and Fall are a direct result of which
phenomenon?
Introduction to Meteorology Section (1-30)
1. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere
by volume is _________. This gas
comprises 78% of the Earth atmosphere by
volume.
a. Oxygen     c. Carbon Dioxide
b. Argon     d. Nitrogen
2. The definition of a variable gas is a gas
that varies significantly from time to time
and place to place. The most significant
variable gas by volume in the planetary
boundary layer in the atmosphere is:
a. Ozone     c. Oxygen
b. Water vapor     d. Carbon dioxide
3. An isobar is a line of constant
________________.
a. Pressure     c. Temperature
b. Density     d. Dewpoint
4. Which of the following best explains how
pressure decreases with height in the Earth's
atmosphere?
a. It decreases at a constant rate (linear
decrease)
b. It decrease quickly at first then more
gradually (exponential decrease)
c. It decreases at a rate of 9.8 millibars per
kilometer
d. It decreases in the troposphere, increases
in the stratosphere, then decreases to the top
of the atmosphere
5. In the vertical dimension, the upper level
jet stream is located closest to which
mandatory synoptic scale pressure level?
a. The 850 millibar level (1,500 meters)
b. The surface
c. The 500 millibar level (5,500 meters)
d. The 300 millibar level (9,500 meters)
6. The seasons of Spring, Summer, Winter,
a. The sun's energy output and the Earth's
proximity to the sun
b. Shifting of ocean currents
c. The 23.5 ° tilt of the Earth from vertical
d. The jet stream
7. ________________ refers to the
horizontal transport of air while
_______________ is the vertical transport of
air.
a. Advection, convection
b. Convection, advection
8. Which of the following has the highest
albedo and thus more reflected solar
radiation?
a. Fresh snow     c. Water
b. Grass     d. Blacktop
9. Which of the following is NOT a primary
"control" of climate?
a. Altitude     c. Daily weather
b. Latitude     d. Ocean currents
10. Water has a ___________ heat capacity.
This means a large amount of energy is
needed to raise the temperature of water
relative to other substances.
a. Low
b. High
11. A one degree temperature change on the
Fahrenheit scale is equal a
_______________ degree change on the
Celsius scale.
a. 0.56     c. 1.8
b. 0.90      d. 3.6
12. Unsaturated air rises at the dry adiabatic
lapse rate which is ___________ ° C per
kilometer. This is also the same numerical
value as the gravitational force constant in
meters per second squared.
a. 15.2      c. 6.5
b. 9.8      d. 5.5
13. Which of the following processes
ABSORBS the most latent heat?
a. Melting     c. Evaporation
b. Freezing     d. Condensation
14. Which of the following processes will
result in a GREATER dewpoint depression
at the surface? The dewpoint depression is
the difference between the temperature and
the dewpoint.
a. Wet-bulb cooling
b. Saturating previously unsaturated air
c. Radiational cooling
d. Solar heating
15. One saturated air parcel with a
temperature of 10 ° C has a saturation
mixing ratio of 7 grams per kilogram; A
second air parcel with a temperature of 20 °
C has a saturation mixing ratio of 14 grams
per kilogram; From this information, what is
the most likely saturation mixing ratio of a
parcel of air at 30 ° C? Warmer air holds
exponentially more water vapor, therefore
the temperature/saturation mixing ratio
relationship is not linear.
a. 17.5 grams per kilogram
b. 19.0 grams per kilogram
c. 21.0 grams per kilogram
d. 26.5 grams per kilogram
16. In which air mass type would a rising
parcel's slope at the moist adiabatic lapse
rate be closest to the dry adiabatic lapse
rate? The moist adiabatic lapse rate is NOT
a constant. The moist adiabatic lapse rate
has a smaller slope than the dry adiabatic
lapse rate if a parcel contains moisture. The
amount of latent heat release depends on the
temperature and moisture content of the air.
a. Maritime tropical (warm and moist)
b. Maritime polar (cool moist)
c. Continental tropical (hot and dry)
d. Continental polar (cold and dry)
17. Which of the following fronts
GENERALLY has the smallest slope and is
associated with light to moderate and
widespread precipitation? This front is often
found to the right of a mid-latitude cyclone
in North America.
a. Cold front     c. Dryline
b. Warm front     d. Hurricane
18. Which of the following statements is
FALSE:
a. Cloud droplets freeze once temperature
drops below 0 ° C.
b. The vapor pressure is higher over water
than over ice
c. The typical raindrop is about 2
millimeters in diameter
d. Salt particles make good condensation
nuclei
19. The geostrophic wind is a balance of the
pressure gradient force and the
_______________ force. This balance
causes air to flow nearly parallel to the
height contours in the mid and upper levels
of the atmosphere.
a. Friction     c. Coriolis
b. Centrifugal     d. Gravity
20. When viewed from above the North Pole
of the Earth, the earth rotates
_________________ and makes a complete
turn in 24 hours. This causes low pressure to
spin counterclockwise in the Northern
Hemisphere. Clue: the sun rises in the east
and sets in the west.
a. Clockwise
b. Counterclockwise
21. The California Current off the US West
Coast is a ___________ ocean current while
the Gulf Stream off the US East Coast is a
______________ ocean current. This helps
lead to dry summers in California and
relatively wet summers in the SE US.
a. Cold, Warm
b. Warm, Cold
22. Which of the following is NOT
conducive to lake effect snow?
a. Continental polar air advecting over warm
Great Lake waters
b. Strong vertical directional and speed shear
with positive LI's
c. Orographic lifting and frictional
convergence
d. Large temperature difference between
lake and overriding cP air
23. Where is the warm sector located in
reference to a developed mid-latitude
cyclone over the United States?
a. To the north     c. To the west
b. To the southeast     d. To the northeast
24. Rising motion due to vorticity and warm
air advection are most commonly found to
the ____________ of the 500 millibar
trough axis over the United States.
a. Left     b. Right     c. North
25. This is the type of fog that forms on
nights with light wind, clear skies, low
dewpoint depressions, and moist soils.
a. Warm air advection fog     c. Upslope fog
b. Thermal fog      d. Radiational fog
26. Which of the following reasons explains
why the stratosphere is absolutely stable.
a. Air temperatures are too cold
b. Air pressure is too low
c. The absorption of radiant energy by ozone
d. The wind speed is too strong
27. Which of the following reasons explains
why ice crystals develop much more rapidly
than liquid water drops in the upper and
middle levels of thunderstorms?
a. When temperatures drop below freezing,
condensation of water vapor onto liquid
water does not take place. The water vapor
can, however, build on ice crystals due to
deposition.
b. Electrical currents within thunderstorms
allow the building of water vapor on ice
crystals more rapidly than on liquid water
drops.
c. It is because the vapor pressure of ice is
less than that over water. This produces a
vapor pressure gradient between liquid and
frozen water. This causes water vapor to
move from liquid water drops toward ice
crystals.
d. It is due to the turbulent motion of air.
Condensation rates onto liquid water slow
with increasing windspeed.
28. These clouds have some vertical
development and are located in the upper
levels of the atmosphere. The clouds have a
lumpy appearance and are made of ice
crystals. When viewed from the surface,
each cloud element is about the size of a
thumbnail.
a. Nimbostratus      c. Altostratus
b. Fair weather cumulus      d. Cirrocumulus
29. How can virga cause the atmosphere to
become increasingly unstable?
a. It can release large amounts of latent heat
b. It can cool the mid-levels of the
atmosphere
c. It can cause a warming of the planetary
boundary layer
d. It can cause surface to 500 millibar cold
air advection
30. When the temperature is below freezing
from the surface to 500 millibars, what
precipitation type would you expect?
a. Snow      c. Sleet
b. Rain      d. Freezing rain
Severe Weather Section (31-40)
31. The two weather disasters that result in
the greatest loss of life are:
a. Floods and Lightning      c. Floods and
Hurricanes
b. Hurricanes and Tornadoes     d. Lightning
and Droughts
32. Which of the following is true of a
"capping inversion"?
a. It can prevent thunderstorms from
developing
b. It can enhance thunderstorm activity due
to heat and moisture buildup in the planetary
boundary layer
c. It is a rapid temperature decrease with
height above the planetary boundary layer
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
33. The air behind the forward flank
downdraft associated with strong
thunderstorms consists of
_________________ air while the rear flank
downdraft consists of relatively
__________________ air.
a. hot and dry; cold and moist
b. cool and moist; warm and dry
c. hot and moist; cold and moist
d. cool and dry; warm and moist
34. Which of the following states has the
most frequent and largest hail of the four
choices below? Why?
a. Kansas; many high CAPE days, freezing
levels can be relatively low
b. Florida; large number of thunderstorm
days
c. Michigan; high latitude, lake effect hail,
many summer storms
d. Oregon; orographic lifting, many
thunderstorm days, jet stream
35. Minimum tropical storm force wind is
________________ miles per hour while the
minimum hurricane force wind is
_______________ miles per hour.
a. 50; 100     c. 39; 74
b. 25; 50     d. 44; 69
36. This is a synoptic scale boundary that
separates maritime tropical (mT) air from
continental tropical (cT) air. Dewpoint
changes dramatically from one side of the
boundary to the other. Severe thunderstorms
can occur along this boundary, especially in
Spring and early Summer.
a. Gust front      c. Chinook
b. Outflow boundary     d. Dryline
37. In which direction from a winter mid-
latitude cyclone is heavy snow most likely to
occur? The heaviest snow falls here due to
the best combination of cold air and uplift.
In this part of the cyclone, warm and moist
air isentropically wraps up and over (wrap
around precipitation) cold PBL air.
a. To the southeast
b. To the north
c. To the southwest
d. About a 100 miles south of the low track
38. In MOST cloud to ground lightning
strikes, the ground tends to be
_______________ charged.
a. Positively
b. Negatively
39. Thunder travels at the speed of sound
which is nearest to:
a. 10 miles per hour
b. 5 miles per second
c. 1 mile every 5 seconds
d. 3 * 10^8 meter per second
40. The primary moisture source for severe
thunderstorms in the Great Plains originates
from the:
a. Jet stream
b. Mexican plateau and Rocky Mountains
c. Pacific Ocean
d. Gulf of Mexico
Climatology Section (41-50)
41. Many of the world's desert regions are
located:
a. Just north and south of the equator
b. West coast regions along the Tropics of
Capricorn and Cancer
c. At 60 ° North and 60 ° South
d. On the east coast of most continents
42. The sun is closest to the Earth in
______________, this is known as
______________ and has a ____________
effect on seasons. Assume you are in the
Northern Hemisphere.
a. Summer; Aphelion; large
b. Summer; Perihelion; small
c. Summer; Perihelion; large
d. Winter; Perihelion; small
e. Winter; Aphelion; large
43. Which of the following is a diabatic
process as compared to an adiabatic
process?
a. Convection
b. Orographic lifting
c. Radiational heating or cooling
d. Rising air due to PBL convergence
44. If you stand with your back to the wind
and rotate to the right 30 °, the surface
pressure will be _____________ to your left
than your right.
a. Lower
b. Higher
45. In which location are hurricanes most
likely to develop?
a. In warm tropical waters 10 ° to 25 ° North
and South of equator
b. Along the equator over continental
locations
c. Along the west coast of continents at 35 °
North or South
d. In either the Mediterranean Sea, off the
east coast of South America, or just south of
Australia
46. An "A" climate is characterized as
having:
a. Tropical forest climates and hot all
seasons
b. A dry climate
c. Warm temperate rainy climates with mild
winters
d. Cold forest climates with severe winters
e. Polar climate
47. Climate is a function of:
a. Latitude
b. Altitude
c. Continentality
d. Ocean currents
e. All of the above
48. The mid-latitude winds in the Northern
and Southern Hemispheres flow generally
from which direction?
a. From the east in both hemispheres
b. From the west in both hemispheres
c. From the west in the Northern
Hemisphere and from the east in the
Southern Hemisphere
d. From the east in the Northern Hemisphere
and from the west in the Southern
Hemisphere
49. Which of the following is NOT a high
latitude climate?
a. Polar     c. Tundra
b. Tropical wet and dry      d. Taiga
50. The word MONSOON as it applies to
climatology refers to:
a. Very heavy rain
b. The intensification of the polar jet
c. A seasonal reversal in wind direction and
pressure distribution
d. A cyclone or typhoon with winds over
100 miles per hour
Forecasting section (51-70)
51. The 850 to 700 mb layer thickness can
increase by which of the following
processes?
a. Strong 500 millibar vorticity advection
b. Evaporational cooling between the 850
and 700 mb layer
c. Strong dry air advection into the layer
d. Strong warm air advection into the layer
52. When comparing the moisture content in
the air between two locations it is best to
use?
a. The dewpoint      c. The wet bulb
temperature
b. Relative humidity     d. The dry bulb
temperature
53. Suppose a parcel of air at the surface has
a temperature of 50 ° F with a dewpoint of
30 ° F. As it begins to rain heavily into the
parcel, what is the wet-bulb temperature
most likely to be after complete
evaporational cooling?
a. 55 ° F      c. 37 ° F
b. 43 ° F      d. 32 ° F
54. When forecasting large hail, what are the
primary thermodynamic ingredients to look
for that produce large hail?
a. Vertical wind shear and surface
temperature
b. PBL dewpoint and precipitable water
c. Surface pressure and 500 millibar Lifted
Index
d. Elevation, CAPE and freezing level
55. When forecasting large and damaging
tornadoes, what are the primary
thermodynamic ingredients to look for?
a. PBL direction wind shear, mid-level
moisture, speed shear, CAPE, weak to
moderate cap and PBL moisture
b. Elevation, CAPE, cloud top height, and
surface relative humidity
c. Upward vertical velocities, precipitable
water, unidirectional shear, and PBL
moisture
d. 500 millibar temperature, surface
dewpoint, 700 millibar dewpoint depression,
and lots of sunshine
56. When forecasting snow amounts
associated with winter mid-latitude
cyclones, the most complete list of the
primary synoptic scale ingredients and
forecasting tools for heavy snow are:
a. 500 millibar vorticity, speed and
directional wind shear in the PBL, 700
millibar temperature, 700 millibar dewpoint
depression, and direction low is moving
b. The size of the low, the deepness of the
low, 700 millibar dewpoint, 1000 to 500
millibar thickness, soil temperatures, low
level wind shear, and surface based CAPE
c. The track of the low, intensity of low,
PBL temperatures including 850 millibar
temperature, isentropic lifting, precipitable
water, 1000 to 500 millibar thickness, 500
millibar vorticity, and the speed of low
d. Surface pressure, cloud tops, 500 millibar
temperatures, jet streaks, surface
temperature, elevation, 700 millibar wind
speed, and the temperature gradient across
the cold front
57. Which of the following defines the "low
level jet"?
a. Gust front winds associated with severe
thunderstorms
b. Strong PBL winds in the Great Plains
which rapidly draws warm and moist air
from the Gulf of Mexico
c. It is a polar or subtropical jet stream
which is at an unusually low pressure level
d. It is the contrails produced by jet aircraft
58. Why are thunderstorms less common in
California than Florida?
a. The directional shear is smaller
throughout the year in California
b. Fronts do not move through California
except in the Summer. Florida has fronts
year round.
c. Florida has warmer ocean waters
surrounding it. This results in higher
dewpoints, instability and thus more
thunderstorms.
d. The jet stream is stronger over Florida
59. Which of the following operational
forecast panels is used to analyze vorticity
advection?
a. 850 millibar forecast panel      c. 500
millibar forecast panel
b. 700 millibar forecast panel     d. 300
millibar forecast panel
60. What is vorticity?
a. It is the theoretical value of upward
vertical velocity
b. It is the temperature gradient across a
trough axis
c. It is the air pressure at 700 millibars
d. It is cyclonic or anticyclonic rotation
which can be used to assess upper level
divergence
61. Which type of pressure system is found
in the southwest US in the summertime?
Associated with this pressure system are hot
afternoon temperatures, rising air in the PBL
but very little precipitation and sinking air
aloft.
a. Warm core low     c. Cold core low
b. Warm core high     d. Cold core high
62. You are in New York City for New
Year's and the time has just changed to the
year 2000. What time is it in Zulu (Z) time?
a. 5Z JAN 01 2000
b. 18Z DEC 31 1999
c. 12Z JAN 01 2000
d. 0Z JAN 01 2000
63. Of the following choices, which is
displayed on 700 millibar forecast charts
such as ETA and the NGM?
a. The jet stream
b. 1000 to 500 millibar thickness
c. Upward vertical velocity
d. Forecasted surface temperatures
64. Which of the following is NOT
displayed on the ETA, MRF and NGM
surface pressure chart?
a. Thickness     c. Sea level pressure
b. Relative humidity     d. Forecasted
precipitation total
65. Why do surface afternoon summer
temperatures tend to be warmer in southern
Arizona than Mississippi when both states
are at about the same latitude?
a. Radiational cooling is stronger in
Mississippi; this allows morning
temperatures to be cooler in Mississippi
b. Mississippi is at a higher altitude; Less
dense air stays cooler
c. The wind tends to be stronger in
Mississippi; stronger winds mix cooler high
altitude air to the surface
d. There is more evapotranspiration in
Mississippi; evapotranspiration is a cooling
process that absorbs latent heat
66. Which of the following weather analysis
tools can be used to determine at a quick
glance whether thunderstorms are most
likely to be supercells, multicells, or air
mass thunderstorms?
a. The value of CAPE
b. The 500 and 300 millibar analysis charts
c. The hodograph
d. Meso-ETA forecast panels
67. When is the MOS temperature forecast
most likely to bust?
a. On a sunny day with light wind
b. Near the center of synoptic scale high
pressure
c. In a barotropic environment
d. When a front or mid-latitude cyclone
enters the forecast region
68. When there is a balance between the
upward pressure gradient force and the
downward force of gravity, the atmosphere
is said to be in ______________ balance.
a. Geostrophic     c. Baroclinic
b. Hydrostatic     d. Hypsometric
69. A type B mid-latitude cyclone has its
genesis in the upper levels of the atmosphere
and builds toward the surface. Which of the
following synoptic scale features most
heavily influences the development of type
B cyclones?
a. A large horizontal surface temperature
gradient
b. A convectively unstable atmosphere
(warm and moist air under dry air)
c. Divergence created by meridional flow
within the jet stream
d. Cold fronts, warm fronts and drylines
70. What causes winter mid-latitude
cyclones to intensify rapidly into very deep
cold cored lows as they move from the
central or southern US into the northeastern
US and coastal northeast? They are often
termed Nor'easters.
a. The release of enormous amounts of latent
heat from Atlantic moisture and an
enormous east to west temperature gradient
b. They move further away from high
pressure
c. It is caused by the Appalachian Mountains
d. It is caused by the low becoming
vertically stacked and highly occluded
Satellite and Radar (71-90)
71. On a NEXRAD velocity display, air
moving away from the radar site will most
likely be given a color of:
a. Red
b. Blue
72. As an object emits sound or light and
moves TOWARD you, the frequency of the
sound or radiation will be
_______________ relative to you than the
moving object. This is the Doppler effect.
a. Higher
b. Lower
73. The maximum unambiguous range will
increase if the pulse repetition frequency
of the radar ____________.
a. Increases b. Decreases
74. The maximum unambiguous velocity
will increase if the pulse repetition
frequency of the radar ____________.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
75. This term is defined as a measure of
dispersion of velocities within the radar
sample volume. It can be used to detect a
tornado vortex signature since velocities will
have various directions within a range gate.
a. Rankine vortex     c. Spectrum width
b. Velocity aliasing     d. Vorticity
76. The "bright band" on radar imagery
forms due to:
a. Large hail in a supercell thunderstorm
b. Reflectivity from birds or aircraft
c. Cold air in the mid-levels of the
atmosphere
d. Snow melting before it reaches the
surface
77. Which of the following statements is
FALSE?
a. The azimuth is the compass direction a
hydrometeor is from the radar site
b. A doppler radar detects the actual wind
speed in all directions from the radar
c. The range height indicator can be used to
measure cloud top heights
d. The plan position indicator can to used to
determine how far a hydrometeor is from the
radar site.
78. When the downward bending of radar
waves is stronger than normal, such as in
association with a strong temperature
inversion, it is called ducting or can also be
called _________________.
a. Subrefraction
b. Superrefraction
79. Why does snow tend to have a smaller
overall reflectivity as compared to rain?
a. The snow is more dense and smaller
b. The snow falls at a lower velocity and has
a high albedo
c. The snow has a lower moisture content
and ice generally has a lower reflectivity
d. Snow is colder and does not fall straight
down
80. How can a radar operator best determine
that a storm is "severe"?
a. By studying DbZ values, VILs, Radial
velocities, and radar signatures such as bow
echos
b. By studying accumulated precipitation
maps, hourly surface observations and
Speed/directional wind shear
c. By studying composite reflectivity maps,
the closest 12Z thermodynamic sounding,
and the ETA/NGM models
d. By studying infrared satellite imagery, the
satellite/radar composite, and the MRF
model
81. Cloud texture such as shadows and
lumpiness are best seen on ____________
imagery.
a. Water vapor     c. Ultaviolet
b. Infrared     d. Visible
82. Define V-notch:
a. A fanning of clouds downstream from the
burst point of convective thunderstorms
b. A region of low reflectivity created by an
intense updraft
c. The coldest cloud tops associated with an
MCC
d. The cloud intersection between a warm
front and cold front
83. The dryslot on water vapor imagery,
which usually wraps into a mid-latitude
cyclone from the southwest, is created by
which feature?
a. Warm air advection      c. The jet stream
b. The surface cold front     d. Isentropic
lifting
84. Define parallax:
a. A thin line of convective clouds that
forms along the leading edge of a weakening
cold front
b. The apparent displacement of a cloud due
to the viewing angle of the satellite sensor
c. The point where the sun's most direct rays
strike the Earth
d. The maximum upward displacement of a
wave
85. Coastal upwelling, the Gulf Stream and
cloud top temperatures are best determined
using:
a. Visible imagery     c. Water vapor
imagery
b. Infrared imagery     d. X-ray imagery
86. Which weather phenomena would be
nearly impossible to observe without the aid
of satellite imagery?
a. Location of a mid-latitude cyclone
b. Location of a cold front boundary
c. Location of a MCC
d. Location of a deep ocean hurricane
87. How does "edge definition" differ
between Stratus and Cumulus clouds? This
applies to when these clouds are seen in
person also.
a. Stratus have a low edge definition while
cumulus have a well defined definition
b. Stratus have a high edge definition while
cumulus have a low edge definition
88. The smallest element on a satellite image
is called a(n):
a. Range gate      c. Square
b. Atom      d. Pixel
89. Which imagery uses enhancements to
display important temperature details of
thunderstorms and hurricanes?
a. Visible imagery      c. Water vapor
imagery
b. Infrared imagery      d. Y2K imagery
90. A(n) ___________ surface such as rock
does not allow light to penetrate while a
__________ surface does allow some light
to transmit.
a. Opaque, transluscent
b. Transluscent, Opaque
Miscellaneous meteorology (91-100)
91. Which of the following temperature
scales is a RATIO temperature scale? A
ratio is the most powerful mathematical tool
in statistics.
a. Fahrenheit scale
b. Celsius Scale
c. Kelvin Scale
92. Suppose it is 70 ° F in Dallas and 40 ° F
in Oklahoma City. The distance between
these cities is 150 miles. By using linear
interpolation, what is the likely temperature
50 miles north of Dallas.
a. 60 ° F     c. 45 ° F
b. 50 ° F     d. 55 ° F
93. Which of the following air masses is the
most dense?
a. Cold and moist     c. Warm and moist
b. Cold and dry      d. Warm and dry
94. Thickness values can be used to infer the
strength of:
a. A jet streak
b. Vorticity
c. Low level convergence
d. Thermal advection
95. If a jet streak is on the ____________
side of a trough, the trough will deepen and
become more amplified.
a. Left
b. Right
96. The term "elevated convection" refers to:
a. Slanted convection such as in association
with supercell thunderstorms
b. It is another term for an overshooting top
c. It is convection that has an origin above
the planetary boundary layer
d. Orographically induced precipitation on
windward mountain slopes
97. The numbers 956 next to a station plot at
700 millibars is what value in geopotential
meters? Think of the average 700 millibar
height in geopotential meters before looking
at the choices.
a. 956 millibars     c. 3,956 geopotential
meters
b. 2,956 geopotential meters     d. 9,560
geopotential meters
98. The dewpoint is greater than the
temperature:
a. When the relative humidity is 100%
b. When clouds form
c. When it is raining
d. Never
99. A 100 mile per hour wind is how many
knots?
a. 115 knots     c. 76 knots
b. 146 knots     d. 87 knots
100. A strong developing mid-latitude
cyclone over the United States generally tilts
to the _______________ with height. They
tilt toward the cold air.
a. Northwest      c. Northeast
b. Southwest      d. Southeast
1. D 11. A 21. A 31. A 41. B 51. D 61. A 71. A 81. D 91. C
2. B 12. B 22. B 32. D 42. D 52. A 62. A 72. A 82. A 92. A
3. A 13. C 23. B 33. B 43. C 53. B 63. C 73. B 83. C 93. B
4. B 14. D 24. B 34. A 44. A 54. D 64. B 74. A 84. B 94. D
5. D 15. D 25. D 35. C 45. A 55. A 65. D 75. C 85. B 95. A
6. C 16. D 26. C 36. D 46. A 56. C 66. C 76. D 86. D 96. C
7. A 17. B 27. C 37. B 47. E 57. B 67. D 77. B 87. A 97. B
8. A 18. A 28. D 38. A 48. B 58. C 68. B 78. B 88. D 98. D
9. C 19. C 29. B 39. C 49. B 59. C 69. C 79. C 89. B 99. D
10. B 20. B 30. A 40. D 50. C 60. D 70. A 80. A 90. A 100. A