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Publications: CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021-22 (Term-I)
Publications: CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021-22 (Term-I)
Publications: CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021-22 (Term-I)
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2. Section–A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section–B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section–C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
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6. There is no negative marking.
SECTION–A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions.
In case more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
a
1. Which of the following statements is true : 3. Identify the law which is stated as :
of nitrogen
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(a) Melting point of phosphorous is less than that “For any solution, the partial vapour pressure of
each volatile component in the solution is directly
proportional to its mole fraction.”
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(b) N2 is highly reactive while P4 is inert
(a) Henry’s law (b) Raoult’s law
(c) Nitrogen shows higher tendency of catenation
than P (c) Dalton’s law (d) Gay-Lussac’s law
Pu
Sol. (b) Raoult’s law.
(d) N-N is weaker than P-P
4. Pink colour of LiCl crystals is due to :
Sol. (d) N-N is weaker than P-P
(a) Schottky defect (b) Frenkel defect
Other statements are incorrect as phosphorus has a
(c) Metal excess defect (d) Metal deficiency defect
higher melting point due to bigger size than nitrogen.
Sol. (c) Metal excess defect (formation of F-centres)
Nitrogen is inert due to formation of triple bonds
h
and shows lower tendency of catenation than P. 5. Which of the following isomer has the highest
melting point :
2. Which of the following is a non-stoichiometric
es
(a) 1,2-dichlorobenzene
defect ?
(b) 1,3 -dichlorobenzene
(a) Frenkel defect
(c) 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(b) Schottky defect (d) all isomers have same melting points
in
(c) Metal deficiency defect Sol. (c) 1,4-dichlorbenzene (para isomers are more
(d) Interstitial defect symmetric than ortho and meta isomers).
Sol. (c) metal deficiency defect (anion is missing from 6. Which one of the following reactions is not explained
D
ns
8. Chlorine water loses its yellow colour on standing (c) isotopic (d) isomeric
because : Sol. (a) isotropic (the value of any physical property is
(a) HCl gas is produced, due to the action of same along any direction)
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sunlight. 11. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare
(b) a mixture of HOCl and HCl is produced in the salicylaldehyde ?
presence of light (a) Kolbe’s reaction
(b) Etard reaction
a
(c) HOCl and hydrogen gas is produced
(d) a mixture of HCl and ClO3 is produced, due to (c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
ic
the action of sunlight (d) Stephen’s reduction.
Sol. (b) a mixture of HOCl and HCl is produced in the Sol. (c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction ( Kolbe’s reaction is used
presence of sunlight to prepare salicylic acid, Etard reaction for
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benzaldehyde, Reimer-Tiemann reaction for
Cl2(g) +H2O(l) → HCl(g) +HOCl(aq)
salicylaldehyde and Stephen’s reduction for aldehyde)
9. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating 12. Which of the following is an example of a solid
Pu
with concentrated H2SO4, the initiation step is : solution ?
(a) protonation of alcohol molecule (a) sea water (b) sugar solution
(b) formation of carbocation (c) smoke (d) 22 carat gold
(c) elimination of water Sol. (d) 22 carat gold (it is an alloy so solid in solid
(d) formation of an ester solution)
h
Sol. (a) protonation of alcohol molecule 13. The boiling points of alcohols are higher than those
Step 1 : Formation of protonated alcohol. of hydrocarbons of comparable masses due to :
es
15. Which of the following statement is correct : 20. All elements of Group 15 show allotropy except :
(a) Fibrous proteins are generally soluble in water (a) Nitrogen (b) Arsenic
(b) Albumin is an example of fibrous proteins (c) Antimony (d) Bismuth
(c) In fibrous proteins, the structure is stabilised Sol. (a) Nitrogen (because it has tendency for catenation)
by hydrogen bonds and disulphide bonds
21. Which of the following is a polysaccharide ?
(d) pH does not affect the primary structure of
(a) glucose (b) maltose
protein.
Sol. (d) pH does not affect the primary structure of protein (c) glycogen (d) lactose
(pH affects the secondary and tertiary structure) Sol. (c) glycogen (It is a polymer of glucose)
ns
16. Major product obtained on reaction of 3-Phenyl 22. Substance having the lowest boiling point :
propene with HBr in presence of organic peroxide (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
(a) 3- Phenyl 1- bromopropane (c) Nitrogen (d) Helium
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(b) 1-Phenyl -3- bromopropane
Sol. (d) Helium (He is monoatomic and has small size
(c) 1-Phenyl -2-bromopropane mass)
(d) 3-Phenyl -2- bromopropane 23. Lower molecular mass alcohols are :
Sol. (b) 1-Phenyl-3- bromopropane
a
(a) miscible in limited amount of water
((C6H5) CH2CH = CH2 + HBr (organic peroxide) →
(b) miscible in excess of water
(C6H5) CH2CH2CH2Br anti-Markovnikov addition)
17. Which of the following is a correct statement for
C2H5Br ?
ic (c) miscible in water in all proportions
(d) immiscible in water
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(a) It reacts with metallic Na to give ethane. Sol. (c) miscible in water in all proportions C Lower
(b) It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous molecular mass alcohols are able to form hydrogen
solution of AgNO2 bonds with water)
Pu
(c) It gives C2H5OH on boiling with alcoholic potash. 24. Maximum oxidation state exhibited by chlorine is :
(d) It forms diethylthioether on heating with alcoholic (a) +1 (b) +3
KSH.
(c) +5 (d) +7
Sol. (b) It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous
Sol. (d) +7 (Cl : 1s22s22p63s23p5)
solution of AgNO2 (C2H5Br reacts with metallic
h
Sol. (c) 4 (Covalency of nitrogen is restricted to 4 due to (a) when placed in water containing more than 0.9%
non availability of d orbitals) (mass/ volume) NaCl solution.
19. Solubility of gases in liquids decreases with rise in (b) when placed in water containing less than 0.9%
D
26. How much ethyl alcohol must be added to 1 litre of 30. Phenol does not undergo nucleophilic substitution
water so that the solution will freeze at –14°C ? reaction easily due to :
(Kf for water = 1.86°C/mol) (a) acidic nature of phenol
(a) 7.5 mol (b) 8.5 mol (b) partial double bond character of C-OH bond
(c) 9.5 mol (d) 10.5 mol
ns
(c) partial double bond character of C-C bond
Sol. (a) 7.5 mol
(d) instability of phenoxide ion
∆T f = Kf m
Sol. (b) partial double bond character of C-OH bond.
n2 1000
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31. Which of the following has highest ionisation
∆T f = Kf ×
w1 enthalpy ?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorus
n2 1000
14 = 1.86 × (c) Oxygen (d) Sulphur
1000
a
Sol. (a) Nitrogen (High I.E. of N is because of smallest
n2 = 7.5 mol
size in the group and completely half-filled
27. Which reagents are required for one step conversion
of chlorobenzene to toluene ?
(a) CH3Cl / AlCl3 (b) CH3Cl, Na, Dry ether ic p- subshell)
32. Metal M ions form a ccp structure. Oxide ions
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occupy ½ octahedral and ½ tetrahedral voids. What
(c) CH3Cl/Fe dark (d) NaNO2/ HCl/0–5°C is the formula of the oxide ?
Sol. (b) CH3Cl, Na, Dry ether (Wurtz Fittig reaction) (a) MO (b) MO2
Pu
29. Which one of the following statement is correct of light gives ‘Y’. Thus ‘X’ and ‘Y’are :
about sucrose ? (a) X = benzyl chloride
(a) It can reduce tollen’s reagent however cannot Y = o and p – chlorotoluene
D
ns
(ii) ............... .
(a) linear ,110 pm ; 148 pm
(b) angular, 110 pm ; 148 pm O
(c) linear, 128 pm ; 128 pm
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(d) angular, 128 pm ; 128 pm Glucose penta acetate
Sol. (d) angular, 128 pm ; 128 pm (Ozone is a resonance
hybrid of two equivalent structures) 37. In lake test for Al3+ ions, there is the formation of
coloured ‘floating lake’. It is due to :
a
35. Water retention or puffiness due to high salt intake
occurs due to : (a) Absorption of litmus by [Al(OH)4]–
ic
(a) diffusion (b) Absorption of litmus by Al(OH)3
(b) vapour pressure difference (c) Adsorption of litmus by [Al(OH)4]–
(c) osmosis (d) Adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3
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(d) reverse osmosis Sol. (d) Adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3
Sol. (c) Osmosis In lake test for Al3+ ions, there is the formation of
36. In the following reaction, identify A and B : coloured ‘floating lake’ In lake test for Al3+ ions, there
Pu
B = COOH–(CH2)4–CHO, a 3 × Na
(d) A = OHC–(CHOCOCH3)4–CH2OCOCH3
B = COOH–(CH2)4–COOH 4 58.5
D
ns
> Br2 > F2 > I2. (b) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent as well
as the strongest base among Group 15 hydrides.
(b) H2O > H2S < H2Te < H2Se [ increasing acidic
strength] : incorrect order , correct order is H2O (c) Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent as well
< H2S < H2Se < H2Te as the weakest base among Group 15 hydrides.
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(c) NH 3 < N 2O < NH 2OH < N 2O5 [increasing (d) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent and the
oxidation state ] : incorrect order NH3 (Oxidation weakest base among Group 15 hydrides.
state-3) N 2O (Oxidation state +1) NH 2 OH Sol. (a) Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent and the
(Oxidation state-1) N2O5 (Oxidation state + 5)
a
strongest base among Group 15 hydrides.
40. What would be the reactant and reagent used to obtain The reducing character of hydrides increases down
2, 4–dimethyl pentan-3-ol ?
ic
the group due to decrease in bond dissociation
(a) Propanal and propyl magnesium bromide enthalpy whereas basic strength decreases down
the group.
(b) 3-methylbutanal and 2-methyl magnesium iodide
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43. Identify the secondary alcohols from the following
(c) 2-dimethylpropanone and methyl magnesium
set :
iodide
(i) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
Pu
(d) 2-methylpropanal and isopropyl magnesium
iodide (ii) (C2H5)3COH
Sol. (d) 2- methylpropanal and isopropyl magnesium OH
iodide (iii)
h
OH
CH3
es
(iv)
41. o-hydroxy benzyl alcohol when reacted with PCl3 gives (ii) (C2H5)3COH (tertiary)
the product as (IUPAC name)
OH
(a) o- hydroxy benzyl chloride (iii) Phenol not an alcohol
(b) 2- chloromethylphenol
(c) o-chloromethylchlorobenzene OH
(d) 4-hydroxymethylphenol
CH3
Sol. (b) 2- chloromethylphenol (iv) secondary
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021-22 (Term–I) 7
44. Alkenes decolourise bromine water in presence of Alkyl halides are insoluble in water because they are
CCl4 due to formation of : unable to form hydrogen bonds with water or break
(a) allyl bromide (b) vinyl bromide pre-existing hydrogen bonds.
(c) bromoform (d) vicinal dibromide 47. Given below are two statements labelled as
Sol. (d) vicinal dibromide Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
CH2 = CH2 + Br2 → BrCH2 – CH2Br Assertion (A) : Molarity of a solution changes with
45. Given below are two statements labelled as temperature.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Reason (R) : Molarity is a colligative property.
Assertion (A) : Electron gain enthalpy of Oxygen Select the most appropriate answer from the options
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is less than that of Flourine but greater than Nitrogen. given below :
Reason (R) : Ionisation enthalpies of the elements (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
follow the order : Nitrogen > Oxygen > Fluorine explanation of A
Select the most appropriate answer from the options
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(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
given below : explanation of A.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (c) A is true but R is false.
explanation of A
(d) A is false but R is true.
a
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Sol. (c) A is true but R is false.
explanation of A.
Assertion : Molarity of a solution changes with
ic
(c) A is true but R is false.
temperature. (correct)
(d) A is false but R is true.
Reason : Molarity is a colligative property.
Sol. (c) A is true but R is false.
(incorrect)
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Assertion : Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is less
Molarity is a means to express concentration. It is
than that of Flourine but greater than Nitrogen.
not a colligative property.
(correct)
Pu
48. Given below are two statements labelled as
Reason : Ionisation enthalpies of the elements follow
Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
the order Nitrogen > Oxygen > Fluorine (incorrect)
Ionisation enthalpies of the elements follow the order Assertion (A) : SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is an
Fluorine > Nitrogen > Oxygen oxidising agent.
46. Given below are two statements labelled as Reason (R) : Reducing property of dioxide
decreases from SO2 to TeO2.
h
explanation of A. Sol. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) A is true but R is false. explanation of A
(d) A is false but R is true. Assertion : SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is an
Sol. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct oxidising agent. (correct)
explanation of A. Reason : Reducing property of dioxide
Assertion : Alkyl halides are insoluble in water. decreases from SO2 to TeO2 (correct and reason
(correct) for Assertion)
Reason : Alkyl halides have halogen attached to sp3 Due to increase in inert pair effect down the
hybrid carbon. (correct) group, +4 O.S. becomes more stable.
8 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
49. Given below are two statements labelled as (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) explanation of A.
Assertion (A) : Cryoscopic constant depends on (c) A is true but R is false.
nature of solvent. (d) A is false but R is true
Reason(R ) : Cryoscopic constant is a universal Sol. (c) A is true but R is false.
constant. Assertion : Cryoscopic constant depends on
Select the most appropriate answer from the options nature of solvent. (correct)
given below : Reason : Cryoscopic constant is a universal
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct constant (incorrect)
ns
explanation of A Cryoscopic constant various with type of solvent.
SECTION–C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than
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desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50. Match the following : Carbon : maximum compounds :: Xenon: no
compounds , Xenon forms compounds
I II
a
XeF2 : Linear :: ClF3: Trigonal planar , ClF3 is
(i) Amino acids (A) protein T shaped not trigonal planar
ic
(ii) Thymine (B) Nucleic acid 52. Complete the following analogy :
(iii) Insulin (C) DNA
Same molecular formula but different structures
(iv) Phosphodiester (D) Zwitter ion
bl : A:: Non superimposable mirror images : B
linkage (a) A : Isomers B : Enantiomer
(v) Uracil (b) A : Enantiomers B : Racemic mixture
Pu
ns
that coordination number will be unstable and it will
of cation A+ is 120 pm, calculate the maximum
prefer a lower coordination structure. The table below
possible value of anion B–
gives the ranges of cation/anion radius ratios that give
the best fit for a given coordination geometry. (a) 240 pm (b) 270 pm
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Coordination Geometry ρ = rcation/ranion (c) 280 pm (d) 290 pm
number Sol. (d) 290 pm
2 linear 0 - 0.155 Square planar means ratio ratio is between 0.414 –
a
3 triangular 0.155 - 0.225 0.732
4 tetrahedral 0.225 - 0.414 If radius of cation is 120 pm then anion should be in
4
6
square planar
octahedral
0.414 - 0.732
0.414 - 0.732
ic the range ρ = rcation / ranion
0.414 = 120/ x so x = 289.8 = 290 pm
bl
8 cubic 0.732 - 1.0 0.732 = 120/ x so x = 163.9 = 164 pm
12 cuboctahedral 1.0 55. A “good fit” is considered to be one where the cation
Pu
can touch :
(Source : Ionic Radii and Radius Ratios.
(2021, June 8). Retrieved June 29, 2021, from (a) all of its nearest neighbour anions.
https://chem.libretexts.org/@go/page/183346) (b) most of its nearest neighbour anions.
53. The radius of Ag+
ion is 126 pm and of ion is I– (c) some of its nearest neighbour anions.
216 pm. The coordination number of Ag+ ion is :
(d) none of its nearest neighbour anions.
h
(a) 2 (b) 3
Sol. (a) all of its nearest neighbour anions
(c) 6 (d) 8
es
in
D
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 1
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General Instructions :
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section–A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section–B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
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4. Section–C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.
a
SECTION–A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
ic
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Which of the following statements is not correct for (a) Dichloromethane
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nitrogen ? (b) 1,2-dichloroethane
(a) Its electronegativity is very high. (c) Ethylidene chloride
(b) d-orbitals are available for bonding. (d) Allyl chloride
Pu
(c) Supersaturated solution (a) its smaller size and high electronegativity.
(d) Ideal solution (b) lack of d-orbitals.
D
ns
(a) Kolbe’s reaction fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should
(b) Etard reaction have highest bond dissociation enthalpy ?
(c) Reimer- Tiemann reaction (a) HF
(b) HCl
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(d) Stephen’s reduction
12. Which of the following shows negative deviation (c) HBr
from Raoult’s law ? (d) HI
(a) CHCl3 and acetone 19. In which mode of expression, the concentration
a
(b) C6H6 and C2H5OH of a solution remains independent of temperature ?
(c) C6H6 and C6H5CH3 (a) Molarity
(d) C6H6 and CCl4
13. In alcohols, the oxygen of the –OH group is
ic (b) Molality
(c) Both (a) and (b)
bl
attached to carbon by a : (d) None of these
(a) π-bond 20. Among the 15th group elements, as we move from
(b) σ- bond nitrogen to bismuth, the pentavalency becomes less
Pu
SECTION–B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
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more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids boils at a 32. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic
temperature lower than either of them when : systems; simple cubic, body centred cubic and face
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(a) It is saturated. centred, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in
(b) It does not deviate from Raoult’s law. these systems will be respectively :
(c) It shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law. 1 3 2
(a) a: a: a
(d) It shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law. 2 2 2
a
27. The negative part of the addendum (the molecule (b) a : 3a : 2 a
to be added) adds on the carbon atom of the double 1 3 1
bond containing the least number of hydrogen
atoms. This rule is known as:
(a) Saytzeff’s rule
ic (c)
2
1
a:
4
a:
(d) 2 a : 3a :
2 2
1
a
a
bl
2
(b) Peroxide rule
33. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of
(c) Markovnikov’s rule
FeCl3 gives ‘X’ while the reaction of toluene with
Pu
(d) van’t hoff rule
Cl2 in presence of light gives ‘Y’. Thus ‘X’ and
28. Sulphur molecule is : ‘Y’are :
(a) diatomic (b) triatamic (a) X = benzyl chloride,Y = o and p – chlorotoluene
(c) tetratomic (d) Octaatomic (b) X = m – chlorotoluene, Y = p – chlorotoluene
29. Which of the following statement is incorrect (c) X = o- or p–chlorotoluene, Y =
regarding glucose ?
h
trichloromethylbenzene
(a) It is an aldohexose. (d) X = benzyl chloride, Y = m-chlorotoluene
(b) It is also known as dextrose.
es
(c) p-Bromophenol 35. Due to which reason, O2 gas liberates from the
(d) 2, 4, 6- Tribromophenol blood of tissues of animal bodies ?
31. The correct order of group 16 elements in order (a) less temperature of tissues.
of increasing stability is : (b) partial pressure of oxygen gas is more in
(a) H2S < H2O < H2Te > H2Se tissues.
(b) H2O < H2Te < H2Se < H2S (c) partial pressure of carbon dioxide is less in
(c) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te tissues.
(d) H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O (d) partial pressure of oxygen gas is less in tissues.
4 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
36. Glucose does not react with : Assertion (A) : All halogens are coloured.
(a) NH2OH (b) Conc. HNO3 Reason (R) : Halogens absorb radiations in visible
(c) (CH3CO)2O (d) NaHSO3 region.
Select the most appropriate answer from the
37. Which group elements are known as Chalcogeus
options given below :
(a) Group 15 (b) Group 16
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) Group 17 (d) Group 18 explanation of A.
38. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom ? explanation of A.
ns
(a) 108 pm (b) 127 pm (c) A is true but R is false.
(c) 157 pm (d) 181 pm (d) A is false but R is true.
39. When Cl2 reacts with hot and conc. NaOH , the 46. Given below are two statements labelled as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
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oxidation number of chlorine changes from :
(a) zero to +1 and zero to +5. Assertion (A) : Racemic mixture is optically active.
Reason (R): Racemic mixture is an equimolar
(b) 0 to –1 and 0 to +5.
mixture of dextrorotatory and laevorotatory form.
(c) zero to –1 and zero to +3.
a
Select the most appropriate answer from the
(d) 0 to +1 and 0 to –3. options given below :
40. In the following reaction : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
X is :
Red
C2H5—O—C2H5 + 2HI ¾¾¾ ® 2X + H2O
ic (b)
explanation of A.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
bl
explanation of A.
(a) ethane (b) ethyl iodide (c) A is true but R is false.
(c) butane (d) propane (d) A is false but R is true.
Pu
41. Which of the following cannot be made by using 47. Given below are two statements labelled as
Williamson synthesis ? Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(a) Methoxybenzene Assertion (A) : Osmotic pressure is a colligative
(b) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether property.
Reason (R) : Osmotic pressure is preferred for
(c) tert-butyl methyl ether
the determination of molar mass of
h
44. Which of the following compounds has the highest (d) A is false but R is true.
boiling point ? 48. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) CH3CH2CH2Cl Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(b) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl Assertion (A) : HNO3 makes iron passive.
(c) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl Reason(R) : HNO3 forms a protective layer of
(d) (CH3)3CCl ferric nitrate on the surface of iron.
45. Given below are two statements labelled as Select the most appropriate answer from the
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). options given below :
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 5
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Reason (R) : Solubility of gases in water decreases
explanation of A. with increase in temperature.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Select the most appropriate answer from the
explanation of A. options given below:
(c) A is true but R is false. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(d) A is false but R is true. explanation of A.
49. Given below are two statements labelled as (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). explanation of A.
Assertion (A) : Aquatic animals are more (c) A is true but R is false.
ns
comfortable in cold waters than in warm waters. (d) A is false but R is true.
SECTION–C
tio
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more
than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
a
Column-I Column-II answer the following questions 53-55.
1. DNA (i) normal maintenance of One of the basic problems related to X-ray
2. RNA
optimum growth
(ii) reserve of genetic
information
ic diffraction analysis is the identification of crystal
lattices. It is usually solved by comparing estimated
parameters of analyzed lattice with those of selected
bl
sample. The lattice parameters either previously
3. Vitamins (iii) source of energy
investigated or derived by modeling can be used
4. Carbohydrates (iv) proteins synthesis as samples. Therefore, the accurate identification
Pu
(a) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii) of a crystal lattice requires a large data base of the
preselected sample parameters.
(b) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii)
There are several methods to describe crystal
(c) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii)
lattices. The most widespread method was offered
(d) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii) by Auguste Bravais. Bravais unit cell is
h
51. Bond angle in water is higher than the bond angle characterized by a set of six parameters : lengths
in hydrogen sulphide. This difference is due to : of the three edges a, b and c and values of the
three angles between the edges α, β and γ All
es
lattices ?
sulphur.
(a) 2 (b) 3
(d) difference in hybrid orbitals of oxygen and
sulphur. (c) 4 (d) 1
D
52. Complete the following analogy : 54. By how many parameters, a Bravais unit cell is
characterized ?
Same molecular formula but different structures :
A:: Non superimposable mirror images : B (a) 3 (b) 6
(a) A : Isomers B : Enantiomer (c) 2 (d) 4
(b) A : Enantiomers B : Racemic mixture 55. Number of atoms per unit cell in cubic unit cell ?
(c) A : Sterioisomers B : Retention (a) 2 (b) 1
(d) A : Isomers B: Sterioisomers (c) 4 (d) 3
6 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
SECTION–A
ns
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Covalency of oxygen cannot exceed 4 because : 5. Grignard reagent may be made by reacting
(a) oxygen does not have d orbital. magnesium with :
tio
(a) Methyl amine (b) Diethyl ether
(b) oxygen atom has two unpaired electrons in its
valence shell. (c) Ethyl iodide (d) Ethyl alcohol
(c) oxygen can form double bonds. 6. Which one of the following reactions is not
explained by the open chain structure of glucose ?
a
(d) electrons of oxygen atom cannot be promoted
to d-orbitals due to its small size. (a) formation of pentaacetate of glucose with acetic
anhydride.
2. What type of crystal defect is indicated in the
diagram below ?
(a) Frenkel defect when treated with HI Identify the products formed.
(b) Frenkel and Schottky defect
h
9. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating (a) Longer and weaker (b) Shorter and weaker
with concentrated H2SO4, the initiation step is : (c) Shorter and stronger(d) Longer and stronger
(a) protonation of alcohol molecule. 18. Which of the following does not show allotropy ?
(b) formation of carbocation. (a) nitrogen (b) bismuth
(c) elimination of water. (c) antimony (d) arsenic
(d) formation of an ester. 19. In which condition, Henry’s law is applicable ?
10. The major binding force of diamond is : (a) ideal behaviour of gaseous solute at high
(a) ionic bond (b) covalent bond pressure and low temperature.
ns
(c) dipole-dipole attraction (b) gaseous solute neither associate nor dissociate
(d) induced dipole-dipole attraction in solution.
11. Which of the following compounds of similar (c) gaseous solute react with solvent.
nuclear masses has highest boiling point ? (d) applicable in given all conditions.
tio
(a) Alcohols (b) Aldehydes 20. If chlorine is passed through a solution of hydrogen
(c) Ketones (d) Carboxylic acids sulphide, the solution turns turbid due to the
formation of :
12. Solute + solvent solution; ∆ H > 0 What
mix (a) nascent oxygen (b) free chlorine
a
would be the change in solubility of substance on
(c) free sulphur (d) nascent hydrogen
increasing the temperature at equilibrium ?
21. In which of the following order base, phosphate
ic
(a) increases (b) decreases
and sugar are arranged in the nucleotide of DNA ?
(c) remains constant (d) can’t be predicted
(a) Base-phosphate-sugar
13. The boiling points of alcohols and phenols increase
bl (b) Base-sugar-phosphate
with increase in the number of carbon atoms. This
is due to : (c) Phosphate-base-sugar
(a) Increase in van der Waals’ forces. (d) Sugar-base-phosphate
Pu
(b) Decrease in van der Waals’ forces. 22. In preparation of chlorine from HCl, MnO2 acts as :
(c) Both (a) and (b). (a) oxidizing agent (b) reducing agent
(d) None of these. (c) catalyst (d) dehydration agent
14. When three parts of conc. HCl and one part of 23. Lower molecular mass alcohols are :
conc. HNO3 are mixed a mixture ‘X’ is formed. (a) miscible in limited amount of water.
h
16. Major product obtained on reaction of 3-Phenyl 25. In which of the following cases blood cells will shrink :
propene with HBr in presence of organic peroxide is : (a) when placed in water containing more than
(a) 3- Phenyl 1- bromopropane 0.9% (mass/ volume) NaCl solution.
(b) 1-Phenyl -3- bromopropane (b) when placed in water containing less than 0.9%
(c) 1-Phenyl -2-bromopropane (mass /volume) NaCl solution.
(d) 3-Phenyl -2- bromopropane (c) when placed in water containing 0.9% (mass/
17. C-Cl bond of chlorobenzene in comparison to C-Cl volume) NaCl solution.
bond in methyl chloride is : (d) when placed in distilled water.
8 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
SECTION–B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. Which of the following property indicates weak 34. Which of following noble gas does not have octet
intermolecular forces of attraction in liquids ? of electrons in the valence shell ?
(a) High heat of vapourization. (a) He (b) Rn
(b) High vapour pressure. (c) Ar (d) Ne
(c) High critical temperature. 35. Water retention or puffiness due to high salt intake
ns
(d) High boiling point. occurs due to :
27. Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic (a) diffusion
substitution exclusively by SN1 mechanism ? (b) vapour pressure difference
(a) Benzyl chloride (b) Ethyl chloride
tio
(c) osmosis
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Isopropyl chloride (d) reverse osmosis
28. The high boiling point of HF is attributed by : 36. Nucleic acids are the polymers of :
(a) high reactivity of fluorine. (a) Nucleosides (b) Nucleotides
a
(b) small size of hydrogen atom. (c) Bases (d) Sugars
(c) formation of hydrogen bonds. 37. Which is the most basic agent amongst all the
(d) small size of fluorine.
29. The sugar most abundantly present in honey is :
ic hydrides of group 15 ?
(a) NH3 (b) PH3
bl
(a) Lactose (b) Fructose (c) AsH3 (d) BiH3
(c) Glucose (d) Sucrose 38. Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest
30. Phenol does not undergo nucleophilic substitution neighbour distance 4.52 Å. Its atomic mass is 39.
Pu
(a) HF < HCl < HBr < HI 40. Aldehydes and ketones are reduced to the
corresponding alcohols by addition of hydrogen in
(b) HI < HBr < HCl < HF
the presence of catalysts. The usual catalyst is :
(c) HBr < HCl < HF < HI
(a) Finely divide nickel
(d) HCl < HBr < HF < HI
in
(c) Hydroboration Oxidation reaction (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(d) OsO4 explanation of A.
42. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, (c) A is true but R is false.
colourless fumes are evolved but in case of iodide (d) A is false but R is true.
salt, violet flames come out. This is because : 47. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2. Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(b) HI is of violet colour. Assertion (A) : Molarity is a better concentration
(c) HI gets oxidised to I2. term as compared to molality.
ns
(d) HI changes to HIO3. Reason (R) : Molality of a solution is temperature
43. Catalytic reduction of butanal yields : independent.
(a) Butan-2-ol Select the most appropriate answer from the
(b) Butan-1-ol options given below :
tio
(c) Butan-3-ol (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(d) None of these
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
44. Which of the following is the most reactive towards
explanation of A.
a
nucleophilic substitution reaction ?
(c) A is true but R is false.
(a) ClCH2–CH = CH2
ic
(b) CH2 = CH—Cl (d) A is false but R is true.
(c) CH3CH = CH — Cl 48. Given below are two statements labelled as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(d) C6H6Cl
bl
Assertion (A) : All halogens exhibit-1 oxidation state.
45. Given below are two statements labelled as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Reason(R) : Fluorine is most electronegative
element.
Pu
Assertion (A) : Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen
is less than that of fluorine but greater than Select the most appropriate answer from the
nitrogen. options given below :
Reason (R) : Ionization enthalpies of the elements (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
follow the order Fluorine > Nitrogen > Oxygen explanation of A.
Select the most appropriate answer from the (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
h
50. Which of the following statement is not correct CASE 1 : Read the passage given below and
regarding fructose ? answer the following questions 53-55.
(a) It is a dextrorotatory compound. NaCl is an ionic compound that occurs naturally
as white crystals. It is extracted from the mineral
(b) It exists in two cyclic forms.
form halite or evaporation of seawater. The
(c) It exists as five membered ring. structure of NaCl is formed by repeating the face
ns
(d) It is also named as furanose. centered cubic unit cell. It has 1:1 stoichiometry
51. Match the following : ratio of Na : Cl with a molar mass of 58.4 g/mol.
Compounds with the sodium chloride structure
Column-I Column-II
include alkali halides and metal oxides and
tio
1. XeO3 (i) Square planar transition-metal compounds. An important role to
2. XeOF4 (ii) Linear many important applications is structure and
3. XeF2 (iit) Triangular pyramidal dynamics of water. Some applications include
crystallization of proteins and conformational
4. XeF4 (iv) Square pyramidal
a
behaviour of peptides and nucleic acids.
(a) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(iii) Read the following and answer the following
ic
(b) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i) questions :
53. A salt which is isostructural with sodium chloride
(c) 1(iii), 2(i), 3(ii), 4(iv)
is :
bl
(d) 1(iii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(i)
(a) KCl (b) Nal
52. CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Cl alc.KOH HBr
¾¾¾¾® B ¾¾¾
® C (c) MgO (d) All of these
Pu
Na/ether 54. Sodium chloride is also known as :
¾¾¾¾ ® D
In the above reaction, the product D is : (a) Rock salt (b) Table salt
(a) Propane (c) Sea salt (d) All of these
(b) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane 55. What is the coordination number of constituent ions
in sodium chloride crystal ?
(c) Hexane
h
(a) 3 (b) 6
(d) Allyl bromide
(c) 2 (d) 4
es
in
D
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 11
ns
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Which of the following statement is incorrect for 6. In aqueous solution, an amino acid exist as :
group 15 elements ? (a) cation (b) anion
tio
(a) Order of ionization enthalpies is (c) zwitter ion (d) neutral molecule
ΔiH1 < ΔiH2 < ΔiH3 7. Cyclic alcohols are named using the prefix :
(b) The boiling point and melting point increases (a) Cyclo (b) Hydro
from top to bottom in the group. (c) Meth (d) Eth
a
(c) Dinitrogen is a gas while all others are solids. 8. Which of the following exists as a diatomic
(d) All statements are correct. molecule ?
ic
2. If an atom is present in the centre of the cube, the (a) N (b) P
participation of that atom per unit cell is : (c) As (d) Sb
9. Which of the following is also called carbolic
1
bl
(a) 1 (b) acid ?
4
(a) Alcohol (b) Phenol
1 1 (c) Ether (d) None of these
Pu
(c) (d)
8 2 10. Schottky defects occur mainly in electrovalent
3. Which of the following option is correct for a compounds where :
homogeneous mixture of liquid A and B which (a) Positive ions and negative ions are of different size.
shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law ? (b) Positive ions and negative ions are of similar size.
(a) A-B intermolecular attraction is more than (c) Positive ions are small and negative ions are big.
h
intermolecular attraction A-A and B-B. (d) Positive ions are big and negative ions are small.
(b) A-B intermolecular attraction is less than 11. Which of the following is most acidic ?
es
intermolecular attraction A-A and B-B. (a) Phenol (b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Intermolecular attraction in B-B is less than (c) p-chlorophenol (d) p-cresol
intermolecular attraction A-A. 12. Equimolar solutions in same solvent have :
(d) Intermolecular attraction in A-A is less than (a) Same boiling point but different freezing points.
in
intermolecular attraction B-B. (b) Same freezing points but different boiling
4. Structure of ZnS is : points.
(a) Body centred cubic (c) Same boiling and freezing points.
D
ns
(b) Nature of solvent.
CH3
(i) CH CH2Br (c) Number of solute particles.
CH3 (d) Number of solvent particles.
tio
(ii) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br 20. H2S is more acidic than H2O because :
CH3 (a) oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur.
(iii) H3C C CH3 (b) atomic number of sulphur is higher than
oxygen.
a
Br (c) H—S bond dissociation enthalpy is less as
(a) (ii) < (i) < (iii) (b) (i) < (ii) < (iii) compared to H—O bond.
(c) (iii) < (i) < (ii) (d) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
17. What is ‘A’ in the following reaction ?
ic (d) H—O bond dissociation energy is less also as
compared to H—S bond.
bl
CH2—CH==CH2 21. Which of the following will give positive Fehling’s
solution test ?
+HCl A (a) Proteins (b) Glucose
Pu
(a) Phenol
CH2—CH2—CH2—Cl
es
CH2—CH—CH2
(a) less electronegative and less reactive.
Cl
(iii) (b) more electronegative and less reactive.
D
SECTION–B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. What state does point “S” in the figure indicate ? (a) Sr2+ions (b) Sr+ions
–
(c) Cl ions (d) Both Sr2+ and Cl– ions
P0B 33. Alkyl halides are immiscible in water though they
are polar because :
P0A (a) they react with water to give alcohols.
ns
vapour (b) they cannot form hydrogen bonds with water.
pressure S
(c) C–X bond cannot be broken easily.
(d) they are stable compounds and are not reactive.
34. Ozone is a/an :
tio
(a) linear molecule (b) angular molecule
XB = 0 Mole fraction XB = 1 (c) pyramidal molecule (d) triagonal molecule
XA = 1 XA = 0 35. Molarity is expressed as :
(a) Mole-fraction and partial vapour pressure of
a
(a) mol L–1 (b) g L–1
both the liquids are same.
(c) L mol–1 (d) mol kg–1
(b) Mole-fraction of the both the liquids are same,
ic
but their partial vapour pressures are different. 36. Which of the following reactions of glucose can
be explained only by its cyclic structure ?
(c) Mole-fraction and partial vapour pressures of
both the liquids are different. (a) Glucose forms pentaacetate.
bl
(d) Mole-fraction of both the liquids are different, (b) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an
but their partial pressures are same. oxime.
Pu
27. Which reagents are required for one step (c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with
conversion of chloroethane to butane ? hydroxylamine.
(a) CH3Cl/AlCl3 (b) Na, Dry ether (d) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to gluconic
(c) CH3Cl/Fe dark (d) NaNO2/HCl/0–5°C acid.
28. On complete hydrolysis, XeF6 gives : 37. Which oxide of nitrogen is obtained on heating
(a) XeO3 + 4HF (b) XeO2F2 + HF ammonium nitrate ?
h
(c) XeOF4 + H2 (d) XeO3 + 6HF (a) Nitric oxide (b) Nitrous oxide
29. The function of glucose is to : (c) Nitrogen dioxide (d) Dinitrogentetraoxide
es
(a) Provide energy (b) Promote growth 38. When molten zinc is cooled to solid state it assumes
(c) Prevent diseases (d) None of these hcp structure. Then the number of nearest
neighbours of zinc atom will be :
30. Dehydration of alcohol to ethers is catalysed by :
(a) 4 (b) 6
in
ns
(d) None of these Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
43. Acid-cataylsed hydration of alkenes except ethene Assertion (A): 0.1M of glucose has higher depression
leads to the formation of : in freezing point than 0.1M solution of urea.
(a) primary alcohol. Reason (R) : K f for both glucose and urea
solutions are same.
tio
(b) secondary or tertiary alcohol.
(c) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols. Select the most appropriate answer from the
(d) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols. options given below :
44. Which is the correct increasing order of boiling (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
points of the following compounds ? explanation of A.
a
1-Iodobutane, 1-Bromobutane, 1-Chlorobutane, (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Butane explanation of A.
(a) Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Bromobutane <
1-Iodobutane.
(b) 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-
ic (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
48. Given below are two statements labelled as
bl
Chlorobutane < Butane. Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(c) Butane < 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < Assertion (A) : Chlorine and sulphur dioxide both
1-Chlorobutane. are bleaching agents.
Pu
(d) Butane< 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Iodobutane < Reason (R) : The bleaching action of the respective
1-Bromobutane. compounds is performed due to the process of oxidation.
45. Given below are two statements labelled as Select the most appropriate answer from the
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). options given below :
Assertion (A) : Noble gases have highest ionization (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
enthalpies in their respective periods. explanation of A.
h
Reason (R) : Noble gases have stable electronic (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
configuration. explanation of A.
es
Select the most appropriate answer from the (c) A is true but R is false.
options given below : (d) A is false but R is true.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 49. Given below are two statements labelled as
explanation of A. Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
in
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Assertion (A) : Molarity of a solution changes with
explanation of A. temperature but molality and mole fraction do not.
(c) A is true but R is false. Reason (R) : Volume of a solution changes with
D
SECTION–C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50. A solution of D-glucose in water rotates plane CASE 1 : Read the passage given below and
polarized light : answer the following questions 53-55.
(a) To right (b) To left For a crystalline solid we have tacitly assumed that
(c) To either side (d) None of these perfect order exists throughout the material on an
51. Match the following : atomic scale. However, such an idealized solid does
not exist; all contain large numbers of various
ns
Column–I Column–II defects or imperfections. As a matter of fact, many
of the properties of materials are profoundly
O sensitive to deviations from crystalline perfection;
1. (i) Chlorous acid the influence is not always adverse, and often
H Cl
tio
specific characteristics are deliberately fashioned
O by the introduction of controlled amounts or
O
2. (ii) Chloric acid numbers of particular defects, as detailed in
H Cl succeeding chapters. By ‘crystalline defect’ is
a
meant a lattice irregularity having one or more of
H its dimensions on the order of an atomic diameter.
ic
O Classification of crystalline imperfections is
frequently made according to geometry or
3. Cl (iii) Hypochlorous acid dimensionality of the defect. Several different
bl
O imperfections are discussed in this chapter,
O including point defects (those associated with one
or two atomic positions), linear (or one-
Pu
dimensional) defects, as well as interfacial defects,
or boundaries, which are two-dimensional.
53. The irregularities in the arrangement of constituent
particles around a point is termed as:
4. (iv) Perchloric acid (a) Perfection in crystal
(b) Point defect
h
(b) 1(iv), 2(i), 3(ii), 4(iii) 54. Which of the following factors can give rise to
defect in crystal ?
(c) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(ii)
(a) Dislocation of particles
(d) 1(iii), 2(i), 3(ii), 4(iv)
(b) Stoichiometric disturbance
in
ns
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Ionic radii (in Å) of As3+, Sb3+ and Bi3+ follow 7. In ethers, the four electron pairs, i.e., the two bond
the order : pairs and two lone pairs of electrons on oxygen
(a) As3+ > Sb3+ > Bi3+ are arranged approximately in a:
tio
(b) Sb3+ > Bi3+ >As3+ (a) Pyramidal arrangement
(c) Bi3+ > As3+ > Sb3+ (b) Tetrahedral arrangement
(d) Bi3+ > Sb3+ > As3+ (c) Triagonal pyramidal arrangement
a
2. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of (d) None of these
361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom ? 8. In which of its oxidation state Bi acts as a strong
(a) 108 pm
(c) 157 pm
(b) 127 pm
(d) 181 pm
ic oxidizing agent ?
(a) +3 (b) +5
bl
3. The system that forms maximum boiling (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
azeotrope is : 9. Benzene when sulphonated with _______ to give
(a) carbondisulphide – acetone benzene sulphonic acid.
Pu
13. The high boiling points of alcohols are mainly due 18. At what temperature, both α and β form of sulphur
to the presence of : are stable ?
(a) Intermolecular H-bonding (a) 369°C (b) 369 K
(b) Intramolecular H-bonding (c) 4°C (d) 0°C
(c) Both (a) and (b) 19. The osmotic pressure increases, if :
(a) Temperature is changed.
(d) None of these
(b) Volume of solution is increased.
14. Which one of the following order is correct for
(c) Concentration of solute is decreased.
the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
(d) Concentration of solute is increased.
molecule ?
ns
20. Fluorine differs from rest of the halogens in some
(a) Br2 > I2 > F2 >Cl2 of its properties. This is due to :
(b) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (a) its smaller size and high electronegativity.
(c) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (b) lack of d-orbitals.
tio
(d) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (c) low bond dissociation energy.
15. Each polypeptide in a protein has amino acids linked (d) All of these.
with each other in a specific sequence. This 21. Glucose gives silver mirror test with Tollen’s
sequence of amino acids is said to be : reagent. It shows the presence of :
(a) Acidic group (b) Alcoholic group
a
(a) primary structure of proteins.
(b) secondary structure of proteins. (c) Aldehydic group (d) Ketonic group
22. Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some
ic
(c) tertiary structure of proteins.
properties in common. Which of the following
(d) quaternary structure of proteins.
properties is shown by one and not by other ?
16. In which of the following molecules carbon atom (a) forms acid rain
bl
marked with asterisk (*) is asymmetric ?
(b) is a reducing agent
H D (c) is soluble in water
Pu
(a) (a), (b), (c), (d) (b) (a), (b), (c) (a) 1 (b) 2
es
(c) (b), (c), (d) (d) (a), (c), (d) (c) 3 (d) 4
17. Molecules whose mirror image is non- 25. The movement of solvent molecules from higher
superimposable over them are known as chiral. concentration to lower concentration through
Which of the following molecules is chiral in semipermeable membrane under pressure is
called :
in
nature ?
(a) 2-Bromobutane (b) 1-Bromobutane (a) Osmosis (b) Reverse osmosis
(c) 2-Bromopropane (d) 2-Bromopropan-2-ol (c) Dialysis (d) Diffusion
D
SECTION–B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is : (d) none of these.
(a) an exothermic process. 27. Fittig reaction can be used to prepare :
(b) an endothermic process. (a) toluene (b) acetophenone
(c) either exothermic or endothermic. (c) diphenyl (d) chlorobenzene
18 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
28. Which among the following is most reactive ? 38. The fraction of the total volume occupied by the
(a) I 2 (b) ICl atoms present in a simple cube is :
(c) Cl2 (d) Br2
(a) (b)
29. Monosaccharides usually contain ______ carbon 3 2 4 2
atoms.
(a) 3-10 (b) 1-6 (c) (d)
4 6
(c) 4-10 (d) 5-8 39. HCOOH reacts with concentrated H 2 SO 4 to
30. Among the following, the one which reacts most produce:
readily with ethanol is :
ns
(a) CO (b) CO2
(a) p-Nitrobenzyl bromide
(c) SO2 (d) SO3
(b) p-Chlorobenzyl bromide
40. Strength of acidity is in order :
(c) p-methoxybenzyl bromide
tio
(d) p-methyl benzyl bromide OH OH OH OH
31. Which of the following is not true regarding NO2
interhalogen compounds ?
(a) they are covalent compounds.
a
(b) they are volatile solids or liquids except ClF. CH3 NO2 NO2
(c) they are all paramagnetic in nature. I II III IV
angles ?
(c) 128 pm, 128pm (d) 110 pm, 111 pm
(a) AsH3 (b) SbH3
35. In which mode of expression, the concentration
es
45. Given below are two statements labelled as Select the most appropriate answer from the
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). options given below :
Assertion (A) : At room temperature, oxygen (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
exists as diatomic gas whereas sulphur exists as explanation of A.
solid. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Reason (R) : The catenated oxygen atom chains explanation of A.
are less stable than O = O (c) A is true but R is false.
Select the most appropriate answer from the (d) A is false but R is true.
options given below : 48. Given below are two statements labelled as
ns
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
explanation of A. Assertion (A) : Nitrous oxide may act as oxidizing
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct as well as reducing agent.
explanation of A. Reason (R) : The oxidation number of nitrogen
tio
(c) A is true but R is false. remains same in all compounds.
(d) A is false but R is true. Select the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
46. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
a
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
explanation of A.
Assertion (A) : KCN reacts with methyl chloride
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
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to give methyl isocyanide.
explanation of A.
Reason (R) : CN– is an ambident nucleophile. (c) A is true but R is false.
Select the most appropriate answer from the (d) A is false but R is true.
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options given below : 49. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
explanation of A. Assertion (A) : To avoid bends, the tanks used
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(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct by scuba divers are filled with air diluted with
explanation of A. helium.
(c) A is true but R is false. Reason(R) : Helium is highly soluble in blood at
(d) A is false but R is true. high temperature.
Select the most appropriate answer from the
47. Given below are two statements labelled as
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explanation of A.
positive deviation from Raoult’s law form maximum
boiling azeotrope at a specific composition. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
Reason (R) : Ethanol – water mixture containing
95% ethanol by volume form minimum boiling (c) A is true but R is false.
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desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
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(d) Carbon is found in both crystalline and amorphous
answer the following questions 53-55. forms.
The structure of carbon materials, which is composed 54. Diamond has high strength characteristics in all
of sp2 hybridized atoms, is layered and graphite like; crystallographic directions due to :
these materials are characterized by a strong
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(a) high strength characteristics along the layer plane.
anisotropy of properties : high strength characteristics
along the layer plane and smaller values by an order (b) weak strength characteristics along the normal
of magnitude in the normal direction. Hence, they are direction.
used only as fillers in composites. Diamond (which (c) high strength characteristics along the layer plane
a
consists of sp3 hybridized atoms) has high strength as well as in the normal direction.
characteristics in all crystallographic directions; (d) 3D network structure with strong covalent bonds.
however, diamond based materials have not found
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55. Which of the following properties makes graphite
wide application because of the high cost of synthesis. soft ?
Therefore, the search for new carbon structures with
(a) high strength characteristics along the layer plane.
high strength characteristics in all crystallographic
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directions is a problem of great practical and scientific (b) weak strength characteristics along the normal
importance. Obviously, high strength characteristics can direction.
be provided in the case of 3D bound structures (3D (c) high strength characteristics along the layer plane
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structure) with strong covalent bonds. as well as in the normal direction.
(Reference: ISSN 10637745, Crystallography Reports, (d) high strength characteristics along the layer plane
2011, Vol. 56, No. 1, pp. 101-106. © Pleiades Publishing, as well as in the normal direction.
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D
Mock Test Paper-5
Subject : Chemistry (043)
Class–XII (Term-I)
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions : Same as Mock Test Paper-1.
SECTION–A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
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more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Ammonia can be dried using : 7. Carboxylic acids are reduced to primary alcohols
in excellent yields by :
(a) CaO (b) P4O10
(a) Lithium aluminium hydride
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(c) conc. H2SO4 (d) anhydrous CaCl2
(b) Hydrogen
2. The cubic unit cell of Al (molar mass 27 g mol–1)
has an edge length of 405 pm. Its density is 2.7 g cm–3. (c) Both (a) and (b)
The cubic unit cell is : (d) None of these
a
(a) face centred (b) body centred 8. Which of the following are more covalent for
metals : trihalides or pentahalides ?
(c) primitive (d) edge centred
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(a) trihalides
3. “The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is
(b) pentahalides
directly proportional to the mole fraction of the
gas in the solution.’’ (c) Both are equally covalent
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(a) Raoult’s law (b) Dulong Petit law (d) None of these
9. The IUPAC name of cumene is :
(c) Henry’s law (d) Le-Chatelier’s Principle
(a) Isobutylbenzene (b) Isopropylbenzene
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4. Due to Frenkel defect the density of ionic solid :
(c) Methylbenzene (d) None of these
(a) increases (b) decreases
10. The solid solution of CdCl2 and AgCl is the example
(c) remains same (d) fluctuates
of :
5. The correct order of reactivity of following alcohols
(a) Point defect (b) Impurity defect
with Na is :
(c) Interstitial defect (d) Both (a) and (b)
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(A) CH3CH2—CH2—OH
11. The reaction between ethanol and methyl
(B) CH3CH2 CH OH magnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will
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yield :
CH3
(a) secondary butyl alcohol
CH3 (b) tertiary butyl alcohol
(c) isobutyl alcohol
C
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(C) CH3CH2 OH
(d) isopropyl alcohol
CH3 12. Molecular weight of biomolecules such as protein
can be determined by ______ method.
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(a) (A) > (B) > (C) (b) (C) > (B) > (A)
(a) Osmotic pressure measurement.
(c) (B) > (A) > (C) (d) (A) > (C) > (B)
(b) Depression in freezing point measurement.
6. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides
(c) Elevation in boiling point measurement.
together by phosphodiester linkage. Between which
carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are (d) Vapour pressure measurement.
these linkages present ? 13. In the reaction of phenol with CHCl3 and aqueous
(a) 5′ and 3′ (b) 1′ and 5′ NaOH at 343 K, the product formed is :
(a) Salicylic acid (b) Aspirin
(c) 5′ and 5′ (d) 3′ and 3′
(c) Crotonic acid (d) Salicylaldehyde
21
22 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
14. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to : (b) Saturated solution of KCl.
(a) reduction (b) oxidation (c) Saturated solution of 1:1 mixture of NaCl and
(c) hydrolysis (d) acidic nature KCl.
15. Which of the following reactions of glucose can (d) Normal solution of NaCl.
be explained only by its cyclic structure ? 20. Chlorine is used in water for :
(a) Glucose forms pentaacetate. (a) killing germs (b) prevention of pollution
(b) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an (c) cleansing (d) removing dirt
oxime. 21. The symbol D and L represents :
(c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with (a) The optical activity of a compound.
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hydroxylamine. (b) The relative configuration of a particular
(d) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to gluconic isomer.
acid. (c) The dextrorotatory nature of the molecule.
16. Alkylhalides + Mg → (G)
H 2O
→ Propane (d) The leavorotatory nature of the molecule.
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Boil
22. When copper is heated with conc. HNO 3 , it
The alkyl halide is : produces :
(a) Ethyl bromide (b) n-propyl iodide (a) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2
(c) isopropyl iodine (d) both (b) and (c) (b) Cu(NO3)2 and NO
a
17. Which of the following carbon atoms present in (c) Cu(NO3)2, NO2 and NO
the molecule given below are asymmetric ?
(d) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
HO
C
a
OH
C
b
H
C
c d
C
O
SECTION–B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
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more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. If 18 g of glucose is present in 1000 g of solvent, 30. tert-Butyl methyl ether on heating with HI gives a
the solution is said to be : mixture of :
(a) 1.0 molar (b) 0.1 molal (a) tert-Butyl alcohol and methyl iodide.
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(c) 0.1 molar (d) 1.0 molal (b) tert-Butyl iodide and methanol.
27. Alkyl halides gives which of the following reaction ? (c) Isobutylene and methyl iodide.
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(a) addition reaction (b) substitution reaction (d) Isobutylene and methanol.
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these 31. The most abundant noble gas in atmosphere is :
28. Which of the following is non-reducing ? (a) Helium (b) neon
(a) H2S (b) H2Se (c) argon (d) krypton
(c) H2Te (d) H2O 32. In face centred cubic unit cell, the edge length is :
29. A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed further 4r 4r
(a) (b)
into smaller units is called : 3 2
(a) Monosaccharides (b) Disaccharides 3r
(c) 2r (d)
(c) Trisaccharides (d) Polysaccharides 2
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 23
33. Which of the following compounds can yield only (c) methyl iodide and magnesium (Grignard
one monochlorinated product upon free radical reagent)
chlorination ? (d) methyl bromide and aluminium bromide
(a) n-Pentane (b) Isopentane 44. Bromination of methane in presence of sunlight
(c) Neopentane (d) All the above is a :
34. The noble gas which is most soluble in water is : (a) nucleophilic substitution
(a) xenon (b) argon (b) free radical substitution
(c) neon (d) helium (c) electrophilic substitution
35. The mass of solute is expressed as 116 ppm. The (d) nucleophilic addition
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mass percentage of solute is : 45. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) 11.6 (b) 0.116 Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(c) 1.16 (d) 0.0116 Assertion (A) : Xenon form fluorides.
36. Fructose is : Reason(R) : 5d orbitals are available for valence
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(a) Hemiacetal (b) Acetal shell expansion.
(c) Hemiketal (d) Ketal Select the most appropriate answer from the
37. Helium is preferred to be used in balloons instead options given below :
of hydrogen because it is : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
a
(a) incombustible explanation of A.
(b) lighter than hydrogen (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
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(c) more abundant than hydrogen explanation of A.
(d) non polarizable (c) A is true but R is false.
38. Percentage of free space in a body-centred cubic (d) A is false but R is true.
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unit cell is : 46. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) 32 % (b) 34% Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : tert-Butyl bromide undergoes Wurtz
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(c) 28% (d) 30%
reaction to give 2, 2, 3, 3- tetramethylbutane.
39. Which oxide of nitrogen forms dimer ?
Reason (R) : In Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides react
(a) N2O5 (b) NO2
with sodium in dry ether to give hydrocarbon
(c) NO (d) N2O
containing double the number of carbon atoms
40. Cyclohexene is best prepared from cyclohexanol present in the halide.
by which of the following ?
Select the most appropriate answer from the
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(a) (b)
CH3 (d) A is false but R is true.
NO2
OH 47. Given below are two statements labelled as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
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Assertion (A) : Dioxygen is paramagnetic in Select the most appropriate answer from the
nature. options given below :
Reason (R) : Oxygen is found in free state only. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Select the most appropriate answer from the explanation of A.
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options given below : (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
a
SECTION–C
This section consists of 6multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any5. In case more than
ic
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
anhydride
index of quartz is different from quartz glass.
(a) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i) 53. The chemical formula of quartz glass is :
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(a) nitrogen has the ability to form bonds with same value along different directions. Solid is :
itself. (a) anisotropic (b) isotropic
(b) bismuth form metallic bonds in elemental state.
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41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (b)
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1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (d)
a
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (b)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (b)
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41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b)
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
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21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b)