direction (a) (b) 5 Rt
Rnt
of induced current as seen from the z axis will be
( W2 W1 ) n ( W2 W1 )
(a) zero
(b) anticlockwise of the +ve z axis
(c) lo 5 Rnt
(d)
Rt
102. Magnetic flux in weber in a closed circuit of resistance
.b
(c) clockwise of the +ve z axis
(d) along the magnetic field 10 varies with time (sec) as f = 6t2 – 5t + 1. The magnitude
of induced current at t = 0.25s is
r8
along the axis passing through the centre of the coil and (a)
2
perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The direction of the 3B 2
induced current in the coil when viewed in the direction (b)
of the motion of the magnet is 2
2
(a) clockwise 4B
(c)
(b) anti-clockwise 2
2
(c) no current in the coil 5B
(d)
(d) either clockwise or anti-clockwise 2
EBD_7208
344 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
106. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B, a wire in the form 113. Two pure inductors, each of self inductance L are connected
of a semicircle of radius r rotates about the diameter of the in parallel but are well separated from each other, then the
circle with an angular frequency . The axis of rotation is total inductance is
perpendicular to the field. If the total resistance of the circuit (a) L (b) 2 L
is R, the mean power generated per period of rotation is (c) L/2 (d) L/4
114. Two coils of self inductances L1 and L2 are placed so close
(B r ) (B r 2 ) together that effective flux in one coil is completely linked
(a) (b)
2R 2R with the other. If M is the mutual inductance between them,
then
B r2 (B r 2 ) 2 (a) M = L1L2 (b) M = L1/L2
(c) (d)
2R 8R
(c) M = (L1L2)2 (d) M = (L1 L 2 )
107. A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane
115. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils, each of N turns, is
om
with velocity v in a unifrom magnetic field perpendicular
to its plane as shown in figure. An electric field is induced M henry. If a current of I ampere in one of the coils is
brought to zero in t second, the emf induced per turn in the
A B other coil, in volt, will be
t.c
MI NMI
v (a) (b)
t t
po
D C MN MI
(c) (d)
(a) in AD, but not in BC It Nt
(b) in BC, but not in AD 116. In an inductor of self-inductance L = 2 mH, current changes
gs
(c) neither in AD nor in BC with time according to relation i = t2e–t. At what time emf is
zero?
(d) in both AD and BC
108. A conductor of length 0.4 m is moving with a speed of (a) 4s
lo (b) 3s
7 m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity (c) 2s (d) 1s
117. When the current in a coil changes from 2 amp. to 4 amp. in
.b
0.9 Wb/m2. The induced e.m.f. across the conductor is
(a) 1.26 V (b) 2.52V 0.05 sec., an e.m.f. of 8 volt is induced in the coil. The
coefficient of self inductance of the coil is
r8
its vertical diameter with an angular speed of 40 rad s–1 (c) clockwise (d) anticlockwise
in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 2 × 119. Two coils of self inductances 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so
10–2 T. If the coil form a closed loop of resistance 8 , close together that the effective flux in one coil is completely
ch
then the average power loss due to joule heating is linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these
(a) 2.07 × 10–3 W (b) 1.23 × 10–3 W coils is
.te
ratotes at half a revolution per second and it is placed in in the primary coil changes from 0.5 A to zero in 0.01 s, find
a uniform magnetic field of 0.02 T perpendicular to the average induced e.m.f. in secondary coil.
w
axis of rotation of the coil. The maximum voltage (a) 25.5 V (b) 12.5 V
(c) 22.5 V (d) 37.5 V
w
om
(c) 4.8 × 10 V–4 (d) 4.8 × 10–2 V
mH. A current of 5 mA is passed through it. The magnetic
flux through each turn of the coil is 134. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated
1 1 wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area A = 10 cm 2 and
(a) 0 Wb (b) 0 Wb length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoid has 300 turns and the
t.c
4 2
1 other 400 turns, their mutual inductance is
(c) 0 Wb (d) 0.4 µ0Wb ( 0 = 4 × 10 –7 Tm A–1)
3
po
126. A 100 millihenry coil carries a current of 1 ampere. Energy (a) 2.4 × 10–5 H (b) 4.8 × 10–4 H
stored in its magnetic field is (c) 4.8 × 10–5 H (d) 2.4 × 10–4 H
(a) 0.5 J (b) 1 J 135. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the same area
gs
(c) 0.05 J (d) 0.1 J A and total resistance R, rotates with frequency in a
127. Two solenoids of same cross-sectional area have their magnetic field B. The maximum value of emf generated in
lengths and number of turns in ratio of 1 : 2. The ratio of
self-inductance of two solenoids is
lo
the coil is
(a) N.A.B.R. (b) N.A.B.
.b
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) N.A.B.R. (d) N.A.B.
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 136. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m rotated about its centre with
128. The self inductance of the motor of an electric fan is 10 H. In
r8
10 10
129. A long solenoid having 200 turns per cm carries a current of
(c) 2 (d) 2
1.5 amp. At the centre of it is placed a coil of 100 turns of 10 volt 2 10 volt
no
cross-sectional area 3.14 × 10–4 m2 having its axis parallel to 137. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal resistance
the field produced by the solenoid. When the direction of of 4000 hm. Its terminals are connected to a load of 4000
current in the solenoid is reversed within 0.05 sec, the induced ohm. The voltage across the load is
ch
131. A coil is wound on a frame of rectangular cross-section. If field B of 0.01 T, rotates uniformly with an angular velocity
all the linear dimensions of the frame are increased by a 100 rad s–1 with its axis of rotation perpendicular to B. The
factor 2 and the number of turns per unit length of the coil maximum induced emf in it is
remains the same, self-inductance of the coil increases by (a) 1.5 V (b) V
a factor of (c) 2 V (d) 0.5 V
(a) 4 (b) 8 140. A six pole generator with fixed field excitation develops an
(c) 12 (d) 16 e.m.f. of 100 V when operating at 1500 r.p.m. At what speed
132. A small square loop of wire of side is placed inside a must it rotate to develop 120V?
large square loop of side L (L >> ). The loop are coplanar (a) 1200 r.p.m (b) 1800 r.p.m
and their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the (c) 1500 r.p.m (d) 400 r.p.m
EBD_7208
346 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
om
14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) When I is reduced P is substancially reduced.
19. (b) : Direction of current induced in a wire moving in a 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (c)
magnetic field is found by using Fleming’s right 49. (a) Magnetic braking in trans, Strong electromagnets
hand rule.
t.c
are situated above the rails in some electrically
20. (d) When a circular coil expands radially in a region of powered trains. When the electromagnets are
magnetic field, induced emf developed is activated, the eddy currents induced in the rails
po
= BIv = B × rate of change of area oppose the motion of the train. As there are no
Here, magnetic field B is in a plane perpendicular to mechanical linkages, the braking effect is smooth.
the plane of the circular coil. 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a)
gs
As = 0, magnetic field must be in the plane of 53. (d) Electromagnetic damping certain galvanometers have
circular coil so that its component perpendicular to a fixed core made of non-magnetic metallic material.
the plane of the coil, whose magnitude is decreasing
suitably so that magnitic flux linked with the coil
lo
When the coil oscillates, the eddy currents generated
in the core oppose the motion and bring the coil to
.b
d rest quickly.
stays constant then = =0
dt 54. (b) As = NAB cos 90° = 0
r8
So both option (b) and (c) are correct. = sin 90° = = maximum
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (d) is the angle between the field and normal to the
27. (d) Mutual inductance between two coils depends on all
be
[Henry]
[QT 1 ]
58. (a) Emf will be induced in the circular wire loop when flux
29. (b) Inductance it is also possible the emf is induced in
through it changes with time.
ch
In this case, flux linkage through a coil of N turns when the current is constant, the flux changing
is proportional to the currente through the coil and through it will be zero.
is expressed as N B I N B LI ...(i) I
w
varied, the flux linked with the coil also changes and
an emf is induced in the coil. Using Eq. (i) the B
induced emf is given by
Circular
d (N B ) dI loop
–L
dt dt
When the current is decreasing at a steady rate then
Thus, the self-induced emf always opposes any
the change in the flux (decreasing inwards) on
change (increase or decrease) of current in the coil.
the right half of the wire is equal to the change in flux
30. (a)
(decreasing outwards) on the left half of the wire such
31. (c) Lenz's law gives the polarity of induced emf.
that through the circular loop is zero.
32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (b)
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION 347
59. (d)
60. (d) Relative motion between the magnet and the coil
that is responsible for induction in the coil.
61. (a) e– e–
62. (c) By inserting iron rod in the coil,
74. (d) Rate of decreasing of area of semicircular ring =
L z I so brightness
dA
(2r)V
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS dt
From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
63. (c) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (4)
d dA
64. (c) A - 1 ; A charged ring can produced electric field out e= B B(2rV)
of the centre. dt dt
om
B - 1, 2, 4 ; A charged rotating ring can produce electric
field out of centre, magnetic and dipole moment.
C- 2, 4 ; Current carrying produces magnetic field at
the centre.
t.c
D- 3 ; Alternating current can produce induced electric As induced current in ring produces magnetic field in
field . upward direction hence R is at higher potential.
po
75. (c) Emf induced in side 1 of frame e1 = B1V
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
oI
B1
65. (b) The charge through the coil = area of current-time 2 (x – a/ 2)
gs
(i – t) graph Emf induced in side 2 of frame e2 = B2 V
1 oI
q
2
0.1 4 = 0.2 C lo
B2
2 (x a/ 2)
.b
q Change in flux ( )=q×R x
R
I
r8
1 2
q 0.2
10 a v
= 2 weber x–
be
2
66. (d) BA cos 2.0 0.5 cos 60º a
a
2.0 0.5 x
cy
0.5 weber. 2
2
67. (c) In this situation, the bar magent experiences a Emf induced in square frame
e = B1V – B2V
no
dt charged.
At time, t = 2 sec. 77. (c) As I increases, increases
w
dt
Direction of current is from left to right according to current will be counterclockwise.
Flemmings right hand rule. 78. (d) The given circuit clearly shows that the inductors are
71. (c) E.m.f. will remain same because change in area per unit 1 1 1 1
in parallel we have, or L= 1H
time will be same in both cases. L 3 3 3
72. (d) No change in flux, hence no force required
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
73. (b) Current will be induced,
when e– comes closer the induced current will be 79. (c) Emf will always induces whenever, there is change in
anticlockwise magnetic flux. The current will induced only in closed
when e– comes farther induced current will be clockwise loop.
EBD_7208
348 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
80. (c) In purely resistive circuit, the current and emf are in 100. (a) According, to Faraday’s law of induction
the same phase. d
81. (c) Induced e.m.f. (100t )
dt
82. (a) Lenz's law (that the direction of induced emf is always Induced current i at t = 2 sec.
such as to oppose the change that cause it) is direct
100 2
consequence of the law of conservation of energy. = 0.5Amp
83. (b) 84. (a) R 400
85. (a) When switch is closed , the magnetic flux through the d (W2 W1 )
101. (b) R tot (R 4R) 5R
ring will increase and so ring will move away form the dt t
solenoil so as to compensate this flux. This is according nd n(W2 W1 )
to Lenz's law. i .
R tot dt 5Rt
86. (b) In both the cases, the magnetic flux will change, and
( W2 & W1 are magnetic flux)
om
so there is an induced current.
87. (a) In the given case, there is no component of velocity, d d 2
102. (a) e 6t 5t 1 12t 5
perpendicular to the magnetic field and so e = Bv sin dt dt
e = – 12 (0.25) + 5 = 2 volt
t.c
0°.
88. (b) Both the statements are independently correct. e 2
i 0.2A.
89. (b) 90. (b) 91. (a) 92. (a) R 10
po
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 103. (b) 10t 2 50t 250
d
gs
e (20 t 50)
d dB A dB dt
93. (a) Induced e.m.f. = = = A0
dt dt dt et 3 10 V
A0
4 B0 B0
3 A 0 B0 / t
104. (b)
lo
105. (d) Here, induced e.m.f.
.b
t 2
3
94. (a) For a current to induce in the cylindrical conducting dx
e ( x) Bdx
r8
x
rod.
2
(a) The cylindrical rod should cut B [(3 ) 2 – (2 )2 ] 5B 2
be
moving. –
e v=0
Since conducting rod is at d BA
BA sin t ; i sin t
no
will be induced. dt dt
95. (a) As the magnetic field increases, its flux also increases 0 0
w
1 e e e 1 1 1
109. (a) Vel. of coil 2m / s or
0.5 L L1 L2 L L1 L2
2 L1 L 2
velocity of magnet 2m / s. L
1 L1 L 2
As they are made to move in the same direction, their
Here L1 = L2 = L
relative velocity is zero. Therefore, induced e.m.f. = 0.
110. (a) Here, r = 6 cm = 6 × 10–2 m, N = 20, = 40 rads–1 L L L
L
B = 2 × 10–2 T, R = 8 L L 2
Maximum emf induced, NAB 114. (d)
= N( r2)B
d dI NM I
= 20 × × (6 × 10–2) 2 × 10–2 × 40 = 0.18 V
om
115. (a) E ( NMI ) E NM E=
Average value of emf induced over a full cycle dt dt t
av = 0 E MI
Maximum value of current in the coil. emf induced per unit turn =
t.c
N t
I 0.18 116. (c) L = 2mH, i = t2e–t
I= = 0.023 A
R 8
po
di
Average power dissipated, E= L L[ t 2 e t 2 te t ]
dt
I 0.18 0.023 when E = 0
gs
P= = = 2.07 × 10–3 W
2 2 –e–t t2 + 2te–t = 0
111. (a) Here = 0.5 Hz, N = 200, A = 0.1 m2 2t e–t = e–t t2
and B = 0.02 T
Maximum voltage generated is
lo
t = 2 sec.
.b
di ( 4 2)
= NBA (2 ) 117. (b) M or 8 M
= 200 × 0.02 × 0.1 × (2 × 0.5) = 1.26 V dt 0.05
r8
dI 0.5 0
e = 0.025× ×2 ×2 ×10–2×10–3 120. (d) Given : M = 0.75 H and 50 A / s
= 0.100 × × 10–5 = × 10–6 V = V dt 0.01
113. (c) When the coils are connected in parallel, let the Average induced e.m.f. in secondary coil
ch
di di1 di 2
i i1 i 2 or …… (1) n 2 1
dt dt dt 121. (a) e
w
t
di1 di 2
Now e L1 L2 50 1 10 6 31 10 6
w
dt dt =
0.02
w
om
126. (c) Energy stored U is given by 0 N1 N 2 A 4 10 7 300 400 100 10 4
134. (d) M
1 2 1 3 0.2
U Li (100 10 ) (1) 2 0.05 J.
2 2 4
2.4 10 H
t.c
2 2
0N A N
127. (b) From L
l l
po
2 d d(NB.A)
L1 1/ 2 1 135. (d) e
we get, dt dt
L2 1/ 2 2
gs
d
128. (d) For maximum power, X L X C , which yields N ( BA cos t ) NBA sin t
dt
1 1
C lo e max NBA
2 2
(2 n ) L 4 50 50 10
1 1
.b
C = 0.1 10 5
F 1 F 136. (c) e.m.f. induced BR 2 B R 2 (2 n)
2 2
7 2
r8
Magnetic flux through each turn of the coil 137. (d) Total resistance of the circuit = 4000 + 400 = 4400 W
= BA = (3.8 × 10–2) (3.14 × 10–4) = 1.2 × 10–5 weber V 440
Current flowing i 0.1 amp.
cy
2 (1.2 10 5 ) 2.4 10 5
weber
R = 10 + 100 = 110
5
d 2.4 10
Induced e.m.f. N 100 0.048 V. V 220
ch
dt 0.05 I 2A
R 100
130. (b)
M P = I2R = 4 × 100 = 400 W
= dI=0.005×I 0 cos t×
.te
2 2
131. (b) Self inductance = 0 n AL 0n ( b) L = 0.01× ×100 V = V
w
l = Length of rectangular cross section which flux is intercepted which in turn varies directly
b = breadth of rectangular cross-section as the speed of rotation of the generator.
22
ALTERNATING CURRENT
om
8. The peak value of the a.c. current flowing throw a resistor
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
is given by
1. In general in an alternating current circuit (a) I0 = e0/R (b) I = e/R
(a) the average value of current is zero (c) I0 = e0 (d) I0 = R/e0
po
(b) the average value of square of the current is zero 9. The alternating current can be measured with the help of
(c) average power dissipation is zero (a) hot wire ammeter
(b) hot wire voltmeter
gs
(d) the phase difference between voltage and current is
(c) moving magnet galvanometer
zero
(d) suspended coil type galvanometer
2. The frequency of A.C. mains in India is
10. Alternating current can not be measured by D.C. ammeter,
lo
(a) 30 c/s (b) 50 c/s
because
(c) 60 c/s (d) 120 c/s
.b
(a) A. C. is virtual
3. A.C. power is transmitted from a power house at a high (b) A. C. changes its direction
voltage as
r8
(c) power cannot be transmitted at low voltages the sinusoidal current I0sin t will be the same as that of a
(d) a precaution against theft of transmission lines steady current of magnitude nearly
cy
4. The electric mains supply in our homes and offices is a (a) 0.71 I0 (b) 1.412 I0
voltage that varies like a sine function with time such a (c) I0 (d) 0
voltage is called ... A... and the current driven by it in a
no
2
5. Alternating currents can be produced by a 13. The ratio of mean value over half cycle to r.m.s. value of
(a) dynamo (b) choke coil A.C. is
w
om
in an A.C. circuit across which an A.C. potential E = E0 sin (b) the current is in phase with the applied voltage.
t has been applied, then power consumption P in the circuit (c) the charge on the plate is not in phase with the
will be applied votage.
t.c
(a) P E0 / 2 (b) P E / 2 (d) power delivered to the capacitor per cycle is zero.
0
28. In LCR circuit if resistance increases quality factor
(c) P E 0 0 / 2 (d) zero
po
(a) increases finitely (b) decreases finitely
19. In the case of an inductor (c) remains constant (d) None of these
29. An inductor, a resistor and a capacitor are joined in series
gs
(a) voltage lags the current by with an AC source. As the frequency of the source is slightly
2
increased from a very low value, the reactance of the
(b) voltage leads the current by
2
lo
(a) inductor increases
(c) capacitor increases
(b) resistor increases
(d) circuit increases
.b
30. With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the impedance
(c) voltage leads the current by of an L-C-R series circuit
3
r8
4 (c) decreases
20. If the frequency of an A.C. is made 4 times of its initial (d) decreases at first, becomes minimum and then
value, the inductive reactance will increases.
cy
(a) be 4 times (b) be 2 times 31. If an LCR series circuit is connected to an ac source, then at
(c) be half (d) remain the same resonance the voltage across
21.
no
by
(a) DC (b) AC
(c) DC as well as AC (d) neither AC nor DC 1
(a) tan 1 (b) tan–1 ( CR)
23. The capacitive reactance in an A.C. circuit is
w
CR
(a) effective resistance due to capacity
w
om
37. At resonant frequency the current amplitude in series (a) (b)
LCR circuit is 2 fC 2 fL
(a) maximum (b) minimum (c) 2 fC (d) 2 fL
(c) zero (d) infinity 48. Th e opposition offered by ohmic and non ohmic
t.c
38. In tuning, we vary the capacitance of a capacitor in the components is
tunning circuit such that the resonant frequency of the (a) inductive reactance (b) capacitive reactance
po
circuit becomes nearly equal to the frequency of the radio (c) impedance (d) all of these
signal received. When this happens, the ...A... with the 49. The average power dissipated in an A.C. circuit containing
frequency of the signal of the particular radio station in a resistance alone is
gs
the circuit is maximum. Here A refers to (a) erms Irms (b) erms Irms cos
(a) resonant frequency (d) 0 (d) none of these
(b) impedance
(c) amplitude of the current
lo
50. The product erms Irms is called as
(a) true power (b) apparent power
.b
(d) reactance (c) power factor (d) Q factor
39. The power factor in a circuit connected to an A.C. The
51. Power in an A.C. circuit is rated per second at which
r8
(b) unity when the circuit contains an ideal resistance only 52. In an a.c. circuit with phase voltage V and current I, the
(c) zero when the circuit contains an ideal resistance only power dissipated is
cy
om
circuit consisting of an inductance L and capacitance C,
(a) iron loss (b) copper loss connected in parallel. Then across the inductance coil the
(c) mechanical loss (d) None of these I. current is maximum when 2 = 1/(L C)
59. Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is II. current is minimum when 2 = 1/(L C)
t.c
(a) voltage (b) current III. voltage is minimum when 2 = 1/(L C)
(c) frequency (d) None of these IV. voltage is maximum when 2 = 1/(L C)
po
60. Eddy currents in the core of transformer can't be developed Which of the above statements are correct?
by (a) I and III (b) I and IV
(a) increasing the number of turns in secondary coil (c) II and III (d) II and IV
gs
(b) taking laminated transformer 68. Which of the following statements are correct ?
I. If the resonance is less sharp, not only is the
(c) making step down transformer
lomaximum current less, the circuit is close to resonance
(d) using a weak a.c. at high potential
for a larger range of frequencies and the tuning
61. The core of transformer is laminated to reduce of the circuit will not be good.
.b
(a) flux leakage (b) hysteresis II. Less sharp the resonance less is the selectivity of
(c) copper loss (d) eddy current the circuit or vice–versa.
r8
62. A transformer is based on the principle of III. If quality factor is large, i.e., R is low or L is large,
(a) mutual induction (b) self induction the circuit is more selective.
be
(c) Ampere’s law (d) X-ray crystallography (a) I and II only (b) II and III only
63. The transformation ratio in the step-up transformer is (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III
(a) one
cy
(d) the ratio greater or less than one depends on the other Column I Column II
factor (A) RL circuit (1) Leading quantity -
64. The parallel combination of inductor and capacitor is called
ch
current
as (B) RC circuit (2) Leading quantity -
(a) rectifier circuit (b) tank circuit voltage
.te
(c) acceptor circuit (d) filter circuit (C) Inductive circuit (3) Phase difference
between voltage and
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS current 0°
w
VL VC VR V.I
V
Vm
L R Im I
C
0 2 t
(b)
Column I Column II
(A) Peak current (in A) (1) 10 2
V.I
(B) V0 (in volts) (2) V
50 2
Vm I
(C) Effective value of (3) 50
om
Im
applied voltage (in volts)
(D) XC (in ) (4) 1 0 t
(c) 2
(a) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (4)
t.c
(b) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (4)
(c) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
(d) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (3); (D) (2) V.I
po
V
71. In a series LCR circuit, the e.m.f. leads current. Now the
driving frequency is decreased slightly. Match columns I Vm I
and II. Im
gs
Column I Column II 0 t
(d) 2
(A) Current amplitude (1) Increases
(B) Phase constant
(C) Power developed
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains same
lo
.b
in resistor 74. Which of the following graphs represents the correct
(D) Impedance (4) May increase or variation of inductive reactance XL with frequency ?
r8
decrease
(a) (A) (1, 2); (B) (2); (C) (3, 4); (D) (1) XL XL
(b) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (2)
be
V0
O t
T/2 T variation of capacitive reactance XC with frequency ?
(a) V0 (b) V0 / 2 XC XC
w
V.I
V
I
Vm XC XC
Im
0 2 t
(a)
(c) (d)
EBD_7208
356 ALTERNATING CURRENT
76. For the circuit shown in the fig., the current through the
inductor is 0.9 A while the current through the condenser is q q
0.4 A. Then
(a) qo (b)
(a) current drawn from source I = 1.13 A
C
(b) = 1/(1.5 L C)
O t O t
L
(c) I = 0.5 A
(d) I = 0.6 A
~ q q
V = V0 sin t
77. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter qo
qo
om
V1 and V2 are 300 volt each. The reading of the voltmeter V3 (c) (d)
and ammeter A are respectively
L C R 100
t.c
t O t
O
V1 V2 V3 81. The current in resistance R at resonance is
A
po
R
~
220 V, 50 Hz
gs
(a) 150 V and 2.2 A (b) 220 V and 2.0 A C
L
(c) 220 V and 2.0 A (d) 100 V and 2.0 A lo
78. In the given circuit, the current drawn from the source is ~
.b
V = V0 sin t
V 100 x sin(100 t )
~
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
XL
XC
be
R
(a) 20 A (b) 10 A alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
(c) 5 A (d) 5 2 A have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
no
(a) (b)
82. Assertion : Average value of ac over a complete cycle is
always zero.
w
om
88. Assertion : In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit, the and an inductance of 0.1 H in series, for AC of 50 Hz, is
current is referred to as wattless current.
(a) 100 10 (b) 10 10
Reason: No power is dissipated in a purely inductive or
t.c
capacitive circuit even though a current is flowing in the (c) 100 (d) 10
circuit. 100. An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor L
89. Assertion : The power in an ac circuit is minimum if the in series. If R and the inductive reactance are both equal to
po
circuit has only a resistor. 3 , the phase difference between the applied voltage and
Reason: Power of a circuit is independent of the phase the current in the circuit is
angle.
gs
(a) /6 (b) /4
90. Assertion : In the purely resistive element of a series LCR, (c) /2 (d) zero
AC circuit the maximum value of rms current increases with 101. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm
increase in the angular frequency of the applied emf.
2
lo
at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is
connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be
.b
1
Reason : Imax max
,z R2 L , (a) 4.0 A (b) 8.0 A
z C
r8
20
where Imax is the peak current in a cycle. (c) A (d) 2.0 A
13
91. Assertion : When the frequency of the AC source in an
be
LCR circuit equals the resonant frequency, the reactance of 102. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2 is
the circuit is zero, and so there is no current through the connected to a source of voltage 2 V. The current reaches
inductor or the capacitor. half of its steady state value in
cy
Reason : The net current in the inductor and capacitor is (a) 0.1 s (b) 0.05 s
zero. (c) 0.3 s (d) 0.15 s
no
92. Assertion : In series LCR resonance circuit, the impedance 103. An inductance of negligible resistance whose reactance is
is equal to the ohmic resistance. 22 at 200 Hz is connected to 200 volts, 50 Hz power line.
Reason: At resonance, the inductive reactance exceeds the The value of inductance is
ch
95. Assertion : A laminated core is used in transformers to (c) 0.48 A (d) 0.80 A
increase eddy currents. 105. An inductive coil has a resistance of 100 . When an a.c.
w
Reason: The efficiency of a transformer increases with signal of requency 1000 Hz is fed to the coil, the applied
increase in eddy currents. voltage leads the current by 45°. What is the inductance of
the coil ?
CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) 10 mH (b) 12 mH
96. Determine the rms value of the emf given by (c) 16 mH (d) 20mH.
E (in volt) = 8 sin ( t) + 6sin (2 t) 106. In an LR circuit f = 50 Hz, L = 2H, E = 5 volts, R = 1 then
(a) 5 2V (b) 7 2 V energy stored in inductor is
(a) 50 J (b) 25 J
(c) 10 V (d) 10 2 V (c) 100 J (d) None of these
EBD_7208
358 ALTERNATING CURRENT
om
the circuit is from point ‘A’ and connected to point ‘B’ at time t = 0. Ratio
of the voltage across resistance and the inductor at t = L/R
1000
(a) (b) will be equal to
5000
t.c
A C R
5000
(c) 500 (d)
po
110. In an experiment, 200 V A.C. is applied at the ends of an L
LCR circuit. The circuit consists of an inductive reactance
gs
(XL ) = 50 , capacitive reactance (XC ) = 50 and ohmic B
resistance (R) = 10 . The impedance of the circuit is
(a) 10 (b) 20
(c) 30 (d) 40
111. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage source are (a)
lo
e
(b) 1
.b
all connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit, 1 e
the phase difference between the voltage the current in the
1 e
r8
circuit is /3. If instead, C is removed from the circuit, the (c) –1 (d)
phase difference is again /3. The power factor of the circuit e
is 117. A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating voltage
be
(c) 50 V (d) 0 V
113. If resistance of 100 , and inductance of 0.5 henry and source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the
capacitance of 10 × 106 farad are connected in series through resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes
.te
Z Z
114. In an LCR series resonant circuit, the capacitance is changed
from C to 4C. For the same resonant frequency, the
w
2
inductance should be changed from L to R
(c) P (d) P
Z
w
L
(a) 2 L (b)
2 119. In series L-C-R circuit, the voltages across R, L and C are
L VR, VL and VC respectively. Then the voltage of applied a.c.
(c) 4 L (d) source must be
4
115. An inductor (L = 0.03 H) and a resistor (R = 0.15 k ) are (a) VR VL VC
connected in series to a battery of 15V EMF in a circuit
shown below. The key K1 has been kept closed for a long (b) [( VR ) 2 ( VL VC ) 2 ]
time. Then at t = 0, K1 is opened and key K2 is closed
simultaneously. (c) VR VC VL
At t = l ms, the current in the circuit will be : e5 150 (d) [(VR VL ) 2 (VC ) 2 ]1 / 2
ALTERNATING CURRENT 359
120. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across R is 100 1 3
volts and R = 1 k with C = 2 F. The resonant frequency (a) (b)
4 4
is 200 rad/s. At resonance the voltage across L is
1 1
(c) (d)
(a) 2.5 × 10–2 V (b) 40 V 2 8
(c) 250 V (d) 4 × 10–3 V 128. In a series LCR circuit R = 200 and the voltage and the
121. In series combination of R, L and C with an A.C. source at frequency of the main supply is 220V and 50 Hz respectively.
resonance, if R = 20 ohm, then impedence Z of the On taking out the capacitance from the circuit the current
combination is lags behind the voltage by 30°. On taking out the inductor
(a) 20 ohm (b) zero from the circuit the current leads the voltage by 30°. The
(c) 10 ohm (d) 400 ohm power dissipated in the LCR circuit is
(a) 305 W (b) 210 W
om
122. The tuning circuit of a radio receiver has a resistance of
(c) Zero W (d) 242 W
50 , an inductor of 10 mH and a variable capacitor. A 129. In an A.C. circuit, the current flowing in inductance is
1 MHz radio wave produces a potential difference of I = 5 sin (100 t – /2) amperes and the potential difference is
t.c
0.1 mV. The values of the capacitor to produce resonance is V = 200 sin (100 t) volts. The power consumption is equal to
(Take 2 = 10) (a) 1000 watt (b) 40 watt
(a) 2.5 pF (b) 5.0 pF
po
(c) 20 watt (d) Zero
(c) 25 pF (d) 50 pF 130. In an a.c. circuit V and I are given by
123. Resonance frequency of LCR series a.c. circuit is f0. Now V = 100 sin (100 t) volts
gs
the capacitance is made 4 times, then the new resonance I = 100 sin (100 t + /3) mA
frequency will become the power dissipated in the circuit is
(a) f0/4 (b) 2f0 (a) 104 watt
lo (b) 10 watt
(c) f0 (d) f0/2. (c) 2.5 watt (d) 5.0 watt
.b
124. In a RLC circuit capacitance is changed from C to 2 C. For 131. An alternating voltage V = V0 sin t is applied across a
the resonant frequency to remain unchanged, the circuit. As a result, a current I = I0 sin ( t – /2) flows in it.
r8
(c) L/2 (d) L/4 (c) 0.707 V0I0 (d) 1.414 V0I0
125. Resonance frequency of LCR series a.c. circuit is f0. Now 132. Two coils A and B are connected in series across a 240 V, 50
the capacitance is made 4 times, then the new resonance Hz supply. The resistance of A is 5 and the inductance of
cy
frequency will become B is 0.02 H. The power consumed is 3 kW and the power
(a) f0/4 (b) 2f0 factor is 0.75. The impedance of the circuit is
no
æ ö
The resulting current in the circuit is I = I0 sin çç t - ÷÷÷ .
connected to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0. The time
çè 2ø at which the energy is stored equally between the electric
.te
LC LC
E 0 I0 134. A charged 30 F capacitor is connected to a 27 mH
(c) P = zero (d) P=
w
om
and that in secondary coil are 280. If current in primary coil primary coil is
is 4A, then that in secondary coil is (a) 0.4 A (b) 4 A
(a) 4 A (b) 2 A (c) 10 A (d) 40 A
(c) 6 A (d) 10 A 144. The primary of a transformer has 400 turns while the
t.c
139. The primary winding of a transformer has 100 turns and its secondary has 2000 turns. If the power output from the
secondary winding has 200 turns. The primary is connected secondary at 1000 V is 12 kW, what is the primary voltage?
po
to an A.C. supply of 120 V and the current flowing in it is 10 (a) 200 V (b) 300 V
A. The voltage and the current in the secondary are (c) 400 V (d) 500 V
(a) 240 V, 5 A (b) 240 V, 10 A 145. A transformer connected to 220 V mains is used to light a
gs
(c) 60 V, 20 A (d) 120 V, 20 A lamp of rating 100 W and 110 V. If the primary current is
140. A step down transformer is connected to 2400 volts line 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is (approximately)
and 80 amperes of current is found to flow in output load. (a) 60%
lo (b) 35%
The ratio of the turns in primary and secondary coil is 20 : 1. (c) 50% (d) 90%
If transformer efficiency is 100%, then the current flowing 146. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200V
.b
in the primary coil will be and 3kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil
(a) 1600 amp (b) 20 amp is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current
r8
(c) 4 amp (d) 1.5 amp in the primary coil respectively are :
(a) 300 V, 15A (b) 450 V, 15A
be
om
is a voltage that varies like a sine function with time. 27. (d) When an ac voltage of 220 V is applied to a
Such a voltage is called alternating voltage and the capacitor C, the charge on the plates is in phase
current driven by it in a circuit is called the with the applied voltage.
As the circuit is pure capacitive so, the current
t.c
alternating current.
5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) developed leads the applied voltage by a phase
9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (d) angle of 90° Hence, power delivered to the capacitor
po
per cycle is
13. (b) We know that r ms 0 / 2 and m 2 0/ P = Vrms Irms cos 90° = 0.
28. (b)
gs
m 2 2 29. (a) The reactance of inductor, XL = L
rms lo 1
The reactance of capacitor, X C
14. (c) When resistance is connected to A.C source, then C
.b
current & voltage are in same phase. where = 2 n & n is the frequency of A.C source.
15. (c)
r8
= 0, so no power
dissipates.
Zmin = R
1
cy
2
31. (b) In series RLC circuit,
current lags the voltage by .
2
20. (a) Voltage, V = VR2 VC )2
ch
(VL
And, at resonance, VL = VC
Potential drop across capacitor or inductor
21. (d) Q
.te
Hence, V = VR
Potential drop across R.
32. (a)
L
w
R 33. (d) VL
VR
w
VC – VL
1 I
22. (a) XC(reactance of capacitor) for D.C.,
I
E
w
C E(applied
= 0 XC = voltage)
23. (a) Capacitive reactance in an A.C circuit is
1 VC VL (if V > V )
XC ohm , where C is the capacitance of tan C L
C VR
capacitor & = 2 n (n is the frequency of A.C source).
VL VC
1 1 (if VL> VC)
24. (b) XC XC for given C. R
C where is angle between current & applied voltage.
EBD_7208
362 ALTERNATING CURRENT
for preferring use of AC voltage over DC voltage is
R 12 4
34. (b) Power factor cos 0.8 that Ac voltage can be easily and efficiently
Z 15 5
converted from one voltage to the other by means
35. (d) At resonance wL= 1/wC
of transformers.
and i = E/R , So power dissipated in circuit is P = i 2R.
66. (d) Option (d) is false because the reason why the voltage
36. (b) At resonance frequency, the inductive and capacitive
1
reactance are equal. leads the current is because L and if the
C
i.e. XL = XC
voltage lags, the inductive reactance is greater than
Impedance, Z = R2 (X L X C )2 the capacitive reactance.
67. (d)
= 2 2 =R 68. (d) If the resonance is less sharp, not only is the
om
R 0
37. (a) maximum current less, the circuit is close to resonance
38. (c) When this happens the amplitude of the current for larger range of frequencies and the tuning of
the circuit will not be good. So, less sharp the
t.c
with the frequency of the signal of the particular
radio station in the circuit is maximum. resonance, less is the selectivity of the circuit or
vice-versa. If quality factor is large, i.e., R is low or
po
R
39. (b) cos , where Z is the impedance & L is large, the circuit is more selective.
Z
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
gs
Z R 2 (XL XC )2 , if there is only resistance
69. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
then Z = R cos = 1 lo VR 40
40. (b) If R = 0 cos = 0 = 90º so P =0, in this case 70. (a) A-1 : irms 10 A; i0 2 irms 2 2 A
.b
R 4
power loss is zero & current flowing in the circuit is
called wattless current. B-2; iZ 10 5 50V ; V0 2 Vrms 50 2 V
r8
Vrms
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (c)
45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (c) C-1 :
be
49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (b) D-4 : Now V 2 VR2 (VL VC ) 2
52. (d) P = V I cos So, power dissipation depends upon V
cy
VC 10V ,
2
VC 10
and X C
ch
1 2 1
so power dissipated is P I 2rms R IPR i 10
2
54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (b) 71. (b)
.te
58. (a) : Iron loss is the energy loss in the form of heat due
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
to the formation of eddy currents in the iron core of
w
the transformer.
59. (c) A transformer does not change the frequency of ac. (T / 2)V0 2
w
0 V0
72. (b) Vrms = = .
60. (b) T 2
w
om
P = IrmsVrms cos where
77. (b) As VL = VC = 300 V, resonance will take place R
VR = 220 V
For a purely resistive circuit XL = 0 and XC = 0
t.c
220 Therefore, tan = 0 or = 0 and thereby cos = 1 and
Current, I = 2.2 A
100 P = IV.
reading of V3 = 220 V The power is maximum as cos is maximum. Power
po
and reading of A = 2.2 A depends on the phase angle through the power factor
78. (d) cos .
gs
79. (c) Impedance at resonant frequency is minimum in series 90. (c)
LCR circuit. 91. (d) The currents in capacitor and in inductor are opposite
So, Z R2 2 fL
1
2
lo
and so net current is zero.
92. (c) In series resonance circuit,
.b
2 fC inductive reactance is equal to capacitive reactance.
1
When frequency is increased or decreased, Z increases.
r8
i.e. L
80. (c) C
be
R 93. (a)
applied voltage. 94. (a) Transformer cannot produce power, but it transfer from
no
primary to secondary.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
95. (d) Large eddy currents are produced in non-laminated
82. (b) The means or average value of alternating current or
ch
During the next half cycle, the mean value of ac will be Laminating the core substantially reduces the eddy
equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. For this currents. Eddy current heats up the core of the
w
reason the average value of ac over a complete cycle transformer. More the eddy currents greater is the loss
is always zero. So the average value is always defined
of energy and the efficiency goes down.
w
t = i0 sin( t / 2)
em E
Current amplitude Im where Z = impendence
Z
1 2 E
= 80/20 = 4 A. Energy in inductor LI I
2 Z
4 4 2 5 5
om
I r.m.s 2 2 2.828 A. I
2 2 2
R2 L
2
1 4 50 2 4
99. (b)
t.c
100. (b) The phase difference is given by 5 5
1 200
2 200
XL 3
po
tan = = 1
R 3 1 5 5
Energy 2 2
= 6.33 × 10–5 joules
2 200 200
gs
.
4 200 2
107. (d) Vrms = 200V
101. (a) If = 50 × 2 then L = 20 lo 2
If = 100 × 2 then L = 40 200
.b
Current flowing in the coil is V 1
Irms = rms
XC 100 10 6
r8
I = 4A. E E0
108. (b) E C C
102. (a) The charging of inductance given by, XC 2
cy
Rt 200 3
I 120 240V 20 10 amp.
no
i i0 1 e L 100
109. (d) Impedence of a capacitor is XC = 1/ C
ch
Rt Rt 1 1 5000
i0 1 XC 6
.
i 0 (1 e L ) e L 2 fC 2 50 2 10
.te
2 2
110. (a) Given : Supply voltage (Vac) = 200 V
Taking log on both the sides, Inductive reactance (XL) = 50 W
w
L
We know that impedance of the LCR circuit
( Z )
w
3
L 300 10
t = log 2 0.69 t = 0.1 sec.
R 2 = {(X L X C ) 2 R 2 } {(50 50) 2 (10) 2 } 10
om
R AC Source
power factor cos = 1
Z
t.c
112. (d) Since the phase difference between L & C is V V
net voltage difference across LC 50 50 Current i = =
0 Zc 2
1
R2
po
2 C
2 1
113. (c) Z R L
C
gs
V 1
Vc = iXc =
Here R = 100 W, L = 0.5 henry, C = 10 × 106 farad 1
2 C
= 2 p = 100 . lo R2
C
114. (d) For resonant frequency to remain same
.b
LC constant V
Vc =
LC = constant (RC )2 1
r8
As, C 4C
If we fill a di-electric material like mica instead of air
be
L then capacitance C Vc
L
4 So, Va > Vb
118. (d)
cy
15 100
115. (b) I(0) 0.1A
0.15 103 Pure resistor L-R series circuit
no
I( )=0 R R L
–t
I (t) = [I (0) – I ( )] e L / R
ch
i( ) V V
Vs V
–t R
I(t) = 0.1 e L / R Phasor diagram
.te
0.1 e L
R
0.15 1000
w
VR
–VR –VC = 0 1
w
VC
Z = impedance
VR
For pure resistor circuit, power
A C R
V2
P V 2 PR
R
L VL
For L-R series circuit, power
B 2
V2 V2 R PR R
P1 cos . .R P
Z Z Z Z2 Z
EBD_7208
366 ALTERNATING CURRENT
119. (b)
1 1
f0 or f0
V 100 2 LC C
120. (c) Across resistor, I = 0.1 A
R 1000
When the capacitance of the circuit is made 4 times,
At resonance,
its resonant frequency become f 0'
1 1
XL XC 2500
C 200 2 10 6
f0' C f0
Voltage across L is or f 0'
f0 4C 2
I XL 0.1 2500 250 V
126. (c) We know that power consumed in a.c. circuit is given
om
121. (a) by, P= Erms . Irms cos
122. (a) L = 10 mHz = 10–2 Hz Here, E = E0 sin t
t.c
f = 1MHz = 106 Hz
1
f I = I0 sin t
2 LC 2
po
1
f2 2
which implies that the phase difference,
4 LC
gs
2
C
1 1 10 12
2.5 pF
lo
.b
2 2 2 12 4
4 f L 4 10 10 10 P E rms .Irms .cos =0 cos 0
2 2
123. (d) In LCR series circuit, resonance frequency f0 is given
r8
by 127. (d) The average power in the circuit where cos = power
factory
be
180
= /3 = phase difference = 60
1 1 3
f0 or f0
no
2 LC C
1
When the capacitance of the circuit is made 4 times,
ch
2 1
Vrms = volt
its resonant frequency become f 0' 2 2
.te
f0' C f0 1
or f 0'
f0 4C 2
w
2 1
Irms = A
2 2
w
1
124. (c) We know that f ,
w
2 (LC) 1
cos = cos
3 2
when C is doubled, L should be halved so that resonant
frequency remains unchanged. 1 1 1 1
125. (d) In LCR series circuit, resonance frequency f0 is given <P>= W
2 2 2 8
by
128. (d) When capacitance is taken out, the circuit is LR.
1 2 1 1
L 2 f0 L
C LC LC tan
R
ALTERNATING CURRENT 367
1 200 Q02 Q0
L = R tan 200
3 3 or Q2 = or Q =
2 2
Again , when inductor is taken out, the circuit is CR.
Q0
1
Q0 cos t =
tan 2
CR
or t= or t= =
1 1 200 4 4 4 (1/ LC )
R tan 200
c 3 3
om
LC
=
2 4
1
Now, Z R2 L
C 134. (a) : Here, C 30 F = 30 × 10–6 F,
t.c
L = 27 mH = 27 × 10–3 H
129. (d) Power, P r.m.s Vr.m.s cos
po
1 1 1
In the given problem, the phase difference between = =
LC 3 6 8
27 10 30 10 81 10
voltage and current is p/2. Hence
gs
P r.m.s Vr.m.s cos( / 2) 0. 104
= = 1.1 × 103 rad s–1
lo 9
1
130. (c) P Vr.m.s r.m.s cos V0 0 cos 135. (d)
2
.b
np Ep 1
r8
1 3 136. (b)
100 (100 10 ) cos /3 2.5 W ns Es 25
2
be
131. (a) The phase angle between voltage V and current I is Es 25E p
/2. Therefore, power factor cos = cos ( /2) = 0. Hence
cy
E S IS
the power consumed is zero. But Es Is E p Ip Ip Ip 50A
Ep
no
E 2v cos
132. (c) P
Z V2 I1 V2 I 2
137. (d) 0.8 0.8
V1 I2
ch
V1 I1
(240) 2 (0.75) V1 = 220 V, I2 = 2.0 A, V2 = 440 V
P 3000 d Z 14.4
.te
Z
V2 I 2 10 440 2 10
I1 = =5A
1 1 V1 8 220 8
w
133. (a) As = = or
LC LC 138. (b)
w
1 Q02 Es ns ns
w
2 ns np 100
1 Q2 1 1 Q0 p
or Is = 10 = 5 amp
s p
2 C 2 2 C s np ns 200
EBD_7208
368 ALTERNATING CURRENT
140 Vs Is Vs (6)
Efficiency 83.3% 0.9
166 146. (b) Efficiency =
om
Vp Ip 3 103
Pi 4000 Vs = 450 V
143. (d) As E p p Pi p 40 A.
t.c
Ep 100 As VpIp = 3000 so
po
Ip = A 15A
Vp 200
VP NP VS N P 1000 400
of, VP 200V.
gs
VS NS NS 2000
lo
.b
r8
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
23
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
om
9. The displacement current is
t.c
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
o
1. The current in the electric circuit which arises due to flow (a) od E / dt (b) d E / dt
R
po
of electrons in the connecting wires of the circuit in a
(c) o E/R (d) o q C / R
defined closed path is called
(a) alternating current 10. Maxwell’s equation describe the fundamental law of
gs
(b) direct current (a) electricity (b) magnetism
(c) conduction current (c) mechanics (d) both (a) and (b)
(d) displacement current lo
2. The conduction current is same as displacement current 11. If E and B represent the electric and magnetic field vectors
when source is of an electromagnetic wave, then the direction of
.b
(a) ac only (b) dc only propagation of the electromagnetic wave, is along
(c) either ac or dc (d) neither dc nor ac
r8
(a) E (b) B
3. If a variable frequency ac source connected to a capacitor
then with decrease in frequency, the displacement current (c) B E (d) E B
be
(a) an e.m.f
(c) remain constant (b) electric displacement current
(d) first decrease then increase (c) magnetic field
no
4. Displacement current goes through the gap between the (d) pressure gradient
plates of a capacitor when the charge on the capacitor 13. Electromagnetic wave consists of periodically oscillating
(a) is changing with time (b) decreases
ch
(a) Maxwell (b) Marconi (b) in mutually perpendicular planes but vibrating with a
(c) Ampere (d) Hertz
6. Ampere’s circuital law holds good for
phase difference of
w
7. When radio waves passes through ionosphere, phase (d) in mutually perpendicular planes but vibrating in
difference between space current and capacitive phase
w
displacement current is 14. An electromagnetic wave propagating along north has its
(a) 0 rad (b) (3 /2) rad electric field vector upwards. Its magnetic field vector
(c) ( / 2) rad (d) rad point towards
8. Displacement current is (a) north (b) east
(a) continuous when electric field is changing in the (c) west (d) downwards
circuit 15. The electromagnetic waves
(b) continuous when magnetic field is changing in the (a) travel with the speed of sound
circuit (b) travel with the same speed in all media
(c) continuous in both types of fields (c) travel in free space with the speed of light
(d) continuous through wires and resistance only (d) do not travel through a medium
EBD_7208
370 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
16. Which of the following type of radiations are radiated by 26. X-rays, gamma rays and microwaves travelling in vaccum
an oscillating electric charge? have
(a) Electric (b) Magnetic (a) same wavelength but different velocities
(c) Thermoelectric (d) Electromagnetic (b) same frequency but different velocities
17. If E and B are the electirc and magnetic field vectors of (c) same velocity but different wavelength
e.m. waves then the direction of propagation of e.m. wave (d) same velocity and same frequency
is along the direction of 27. Radio waves diffract around building, although light
waves do not. The reason is that radio waves
(a) E (b) B (a) travel with speed larger than c
(c) E B (d) None of these (b) have much larger wavelength than light
18. According to Maxwell’s equation the velocity of light in (c) are not electromagnetic waves
any medium is expressed as (d) None of these
om
28. Microwaves are detected by
1 1 0 (a) bolometer (b) point contact diodes
(a) (b) (c) / (d)
0 o (c) thermopiles (d) the eye
t.c
19. The electromagnetic waves do not transport 29. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the
(a) energy (b) charge longest wavelength?
(a) uv-rays
po
(c) momentum (d) information
20. The amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields related to (b) Visible light
each other are (b) Radio waves
gs
(d) Microwaves
(a) E0 B0 (b) E 0 c B0 30. Which of the following is of shortest wavelength?
c
(a) X-rays
lo (b) -rays
B0
(c) E0 (d) E 0 (c) Microwaves (d) Radio waves
c B0
31. The range of wavelength of visible light is
.b
21. In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of the magnetic (a) 10 Å to 100 Å (b) 4000 Å to 8000 Å
(c) 8000 Å to 10,000 Å (d) 10,000 Å to 15,000 Å
r8
induction B is
32. Which of the following is not electromagnetic waves?
(a) parallel to the electric field E (a) Cosmic rays (b) Gamma rays
be
(a) odd frequencies (b) even frequencies 34. Which of the following rays has minimum frequency?
(c) all frequencies (d) all intensities (a) U.V. ways (b) X-rays
23.
ch
A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material (c) -rays (d) Infra-red rays
surface. If the wave delivers momentum p and energy E, 35. An accelerated electron would produce
then (a) -rays (b) -rays
.te
(a) The radiation emitted is in the infrared region. 37. The wavelength of X-ray is of the order of
(b) The radiation is emitted only during the day. (a) 1 metre (b) 1 cm
w
(c) The radiation is emitted during the summers and (c) 1 micron (d) 1 angstrom
absorbed during winters. 38. Radio waves of constant amplitude can be generated with
(d) The radiation is emitted lies in the ultraviolet region (a) rectifier (b) filter
and hence is not visible. (c) F.E.T. (d) oscillator
25. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, 39. Radio waves do not penetrate in the band of
microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is (a) ionosphere (b) mesosphere
(a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays (c) troposphere (d) stratosphere
(b) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
40. What is the cause of “Green house effect”?
(c) gama rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
(a) Infrared rays (b) Ultraviolet rays
(d) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
(c) X-rays (d) Radio waves
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES 371
41. If vs, vx and vm are the speed of soft gamma rays, X-rays 53. The polarisation of electromagnetic wave is in
and microwaves respectively in vacuum, then (a) the directions of electric and magnetic field
(a) vs > vx > vm (b) vs < vx < vm (b) the directions of electric field
(c) vs > vx < vm (d) vs = vx = vm (c) the direction of magnetic field
42. The waves which are electromagnetic in nature are (d) can not be polarized
(a) sound waves and light waves 54. If the frequency of EM radiations is halved then the energy
(b) water waves and radio waves of EM radiation will become
(c) light waves and X-rays (a) double (b) remains unchanged
(c) becomes half (d) becomes one fourth
(d) sound waves and water waves
55. Microwaves are electromagnetic waves with frequency in
43. In electromagnetic spectrum, the frequencies -rays, X-rays
the range of
and ultraviolet rays are denoted by n 1, n2 and n3 respectively
om
(a) Micro hertz (b) Giga hertz
then
(c) Mega hertz (d) Hertz
(a) n1 > n2 > n3 (b) n1 < n2 < n3
56. For television broadcasting the frequency employed is
(c) n1 > n2 < n3 (d) n1 < n2 > n3
t.c
normally
44. Ultraviolet spectrum can be studied by using a
(a) 30-300 MHz (b) 30-300 GHz
(a) flint glass prism (b) direct vision prism
po
(c) nicol prism (d) quartz prism (c) 30-300 kHz (d) 30-300 Hz
45. The ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs 57. Electromagnetic waves of frequency .... are reflected from
(a) only the radiowaves ionosphere.
gs
(b) only the visible light (a) 100 MHz (b) 2 MHz to 80 MHz
(c) only the -rays (c) upto 1.5 MHz (d) less than 1.5 MHz
(d) X-rays and ultraviolet rays
46. Which one of the following has the maximum energy?
lo
58. When an electromagnetic wave enters an ionised layer of
earth’s atmosphere present in ionosphere
.b
(a) Radio waves (b) Infrared rays (a) the electron cloud will not oscillate in the electric field
(c) Ultraviolet rays (d) Micro waves of the wave
r8
47. Which one of the following has the shortest wavelength? (b) the electron cloud will oscillate in the electric field of
(a) Infrared rays (b) Ultraviolet rays wave in the phase of sinusoidal electromagnetic wave
be
(c) Microwaves (d) Gamma rays (c) the electron cloud will oscillate in the electric field of
48. When electromagnetic waves enter the ionised layer of wave in the opposite phase of sinusoidal
cy
(a) does not change wave with a phase retardation of 90° for a sinusoidal
(b) appears to increase electromagnetic wave.
(c) appears to decrease 59. An electron oscillating with a frequency of 3 × 106 Hz, would
ch
49. Ultraviolet rays coming from sun are absorbed by (c) radio waves (d) microwaves
(a) troposphere (b) ionosphere 60. The cellular mobile radio frequency band is
(c) stratosphere (d) mesosphere (a) 88 – 108 MHz (b) 54 – 72 MHz
w
50. The EM waves when travel into different media gets (c) 540 – 1600 KHz (d) 840 – 935 MHz
w
(a) refracted (b) transmitted 61. Select the wrong statement. EM waves
(c) reflected (d) emitted (a) are transverse in nature.
w
51. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends (b) travel in free space at a speed of light.
upon (c) are produced by accelerating charges.
(a) their velocities (d) travel in all media with same speed.
(b) their frequencies 62. Ozone layer above earth’s atmosphere will not
(c) their distance from the transmitter (a) prevent infrared radiations from sun reaching earth.
(d) None of these (b) prevent infra red radiations originated from earth from
52. The velocity of all radio waves in free space is 3 × 10 8 m/s. escaping earth’s atmosphere.
The frequency of a radio wave of wavelength 150m is (c) prevent ultraviolet rays from sun.
(a) 20 kHz (b) 2 kHz (c) 2 MHz (d) 1 MHz (d) reflect back radio waves.
EBD_7208
372 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
63. Intensity of electromagnetic wave will be 73. The ozone layer absorbs radiation of wavelengths
2 (a) less than 3 × 10–7 m (b) more than 3 × 10–7 m
(a) I c 0 B0 /2 (b) I c 0 B20 / 2
(c) less than 3 × 10–5 m (d) more than 3 × 10–5 m
(c) I B02 / c 0 (d) I E 02 / 2c 0 74. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum depends
64. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which best suited upon the source of radiation. It
to observe a particle of radii 3 × 10–4 cm is of the order of (a) increases as we move from -rays to radio waves
(a) 1015 (b) 1014 (b) decreases as we move from -rays to radio waves
(c) 10 13 (d) 1012
(c) is same for all of them
65. If 10 Å then it corresponds to (d) None of these
(a) infrared (b) microwaves 75. In which one of the following regions of the electromagnetic
om
(c) ultraviolet (d) X-rays spectrum will the vibrational motion of molecules give rise
66. 10 cm is a wavelength corresponding to the spectrum of to absorption ?
(a) infrared rays (b) ultra-violet rays (a) Ultraviolet (b) Microwaves
t.c
(c) microwaves (d) -rays (c) Infrared (d) Radio waves
67. In an electromagnetic wave 76. The oscillating electric and magnetic vectors of an
(a) power is transmitted along the magnetic field
po
electromagnetic wave are oriented along
(b) power is transmitted along the electric field
(a) the same direction but differ in phase by 90°
(c) power is equally transferred along the electric and
(b) the same direction and are in phase
gs
magnetic fields
(d) power is transmitted in a direction perpendicular to (c) mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase
both the fields (d) mutually perpendicular directions and differ in phase
68. The electric and the magnetic field associated with an E.M.
wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be represented by
loby 90°
77. Biological importance of ozone layer is
.b
(a) E ˆB
E 0 i, B0 ˆj (b) E E 0 k, B B0ˆi (a) it stops ultraviolet rays
r8
69. The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a (d) ozone layer controls O2 / H2 radio in atmosphere
food item containing water molecules most efficiently is 78. It is possible to take pictures of those objects which are not
cy
(a) the frequency of the microwaves has no relation with fully visible to the eye using camera films sensitive to
natural frequency of water molecules. (a) ultraviolet rays (b) infrared rays
(b) microwaves are heat waves, so always produce
no
Which of the following has/have zero average value in a (c) gamma rays (d) radio waves
plane electromagnetic wave ?
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(c) Magnetic energy 81. Select the correct statement(s) from the following.
(d) Electric energy I. Displacement current comes into play in a region
72. The ratio of electric field vector E and magnetic field vector where electric field is changing with time.
E E
H i.e., H
has the dimensions of II. Displacement current ID = 0 t
(a) resistance III. In case of a steady electric flux linked with a region
(b) inductance the displacement current is minimum.
(c) capacitance (a) I only (b) II only
(d) product of inductance and capacitance (c) I and II only (d) I, II and III
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES 373
82. An electromagnetic wave of intensity I falls on a surface (a) (A) (3) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (1) ; (D) (4)
kept in vacuum and exerts radiation pressure P on it. (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
Which of the following statements are true? (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
I. Radiation pressure is I/c if the wave is totally (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
absorbed. 87. Various electromagnetic waves are given in column I and
II. Radiation pressure is I/c if the wave is totally various frequency ranges in column II. Match the two
reflected. columns.
III. Radiation pressure is 2 I/c if the wave is totally Column I Column II
reflected. (A) Radio waves (1) 1 × 1016 to 3 × 1021 Hz
(a) I and II (b) I and III (B) rays (2) 1 × 109 to 3 × 1011 HZ
(c) III only (d) I, II and III (C) Microwaves (3) 3 × 1018 to 5 × 1022 Hz
83. Which of the following is/are true for electromagnetic (D) X-rays (4) 5 × 105 to 109 Hz.
om
waves? (a) (A) (2) ; (B) (5) ; (C) (3) ; (D) (4)
I. They transport energy. (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
II. They have momentum. (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
t.c
III. They travel at different speeds in air depending on (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
their frequency. 88. Match the Column I and Column II.
(a) I and III (b) II only Column I Column II
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(c) I, II and III (d) I and II Electromagnetic wave Use
84. The amplitude of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is (A) ultraviolet rays (1) In satellite for army
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doubled with no other changes made to the wave. As a purpose
result of this doubling of the amplitude, which of the (B) Infrared rays (2) Aircraft navigation in’
following statements are incorrect? lo RADAR
I. The speed of wave propagation chages only (C) Microwave (3) Television and cellular
II. The frequency of the wave changes only phones
.b
III. The wavelength of the wave changes only (D) Radio wave (4) Checking mineral
(a) I and II (b) II and III sample
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(c) I and III (d) I, II and III (a) (A) (4) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (3)
85. Select the correct statement(s) from the following. (b) (A) (2) ; (B) (2) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
be
I. Wavelength of microwaves is greater than that of (c) (A) (4) ; (B) (3) ; (C) (2) ; (D) (1)
ultraviolet rays. (d) (A) (2) ; (B) (1) ; (C) (4) ; (D) (3)
cy
instant is
an electromagnetic wave
u
(B) Radiation pressure 2.
c
1 2 1 B2
(C) Speed of EM wave in 3. 0E
2 2 0
a medium
d E (a) + ve x-direction (b) –ve x-direction
(D) Displacement current 4. ID = 0 (c) +ve z-direction (d) –ve y-direction
dt
EBD_7208
374 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
91. The figure shows graphs of the electric field magnitude E 96. Assertion : Electromagnetic wave are transverse in
versus time t for four uniform electric fields, all contained nature.
within identical circular regions. Which of them is according Reason : The electric and magnetic fields in
to the magnitudes of the magnetic field? electromagnetic waves are perpendicular to each other
(a) A and the direction of propagation.
97. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves interact with matter
(b) B and set up oscillations.
(c) C Reason : Interaction is independent of the wavelength
of the electromagnetic wave.
(d) D
98. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves carry energy and
92. Figure shows a parallel plate capacitor and the current in momentum.
the connecting wires that is discharging the capacitor. Reason : Electromagnetic waves can be polarised.
om
99. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves exert radiation
pressure.
Reason : Electromagnetic waves carry energy.
100. Assertion : The electromagnetic wave is transverse in
t.c
nature.
Reason : Electromanetic wave propagates parallel to the
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direction of electric and magnetic fields.
101. Assertion : The velocity of electromagnetic waves
(a) The displacement current is leftward. depends on electric and magnetic properties of the
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(b) The displacement current is rightward medium.
Reason : Velocity of electromagnetic waves in free
(c) The electric field E is rightward space is constant.
(d) The magnetic field at point P is out the page. 102.
lo
Assertion : The basic difference between various types
of electromagnetic waves lies in their wavelength or
.b
frequencies.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIO Reason : Electromagnetic waves travel through vacuum
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Directions : Each of these questions contains two statements, with the same speed.
103. Assertion : Microwaves are better carrier of signals than
be
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct maintaining the average temperature of earth.
explanation for assertion. Reason : Infrared radiations are sometimes referred to
no
connected to a capacitor, displacement current increases 106. When an electromagnetic waves enter the ionised layer of
ionosphere, the motion of electron cloud produces a space
w
om
radiated magnetic field is .
109. An electromagnetic wave of frequency = 3 MHz passes (a) 3.33 × 10–10 T (b) 3.33 × 10–12 T
from vacuum into a dielectric medium with permittivity (c) 10 T –3 (d) 3 × 105 T
= 4. Then 116. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along
t.c
(a) wavelength and frequency both become half. x-axis. At a particular point in space, the electric field along
(b) wavelength is doubled and frequency remains y-axis is 9.3V m–1. The magnetic induction (B) along z-axis is
unchanged. (a) 3.1 × 10–8 T (b) 3 × 10–5 T
po
(c) wavelength and frequncy both remain unchanged. (c) 3 × 10 T –6 (d) 9.3 × 10–6 T
(d) wavelength is halved and frequency remains 117. A new system of unit is evolved in which the values of µ0
gs
unchanged.
and 0 are 2 and 8 respectively. Then the speed of light in
110. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave in vacuum is
this system will be
given by E iˆ 40 cos (kz – 6 × 108t), where E, z and t are in lo
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5
volt/m, meter and seconds respectively. The value of wave (c) 0.75 (d) 1
.b
vector k is 118. The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from
(a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1 the Sun is 720 N/C. The average total energy density of the
–1 (d) 3 m–1
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24. (a) Every body at all time, at all temperature emit radiation
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
(except at T = 0), which fall in the infrared region.
1. (c) 2. (c) 25. (a)
3. (b) Current through capacitor, 26. (c) In vacuum X-rays, gamma rays and microwaves travel
with same velocity, i.e., with the velocity of light c (=3
E E × 108 m s–1) but have different wavelengths.
I= = CE = 2 CE or I
XC 1 27. (b) The wavelength of radiowaves being much larger than
om
C light, has a size comparable to those of buildings, hense
decrease in frequency of ac source decreases the diffract from them.
conduction current. As displacement current is 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
t.c
equal to conduction current, decrease in decreases 31. (b) The range of visible radiations is 4000Å to 8000 Å
displacement current in circuit. 32. (a) Cosmic rays are coming from outer space, having high
4. (a) Displacement current arises when electric field in a energy charged particles, like a-particle, proton etc. b-
po
region is changing with time. It will be so if the rays are stream of high energy electrons, coming from
charge on a capacitor is changing with time. the nucleus of radioactive atoms.
33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d)
gs
5. (a)
36. (a) The wavelength of infrared region is 8 × 10–5 cm to
6. (c) In the steady state B.dl o (I) , where I is
3 × 10–3 cm. So maximum wavelength of infrared region
conduction current.
37.
lo
(d) 38. (d)
= 8 × 10–5 cm 10–4 cm.
.b
[In non steady state B.d (I I d ) , where I is
d
39. (a) Radiowaves are reflected by ionosphere.
displacement current.] 40. (a) 41. (d)
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7. (a)
42. (c) Light waves and X-rays are electromagnetic waves.
8. (a) Displacement current is set up in a region where the
43. (a) From electromagnetic spectrum, frequencies of -rays
be
oscillating electric and magnetic vectors in mutually The frequency of radio waves is given by
perpendicular planes but vibrating in phase.
v 3 108
.te
velocity of light. 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d) 61. (d)
16. (d)
w
62. (d) Ozone layer will absorb ultraviolet rays; reflect the
17. (c) The direction of propagation of electromagnetic
infrared radiation and does not reflect back
wave is perpendicular to the variation of electric
w
radiowaves.
field E as well as to the magnetic field B 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (d)
18. (b) Velocity of light in a medium, 68. (a) E.M. wave always propagates in a direction
1 1
c perpendicular to both electric and magnetic fields. So,
0 o r r electric and magnetic fields should be along + X and +
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b) Y- directions respectively. Therefore, option (a) is the
22. (d) The speed of electromagnetic wave in a region is same correct option.
for all intensities but different for different frequencies.
69. (d) Required condition : Frequency of microwaves =
23. (b) An electromagnetic wave has both energy and
Resonant frequency of water molecules.
momentum.
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES 377
om
1 90. (a) Direction of energy progration of EM-waves is given
74. (c) Speed of EM waves in vacuum constant by
0 0
75. (b) Molecular spectra due to vibrational motion lie in the D = K (E B) or –kˆ = K ( E ˆj B )
t.c
microwave region of EM-spectrum. Due to Kirchhoff’s Clearly direction of magnetic field is along positive x-
law in spectroscopy the same will be absorbed. axis.
76. (c) E and B are mutually perpendicular to each other
po
and are in phase i.e., they become a zero and minimum d
at the same place and at the same time. 91. (c) B.d b2 4 ac = 0 0
dt
77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (b)
gs
dE dE
or B 2 r = 0 0 A B
dt dt
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 92. (a) Accor ding to conservation of charge, th e
lo
81. (c) displacement current must be leftward.
.b
82. (b) Momentum per unit time per unit area
id
intensity I i
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= speed =
of wave c
Change in momentum per unit time per unit area
be
I 2I
Here, P lies between and . and so the mechanism of absorption, scattering, etc.
c c depend of the wavelength of the electromagnetic
w
83. (c) wave, and the nature of the atoms and molecules in
84. (d) : Velocity of electromagnetic wave the medium.
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considerably in their mode of interaction with matter. k= 2m 1
103. (d) The optical waves used in optical fibre c 3 108
communication are better carrier of signals than 111. (b) From question,
microwaves. The speed of microwave and optical B0 = 20 nT = 20 × 10–9T
t.c
wave is the same in vacuum.
104. (b) Infrared radiation help to maintain the earth warmth E0 B0 C
through the greenhouse effect. Incoming visible
light which passes relatively easily through the | E 0 | | B0 | . | C | 20 10 9 3 108 = 6 V/m.
po
atmosphere is absorbed by the earth’s surface and ( velocity of light in vacuum C = 3 × 108 ms–1)
re-radiated as infrared radiation. The radiation is
trapped by greenhouse gases such as carbon c 3 108
gs
dioxide and water vapour and they heat up and heat 112. (a) Here, 36.6 m.
their surrondings. 8.2 106
lo E 0 9 103
113. (d) B0 3 10 5 T.
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS c 3 108
.b
114. (a) Here, amplitude of electric field, E0 = 100 V/m; amplitude
105. (b) Displacement current, ID = conduction current, IC of magnetic field, H0 = 0.265 A/m. We know that the
maximum rate of energy flow,
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dq d
[q0 cos2 t] = – q0 2 sin2 t S = E0 × H0 = 100 × 0.265 = 26.5 W/m2.
dt dt
106. (b) E0
be
115. (b) B0
107. (d) Id = 1 mA = 10–3 A c
C = 2 F = 2 × 10–6 F E0 - Electric field, c - speed of light, B0 - Magnetic
cy
Field.
d dV
ID = IC = (CV) = C 3
dt dt 10 12
B0 3.33 10 T
no
3 3 108
dV I D 10 116. (a) Velocity of light
Therefore, = = 500 Vs–1
dt C 2 10 6 E E 9.3
ch
c= 1 1
E 20 [ 2E rms ]2 2
2 c 0 0 0 E rms
2 2
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om
9. The image formed by a concave mirror is
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) always real
t.c
1. Electromagnetic radiation belonging to _________ region (b) always virtual
of spectrum is called light. (c) certainly real if the object is virtual
po
(a) 100 nm to 400 nm (b) 400 nm to 750 nm (d) certainly virtual if the object is real
(c) 750 nm to 10 nm (d) 1000 nm to 1400 nm 10. In image formation from spherical mirrors, only paraxial rays
are considered because they
2. The turning back of light into the same medium after incident
gs
(a) are easy to handle geometrically
on a boundary separating two media is called
(b) contain most of the intensity of the incident light
(a) reflection of light (b) refraction of light (c) form nearly a point image of a point source
3.
(c) dispersion of light (d) interference of light
A point source of light is placed in front of a plane mirror. Then
lo
(d) show minimum dispersion effect
11. For reflection through spherical surfaces, the normal at
.b
(a) all the reflected rays meet at a point when produced the point of incidence is
backward (a) perpendicular to the principle axis and passes through
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(b) only the reflected rays close to the normal meet at a the centre of curvature
point when produced backward. (b) perpendicular to the focal plane and passes through
be
(c) only the reflected rays making a small angle with the the pole.
mirror, meet at a point when produced backward. (c) perpendicular to the tangent plane at pole and passes
(d) light of different colours make different images. through the focus.
cy
4. The field of view is maximum for (d) perpendicular to the tangent plane at the point of
(a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror incidence and passes through the centre of curvature.
no
(c) plane mirror (d) concave lens (b) only convex mirror
6. An object is placed 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal (c) both concave and convex mirror
length 20 cm. The image formed is (d) any type of reflecting surface
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(a) real, inverted and same in size 13. Which of the following (referred to a spherical mirror)
(b) real, inverted and smaller depends on whether the rays are paraxial or not?
(a) Pole (b) Focus
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7. All of the following statements are correct except Which of the following is correct for the beam which
(a) the magnification produced by a convex mirror is enters the medium?
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om
medium (a) the nature of the source
(c) the refractive indices of the two media are close to (b) its wavelength
different (c) its direction of propagation
t.c
(d) the refractive indices of the two media are widely (d) its intensity
different 27. A parallel beam of light is incident on a converging lens
19. The difference between reflection and total internal parallel to its principal axis. As one moves away from the
po
reflection is that lens on the other side on its principal axis, the intensity
(a) the laws of reflection hold true for reflection but not of light
gs
for total internal reflection. (a) remains constant
(b) total internal reflection can take place only when light (b) continuously increases
travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium while (c) continuously decreases
reflection can take place vice-versa also.
lo
(d) first increases then decreases
(c) reflection can take place when light travels from a 28. The rays of different colours fail to converge at a point
.b
rarer medium to denser medium and vice-versa but after going through a converging lens. This defect is called
total internal reflection can take place only when it (a) spherical aberration (b) distortion
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travels from an optically denser to an optically rarer (c) coma (d) chromatic aberration
medium. 29. What causes chromatic aberration?
be
(d) reflection is a natural phenomena while total internal (a) Marginal rays
reflection is man-made. (b) Central rays
20.
cy
When the angle of incidence of a light ray is greater than (c) Difference in radii of curvature of its surfaces
the critical angle it gets
(d) Variation of focal length of lens with colour
(a) critically refracted
30.
no
(b) Scattering (d) any of the three is possible depending on the value of
(c) Diffraction the average refractive index m
(d) Refraction 31. A narrow beam of white light goes through a slab having
w
22. Critical angle of light passing from glass to water is minimum parallel faces
for
w
(c) the light inside the slab is split into different colours
23. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?
(a) Working of optical fibre (d) the light inside the slab is white
(b) Difference between apparent and real depth of pond 32. Chromatic aberration in a lens is caused by
(c) Mirage on hot summer days (a) reflection (b) interference
(d) Brilliance of diamond (c) diffraction (d) dispersion
24. Identify the wrong sign convention 33. Which of the following is Lens maker’s formula?
(a) The magnification for virtual image formed by a convex 2 1 2 1 1 1 1
(a) (b)
lens is positive v u R v u R
(b) The magnification for real image formed by a convex 1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) (d) f 1
lens is negative f v u R1 R2
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS 381
34. The angular dispersion produced by a prism (c) Random.
(a) increases if the average refractive index increases (d) White and dark alternatively
(b) increases if the average refractive index decreases 44. Which light rays undergoes two internal reflection inside
(c) remains constant whether the average refractive index a raindrop, which of the rainbow is formed?
increases or decreases (a) Primary rainbow (b) Secondary rainbow
(d) has no relation with average refractive index. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Can’t say
35. If a glass prism is dipped in water, its dispersive power 45. In secondary rainbow what is the order of colours observed
(a) increases from earth?
(b) decreases (a) Violet innermost, red outermost.
(c) does not change (b) Red innermost, violet outer most.
(d) may increase or decrease depending on whether the (c) Random.
angle of the prism is less than or greater than 60º (d) White and dark alternatively.
om
36. If D is the deviation of a normally falling light beam on a 46. Identify the mismatch in the following
thin prism of angle A and is the dispersive power of the (a) Myopia - Concave lens
same prism then (b) For rear view - Concave mirror
t.c
(a) D is independent of A. (c) Hypermetropia - Convex lens
(b) D is independent of refractive Index. (d) Astigmatism - Cylindrical lens
(c) is independent of refractive index. 47. Astigmatism is corrected using
po
(d) is independent of A. (a) cylindrical lens (b) plano-convex lens
37. When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its (c) plano-concave lens (d) convex lens
constituent colours. This is due to 48. The focal length of a normal eye-lens is about
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(a) high density of prism material (a) 1 mm (b) 2 cm
(b) because is different for different wavelength (c) 25 cm (d) 1 m
(c) diffraction of light
(d) velocity changes for different frequency
49. lo
A normal eye is not able to see objects closer than 25 cm
because
38. Yellow light is refracted through a prism producing minimum
.b
(a) the focal length of the eye is 25 cm
deviation. If i1 and i2 denote the angle of incidence and (b) the distance of the retina from the eye-lens is 25 cm
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(d) the eye is not able to decrease the focal length beyond
39. By properly combining two prisms made of different
materials, it is not possible to have a limit
50. The image formed by an objective of a compound
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(d) neither dispersion nor average deviation (c) virtual and enlarged (d) virtual and diminished
40. When the incidence angle is equal to the angle of 51. An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to
emergence of light from the prism the refracted ray inside (a) reduce spherical aberration
ch
(b) becomes perpendicular to the base of prism (d) have low dispersion
(c) becomes parallel to the base of prism 52. To increase the angular magnification of a simple
(d) becomes perpendicular to the left face of prism microscope, one should increase
w
41. The dispersive power of a prism depends on its (a) the focal length of the lens
(a) shape (b) the power of the lens
w
(d) refractive index of the monitorial of the prism 53. In which of the following the final image is erect ?
42. The angle of prism is 60° and angle of deviation is 30°. (a) Simple microscope
In the position of minimum deviation, the values of angle (b) Compound microscope
of incidence and angle of emergence are: (c) Astronomical telescope
(a) i = 45°; e = 50° (b) i = 30°; e = 45° (d) None of these
(c) i = 45°; e = 45° (d) i = 30°; e = 30° 54. Resolving power of a telescope increases with
43. In primary rainbow what is the order of colours observed (a) increase in focal length of eye-piece
from earth ? (b) increase in focal length of objective
(a) Violet innermost, red outermost. (c) increase in aperture of eye piece
(b) Red innermost, violet outermost. (d) increase in apeture of objective
EBD_7208
382 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
55. An experiment is performed to find the refractive index of 62. If i = angle of incidence and r = angle of refraction, then
glass using a travelling microscope. In this experiment sin i
the ratio
distances are measured by sin r
(a) a vernier scale provided on the microscope I. is a constant for a pair of media.
(b) a standard laboratory scale II. is called refractive index of medium 2 with respect to
(c) a meter scale provided on the microscope medium 1.
(d) a screw gauge provided on the microscope III. is called absolute refractive index of medium 2.
56. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then IV. varies with temperature.
magnifying power of : (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(a) microscope will increase but that of telescope (c) I, II and IV (d) I, III and IV
decrease. 63. Which of the following is/are correct relations?
(b) microscope and telescope both will increase. 1
om
(c) microscope and telescope both will decrease I. n21 = II. n32 = n31 × n12
n12
(d) microscope will decrease but that of telescope
n 1a n 2a
increase. III. n21 = n IV. n21 = n
57. The light gathering power of an astronomical telescope
t.c
2a 1a
depends upon (a) I, II and IV (b) I, III and IV
(a) length of tube (b) focal length of objective (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
po
(c) area of eye-piece (d) area of objective 64. Which of the following statements is/are correct about a
58. The objective of a telescope must be of large diameter in convex lens?
order to I. Convex lens is converging for light for all wavelengths.
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(a) remove chromatic aberration II. For virtual object, the image is also virtual.
(b) remove spherical aberration and high magnification III. For real object, the image is always real.
(c) gather more light and for high resolution (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) Only I
(d) increase its range of observation 65.
lo
Sunlight reaches to us in composite form and not in its
constituent colours because
.b
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS I. vacuum is non–dispersive.
II. speed of all colours is same in vacuum.
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59. Which of the following statements about laws of III. light behaves like a particle in vacuum.
reflection is/are correct? IV. light travels in a straght line in vacuum.
be
I. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal all (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV(d) I and IV
66. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
lie in the same plane.
I. At sunset or sunrise, the sun’s rays have to pass
II. Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
cy
(a) I only (b) II only III. Rayleigh scattering which is proportional to (1/ )2.
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III (a) I and II (b) I and III
60. A convex mirror is used to form the image of an object. (b) II and III (d) I, II and III
ch
II. The image is diminished in size 67. Match the Column-I and Column-II
III. The image is real Column – I Column – II
(a) I only (b) II only (A) An object is placed at focus (1) Magnification is –
w
In case of reflection over spherical surface, which of (B) An object is placed at centre (2) Magnification is 0.5
these are correct ? of curvature before a concave
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om
(B) (2) Biconcave
(d) (A) (1); (B) (4); (C) (3); (D) (2)
72. Match the following Column II gives nature of image formed
in various cases given in Column I
t.c
Column – I Column – II
f
po
(C) (3) Convexoconcave
(A) f O f/2 (1) Real
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(D) (4) Biconvex (B) loO f
(2) Inverted
.b
(a) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
(b) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (1)
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(d) (A) (4); (B) (3, 4); (C) (2, 3); (D) (1)
(A) Lens of power + 2.0 D (1) Convex lens of focal
73. Column I Column II
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om
(a) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (4); (D) (1)
(b) (A) (1); (B) (4); (C) (3); (D) (2)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1) I
t.c
(d) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (3) O C F
(d)
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
po
75. Figure shows two rays A and B being reflected by a mirror 78. Refraction of light from air to glass and from air to water
and going as A' and B'. The mirror are shown in figure (i) and figure (ii) below. The value of
the angle in the case of refraction as shown in figure
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A
(iii) will be
B A
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Glass
35°
60°
Air
.b
(i) (ii)
Air 60° Water
41°
B
r8
(a) is plane
(b) is convex
be
where the object is at ‘c’ will be (a) 30° (b) 35° (c) 60° (d) 41°
M 79. The following figure shows refraction of light at the
no
H Medium 1 Medium 2
r2 Medium 3
ch
B P r1
B C h F
r1
.te
i1
A
w
(b) u = +ve; v = –ve; H= –ve; h = +ve (c) d3 > d3 > d2 (d) d2 > d3 > d1
(c) u = –ve; v = –ve; H = +ve; h = –ve 80. A rays of light is incident on a t
w
om
angle of incidence i 3 9
(see Fig). The reflected 2
and refracted rays r' (c) sin
3
make an angle of 90° (d) None of these
t.c
with each other. The angles of reflection and refraction are
r and r’. The critical angle is ASSERTION - REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) sin–1(tan r) (b) sin–1(tan i)
po
–1 Directions : Each of these questions contains two statements,
(c) sin (tan r) (d) tan–1(tan i)
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
83. A light ray falls on a rectangular glass slab as 45º alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
gs
shown. The index of refraction of the glass, if
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
total internal reflection is to occur at the vertical
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
face, is lo
explanation for assertion.
3 1 Glass
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
(a) 3/ 2 (b)
.b
2 correct explanation for assertion
2 1 (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
r8
i
85. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A the object is virtual but the image is real.
ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum deviation 92. Assertion : An object is placed at a distance of f from a
w
(a) PQ is horizontal R convex mirror of focal length f its image will form at infinity.
w
(b) QR is horizontal Q S Reason : The distance of image in convex mirror can never
P
(c) RS is horizontal be infinity.
(d) Any one will be horizontal 93. Assertion : Critical angle is minimum for violet colour.
86. A light ray is incident
1 1 1
perpendicularly to one face of Reason : Because critical angle c sin and .
a 90° prism and is totally
internally reflected at the 94. Assertion : Two convex lenses joined together cannot
glass-air interface. If the produce an achromatic combination.
angle of reflection is 45°, we 1 2
Reason : The condition for achromatism is f 0
conclude that the refractive 1 f2
index where symbols have their usual meaning.
EBD_7208
386 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
95. Assertion : The image of a point object situated at the 106. A glass slab of thickness 4 cm contains the same number of
centre of hemispherical lens is also at the centre. waves as 5 cm of water when both are traversed by the
Reason : For hemisphere Snell's law is not valid. same monochromatic light. If the refractive index of water is
96. Assertion : When a convex lens (µg= 3/2) of focal length f is 4/3, what is that of glass?
4 (a) 5/3 (b) 5/4 (c) 16/15 (d) 1.5
dipped in water, its focal length becomes f .
3 107. The index of refraction of diamond is 2.0. The velocity of
Reason : The focal length of convex lens in water becomes 4f. light in diamond is approximately
97. Assertion: The focal length of an equiconvex lens of radius (a) 1.5 × 1010 cm/sec (b) 2 × 1010 cm/sec
of curvature R made of material of refractive index µ = 1.5, is R. (c) 3.0 × 1010 cm/sec (d) 6 × 1010 cm/sec
Reason : The focal length of the lens will be R/2. 108. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and
98. Assertion : If the rays are diverging after emerging from a refractive index . If c is the speed of light in vacuum, the
lens; the lens must be concave. time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is
Reason : The convex lens can give diverging rays.
om
99. Assertion : A lens, whose radii of curvature are different, is (a) mtc (b) tc
t t
(c) (d)
forming the image of an object placed on its axis. If the lens c c
is reversed, the position of the image will not change.
Reason : Th e focal length of a lens is given by 109. One face of a rectangular glass plate 6 cm thick is silvered.
t.c
An object held 8 cm in front of the first face, forms an image
1 1 1 12 cm behind the silvered face. The refractive index of the
( 1)
f R1 R2 , and so focal length in both the cases glass is
po
is same. (a) 0.4 (b) 0.8 (c) 1.2 (d) 1.6
100. Assertion : The resolving power of a telescope is more if 110. A beam of monochromatic blue light of wavelength 420 nm
the diameter of the objective lens is more. in air travels in water ( = 4/3). Its wavelength in water will
gs
Reason : Objective lens of large diameter collects more light. be
101. Assertion : The optical instruments are used to increase (a) 280 nm (b) 560 nm (c) 315 nm (d) 400 nm
the size of the image of the object. 111. lo
The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 1014 Hz
Reason : The optical instruments are used to increase the
and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index of material
visual angle.
.b
will be
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS (a) 1.50 (b) 3.00 (c) 1.33 (d) 1.40
r8
incident on a plane mirror. After reflection, it travels along critical angle between them is
1
the direction (iˆ 3 ˆj ) . The angle of incidence is 1 2 1 3
2 (a) sin (b) tan
ch
3 4
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 75°
104. A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil of refractive index 1 2 1 3
(c) tan (d) sin
and the other half is filled with water of refractive index 3 4
.te
The apparent depth of the vessel when viewed from 114. The critical angle for light going from medium X into medium
above is Y is . The speed of light in medium X is v, then speed of
w
x( 1 2)
light in medium Y is
x 1 2
(a) (b) (a) v(1 – cos ) (b) v/sin
2 1
w
(c) (d)
( 1 2) 1 2 index , falls on a surface separating the medium from air at
105. A ray of light travelling inside a rectangular glass block of an angle of incidence of 45°. For which of the following
refractive index 2 is incident on the glass-air surface at value of the ray can undergo total internal reflection?
an angle of incidence of 45º. The refractive index of air is (a) = 1.33 (b) = 1.40 (c) = 1.50 (d) = 1.25
one. Under these conditions the ray will 116. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the
(a) emerge into the air without any deviation convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the
(b) be reflected back into the glass lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius
(c) be absorbed of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright
(d) emerge into the air with an angle of refraction equal image of the object coincident with it?
to 90º
(a) 12 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 50 cm (d) 60 cm
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS 387
117. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical power of 126. The dispersive power of material of a lens of focal length 20
– 5 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid medium with refractive cm is 0.08. What is the longitudinal chromatic aberration of
index 1.6 will be the lens ?
(a) – 1D (b) 1 D (c) – 25 D (d) 25 D (a) 0.08 cm (b) 0.08/20 cm (c) 1.6 cm (d) 0.16 cm
118. A plano-convex lens is made of material of refractive index 127. A planoconvex lens of focal length 16 cm, is to be made of
1.6. The radius of curvature of the curved surface is 60 cm. glass of refractive index 1.5. The radius of curvature of the
The focal length of the lens is curved surface should be
(a) 50 cm (b) 100 cm (c) 200 cm (d) 400 cm (a) 8 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 16 cm (d) 24 cm
119. The radius of curvature of a thin plano-convex lens is 10 cm 128. A man’s near point is 0.5 m and far point is 3 m. Power of
(of curved surface) and the refractive index is 1.5. If the spectacle lenses required for (i) reading purposes, (ii) seeing
plane surface is silvered, then it behaves like a concave distant objects, respectively, are
mirror of focal length (a) –2 D and + 3 D (b) +2 D and –3 D
om
120. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive (c) +2 D and –0.33 D (d) –2 D and + 0.33 D
index 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are 129. Two thin lenses are in contact and the focal length of the
placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of one lens is 20
The intervening space is filled with oil of refractive index
t.c
cm, then the power of the other lens will be
1.7. The focal length of the combination is (a) 1.66 D (b) 4.00 D (c) – 100 D (d) – 3.75 D
(a) –25 cm (b) –50 cm (c) 50 cm (d) –20 cm 130. A thin convergent glass lens ( g = 1.5) has a power of
po
3 + 5.0 D. When this lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive
121. A thin convex lens made from crown glass has index , it acts as a divergent lens of focal length 100 cm.
2
The value of must be
gs
focal length f. When it is measured in two different liquids (a) 4/3 (b) 5/3 (c) 5/4 (d) 6/5
4 5 131. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to
having refractive indices and , it has the focal lengths lo
its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material
3 3
whose refractive index
f1 and f2 respectively. The correct relation between the focal
.b
lengths is: (a) lies between 2 and 1
(a) f1 = f2 < f
r8
(a) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass.
the water at an angle of 90º to the normal. Then,
(a) D1 < D2
no
om
respective resolving powers (corresponding to l and 2) is
(c) 180° + 2A (d) 180° – 3A
137. A ray of light is incident normally on one refracting surface (a) 16 : 25 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 4.
of an equilateral prism. If the refractive index of the material 143. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is
t.c
of the prism is 1.5, then adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the objective
(a) the emergent ray is deviated by 30° and the eye piece is found to be 20 cm. The focal length of
(b) the emergent ray is deviated by 60°
po
lenses are
(c) the emergent ray just graces the second reflecting (a) 18 cm, 2 cm (b) 11 cm, 9 cm
surface (c) 10 cm, 10 cm (d) 15 cm, 5 cm
gs
(d) the ray undergoes total internal reflection at second 144. The focal length of the objective of a telescope is 60 cm. To
refracting surface obtain a magnification of 20, the focal length of the eye
(e) the ray emerges normally from the second refracting piece should be
138.
surface
A thin prism of angle 15º made of glass of refractive index 145.
lo
(a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 4 cm
The focal lengths of objective and eye lens of an
(d) 5 cm
.b
µ1 = 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass of refractive astronomical telelscope are respectively 2 meter and 5 cm.
index µ2 = 1.75. The combination of the prism produces Final image is formed at (i) least distance of distinct vision
r8
dispersion without deviation. The angle of the second prism (ii) infinity Magnifying power in two cases will be
should be (a) – 48, – 40 (b) – 40, – 48
be
(a) 7° (b) 10° (c) 12° (d) 5° (c) – 40, + 48 (d) – 48, + 40
139. A prism has a refracting angle of 60º. When placed in the 146. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of focal length
position of minimum deviation, it produces a deviation of 60 cm and a single eye lens of focal length 5 cm is focussed on
cy
30º. The angle of incidence is a distant object in such a way that parallel rays emerge from
(a) 30º (b) 45º (c) 15º (d) 60º the eye lens. If the object subtends an angle of 2º at the
no
140. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that objective, the angular width of the image is
the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence (a) 10º (b) 24º (c) 50º (d) (1/6)º
ch
.te
w
w
w
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS 389
FACT/DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS place when ray of light travels from optically denser
medium ( 1 > 2) to optically rarer medium.
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 19. (c) For total internal reflection light ray must travel from
5. (a) Virtual image formed is larger in size in case of optically denser to an optically rarer medium.
concave mirror. 20. (c) As i > ic
6. (a) Real, inverted and same in size because object is at At i = ic angle of refraction
the centre of curvature of the mirror.
om
‘r’ = 90°
7. (d) Convex mirror always forms, virtual, erect and
smaller image. sin ic
=µ=1
8. (a) To see his full image in a plane mirror a person requires sin 90
t.c
a mirror of at least half of his height. 21. (a) The basic principle of communication in fibre optics is
H based on the phenomenon of total internal reflection.
M
po
22. (d)
E H 23. (b) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond
H 2 is due to the refraction of light, not due to the total
gs
internal reflection. Other three phenomena are due to
M' the total internal reflection.
9. (c)
L lo
24. (d) The magnification for vertual image formed by
concave lens is positive.
.b
10. (c) Because they form nearly point image of point source. 25. (a) The apparent flattening (oval shape) of the sun at
11. (d) sunset and sunrise is due to refraction.
r8
the ray at the edges of the beam move faster forms images at different position. This phenomenon
compared to the axis of beam. Hence the beam is called chromatic aberration.
no
1
From fig. we see that 1 1
f V fR ( 1)
f
.te
i medium 1 (m1) 31. (b,c) If faces of prism on which light is incident & from
denser
which it emerge are parallel, then angle of prism will
rare 90 – r be zero & so deviation will also be zero i.e., the prism
w
r
will act as a transparent prism.
32. (d) 33. (d)
w
medium 2 (m2)
r > i v2 > v1 from Snell’s Law 34. (a) The angular dispersion i.e., the angle between the
w
om
Magnifying power of telescope = f0
39. (d) We can combine two prisms in such a way fe
(i) deviation is zero but dispersion not Hence with increase f0 magnifying power of telescope
(ii) dispersion is zero but deviation is not.
t.c
increases.
But in any situation both deviation & dispersion 57. (d) Because of large objective area more light is gathered.
can not be zero simultaneously.
po
40. (c) At the minimum deviation, A As magnification m =
f = Dm angle of incidence
i = angle of emergence = angle subtended at the eye by the final image
gs
e and inside the prism i e = angle subtended by the object at the lens or eye
refracted ray parallel to the O 58. (c) With large diameters of objective, the ability to
41. (d)
base of the prism B C lo
observe two objects distinctly, increases as more
light is gathered.
.b
42. (c) In the position of minimum deviation
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
A m 60 30
r8
i=e= 45
2 2 59. (d)
43. (a) 60. (d) The image formed by a convex mirror is always
be
45. (b)
46. (b) For rear view, Convex mirror is used in vehicle radius, the line joining the centre of curvature of the
47. (a) Cylindrical lens is used to rectify eye defect astigmatism mirror to the point of incidence.
no
by compound microscope is inverted, virtual, enlarged pricipal axis is the line joining the optical centre with
and at a distance D to infinite or from an eye, on same its principal focus.
side of eye piece. 62. (c) The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the
w
51. (b) The aperture of objective lens of Astronomical sine of angle of refraction is constant. Remember
w
telescope is large to get better resolution. Since that the angles of incidence (i) and refraction (r) are
D the angles that the incident and its refracted ray
w
resolution of telescope power is R , where D make with the normal, respectively. We have,
1.22
is the diameter of the objective lens of Telescope. sin i
52. (b) One should increase the power of lens i.e., decrease n21 ...(i)
sin r
the focal length of a lens.
where, n21 is a constant, called the refractive index
53. (a) In simple microscope the final image is erect.
of the medium 2 w.r.t. the medium 1. Eq. (i) is the well
54. (d) Resolving power plane transmission grating known Snell’s law of refraction. We note that n21 is
d
a characteristic of the pair of media (and also
Resolving power for telescope
1 d d0 depends on the wavelength of light) but is
independent of the angle of incidence
limit of resolution 1.22 dl
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS 391
63. (a) If n21 is the refractive index of medium 2 with respect 1
to medium 1 and n12 the refractive index of medium 70. (b) (i) P = +2.0 f=
× 100 cm = + 50 cm
2.0
1 with respect to medium 2, then it should be clear that (Positive power convex lens)
1
n12 (ii) P = P1 + P2 = (+0.25) + (+0.25) = +0.50 D
n21
It also follows that if n32 is the refractive index of 1 1
f= = × 100 cm = 200 cm
medium 3 with respect to medium 2, then n32 = P 0.5
n31 × n12, where n31 is the refractive index of medium 1
III with respect to medium I. (iii) P = –2.0 f=
× 100 cm = –50 cm
2.0
64. (a) Convex lens is a converging lens provided refractive
(–ve power concave lens)
index of the material of the lens is greater than the
surrounding medium in which the lens is kept. (iv) P = P1 + P2 = (–6.0) + (+3.5) = –2.5 Da
om
From lens maker’s formula, 1 1
1 1 1 f= = × 100 cm = –40 cm
( 2 1) p –2.5
f R1 R2 1
71. (a) A - (2) : M = is for erect or virtrual image and so it
t.c
Refracting index of lens varies inversely with the 4
wavelength of light used. is possible for convex mirror.
II. For virtual object, image is real for convex lens. B - (1): m = –1, negative magnification is possible
po
in concave mirror.
C - (1) : m = 2, is possible for concave mirror when
object is put between focal point and pole
gs
O I O
(Virtual object)
Real image
of the mirror.
D - (3) : m = 1 is possible for plane mirror.
65. (a) The variation of refractive index with wavelength lo
72. (b)
may be more pronounced in some media than the
other. In vacuum, of course, the speed of light is 73. (d) 74. (c)
.b
independent of wavelength. Thus, vacuum (or air
approximately) is a non-dispersive medium in which DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
r8
through a larger distance in the atmosphere and mirror passes through the focus and the ray passing
most of the blue or other shorter wavelengths are through the centre of curvature set retr its path.
removed by scattering.
no
sin 60
78. (b) a g = ... (i)
sin 35
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS sin 60
ch
a
= ... (ii)
67. (c) A-2 : For u = –f, w sin 41°
1 1 1 sin 41
w
f = f = ... (iii)
.te
v g sin
f a w a
v= w × g = g
2
w
om
r Now, 1.125
d = t (i – r), d = it 1 g
4/3
i g
81. (d) 1 8
Putting in (i), sin
t.c
1 sin 90 1 1.125 9
82. (a) 2 [For critical angle] 8
sin C sin C
sin should be greater than or equal to .
9
po
1
C sin 1 … (i)
1
2 ASSERTION - REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Applying Snell’s law at P, we get
gs
88. (b) Plane mirror may form real image, if object is virtual.
1 sin r sin(90 r)
2 [ i r; r ' r 90 ]
sin i sin r
1
2
cos r
sin r
... (ii)
lo (Real) I O (virtual)
.b
From (i) and (ii) 89. (d) Focal length of the spherical mirror does not depend
C = sin–1 (tan r)
on the medium in which it placed.
r8
sin 45 1 90. (c) The image of real object may be real in case of concave
83. (a) For point A, a g sin r
sin r 2a g mirror.
be
1 1 Glass a g 3/ 2
1 1
= 2 4/3
1 sin r 1 a w
1
.te
2 a g2 1
( 1)
1 1 1 1
97. (c) f = R1 R2 = (1.5 – 1)
2 1 2 a 2g R R
a g or f = R.
1 2 a 2g
w
1 1 98. (d) If the rays cross focal point of convex lens, they
2 a g2 become diverging.
w
3 99. (a)
2 a 2g 1 2 a g
100. (a) RP diameter of objective.
w
2
84. (c) For the prism as the angle of incidence (i) increases, 101. (d)
the angle of deviation ( ) first decreases goes to
minimum value and then increases. CRITICALTHINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
85. (b) For minimum deviation, incident angle is equal to
emerging angle. 102. (d) f = 10 cm
QR is horizontal.
86. (b) The incident angle is 45° incident angle > critical angle,
i > ic B A
sin i sin i c or sin 45 sin i c –10 cm –20 cm
1 1 1 1
sin i c sin 45 or n 2
n n 2 n
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS 393
The focal length of the mirror 5 4
106. (a) Given that w g and a w
1 1 1 4 3
– 5 4 5
f v u a g w g a w
For A end of the rod the image distance 4 3 3
When u1 = – 20 cm 107. (a)
108. (d) Total thickness = t; Refrative index =
1 1 1 c
10 v1 20 Speed of light in Glass plate =
1 1 1 2 1 Speed of light in vacuum
v
v1 10 20 = 20 R.I. of Medium
v1 = – 20 cm t t
Time taken = c c
For when u2 = – 30 cm
om
1 1
(where t = thickness of glass plate)
f v2 30
109. (c) Thickness of glass plate (t) = 6 cm;
t.c
1 1 1 30 10 20 Distance of the object (u) = 8 cm. and
v2 10 30 = 300 300 distance of the image (v) = 12 cm.
v2 = – 15 cm Let x = Apparent position of the silvered surface in cm.
po
L = v2 – v1 = – 15 – (– 20) Since the image is formed due to relfection at the silvered
L = 5 cm face and by the property of mirror image distance of object
gs
ˆi 3 ˆ ˆi 3ˆ from the mirror = Distance of image from the mirror
j . j or x + 8 = 12 + 6 – x or x = 5 cm.
2 2 2 2
103. (a) cos(180 2 ) Therefore refractive index of glass
lo
2 2 2 Re al depth 6
1 3 1 3 = Apparent depth 1.2 .
5
.b
2 2 2 2
c 0 420
1 110. (c) v or m m 315 nm
r8
cos(180 2 ) ( 4 / 3)
2
velocity of light in vacuum (c)
111. (b)
be
v vac 3 108
3.
180° – 2 = 120° = 30° vmed 108
no
sin i
Real depth 1
As refractive index, = > (i = 45° (Given))
Apparent depth sin 45
w
om
60 cm –1 –
1 1 1 1 1 1 f1 1 –20
; v = 60 cm f1 = 40cm
v u f v 30 20 n = 1.5 n = 1.5
Coincidence is possible when the image is formed at n = 1.7
1 1.7 1 1
t.c
–1 –
the centre of curvature of the mirror. Only then the f2 1 –20 20
rays refracting through the lens will fall normally on
100
po
the convex mirror and retrace their path to form the f2 – cm
7
image at O. So the distance between lens and mirror =
60 – 10 = 50 cm. 1 1.5 1 1
and –1 – f3 = 40 cm
gs
1 1. 5 1 1 f3 1 –20
117. (b) 1 … (i) 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
fa 1 R1 R 2
1 g
1
1 1
lo
f eqf1 f 2 f3
feq = –50 cm
f eq 40 –100 / 7 40
fm R1 R2
.b
m
Therefore, the focal length of the combination is
1 1.5 1 1 … (ii)
1 – 50 cm.
r8
fm 1.5 1 1
Dividing (i) by (ii), =–8 f R
fa 1.5 L
1
1.6 4
cy
1 for, L1, f1 4 R
1 3
Pa 5 fa
fa 5 5
, f2 5R
no
1 8 for L 2 f2 = (–) ve
fm = 8 fa 8 3
5 5 122. (b) For critical angle c,
1.6
ch
Pm = 5 1D 1
fm 8 sin air
c
118. (b) R1 = 60 cm, R2 = , = 1.6
Water
.te
1 1
(1.6 1) f = 100 cm. reflection and come out at angles less then 90°.
f 60
123. (c)
w
1 2 1 C O
X
F f1 f m µx
If plane surface is silvered
R2 For the image to be real and of same size as object,
fm final image should be formed at the position of object
2 2
1 1 1 itself.
( – 1) – Let x be the distance of object from plane surface.
f1 R1 R 2
Apparent distance from surface = x
1 1 –1 This should be centre of curve
( – 1) –
R R x 30 1.5x 30 x 20
RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS 395
124. (b) If R1 = R, R2 = –2 R 2A = i + e
1 1 1 in case of min i=e
( 1)
f R1 R 2 A
2A = 2i r1 = r2 =
1 1 1 0 .5 3 2
(1.5 1) i = A = 90°
6 R 2R 2R
from smell’s law
R = 4.5 cm
1 sin i = n sin r1
125. (b) Here, P1 = 5 D
A
P2 = P – P1 = 2 – 5 = –3 D sin A = n sin
f1 P2 3 2
1
A A A
2 f2 P1 5 2 sin cos = n sin
2 2 2
126. (c) Longitudinal chromatic aberration =
om
f
A
= 0.08 × 20 = 1.6 cm 2 cos = n
2
1 1 1 when A = 90° = imin
127. (a) ( 1)
t.c
f R1 R2 then nmin = 2
1 1 1 i = A = 0 nmax = 2
(1.5 1) 132. (a) For a thin prism, D = ( – 1) A
16 R
po
1 1 Since b < r r< b D1 < D2
0. 5 R 8 cm 133. (c) The ray is incident on face AC at an angle A, after
16 R
gs
reflection, it incident of face BC at an angle B. Thus
128. (c) For reading purposes :
u = – 25 cm, v = – 50 cm, f = ? A B = 90°.
1 1 1 1 1 1 As B < A, so the ray if totally reflected from face BC, it
lo
; must be reflected from AC also. For this angle B should
f v u 50 25 50
be greater than critical angle C. For minimum value of
.b
100
P 2D , B can be infinitesimally than C, so B = C (critical
f angle).We know that
r8
f 3 sin C sin B
100 100 For A = B, B = 45°
129. (d) P2 P P1 3 .75 D 1
80 20
cy
min = 2
sin 45
g
1 134. (b) The angle must be equal to the critical angle,
Pa a 5
no
130. (b) 5 1 1 1 1
P1 g 100 / 100 C sin sin 45º
1 2
1 135. (b)
ch
g g
5 1 1
.te
1 a
1 .5 1 1 .5 5
1 (1 .5 1) 0 .1 ; 1
1 5 0.9 3
w
Smin sin r
minimum
deviation (1) sin 2A = ( ) sin A = 2 cos A
w
Incident C
r1 r2
e Angle of 136. (a) As we know, the refractive index of the material of the
angle emergence prism
A
sin m
2
B C sin (A/ 2)
The angle of minimum deviation is given as
A m
min = i + e–A sin
2 cos (A/ 2)
for minimum deviation cot A/2 =
sin A / 2 sin (A / 2)
min = A then [ µ = cot (A/2)]
EBD_7208
396 RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
m A 3
Sin = sin(90° + A/2) 140. (d) i1 i2 A
2 4
dmin = 180° – 2A As A i1 i 2
1
137. (d) As we know = 3 3 A 60 º
sin C i1 i 2 A A A A = 30 º
4 4 2 2
1 2
= sin 60º x 1.22 1.22 5 103 10 10 10 3
3 141. (d) Here or x
1000 D 10 10 2
For total internal reflection to take place
or x = 1.22 × 5 × 10–3 m = 6.1 m
1 2 x is of the order of 5 mm.
sinC =
3 142. (d) Resolving power (1/ ).
2 (R.P)1 2 5
C = sin–1 42º
om
Hence,
3 (R.P) 2 1 4
< 45º
f0
Angle of incidence > critical angle, hence TIR takes 143. (a) 9, f0 9 fe
fe
t.c
place
138. (b) Deviation = zero Also f0 + fe = 20 ( final image is at infinity)
So, = 1 + 2 = 0 9 fe + fe = 20, fe = 2 cm, f0 = 18 cm
po
( 1 – 1)A1 + ( 2 – 1) A2 = 0 144. (b) In normal adjustment,
A2 (1.75 – 1) = – (1.5 – 1) 15° f0 f0 60
M 20 , f e 3 cm
fe 20 20
gs
0.5
A2 = 15
0.75 f0 f 200 5
or A2 = – 10°. 145. (a) (i) M 1 e = 1 48
lo fe d 5 25
Negative sign shows that the second prism is inverted (since least distance d = 25cm)
with respect to the first.
.b
f0 200
(ii) M 40
A m 60 30 fe 5
139. (b) i 45 º
r8
2 2 f0
146. (b) M
fe
be
f0 60
2 24
fe 5
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
25
WAVE OPTICS
om
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 8. When light suffers reflection at the interface between water
t.c
and glass, the change of phase in the reflected wave is
1. The locus of all particles in a medium, vibrating in the (a) zero (b)
same phase is called (c) /2 (d) 2
po
(a) wavelet
9. Two plane wavefronts of light, one incident on a thin
(b) fringe
convex lens and another on the refracting face of a thin
(c) wave front
gs
(d) None of these prism. After refraction at them, the emerging wavefronts
2. Which of the following is correct for light diverging from respectively become
a point source? (a) plane wavefront and plane wavefront
lo
(a) The intensity decreases in proportion for the distance (b) plane wavefront and spherical wavefront
.b
squared. (c) spherical wavefront and plane wavefront
(b) The wavefront is parabolic. (d) spherical wavefront and spherical wavefront
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(c) The intensity at the wavelingth does depend of the (e) elliptical wavefront and spherical wavefront
distance. 10. When a film is illuminated by white light, its upper portion
be
(d) None of these. appears dark. Path difference between two reflected beams
3. Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles at the spot must be
of the medium vibrate with the same (a) zero (b) /2
cy
6. A plane wave passes through a convex lens. The 12. If two sources are coherent, then the phase difference ( )
geometrical shape of the wavefront that emerges is between the waves produced by them at any point
w
(a) plane (b) diverging spherical (a) will change with time and we will have stable
w
(c) converging spherical (d) None of these positions of maxima and minima.
7. Spherical wavefronts, emanating from a point source, (b) will not change with time and we have unstable
strike a plane reflecting surface. What will happen to positions of maxima and minima.
these wave fronts, immediately after reflection? (c) Positions of will not change with time and we will
(a) They will remain spherical with the same curvature, have stable positions of maxima and minima.
both in magnitude and sign.
(d) will change with time and we will have unstable
(b) They will become plane wave fronts.
positions of maxima and minima.
(c) They will remain spherical, with the same curvature,
13. The device which produces highly coherent sources is
but sign of curvature reversed.
(d) They will remain spherical, but with different (a) Fresnel biprism (b) Young’s double slit
curvature, both in magnitude and sign. (c) Laser (d) Lloyd’s mirror
EBD_7208
398 WAVE OPTICS
14. Which of the following, cannot produce two coherent (c) introduces an extra phase difference in the parallel
sources? beam.
(a) Lloyd’s mirror (b) Fresnel biprism (d) introduces an extra fringe in the diffraction pattern.
(c) Young’s double slit (d) Prism 25. The fringe width for red colours as compared to that for
15. Coherence is a measure of violet colour is approximately
(a) capability of producing interference by wave (a) 3 times (b) 2 times
(b) waves being diffracted (c) 4 times (d) 8 times
(c) waves being reflected 26. In Young’s double slit experiment, the minimum amplitude
(d) waves being refracted is obtained when the phase difference of super-imposing
16. Two sources of light are said to be coherent, when they waves is (where n = 1, 2, 3, ...)
give light waves of same (a) zero (b) (2 n – 1)
(a) amplitude and phase (c) n (d) (n + 1)
om
(b) wavelength and constant phase difference 27. The fringe width in a Young’s double slit experiment can
(c) intensity and wavelength be increased if we decrease
(d) phase and speed (a) width of slits
t.c
17. Intensity of light depends on (b) separation of slits
(a) amplitude (b) frequency (c) wavelength of light used
(c) wavelength (d) velocity
po
(d) distance between slits and screen
18. The colour of bright fringe nearest to central achromatic 28. In Young’s double slit experiment, one slit is covered with
fringe in the interference pattern with white light will be red filter and another slit is covered by green filter, then
gs
(a) violet (b) red interference pattern will be
(c) green (d) yellow (a) red (b) green
19. The correct formula for fringe visibility is lo
(c) yellow (d) invisible
max min max min
29. Instead of using two slits, if we use two separate identical
(a) V (b) V
.b
sodium lamps in Young’s experiment, which of the
max min max min
following will occur?
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(a) coloured
(d) Equal frequency
(b) black and white
31. In Young's double slit experiment, the locus of the point P
(c) yellow and black
.te
width (B), the fringe pattern on screen will (c) an ellipse (d) a parabola
32.
w
(a) strictly be a parabola (b) strictly be a hyperbola If the width of the slit in single slit diffrection experiment
(c) be a elliptical (d) be a straight line is doubled, then the central maximum of diffraction
w
34. When monochromatic light is replaced by white light in 45. Optically active substances are those substances which
Fresnel’s biprism arrangement, the central fringe is (a) produces polarised light
(a) coloured (b) white (b) produces double refraction
(c) dark (d) None of these (c) rotate the plane of polarisation of polarised light
35. The condition for observing Fraunhoffer diffraction from
(d) converts a plane polarised light into circularly
a single slit is that the light wavefront incident on the slit
polarised light.
should be
46. Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because
(a) spherical (b) cylindrical
(c) plane (d) elliptical (a) it reduces the light intensity to half on account of
36. The phenomenon of diffraction can be treated as polarisation
interference phenomenon if the number of coherent (b) it is fashionable
om
sources is (c) it has good colour
(a) one (b) two (d) it is cheaper.
(c) zero (d) infinity 47. In the propagation of light waves, the angle between the
t.c
37. The diffraction effects in a microscopic specimen become plane of vibration and plane of polarisaiton is
important when the separation between two points is (a) 0º (b) 90º (c) 45º (d) 80º
(a) much greater than the wavelength of light used. 48. In the propagation of electromagnetic waves, the angle
po
(b) much less than the wavelength of light used.
between the direction of propagation and plane of
(c) comparable to the wavelength of light used.
polarisation is
gs
(d) independent of the wavelength of light used.
(a) 0º (b) 45º (c) 90º (d) 180º
38. What is the Brewester angle for air to glass transition?
49. When unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass plate
( a
g = 1.5)
lo
at Brewster’s angle, then which of the following statements
.b
(a) tan (1.5) (b) sin (1.5) is correct?
(c) sin–1 (1.5) (d) tan–1 (1.5) (a) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised
r8
39. When ordinary light is made incident on a quarter wave with their planes of polarization parallel to each other
plate, the emergent light is (b) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised
be
(a) linearly polarised (b) circulary polarised with their planes of polarization perpendicular to each
(c) unpolarised (d) elliptically polarised other
40. Transverse nature of light was confirmed by the
cy
42. Unpolarized light is incident on a plane glass surface The (d) None of these
angle of incidence so that reflected and refracted rays are
w
om
through a prism. other maxima.
II. The first null occurs at an angle /2a.
A A’ III. The intensity of maxima falls as we move away from
Incident Refracted the central maxima.
t.c
wavefront wavefront IV. The bands are of decreasing width.
B B’ (a) II and III (b) I and II
po
(c) I, III and IV (d) I and III
Which of the following statements are correct ?
59. Diffraction is a characteristic which is exhibited by
I. Lower portion of wavefront (B’) is delayed resulting
gs
I. matter waves II. water waves
in a tilt.
III. sound waves IV. light waves
II. Time taken by light to reach A’ is equal to the time (a) I and II (b) I, II and III
taken to reach B’ from B.
III. Speed of wavefront is same everywhere. 60.
lo
(c) III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
We can listen to the sound on the other side of the wall
.b
IV. A particle on wavefront A’ B’ is in phase with a but cannot see through it because
particle on wavefront AB. I. wavelength of light is greater than sound
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(a) I and II (b) II and III II. wavelength of light is smaller than sound
(c) III and IV (d) I and III III. wavelength of light is much smaller than the
be
54. Which of the following cannot be explained on the basis dimensions of most obstacles
of wave nature of light? IV. wavelength of sound is greater than the dimensions
cy
(a) II and III (b) III and IV (c) II and III (d) I, III and IV
(c) IV and I (d) III only 61. In order to observe good interference and diffraction
55. The conditions for producing sustained interference are pattern, the necessary and sufficient conditions are
ch
I. phase difference between interfering waves remains I. the distance between the slits should be very small
constant with time. (~ mm)
.te
II. interfering waves have nearly same amplitude levels. II. the slit width should be very small (~ mm)
III. interfering waves are of same frequency. III. the distance between the slits and the screen should
w
om
t.c
Spherical wave
(B) (2) front of
po
radius R/2
Slit
gs
Incoming
wave Viewing screen lo Tilted
.b
(C) (3) wavefront
I. wavelength distribution
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III. Diffraction is only observed in electromagnetic (b) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
waves. (c) (A) (2); (B) (4); (C) (3); (D) (1)
w
(a) Only I (b) II and III (d) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (3)
68. Column I Column II.
w
om
Sodium lamp
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
70. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are separated by a S1
t.c
small distance 'd' as shown in figure. The fringes obtained
on the screen will be
po
S2
d
gs
S1 S2 Screen
D lo Screen
(a) interference pattern with central maxima
.b
(b) interference pattern with central minima
(a) points (b) straight lines (c) two separate interference patterns with central
r8
BOA 0.12 . How many bright spots will be seen on position of central bright fringe will be
Screen
the wire, including points A and B?
no
A
S1 S1
S O
ch
d O S O
S2 Q
B
S2 O
.te
point 1.0mm away from the central line. White light (400 to
700nm) is sent through the slits. Which wavelength passing (a) at O (b) at O
w
om
(a) 0
1 unequal intensity.
(b) 2 83. Assertion : White light falls on a double slit with one slit is
/4
3 covered by a green filter. The bright fringes observed are of
t.c
(c) /2 green colour.
Reason : The fringes observed are coloured.
(d) 84. Assertion : In YDSE, if a thin film is introduced in front of
po
78. The position of the direct image obtained at O, when a the upper slit, then the fringe pattern shifts in the downward
monochromatic beam of light is passed through a plane direction.
gs
transmission grating at normal incidence as shown in Fig. Reason : In YDSE if the slit widths are unequal, the minima
The diffracted images A, B and C correspond to the first, will be completely dark.
second and third order diffraction. When the source is lo Imax
replaced by another source of shorter wave-length 85. Assertion : In YDSE, if I1 = 9I0 and I2 = 4I0 then 25.
I min
.b
Reason : In YDSE Imax ( I1 I2 )2 and
r8
I min ( I1 I2 )2 .
be
(a) all the four will shift in the direction C to O bright fringe on the screen will increase.
(b) all the four will shift in the direction O to C Reason : Maximum number of bright fringe on the screen is
no
(c) the images C, B and A will shift towards O inversely proportional to the wavelength of light used
(d) the images C, B and A will shift away from O
87. Assertion : In YDSE number of bright fringe or dark fringe
ch
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four 88. Assertion : Interference pattern is made by using yellow
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You light instead of red light, the fringes becomes narrower.
w
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
D
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct Reason : In YDSE, fringe width is given by .
w
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 99. In Young’s double slit experiment, the source S and two
slits A and B are lying in a horizontal plane. The slit A is
91. On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is smallest above slit B. the fringes are obtained on a vertical screen K.
near the ground and increases with height from the ground. The optical path from S to B is increased by putting a
When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygens' transparent material of higher refractive index. The path
principle leads us to conclude that as it travels, the light from S to A remains unchanged. As a result of this the
beam : fringe pattern moves somewhat
(a) bends downwards (a) upwards
(b) bends upwards (b) downwards
(c) becomes narrower (c) towards left horizontally
(d) goes horizontally without any deflection (d) towards right horizontally
92. 100. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, let be the fringe
om
Light from two coherent sources of the same amplitude
A and wavelength illuminates the screen. The intensity width, and let 0 be the intensity at the central bright fringe.
of the central maximum is I0. If the sources were At a distance x from the central bright fringe, the intensity
incoherent, the intensity at the same point will be will be
t.c
(a) 4I0 (b) 2I0 x
x 2
(a) 0 cos (b) 0 cos
I0
po
(c) I0 (d)
2
93. x x
Two light waves superimposing at the mid-point of the (c) 0 cos
2
(d) 0
cos 2
gs
screen are coming from coherent sources of light with 4
phase difference 3 rad. Their amplitudes are 1 cm each. 101. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and
The resultant amplitude at the given point will be.
(a) 5 cm (b) 3 cm
lo
are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths 1 = 12000Å
and 2 = 10000Å. At what minimum distance from the
.b
(c) 2 cm (d) zero common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit
94. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio 1 : 4 produce an will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide
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interference pattern. The fringe visibility will be with a bright fringe from the other ?
(a) 1 (b) 0.8 (a) 6 mm (b) 4 mm (c) 3 mm (d) 8mm
be
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.6 102. The maximum number of possible interference maxima for
95. Two beams of light of intensity I1 and I2 interfere to give slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s
an interference pattern. If the ratio of maximum intensity to double-slit experiment is
cy
that of minimum intensity is 25/9, then I1/I2 is (a) three (b) five (c) infinite (d) zero
(a) 5/3 (b) 4 103. In a Young’s double slit experiment the intensity at a point
no
–1
(c) sin (0.001) (d) sin–1 (0.1)
equal to
97. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on a screen
w
(b) /2 respectively, is
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 104. In Young's double slit experiment, one of the slit is wider
w
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 than other, so that amplitude of the light from one slit is
98. Laser light of wavelength 540 nm incident on a pair of slit double of that from other slit. If Im be the maximum intensity,
produces interference pattern in which the bright fringes the resultant intensity I when they interfere at phase
are separated by 9.00 mm. A second light on the same difference is given by
setup produces an interference pattern in which the
Im Im
fringes are separated by 8.1 mm. The wavelength of the (a) (4 5 cos ) (b) 1 2 cos 2
9 3 2
second light is
(a) 720 nm (b) 486 nm Im Im
(c) 1 4 cos 2 (d) 1 8 cos2
(c) 630 nm (d) 450 nm 5 2 9 2
WAVE OPTICS 405
105. Monochromatic light of wavelength 400 nm and 560 nm 112. In Young’s double slit experiment, we get 10 fringes in the
are incident simultaneously and normally on double slits field of view of monochromatic light of wavelength 4000Å.
apparatus whose slits separation is 0.1 mm and screen If we use monochromatic light of wavelength 5000Å, then
distance is 1m. Distance between areas of total darkness the number of fringes obtained in the same field of view is
will be (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 40 (d) 50
(a) 4mm (b) 5.6 mm (c) 14mm (d) 28mm 113. With a monochromatic light, the fringe-width obtained in a
106. In Young’s double slit experiment intensity at a point is Young’s double slit experiment is 0.133 cm. The whole set-
(1/4) of the maximum intensity. Angular position of this point up is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33, then the
is new fringe-width is
(a) sin-1( /d) (b) sin -1( /2d) (a) 0.133 cm (b) 0.1 cm
-1
(c) sin ( /3d) (d) sin -1( /4d)
om
107. In the Young’s double slit experiment using a monochromatic 1.33
(c) 1.33 × 1.33 cm (d) cm
light of wavelength , the path difference (in terms of an 2
integer n) corresponding to any point having half the peak 114. A beam of light of = 600 nm from a distant source falls on
t.c
intensity is a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern
is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between
(a) (2n 1) (b) (2n 1)
po
2 4 first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm
(2 n 1) (c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm
(c) (d) (2 n 1)
gs
8 16 115. In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light
108. Light of wavelength 6.5 × 10–7 m is made incident on two at a point on the screen where the path difference is is K,
slits 1 mm apart. The distance between third dark fringe and
fifth bright fringe on a screen distant 1 m from the slits will
lo
( being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a
point where the path difference is /4, will be
.b
be (a) K (b) K/4
(a) 0.325 mm (b) 0.65 mm (c) K/2 (d) Zero
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(c) 1.625 mm (d) 3.25 mm 116. In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and
the screen is placed 1 m away. A monochromatic light
be
d
109. In Young’s expt., the distance between two slits is and
3 wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each
the distance between the screen and the slits is 3 D. The slit for obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central
cy
3
(c) 0.02 mm (d) 0.2 mm
monochromatic light of wavelength 3 , will be
117. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength
ch
screen from the slit, the width of the central maxima will be
d d
(c) (d) D Da
81 D D
(a) (b)
w
a
110. In Young’s double slit expt. the distance between two
w
sources is 0.1 mm. The distance of the screen from the source
2Da 2D
is 20 cm. Wavelength of light used is 5460 Å. The angular (c) (d)
w
a
position of the first dark fringe is
(a) 0.08º (b) 0.16º 118. Light of wavelength 5000 A° is incident normally on a slit of
(c) 0.20º (d) 0.32º width 2.5 × l0–4 cm. The angular position of second minimum
111. The separation between successive fringes in a double slit from the central maximum is
arrangement is x. If the whole arrangement is dipped under 1 1 2
1
water what will be the new fringe separation? [The (a) sin (b) sin
5 5
wavelenght of light being used is 5000 Å]
(a) 1.5 x (b) x
(c) (d)
(c) 0.75 x (d) 2 x 3 6
EBD_7208
406 WAVE OPTICS
119. In young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a 127. A slit of width a is illuminated by red light of wavelength
point on the screen where the path difference is is I, 6500 Å. If the first minimum falls at = 30°, the value of a is
being the wavelength of light used. The intensity at a point (a) 6.5 × 10–4 mm (b) 1.3 micron
(c) 3250 Å (d) 2.6 × 10–4 cm
where the path difference is will be
4 128. A parallel beam of light is incident on a convex lens which
I I has been corrected for aberrations, then the image will be
(a) (b) (c) I (d) zero
4 2 (a) focused to a line because of refraction.
120. In Young's double slit experiment, the fringes are displaced (b) focused to a spot of finite area because of diffraction.
by a distance x when a glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is
0.16 f
introduced in the path of one of the beams. When this (c) focused to a spot of radius because of
a
plate is replaced by another plate of the same thickness,
om
the shift of fringes is (3/2) x. The refractive index of the diffraction (f = focal length, a = radius of lens)
second plate is 1.22 f
(a) 1.75 (b) 1.50 (d) focused to a band pattern of radius
2a
t.c
(c) 1.25 (d) 1.00
121. In a two-slit experiment, with monochromatic light, fringes 129. The Fraunhoffer ‘diffraction’ pattern of a single slit is formed
are obtained on a screen placed at some distance from the in the focal plane of a lens of focal length 1 m. The width of
po
slits. If the screen is moved by 5 × 10–2 m towards the slits, slit is 0.3 mm. If third minimum is formed at a distance of 5
the change in fringe width is 10–3 m. Then the wavelength mm from central maximum, then wavelength of light will be
(a) 5000 Å (b) 2500 Å
gs
of light used is (given that distance between the slits is
0.03 mm) (c) 7500 Å (d) 8500 Å
(a) 4500 Å (b) 5000 Å 130. A single slit Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern is formed with
(c) 5500 Å (d) 6000 Å.
lo
white light. For what wavelength of light the third
secondary maximum in the diffraction pattern coincides
122. In Fresnel’s biprism expt., a mica sheet of refractive index
.b
1.5 and thickness 6 × 10–6 m is placed in the path of one of with the second secondary maximum in the pattern for red
light of wavelength 6500 Å?
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used is
(a) 6000 Å (b) 8000 Å 131. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally
(c) 4000 Å (d) 2000 Å polarized for reflection from air to glass (refractive index n), is
cy
(a) 6040 Å (b) 4026 Å a polaroid A and then through another polaroid B which is
w
(c) 5890 Å (d) 7248 Å oriented so that its principal plane makes an angle of 45°
125. Light of wavelength 6328 Å is incident normally on a slit relative to that of A. The intensity of the emergent light is
w
having a width of 0.2 mm. The angular width of the central (a) I0 (b) I0/2
maximum measured from minimum to minimum of diffraction (c) I0/4 (d) I0/8
pattern on a screen 9.0 metres away will be about 134. A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass plate at an
(a) 0.36 degree (b) 0.18 degree angle of incidence equal to Brewster’s angel . If represents
(c) 0.72 degree (d) 0.09 degree the refractive index of glass with respect to air, then the angle
126. A plane wave of wavelength 6250 Å is incident normally on between the reflected and the refracted rays is
a slit of width 2 × 10–2 cm. The width of the principal maximum (a) 90° + (b) sin–1( cos )
on a screen distant 50 cm will be
(a) 312.5 × 10–3 cm (b) 312.5 × 10–3 m 1 sin
(c) 90º (d) 90 º sin
(c) 312.5 × 10–3 m (d) 312 m
WAVE OPTICS 407
135. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 W m–2 passes through 139. If the polarizing angle of a piece of glass for green light is
three polarizers such that the transmission axis of the last 54.74°, then the angle of minimum deviation for an
polarizer is crossed with that of the first. The intensity of equilateral prism made of same glass is
final emerging light is 3 W m–2. The intensity of light [Given, tan 54.74° = 1.414]
transmitted by first polarizer will be (a) 45° (b) 54.74°
(a) 32 W m–2 (b) 16 W m–2 (c) 60° (d) 30°
(c) 8 W m–2 (d) 4 W m–2 140. When the angle of incidence is 60° on the surface of a
136. A parallel beam of monochromatic unpolarised light is glass slab, it is found that the reflected ray is completely
incident on a transparent dielectric plate of refractive index polarised. The velocity of light in glass is
1
(a) 2 108 ms 1 (b) 3 108 ms 1
. The reflected beam is completely polarised. Then the
3 (c) 2 108 ms 1 (d) 3 108 ms 1
om
angle of incidence is 141. Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light with mutually
(a) 30º (b) 60º perpendicular planes of polarization are seen through a
(c) 45º (d) 75º polaroid. From the position when the beam A has maximum
t.c
137. Two nicols are oriented with their principal planes making intensity (and beam B has zero intensity), a rotation of
an angle of 60º. Then the percentage of incident unpolarised polaroid through 30 makes the two beams appear equally
light which passes through the system is
po
bright. If the initial intensities of the two beams are IA and
(a) 100 (b) 50 (c) 12.5 (d) 37.5
138. A beam of unpolarised light passes through a tourmaline IA
IB respectively, then equals:
gs
crystal A and then through another such crystal B oriented IB
so that the principal plane is parallel to A. The intensity of
3
emergent light is 0. Now B is rotated by 45º about the ray. (a) 3 lo (b)
2
The emergent light will have intensity
1
.b
(a) /2 (b) / 2 (c) 2 (d) 2 0 (c) 1 (d)
0 0 0 3
r8
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
EBD_7208
408 WAVE OPTICS
om
water, fringe width ( ) will decrease.
particles of the medium vibrate with the same phase.
4. (d) The Huygen’s construction of wavefront does not 24. (b) Introducing a converging lens in the path of parallel
explain the phenomena of origin of spectra. beam does not introduce any extra path differences
t.c
in a parallel beam. Rather it gives a more intense
5. (b) Huyghen’s principle gives us a geometrical method of
pattern on the screen.
tracing a wavefront.
po
6. (c) Converging spherical D
25. (b) As 8000A º and 4000 Å and i.e.
7. (c) r v
d
8. (b) Phase reversal occurs i.e. phase change = takes place
gs
on reflection, because glass is much denser than water. , therefore red is roughly double of violet .
9. (c) Emerging wavefront will be spherical from convex
lens and plane wavefront from the prism. 26.
lo
(b) For minima, phase diff. = odd integral multiple of
10. (b) = (2 n – 1) .
.b
11. (d) When path difference = n (n = 0, 1, 2...) the
D
r8
13. (c) Highly coherent sources are produced using laser. green are complimentary colours.
14. (d) A prism cannot produce coherent sources. 29. (a) There will be general illumination as super imposing
cy
15. (a) Coherence is a measure of capability of producing waves do not have constant phase difference.
interference by waves.
no
16. (b) For coherent sources is same and phase is also same 30. (b) Wavelength/frequency must be same and phase
or phase diff. is constant. difference must be constant for producing sustained
17. (a) According to wave theory, intensity of light is directly
ch
interference.
proportional to square of amplitude. 31. (a)
32. (b) Width of central maximum in diffraction pattern due
.te
D
18. (a) As .
d 2 D
to single slit = where is the wavelength, D
d
w
slit width.
max min
w
19. (a) Fringe visibility (V) is given by V . As the slit width a increases, width of central
max min maximum becomes sharper or narrower. As same
20. (c) Laser light is coherent, because it consists of energy is distributed over a smaller area. therefore
coordinated (parallel) waves of exactly same central maximum becomes brigther.
wavelength (i.e monochromatic wave). 33. (d) When red light is replaced by blue light the
21. (a) Bright fringes are yellow and dark fringes are black. diffraction bands become narrow and crowded.
22. (b) This time he saw a number of dark lines, regularly 34. (b) At the centre, all colours meet in phase, hence central
spaced; the first clear proof that light added to light fringe is white.
can produce darkness.
WAVE OPTICS 409
35. (c) Because both source & screen are effectively at infinite Case II. A light ray emerging out of convex lens
distance from the diffractive device when a point source is placed at its focus.
36. (d) Diffraction on a single slit is equivalent to interference
of light from infinite number of coherent sources
contained in the slit.
37. (c) When the wavelength of light used is comparable
Point Light rays
with the separation between two points, the image source
of the object will be a diffraction pattern whose at focus Incident Refracted
size will be
wavefronts wavefronts
1.22
= Case III A portion of the wavefront of light from a
D
om
distant star intercepted by the Earth.
where = wavelength of light used
D = diameter of the objective
Two objects whose images are closer than this Light
t.c
distance, will not be resolved. from
distant
38. (d) As we know Bresster angle tan iB = 4 tan iB = 1.5 star
po
i B = tan–1(1.5)
39. (d) Wavefronts
gs
40. (d) : The phenomenon of polarization confirmed that 52. (b) For a point emitting waves uniformly in all direction,
light is a transverse wave. the locus of points which have the same amplitude
41. (d) In the case of linearly polarised light the magnitued lo
and vibrate in the same phase are spheres. But at a
of th electric field vector varies periodically with
large distance from the source, the small portion of
time.
.b
the sphere can be considered as plane wave as
shown in Figure
42. (b) Brewster’s law is given by tan i
r8
48. (a) Plane of vibration is direction of propagation then lower portion of wavefront (B) is delayed
and also r to plane of polarisation. Therefore, angle resulting in a tilt. So, time taken by light to reach A’
from A is equal to the time taken to reach B’ from B.
.te
polarised, but transmitted light is partially polarised. their phase difference remains constant with time,
50. (a)
w
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS If amplitudes are of nearby values then contrast will
be more pronounced.
51. (b) Case I A light rays diverging from a point source.
60. (c) The wavelength of sound is comparable to the size MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
of the obstacles so the effects of diffraction can be
observed and hence we can listen to the sound on 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (a)
the other side of the wall, while wavelength of light
is much smaller (visible light 4000A° to 7800A°) than DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
the obstacle size so the diffraction effects cannot be
70. (d) It will be concentric circles.
observed and we cannot see through the wall.
3
61. (c) As is clear from the relation. 71. (c) Angular width = 10 (given)
d
D No. of fringes within 0.12° will be
Fringe with =
d 0.12 2
n [2.09]
om
D = distance between the slit and screen 360 10 3
The number of bright spots will be three.
d = distance between the slits.
72. (c) Wavelength for which maximum obtained at the hole
t.c
Smaller the ‘d’ higher will be the value of fringe has the maximum intensity on passing. So,
width. n D
x
po
0.61 d
62. (c) Since,
a xd 1 10 3 0.5 10 3 1 10 6 1000nm
=
gs
where = angle subtended by the image of the nD n 50 10 2 n n
object on focus of the length. n = 1, = 1000 nm Not in the given range
= wavelength of light used n = 2, = 500nm
lo
73. (c) The nearest white spot will be at P, the central maxima.
a = aperture of the objective lens
.b
2d d d
For ‘ ’ to be small, ‘a’ must be large y
3 2 6
r8
v D
be
65. (c)
no
our daily routine in case of sound waves (Which is Hence, the sources are incoherent and the intensities
a longitudinal wave) because wavelength of sound on the screen just add up. Hence no interference
.te
waves is large (0.1 – 1m). However, as wavelength fringer will be observed on the screen.
of light waves is extremely small (10–6 – 10–7 m), we 75. (c) When the source of light shifts by angle then
do not observe diffraction of light in daily routine. central fringe appears at angle – as source S , the
w
III. Diffraction is a wave phenomenon. It is observed in mid point Q, and the central fringe are in a straight
w
in a particular direction. The electric vectors wavelength, higher the wavelength, wider is the
(associated with the propagating light wave) along band.
the direction of the aligned molecules get obsorbed. 77. (c) In Fraunhoffer diffraction, for minimum intensity,
Thus, if an unpolarised light wave is incident on
x m
such a polaroid then the light wave will get linearly 2
polarised with the electric vector oscillating along a For first minimum, m = 1
direction perpendicular to the aligned molecules;
this direction is known as the pass-axis of the x
2
polaroid. 78. (c)
WAVE OPTICS 411
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS or, 5a1 – 5a2 = 3a1 + 3a2 or 2a1 = 8a2
2
79. (b) 80. (a) a a1 I1
or, 1 4 or 16 .
a2 a2 I2
D
81. (a) . When d 0, , and so fringes will not
d
9
589 10 3 1
be seen over the screen. 96. (c) sin 3
10 0.0001
82. (d) For interference, the waves may be of unequal d 0.589 10 1000
intensities.
83. (c) Interference will take place in green light only. 97. (d) Intensity I 1 + cos where = phase difference
84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (b)
IP 1 cos 0 1 1 2
om
D = =
88. (a) As and wavelength of yellow light is shorter IQ 1 0 1
d 1 cos
2
than red, so fringe width is narrower for yellow light.
t.c
89. (a) 90. (b) 98. (b) Here 1 = 540 nm; 1 = 9.0 mm; 2 = 8.1 mm, 2 =?
For constant D and d,
po
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
2 2 2 1 8.1
= = 540 = 486 nm
2 9.0
1 1 1
gs
Plane WF
91. (b) µ increases 99. (b) As optical path SB of lower slit is increased, therefore,
(Light bends Vel decreases
upwards) fringe pattern shifts somewhat downwards.
lo
Refracted
WF d
.b
100. (c) x , where is path difference between two
D
92. (d) : If source are coherent IR = I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I 2 cos
r8
waves.
I0 = I + I + 2I cos 0° = 4I 2
be
4I I0
IR = I1 + I2 + 2I = Let a = amplitude at the screen due to each slit.
cy
2 2
I0 = k (2a)2 = 4ka2, where k is a constant.
93. (d) : Resultant amplitude, For phase difference ,
no
A= 12 12 2 1 1 cos 3 Intensity I,
.te
= 2 2 ( 1) = 0 x
kA 2 k(4a 2 ) cos 2 ( / 2) 0 cos
2
I1 1
w
94. (b) I2
I1 = k and I2 = 4k
4 xd x
2 2
w
0 cos . 0 cos
D
2 I1I 2 2 k 4k
w
2
I 2 3 3
cos
I0 6 2 4
om
5 12000 10 10 2 = I1 I2 2 I1I2 cos
d 2 mm and D 2m
3
2 10 Ir = I1 4I1 2 4I12 cos
t.c
= 5 × 12 × 10–4 m
Ir 5I1 4I1 cos … (1)
= 60 × 10–4 m
(a1 a 2 ) 2 (a 2a)2 9a 2
po
= 6 × 10–3m = 6 mm Now, Imax
gs
9
n
given d 2 sin Substituting in equation (1)
2
Ir 5 4 cos
, the phase difference is 9
For path difference of
6
be
Imax
Ir 5 8cos 2 4
2 /6 9 2
cy
3
Imax
Ir 1 8cos 2
9 2
no
Intensity I I1 I 2 2 I1 I 2 cos
3 105. (d) At the area of total darkness minima will occur for
both the wavelength.
ch
I I1 I2 I1 I2
(2n 1) (2m 1)
when I1= I2 = I' (say) then I = 3I' 1 2
2 2
.te
2 (2n 1) 1 2(m 1) 2
Imax I1 I2
w
( 2n 1) 560 7
2 2 or
I' I' 2 I' 4I' (2m 1) 400 5
w
or 10 n = 14 m + 2
w
T 3 byinspection for m = 2, n = 3
I max 4 for m =7, n = 10
the distance between them will be the distance
ALTERNATIVELY : The intensity of light at any point between such points
of the screen where the phase different due to light
D 1 ( 2 n 2 1) – ( 2 n1 – 1)
coming from the two slits is is given by i.e., s
d 2
put n2 = 10, n1 = 3
I Io cos2 where to is the maximum intensity..
2 on solving we get, s = 28 mm
WAVE OPTICS 413
106. (c) Let P be the point on the central maxima whose 7
intensity is one fourth of the maximum intensity. 108. (c) D 5 6.5 10 1 4
x5 n 32.5 10 m
d 3
For interference we know that 10
D 3 3D D
109. (c) 27 .
P d d/3 d
om
No. of fringes 1/ 3 d
A .
81 D
t.c
d
s in 110. (b) The position of nth dark fringe. So position of first
B d
dark fringe in x1 D / 2d .
po
d = 20 cm, D = 0.1mm, = 5460 Å, x1 = 0.16
In YDSE, I1 = I2 = I and Imax = 4 I 111. (c) When the arrangement is dipped in water;
We are concentrating at a point where the intensity
gs
x 3
is one fourth of the max intensity. / x 0.75x
I = I + I +2 I cos 4/3 4
1
cos
2 112. (a) As
lo
.b
2 3 5
fringe width becomes times,
[P1 note that we take the least value of the angle as the 4
r8
is 5
2 0.133
For a phase difference of , the path difference is 113. (b) 0.1 cm
cy
3 1.33
2 3 3
Width of central bright fringe (= 2 )
But the path difference (in terms of P and Q) is d sin
600 10 6
ch
as shown in fig. 2 D 2 2
= m
d 3
1 10
d sin sin
.te
3d
For path difference , phase difference
w
om
10 D 2 D
So, required condition 3 3 3 5
d a d 10 0.03 10 10 3 10
or,
D 2 2
d 1 5 10 5 10
t.c
a 10–3 m = 0.2 mm
5D 5 = 6 × 10–7 m = 6000 Å.
117. (d) Linear width of central maxima
122. (a) Where n is equivalent number of fringe by which the
po
2D centre fringe is shifted due to mica sheet
= D(2q) = 2Dq
a
gs
6
( 1) t (1.5 1) 6 10
n 5
lo 6 10 7
m 6000 Å
.b
q
q
123. (d) The distance between the first dark fringe on either
r8
118. (d) Let the two positive numbers be ‘a’ and ‘b’. 2D 2 2 600 10 9
=
cy
Therefore, 3
a 10
a : b = 3+ 2 2 :3 2 2
= 2.4 × 10–3 m = 2.4 mm
no
a b 6
A. M. = 3 124. (d) It is a one of Fraunhoffer diffraction from single slit. so
2 2
for bright fringe where a is the width of slit.
ch
G. M. = ab 1 1
A.M 3 a sin (2 n 1)
.te
= A.M : G.M = 3 : 1. 2
G.M 1
119. (b) For path difference , phase
2 a sin 2 1.2 10 5 0.0906
w
2 2 2n 1 2 1 1
difference = 2 Q x . 2
w
I = I0 + I0 + 2I0 cos 2 10
w
7248 10 m 7248Å.
= 4I0 ( cos 2 1)
125. (a) The angular width of central maxi. is
I0 I0
= I0
2 2
y2sin =2
a
y1sin = /a 45° B
a o sin I0
=0 133. (c) (I0/2)
om
Intensity y1sin = – /a
IR
(unpolarised)
D y2sin =–2
a
A
t.c
Screen position of various minima for Fraunhoffer Relation between intensities
diffraction pattern of a single slit of width a.
po
127. (b) According to principle of diffraction, a sin = n I0
IR cos 2 (45 )
where, n = order of secondary minimum 2
or, a sin 30° = 1 × (6500 × 10–-10)
gs
or, a = 1.3 × 10–6 m, or, a = 1.3 micron. I0 1 I0
128. (b) According to geometrical optics, a beam of parallel 2 2 4
light falling on convex lens will get focused to a
point. However because of diffraction the beam gets
134. (c)
lo
i p = , therefore, angle between reflected and
.b
refracted rays is 90º.
r0 – 0.61 f 135. (b) Intensity of polarised light transmitted from 1st
focused to a spot of radius
r8
a polariser,
I1 = I0 cos2
129. (a)
be
a sin n
1
ax but (cos2 )av
3 2
cy
f
1 32 2
(since is very small so sin tan x/f ) So I1 I0 16Wm
2 2
no
3 3
or
ax 0.3 10 5 10 136. (a) When angle of incidence i is equal to angle of
3f 3 1 polarisation i.e, then reflected light is completely plane-
ch
0 1
4 1D 100 50
w
6 1D
For other light, x Å 2
2a 1
0 cos 2 50 (cos 60 º )2 50 12.5
x is same for each. 2
om
IB ' I B cos 2 60º
2 60 1 60
or, sin or sin As I A ' IB '
2 2 2 2
t.c
3 1
IA IB
60 60 4 4
po
or, sin 45° = sin or 45
2 2 IA 1
IB 3
gs
lo
.b
r8
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
26
DUAL NATURE OF
RADIATION AND MATTER
om
(a) frequency, energy
t.c
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
(b) shape, volume
1. Cathode ray consists of (c) energy, frequency
po
(a) photons (b) electrons (d) energy, momentum
8. The wave nature of light was established by
(c) protons (d) -particles
(i) Maxwell’s equations (ii) Fraunhoffer’s lines
gs
2. A discharge takes place between the two electrodes on
applying the electric field to the gas in the discharge (iii) Hertz experiment (iv) Einstein’s theory
tube. The cause of this fluorescence was attributed (a) lo(i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iv) only
to (c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (iii) and (iv) only
.b
(a) the radiations which appeared to be coming from the 9. The work-function of a metal is
anode (a) the minimum current required to take out electron
r8
(b) the radiation which appeared to be coming from the from the metal surface
cathode (b) the maximum frequency required to take out electron
be
(c) the protons coming from the cathode from the metal surface
(d) the protons coming from the anode (c) the minimum amount of energy required to take out
cy
4. In which of the following, emission of electrons does not (iii) properties of the metal
take place? (iv) abundance of the metal
.te
(a) Thermionic emission (a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)
(b) X-rays emission (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
w
(c) Photoelectric emission 11. The theory of quantisation of electric charge was given
(d) Secondary emission by
w
5. Photoelectric emmision occurs only when the incident light (a) William Crookes (b) J. J. Thomson
w
has more than a certain minimum (c) R.A. Millikan (d) Wilhelm Hallwachs
(a) power (b) wavelength
12. In photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from metals,
(c) intensity (d) frequency if the incident light has a certain minimum
6. Which of the following when falls on a metal will emit
(a) wavelength (b) frequency
photoelectrons ?
(c) amplitude (d) angle of incidence
(a) UV radiations (b) Infrared radiation
(c ) Radio waves (d) Microwaves 13. Which of the following metals is not sensitive to visible
7. Particle like behavior of light arises from the fact that each light?
quanta of light has definite ...X... and a fixed value of ...Y.. (a) Caesium (b) Sodium
just like a particle, Here, X and Y refer to (c) Rubidium (d) Cadmium
EBD_7208
418 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
14. A photosensitive substance emits _____when illuminated 23. In a photon-particle collision, the quantity that does not
by light. remain conserved is
(a) only protons (b) only neutrons (a) total energy (b) total momentum
(c) electrons and protons (d) only electrons (c) number of photons (d) None of these
15. The photoelectric current does not depend upon the 24. Of the following properties, the photon does not possess
(a) rest mass (b) momentum
(i) frequency of incident light
(c) energy (d) frequency
(ii) work function of the metal 25. It is essential to consider light as a stream of photons to
(iii) stopping potential explain
(iv) intensity of incident light (a) diffraction of light (b) refraction of light
(c) photoelectric effect (d) reflection of light
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
om
26. Photoelectric effect was discovered by
(c) (iii) only (d) (ii) only (a) Hertz (b) Hallwachs
16. The stopping potential is directly related to (c) Lenard (d) Millikan
27. The momentum of a photon of wavelength is
t.c
(a) the work function of the metal
(b) intensity of incident radiation (a) h (b) h/ (c) /h (d) h/c
28. The photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface are such
(c) the saturation current for the given frequency
po
that their velocity
(d) the kinetic energy gained by the photoelectrons (a) is zero for all
17. The wave theory of light does not explain (b) is same for all
gs
(a) polarisation (b) diffraction (c) lies between zero and infinity
(d) lies between zero and a finite maximum
(c) photocurrent (d) interference lo
29. Photoelectric effect shows
18. Photoelectric effect can be explained by (a) wave like behaviour of light
.b
(a) wave theory of light (b) paritcle like behaviour of light
(b) Bohr’s theory (c) both wavelike and paticle like behaviour
r8
(c) quantum theory of light (d) neither wave like nor particle like behaviour of light
30. A photoelectric cell converts
(d) corpuscular theory of light
be
(a) continuous emission of energy from radiation (d) electric energy into light energy
(b) continuous absorption of energy from radiation 31. Light of a particular frequency is incident on a metal
no
(a) electric field only 33. The photoelectric effect can be understood on the basis of
w
om
(c) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(d) wavelength is shorter
(d) minimum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
46. The energy of photon of wavelength is
37. In the photoeletric effect, electrons are emitted
(a) c /h (b) h /c
t.c
(a) at a rate that is proportional to the amplitude of the
(c) hc/ (d) c/h
incident radiation
47. A photo sensitive metal is not emitting photo-electrons
(b) with a maximum velocity proportional to the frequency
po
of the incident radiation when irradiated. It will do so when threshold is crossed. To
(c) at a rate that is independent of the emitter cross the threshold we need to increase
(a) intensity (b) frequency
gs
(d) only if the frequency of the incident radiations is above
a certain threshold value (c) wavelength (d) None of these
38. The minimum energy required to eject an electron, from the 48. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of
metal surface is called
lo
the kinetic energy of the emitted photo electrons from a
(a) atomic energy (b) mechanical energy metal Vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives as
.b
(c) electrical energy (d) workfunction straight the whose slope
39. The work function for photoelectric effect
r8
(b) is same for all metals (b) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(c) depends upon the intensity of incident light
(c) depends on the nature of the metal used
(d) depends upon the frequency of incident light
cy
(d) is the same for the all metals and independent of the
40. Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon in which
intensity of the radiation
(a) photons come out of a metal when it is hit by a beam of
49. ____ and _____ led to understanding of atomic structures.
no
electrons.
(b) photons come out of the nucleus of an atom under the (i) Fresnel diffraction
action of an electric field. (ii) cathode rays
ch
(c) electrons come out of a metal with a constant velocity (iii) X-rays
(d) which depends on the frequency and intensity of (iv) electrons
.te
incident light wave. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
41. A photoelectric cell is a device which
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
w
(c) stores light The de-Broglie wavelength associated with the ball is
(d) stores electricity
w
om
h h and filament
(c) (d)
2mqV 2mqV 2
54. STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
For an electron accelerated from rest through a potential
V, the de Broglie wavelength associated will be 61. Which of the following is/are false regarding cathode
1.772 rays?
po
nm 1.227
(a) (b) m
V V I. They produce heating effect
II. They don’t deflect in electric field
1.227 1.772
gs
(c) nm (d) µm III. They cast shadow
V V IV. They produce fluorescence
55. According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, it is true (a) I only
lo (b) II only
that (c) I, II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
(a) we can precisely specify the momentum and energy 62.
.b
Energy required by an electron for electron emission can
of an electron
be supplied to a free electron by
(b) we cannot precisely specify the momentum and
r8
56. If a photon and an electron have same de-Broglie (a) Only I (b) I, II and IV
wavelength, then (c) II, III and IV (d) II and III
(a) both have same kinetic energy
no
57. The graph of V0 (stopping potential) vs (frequency) is III. photoemission occurs only at frequency greater
than threshold frequency.
.te
0
The photoelectric emission will not be possible if
h
w
om
II. frequency of incident light is kept fixed. if it is made up of particle called photons.
III. accelerating potential is fixed. II. Each photon has energy E = hv and momentum
IV. distance of surce from emitter is kept constant. P = hv/c.
t.c
Which of the above statements are correct ? III. photons are electrically neutral and are not deflected
(a) I and II (b) II and III by electric and magnetic field.
(c) III and IV (d) I, II and III
IV. In a photon particle collision, photon number is
po
68. From the graph it is clear that
conserved.
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III
gs
Stopping (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
Metal A
potential
(V0) Metal B MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
lo
v > v0
v0 v’0 v > v’0
72. Match the Columns I and II.
.b
0 Frequency of incident radiation (v)
Column I Column II
r8
I. the stopping potential varies linearly with the (A) Field emission (1) Heat is supplied to the
frequency of incident radiation for the given metal. metal surface
II. the work function of metal A is greater than that for
be
Statement(s). surface.
I. The stopping potential depends on the nature of (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); C (1); (D) (4)
.te
emitter material (b) (A) (1); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (4)
II. The stopping potential depends on the frequency of (c) (A) (4); (B) (1); C (3); (D) (2)
incident light. (d) (A) (4); (B) (3); C (2); (D) (1)
w
III. The stopping potential depends on the intensity of 73. Column I Column II
w
incident radiation.
(A) Electromagnetism (1) Hertz
(a) I only (b) II only
w
A
B
equation
(B) de-Broglie relation (2) Kmax = hv – 0
(C) Threshold frequency (3) x p h
Photoelectrons
0
(D) Heisenberg’s (4) v =
h
uncertainty principle
(a) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (4)
(b) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4) Electroscope
om
(c) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (3); (D) (2) The zinc plate became _____ if initially negatively
(d) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1) charged.
75. Match the quantities given in column I with their (a) positively charged (b) negatively charged
definitions in column II.
t.c
(c) uncharged (d) more positively charged
Column I Column II 78. The zinc plate became _____ if initially positively
(A) Photocurrent (1) The minimum energy required charged (see fig. above).
po
by electron to escape from (a) positively charged (b) more positively charged
the metal surface (c) negatively charged (d) uncharged
(B) Saturation (2) The minimum retarding 79. In the given graph of photoelectric current versus
gs
current potential collector plate potential the quantities (A), (B), and (C)
(C) Stopping (3) The number of photoelectric represent
potential emitted per second
Photocurrent
(D) Work function (4) The maximum number of
photoelectrons emitted per
lo
.b
second
B
(a) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4)
r8
C A o
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS Collector plate potential
cy
C B
w
A
Commutator
V
V
(a) A and B will have different intensities while B and C
will have different frequencies
+– (b) B and C will have different intensities while A and C
(a) potential of plate A w.r.t. the plate C will have different frequencies
(b) intensity of incident light (c) A and B will have different intensities while A and C
(c) material of plate A will have equal frequencies
(d) material of plate C (d) A and B will have equal intensities while B and C will
have different frequencies
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER 423
81. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation I I
of maximum kinetic energy (EK) of the emitted electrons
with frequency in photoelectric effect correctly ?
EK EK (c) (d)
O O
(a) (b)
om
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
(c) (d) have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
t.c
explanation for assertion.
82. For a given photosensitive material and frequency (>
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
threshold frequency) of incident radiation, the
correct explanation for assertion
photoelectric current varies with the intensity of incident
po
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
light as
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Current Current 85. Assertion : In process of photoelectric emission, all emitted
gs
electrons do not have same kinetic energy.
Reason : If radiation falling on photosensitive surface of a
(a) (b)
lo
metal consists of different wavelength then energy acquired
by electrons absorbing photons of different wavelengths
.b
shall be different.
Intensity Intensity 86. Assertion : Th ough light of a sin gle frequency
r8
83. The maximum kinetic energy (Emax) of photoelectrons a spread in their kinetic energies.
emitted in a photoelectric cell varies with frequency ( ) as Reason : The work function of the metal is its characteristics
shown in the graph. The slope of the graph is equal to property.
ch
(a) charge of the electron E max 88. Assertion : Photoelectric saturation current increases with
the increase in frequency of incident light.
.te
(d) Plank’s constant 0 Reason : Work function = hf0 where f0 is the threshold
84. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The frequency.
w
wavelength of the light falling on the cathode is gradually 90. Assertion : The photon behaves like a particle.
changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as Reason : If E and P are the energy and momentum of the
follows
photon, then p E /c .
I I 91. Assertion : In an experiment on photoelectric effect, a
photon is incident on an electron from one direction and
(a) (b) the phtoelectron is emitted almost in the opposite direction.
It violate the principle of conservation of linear momentum.
O O Reason :It does not violate the principle of conservation of
linear momentum.
EBD_7208
424 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
92. Assertion : Two sources of equal intensity always emit 102. A photon of 1.7 × 10–13 joule is absorbed by a material
equal number of photons in any time interval. under special circumstances. The correct statement is
Reason : Two sources of equal intensity may emit equal (a) Electrons of the atom of absorbed material will go the
number of photons in any time interval. higher energy states
(b) Electron and positron pair will be created
93. Assertion : Two photons of equal wavelength must have
(c) Only positron will be produced
equal linear momentum.
(d) Photoelectric effect will occur and electron will be
Reason : Two photons of equal linear momentum will have produced
equal wavelength. 103. The frequency and work function of an incident photon are
94. Assertion : The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted v and 0. If v0 is the threshold frequency then necessary
from metal surface does not depend on the intensity of condition for the emission of photoelectron is
incident photon. v0
(a) v < v0 (b) v
om
Reason : The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is 2
not possible with frequency of incident photons below the (c) v v0 (d) None of these
threshold frequency. 104. If E1, E2, E3 are the respective kinetic energies of an electron,
t.c
an alpha-particle and a proton, each having the same
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS de-Broglie wavelength, then
(a) E1 > E3 > E2 (b) E2 > E3 > E1
po
95. In a photoelectric experiment the stopping potential for the (c) E1 > E2 > E3 (d) E1 = E2 = E3
incident light of wavelength 4000Å is 2 volt. If the 105. The work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two photons,
wavelength be changed to 3000 Å, the stopping potential
gs
each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron of aluminium, then
will be emission of electrons
(a) 2 V (b) zero (a) will be possible
96.
(c) less than 2 V (d) more than 2 V
4eV is the energy of incident photon and the work function
lo
(b) will not be possible
(c) Data is incomplete
.b
is 2eV. The stopping potential will be (d) Depends upon the density of the surface
106. The magnitude of the de-Broglie wavelength ( ) of electron
r8
away. When the same source of light is placed 2 m away, the (c) , n, p, e (d) p, e, , n
number of electrons emitted by photocathode are reduced by 107. The potential difference that must be applied to stop the
no
wavelength 200nm can be stopped before travelling 1m in (a) 2.4 V (b) – 1.2 V
the direction of uniform electric field of 4N/C. The work (c) – 2.4 V (d) 1.2 V
.te
function of the surface is 108. In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work
(a) 4 eV (b) 6.2 eV (c) 2 eV (d) 2.2 eV function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic
100. For intensity I of a light of wavelenght 5000Å the electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is
w
photoelectron saturation current is 0.40 µA and stopping (a) 1.8 V (b) 1.2 V
w
potential is 1.36 V, the work function of metal is (c) 0.5 V (d) 2.3 V
(a) 2.47 eV (b) 1.36 eV 109. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is
w
(c) 1.10 eV (d) 0.43 eV 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident
101. The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light of on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric
wavelength incident on the surface of a metal of work- emission is nearly
function is (a) 2 V (b) 3 V
(c) 5 V (d) 1 V
2( hc ) 2(hc ) 110. Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV,
(a) (b)
m m successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic surface
of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of
2( hc ) 2( h ) the emitted electrons is
(c) (d)
m m (a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 5
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER 425
111. A source S1 is producing, 1015photons per second of 122. If the momentum of electron is changed by P, then the de
wavelength 5000 Å. Another source S2 is producing Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5%.
1.02×1015 photons per second of wavelength 5100Å Then, The initial momentum of electron will be
(power of S2) to the (power of S1) is equal to : (a) 200 P (b) 400 P
(a) 1.00 (b) 1.02 (c) 1.04 (d) 0.98
112. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength P
(c) (d) 100 P
0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting 200
electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow
123. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, it’s de-Broglie
light it emits per second is
(a) 1.5 × 1020 (b) 6 × 1018 wavelength changes by the factor
(c) 62 × 10 20 (d) 3 × 1019 1
113. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on (a) 2 (b)
2
om
hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state
1
irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential (c) 2 (d)
is measured to be 3.57 V. The threshold frequency of the 2
materials is 124. The energy of a photon of green light of wavelength 5000Å
t.c
(a) 4 × 1015 Hz (b) 5 × 1015 Hz is
(c) 1.6 × 10 Hz15 (d) 2.5 × 1015 Hz (a) 3.459 × 10–19 joule (b) 3.973 × 10–19 joule
114. For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cut-off
po
(c) 4.132 × 10–19 joule (d) 8453 × 10–19 joule
frequency is . If radiation of frequency 2 impinges on the
metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted 125. If the energy of a photon is 10 eV, then its momentum is
gs
electron will be (m is the electron mass) (a) 5.33 × 10–23 kg m/s (b) 5.33 × 10–25 kg m/s
–29
(c) 5.33 × 10 kg m/s (d) 5.33 × 10–27 kg m/s
(a) h /m (b) 2h / m
126. A proton and -particle are accelerated through the same
lo
(c) 2 h /m (d) h / 2m potential difference. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength
.b
115. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV will be
respectively. Then the ratio of the wavelengths is nearest
r8
respectively. The ratio of the slope of the stopping potential (a) 400 mm (b) 200 nm
versus frequency plot for Silver to that of Sodium is (c) 4 × 10–10 Å (d) None of these
129. The wavelength e of an electron and p of a photon are of
ch
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) zero same energy E are related by
118. The photoelectric threshold of Tungsten is 2300Å. The
.te
energy of the electrons ejected from the surface by ultraviolet (a) p e (b) p e
light of wavelength 1800Å is
(a) 0.15 eV (b) 1.5 eV (c) 15 eV (d) 150 eV 1
w
(c) (d) 2
119. Ultraviolet radiation of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium surface p p e
e
(workfunction 4.2 eV). The kinetic energy in joule of the
w
faster electron emitted is approximately 130. A material particle with a rest mass m0 is moving with speed
(a) 3 × 10–21 (b) 3 × 10–19
w
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 17. (c) Photocurrent can be explained with particle nature of
light.
1. (b) Cathode ray consists of electrons 18. (d)
2. (b) The fluorescence was caused due to the radiations 19. (b) The photoelectric emission takes place by discrete
appeared to be coming from the cathode called absorption of energy from radiation.
cathode rays. 20. (c) The diffraction of electrons show wave nature of
3. (c) 4. (b) electrons.
21. (d) Photons are not deflected by electric and magnetic
om
5. (d) For occurence of photoelectric effect, the incident light
should have frequency more than a certain minimum fields as they are electrically neutral.
which is called the threshold frequency (v0). 22. (c) Photons are quantum of light which are electrically
neutral.
t.c
1 23. (c) In a photon – particle collision, the number of
We have, mv 2 h v hv0
2 photons may not be conserved. The photon may be
For photoelectric effect emission > 0 absorbed or a new photon may be created.
po
where is the frequency of the incident light. 24. (a) Photon has no rest mass
6. (a) Emission of electron from a substance under the action 25. (c) Photoelectric effect can be explained by quantum
of light is photoelectric effect. Light must be at a nature of light i.e. light as a stream of photons.
gs
sufficiently high frequency. It may be visible light, U.V, 26. (a) Hertz discovered first the photoelectric effect in 1887.
X-rays. So U.V. cause electron emission. 27. (b) 28. (d)
7. (d) Einstein arrived at the important result that the light 29. (b) Photoelectric effect is accounted by particle like
quantum can also be associated with momentum
hv/c A definite value of energy as well as momentum 30.
lo
bahaviour of light (i.e. by quantum theory of light)
(c) Photoelectric cell converts light energy into electric
.b
is a strong sign that the light quantum can be energy.
associated with a particle. This particle was later 31. (b) The photoelectric current Intensity of light.
32. (b) Photoelectric effect is based on law of conservation
r8
named photon.
8. (c) The Maxwell’s equations of electromagnetism and of energy.
Hertz experiment on the generation and detection of 33. (c)
be
electromagnetic waves in 1887, strongly established 34. (b) Max. K.E. = h – W0 ; so Max. K.E.
the wave nature of light. 35. (c) Max. K.E. of phtoelectrons emitted is independent of
9. (c) A certain minimum amount of energy is required to intensity of incident light.
cy
pull the electron out from the surface of the metal. 36. (c) In the given relation Ek stands for maximum K.E. of
This minimum energy required by an electron to emitted photoelectron.
37. (d) Photoelectrons are emitted if the frequency of incident
no
charge.
12. (b) The minimum frequency above which the electrons established particle nature of light. These effects can
are ejected from the metal surface, is called the be explained only, when we assume that the light has
particle nature (To explain, Interference & Diffraction
w
om
2 (iii) For a given photosensitive material, there exists a
2m
certain minimum cut-off frequency of the incident
p= 2mK = 2mqV radiation, called the threshold frequency, below
which no emission of photoelectrons takes place, no
t.c
h h matter how intense the incident light is. Above the
=
p 2mqV threshold frequency, the stopping potential or
equivalently the maximum kinetic energy of the
po
1.227 h h emitted photoelectrons increases linearly with the
54. (c) = nm , as
= p
V 2meV frequency of the incident radiation but is
Substituting the numerical values of h, m and e we independent of its intensity.
gs
get the result. (iv) The photoelectric emission is an instantaneous
55. (c) process without any apparent time lag (~ 10–9 or
less), even when the incident radiations is made
56. (c)
h
mpvp
h
me v e
; then mp vp = me ve or
vp
ve
me
mp
lo
exceedingly dim.
65. (a) According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation kmax
.b
= hv – hv0 if v0 > v kmax –(ve)
1
m p v 2p m 2 66. (c) The photoelectric equation
me
r8
Ep 2 p me 1 Kmax = h – 0
= m
Ee 1 me mp p Explains that the intensity of incident radiation will
m e v e2 increase photocurrent only beyond the threshold
be
2
Ep < Ee frequency.
57. (d) Since eV0 = h – 0 67. (d) To study effect of intensity, the collector A is
maintained at a positive potential with respect to
cy
60. (a) In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity found that the photocurrrent increases linearly with
of electrons emitted from the electron gun can be intensity of incident light.
increased by increasing the potential difference 68. (b)
.te
between the anode and filament. 69. (c) The stopping potential is independent of intensity
of incident radiation.
70. (a)
w
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS (i) The graph shows that the stopping potential V0
varies linearly with the frequency of incident radiation
61. (b) Cathode rays get deflected in the electric field.
w
om
(i) In interaction of radiation with matter, radiation 86. (a) When a light of single frequency falls on the electrons
behaves as if it is made up of particles called of inner layer of metal, then this electron comes out of
photons. the metal surface after a large number of collisions
(ii) Each photon has energy E (= hv) and momentum p with atom of it's upper layer.
t.c
(= h v/c) and speed c, the speed of light. 87. (b) The kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons varies
(iii) All photons of light of a particular frequency v, or from zero to a maximum value. Work function depends
wavelength have the same energy, E (= hv = hc/ ) on metal used.
po
and momentum P(= hv/c = h/ ), whatever the
88. (d) Photoelectric saturation current is independent of
intensity of radiation may be. By increasing the
frequency. It only depends on intensity of light.
intensity of light of given wavelength, there is only
89. (b) Less work function means less energy is required for
gs
an increase in the number of photons per second
crossing a given area, with each photon having the ejecting out the electrons.
same energy. 90. (a) 91. (d)
Thus, photon energy is independent of intensity of
radiation.
92. lo
(d) Total number of emitted photons depends on energy
of each photon. The energy of photons of two sources
.b
(iv) Photons are electrically neutral and are not deflected may be different.
by electric and magnetic fields. 93. (d) To photons of equal wavelength will have equal
momentum (magnitude), but direction of momentum
r8
hc
95. (d) eVs W0 . If decreases, V increases
s
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
no
77. (c) 0
78. (b) From his experiment hallwachs concluded that where 0 is threshold wavelength or cut-off
w
negatively charged particles were emitted from zinc wavelength for a metal surface.
plate under the action of ultraviolet light. here W = 4.125 eV = 4.125 × 1.6 × 10–19 Joule
79. (b)
80. (a) From the graph it is clear that A and B have the same 6.6 10 34 3 108
so 0 3000Å
stopping potential and therefore the same frequency. 4.125 1.6 10 19
Also B and C have the same intensity.
81. (d) h – h 0 = EK, according to photoelectric equation, 98. (d) Intensity 1/ (distance)2 ; No. of photoelectrons
when = 0, EK = 0. emitted is proportional to intensity of incident light.
Graph (d) represents EK – relationship. 99. (d) The electron ejected with maximum speed vmax are
82. (a) For a given photosensitive material and frequency stopped by electric field E =4N/C after travelling a
> threshold frequency photoelectric current distance d =1m
intensity.
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER 429
12375 hc
E =2.475 eV and Kmax = eV0 = 1.36 eV 111. (a) Energy emitted/sec by S1 , P1 n1
om
5000 1
So 2.475 = W0 + 1.36 W0 = 1.1 eV. hc
1 hc 2( hc ) Energy emitted/sec by S2 , P2 n2
101. (c) mv 2 v P2 n2 1 2
t.c
2 m
102. (b) For electron and positron pair production, minimum P1 n1 2
energy is 1.02 MeV. 1.02 1015 5000
po
13 1.0
1.7 10 1015 5100
Energy of photon is given 1.7 10 3 J
1.6 10 19 112. (a) Give that, only 25% of 200W converter electrical energy
into light of yellow colour
gs
= 1.06 MeV.
Since energy of photon is greater than 1.02 MeV. hc 25
so electron positron pair will be created. N 200
lo 100
103. (c)
Where N is the No. of photons emitted per second,
1 h = plank’s constant, c, speed of light.
.b
104. (a) According to relation, E = mv 2
2 200 25
N
r8
2E 100 hc
v
m 200 25 0.6 10 6
be
h 0 = 6.63 eV
photon must be greater than work function (threshold
19
energy). 6.63 1.6 10
= 1.6 × 1015 Hz
ch
0
6.67 10 34
h 1 114. (b) From photoelectric equation,
106. (c) So h
2mE h ' = h + Kmax ...(i)
.te
m
since m > mn > mp > me 1
so de-Broglie wave length in increasing order will be d, h.2 = h + mV2max [ =2 ]
2
w
, ,
m p e
1
hc hc 12375 h = mV2max
w
12375 Vmax =
–5.01 = 6.1875 – 5.01 = 1.17775 1.2 V m
2000
108. (c) The stopping potential is equal to maximum kinetic ( 0 )1 (W0 ) 2 4.5
115. (c) hc/ = W ; 2 : 1.
energy. 0 0 ( 0 )2 ( W0 )1 2.3
109. (a) K.E. = h – h th = eV0 (V0 = cut off voltage) 116. (a) For the longest wavelength to emit photo electron
h
V0 (8.2 1014 3.3 1014 ) hc hc
e
6.6 10 34 4.9 1014
= 2V. 6.63 10 34
3 108
1.6 10 19 = 310 nm
19
4 1.6 10
EBD_7208
430 DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
117. (a) For photoelectric effect 1
Vo
h 126. (d) qV m v 2 or m v 2q Vm ;
o
Vo 2
e e h h 1
The slope is So i.e. ;
mv 2q V m qm
h
tan constant
e p q m
The ratio will be 1. so 2 4 2 2
q pm p
hc 1 1
118. (a) Ek (in eV) h
c 0
127. (c) de-Broglie wavelength, =
2mEK.E
34
6.6 10 3 108 1010 1010
om
0.15eV p m 4m p
1.6 10 19 1800 2300 [ E K.E ( ) E K.E ( p) ]
mp mp
119. (b) Ek = E – W0 = 6.2 – 4.2 = 2.0 eV
= 2.0 × 1.6 × 10–19 = 3.2 × 10–19 J 2
t.c
p
=
1
120. (a) We know that P = Fv or F = P/v
po
200
0.5 8 2 128. (a) The energy of each photon = = 5 × 10–19 J
F 0.166 10 N/m 4 1020
3 108
hc
gs
1 2
Wavelength = =
121. (b) m 1 2 W0 W0 W0 and E
2 34
lo (6.63 10 ) (3 108 )
1 2 =
m 2 10 W0 W0 9W0 5 10 19
2
.b
= 4.0 × 10–7 = 400 nm
1 W0 1 E
r8
9 W0 3 129. (d) As P =
2 C
C
be
2
P e = 2mE
...(ii)
Now, according to problem From equations (i) and (ii)
no
d dp 2
p e
P h m0
130. (c) ,v , v c, m
mv
ch
0.5 P 2
v
100 P ' 1
c
P = 200 P
.te
p 2.m.(K.E) E 2 ...(i)
E
w
1 1
for proton E m p v p2
K. E 2
w
2 2
1 mp vp
If K.E is doubled, becomes E p 2mE
2 2 m
124. (b) E = hc/ = 6.6 × 10–34 × 3 × 108/5000 × 10–10 From De Broglie Eqn.
= 3.973 × 10–19 J h h h
p 1 ...(ii)
19 1 p 2mE
E 10 1.6 10
125. (d) Momentum of a photon =
c 3 10 8 2 =
hc
E –1/2
27 1 1 h
5.33 10 kg ms E×
2mE
27
ATOMS
om
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS it give about the structure of the atom?
(a) Atom is hollow.
t.c
1. The first model of atom was proposed by (b) The whole mass of the atom is concentrated in a small
(a) Hans Geiger (b) Ernst Rutherford centre called nucleus
po
(c) J.J. Thomson (b) N.H.D Bohr (c) Nucleus is positively charged
2. The empirical atom model was given by (d) All of the above
(a) J. J. Thomson (b) Rutherford 10. In Rutherford's -particle scattering experiment, what will be
gs
(c) Niels Bohr (d) Sommerfeld correct angle for scattering for an impact parameter b = 0 ?
3. Which of the following statements is correct in case of (a) 90º (b) 270º (c) 0º (d) 180º
Thomson’s atomic model? 11. lo
In the ground state in ...A... electrons are in stable
(a) It explains the phenomenon of thermionic emission, equilibrium while in ...B... electrons always experiences a
photoelectric emission and ionisation.
.b
net force. Here, A and B refer to
(b) It could not explain emission of line spectra by elements. (a) Dalton’s theory, Rutherford model
(c) It could not explain scattering of -particles
r8
results of experiments in which -particles were scattered 12. The significant result deduced from the Rutherford's
by gold foil? scattering experiment is that
(a) The nucleus of an atom is held together by forces which
cy
an -particle varies with distance according to inverse (c) -particles are helium nuclei
square law. (d) electrons are embedded in the atom
(c) -particles are nuclei of Helium atoms. (e) electrons are revolving around the nucleus
ch
(d) Atoms can exist with a series of discrete energy levels 13. Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by
5. According to the Rutherford’s atomic model, the electrons (a) coulomb’s force (b) nuclear force
.te
inside the atom are (c) vander waal’s force (d) gravitational force
(a) stationary (b) not stationary 14. In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of
(c) centralized (d) None of these charge Z1 and mass M1approaches a target nucleus of
w
6. According to classical theory, the circular path of an electron charge Z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach
in Rutherford atom model is is r0. The energy of the projectile is
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7. Rutherford’s -particle experiment showed that the atoms (c) directly proportional to mass M1
have (d) directly proportional to M1 × M2
(a) Proton (b) Nucleus 15. According to classical theory, Rutherford’s atomic model is
(c) Neutron (d) Electrons (a) stable (b) unstable
8. Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by (c) meta stable (d) both (a) and (b)
(a) coulomb’s force (b) nuclear force 16. Rutherford’s atomic model was unstable because
(c) vander waal’s force (d) gravitational force (a) nuclei will break down
9. The Rutherford -particle experiment shows that most of (b) electrons do not remain in orbit
the -particles pass through almost unscattered while some (c) orbiting electrons radiate energy
are scattered through large angles. What information does (d) electrons are repelled by the nucleus
EBD_7208
432 ATOMS
17. The electrons of Rutherford’s model would be expected to 28. When an atomic gas or vapour is excited at low pressure,
lose energy because, they by passing an electric current through it then
(a) move randomly (a) emission spectrum is observed
(b) jump on nucleus (b) absorption spectrucm is observed
(c) radiate electromagnetic waves (c) band spectrum is observed
(d) escape from the atom (d) both (b) and (c)
18. As one considers orbits with higher values of n in a 29. The first spectral series was disscovered by
hydrogen atom, the electric potential energy of the atom (a) Balmer (b) Lyman (c) Paschen (d) Pfund
(a) decreases (b) increases 30. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the
(c) remains the same (d) does not increase second orbit, one gets the
19. Which of the following parameters is the same for all (a) second line of Paschen series
hydrogen-like atoms and ions in their ground states? (b) second line of Balmer series
om
(a) Radius of the orbit (c) first line of Pfund series
(b) Speed of the electron (d) second line of Lyman series
(c) Energy of the atom 31. The Balmer series for the H-atom can be observed
(d) Orbital angular momentum of the electron (a) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted when
t.c
20. The angular speed of the electron in the n th orbit of Bohr an excited atom falls to the ground state
hydrogen atom is (b) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted due
po
(a) directly proportional to n to transitions between excited states and the first
(b) inversely proportional to n excited state
(c) inversely proportional to n 2 (c) in any transition in a H-atom
gs
(d) inversely proportional to n3 (d) None of these
21. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom 32. In Balmer series of emission spectrum of hydrogen, first
(a) the linear velocity of the electron is quantised.
(b) the angular velocity of the electron is quantised.
lo
four lines with different wavelength H H H and H are
obtained. Which line has maximum frequency out of these?
.b
(c) the linear momentum of the electron is quantised. (a) H (b) H (c) H (d) H
(d) the angular momentum of the electron is quantised. 33. In which of the following series, does the 121.5 nm line of
r8
22. As the quantum number increases, the difference of energy the spectrum of the hydrogen atom lie ?
between consecutive energy levels (a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series (d) Brackett series.
be
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases. (a) Paschen series (b) Balmer series
23. Which of the following in a hydrogen atom is independent (c) Lyman series (d) Brackett series
of the principal quantum number n? (The symbols have their 35. The shortest wavelength in Balmer’s series for Hydrogen
no
usual meanings). atom is ...A... and this is obtained by substituting ...B ...
(a) n (b) Er (c) En (d) r in Balmer’s formula. Here, A and B refer to
24. (a) 656.3 nm, n = 3 (b) 486.1 nm, n = 4
ch
(c) n, 2 , 2 (d) , ,n (b) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential
n n n n2
energy increases
w
25. In terms of Bohr radius r0, the radius of the second Bohr orbit
of a hydrogen atom is given by (c) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and
w
om
(c) maxwell’s theory (d) planck’s quantum theory (c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
43. In Bohr’s model electrons are revolving in a circular orbits 54. If ‘r’ is the radius of the lowest orbit of Bohr’s model of
around the nucleus called as H-atom, then the radius of nth orbit is
(a) stationary orbits (b) non radiating orbits (a) r n2
t.c
(b) 2r
(c) Bohr’s orbits (d) all of these (c) n2/r (d) r n
44. According to Bohr’s theory of H atom, an electron can 55. The ratio of radii of the first three Bohr orbits is
po
revolve around a proton indefinitely, if its path is 1 1
(a) a perfect circle of any radius (a) 1: : (b) 1 : 2 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 : 9 (d) 1 : 8 : 27
(b) a circle of an allowed radius 2 3
56. The speed of an electron, in the orbit of a H-atom, in the
gs
(c) a circle of constantly decreasing radius
ground state is
(d) an ellipse with fixed focus
45. According to Bohr the difference between the energies of c c c
the electron in the two orbits is equal to
57.
(a) clo (b)
2
(c)
10
(d)
137
The speed of electron in first Bohr orbit is c/137. The speed
(a) h (b) hc/
.b
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b) of electron in second Bohr orbit will be
46. The angular momentum of electrons in an atom produces 2c 4c c c
r8
47. According to Planck’s quantum theory any electromagnetic the K.E. of the electron in that orbit is
radiation is J2 Jv J2 J2
(a) continuously emitted (a) (b) (c) (d)
cy
2mr 2 r 2m 2
(b) continuously absorbed 59. If the frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit in H
(c) emitted or absorbed in discrete units atom is n then the equivalent current is
no
0 2 2
60. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, let P.E. represents
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 2 2 (d) n h potential energy and T.E. represents the total energy. In
me 0 me 0n h
49. The linear speed of an electron, in Bohr’s orbit is given by going to a higher level.
.te
h 0 e
50. Angular speed of an electron in a Bohr’s orbit is given by (d) P. E. increases, T.E. increases
61.
w
om
(d) both (b) and (c)
65. Rydberg’s constant is 75. Bohr’s atomic model assume that
(a) same for all elements I. the nucleus is of infinite mass and is at rest.
(b) different for different elements II. electrons in a quantised orbit will not radiate the energy.
t.c
(c) a universal constants III. mass of electrons remains constant during revolution.
(d) is different for lighter elements but same for heavier IV. emission or absorption of energy results to transition
of electron from one orbit to another. Choose the
po
elements
66. The Lyman transitions involve correct option from the codes given below.
(a) largest changes of energy (a) Only I (b) I and II
gs
(b) smallest changes of energy (c) I, III and II (d) I, II, III and IV
(c) largest changes of potential energy 76. Which of the following statements are true regarding Bohr’s
(d) smallest changes of potential energy model of hydrogen atom?
67. The series limit wavelength of the Balmer series for the
hydrogen atom is
lo
I. Orbiting speed of electron decreases as it shifts to
discrete orbits away from the nucleus
.b
II. Radii of allowed orbits of electron are proportional to
1 4 9 16
(a) (b) (c) (d) the principal quantum number
r8
Column – I Column – II
transition?
(A) J.J. Thomson (1) Nuclear model of the atom
(a) n = 1 to n = 2 (b) n = 2 to n = 1 (B) E. Rutherford (2) Plum pudding model of the atom
.te
of a single electron and a single proton, emit a complex (d) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (4); (D) (3)
spectrum of specific wavelengths. 78. Consider Bohr's model to be valid for a hydrogen like atom
(a) I only (b) II only with atomic number Z. Match quantities given in Column -I
(c) I and II (d) None of these to those given in Column II.
72. Rutherford’s -particle scattering experiment concludes Column – I Column – II
that Z3
(A) (1) Angular speed
I. there is a heavy mass at centre n5
II. electrons are revolving around the nucleus Z2
(a) I only (b) II only (B) (2) Magnetic field at the centre due to
n2
(c) I and II (d) None of these revolution of electron
ATOMS 435
Z2 (a) first member of Lyman series, third spectral line of
(C) (3) Potential energy of an electron
n3 Balmer series and the second spectral line of Paschen
in nth orbit series
Z (b) ionization potential of hydrogen, second spectral line
(D) (4) Frequency of revolution of electron of Balmer series, third spectral line of Paschen series
n
(a) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4) (c) series limit of Lyman series, third spectral line of Balmer
(b) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (3) series and second spectral line of Paschen series
(c) (A) (3,4); (B) (2,3); (C) (1,2); (D) (1) (d) series limit of Lyman series, second spectral line of
(d) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4) Balmer series and third spectral line of Paschen series
79. Match the following Column II gives nature of image formed 83. If in hydrogen atom, radius of nth Bohr orbit is r n, frequency
in various cases given in column I of revolution of electron in n th orbit is fn, choose the correct
Column – I Column – II option.
(A) n = 5 to n = 2 (1) Lyman series rn rn
om
(B) n = 8 to n = 4 (2) Brackett series lo g
r1
(C) n = 3 to n = 1 (3) Paschen
(D) n = 4 to n = 3 (4) Balmer (a) (b)
(a) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (4)
t.c
O n O log n
(b) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (3)
(c) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (4); (D) (1,4) log
fn
po
(d) (A) (1,3); (B) (4); (C) (3); (D) (1) f1
80. Match the Column-I and Column-II.
Column – I Column – II (c) (d) Both (a) and (b)
gs
2 kze2 O log n
(A) Radius of n th orbit (1) 84. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a
nh
certain atom. Which transition shown represents the
(B) Velocity of electron in n th orbit (2)
kze
rh
2 lo
emission of a photon with the most energy?
n 4
.b
2 n 3
kze
(C) Potential energy in n th orbit (3)
2rh
r8
n 2
th
n 2 h2
(D) Kinetic energy in n orbit (4)
4 kze2 m
be
n 1
(a) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (3) I II III IV
(b) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (1); (D) (2) (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
85. Four lowest energy levels of H-atom are shown in the figure.
cy
81. The diagram shows the path of four -particles of the same n 2
ch
1.
2. ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
w
82. The energy levels of the hydrogen spectrum is shown in (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
figure. There are some transitions A, B, C, D and E. Transition explanation for assertion.
A, B and C respectively represent (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
n= – 0.00 eV correct explanation for assertion
n=6 – 0.36 eV (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
n=5 – 0.54 eV
n=4 – 0.85 eV
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
C
n=3
B D
– 1.51 eV 86. Assertion : The force of repulsion between atomic
n=2 – 3.39 eV nucleus and -particle varies with distance according to
A E inverse square law.
n=1 – 13.5 eV Reason : Rutherford did -particle scattering experiment.
EBD_7208
436 ATOMS
87. Assertion : According to classical theory the proposed 96. In a hydrogen atom following the Bohr’s postulates the
path of an electron in Rutherford atom model will be product of linear momentum and angular momentum is
parabolic. proportional to (n)x where ‘n’ is the orbit number. Then ‘x’ is
Reason : According to electromagnetic theory an (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) –2 (d) 1
accelerated particle continuously emits radiation. 97. Doubly ionised helium atom and hydrogen ions are
88. Assertion : Bohr had to postulate that the electrons in accelerated, from rest, through the same potential difference.
stationary orbits around the nucleus do not radiate. The ratio of final velocities of helium and hydrogen is
Reason: According to classical physics all moving
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
electrons radiate.
89. Assertion : Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb 98. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is
forces. – 13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state
Reason : The atom is stable only because the centripetal will be
(a) –13.6 eV (b) – 27.2 eV (c) – 54.4 eV (d) – 6.8 eV
om
force due to Coulomb's law is balanced by the centrifugal
force. 99. Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for
90. Assertion : Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom according to
but its emission spectrum has many lines. Bohr’s atomic model?
t.c
Reason : Only Lyman series is found in the absorption (a) 1.9 eV (b) 11.1 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) 0.65 eV
sepectrum of hydrogen atom whereas in the emission 100. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited
state to second excited state and then from second excited
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spectrum, all the series are found.
91. Assertion : Balmer series lies in the visible region of to the first excited state. Theratio of thewavelength 1 : 2
electromagnetic spectrum. emitted in the two cases is
gs
(a) 7/5 (b) 27/20 (c) 27/5 (d) 20/7
1 1 1
Reason : R where n = 3, 4, 5. 101. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the
2
2 n2 fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the
92. Statement 1 : Between any two given energy levels, the
number of absorption transitions is always less than the
lo
atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be
24hR 24m
25hR 25m
.b
number of emission transitions. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Statement 2 : Absorption transitions start from the lowest 25m 24m 24hR 25hR
102.
r8
energy level only and may end at any higher energy level. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom,
But emission transitions may start from any higher energy then the energy required to remove an electron from n = 2 is
(a) 10.2 eV (b) 0 eV (c) 3.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV.
be
maximum wavelength is . (a) 36.3 eV (b) 108.8 eV (c) 122.4 eV (d) 12.1 eV
4 104. K wavelength emitted by an atom is given by an atom of
Reason : Lyman series constitute spectral lines
atomic number Z = 11 is . Find the atomic number for an
no
that of another hydrogen-like ion B. If r, u, E and L represent (a) 1/4 (b) 4/1 (c) 8/1 (d) 1/8
the radius of the orbit, speed of the electron, energy of the 106. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to
atom and orbital angular momentum of the electron second excited states is
w
respectively then in ground state (a) 1/4 (b) 4/9 (c) 9/4 (d) 4
(a) rA > rB (b) uA > uB 107. In a hypothetical Bohr hydrogen atom, the mass of the electron
w
(c) EA > EB (d) LA > LB is doubled. The energy E 0 and radius r 0 of the first orbit will
95. In the Bohr 's model of a hydrogen atom, the centripetal force is be (r0 is the Bohr radius)
w
furnished by the coulomb attraction between the proton and (a) –11.2 eV (b) –6.8 eV (c) –13.6 eV (d) –27.2 eV
the electron. If a0 is the radius of the ground state orbit, m is the 108. A 15.0 eV photon collides with and ionizes a hydrogen atom.
mass and e is charge on the electron and 0 is the vacuum If the atom was originally in the ground state (ionization
potential =13.6 eV), what is the kinetic energy of the ejected
permittivity, the speed of the electron is
electron?
e (a) 1.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 15.0 eV (d) 28.6 eV
(a) Zero (b) 109. If the k radiation of Mo (Z = 42) has a wavelength of
0 a 0m
0.71Å. Calculate the wavelength of the corresponding
e 4 a0 m radiation of Cu (Z = 29).
0
(c) 4 a0 m (d) (a) 1.52Å (b) 2.52Å (c) 0.52Å (d) 4.52Å
0 e
ATOMS 437
110. Excitation energy of a hydrogen like ion in its excitation 123. According to Bohr’s theory, the wave number of last line
state is 40.8 eV. Energy needed to remove the electron from of Balmer series is (Given R = 1.1 × 107 m–1)
the ion in ground state is (a) 5.5 × 105 m–1 (b) 4.4 × 107 m–1
6 –1
(a) 54.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 40.8 eV (d) 27.2 eV (c) 2.75 × 10 m (d) 2.75 × 108 m–1
111. A hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs 10.2 eV of 124. The first line of the Lyman series in a hydrogen spectrum
energy. The orbital angular momentum is increased by has a wavelength of 1210 Å. The corresponding line of
(a) 1.05 × 10–34 J-s (b) 3.16 × 10–34 J-s a hydrogen-like atom of Z = 11 is equal to
(c) 2.11 × 10 J-s–34 (d) 4.22 × 10–34 J-s (a) 4000 Å (b) 100 Å (c) 40 Å (d) 10 Å
112. If the atom 100Fm follows the Bohr model and the radius
257 125. What is the ratio of the shortest wavelength of the
of 100Fm257 is n times the Bohr radius, then find n. Balmer series to the shortest wavelength to the Lyman
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 4 (d) 1/4 series ?
113. The ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman (a) 4 : 1 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 4 : 9 (d) 5 : 9
and Blamer series in hydrogen spectrum is 126. If the wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series of
om
3 7 9 5 hydrogen is 6561 Å, the wavelength of the second line
(a) (b) (c) (d) of the series should be
23 29 31 27
114. Hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to another state (a) 13122 Å (b) 3280 Å (c) 4860 Å (d) 2187 Å
t.c
with principal quantum number equal to 4. Then the number 127. The radiation corresponding to 3 2 transition of
of spectral lines in the emission spectra will be hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface to produce
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6 photoelectrons. These electrons are made to enter a
po
115. The wavelength of the first spectral line in the Balmer series magnetic field of 3 × 10–4 T. If the radius of the largest
of hydrogen atom is 6561 A°. The wavelength of the second circular path followed by these electrons is 10.0 mm, the
spectral line in the Balmer series of singly-ionized helium work function of the metal is close to:
gs
atom is (a) 1.8 eV (b) 1.1 eV (c) 0.8 eV (d) 1.6 eV
(a) 1215 A° (b) 1640 A° (c) 2430 A° (d) 4687 A°
128. Hydrogen
lo H1 , Deuterium H 2 , singly ionised Helium
116. The extreme wavelengths of Paschen series are 1 1
117. The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalnet to electron around the nucleus. Consider an electron transition
r8
hydrogen atom has wavelength of 108.5 nm. The ground from n = 2 to n = 1. If the wavelengths of emitted radiation
state energy of an electron of this ion will be
are 1, 2 , 3 and 4 respectively then approximately
(a) 3.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 54.4 eV (d) 122.4 eV
be
118. The first line of Balmer series has wavelength 6563 Å. What which one of the following is correct?
will be the wavelength of the first member of Lyman series (a) 4 1 2 2 2 3 4
(a) 1215.4 Å (b) 2500 Å (c) 7500 Å (d) 600 Å
cy
(b) 2 2
119. The energy of electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom is 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3 9 4
13.6
no
second wavelength of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum 130. An electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit of
is hydrogen atom. Given the Rydberg’s constant R = 105cm–1.
(a) 2000 Å, 3000 Å (b) 1575 Å, 2960 Å The frequency in Hz of the emitted radiation is
w
16 16
is the frequency of the first line of Lyman series and 9 3
1015 1015
w
is the frequency of the series limit of the Balmer series (c) (d)
then 16 4
(a) (b) 131. The longest wavelength of the Balmer series is 6563 Å. The
Rydberg’s constant is
1 1 1 1 1 1 (a) 1.09 × 105 m–1 (b) 1.09 × 106 m–1
(c) (d) 7 –1
2 1 3 1 2 3 (c) 1.09 × 10 m (d) 1.09 × 108 m–1
122. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for 132. If the radius of hydrogen atom in its ground state is
hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second line of 5.3 × 10–11 m. After collision with an electron it is found to
Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The atomic number have a radius of 21.2 × 10–11 m. The principle quantum
Z of hydrogen like ion is number of the final orbit is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 2 (a) n = 4 (b) n = 3 (c) n = 2 (d) n = 16
EBD_7208
438 ATOMS
om
Rutherford’s model, there is always a centripetal force
ze 2 k ze 2
acting on electron towards nucleus. 36. (c) U = –K ; T.E = –
12. (a) The significant result deduced from the Rutherford's r 2 r
t.c
scattering is that whole of the positive charge is
k ze 2
concentrated at the centre of atom i.e. nucleus. K.E = . Here r decreases
13. (a) 2 r
po
14. (a) The kinetic energy of the projectile is given by 37. (b) Transition from higher states to n = 2 lead to emission
of radiation with wavelengths 656.3 nm and 365.0 nm.
1 Ze (2e) Z1 Z2
mv2 = = These wavelengths fall in the visible region and
gs
2 4 0 r0 4 0 r0 constitute the Balmer series.
Thus energy of the projectile is directly proportional 38. (b)
to Z1, Z2 lo n(n 1) 3(3 1)
15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 39. (b) No. of lines N E 3
2 2
19. (d) The orbital angular momentum of electron is
.b
independent of mass of orbiting particle & mass of 40. (d) IR UV also wavelength of emitted radiation
nuclei. 1
r8
.
20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (c) E
ke2 n2h 2 me4
be
1 v 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (a)
23. (b) v ,r , ,E
nh mke2 T 2 r 8 o n 2h 2 47. (c) 48 (a) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (a) 52. (a)
24. (d) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (d)
cy
29. (a) In 1885, the first spectral series were observed by a 2 2 mr 2mr 2
Swedish school teacher Johann Jakob Balmer, This 1
q
w
electron Jumps from 4th orbit to 2nd orbit shall give rise 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (b)
to second line of Balmer series. 66. (a)
31. (b) 67. (b) For series limit of Balmer series,
32. (d) Since out of the given four lines H line has smallest p = 2 and n = .
wavelength. Hence the frequency of this line will be 1 1 1 1 1
R R
maximum. p 2
n 2 4
33. (a) Since 121.5 nm line of spectrum of hydrogen atom lies
in ultraviolet region, therefore it is Lyman series. 4
34. (b) Transition from higher states to n = 2 lead to emission R
of radiation with wavelengths 656.3 nm and 365.0 nm. 68. (c) 69. (a) 70. (b)
ATOMS 439
om
Source of tion. As electrons revolving in circular paths are con-
-particles stantly experiencing centripetal acceleration, hence
ZnS Screen they will be losing their energy continuously and the
Some are orbital radius will go on decreasing, form spiral and
deviated through
t.c
About 1 in 8000 a large angle finally the electron will fall in the nucleus.
is reflected back Detector
(microscope) 88. (b) Bohr postulated that electrons in stationary orbits
Schematic arrangement of the Geiger-Marsden experiment around the nucleus do not radiate.
po
Only about 0.14% of the incident -particles scatter This is the one of Bohr's postulate, According to this
by more than 1° and about 1 in 8000 deflected by the moving electrons radiates only when they go from
one orbit to the next lower orbit.
gs
more than 90°.32.
89. (c) According to postulates of Bohr's atom model the elec-
74. (a) Trajectory of -particle can be experienced by using
tron revolves around the nucleus in fixed orbit of defi-
Coulomb’s law and Newton’s IInd law of motion.
75. (d)
76. (a)
All assumptions are necessary for Bohr’s model.
Orbital speed varies inversely as the radius of the
lo
nite radii. As long as the electron is in a certain orbit it
does not radiate any energy.
90. (b) When the atom gets appropriate energy from outside,
.b
orbit. then this electron rises to some higher energy level.
1 Now it can return either directly to the lower energy
r8
v
n level or come to the lowest energy level after passing
through other lower energy levels hence all possible
be
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS transitions take place in the source and many lines are
seen in the spectrum.
77. (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3) 91. (a) The wavelength in Balmer series is given by
cy
78. (a) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4) 1 1 1
79. (b) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (3) R
2 , n = 3, 4, 5,.....
80. (a) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (3) 2 n2
no
1 1 1
R
2
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS max 2 32
ch
36 36
81. (d) -particle cannot be attracted by the nucleus. max = 6563 Å
82. (c) Transition A (n = to 1) : Series lime of Lyman series 5R 5 1.097 107
1 1 1
.te
1 1 r1
C
Comparing this equation with y = mx + c,
r B
Graph between log e n and loge (n) will be a straight
r1 A
line, passing from origin.
Similarly it can be proved that graph between Two possibilities in absorption transition.
fn
log e
f1 and loge n is a straight line. But with
negative slops.
EBD_7208
440 ATOMS
Three possibilities in emission transition.
1 1 1
Therefore, absorption transition < emission. Rz 2
93. (b) n22n12
R = Rydberg constant, Z = atomic number
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS 1 1 1 24 1
= R 2 2
= R 1 R
94. (b) 1 5 25 25
95. (c) Centripetal force = force of attraction of nucleus on linear momentum
electron h 24
P= h × R× (de-Broglie hypothesis)
mv 2 1 e2 e 25
v
a0 4 o a0 2 4 o ma0 24hR 24hR
mv = V =
96. (a) 25 25m
om
1
m v 2 or v
2q V q 13.6 13.6
97. (a) q V i.e. v 102. (c) En = – 2 E2 = – 2 = –3.4 eV..
2 m m n 2
v He q He m H 2e m 1 103. (b) Energy of excitation,
t.c
vH q H m He = e 4m 1 1
2 E = 13.6 2 eV
98. (a) Energy of a H-like atom in it's nth state is given by 1 2
po
2 13.6 1 1
En = Z eV E = 13.6 (3)2 2 = 108.8 eV
n2 1 32
For, first excited state of He+, n = 2, Z = 2 104. (a) According the Moseley’s law
gs
E
4
13.6 13.6 eV f a ( z b) f a 2 (z b) 2
He
22 c
99. (b) Obviously, difference of 11.1eV is not possible. lo a 2 (z b)2 … (i)
–0.58eV for k line, b = 1
.b
–0.85eV (z1 1) 2 4 (11 1) 2
2
–1.51eV From (i) ,
12.09eV (z 2 1) 2 (z 2 1) 2
r8
n=2 1
–3.4eV 10.2eV 10
–13.6eV n=1 z2 1 z2 6
100. (c) 2
be
n=3 2 n1 1
R 1 n1 1
Case (I) 105. (d) 2
R2 n2 4 n2 2
Energy states
3
cy
3
T1 n1 1 1
n=2
Case (II) T2 n2 2 8
106. (c)
no
=R m 2
n12 n22
As E m E '0 = 2(–13.6) = –27.2 eV
Now for case (I) n1 = 3, n2 = 2
108. (a) Conservation of energy requires that the 15.0 eV
w
om
6.6 10 34 7R 7 1.1 107
1.05 10 34 J-s. 9 9
6.28 0.818 m
112. (d) For an atom following Bohr’s model, the radius is given Similarly min
R 1.1 107
r0 m 2 117. (c) For third line of Balmer series n 1 = 2, n2 = 5
t.c
by rm where r0 = Bohr’s radius and m = orbit
Z 1 1 1 n12 n 22
number. RZ2 gives Z2
n12 n 22 (n 22 n12 ) R
po
For Fm, m = 5 (Fifth orbit in which the outermost
electron is present) On putting values Z = 2
r0 52 1 13.6Z2 13.6(2) 2
gs
rm
nr0 (given) n = 4 From E 54.4 eV
100 n2 (1) 2
113. (d) For Lyman series (2 1)
1 1 1 5R 1 1 1 3R
1
L
=R 1 2 =
2
1 3R
4
118. (a) loBalmer
R
2 2
3 2 36
,
Lyman
R
12 22 4
.b
For Balmer series (3 2) 5
Lyman Balmer 1215.4Å
1 1 1 5R 27
r8
=R = 1 1 1 4
B 4 9 36 R 1213Å
4 119. (a) (1) 2
(2) 2 max
3R
max
be
L 3R 4 5 5
= = = 1 1 1 1
B 36 36 3 27 and R min 910Å.
2 R
min (1)
cy
5R
114. (d) For ground state, the prin cipal quantum no 1 1 1
(n) = 1. There is a 3rd excited state for principal quantum 120. (d) R . For first wavelength, n = 2, n = 3
n 22 n12 1 2
no
number.
1 = 6563 Å. For second wavelength, n 1 = 2, n 2 = 4
2 = 4861 Å
ch
1 1
Energy states
= RC
.te
3 2
2nd excited state 1 n2
where n = 2, 3, 4, .......
2 1st excited state For the series limit of Lyman series, n =
w
1
1 1
ground state RC = RC ...(i)
w
2 2
Possible number of spectral lines 1
For the first line of Lyman series, n = 2
w
om
5 / 36 16 5 20
1 1 1 1 22 32
R Z 2R
2 2 2 2
1 2 2 4 20 20
2 = 1 6561 = 4860 Å
3 3Z 27 27
t.c
or or Z2 = 4 or Z = 2 127. (b) Radius of circular path followed by electron is given
4 16
123. (c) For last line Balmer series, n1 = 2 and n2 = by,
po
m 2meV 1 2m
1
R
1 1 1.1 107 –1
r V
= m qB eB B e
n 12 n 22 4
gs
= 2.75 × 106 m–1 B2 r 2 e
V 0.8V
124. (d) : By Bohr’s formula 2m
For transition between 3 to 2.
lo
1 1 1
Z 2R 1 1 13.6 5
n 12 n 22 E 13.6 1.88eV
.b
4 9 36
For first line of Lyman series n1 = 1, n2 = 2 Work function = 1.88 eV – 0.8 eV = 1.08 eV 1.1eV
r8
1 3
Z2R 1 1 1 1
4 128. (c) Wave number RZ 2
n12 n 2
Z2
be
121 121
125. (a) : For a Balmer series c 1 1 1 1
130. (c) cR
2 2 = cR
p n 4 16
1 1 1
.te
R ... (i)
22 n2 3 108 107 12 9
B
= = 1015 Hz
where n = 3, 4, ....... 64 16
w
By putting n = in eauaton (i), we obtain the series 131. (c) For longest wavelength of Balmer series,
limit of the Balmer series. This is the shortest p = 2 and n = 3
w
p n 4 9 36
or = ... (ii)
R
For a Lyman series 36 36
R = 1.09 × 107 m–1
5 5 6.563 10 7
1 1 1
R ... (iii) 132. (c) rn = r1 n2
2
L 1 n2
rn 21.2 10 11
where n = 2, 3, 4, ..... n2 4
By putting n = in equation (iii), we obtain the r1 5.3 10 11
series limit of the Balmer series. This is the shortest n=2
28
NUCLEI
om
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS (a) primary loop, secondary loop
t.c
(b) reactor core, turbine
1. Chadwick was awarded the 1935 nobel prize in physics for (c) secondary loop, primary loop
his discovery of the (d) turbine, reactor core
po
(a) electron (b) proton 9. A nuclei having same number of neutron but different
(c) neutron (d) positron number of protons / atomic number are called
2.
gs
The element gold has (a) isobars (b) isomers
(a) 16 isotopes (b) 32 isotopes (c) isotones (d) isotopes
(c) 96 isotopes (d) 173 isotopes 10. Which one of the following has the identical property for
3. The nuclear radius is of the order of
lo
isotopes?
(a) Physical property (b) Chemical property
.b
(a) 10–10 m (b) 10–6 m
–15 (c) Nuclear property (d) Thermal property
(c) 10 m (d) 10–14 m
11. The number of protons in an atom of atomic number Z
r8
(a) directly proportional to its mass number (a) increases continuously with mass number
(b) inversely proportional to its atomic weight (b) decreases continuously with mass number
no
(c) directly proportional to the cube root of its mass number (c) remains constant with mass number
(d) None of these (d) first increases and then decreases with increase of
6.
ch
(c) 11 protons and 13 neutrons and N neutrons. The mass M(N, Z) of the nucleus is given
(d) 11 protons and 13 electrons by (c is the velocity of light)
w
7. The electrons cannot exist inside the nucleus because (a) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2
(a) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in (b) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2
w
(b) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in 14. Mass energy equation was propounded by
-decay is much greater than the size of nucleus (a) Newton (b) Madam Curie
(c) C. V. Raman (d) Einstein
(c) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in
15. The mass of an atomic nucleus is less than the sum of
-decay is equal to the size of nucleus the masses of its constituents. This mass defect is
(d) negative charge cannot exist in the nucleus converted into
8. In ...X... water is circulated though the reactor vessel and (a) heat energy
transfers energy to steam generator in the ...Y... Here, X (b) light energy
and Y refer to (c) electrical energy
(d) energy which binds nucleons together
EBD_7208
444 NUCLEI
16. Which of the following statement is not true regarding 27. In ray emission from a nucleus
Einsteins mass energy relation? (a) only the proton number changes
(a) Mass disappears to reappear as energy. (b) both the neutron number and the proton number
(b) Energy disappears to reappear as mass. change
(c) Mass and energy are two different forms of the same (c) there is no change in the proton number and the
entity. neutron number
(d) Mass and energy can never be related to each other. (d) only the neutron number changes
17. The curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function of 28. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by
atomic mass number has a sharp peak for helium nucleus. (a) Klaproth (b) Rontgen
This implies that helium (c) Irene Curie and Joliot (d) P. Curie and M. Curie
(a) can easily be broken up 29. Radioactive samples are stored in lead boxes because it
(b) is very stable is
om
(a) heavy (b) strong
(c) can be used as fissionable meterial
(c) good absorber (d) bad conductor
(d) is radioactive
30. The process of radioactive radiations remains unaffected
18. Nuclear forces are due to
t.c
(a) spin dependent and have no non-central part (a) physical changes
(b) spin dependent and have a non-central part (b) chemical changes
po
(c) spin independent and have no non-central part (c) electric or magnetic fields
(d) spin independent and have a non-central part (d) all of the above
19. Nuclear forces exists between 31. A radioactive material undergoes decay by ejecting
gs
(a) neutron - neutron (b) proton - proton electrons. The electron ejected in this process is
(c) neutron - proton (d) all of these (a) the electron from the decay of a neutron
20. The antiparticle of electron is (b) the electron present in the nucleus
lo
(c) the resulting from the conversion of photon
(a) positron (b) -particle
(d) an orbital electron
.b
(c) proton (d) -particle
32. The same radioactive nucleus may emit
21. Neutron decay in free space is given as follows (a) all the three , and one after another
r8
1
0n 1 H1 1e
0
[] (b) all the three , and radiations simultaneously
(c) only and simultaneously
be
(b) self disintegration process 34. The rate of disintegration at a given instant, is directly
(c) spontaneous proportional to the number of atoms present at that
(d) all of the above instant. This is the statement of
ch
(b) a magnetic field but not by an electric field (d) group displacement law
(c) both electric and magnetic field 35. N atoms of a radioactive substance emit na-particles per
(d) neither by electric field nor by magnetic field
w
om
(c) -rays (d) All of the above
II. Atomic species of the same element differing in
41. The 'rad' is the correct unit used to report the measurement
mass are called isotopes.
of
III. Hydrogen has two isotopes.
(a) the ability of a beam of gamma ray photons to produce
t.c
(a) I only (b) II only
ions in a target
(c) I and II (d) I, II and III
(b) the energy delivered by radiation to a target
52. Which of the following statements are correct?
po
(c) the biological effect of radiation
I. Atoms of isotopes have same electronic structure.
(d) the rate of decay of a radioactive source
II. Atoms of isotopes occupies same place in periodic
42. One curie is equal to
gs
table.
(a) 3.7 × 1010 disintegration/sec III. Atoms of isotopes have same number of protons.
(b) 3.2 × 108 disintegration/sec IV. Atoms of isotopes have same number of neutrons.
(c) 2.8 × 1010 disintegration/sec
(d) None of these
lo
(a) I and II
(c) I, II III and IV
(b) I, II and III
(d) II and IV
.b
43. Half life of radioactive element depends upon 53. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) amount of element present I. Nuclear density is a constant for all matter.
r8
ZX Z 1Y 1e
(c) I and II (d) I, II, III and IV
(a) fission (b) -decay 54. For binding energy per nucleon versus mass number
(c) -decay (d) fusion
no
46. Control rods used in nuclear reactors are made of II. Binding energy is lower for both light nucei (A < 30)
(a) stainless steel (b) graphite and heavy nuclei (A < 170).
(c) cadmium (d) plutonium III. Binding energy is maximum of about 8.75 MeV for A
.te
(d) speed up the reaction (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and III
48. A moderator is used in nuclear reactors in order to 55. In one half-life time duration
w
(a) slow down the speed of the nuetrons I. activity of a sample reduced to half of its initial
(b) acceleerate the neutrons value.
(c) increase the number of neutrons II. total number of nuclei present are reduced to half of
(d) decrease the number of neutrons its initial value.
49. Fusion reactions take place at high temperature because III. number of radio active nuclei present is reduced to
(a) atoms are ionised at high temperature half of its initial value.
(b) molecules break up at high temperature IV. mass of sample is reduced to half of its initial value.
(c) nuclei break up at high temperature Out of these, correct statements are
(d) kinetic enrgy is high enough to overcome repulsion (a) I and II (b) I and II
between nuclei (c) II and IV (d) II and III
EBD_7208
446 NUCLEI
56. At a specific instant emission of radioactive compound is (a) (A) (2); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (1)
deflected in a magnetic field. The compound can emit (b) (A) (4); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
I electrons II protons (c) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4)
III He 2+
IV neutrons (d) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
The emission at instant can be 60. Column – I Column – II
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II, III and IV (A) Hydrogen bomb (1) Fission
(c) IV only (d) II and III (B) Atom bomb (2) Fusion
(C) Binding energy (3) Critical mass
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS (D) Nuclear reactor (4) Mass defect
(a) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (4)
57. Match the Column I and Column II.
(b) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
Column – I Column – II
om
(c) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
(A)Isotopes (1) Mass number same but (d) (A) (4); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (1)
different atomic number
(B) Isobars (2) Atomic number same but
t.c
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
different mass number.
(C) Isotones (3) Number of nentrons 61. There is a plot of binding energy per nucleon Eb, against
po
plus number of protons the nuclear mass M; A, B, C, D, E, F correspond to different
(D) Nucleons (4) Number of nentrons nuclei.
gs
same but different
atomic number
(a) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4) lo
(b) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
.b
(c) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4)
(d) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4)
r8
92 U 90 Th ...
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(C) Fission (3) 185 184 (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
83 Bi 82 Pb ...
62. Binding energy per nucleon plot against the mass number
ch
(D) Proton emission (4) 239 140 for stable nuclei is shown in the figure. Which curve is
94 Pu 57 La ...
correct?
.te
(a) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (4) (a) A
(b) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
(b) B
(c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
w
(c) C
(d) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
(d) D
w
59. Column I
Column – I Column – II 63. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve for
w
(A) Nuclear fusion (1) E = mc2 nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y and Z are four nuclei
indicated on the curve. The process that would release
(B) Nuclear fission (2) Generally possible for
energy is
nuclei with low atomic
number (a) Y 2Z
(C) -decay (3) Generally possible for (b) W X Z
nuclei with higher atomic (c) W 2Y
number (d) X Y Z
(D) Mass-energy (4) Essentially proceeds by
equivalence weak reaction nuclear forces
NUCLEI 447
64. The energy spectrum of -particles [number N(E) as a 70. Assertion : Radioactivity of 108
undecayed radioactive
function of -energy E] emitted from a radioactive source is nuclei of half life of 50 days is equal to that of 1.2 × 108
number of undecayed nuclei of some other material with
half life of 60 days.
Reason : Radioactivity is proportional to half-life.
(a) N(E) (b) N(E)
71. Assertion : The ionising power of -particle is less compared
E E to -particles but their penetrating power is more.
E0 E0 Reason : The mass of -particle is less than the mass of -
particle.
72. Assertion : Radioactive nuclei emit –1 particles.
Reason : Electrons exist inside the nucleus.
(c) N(E) (d) N(E)
73. Assertion : ZXA undergoes 2 , 2 - particles and 2 -rays,
om
E E the daughter product is Z-2YA – 8.
E0 E0 Reason : In - decay the mass number decreases by 4 and
atomic number decreases by 2. In -decay the mass number
t.c
remains unchanged, but atomic number increases by 1.
65. Radioactive element decays to form a stable nuclide, then
74. Assertion : The heavier nuclei tend to have larger N/Z ratio
the rate of decay of reactant is
po
because neutron does not exert electric force.
N N Reason : Coulomb forces have longer range compared to
the nuclear force.
gs
(a) (b) 75. Assertion : A free neutron decays to a proton but a free
proton does not decay to a neutron. This is because neutron
t t lo
is an uncharged particle and proton is a charged particle.
Reason : Neutron has larger rest mass than the proton.
.b
N N
76. Assertion : Cobalt-60 is useful in cancer therapy.
Reason : Cobalt -60 is source of - radiations capable of
r8
fusion energy.
Reason : The binding energy of 35Cl is to small.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
78. Assertion : Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo
cy
Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, fission or light nuclei undergo fusion and
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four Reason : For heavy nuclei, binding energy per nucleon
no
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You increases with increasing Z while for light nuclei it decreases
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below. with increasing Z.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
ch
correct explanation for assertion 79. The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. The
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect radius of sulphur nuclei is larger than that of helium by
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
w
(a) 8 (b) 4
66. Assertion : Density of all the nuclei is same.
(c) 2 (d) 8
w
( ) ( ) ( )
(c) eight months (d) twelve months
(a) E 236 U > E 137 I + E 97 Y + 2E(n) 92. In the uranium radioactive series, the initial nucleus is 92U238
92 53 39 and that the final nucleus is 82Pb206. When uranium nucleus
( ) ( ) ( )
decays to lead, the number of particles and particles
E 236 U < E 137 I + E 97 Y + 2E(n)
om
(b) emitted are
92 53 39
(a) 8 , 6 (b) 6 , 7
(c) (92 ) ( 56 ) (
36 )
E 236 U < E 140 Ba + E 94 Kr + 2E(n) (c) 6 , 8 (d) 4 , 3
t.c
93. A radioactive nucleus undergoes -emission to form a
( ) ( ) ( )
stable element. What will be the recoil velocity of the
(d) E 236 U = E 140 Ba + E 94 Kr + 2E(n)
92 56 36 daughter nucleus if v is the velocity of emission?
po
84. If the total binding energies of 2 4 56 235 4v 2v
1 H, 2 He, 26 Fe & 92 U (a) (b)
A 4 A 4
gs
nuclei are 2.22, 28.3, 492 and 1786 MeV respectively, identify
the most stable nucleus of the following. 4v 2v
56 2 235 4
(c ) (d)
(a) 26 Fe (b) 1H (c) 92 U (d) 2 He
94.
lo
A 4 A 4
A radioactive element forms its own isotope after three
85. The mass of a 37 Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of
.b
consecutive disintegrations. The particles emitted are
the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per (a) 3 –particles
r8
The amount of energy liberated in kilowatt hour is 95. The ratio of half-life times of two elements A and B is T .
B
(Velocity of light = 3 × 108 m/s)
no
-particle are x1 and x2 respectively. What will be the energy (a) TB / TA (b) TA / TB
Q released in the reaction 1H2 + 1H2 2He4 + Q TA TB TA TB
.te
into two small fragments of mass number 80 and 120. If according to the scheme
binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 MeV and
w
a
A A1 A2 A3 A4
for daughter nuclei is 7 MeV and 8 MeV respectively, then
If the mass number and atomic number of ‘A’ are 180 and 72
w
om
20 minutes & 40 minutes. Initially the samples of A & B (a) N0/8 (b) N0/16
have equal numbers of nulcei. After 80 minutes the ratio of (c) N0/2 (d) N0/4
remaining numbers of A & B nuclei is
108. When a U 238 nucleus originally at rest, decays by emitting
(a) 1 : 16 (b) 4 : 1
t.c
an alpha particle having a speed ‘u’, the recoil speed of the
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
residual nucleus is
101. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as
po
N0 counts per minute at t = 0 and N0/e counts per minute at 4u 4u
(a) (b)
t = 5 minutes. The time (in minutes) at which the activity 238 234
reduces to half its value is
gs
4u 4u
5 (c) (d)
(a) log e 2 / 5 (b) log 2 234 238
into a stable nucleus R. At time t = 0, number of P species Find the probability that a nucleus undergoes decay after
are 4 N0 and that of Q are N0. Half-life of P (for conversion two half lives
to R) is 1 minute where as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially
no
2
104. The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time (in mg) of the radioactive sample is
w
(a) 1 (b) 3
2
interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2when of it has decayed (c) 5 (d) 6
w
3
112. The half life of the radioactive substance is 40 days. The
1 substance will disintegrate completely in
and the time t1 when of it had decayed is (a) 40 days (b) 400 days
3
(a) 30 days (b) 50 days (c) 4000 days (d) infinite time
(c) 60 days (d) 15 days 113. A radioactive substance contains 10000 nuclei and its half-
105. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A1 and A2 life period is 20 days. The number of nuclei present at the
with half lives of 20 s and 10 s respectively. Initially the end of 10 days is
mixture has 40 g of A1 and 160 g of A2. The amount of the (a) 7070 (b) 9000
two in the mixture will become equal after (c) 8000 (d) 7500
EBD_7208
450 NUCLEI
114. The half-life of radioactive Radon is 3.8 days. The time at (a) 2 (b) 4
the end of which (1/20)th of the Radon sample will remain (c) between 4 and 6 (d) 6
undecayed is (given log10e = 0.4343) 122. After 150 days, the activity of a radioactive sample is 5000
(a) 13.8 days (b) 16.5 days dps. The activity becomes 2500 dps after another 75 days.
(c) 33 days (d) 76 days The initial activity of the sample is
115. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2 hr emits (a) 20000 dps (b) 40000 dps
radiation of intensity which is 64 times the permissible safe (c) 7500 dps (d) 10000 dps
level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to 123. At any instant, the ratio of the amount of radioactive
work safely with this source is substances is 2 : 1. If their half lives be respectively 12 and
(a) 6 hr (b) 12 hr 16 hours, then after two days, what will be the ratio of the
(c) 24 hr (d) 128 hr substances ?
om
116. At time t = 0, N1 nuclei of decay constant 1 and N2 nuclei (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
124. Half lives for and emission of a radioactive material are
of decay constant 2 are mixed. The decay rate of mixture
16 years and 48 years respectively. When material decays
is
t.c
giving and emission simultaneously, time in which 3/
(a) N1 N 2 e ( 1 2)t 4th material decays is
(a) 29 years (b) 24 years
po
N1 ( 1 2 )t
(c) 64 years (d) 12 years
(b) e
N2 125. In a given reaction
gs
A
t t zA z 1 YA z 1 KA 4
z 1 KA 4
(c) ( N1 1e 1 N1 2
2e )
Radioactive radiations are emitted in the sequence of
(d) N1 1N 2 2e
( 1 2)t (a)
(c) , ,
lo
, , (b) , ,
(d) , ,
.b
117. Radium 226Ra, spontaneously decays to radon with the
126. An element A decays into an element C by a two step process
emission of an -particle and a ray. If the speed of the
r8
particle upon emission from an initially stationary radium A B 2He4 and B C 2e . Then,
nucleus is 1.5 ×107 m/s, what is the recoil speed of the (a) A and C are isotopes (b) A and C are isobars
be
resultant radon nucleus? Assume the momentum of ray is (c) B and C are isotopes (d) A and B are isobars
negligible compared to that of particle. 127. In which sequence the radioactive radiations are emitted in
(a) 2..0 × 105 m/s (b) 2.7 × 105 m/s
cy
1
118. The fossil bone has a 14C : 12C ratio, which is of that (a) and (b) and
16
(c) and (d) and
in a living animal bone. If the half-life of 14C is 5730 years,
ch
(c) 22920 years (d) 45840 years (a) 40 minute (b) 10 minute
119. An archaeologist analyses the wood in a prehistoric (c) 15 minute (d) 20 minute
structure and finds that C14 (Half life = 5700 years) to C12 is
w
(a) m 6 (b) m 6
(c) 11,400 years (d) 22,800 years n 4 Z n Z
120. Atomic weight of boron is 10.81 and it has two isotopes (c) m 4 (d) m 4
10 11 10 11 n X n 2Y
5B and 5B . Then ratio of 5B : 5B in nature would be
(a) 19 : 81 (b) 10 : 11 130. A nucleus with Z= 92 emits the following in a sequence:
(c) 15 : 16 (d) 81 : 19 , , , , , , , , , , , ,
121. A radioactive element X converts into another stable element
Then Z of the resulting nucleus is
Y. Half life of X is 2 hrs. Initially only X is present. After time
(a) 76 (b) 78
t, the ratio of atoms of X and Y is found to be 1 : 4, then t in
hours is (c) 82 (d) 74
NUCLEI 451
131. The half-life period of a radio-active element X is same as 136. The energy released per fission of a 92 U235 nucleus is nearly
the mean life time of another radio-active element Y. Initially (a) 200 eV (b) 20 eV
they have the same number of atoms. Then (c) 200 MeV (d) 2000 eV
(a) X and Y decay at same rate always 137. If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of a single U235
(b) X will decay faster than Y nucleus, the number of fissions required per second to
(c) Y will decay faster than X produce 1 kilowatt power shall be (Given 1eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J)
(d) X and Y have same decay rate initially (a) 3.125 × 1013 (b) 3.125 × 1014
132. A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and atomic (c) 3.125 × 1015 (d) 3.125 × 1016
number Z emits 3 - particles and 2 positrons. The ratio of 138. A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the
number of neutrons to that of protons in the final nucleus process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion reaction is
will be 0.02866 a.m.u. The energy liberated per a.m.u. is
om
A Z 8 A Z 4 (Given : 1 a.m.u = 931 MeV)
(a) (b) (a) 26.7 MeV (b) 6.675 MeV
Z 4 Z 8
(c) 13.35 MeV (d) 2.67 MeV
A Z 12 A Z 4
t.c
139. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron 2 and
(c) (d) 1H
Z 4 Z 2
helium nucleus 4 is 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV respectively..
133. A nuclear transformation is denoted by X (n, ) 73 Li . Which 2 He
po
If two deuteron nuclei react to form a single helium nucleus,
of the following is the nucleus of element X ?
then the energy released is
gs
(a) 10 (b) 12
5 Be C6 (a) 23.6 MeV (b) 26.9 MeV
(c) 13.9 MeV (d) 19.2 MeV
(c) 11 (d) 9
4 Be 5B lo
140. If the binding energy per nucleon in 73 Li and 42 He nuclei
134. In a fission reaction
are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively, then in the reaction
.b
236 117 117
92 U X Y n n
7
p 3 Li 2 42 He
r8
nuclei. The energy released per oxygen nuclei is [Mass of The energy released during this process is : (mass of neutron
He nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of Oxygen nucleus is = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg, mass of proton = 1.6725 × 10–27 kg,
mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg).
no
15.9994 amu]
(a) 7.6 MeV (b) 56.12 MeV (a) 0.511 MeV (b) 7.10 MeV
(c) 10.24 MeV (d) 23.9 MeV (c) 6.30 MeV (d) 5.4 MeV
ch
.te
w
w
w
EBD_7208
452 NUCLEI
om
B is maximum. Thus, mass of specimen B is also
5. (c) Radius of nucleus R = R0 A1/3 where A is the mass
maximum.
number of nucleus.
37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (d)
4 3 4 41. (c) The risk posed to a human being by any radiation
t.c
Volume of nucleus R R 30 A
3 3 exposure depends partly upon the absorbed dose, the
amount of energy absorbed per gram of tissue.
po
Volume is proportional to A.
Absorbed dose is expressed in rad. A rad is equal to
6. (c) Nucleus does not contain electron.
100 ergs of energy absorbed by 1 gram of tissue. The
7. (b)
more modern, internationally adopted unit is the gray
gs
8. (a) In pressurised-water, nuclear reactor, in primary loop
(named after the English medical physicist L. H. Gray);
water is circulated through the reactor vessel and
one gray equals 100 rad.
transfers energy to steam generator in secondary
loop.
42. (a)
lo
43. (d) Half life of a substance doesn’t depends upon amount,
.b
9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (b) temperature and pressure. It depends upon the nature
12. (d) Average BE/nucleon increases first, and then of the substance.
r8
B.E
13. (d) Mass defect antineutrino. Since in this reaction is emitted with
c2
0 ( – particle or electron), so it is known as -decay..
Mass of nucleus = Mass of proton 1e
cy
18. (b) 19. (d) 47. (a) Boron rods absorb excess neutrons.
20. (a) Antiparticle of electron ( –1e0) is positron ( +1e0) 48. (c) Moderator slows down neutrons.
21. (c)
ch
An electron is accompanied by an antineutrino. 49. (d) Extremely high temps needed for fusion make K.E. large
22. (d) All the characteristics given are true for enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei.
radioactivity. 50. (c)
.te
1
0.693 1 1H , Denterium 12 H , and Tritium 13 H .
26. (c) Half life Th , Tm Clearly,, Th Tm .
w
om
V 4 3
A sample may have nuclei which are not radioactive. r
3
56. (a) Neutrons can’t be deflected by a magnetic field.
A 1
= constant
t.c
MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS 4
( r0 A1/ 3 )3
4 3
r0
3 3
57. (b) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3)
po
58. (c) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3) 67. (b) Both statements are separately correct.
68. (d) In case of hydrogen atom mass number and atomic
15 15 0
8 O 7 N number are equal.
gs
1
particle 69. (c) Nuclear force is nearly same for all nucleus.
dN 0.693N
238
92 U
234
90 Th
4
2 He
particle
lo
70. (c) Radioactivity
dt
N
T1/ 2
.b
0.693 108 0.693 1.2 108
185 184 1 0.693 2 106.
83 Bi 82 Pb 1H 50 60
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60. (b) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (4); (D) (3) this reason, their loss of energy is very slow and they
can penetrate the medium through a sufficient depth.
no
for D and E is greater then Eb for F. undergo fission or light nuclei undergo fusion.
62. (c) Therefore statement (1) is correct.
.te
63. (c) Energy is released in a process when total binding energy The second statement is false because for heavy nuclei
(BE) of products is more than the reactants. By calculations the binding energy per nucleon decreases with
we can see that this happens in option (c). increasing Z and for light nuclei, B.E/nucleon increases
w
N0 4 2
R2 3.6 6 fermi Number of atoms left undecayed,
om
3
n = 2 i.e. in two half lives
82. (c) Binding energy t = nT = 2 × 4 = 8 months
= [ZMP + (A – Z)MN – M]c2 92. (a) Let no. of -particles emitted be x and no. of particles
t.c
= [8MP + (17 – 8)MN – M]c2 emitted be y.
= [8MP + 9MN – M]c2 Diff. in mass no. 4x = 238 – 206 = 32 x = 8
= [8MP + 9MN – Mo]c2
po
Diff. in charge no. 2x – 1y = 92 – 82 = 10
83. (a) Iodine and Yttrium are medium sized nuclei and 16 – y = 10, y = 6
therefore have more binding energy per nucleon as 93. (a) We assume that mass number of nucleus when it was
gs
compared to Uranium which has a big nucleus and at rest = A
less B.E. / nucleon. In other words, Iodine and Yttrium mass number of -particle = 4
are more stable and therefore, possess less energy
and less rest mass. Also, when Uranium nuclei
lomass number of remaining nucleus = A - 4
As there is no external force, so momentum of the
.b
explodes, it will convert into I and Y nuclei having system will remain conserved
kinetic energies.
r8
4v
2.22 0 A 4v 4v v'
84. (a) B.E H 1.11 A 4
be
2
negative sign represents that direction is opposite
28.3 to the direction of motion of -particle.
B.E He 7.08
cy
B.E U 7.6
235 Hence, for isotope formation 2 particles and one
56 particle are emitted.
26 Fe is most stable as it has maximum binding energy
.te
per nucleon. ln 2 ln 2
95. (a) T1/ 2
85. (b) B.E. = 0.042 × 931 42 MeV T1/ 2
w
, A .
A B
TA TB B TA
42
w
0.3
86. (d) E m.c2 E (3 108 ) 2 2.7 1013 J
1000 69 A3172 69 A 4172
97. (d) Radioactivity at T1 , R1 = N1
2.7 1013 6
7.5 10 kWh. Radioactivity at T2, R2 = N2
3.6 106 Number of atoms decayed in time
87. (b) Q = 4 (x2 – x1) (T1 – T2) = (N1 –N2)
NUCLEI 455
(R 1 R 2 ) (R1 R 2 ) T (4N 0 ) N0
= (R1 R 2 ) T NP
0.693 4 /1 4
2
98. (d) at t = 4 min.
dN N0 N0
99. (c) N activity R N0
dt 4 4
R0 = N0 at t = 0, R1 = N1 at t = 5 minutes or population of R
2.303 N N0 N0 9N 0
where log 0 4N0 N0 =
t N1 4 4 2
om
NA (1 / 2) n A (1 / 2) 4 1 1
100. (c) , where n A & nB are 104. (b) N1 = N0 e– t N1 N0
3
NB (1 / 2) n B (1 / 2) 2 4
t.c
number of half lives of samples A & B respectively. NA N0 t2
N0e
& NB are the remaining numbers of A & B after 80 3
po
minutes in this case.
1 t
t e ...(i)
101. (d) N = N 0 e 3
gs
Here, t = 5 minutes 2
N2 N0
N0 lo 3
N0 e 5
e
2 t1
.b
N0 N0e
1 3
5 1 , or ,
r8
5
2 t1
e ...(ii)
3
be
n2
Now, T1/2 = = 5 n2 Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii)
(t2 t1 )
e
E h 2
Mu =
c c
no
(t2 t1 ) ln2
Recoil energy
2
ln 2
1 M2u 2 h2 2 t 2 t1
ch
1 1 h = T1/2 = 50 days
Mu 2 = 2
2 2 M 2M c 2Mc
105. (d) Let, the amount of the two in the mixture will become
.te
N 01
TQ = 2 min. N1
(2)t/20
w
4N0 N0 4N 1 N 02
t /1 t/2 t /1 t/2 2t/1 = 4.2t/2 N2
2 2 2 2 (2)t/10
22.2t/2 = 2(2 + t/2) According to the problem
t t t N1 = N2
2 2 t = 4 min
1 2 2 40 160
t/20
(2) (2)t/10
EBD_7208
456 NUCLEI
t
i.e. 1019
radioactive atoms are present in the freshly
2
prepared sample.
2t/20 2 10
The mass of the sample
t t = 1019 × 10–25 kg = 10–6kg = 1 mg
2
20 10 112. (d) Time taken to disintegrate completely by a substance
N0
t t is infinity as log t
2 N
20 10
N0
t log t
2 0
20
om
t = 40 s log t
1 hence when N 0, t .
106. (a) The value of x is
8
t.c
t 10
N 1 T N 1 20
x0 x 113. (a) or
= = 30 t = 3T = 3 × 20 = 60 years N0 2 10000 2
po
8 2
Hence the estimated age of the rock is 60 years 10000 1 10000
or N 7070.
gs
ALTERNATE : X Y0 2 1.414
at t = 0 N0 0
n
at t = t N N0 – N lo1 N 1
114. (b) gives n = 4.32
2 N0 20
N 1 N 1
.b
= = = t = nT = 4.3 × 3.8 = 16.5 days
N0 N 7 N0 8
115. (b) To work safely, intensity must reduce by 1/64
r8
t = 3T
= 3 × 20 = 60 years t /T 6 t/T
N 1 1 1 1
be
t
or 6 or t = 6 T = 12 hrs
4u T
(4) (u) = (v) (238) v
no
1 2
n ( 4) n2 0. 4 n 2 speed of the radon is (4/222) × 1.5 × 107 m/s = 2.7 x 105
5 5
m/s.
110. (b) Radioactive decay is a random process. Each decay is a
w
1 or, n=4
1010 N
109 t
or =4
N = 1019 T
or t = 4 × T = 4 × 5730 = 22920 years
NUCLEI 457
om
N 11 81
B 0.693 1
121. (c) Let N0 be the number of atoms of X at time t = 0. X Y
t.c
Then at t = 4 hrs (two half lives)
X (0.693). Y
N0 3N0
Nx and N y
po
4 4 X Y.
gs
and at t = 6 hrs (three half lives) dN
X N0
N0 7N 0 dt
Nx and N y lo
8 8
dN
Nx 1 4 N0
.b
or dt
Ny 7 4
1
r8
Therefore, t lies between 4 hrs and 6 hrs. decreases by 4 units and atomic number decreases by 2
122. (a) Activity of sample becomes 2500 from 5000 in 75 days units. And by the emission of 1 positron the atomic number
decreases by 1 unit but mass number remains constant.
cy
48/12
1 N0 N0
2N0 NA 2N 0 Number of protons = Z – 8
2 23 8
A Z 4
.te
For substance B :
48/16
Required ratio =
1 N0 N0 Z 8
N0 NB N0
2 3 8
2
w
A 1 7 4
133. (a) ZX 0n 3 Li 2 He
NA : NB = 1 : 1
w
T T1 T2 It is boron 5B10
1 1 1
T 12 years
T 16 48 134. (b) Liberated energy Q = 117 × 8.5 + 117 × 8.5 – 236 × 7.6 =
3 200 MeV. Thus, in fission of one Uranium nuclei nearly
Time in which will decay is 2 half lives = 24 years
4 200 MeV energy is liberated.
125. (c) 126. (a) 127. (c) 128. (d)
16
135. (c) 4 42 He 8O
129. (c) When m emits one -particle then its atomic mass
n X
B.E = M × 931.5 MeV
decreases by 4 units and atomic number by 2. = (4 × 4.0026 – 15.9994) × 931.5 = 10.24 MeV
EBD_7208
458 NUCLEI
136. (c) Energy released per fission is 200 MeV 140. (b) Let E be the energy of proton, then
E 7 5.6 2 [4 7.06]
E n 200 106 1.6 10 19
137. (a) P n 1000 E 56.48 39.2 17.28MeV
t t
141. (a) 1 1 0
0n 1H 1e Q
n 13
3.125 10 . The mass defect during the process
t
m mn mH me
138. (b) Mass defect m = 0.02866 a.m.u.
Energy = 0.02866 × 931 = 26.7 MeV = 1.6725 × 10 – (1.6725 × 10–27+ 9 × 10–31kg)
–27
om
= 6.675 MeV E = mc2
E = 9 × 10–31× 9 × 1016 = 81 × 10–15 Joules
139. (a) The chemical reaction of process is 212 H 4
2 He
15
t.c
81 10
Energy released 4 (7 ) 4(1.1) = 23.6 eV E= 0.511MeV
1.6 10 –19
po
gs
lo
.b
r8
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
29
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS :
MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
om
11. In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the
FACT /DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS
valence band and conduction band is of the order of
t.c
1. In a semiconductor (a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 MeV
(a) there are no free electrons at 0 K (c) 1 eV (d) 5 eV
(b) there are no free electrons at any temperature 12.
po
What is the resistivity of a pure semiconductor at absolute
(c) the number of free electrons increases with pressure zero ?
(d) the number of fre electrons is more than that in a (a) Zero
conductor
gs
(b) Infinity
2. Let nh and n e be the number of holes and conduction
(c) Same as that of conductors at room temperature
electrons in an extrinsic semiconductor. Then
(a) nh > ne (b) nh = ne (c) nh < ne (d) nh ne (d) Same as that of insulators at room temperature
lo
3. A p-type semiconductor is 13. Temperature coefficient of resistance of semiconductor is
.b
(a) positively charged (a) zero (b) constant
(b) negatively charged (c) positive (d) negative
14.
r8
(a) electrons only (c) below the conduction band of the host crystal
(b) holes only (d) above the conduction band of the host crystal
(c) both electrons and holes
cy
6. The electrical conductivity of pure germanium can be 16. The mobility of free electrons is greater than that of free
increased by holes because
(a) increasing the temperature (a) they are light
.te
6
(c) 10 to 10 8 cm (d) 1010 to 1012 cm
8. Number of electrons in the valence shell of a pure (c) n T (d) n T3/2
semiconductor is 18. In semiconductors, at room temperature
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) the conduction band is completely empty
9. In a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap between the
valence band and the conduction band is of the order is (b) the valence band is partially empty and the conduction
(a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 Mev band is partially filled
(c) 1 eV (d) 5 eV (c) the valence band is completely filled and the
10. The forbidden energy gap for germanium crystal at 0 K is conduction band is partially filled
(a) 0.071 eV (b) 0.71 eV (d) the valence band is completely filled
(c) 2.57 eV (d) 6.57 eV
EBD_7208
460 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
19. At absolute zero, Si acts as 29. The drift current in a p-n junction is from the
(a) non-metal (b) metal (a) n-side to the p-side
(c) insulator (d) None of these (b) p-side to the n-side
20. One serious drawback of semi-conductor devices is (c) n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-biased
(a) they do not last for long time. and in the opposite direction if it is reverse biased
(b) they are costly (d) p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-biased
(c) they cannot be used with high voltage. and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased
(d) they pollute the environment. 30. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the
21. When an impurity is doped into an intrinsic semiconductor, (a) n-side to the p-side
the conductivity of the semiconductor (b) p-side to the n-side
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-biased
(c) remains the same (d) becomes zero and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased
22. An electric field is applied to a semiconductor. Let the
om
(d) p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-biased
number of charge carriers be n and the average drift speed and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-biased
be v. If the temperature is increased 31. Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift
(a) both n and v will increase current in magnitude
t.c
(b) n will increase but v will decrease (a) if the junction is forward-biased
(c) v will increase but n will decrease (b) if the junction is reverse-biased
(d) both n and v will decrease
po
(c) if the junction is unbiased
23. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal
(d) in no case
(a) it becomes a p–type semiconductor
32. Forward biasing is that in which applied voltage
gs
(b) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
(a) increases potential barrier
(c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the
(b) cancels the potential barrier
semiconductor
(c) is equal to 1.5 volt
lo
(d) its resistance is increased
(d) None of these
24. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a
33. In V-I characteristic of a p-n junction, reverse biasing results in
.b
conductor and a semiconductor
(a) leakage current
(a) increases for both (b) decreases for both
(b) the current barrier across junction increases
r8
(c) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si (d) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge (c) does not eliminate a.c. component
27. A semiconductor device is connected in a series circuit (d) None of these
with a battery and a resistance. A current is found to pass 37. For a junction diode the ratio of forward current (If) and
w
through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, reverse current (Ir) is
the current drops to almost zero. The device may be a/an
w
[e = electronic charge,
(a) intrinsic semiconductor
V = voltage applied across junction,
(b) p-type semiconductor
w
k = Boltzmann constant,
(c) n-type semiconductor
T = temperature in kelvin]
(d) p-n junction diode
(a) e –V/kT (b) eV/kT
28. If the two ends of a p-n junction are joined by a wire –eV/kT
(c) (e + 1) (d) (eeV/kT – 1)
(a) there will not be a steady current in the circuit
(b) there will be a steady current from the n-side to the p- 38. In a semiconductor diode, the barrier potential offers
side opposition to
(c) there will be a steady current from the p-side to the n- (a) holes in P-region only
side (b) free electrons in N-region only
(d) there may or may not be a current depending upon the (c) majority carriers in both regions
resistance of the connecting wire
(d) majority as well as minority carriers in both regions
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS 461
39. In a P -N junction 50. In a half wave rectifier, the r.m.s. value of the a.c. component
(a) the potential of P & N sides becomes higher alternately of the wave is
(b) the P side is at higher electrical potential than N side. (a) equal to d.c. value (b) more than d.c. value
(c) the N side is at higher electric potential than P side. (c) less than d.c. value (d) zero
(d) both P & N sides are at same potential. 51. In a transistor
40. Barrier potential of a P-N junction diode does not depend (a) the emitter has the least concentration of impurity
on (b) the collector has the least concentration of impurity
(a) doping density (b) diode design (c) the base has the least concentration of impurity
(c) temperature (d) forward bias (d) all the three regions have equal concentrations of
41. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode impurity
(a) increases the minority carrier current 52. Current gain in common emitter configuration is more than
1 because
(b) lowers the potential barrier
om
(a) Ic < Ib (b) Ic < Ie (c) Ic > Ie (d) Ic > Ib
(c) raises the potential barrier
53. Current gain in common base configuration is less than 1
(d) increases the majority carrier current
because
42. In forward biasing of the p–n junction
(a) Ie < Ib (b) Ib < Ie (c) Ic < Ie (d) Ie < Ic
t.c
(a) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to
54. Operating point of a transistor is
p–side and the depletion region becomes thick
(a) zero signal value of VCC and Ib
(b) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to
po
n–side and the depletion region becomes thin (b) zero signal value of Ic
(c) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to (c) zero signal value of Vcc
n–side and the depletion region becomes thick (d) zero signal value of Ic and VCE
gs
(d) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to 55. A transistor is essentially
p–side and the depletion region becomes thin (a) a current operated device
43. When p-n junction diode is forward biased then
(a) both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced
lo
(b) power driven device
(c) a voltage operated device
.b
(b) the depletion region is widened and barrier height is (d) resistance operated device
reduced 56. Amplifier may be
r8
(c) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is (a) multi stage (b) single stage
increased (c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
be
(d) Both the depletion region and barrier height are increased 57. In common emitter circuit, current gain is
44. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n junction diode is (a) zero
(a) depletion of positive charges near the junction (b) same as in other configuration
cy
(b) concentration of positive charges near the junction (c) lowest (d) highest
(c) depletion of negative charges near the junction 58. In common base circuit, output resistance is
no
om
65. The current gain may be defined as (a) output Y exists when both inputs A and B exist
(a) the ratio of change in collector current to the change (b) output Y exists when either input A exists or input B
t.c
in emitter current for a constant collector voltage in a exists or both inputs A and B exist
common base arrangement. (c) output Y exists when either input A exists or input B
(b) the ratio of change in collector current to the change exists but not when both inputs A and B exist
po
in the base current at constant collector voltage in a (d) output Y exists when both inputs A and B exists but
common emitter circuit not when either input A or B exist
gs
(c) the ratio of change in emitter current to the change in 73. The gate for which output is high if atleast one input is
base current for constant emitter voltage in common low?
emitter circuit.
(d) the ratio of change in base current to the change in
lo
(a) NAND
(c) AND
(b) NOR
(d) OR
.b
collector current at constant collector voltage in 74. The truth-table given below is for which gate?
common emitter circuit.
r8
resistivity 0 1 1
(b) metals with high temperature coefficient of resistivity 1 0 1
1 1 0
cy
(b) collector, base and emitter (c) are widely used in Integrated circuit packages
(c) base, emitter and collector (d) are easiest to manufacture
(d) base, collector and emitter
w
(a) forward bias, forward bias I. In conductors, the valence and conduction bands may
(b) reverse bias, reverse bias overlap.
(c) reverse bias, forward bias II. Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are
(d) forward bias, reverse bias insulators.
III. The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with
69. When npn transistor is used as an amplifier
increase in temperature.
(a) electrons move from collector to base
IV. The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with
(b) holes move from emitter to base
increase in temperature.
(c) electrons move from base to collector (a) I and II only (b) I and III only
(d) holes move from base to emitter (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS 463
77. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? II. The base must be very thin and lightly doped.
I. Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type III. The emitter junction is forward biased and collector
semiconductor junction is reverse biased.
II. Majority carriers in a n-type semiconductor are holes IV. Both emitter and collector junctions are forward
III. Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are biased.
electrons (a) I and II (b) II and III
IV. The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases (c) III and IV (d) I and IV
with increase of temperature
(a) I only (b) I, III and IV MATCHING TYPE QUESTIONS
(c) I and IV (d) II only
78. In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following 84. Match the column I and Column II
statements are incorrect? Column I Column II
I. Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms (Rnge of resistivity, )
om
are dopants. (A) Metals (1) 1011 – 1019 m
II. Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are (B) Semiconductors (2) 10–5 –106 m
dopants. (C) Insulators (3) 10–2 –10–8 m
(4) 10–20 – 1025 m
t.c
III. Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are
dopants. (a) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1)
IV Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are (b) (A) (1,4); (B) (2); (C) (3)
po
dopants. (c) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3,4)
(a) I and II (b) I, III and IV (d) (A) (1); (B) (2,4); (C) (3)
(c) III and IV (d) I, II and III 85. Match the elements in column I, with their respective
gs
79. In a solid-state semiconductor, the number of mobile energy gaps in column II.
charge carriers can be changed by Column I Column II
I. using light for excitation. (A) Diamond (1) 1.1 ev
II. using heat for excitation.
lo
(B) Aluminium
(C) Germatium
(2) 0.71 ev
(3) 0.03 ev
III. using sound for excitation.
.b
(D) Silicon (4) 6 ev
IV. using applied voltage for excitation.
(a) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (3); (D) (4)
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV
r8
heavily doped
IV. A monovalent impurity.
(B) Very thin and lightly (2) Collector
(a) I and II (b) II and IV
doped
no
hole combination takes place in p-side (b) (A) (1); (B) (2); (C) (4); (D) (3)
Select the correct option from the following. (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
(a) I and II (b) II and III (d) (A) (2); (B) (1); (C) (3); (D) (4)
w
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS 92. A d.c. battery of V volt is connected to a series combination
of a resistor R and an ideal diode D as shown in the figure
88. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which below. The potential difference across R will be
one is reverse biased ?
+10 V
R D
R
(a) (b)
+5 V –12 V R
+5 V
–5 V
R
(c) R
(d)
–10 V
V
89.
om
Two identical pn junctions may be connected in series,
(a) 2V when diode is forward biased
with a battery in three ways as shown in figure. The
potential drops across the two pn junctions are equal in (b) zero when diode is forward biased
(c) V when diode is reverse biased
t.c
PN NP PN PN NP NP
(d) V when diode is forward biased
93. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15V, is
po
used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. The
Circuit 1 Circuit 2 Circuit 3
current through the diode is
(a) circuit 1 and circuit 2
gs
(b) circuit 2 and circuit 3
250
(c) circuit 3 and circuit 1 lo
(d) circuit 1 only 20V 15V 1k
.b
90. If in a p-n junction diode, a square input signal of 10 V is
applied as shown
r8
(a) 10 mA (b) 15 mA
5V
(c) 20 mA (d) 5 mA
be
5V 1
cy
0
Then the output signal across RL will be 1 1
10 V (A) (B)
no
+5V 0 0
(a) (b) 1 0
ch
(C) (D)
(a) D (b) A
.te
91. In bridge rectifier circuit, (see fig.), the input signal should
be connected between A
w
Y
B
A
w
om
Y 0 1 1 0 1 1 0
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 (c) A B Y (d) A B Y
t.c
0 0 0 0 0 0
(a) NAND (b) NOR 0 1 1 0 1 0
po
(c) XOR (d) OR 1 0 1 1 0 0
97. The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B
1 1 1 1 1 1
and the output C. The voltage wave forms across A, B and
gs
C are as given. The logic gate circuit is: 101. The real time variation of input signals A and B are as shown
below. If the inputs are fed into NAND gate, then select the
lo
output signal from the following.
.b
A
A
r8
A
B Y
B
be
B t (s)
cy
C Y Y
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
no
(a) (b)
(a) OR gate (b) NOR gate t (s) t (s)
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate 0 2 4 6 8 0 2 4 6 8
98.
ch
A
.te
Y (c) Y (d) Y
t (s) t (s)
w
0 2 4 6 8 0 2 4 6 8
B
102. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C
w
A OR C
B
Y B
AND
NAND
The circuit represents
(a) NAND gate (b) XOR gate (a) NOR gate (b) AND gate
(c) OR gate (d) NOR gate (c) NAND gate (d) OR gate
EBD_7208
466 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
103. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms ‘A’
A B Y A B Y
and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out the correct output waveform.
0 0 0 0 0 0
A
Y 0 1 1 0 1 0
(a) (b)
B 1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1
Input A
A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1
Input B
0 1 1 0 1 0
(c) (d)
1 0 0 1 0 1
Output is
om
1 1 0 1 1 1
(a)
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
(b) Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements,
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
po
(c) alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
gs
(d) explanation for assertion.
104. The combination of gates shown below yields (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
A
lo
correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
.b
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
X 107. Assertion : A pure semiconductor has negative temperature
r8
coefficient of resistance.
Reason : In a semiconductor on raising the temperature,
B
be
(c) XOR gate (d) NAND gate increased then its resistance decreases.
105. The diagram of a logic circuit is given below. The output F Reason : The energy gap between conduction band and
of the circuit is represented by valence band is very small.
no
band.
X Reason : The number of conduction electrons go on
F increasing with time as thermal collisions continuously take
.te
W place.
110. Assertion : A p-type semiconductors is a positive type
Y crystal.
w
(c) W + (X . Y) (d) W + (X + Y)
semiconductor devices.
106. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in
Reason : The energy gap in germanium is more than the
w
figure is
energy gap in silicon.
A 112. Assertion : Electron has higher mobility than hole in a
semiconductor.
Reason : The mass of electron is less than the mass of the
Y hole.
113. Assertion : The number of electrons in a p-type silicon
semiconductor is less than the number of electrons in a
pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature.
B Reason : It is due to law of mass action.
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS 467
114. Assertion : When two semi conductor of p and n type are (a) 2.37 × 1019 m–3 (b) 3.28 × 1019 m–3
brought in contact, they form p-n junction which act like a (c) 7.83 × 1019 m–3 (d) 8.47 × 1019 m–3
rectifier. 126. What is the conductivity of a semiconductor if electron
Reason : A rectifier is used to convent alternating current density = 5 × 1012/cm3 and hole density = 8 × 1013/cm3
into direct current. (µe = 2.3 m2 V–1 s–1, µh = 0.01 m2V–1 s–1)
115. Assertion : Diode lasers are used as optical sources in optical
(a) 5.634 –1 m–1 (b) 1.968 –1 m–1
communication.
(c) 3.421 –1 m–1 (d) 8.964 –1 m–1
Reason : Diode lasers consume less energy.
116. Assertion : The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from 127. In a p-type semiconductor the acceptor level is situated 60
the p-side to the n-side. meV above the valence band. The maximum wavelength of
Reason : The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater light required to produce a hole will be
than the drift current when the junction is in forward biased. (a) 0.207 × 10–5 m (b) 2.07 × 10–5 m
om
117. Assertion : The drift current in a p-n junction is from the n- –5
(c) 20.7 × 10 m (d) 2075 × 10–5 m
side to the p-side.
Reason : It is due to free electrons only. 128. If the ratio of the concentration of electrons to that of holes
118. Assertion : A p-n junction with reverse bias can be used as 7 7
t.c
a photo-diode to measure light intensity. in a semiconductor is and the ratio of currents is ,
5 4
Reason : In a reverse bias condition the current is small but
po
it is more sensitive to changes in incident light intensity. then what is the ratio of their drift velocities?
119. Assertion : A transistor amplifier in common emitter 5 4
configuration has a low input impedence. (a) (b)
8 5
gs
Reason : The base to emitter region is forward biased. 4
5
120. Assertion : NOT gate is also called invertor circuit. (c) (d)
4 7
Reason : NOT gate inverts the input order. lo
129. In a p-n junction having depletion layer of thickness
121. Assertion : NAND or NOR gates are called digital building
10–6 m the potential across it is 0.1 V. The electric field is
blocks.
.b
Reason : The repeated use of NAND (or NOR) gates can (a) 107 V/m (b) 10–6 V/m
5
(c) 10 V/m (d) 10–5 V/m
produce all the basis or complicated gates.
r8
increases n h to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. The doped semiconductor is 131. When the forward bias voltage of a diode is changed from
of 0.6 V to 0.7 V, the current changes from 5 mA to 15 mA. Then
no
ne = 2.5 ×1010 m–3 132. A diode having potential difference 0.5 V across its junction
(c) n–type with electron concentration which does not depend on current, is connected in series
ne = 2.5 × 1023 m–3
.te
(d) p–type having electron concentration with resistance of 20 across source. If 0.1 A current
ne = 5 × 109 m–3 passes through resistance then what is the voltage of the
w
[Given e = 3800 cm2/V–s and ni = 2.5 × 1013 cm–13] (c) 2.5 V (d) 5 V
(a) 30.4 (b) 60.8 133. If the forward bias on p-n junction is increased from zero to
w
(c) 91.2 (d) 121.6 0.045 V, then no current flows in the circuit. The contact
124. The ratio of electron and hole currents in a semiconductor
potential of junction i.e. VB is
is 7/4 and the ratio of drift velocities of electrons and holes
(a) zero (b) 0.045 V
is 5/4, then the ratio of concentrations of electrons and
holes will be (c) more than 0.045 V (d) less than 0.045 V
(a) 5/7 (b) 7/5 134. The peak voltage in the output of a half-wave diode rectifier
(c) 25/49 (d) 49/25 fed with a sinusoidal signal without filter is 10V. The d.c.
125. The intrinsic conductivity of germanium at 27° is 2.13 mho component of the output voltage is
m–1 and mobilities of electrons and holes are 0.38 and 0.18 (a) 20/ V (b) 10/ 2 V
m2V–1s–1 respectively. The density of charge carriers is (c) 10/ V (d) 10V
EBD_7208
468 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
135. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in (a) 197 (b) 201
the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is (c) 198 (d) 199
146. In a npn transistor 1010 electrons enter the emitter in
D1 10
A B 10–6 s. 4% of the electrons are lost in the base. The current
transfer ratio will be
D2 20 (a) 0.98 (b) 0.97
C D
(c) 0.96 (d) 0.94
5V 147. The transfer ratio of transistor is 50. The input resistance
E F of a transistor when used in C.E. (Common Emitter)
(a) 0.75 A (b) zero configuration is 1k . The peak value of the collector A.C
(c) 0.25 A (d) 0.5 A current for an A.C input voltage of 0.01V peak is
(a) 100 A (b) .01 mA
136. In the half wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains
(c) .25 mA (d) 500 A
om
frequency, the fundamental frequency in the ripple would
148. In a transistor, the change in base current from 100 µA to
be
125 µA causes a change in collector current from 5 mA to
(a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz
7.5 mA, keeping collector-to-emitter voltage constant at 10
(c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz
t.c
V. What is the current gain of the transistor?
137. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains
(a) 200 (b) 100
frequency, the fundamental frequency in the ripple would
(c) 50 (d) 25
po
be
149. In common emitter amplifier, the current gain is 62. The
(a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz
collector resistance and input resistance are 5 k an 500
(c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz respectively. If the input voltage is 0.01 V, the output voltage
gs
138. A half-wave rectifier is being used to rectify an alternating is
voltage of frequency 50 Hz. The number of pulses of rectified (a) 0.62 V (b) 6.2 V
current obtained in one second is lo
(c) 62 V (d) 620 V
(a) 50 (b) 25 150. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an
(c) 100 (d) 2000
.b
input impedance of 100 and an output impedance of 200 .
139. For a transistor amplifier in common emitter configuration The power gain of the amplifier is
(a) 500 (b) 1000
r8
(c) 51 (d) 48 152. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across
141. A transistor has a base current of 1 mA and emitter current the collector resistance of 2k is 2V. If the base resistance
is 1k and the current amplification of the transistor is
ch
(a) 500 (b) 460 change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used
(c) 600 (d) 560 as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 4
w
143. For a common base amplifier, the values of resistance gain K . The voltage gain of the amplifier is
and voltage gain are 3000 and 2800 respectively. The current (a) 2000 (b) 3000
w
om
nh ne
32. (b) Forward bias opposes the potential barrier and if the
In p - type nh ne applied voltage is more than knee voltage it cancels the
potential barrier.
t.c
In n - type ne nh 33. (a) Leakage current is the name given to the reverse current.
3. (c) By doping, the band gap reduce from 1eV to 0.3 to 0.7 34. (b) In the reverse biasing of p-n junction, the voltage
po
eV & electron can achieve this energy (0.3eV to 0.7eV) applied supports the barrier voltage across junction,
at room temperature & reach in C.B (conduction band). which increases the width of depletion layer and hence
4. (c) Electric conduction, in a semi conductors occurs due to increases its resistance.
gs
both electrons & holes. 35. (c) Zener diode is used as a voltage regulator i.e. for
5. (b) 6. (d) stabilization purposes.
7. (b) Resistivity of a semiconductor at room temp. is in 36. (a) filter circuit eliminates a.c. component of rectified voltage
lo
between 10–5 m to 104 m i.e. 10–3 to 106 cm obtained from p-n junction as a rectifier.
.b
8. (d) The valency of semiconductor (Ge or Si) is four, hence 37. (d) Current in junction diode, I I 0 (e eV / kT 1)
it has 4 valence electrons in the outermost orbit of the
In forward biasing, V is positive ; In reverse bias V
r8
Ge or Si-atom
9. (c) is negative. Then Ir = I0
10. (b) The forbidden energy gap for germanium crystal is 0.71 eV. I 0 (e eV / kT 1)
be
IF
(e eV / kT 1)
11. (d) Ir I0
12. (b) The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor at 0 K is 38. (c)
cy
zero. Hence resistivity (= 1/electrical conductivity) is 39. (b) For easy flow of current the P side must be connected
infinity. to +ive terminal of battery i.e., it is connected to higher
13. (d) The temperature coefficient of resistance of a
no
14. (a) The acceptor valence band is close to the valence band In reverse-biased, the P-side is connected to –ive
of host crystal terminal & N side to (+ive) terminal to battery. In this
15. (c) The donor valence band lies little below the conduction
.te
Eg
Br volt biased
17. (d) For semiconductor, n AT 3/ 2
e 2KT ; VB
w
V
VT
T3/ 2
w
so n reverse
18. (c) biased
19. (c) Semiconductors are insulators at low temperature 40. (b) Barrier potential depends on, doping density,
20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (a)
temperature, forward/reverse bias but does not depend
23. (c) When small amount of antimony (pentavalent) is added
on diode design.
to germanium crystal then crystal becomes n-type semi
41. (c) In reverse biasing, the conduction across the p-n junction
conductor. Therefore, there will be more free electrons
than holes in the semiconductor. does not take place due to majority carriers, but takes place
24. (c) The resistivity of conductor increases with increase in due to minority carriers if the voltage of external battery is
temperature. The resistivity of semiconductor decreases large. The size of the depletion region increases thereby
as the temperature increases. increasing the potential barrier.
EBD_7208
470 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
42. (d) In forward biasing of the p-n junction, the positive 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (a)
terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the
73. (d) Relation between A, B and C shows that C AB
negative terminal of the battery is connected to n-side.
The depletion region becomes thin. So NAND Gate
43. (a) Both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced. 74. (d) The given truth table is for NAND gate.
44. (d) During the formation of a junction diode, holes from p- 75. (b) Combination of NAND & NOR gates can produce OR,
region diffuse into n-region and electrons from n-region AND & NOT gates
diffuse into p-region. In both cases, when an electrons
meets a hole, they cancel the effect at each other and as
a result, a thin layer at the junction becomes free from STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
any of charges carriers. This is called depletion layer.
76. (c)
There is a potential gradient in the depletion layer,
negative on the p-side, and positive on the n-side. The 77. (b) Majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor are
om
potential difference thus developed across the junction electrons.
is called potential barrier. 78. (b) In a n-type semiconductor holes are minority carriers
45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (a) and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
48. (a) The average value of output direct current in a half wave 79. (b) Simple excitations like light, heat or small applied
t.c
rectifier is = (average value of current over a cycle)/2 = voltage can change the number of mobile charges in
(2 I0/ )/2 = I0/ a semiconductor. In general energy of sound is not
49. (d) The average value of output direct current in a full wave sufficient to excite electrons.
po
rectifier = average value of current over a cycle = 2 I 0/ 80. (d) A necessary condition to attain this is that the sizes
50. (b) The r.m.s. value of a.c. component of wave is more than of the dopant and the semiconductor atoms should
gs
d.c. value due to barrier voltage of p-n junction used as be nearly the same.
rectifier. There are two types of dopants used in doping the
51. (c) In transistor base is least doped, so that most of electrons tetravalent Si or Ge :
emitted (in case of npn) from emitter reach to collector &
less n umber of electrons are destr oyed due to
lo
(i) Pentavalent (valency 5) like Arsenic (As), Antimony
(Sb), Phosphorous (P), etc.
.b
recombination with holes in base. (iii) Trivalent (valency 3) like Indium (In), Boron (B) ,
Aluminium (Al), etc.
Ic
r8
52. (d) 1 or Ic > Ib 81. (d) When an electlron diffuses from n P, it leaves
Ib behind an ionised donor (species which has becomes
be
54. (d) Operating point of a transistor is zero signal value of Ic to diffuse from n-P, a layer of positive charge (or
and VCE. positive space-charge region) on n-side of the
55. (d) A transistor is a current operating device in which the juction is developed. On P-side atom receiving
no
to emitter (base is very small in comarison to both emitter region is in forward biased whereas collector
collector & emitter) to dissipate the heat. is in reverse biased.
61. (d)
62. (a) Negative feed back to a transistor increases stability in
w
63. (a) 84. (a) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1)
64. (d) Zero; In common base amplifier circuit, input and output 85. (d) (A) (4); (B) (3); (C) (2); (D) (1)
w
voltage are in the same phase. 86. (c) (A) (3); (B) (1); (C) (2); (D) (4)
65. (b) 87. (b) (A) (3); (B) (2); (C) (1); (D) (4)
66. (a) Metal oxides with high temperature coefficient of
resistivity.
67. (d) DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS
68. (d) The biasing of the transistor is done differently for 88. (d) Positive terminal is at lower potential (0V) and negative
different uses. The transistor works as an amplifier with terminal is at higher potential 5V.
its emitter-base junction forward biased and the base-
collector junction reverse biased. 89. (b) In circuit 2, each p-n junction is forward biased, hence
same current flows giving same potential difference
69. (d) Holes move from base to emmitter.
across p-n junction.
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS 471
In circuit 3, each p-n junction is reverse biased, and
X AB
due to the flow of same leakage current, giving equal
potential difference across p-n junction.
Y X AB
90. (a) The current will flow through RL when the diode is
forward biased. Y = AB by Demorgan theorem
91. (d) The input signal should be connected between two This diagram performs the function of AND gate.
points of bridge rectifier such that in positive half wave
96. (a) From the given waveforms, the truth table is as
of input signal, one p-n junction should be forward
biased and other should be reverse biased and in follows.
negative half wave of input signal, the reverse should
take place. It will be so when input is connected between
A B Y
B and D.
92. (d) In forward biasing, the diode conducts. For ideal 1 1 0
om
junction diode, the forward resistance is zero; therefore, 0 0 1
entire applied voltage occurs across external resistance 0 1 1
R i.e., there occur no potential drop, but potential across
t.c
R is V in forward biased. 1 0 1
93. (d) Voltage across zener diode is constant.
po
The above truth table is for NAND gate.
250 i i1k
Therefore, the logic gate is NAND gate.
5V i–i1k
gs
1k A 0 1 1 0
20v
15V 97. (a) B 0 0 1 1
15V lo C 1 1 1 1
OR gate
.b
Current in 1k resistor,
98. (b) Output of upper AND gate = AB
15volt
r8
250 250
Y1
99. (b) A
20
no
A 20 mA B
1000
Y
(i) zener diode (20 15) 5mA.
ch
Y2
94. (d) (A) is a NAND gate so output is 1 1 1 0
.te
Y (A B) AB AA AB BA BB
(D) is a XOR gate so output is 0 0 0
w
0 AB BA 0 AB BA
w
A
A Y'
Following is NAND Gate Y AB Y
B
95. (b) A B
Y
B X
Y' A B. Y A B A B.
EBD_7208
472 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
Truth table of the given circuit is given by 106. (a)
A
A B Y' Y
Y2 = A.AB
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 1 Y = A.AB B.AB
1 0 0 1 Y1 = AB
1 1 0 1 B
101. (b) From input signals, we have, Y3 = B.AB
om
1 0 1 Thus the truth table for this expression should be (a).
0 0 1
1 1 0 ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
t.c
0 0 1
107. (a) In semiconductors, by increasing temperature,
The output signal is shown at B. covalent bond breaks and conduction hole and
po
electrons increase.
102. (d) 108. (a) In semiconductors the energy gap between conduction
A
band and valence band is small ( 1 eV). Due to
gs
temperature rise, electron in the valence band gain
C thermal energy and may jumpy across the small energy
B
lo
gap, (to the conduction band). Thus conductivity
increases and hence resistance decreases.
.b
109. (c)
The truth table for the above logic gate is : 110. (d) There is no charge on P-type semiconductor, because
r8
C = A + B which is for OR gate 116. (b) Diffusion current is due to the migration of holes and
electrons into opposite regions, so it will be from p-
103. (d) Here Y ( A B ) A.B A B . Thus it is an AND
.te
A B Y VBE
w
0 0 0 iB V
CE constant
0 1 0
w
om
123. (b) Conductivity nie 1017 (1.6 10 19
) 3800 133. (c) When no current flows at the junction plane, then
e
contact potential of junction plane is equal to the
= 60.8 mho/cm forward voltage applied = 0.045 V
124. (b) I nA evd or I nvd
t.c
134. (c) Vo 10
V V
Ie n e ve ne Ie vh 7 4 7
or 135. (d) Here D1 is in forward bias and D2 is in reverse bias so,
po
Ih n h vh nh Ih ve 4 5 5
D1 will conduct and D2 will not conduct. Thus, no
1 current will flow through DC.
125. (a) Conductivity, = = e(n e e + nh h )
gs
V 5 1
I Amp.
ie, 2.13 = 1.6 × 10–19(0.38 + 0.18) n R 10 2
i lo
(Since in intrinsic semi-conductor, ne = nh= ni) 136. (b) In half wave rectifier, we get the output only in one
half cycle of input a.c. therefore, the frequency of the
.b
density of charge carriers, n i ripple of the output is same as that of input a.c. i.e. 50
Hz
2.13
r8
2.37 1019 m 3 137. (d) In full wave rectifier, we get the output for the positive
1.6 10 19 0.56 and negative cycle of input a.c. Hence the frequency
126. (b) Given : µe = 2.3 m2 V–1 s–1 of the ripple of the output is twice than that of input
be
6
1 h oe R L 1 25 10 1 103
= 1.6 × 10–1 × 12.3 = 1.968 –1 m–1.
Where hfe= forward current ratio
34
3 108
ch
5.488
Ie n e eAv e 7 7 ve , 49
128. (c) 5. 6 1
Ih n h eAv h 4 5 vh
141. (c) IC = IE –IB = 90 – 1 = 89 m A
w
ve 5
Ro 5000
w
V 0.1 AV
129. (c) E 6
105 V / m 143. (c) Current gain,
2800
0.93
d 10 AR 3000
130. (b) Reverse resistance
RL 24
V 1 6
144. (b) Voltage gain, A v Ri
0.6
3
4.8
6
2 10
I 0.5 10 145. (d) Current gain in common emitter mode
V 0.995 0.995
131. (c) Forward bias resistance 199.
I 1 1 0.995 0.005
EBD_7208
474 SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS : MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS
146. (c) No. of electrons reaching the collector,
152. (d) IC
96
nC 1010 0.96 1010
100 RC O/P = 2 Volt
nE e
Emitter current, IE Input RB
t
nC e
Collector current, IC
t
The output voltage, across the load RC
Current transfer ratio, V0 = IC RC = 2
The collector current (IC)
IC nC 0.96 1010
om
= 0.96 2 3
IE nE 1010 IC 3
10 Amp
2 10
Vs 0.01 Current gain ( )
147. (d) iB 1 10 5 A
t.c
R in 103 IC
100
( ) current gain =
IB
ic
po
Now of transistor is defined as ac
ib IC 10 3
IB 10 5 Amp
100 100
5
gs
or i c 50 10 500 A ] Input voltage (Vi)
Vi = RB IB = 1 × 103 × 10–5 = 10–2 Volt
IC Vi = 10 mV
148. (b) Current gain when VCE is constant. lo
IB Vout I out Rout
153. (a) Voltage gain (AV) = V = I × R
.b
3 in in in
2.5 10
0.1 103
100
25 10 6 2 10 –3 4 103
r8
AV 6 = 2 × 100 = 2000
[ IB = 125 µA – 100 µA = 25 µA 40 10 100
IC = 7.5 mA – 5 mA = 2.5 mA]
be
R out
154. (d) Voltage gain =
R in
Vo Ro 5 103 62
149. (b) 10 62 620
R out
cy
Vin R in 500
G = 25 R ...(i)
Vo = 620 × Vin= 620 × 0.01 = 6.2 V in
no
Rin = =
V0 I0 gm 0.03
= VG IG
Vi Ii Putting this value of Rin in eqn. (i)
.te
V02 Ri 100 G = 25
R out
= = 50 50 × 0.03 ...(ii)
Vi 2 R 200 25
0
w
2500 R out
= 1250 G' = 20 × 0.02 ...(iii)
2 20
w
2
IC 10mA 10 103 Voltage gain of new transistor G' = G
3
= 50
IB 200 A 200
30
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
om
FACT / DEFINITION TYPE QUESTIONS 9. The purpose of a detector at the receiving end is
t.c
(a) to amplify signal
1. Communication is the process of (b) to reduce its frequency level
(a) keeping in touch (c) to modulate signal
po
(b) exchange information (d) to demodulate signal
(c) broad casting 10. The phenomenon by which light travels in an optical fibres is
(a) reflection (b) refraction
gs
(d) entertainment by electronics
(c) rotal internal reflection (d) transmission
2. Which of the following is the element of a communication 11. The purpose of ...A... is to convert the message signal
system? lo
produced by the source of information into a form
(a) Transmitter (b) channel suitable for transmission through the ...B... Here, A and B
.b
(c) Receiver (d) All of the above refer to
3. Telephony is an example of ________ mode of (a) channel, transmitter (b) transmitter, channel
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(a) modulator-demodulator
(a) electrical signal to sound form
(b) multiplexer-demultiplexer
(b) sound signal to electrical form
(c) multivibrator-degenerator
no
because
gets deteriorated due to
(a) it amplifies signals to be transmitted
(a) noise introduced in the system
(b) it transfer signals faster than electrical cables
(b) distortion in the system
.te
(c) interpretation of signal (d) All of the above before giving it as an input to the ...C... . Here, A, B and
7. The term channel is used to indicate
w
C refer to
(a) the amplitude range allocated to a given source (a) receiver, electrical, channel
(b) the frequency range allocated to a given source (b) channel, magnetic, transducer
(c) the voltage-range allocated to a given source (c) transducer, electrical, channel
(d) All of the above (d) transducer, electrical, transmitter
8. Buffer amplifier is used at the transmitting end to 16. For transmission of speeches, talks, music, dramas etc------
(a) feed carrier frequency to master oscillator -- is used
(b) amplify carrier frequency (a) radio broadcast transmitter
(b) radio telegraph transmitter
(c) mix modulating signal with carrier frequency
(c) navigation transmitter
(d) isolate master oscillator from other stages of transmitter. (d) None of these
EBD_7208
476 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
17. Electromagnetic waves of audible frequency ranges from 30. In sky-wave propagation, skip-distance depends on
(a) 10 Hz to 10,000 Hz (b) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (a) frequency of e.m. waves transmitted
(c) 30 Hz to 30,000 Hz (d) None of these. (b) critical frequency of the layer
18. E.m.wave of audible frequency cannot be directly (c) height of layer above earth’s surface
propagated over a long distance because (d) all of the above
31. Ionosphere as a whole is
(a) they have vary small energy content
(a) +vely charges (b) –vely charges
(b) the length of antenna required for transmission of these
(c) electrically neutral (d) can't say
wave is too large
32. During ground wave propagation the transmitted waves
(c) both ( a) and (b) gets attenuated because
(d) neither (a) nor (b) (a) earth surface absorbs the waves
19. There is a need of translating the information contained (b) frequency of the waves are too low
om
in our original low frequency baseband signal into ...X... (c) energy content of these waves are high
or ...X... frequencies before transmission . Here, X and Y (d) earth surface offers resistance.
refere to 33. Long range propagation is not possible by space wave
(a) low, radio (b) high, radio propagation because
t.c
(c) low, audio (d) high, video (a) height of troposhere is quite small
20. Bandwidth of optical fibre communication is (b) height of troposhere is large
(a) 106 to 109 Hz (b) 1013 to 1015 Hz
po
(c) troposphere absorbs transmitted wave
9
(c) 10 to 10 Hz 11 (d) none of these (d) None of these.
21. Ground wave propagation is possible for 34. Sky wave propagation is not possible for waves of
gs
(a) low radio frequency over a short range frequency > 30 MHz because
(b) high radio frequency over a short range (a) these waves do not have much energy to reach
(c) high radio frequency over a long range loionosphere
(d) low radio frequency over a short range. (b) they are not reflected by ionosphere
(c) they get absorbed by troposphere
.b
22. Long range transmission of TV-signal is done by
(d) they get reflected by stratosphere
(a) space-wave (b) sky waves
35. Intensity of electric field obtained at receiver antenna for a
r8
24. Communication on ground is through electromagnetic (c) directly proportional to the square perpendicular-
waves of wavelength distance from transmitter to antenna
no
(a) larger than 600 m (d) inversely proportional to the square perpendicular-
(b) between 200 and 600 m distance from transmitter to antenna
(c) between 1 and 5 m 36. Critical frequency that gets reflected back from ionosphere is
ch
(d) between 10 – 3 and 0.1 (a) same for all layers of the ionosphere
25. Ground waves are polarised (b) different for different layers of the ionosphere
(a) parallel to the earth's surface (c) not dependent on layers of the ionosphere
.te
26. Field strength of tropospheric TV signal is proportional to (b) decreases with altitude
1 1 (c) increases with altitude
w
27. Long distance short-wave radio broadcasting uses Encoding of signal is required for
(a) ground wave (b) ionospheric wave (a) modulation at transmitting end
(c) direct wave (d) sky wave (b) modulation at receiving end
28. Space wave communication is limited (c) demodulation at receiving end
(a) to the line of sight distance (d) demodulation at transmitting end
(b) by earth’s curvature 39. For transmission of e.m.wave of audible frequency, these
(c) either (a) or (b) waves are superimposed with waves of
(d) both (a) and (b) (a) frequency less than 20 Hz
29. Sky wave propagation is not possible for frequencies (b) frequency less than 10 KHz.
(a) equal to 30 MHz (b) less than 30 MHz (c) frequency in the audible range.
(c) greater than 30 MHz (d) None of these (d) radio-frequency.
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS 477
40. Broadcasting antennas are generally 51. In space communication, the sound waves can be sent from
(a) omnidirectional type (b) vertical type one place to another
(c) horizontal type (d) None of these (a) through space
41. In which of the following remote sensing technique is not (b) through wires
used? (c) by superimposing it on undamped electromagnetic
(a) Forest density (b) Pollution waves
(c) Wetland mapping (d) Medical treatment (d) by superimposing it on damped electromagnetic
42. For transmission of TV- signal, sound-part is waves
(a) amplitude modulated (b) frequency modulated 52. As the height of satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the
satellite
(c) phase modulated (d) pulse modulated
(a) increases (b) decreases
43. Picture signal of TV-signal is
om
(c) remain same (d) both (a) and (b)
(a) amplitude modulated
53. Which of the following is drawback of amplitude
(b) frequency modulated
modulation?
(c) phase modulated
(a) low efficiency (b) noise reception
t.c
(d) pulse modulated
(c) operating range is small (d) all of these
44. Wave obtained on superimposition of audible frequency
54. Basic components of transmitter are
e.m. wave is known as
po
(a) message signal generator and antenna
(a) carrier wave (b) high frequency wave
(b) modulator and antenna
(c) modulating wave (d) modulated wave
(c) signal generator and modulator and antenna
gs
45. An antenna behaves as resonant circuit only when its length (d) message signal generator, modulator and antenna
is 55. Which of the following device is fully duplex?
(a) (b)
lo
(a) Mobile phone (b) Walky-talky
2 4 (c) Loud speaker (d) Radio
.b
(c) 56. A radio station has two channels. One is AM at 1020 kHz and
r8
the other FM at 89.5 MHz. For good results you will use
(d) or integral multiple of (a) longer antenna for the AM channel and shorter for
2 2
be
the FM
46. A geosynchronous satellite is
(b) shorter antenna for the AM channel and longer for the
(a) located at a height of 34860 km to ensure global coverage
FM
cy
(c) not really stationary at all, but orbits the earth within
use for which
24 hours.
57. In Laser communication there is
(d) always at fixed location in space and simply spins
ch
48. The layer of atmosphere which contains water vapour is 59. The cellular mobile radio frequency band is
(a) stratosphere (b) mesospshere
w
om
(a) Transmission (b) Reception
(a) VSB (b) DSB-SC (c) AM (d) SSB
(c) Modulation (d) Detection
76. In FM, when frequency deviation is doubled, then
66. In frequency modulation
(a) modulation is halved
(a) the amplitude of modulated wave varies as frequency
t.c
(b) carrier swing is halved
of carrier wave (c) modulation is doubled
(b) the frequency of modulated wave varies as amplitude (d) modulation index is decreased
po
of modulating wave 77. In PCM if the transmission path is very long
(c) the frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency (a) pulse spacing is reduced
of modulating wave (b) pulse amplitude is increased
gs
(d) the frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency (c) pulse width is increased
of carrier wave (d) repeater stations are used.
67. Of the following which is preferred modulation scheme for 78. The function of an amplitude limitter in an FM-receiver is
lo
digital communication? (a) to reduce the amplitude of the signal to suit IF amplifier
(a) Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) (b) to amplify low frequency signal
.b
(b) Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM) (c) to eliminate any change in amplitude of receiver FM
(c) Pulse Position Modulation (PPM) signal
r8
antennas having heights hT and hR above the earth is (a) ma = Emax + Emin/Emin
(b) ma = Emax – Emin/Emax
(a) R(h T hR ) (b) 2R /(h T hR )
no
71. For good demodulation of AM signal of carrier frequency f, (c) will bend follow a straight-path
the value of RC should be (d) None of these.
w
om
(d) decreasing the distance between transmitting and III. the orbit of geostationary satellite lies in the
receiving antenna equatorial plane at inclination of 0.
87. 100% modulation in FM means Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
t.c
(a) actual frequency deviation > maximum allowed (a) II and III (b) I and II
frequency deviation
(c) Only I (d) I, II, III and IV
(b) actual frequency deviation = maximum allowed
po
94. Which of the following statements are correct ?
frequency deviation
(c) actual frequency deviation maximum allowed I. At longer wavelength (i.e., at lower frequencies) the
antennas have large physical size.
gs
frequency deviation
(d) actual frequency deviation < maximum allowed II. They are located on or very near to the ground.
frequency deviation III. In standard AM broadcast, ground based vertical
lo
88. Pre-emphasis in FM system is done to towers are generally used as transmitting antennas.
.b
(a) compress modulating signal (a) I and II (b) I, II, and III
(b) expand modulating signal (c) II and III (d) I and III
r8
(c) amplify lower frequency component of the modulating 95. Amplitude modulated waves
signal I. contain frequencies (wc –wm), wc and (wc + wm)
be
the amplitude
STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS (B) Amplification (2) The loss of strength of
w
a signal
91. Consider telcommunication through optical fibres. Which
w
om
Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
(d) (A) (1); (B) (3); (C) (4); (D) (2) alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You
have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
DIAGRAM TYPE QUESTIONS (a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct
t.c
explanation for assertion.
98. Which one of the following represents rectified wave? (b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a
correct explanation for assertion
po
a (c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
100. Assertion : Amplification is necessary to compensate for
gs
t the attenuation of the signal in communication system.
(a) Reason : Amplification is the process of increasing the
lo
amplitude and consequntly the strength of signal using
an electronic circuit.
.b
101. Assertion : The loss of strength of a signal while
propagating through a medium is known as attenuation.
a
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proportional to bandwidth.
106. Assertion : Long distance communication between two
w
om
by application of the message signal and the carrier wave
to a non-linear device followed by band pass filter. 124. An audio signal represented as 25 sin 2 (2000 t) amplitude
modulated by a carrier wave : 60 sin 2 (100, 000)t. The
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS modulation index of the modulated signal is
t.c
112. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 12 kW when (a) 25% (b) 41.6 % (c) 50 % (d) 75 %
percentage of modulation is 50%, then the unmodulated 125. For an AM wave, the maximum voltage was found to be 10
po
carrier power is V and minimum voltage was 4 V. The modulation index of
(a) 5.67 kW (b) 7.15 kW the wave is
(a) 0.33 (b) 0.43 (c) 0.56 (d) 0.64
(c) 9.6 kW (d) 12 kW
gs
126. For an AM-system the total power of modulated signal is
113. A transmitter radiates 10 kW of power with the carrier
600 W and that of carrier is 400 W, the modulation index is
unmodulated and 11.8 kW with the carrier sinusoidally
(a) 0.25
lo (b) 0.36 (c) 0.54 (d) 1
modulated. The modulation factor is
127. The rms value of a carrier voltage is 100 volts. Compute its
(a) 56% (b) 60 % (c) 72 % (d) 84%
rms value when it has been amplitude modulated by a
.b
114. What will be the image frequency of an FM radio receiver
sinusoidal audio voltage to a depth of 30%.
that is tuned to 98.6 MHz broadcast station?
(a) 94 V (b) 104 .5V (c) 114.4 V (d) 124 V
r8
116. The frequency deviation in a FM transmission is 18.75 KHz. 129. The maximum and minimum amplitude of an AM wave are
If it broadcasts in 88-108 MHz band, then the percent 90 mV and 30 mV respectively. The depth of modulation is
modulation is
no
1 2
(c) 12.75 kW (d) 17 kW (c) of the total power (d) of the total power
4 3
118. An FM signal has a resting frequency of 105 MHz and
highest frequency of 105.03 MHz when modulated by a 131. Consider the following amplitude modulated (AM) signal ,
w
om
contained in our original low frequency baseband
microphone is used.
signal into high or radio frequencies before
5. (c) Noise the unwanted energy and distortion both
transmission.
occuring at various stage of a system leads to
20. (b)
t.c
deterioration of signal as signal to noise ratio becomes 21. (a) Since the attenuation of ground waves increases with
so poor that signal becomes unintelligble and useless. increase in frequencies so only low frequency- radio
6. (d) The received signals is either AM or FM so it needs to
po
waves uses this mode of propagation for short
be demodulated ie. decoded to get back original signal. distances.
It also needs to be stored and interpreted at receiving 22. (d) TV-signal ( 30 MHz -300 MHz) are not reflected by
gs
end. ionosphere. Therefore, sky-wave propagation is not
7. (b) Channel indicate frequency range at which different possible and similarly ground & space wave is also
8.
R.F. signals all transmitted.
(d) Buffer amplifier isolate master oscillator from the
lo
not feasible hence they are transmitted to artificial
satellite from where they are transmitted back to the
.b
influence of modulation done at a later stage. earth.
9. (d) The RF-signal coming from the transmitter needs to 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b)
r8
11. (b) The purpose of transmitter is to convert the 30. (d) Skip distance is the minimum distance on earth’s
message signal produced by source of information surface from the transmitter where e.m. wave of a
no
into a form suitable for transmission through the definite frequency can reach after reflection from the
channel. ionosphere
12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d)
ch
f2
15. (d) If the output of information source is non-electrical It is given by Dskip 2h 1
signal like a voice signal, a transducer converts it to f c2
.te
electrical form before giving it as an input to the Dskip is dependent on h, f and fc.
transmitter. 31. (c) Ionsphere contain free electron & + ve ions. In
16. (a) Radio broadcast transmitter are used for above
w
being can hear ranges from 20 Hz to 20 kHz frequencies charge induced on the earth's surface which takes the
above 20 kHz can not be heard by human ear. form of current as the wave propagate. The earth offers
resistance in the flow of induced current due to which
18. (c) Electromagnetic wave of audible frequency have vary
the waves are attenuated.
small energy content 10–12 eV and their amplitude
33. (a) space wave propagation takes place in such a way
is greatly reduced due to dissipations of ennergy in
that the radio waves transmitted at an angle from
travelling a long distance.
earth's surface gets reflected by the troposphere and
Secondly for frequency range 20 Hz to 20kHz the length then reaches the receiving antenna since the height of
of antenna required is of the order of wavelength of troposphere is quite small, long-range propagation by
wave to be transmited this mode is not possible.
COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS 483
34. (b) Stratosphere and troposphere allows the radio waves 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (b) 61. (a)
to pass through it but they are not reflected back to
earth's surface by ionosphere. 5 106
62. (d) c 2.5 106 Hz
Only frequency 1500 kHz to 30 MHz can be propagated 2
by this mode. 63. (a) c+ m
35. (d)
= 2.5 × 106 + 0.0005 × 106Hz
36. (b) Critical frequency fc 9 Nm c– m
= 2.5 × 106 – 0.0005 × 106 Hz
where N m represents election density of layers
= 2.4995 × 106 Hz
fc Nm 64. (b)
fc is different for different layers. 65. (c) Carrier + signal modulation.
om
37. (c) Electron density of each layer of ionosphere is different 66. (b) In frequecy modulation the frequency of the
from the other. i.e. they are stratified. As we move modulated wave is the linear function of the amplitude
upward density increases. of the modulating wave.
t.c
38. (a) Encoding modulation of signal i.e. to be transmitted is 67. (a)
done with carrier frequency at transmitting end to avoid
68. (d) When ma > 1 then carrier is said to be over modulated.
interference with other signals that are also transmitted.
po
39. (d) Since radio frequency waves can travel long distances 69. (d) The maximum line-of-sight distance dM is given by
because these waves are of wave length of the order dM 2Rh T 2Rh R
gs
of 100 m and their energy content is quite large
ther efore e.m.wave of audible frequen cy are 70. (c)
superimposed with radio frequency waves. 71. (d) For good demodulation,
lo
40. (b)
1 1
41. (d) Remote sensing is the technique to collect information
.b
RC or, RC
about an object in respect of its size, colour, nature, f f
72. (c)
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42. (b) Due to several advantage of FM over AM, to get better transmit any desired information, hence to avoid
quality signal the sound part of TV-signal is frequency wastage of power to suppress carrier balanced
modulated.
no
modulator is used.
43. (a) Picture signal in amplitude modulated to avoid 75. (d) Since in SSB transmision only one side band is
complication in development of transmitter & receiver transmitted while in other 3-cases more than a side
ch
structure.
band is transmitted, so minimum power is transmitted
44. (d) On superimposition of two waves the audible
for SSB. Similarly SSB bandwidth is minimum BW= m.
frequency wave is the modulating wave and radio-
.te
45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (c) i.e. if frequency deviation is doubled then modulation
w
55. (a) Duplex or full duplex refers to the simultaneous are needed at intermediate points as repeater receives
transmission of data in two directions. A mobile phone signal, remove the noise, amplify it and retransmit it
is a full duplex device because both people can talk at along the channel.
once and hear each at the same time. Walky-talky is a 78. (c) The limitter removes from the carrier all amplitude
half duplex device because only one person can talk variations which may caused by changes in the
at a time. transmission path, by man-made static or natural static.
56. (b) The frequency of AM channel is 1020 kHz whereas for This suppression of amplitude variation is necessary
the FM it is 89.5 MHz (given). For higher frequencies because FM-receives, a vary large improvement in S/
(MHz), space wave communication is needed. Very N results from this.
tall towers are used as antennas.
EBD_7208
484 COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
79. (c) Radio telegraph–AM and FM is used In the reproduced program at the o/p, these high
Television–VSB is used frequency terms have poor S/N ratio and at time noise
Radar–PM or FM is used may completely mask the signal at these high
frequencies, so it is necessary to provide pre-emphasis
and Radio broadcast–AM and FM is used
of high frequencies.
So correct pair is (c).
E max – E min
80. (c) 89. (c) m a -Depth of modulation.
E max E min
1
81. (d) Phase velocity of e.m.wave in free space c 90. (b) The modulated voltage comprises of
0 0
(i) Carrier wave of frequency c
Phase velocity of e.m.wave in ionised medium
(ii) Lower side frequency wave
om
c m
1
vp
(iii) Upper side frequency wave
Ne 2 c m
0 0 1 2 Thus in an AM wave information is contained in lower
0m
t.c
c m and upper c m side frequencies.
vp >c but vg < c in ionised medium.
82. (a) Radio wave enters from an un-ionised medium to an
po
ionised medium, the wave incident on the boundary STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS
of the medium deviates from its straight path i.e. will
91. (c) Optical fibres are not subjected to electromagnetic
gs
bend away from normal because ionised medium
behaves as a rarer medium w.r.t. to unionised medium. interference from outside.
83. (d) 92. (a) Digital signals are the values in the form of 0 or 1.
84. (d) Following are the problems which are faced while
lo
It represents discrete values in the binary bits which
are non-continuous set of values.
.b
transmitting audio signals directly,
(i) These signals are relatively of short range. 93. (a) In statellite communication, the frequency used is
more than 40 MHz. The uplink and downlink
r8
85. (c) the antennas have large physical size and they are
located on or very near to the ground. In standard
86. (c) Maximum range of space wave propagation
AM broadcast, ground based vertical towers are
no
97. (c) (A) (3); (B) (4); (C) (2); (D) (1)
actual frequency deviation
w
om
certain range of frequencies i.e. 3 to 30
voltage for proper detection of mdoulated signal. MHz.Electromagnetic waves of frequencies higher
than 30 MHz penetrate the ionosphere and escape.
ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS 110. (d) : The process of retrieval of information from the
t.c
carrier wave at the receiver is termed as demodulation.
100. (a) : Amplification is necessary to compensate for the Repeater is a combination of a receiver and a
attenuation of the signal in communication systems.
po
transmitter, a repeater picks up the signal from the
101. (c) : A transmitter processes the incoming message transmitter, amplifies and retransmist it to the receiver
signal, so as make it suitable for transmission sometimes with a change in carrier frequency.
gs
through a channel and subseqeuent reception. 111. (b)
102. (a)
103. (a) : For transmitting a signal, we need an antenna or an
aerial. This antenna should have a size comparable
to the wavelength of the signal so that the antenna
lo
CRITICAL THINKING TYPE QUESTIONS
.b
properly senses the time variation of the signal. For Pt 12 12
an electromagnetic wave frequency 20 kHz, the 112. (c) Pc 9.6 kW
m a2 2
r8
0.5 1.25
wavelength is 15 km. Obviously such a long antenna 1 1
is not possible to cosntruct and operate. Hence 2 2
be
i.e.
m 0.6 % modulation = 60%.
S h .
.te
Let the height of the TV transmission tower be h and 114. (c) FM (I.F)=11.5MHz
h' which covers the range S and S' respectively. F(image) = fs+2 fIF 98.6 2 11.5 121.6 MHz
w
E c2 ma 2 V 2rms V 2c ma 2
117. (b) Pc 10 kW 127. (b) Pt Pc 1 1
2 2 2 2 2
ma m12 m 22 0.30 2 0.402 0.50
ma2
V 2 rms V 2c 1
m 2 2
a2 0.5
Pt Pc 1 10 1 11.25 kW
2 2
ma 2 (0.3)2
Vrms Vc 1 Vrms 100 1
2 2
118. (c) Carrier Swing 2 f
= 104.5 volts.
2 105.03 105 2 0.03 MHz
om
0.06 MHz 60 kHz 128. (b) Ec = 100 V, ma = 0.4, R = 100 ,
119. (d) Total signal B.W= 12 5 60 kHz E c2 (100) 2
11 guard band are required between 12 signal Pc 50 watt
2R 2 100
t.c
guard bandwidth 11 1kHz 11kHz
total bandwidth = 60 11 71kHz ma 2 (0.4) 2
P 1 Pc 1 50 54 watt
po
120. (c) For x(t), BW = 2( + ) 2 2
is deviation and is the band width of modulating
E max E min 90 30 60 6
gs
signal. 129. (b) ma 0.5
BW = 2(90 + 5) = 190 E max E min 90 30 120 12
2
For x (t), BW = 2 × 190 = 380
121. (a) SSB transmission to signal are possible at load
lo
130. (b) 100% modulation ma 1
.b
c + m or c – m
(1000 + 10) kHz or (100 – 10) kHz. useful power ma 2 1 1
r8
E max E min 10 4 14
ma 2
131. (c) Average side-band power Pav Pc
no
B 4
124. (b) Modulation index
A
Here ma = 0.5
B = 25, A = 60
ch
Pc = 10
25
M.I. 0.416 m% 41.6% 0.5 10 10
60 Pav 6.25
.te
ma
Vmax Vmin 10 4 6
0.43
132. (a) Comparing (x AM)t = 100 [1 + 0.5 t] cos ct for 0<t<1
125. (b)
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om
(c) stress (b) low resistance shunt in parallel
(d) modulus of elasticity. (c) high resistance shunt in series
2 Figure shows the v-t graph for two particles P and Q. Which (d) high resistance shunt in parallel
of the following statements regarding their relative motion 9. Which of the following statements is false for a particle
t.c
is true? moving in a circle with a constant angular speed ?
Their relative velocity (a) The acceleration vector points to the centre of the circle
po
V (b) The acceleration vector is tangent to the circle
P (c) The velocity vector is tangent to the circle
(d) The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular
gs
Q to each other.
10. A mass is tied to a string and rotated in a vertical circle, the
minimum velocity of the body at the top is
lo
(a) gr (b) g/r
.b
T
O 3/ 2
(a) is zero g
(c) (d) gr
r8
s is
(a) 82 minutes (b) 50 minutes R R R
(c) 28 minutes (d) 37 minutes
no
A
R
(c) 375°C (d) 400°C 12. The energy of hydrogen atom in the nth orbit is En, then the
5. A man projects a coin upwards from the gate of a uniformly energy in the n th orbit of single ionised helium atom is
moving train. The path of coin for the man will be En
w
om
17. The separation between successive fringes in a double slit (b) directly proportional to T
arrangement is x. If the whole arrangement is dipped under (c) directly proportional to T
water what will be the new fringe separation? [The (d) directly proportional to T2
wavelenght of light being used is 5000 Å]
t.c
27. ABC is a triangular plate of uniform A
(a) 1.5 x (b) x thickness. The sides are in the ratio
(c) 0.75 x (d) 2 x shown in the figure. IAB, IBC and ICA
po
18. A thin, metallic spherical shell contains a charge Q on it. A are the moments of inertia of the plate 3 5
point charge q is placed at the cente of the shell and another about AB, BC and CA as axes
charge q1 is placed outside it as shown in figure. All the respectively. Which one of the 90°
gs
three charges are positive. The force on the charge at the B 3 C
following relations is correct?
centre is
(a) lo I AB I BC (b) I BC I AB
Q
(c) I AB I BC I CA (d) ICA is maximum
.b
28. Consider the following statement:
q q When jumping from some height, you should bend your
r8
(c) upward (d) zero explaining the statement? Where symbols have their usual
19. A charge q is moving with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic meanings.
field B. Force on the charge due to magnetic field is
cy
20. A bucket full of hot water is kept in a room and it cools from 29. The amplitude of magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave
75ºC to 70ºC in T1 minutes, from 70ºC to 65ºC in T2 minutes is 2 × 10–7T. It's electric field amplitude if the wave is travelling
and from 65ºC to 60ºC in T3 minutes. Then in free space is
ch
21. In uniform circular motion, the velocity vector and 30. The magnetic flux density B at a distance r from a long
acceleration vector are straight wire carrying a steady current varies with distance
(a) perpendicular to each other r as
w
31. A metal piece is heated upto Tº abs. The temperature of medium with the velocity of light at an angle 45° and is
the surrounding is tº abs.The heat in the surrounding due refracted in the medium at an angle 30°. Velocity of light in
to radiation is proportional to
(a) (T – T)4 (b) T4 – t4 the medium will be (velocity of light in air = 3 10 8 m/s)
(c) (T – t) 1/4 (d) T2 – t2
(a) 3.8 108 m/s (b) 3.38 108 m/s
3 4
32. Given, aµg = , a w , if a convex lens of focal length
2 3 (c) 2.12 108 m/s (d) 1.56 108 m/s
10 cm is placed in water, then its focal length in water is 40. The rain drops are in spherical shape due to
(a) equal to 40 cm (b) equal to 20 cm
(a) residual pressure (b) thrust on drop
(c) equal to 10 cm (d) None of these
33. If an alternating current is flowing in a spring, then the (c) surface tension (d) viscosity
spring will be changing 41. A dip circle is so set that its needle moves freely in the
om
(a) in a straight line (b) periodically magnetic meridian. In this position, the angle of dip is 40º.
(c) elliptically (d) first (c) then (a) Now the dip circle is rotated so that the plane in which the
34. The unit vector along 2i – 3j + k is
needle moves makes an angle of 30º with the magnetic
t.c
2i 3j k 2i 3 j k meridian. In this position, the needle will dip by an angle
(a) (b)
14 5 (a) 40º (b) 30º
po
2i 3 j k (c) more than 40º (d) less than 40º
(c) (d) None of these 42. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium
15
gs
35. An iron rod of length 2m and cross-sectional area of 50 to vacuum is 30°. Then velocity of light in the medium is
mm2 is stretched by 0.5 mm, when a mass of 250 kg is hung
(a) 1.5 108 m / s
lo (b) 2 108 m / s
from its lower end. Young’s modulus of iron rod is
18 2
(a) 19.6 10 20 N / m 2 (b) 19.6 10 N / m (c) 3 108 m / s (d) 0.75 108 m / s
.b
(c) 19.6 1010 N / m 2 (d) 19.6 1015 N / m 2 43. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with
r8
36. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving in S.H.M. with an (a) positive feedback (b) large gain
amplitude 0.02 and a frequency of 60 Hz. The maximum
be
37. According to Maxwell’s hypothesis, a changing electirc (a) 0.25 (b) 0.36
field gives rise to (c) 0.54 (d) 1
no
shown in the figure. The thinest wire is (b) from the p-side to the n-side
(c) from the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-
.te
Load a
b baised and in the opposite direction if it is reverse biased
(d) from the p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-
w
c
baised and in the opposite direction if it is reverse-
baised
w
d
w
O
Elongation
(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d
39. A ray of light is incident on the surface of separation of a
EBD_7208
MT-4 PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a)
om
1. (a) Force = mass × acceleration = 1% + 2% + 2 × 3% = 9%
= [MLT–2] 8. (b) A galvanometer can be changed into an ammeter by
the use of low resistance in parallel. So that ammeter
The dimension of force are [MLT–2]
t.c
does not draw much current which may change the
2. (d) The difference in velocities is increasing with time as magnitude of main current.
both of them have more constant but different
po
9. (b) Acceleration vector is always radial (i.e . towards the
acceleration. center) for uniform circular motion.
3. (c) Heat required to boil water = mc
10. (a) Let velocity at A v A and velocity at B v B
gs
= 2 × 4200 × (100 – 20)
A
= 6.72 × 103 J vA
r T
If t be the time of boil then lo
× 500 × t = 6.72 × 103
.b
6.72 103 vB
or t= = 28 minutes. B
0.8 500 Applying conservation of energy at A & B
r8
V1 = V and V2 = 2 2
27
v 2B v 2A 4gr..........(i )
5
Ratio of specific heats for monoatomic gas, Now as it is moving in circular path it has centripetal
cy
3 force.
In an adiabatic process,
T1V1 –1 = T2V2 –1 mv 2A
no
At point A T mg
1 r
V1
or T2 = V for minimum velocity T 0
× T,,
ch
2
mv 2A
(5/3) 1 or mg v 2A gr vA gr
1 r
T2 = 300 × 11. (a) The equivalent circuit is shown in fig. Since the
.te
8 / 27
Wheatstone’s bridge is balanced, therefore no current
27 9
= 300 × = 300 × = 675 K will flow through the arm KL. Equivalent resistance
8 4
w
between
= 402ºC AKM = R + R = 2 R
w
1 1 1 2 1 Cp = C1 + C2 = 16 C1 C2 =48
R 2R 2R 2R R
i.e., R R C1 – C2 = (C1 +C 2 ) 2 – 4 C1 C 2
2
2 em 4 z 2 162 4 48 64 8
12. (c) For nth orbit, energy, E n
2 2
n h C1 12 F and C2 4 F
2
2 em 4 24. (d) At the centre of the earth gravity is zero.
For hydrogen (z = 1), E n
n2 h2 25. (b) Frequency does not depend upon the medium, so, it
For helium (z = 2), will remain same in the material of the tuning fork and
2 2
em 4 4 in air.
So, E = 26. (a) The highest energy level occupied by an electron in
n 2h2
om
the energy band at zero kelvin is called Fermi level and
E 4 the energy associated is known as Fermi energy. So, it
E 4E n
En 1 is independent of T.
13. (c) Conserving Linear Momentum 27. (b) The intersection of medians is the centre of mass of
t.c
2Mvc = 2Mv – Mv vc = v/2. the triangle. Since distances of centre of mass from
the sides are related as : xBC < xAB < xAC therefore IBC
1/ 3 1/ 3
Rs As 32 > IAB > IAC or IBC > IAB.
po
14. (c) 2
R A 4 28. (c) If F force acts for short interval t, then
dH F T=m v.
gs
n
15. (d) ( 2 1) ( ) n=1
dt 29. (b) For electromagnetic wave,
16. (d) Use a = µg and v2 = u2 + 2as FE FM eE BeC E B.C
17. (c) When the arrangement is dipped in water;
lo
2 10 7 3 108 60 V / m
x 3
.b
/ x 0.75x 30. (a) According to Biot Savart’s law
4/3 4
18. (d) The charge q, which is kept at the centre of metallic 0 Id sin
r8
dB = .
spherical shell transfered to the outer surface of shell 4 r2
& inside the shell the electric field is zero & hence
be
1
force is also zero. dB
r2
19. (c) Fn q(v B) So, graph (a) is correct.
cy
= qvB sin = 0 (because = 0º ) 31. (b) According to Stefan’ law heat emitted per second per
20. (b) The time of cooling increases as the difference between unit area (T14 T24 ) where T1 is the temperature of
no
the temperature of body & surrounding is reduced. So body & T2 is the temperature of surrounding (T1 & T2
T1<T2<T3 (according to Newton’s law of cooling). are on Kelvin scale).
ch
f r1 r2
w
a
f ( µg 1) µg
; µg
f a a
( µg 1) µw
and its velocity is always in tangential direction. So these
two are perpendicular to each other. 3/ 2 3 3 9
=
3 4/3 2 4 8
LdI 40 10 11 1
22. (a) e 100V f 9 / 8 1 1/ 8 1
dt 3
4 10 3
fw 1/ 2 4
C C 1
23. (c) Cs = 1 2 =3 2
C1 + C2 fw 4 f 4 10 40 cm.
EBD_7208
MT-6 PHYSICS
33. (b) If current passes through a spring, it shrinks as in two 1
2 2
adjacent wire, current is flowing in the same direction. 2
Even if direction of current is reversed still the spring Velocity of light in air
will shrink. As AC current is a periodically changing Now, 2
Velocity of light in medium
current, the process of shrinking will also be periodic
Velocity of light in medium
in nature.
8 1
250 10 = 3 10 = 2.12 108 m / sec
2
F / A 50 10 6 40. (c) Rain drops are in spherical shape due to surface
35. (c) Y
/ 0.5 10 3 tension.
2 41. (d) 1 40º , 2 30º , ?
250 9.8 2 cot 2 cot 2
cot 1 2 cot 2 40º cot 2 30º
6 3
50 10 0.5 10
om
cot 1.192 3 2.1
19.6 1010 N / m 2
25º i.e. 40 º.
36. (c) Max. force = mass × max. acceleration
= m 4 2 2 a = 1 × 4 × 2 × (60)2 × 0.02 = 288 2 1 1 1
42. (a) 2
t.c
37. (b) Changing electric field gives rise to displacement sin C sin 30 1/ 2
current which creates magnetic field around it. Velocity of light in the medium
po
39. (c) 3 108 8
= = 1.5 10 m / sec
2
45° ma 2
gs
44. (d) PT PC 1
2
30°
lo 600 400 1
ma2 3
2
1
ma 2
2
2
.b
Refractive index,
sin 45º ma 2 1
r8
or ma 1
sin 30º 2 2
be
cy
no
ch
.te
w
w
w
Mock Test-2
Time : 1 hr Max. Marks -180
1. A heater of 220 V heats a volume of water in 5 minutes time. x x
A heater of 110 V heats the same volume of water in
(a) 5 minutes (b) 8 minutes
(a) t (b)
(c) 10 minutes (d) 20 minutes t
om
2. Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. Then
error in the measurement of volume is speed
(a) 1% (b) 5%
t.c
(c) 3% (d) 8%
3. In the fig. S1 and S2 are identical springs. The oscillation (c) (d) All of the above
t
frequency of the mass m is f. If one spring is removed, the
po
frequency will become
10. Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first orbit in hydrogen
m atom will be
gs
(a) 3.4 eV (b) 3.6 eV
S1 S2
(c) 10.2 eV (d) 13.6 eV
(a) f
(c)
(b) f × 2
(d) f / 2
11.
lo
In the given figure, the capacitors C1 , C3 , C4 and C5 have a
f 2 capacitance of 4µF each. If the capacitor C2 has a capacitance
.b
4. A body of mass 2 kg is rotating on a circular path of radius of 10µF, then effective capacitance between A and B is
C4
r8
(a) PV=RT (b) PV = 2RT the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons from a metal
vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight
1
.te
(c) PV= RT
T (d) PV = 4RT line whose slope
2 (a) depends on the intensity of the radiation
7. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is (b) depends of the mature of the metal used
w
taken to galvanometer, its pointer is deflected, because (c) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the
(a) induced current is produced metal used
w
(b) the coil acts like a magnet (d) is the same for all metals and independent of the
w
om
R 26. The photoelectric effect is based upon the law of
Q S
P conservation of
(a) momentum
t.c
(b) energy
(a) PQ is horizontal
(c) angular momentum
(b) QR is horizontal (d) mass
po
(c) RS is horizontal 27. A choke is preferred to a resistance for limiting current in
(d) any one will be horizontal AC circuit because
18. A tin nucleus (atomic number Z = 50) has a radius of 6.6 × (a) choke is cheap
gs
10–15 m. The potential on its surface will be (the charge on (b) there is no wastage of power
the proton = 1.6 × 10–19 C) (c) choke is compact in size
(a) 1.1 × 107 V (b) 2.1 × 107 V lo
(d) choke is a good absorber of heat
(c) 3.1 × 107 V (d) 0.15 × 107 V 28. If a body of mass 3 kg is dropped from the top of a tower of
19. A relation between Faraday’s constant F, chemical
.b
height 25m. Then its kinetic energy after 3 sec is
equivalent E and electrochemical equivalent Z is (a) 557 J
E
r8
E E
(c) F (d) F 29. A gymnast takes turns with her arms & legs stretched. When
Z Z
20. Two rods of the same length and areas of cross-section A1 she pulls her arms & legs in
cy
and A2 have their ends at the same temperature K1 and K2 (a) the angular velocity decreases
are the thremal conductivities of the two rods. The rate of (b) the moment of inertia decreases
flow of heat is same in both rods if (c) the angular velocity stays constant
no
2 r
along a horizontal straight track. The stone will hit the O
ground following a 0I
w
(c)
(a) straight line path 2r
0I
w
33. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of 40. Surface tension of a solution is 30×10–2 N/m. The radius of
permittivity 0 and permeability 0 is given by the soap bubble is 5 cm. The surface energy of soap bubble
is
0
(a) (b) 0 0 2
0 (a) 1.8 101 J (b) 1.8 10 J
1 0 (c) 1.0 10 1 J (d) 1.8 10 2 J
(c) (d) 41. A cylindrical resonance tube, open at both ends, has a
0 0 0
34. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is fundamental frequency f in air. If half of the length is dipped
(a) always less than one vertically in water, the fundamental frequency of the air
(b) always equal to one column will be
(c) always more than one 3f
(a) (b) 2f
(d) equal to or less than one 2
35. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the f
om
(c) f (d)
surface of the earth is the same as at a depth ‘d’ below the 2
surface of the earth. When both ‘d’ and ‘h’ are much smaller 42. Which of the following waves have the maximum
than the radius of earth, then which one of the following is wavelength ?
t.c
correct? (a) Infrared rays (b) UV rays
h (c) Radio waves (d) X – rays
3h
(a) d = (b) d = 43. In an p-n-p transistor working as a common base amplifier
po
2 2
(c) d = h (d) d =2 h current gain is 0.96 and emitter current is 7.2 mA. The base
36. Pressure exerted by a perfect gas is equal to current is
gs
(a) mean kinetic energy per unit volume (a) 0.2 mA (b) 0.29 mA
(b) half of mean kinetic energy per unti volume (c) 0.35 mA (d) 0.4 mA
(c) two third of mean kinetic energy per unit volume 44. The forward biasd diode is
lo
(d) one third of mean kinetic energy per unit volume –2V +2V
(a)
37. Transformer is based upon the principle of
.b
(a) self induction (b) mutual induction
(b) –4V –3V
(c) eddy current (d) None of these
r8
(c) 0.007 m/s (d) 0.0007 m/s 45. In V-I characteristic of a p-n junction reverse biasing results
39. The time taken by light to pass through 4 mm thick glass in
no
slab of refractive index 1.5 will be (velocity of light in air = (a) leakage current
3 × 108 m/s) (b) the current barrier across junction increases
(a) 8 × 10–11 s (b) 2 × 10–11 s (c) no flow of current
ch
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a)
om
V2t 9. (d) In (a), at the same time particle has two positions which
1. (d) Heat produced, H . When voltage is halved, is not possible. In (b), particle has two velocities at the
R
the heat produced becomes one fourth. Hence time same time. In (c), speed is negative which is not
t.c
taken to heat the water becomes four times. possible.
po
2. (c) V r ; ground level energy (n = 1) & first excited state (n = 2)
3
V r
100 3 100 3 1% 3% Now, E1 13.6 eV
gs
V r
13.6
3. (d) Here effective spring factor, keff = 2 k ; E2
lo eV 3.4 eV
22
1 2k
.b
Frequency of oscillation, f ; when one Difference = – 3.4 + 13.6 = 10.2 eV
2 m
11. (c) The arrangement forms Wheatstone bridge as shown
r8
I1 1 I2 2
Now C4 & C3 are in series, C1 & C5 are in series so
2 2
mv1r1 mv2 r2 1r1 2 r2 their resultant capacitance of each combination =
ch
4 4 16
2 F
44 (0.8) 2 2 (1) 2 4 4 8
.te
2 44 0.8 0.8 = 28.16 radian/sec These combinations are in parallel, so, total capacitance
=2+2= 4 F
w
1
dx
v t 3s = 6 × 3 = 18cm/s
12. (d) h mv2 hv K.E.
v= = 3 × 2t = 6t 2
dt
w
4 1
n 2 K.E.
6. (b) PV = 2RT
T h
2
This is equation of a straight line, if we plot , K-E
8. (c) We know that F = q v B 1
curve. The slope of this curve is which is constant.
h
F MLT 2 So, it is independent of metals used.
B [MT 1C 1 ]
qv C LT 1
Option (d) is correct.
MOCK TEST 2 MT-11
om
From the formula, E mc 2
negligible resistance. It is used to control current in ac
circuits and the power loss in a circuit containing choke
Energy released = 0.001 (3 108 )2 joules coil is least.
t.c
= 9 1016 10 3
9 1013 J 28. (b) After 3 sec its velocity
v2 u 2 2gh 0 2 9.8 25
po
15. (c) 3k x. 2k
[Here is coefficient of linear expansion so 1 1
K.E = mv 2 = 3 2 9.8 25 = 75 × 9.8 = 748 J.
gs
coefficient of cubical expansion = 3 & coefficient 2 2
of superfacial expansion = 2 ] 29. (b) Since no external torque action gymnast, so angular
momentum (L = I ) is conserved. After pulling her
lo
3
x 1.5 arms & legs, the angular velocity increases but moment
2 of inertia of gymnast, decreases in, such a way that
.b
16. (b) When a bus suddenly take a turn, the passengers are angular momentum remains constant.
thrown outwards because of inertia of motion.
r8
µ0 I 0 I
30. (a) B
17. (b) For minimum deviation, incident angle is equal to 2r 2 4 r
be
emerging angle. 32. (d) Ability of the eye to see object at all distance is called
accommodation. This is the power of the eye to change
QR is horizontal.
the focal length of eye lens so that it can focus rays
cy
18. (a) Charge on the tin nucleus = n.Q coming from different distances.
no
= (1 6 × 10–19 × 50) C = 8 × 10–18 C 33. (c) The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium
of permittivity and permeability 0 is equal to
This charge is supposed to be concentrated at its
1
ch
d
w
2 r2( 0 )g
38. (b) Terminal velocity, v 0
9
2 (2 10 3 ) 2 (8 1.3) 103 9.8 From the figure it is clear that in both the cases
= = 0.07 ms–1
9 0.83 wavelength is same. So, frequency of fundamental
tone will also be same. Hence the answer will be (c).
3 108
39. (b) Velocity of light in glass = = 2 108 m / sec 42. (c) Radio waves are low frequency electro-magnetic waves.
1.5 So, their wavelength will be comparatively large.
om
distance 4 10 3 11
43. (b) For common base
Time taken = = = 2 10 sec
velocity 2 108 Ic
Current gain = 0.96
Ie
t.c
40. (d) Surface tension of solution
Ic I e 0.96 0.96 7.2 6.912
12
po
(T) = 30 10 N/m Ib Ie Ic 7.2 6.912
gs
44. (d) 0V –2V It can be sketched as
Since, the bubble has two spherical surface,
Immobile ions
hence, A 2 surface area = 2 × 4 r 2
lo – +
P – + N
.b
A 0V – +
Therefore, surface energy = T ×
depletion
layer –2V
r8
om
(c) the square of initial velocity (c) E = 0 (d) Q = 0
(d) square of initial acceleration 9. The moment of inertia of disc about a tangent axis in its
2. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having combination plane is
of convex lens of focal length 40 cm in contact with a 3MR 2
MR 2
t.c
concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of this lens (a) (b)
combination in diopter is 4 2
5 2 7 MR 2
(a) + 1.5 (b) – 1.5 (c) MR (d)
po
(c) + 6.67 (d) – 6.67 4 4
3. For the velocity time graph shown in the figure below the 10. The angles which the vector A 3iˆ 6jˆ 2kˆ makes with
gs
distance covered by the body in the last two seconds of its the co-ordinate axes are
motion is what fraction of the total distance travelled by it 3 4 1
in all the seven seconds? (a) cos 1 , cos 1 , cos 1
lo 7 7 7
13 16 12
(b) cos , cos , cos
10 7 7 7
.b
B C 14 15 13
8 (c) cos , cos , cos
7 7 7
r8
A D
(c) 3.25 × 10 14 (d) 5.25 × 1014
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Time (in sec) 12. Two masses A and B each of mass M are fixed together by
cy
2 4 3 3
4. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of 8 km h –1. If A B F
the resultant velocity of boat is10 km h–1 , then the velocity (a) (F/M) – a (b) a
ch
5. The effective acceleration of a body when thrown upwards (a) Time period (b) Frequency
with acceleration a is (c) Velocity (d) Wavelength
(a) (g + a) (b) (a – g) 14. An ideal gas A and a real gas B have their volumes increased
w
(c) g2 + a2) (d) (g – a2/g) from V to 2V under isothermal conditions. The increase in
6. Which one of the following statements is false ? internal energy
w
(a) A vector has only magnitude, whereas a scalar has (a) will be same in both A and B
w
both magnitude and direction (b) will be zero in both the gases
(b) Distance is a scalar quantity but displacement is a (c) of B will be more than that of A
vector quantity (d) of A will be more than that of B
(c) Momentum, force and torque are vector quantities 15. What is the effective capacitance between points X and Y?
(d) Mass, speed and energy are scalar quantities
C1 = 6µF
7. Out of the following pair , which one does NOT have
identical dimensions
(a) impulse and momentum C3 = 6µF C3 = 20µF C2 = 6µF
(b) angular momentum and planck’s constant X Y
A C B D
(c) work and torque C4 = 6µF
(d) moment of inertia and moment of a force
EBD_7208
MT-14 PHYSICS
(a) 24 F (b) 18 F 23. An open U-tube contains mercury. When 11.2 cm of water
(c) 12 F (d) 6 F is poured into one of the arms of the tube, how high does
16. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and another the mercury rise in the other arm from its initial level?
particle of mass m2 is moving with a velocity v2. Both of (a) 0.56 cm (b) 1.35 cm
them have the same momentum but different kinetic energies (c) 0.41 cm (d) 2.32 cm
are E1 and E2 respectively. If m1 > m2 then 24. A steel wire of length 20 cm and uniform cross-section 1
(a) E1 = E2 (b) E1 < E2 mm2 is tied rigidly at both the ends. The temperature of the
wire is altered from 40ºC to 20ºC. Coefficient of linear
E1 m1
(c) E (d) E1 > E2 expansion for steel = 1.1 × 10–5/ºC and Y for steel is 2.0 ×
2 m2 1011 N/m2. The change in tension of the wire is
17. A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as (a) 2.2 × 106 newton (b) 16 newton
shown here. The force is in N and x in m. The work done by (c) 8 newton (d) 44 newton
the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m is 25. The fastest mode of transfer of heat is
om
(a) conduction (b) convection
F(N) (c) radiation (d) None of these
26. The B – H curve (i) and (ii) shown in fig associated with
B
t.c
(i)
3 (ii)
2
po
1 H
x(m)
0
gs
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(a) 18.0 J (b) 13.5 J (a) (i) diamagnetic and (ii) paramagnetic substance
lo
(c) 9.0 J (d) 4.5 J (b) (i) paramagnetic and (ii) ferromagnetic substance
18. If a spherical ball rolls on a table without slipping the fraction (c) (i) soft iron and (ii) steel
.b
of its total energy associated with rotational energy is (d) (i) steel and (ii) soft iron
27. The pressure P of an ideal gas and its mean K.E. per unit
r8
3 2
(a) (b) volume are related as
5 7
E
be
(a) P (b) P = E
2 3 2
(c) (d)
5 7 3E 2E
(c) P (d) P
cy
(b) a varying magnetic field (b) A is –ve and B +ve; |A| = |B| :
(c) the vibrations of the primary coil (c) Both are +ve but A > B
(d) the iron core of the transformer (d) Both are –ve but A > B
22. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards 30. The equation of plane wave is given by
from the surface of earth is 11 km/s. If the body is projected
at an angle of 45°with the vertical, the escape velocity will be x
y 2sin 200t
15
(a) 11 2 km/s (b) 22 km/s
where displacement y is given in cm and time t in second,
11 then the velocity of the wave is
(c) 11 km/s (d) km / s
2 (a) 3000 cm/sec (b) 200 cm/sec
MOCK TEST 3 MT-15
(c) 150 cm/sec (d) 2 cm /sec 38. Main function of the RF amplifiers in a superheterodyne
31. A primary cell has an e.m.f. of 1.5 volt. When short-circuited receiver is to
it gives a current of 3 ampere. The internal resistance of the (a) amplify signal
cell is (b) reject unwanted signal
(a) 4.5 ohm (b) 2 ohm (c) discriminate against image frequency signal and IF-
(c) 0.5 ohm (d) (1/4.5) ohm signal
32. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet (d) All the above
39. An electric fan and a heater are marked as 100 W, 220 V and
(a) are from N-pole to S-pole of magnet
1000 W, 220 V respectively. The resistnace of heater is
(b) do not exist
(a) equal to that of fan
(c) depend upon the area of cross-section of bar magnet (b) lesser than that of fan
(d) are from S-pole to N-pole of magnet (c) greater than that of fan
33. Five resistances have been connected as shown in the (d) zero
figure. The effective resistance between A and B is
om
40. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of
1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction
4 2 tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of
A B the wire. The force on the wire is
t.c
(a) 2.4 N (b) 1.2 N
(c) 3.0 N (d) 2.0 N
(a) 14/3 (b) 20/3 41. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is produced
po
(c) 14 (d) 21 by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10–3 W. The number of
34. Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction experiment photons emitted, on the average, by the source per second
with slit width of 0.6 mm. If yellow light is replaced by X– is
gs
rays, then the observed pattern will reveal, (a) 5 × l 016 (b) 5 × 1017
(a) that the central maximum is narrower (c) 5 × 1014 (d) 5 × 1015
(b) more number of fringes
(c) less number of fringes
lo
42. Of the various series of the hydrogen spectrum, the one
which lies wholly in the ultraviolet region is
.b
(d) no diffraction pattern (a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series (d) Bracket series
35. Which one is possible?
43. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the
r8
19 16 1
(a) 7N + 0 n1 7N 1H earth has a total (kinetic + potential) energy E0. Its potential
32 35 4 energy is
+ 1H1
be
(d) 1 H 1 1H 1 2 He
4 is reverse biased ?
36. A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves +10 V
no
x x x x x x +5 V
ch
x x x x
x x x x
x x vx B –12 V R
x x x
x x x x x (b)
–5 V
.te
x x x x x x
time and space, pointing perpendicular and into the plane R
of the loop exists everywhere. The current induced in the (c)
w
loop is –10 V
+5 V
Bl v
w
(a) clockwise R
R
(d)
w
Bl v
(b) anti-clockwise
R 45. Which of the following gates will have an output of 1?
2 Bl v 1 0
(c) anti clockwise
R 1 1
A B
(d) zero
0 0
37. When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air,
1 0
(a) its wavelength decreases
C D
(b) its wavelength increases
(c) its frequency decreases (a) D (b) A
(d) neither its wavelength nor its frequency changes. (c) B (d) C
EBD_7208
MT-16 PHYSICS
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (d)
om
1. (c) As v2 – u2 = 2as 9. (c)
0 – u2 = 2as
t.c
u2
stopping distance , s =
2a
R
po
2. (b) f1 = + 40 cm (for convex lens)
= 0.4 m
gs
f2 = – 25 cm (for concave lens)
= – 0.25 m Moment of inertia of a disc about a diameter
lo
Focal length (f) of the combination 1 1 1 1
= MR 2 MR 2 [ Ix I y Iz MR 2 ]
.b
1 1 1 1 1 0.25 0.4 2 2 4 2
f f1 f2 0.40 0.25 0.40 0.25 Applying theorem of parallel axis.
r8
0.15 1 5
1.5 dioptre. Iz MR 2 MR 2 MR 2
be
0.1 4 4
1
P 1.5 dioptre 3iˆ bjˆ 2kˆ 3ˆ 6ˆ 2 ˆ
f 10. (b) Â i j k . If , and are
cy
9 36 4 7 7 7
3. (b) Distance in last two second
angles made by A with coordinate axes, then
no
1
= × 10 × 2 = 10 m. 3 6 2
2 cos , cos and cos .
7 7 7
ch
1
Total distance = × 10 × (6 + 2) = 40 m. 11. (a) Charge on an electron
2
19 coulomb
1.6 10
.te
4. (b) vr vR – vB2
2
10 2
82
6 km h –1
6
20 10
5. (b) Effective acceleration of a body = [a – g]. No. of electrons required = 19
w
1.6 10
6. (a) Vector has both magnitude and direction so, statement
(a) is wrong.
w
20
= 1013 1.25 1014
2 1. 6
7. (d) Moment of inertia, I = Mr
w
om
C1 6 F
6F 1
(3 6) (3) = 13.5 J
X 6F F Y 2
18. (b) Total kinetic energy of a rolling ball
t.c
C3 6 F
6 F C4
K.E. = linear K.E. + rotational K.E.
K.E. = 1 mv 2 1 2
po
I
2 2
C1 C2
Here, C 1 1 2 2 v2
C4 mv 2
gs
3 = mr .
Hence, no charge will flow through 20 F 2 2 5 r2
C1 C2 5 2 7
lo
=
10
mv 2
10
mv 2
X Y
.b
Fraction of total energy associated with rotational
1
C3 C4 mv 2
r8
X Y 10
1 10 2
cy
=
C '' 5 7 7
C1 and C2 are in series, also C3 and C4 are in series. 19. (d) Net charge inside the surface is zero. So, flux through
no
=6 F 22. (c) ve 2 gR
The escape velocity is independent of the angle at
p2
.te
B A
p12 p22
w
or, m1 , m2
2 E1 2 E2 At point A and B pressure will be same. So pressure at
A = P + h 1 1g
m1 pressure at B = P + h 2 2g
m1 m2 1 P + h 1 1g = P + h 2 2g
m2
or, 11.2 × 1 × g = 2x × 13.6 × g
p12 E2 11.2
E2 or, x = = 0.41 cm
1 1 [ p1 p2 ] 2 13.6
E1P22 E1
24. (d) F = Y A t = (2.0 × 1011) (10–6) (1.1 × 10–5) (20) = 44
or, E2 > E1 newton
EBD_7208
MT-18 PHYSICS
25. (c) Radiation is the fastest mode of transfer of heat. f = B × A = B × L2 = constant
26. (c) The loop (i) is for soft iron and the loop (ii) is for steel d
in fig. zero
dt
1 2 2 1 2 2 37. (c) When the ray enters a glass slab from air, its frequency
27. (d) P v v E remains unchanged.
3 3 2 3
Since glass slab in an optically denser medium, the
28. (b) Rate of cooling temperature difference velocity of light decreases and therefore we can
between system and surrounding. conclude that the wavelength decreases.
As the temperature difference is halved, so the rate of ( = )
cooling will also be halved
39. (b) As R V2/P or
R 1/P, so resistance of heater is less
om
29. (a) A is positive as electric lines are coming out of it. B is than that of fan.
negative as electric lines are entering into it.
40. (b) F = Bi l = 2 ×1.2 × 0.5 = 1.2 N
30. (a) x 41. (d) Since p = nh
t.c
y 2 sin 200 t
15
3
p 2 10
n 34
6 1014
po
x h 6.6 10
= 2 sin 200 t
15
5 1015
gs
Comparing it with the equation of a wave,
42. (a) The range of wavelengths of the lines of Lyman series
y a sin( t kx) varies from 912 A° to 1216 A°.
43.
lo
(c) P.E. = 2T.E.
200 ;k
.b
P.E. = 2E0
15
In case of circular motion of satellite around the earth
r8
of slit should be comparable to the wavelength of light. (D) is a XOR gate so output is 0 0 0
35. (c) By law of lepton numbers, mass number and atomic
.te
om
(d) [M L T–3] and [M L T0] (b) mixture of diatomic and polyatomic molecules
2. Which of the following time-displacement graph is not (c) monoatomic
possible in nature? (d) polyatomic
t.c
t t 9. A metallic bar is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC. The coeficient of
linear expansion is 10–5 K–1. What will be the percentage
increase in length?
po
(a) (b)
(a) 0.01% (b) 0.1%
s s (c) 1% (d) 10%
t t 10. A rough vertical board has an acceleration a along the
gs
horizontal so that a block of mass M pressing against it
(c) (d) does not fall. The coefficient of friction between block and
3.
s s
A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion having time
lo
the board is
a
.b
period T. The time taken in 3/8th oscillation is
M
3 5
r8
(a) T (b) T
8 8
be
5 7
(c) T (d) T a g
12 12 (a) (b)
4. The angular velocity of a body changes from 1 to 2 g a
cy
6. If a capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ is connected in series with (a) 1.7 (b) 1.4
an inductor of inductance L, then the angular frequency (c) 1.2 (d) 2.7
w
will be 12. Electric lines of force about a negative point charge are
(a) circular, anti-clockwise
1 L
(a) (b) (b) circular, clockwise
LC C (c) radial, inwards
(c) LC (d) LC (d) radial, outwards
7. Two wires A and B of the same material, having radii in the 13. A gun fires two bullets at 60º and 30º with horizontal. The
ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of bullets strike at some horizontal distance. The ratio of
drift speed of electrons in A and B is maximum height for the two bullets is in the ratio of
(a) 16 : 1 (b) 1 : 16 (a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
EBD_7208
MT-20 PHYSICS
14. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal resistance 23. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15 and gives full
of 400 Ohm. Its terminals are connected to a load of 4000 scale deflection for a current of 4 mA. To convert it to an
Ohm the voltage across the load is ammeter of range 0 to 6 A
(a) 220 volt (b) 440 volt (c) 200 volt (d) 400 volt (a) 10 m resistance is to be conncected in parallel to the
15. The radius vector, drawn from the sun to a planet, sweeps galvanometer
out equal areas in equal intervals of time. This is the (b) 10 m esistance is to be connected in series with the
statement of galvanometer
(a) Kepler’s first law (b) Kepler’s second aw (c) 0.1 resistance is to be connected in parallel to the
(c) Newton’s first law (d) Kepler’s third law galvanometer
16. The path difference between the two waves : (d) 0.1 resistance is to be connected in series with the
galvanometer
2 x
y1 a1 sin t 24. A uniform rod of mass m, length , area of cross-section A
has Young’s modulus Y. If it is hanged vertically, elongation
om
2 x under its own weight will be
and y 2 a 2 sin t will be mg 2mg mg mgY
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2AY AY AY A
t.c
(a) (b) 25. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is
2 adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the objective
2 and the eye piece is found to be 20 cm. The focal length of
po
(c) (d) lenses are
2 2
17. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a (a) 18 cm, 2 cm (b) 11 cm, 9 cm
certain atom. Which transition shown represents the (c) 10 cm, 10 cm (d) 15 cm, 5 cm
gs
emission of a photon with the most energy? 26. If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a
tube. Then
n 4 (a) air flows from the smaller bubble to the bigger
lo
n 3
(b) air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till
the sizes are interchanged
.b
n 2
(c) air flows from the bigger bubble to the smaller bubble
till the sizes become equal
r8
(a) IV (b) III (c) II (d) I point of zero velocity to the next such point. The distance
18. The direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves is between those points is 50 cm. The period, frequency and
given by the direction of amplitude of the motion is
cy
to each other, velocity of the bodies after collision will be (a) 312.5 × 10–3 cm (b) 312.5 × 10–3 m
(c) 312.5 × 10–3 m (d) 312 m
3 18 9 20 29. In a p-type semi-conductor germanium is doped with
(a) m/s (b) m/s (b) m/s (d) m/s
.te
the distance between them. If the particles are initially held of the following combinations of logic gates?
at rest and then released, the centre of mass will
w
A B Y
(a) move towards m1 (b) move towards m2
0 0 1
(c) remain at rest (d) Nothing can be said
w
0 1 0
21. The r.m.s. velocity of oxygen molecule at 16ºC is 474 m/sec.
1 0 1
The r.m.s. velocity in m/s of hydrogen molecule at 127ºC is
1 1 0
(a) 1603 (b) 1896 (c) 2230.59 (d) 2730
22. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we require (a) A
B Y
two sources which emit radiation
(a) of the same frequency A
(b) B Y
(b) of different wavelengths
(c) of the same frequency and having a definite phase (c)
A
B Y
relationship
(d) of nearly the same frequency (d) None of these
MOCK TEST 4 MT-21
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17(b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (a)
om
[a] = [MLT–3] and [b] = [MLT–4]
2. (b) At a particular time, two values of displacement are not force of friction = R .Ma
possible. Ma
t.c
T
3. (c) Time to complete 1/4th oscillation is s. Time to
4
po
1
complete th vibration from extreme position is
8
obtained from
gs
a 2 T
y a cos t a cos t or t s
2 T 6 lo
So time to complete 3/8th oscillation
Mg
T T 5T
.b
= Force of friction will balance the weight. So
4 6 12
r8
4. (c) 1 1 : 2 2 or M K12 1 : M K 2 2 2 g
Ma Mg ;
a.
K1
be
two photons can not be added at the moment Now, from the formula
photons collide with electron all its energy will be 1 1
dissipated or wasted as this energy is not sufficient sin C sin45
no
to knock it out.
Hence emmission of electron is not possible. 2 1. 4
6. (a) In case of L-C circuit, angular frequency of oscillation
ch
LC
7. (a) Current flowing through the conductor, H u 2 sin 2 60º 2g sin 2 60º
I = n e v A. Hence H 2g 2
u sin 2 30º sin 2 30º
w
2
4 nevd1 (1) vd1 4 4 16
or . ( 3 / 2)2 3
w
1 2 vd2 1 1
nev d 2 (2) (1/ 2) 3 1
w
om
transition, i.e. 2 1 . I transition represents the
absorption of energy. T = 1s
18. (c) Vector ( E B ) 1 1
Frequency, f = 1Hz
T 1
t.c
19. (d) Velocity after the collision
If A is the amplitude, then
10 10 5 0 100 20
= = m / sec . 2A = 50 cm A = 25 cm.
po
15 15 3
20. (c) The centre of mass remains at rest because force of 28. (a) Width of central maximum
attraction is mutual. No external force is acting. 2 D 2 6250 10 10
0.5
gs
3R 289 3RT a 4
2 10
21. (c) v oxg . vrms =
32 M lo 6 3
3125 10 m 312.5 10 cm.
3R 400
vH so vH = 2230.59 m/sec
.b
2
22. (c) For the observation of interference phenomenon, the
= 2a
r8
sin = a
23. (a) G = 15 , ig = 4 mA, i = 6 A
Required shunt, a o sin = 0
–
cy
3 sin = a
ig 4 10
S G = 15
3 Intensity
i ig 6 4 10 sin = –2a
no
D
4 10 3
= 15 = 0.01
ch
5.996
= 10m (in parallel) Screen position of various minima for Fraunhoffer
diffraction pattern of a single slit of width a.
.te
F F mg
24. (c) Y 29. (d) In a p-type semic-onductor germanium is doped with
A YA YA
trivalent element. All the elements, like aluminium,
w
om
8. What is the acceleration of a projectile at its heighest point
2. If the kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 300%, the
(a) maximum (b) minimum
momentum of the particle will increase by
(c) zero (d) g
(a) 20% (b) 200%
t.c
9. A sphere of radius R has uniform volume charge density.
(c) 100% (d) 50% The electric potential at a point (r < R) is
3. The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are smooth and (a) due to the charge inside a sphere of radius r only
po
of negligible mass. For the system to remain in equilibrium. (b) due to the entire charge of the sphere
The angle should be (c) due to the charge in the spherical shell of inner and
outer radii r and R, only
gs
(d) independent of r
10. A ray of light passes through four transparent media with
lo
refractive indices 1, 2, 3 and 4 as shown in the figure.
The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD
.b
2m is parallel to the incident ray AB, we must have
m m D
r8
B
4. A particle starting from rest falls from a certain height.
Assuming that the acceleration due to gravity remain the
cy
A
same throughout the motion, its displacements in three
successive half second intervals are S1, S2 and S3 then (a) 1 = 2 (b) 2 = 3
(c) 3 = 4 (d) 4 = 1
no
(a) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 5 : 9
(b) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5 11. The meniscus of a liquid contained in one of the limbs of a
(c) S1 : S2 : S3 = 9 : 2 : 3 narrow U-tube is held in an electromagnet with the meniscus
ch
in line with the field. The liquid is seen to rise. This indicates
(d) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 1 : 1
that the liquid is
5. The Bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is
(a) ferromagnetic (b) paramagnetic
.te
4 3 4
(d) obtain a suitable D.C. voltage 13. The kinetic theory of gases
7. As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked to the (a) explains the behaviour of an ideal gas
closed loop shown in the fig, an e.m.f. V volt is induced in (b) describes the motion of a single atom or molecule
the loop. (c) relates the temperature of the gas with K.E. of atoms of
the gas
(d) all of the above
14. An electric bulb marked 40 W and 200V, is used in a circuit of
supply voltage 100V. Now its power is
(a) 10 W (b) 20 W (c) 40 W (d) 100 W
EBD_7208
MT-24 PHYSICS
15. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes 23. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I
and 4 I are superimposed. The maximum and minimum
g
(where g = the acceleration due to gravity on the surface possible intensities in the resulting beam are
9 (a) 5I and I (b) 5I and 3I
of the earth) in terms of R, the radius of the earth, is (c) 9I and I (d) 9I and 3I
R 24. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second
(a) (b) R / 2 (c) 2 R (d) 2 R orbit, one gets the
2
16. A thermodynamic system is taken from state A to B along (a) second line of Lyman series
ACB and is brought back to A along BDA as shown in the PV (b) second line of Paschen series
diagram. The net work done during the complete cycle is (c) second line of Balmer series
given by the area (d) first line of Pfund series
P 25. A uniform magnetic field acts at right angles to the direction
om
B of motion of electron. As a result, the electron moves in a
P2 circular path of radius 2 cm. If the speed of electron is
C
doubled, then the radius of the circular path will be
P1 D (a) 2.0 cm (b) 0.5 cm (c) 4.0 cm (d) 1.0 cm
t.c
A
26. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light
A B V 1 m away. When the source is shifted to 2 m, then
(a) P1ACBP2P1 (b) ACBB'A'A (a) number of electrons emitted is a quarter of the initial
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(c) ACBDA (d) ADBB'A'A number
17. A man is watching two trains, one leaving and the other (b) each emitted electron carries one quarter of the initial
gs
coming with equal speed of 4 m/s. If they sound their energy
whistles each of frequency 240 Hz, the number of beats heard (c) number of electrons emitted is half the initial number
by man (velocity of sound in air = 320 m/s) will be equal to (d) each emitted electron carries half the initial energy
lo
(a) 12 (b) 0 (c) 3 (d) 6 27. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within i. If is
18. When a wave travels in a medium the particles displacement
.b
the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the
is given by the equation y = 0.03 sin (2t – 0.01x), where x curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in
and y are in seconds. The wavelength of the wave is
r8
C A
R2= 5
q
(a) (b)
cy
3V R1= 5 R3= 5 2 0 3
q 1 q
(c) (d)
no
R4= 5 0 2 0
(a) 1.8 A (b) 0.8 A 28. Two flat circular coils have a common center, but their planes
(c) 0.2 A (d) 1.6 A are at right angles to each other. The inner coil has 150 turns
ch
20. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors of and radius of cm. The outer coil has 400 turns and a radius
electromagnetic wave are oriented along of 2 cm. The magnitude of the resultant magnetic induction
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(a) the same direction and in phase at the common centers of the coils when a current of 200 mA
(b) the same direction but have a phase difference of 90º is sent through each of them is
(c) mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase (a) 10–3 Wb/m2 (b) 2 × 10–3 Wb/m2
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(d) mutually perpendicular directions but has a phase (c) 5 × 10–3 Wb/m2 (d) 7 × 10–3 Wb/m2
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difference of 90º 29. Optical fibres transmit light along its axis, by the process of
21. If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 0°C and the (a) total internal reflection
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ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b)
om
1 2 3 4
Number of significant figures in 2.1 × 10–3 r1 r2 i
=2 r2 R
Q
2. (c) New K.E., E' = 4E i1 P r1
t.c
p 2 mE and p 2 mE
po
p 2m 4E
2
p 2mE Applying Snell's law at Q,
gs
p' 2 sin r1 3
1 2 1 on substrating 1 in both sides.]
p 3 sin r2 ...(2)
2
pp
100 (2 1) 100 100%
lo
Again applying Snell's law at R
p
.b
3 sin r2 4
3. (c) If T is the tension in the string , Then 4 sin i ...(3)
3
T = mg (For outer masses)
r8
or cos 1/ 2 45 same.
2 11. (b) Paramagnetic liquid tends to flow from region of weaker
no
1 1
4. (b) S1 = g , S1 + S2 = g(1)2 magnetic fields to stronger magnetic fields.
2 2
dL 4A A 3
12. (d) Torque = A
ch
2 dt 4 4
1 3 [dL is change in angular momentum]
g = S + S2 + S3
2 2 13. (d) All the given phenomena are explained by kinetic
.te
Bulk Modulus =
[As liquid is uncompressible, V = 0] V2 100 100
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om
2 2
When these sounds are heard simultaneously beat is I min I1 I2 I 4I I
listened.
No. of beats per sec = 243 – 237 = 6. 24. (c) When the electron jumps from any orbit to second
orbit, then wavelength of line obtained belongs to
t.c
18. (a) y = 0.03 sin (2t 0.01x) is equation of a progressive Balmer series.
wave.
Comparing it with the standard form of equation mv
po
25. (c) r or r v
y = a sin ( t – kx) qB
= 2 ; k = 0.01 As v is doubled, the radius also becomes double. Hence
gs
2 radius = 2 × 2 = 4 cm
k= 0.01 26. (a) Power no. of electrons emitted (N)
lo 1 1
2 P 2
N
= 200 m. r r2
0.01
.b
19. (b) Three 5 resistors are in series. Their total resistance q
27. (d) Since total A B C
= 15 . Now it is in parallel with 5 resistor, so total
r8
0
resistance, where q is the total charge.
1 1 1 3 1 4 As shown in the figure, flux associated with the curved
be
surface B is = B
R 5 15 15 15
Let us assume flux linked with the plane surfaces A and
15 C be
cy
R
4 A= C= '
Therefore,
V 3 3 4
no
I 0.8A q
R 15 / 4 15 2 ' B 2 '
20. (c) The direction of oscillations of E and B fields are 0
ch
Ti
Ti 0 30. (b) When p-n junction is reverse biased, the flow of current
Tn
2 2 is due to drifting of minority charge carriers across the
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