Publications: CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021-22 (Term-I)

You might also like

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 34

CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021-22 (Term–I) 1

CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021-22 (Term-I)


Chemistry (Fully Solved)
Class-XII
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions :
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.

ns
2. Section–A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section–B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section–C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.

tio
6. There is no negative marking.
SECTION–A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions.
In case more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

a
1. Which of the following statements is true : 3. Identify the law which is stated as :

of nitrogen
ic
(a) Melting point of phosphorous is less than that “For any solution, the partial vapour pressure of
each volatile component in the solution is directly
proportional to its mole fraction.”
bl
(b) N2 is highly reactive while P4 is inert
(a) Henry’s law (b) Raoult’s law
(c) Nitrogen shows higher tendency of catenation
than P (c) Dalton’s law (d) Gay-Lussac’s law
Pu
Sol. (b) Raoult’s law.
(d) N-N is weaker than P-P
4. Pink colour of LiCl crystals is due to :
Sol. (d) N-N is weaker than P-P
(a) Schottky defect (b) Frenkel defect
Other statements are incorrect as phosphorus has a
(c) Metal excess defect (d) Metal deficiency defect
higher melting point due to bigger size than nitrogen.
Sol. (c) Metal excess defect (formation of F-centres)
Nitrogen is inert due to formation of triple bonds
h

and shows lower tendency of catenation than P. 5. Which of the following isomer has the highest
melting point :
2. Which of the following is a non-stoichiometric
es

(a) 1,2-dichlorobenzene
defect ?
(b) 1,3 -dichlorobenzene
(a) Frenkel defect
(c) 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(b) Schottky defect (d) all isomers have same melting points
in

(c) Metal deficiency defect Sol. (c) 1,4-dichlorbenzene (para isomers are more
(d) Interstitial defect symmetric than ortho and meta isomers).
Sol. (c) metal deficiency defect (anion is missing from 6. Which one of the following reactions is not explained
D

lattice site) by the open chain structure of glucose ?


In Frenkel defect the smaller ion occupies the (a) Formation of pentaacetate of glucose with acetic
interstitial sites and Schottky defect equal number anhydride.
of cations and anions are missing. Interstitial defect (b) Formation of addition product with 2,4 DNP
an atom or molecule occupies intestinal sites so in reagent
these three defects the ratio of positive and negative (c) Silver mirror formation with Tollens′ reagent
ions (Stoichiometric) of a solid is not disturbed in (d) Existence of alpha and beta forms of glucose.
these three. Sol. (d) Existence of alpha and beta forms of glucose.
1
2 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
7. Williamson’s synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether Step 3 : Formation of ethene by elimination of
is an : proton.
(a) SN1 reaction H H
H H
(b) Elimination reaction
H – C – C+ C=C + H+
(c) SN2 reaction H H
H H Ethene
(d) Nucleophilic addition reaction
Sol. (c) SN2 reaction (alkoxide ion reacts with primary 10. Amorphous solids are :
alkyl halide in a single step to form ether). (a) isotropic (b) anisotropic

ns
8. Chlorine water loses its yellow colour on standing (c) isotopic (d) isomeric
because : Sol. (a) isotropic (the value of any physical property is
(a) HCl gas is produced, due to the action of same along any direction)

tio
sunlight. 11. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare
(b) a mixture of HOCl and HCl is produced in the salicylaldehyde ?
presence of light (a) Kolbe’s reaction
(b) Etard reaction

a
(c) HOCl and hydrogen gas is produced
(d) a mixture of HCl and ClO3 is produced, due to (c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

ic
the action of sunlight (d) Stephen’s reduction.
Sol. (b) a mixture of HOCl and HCl is produced in the Sol. (c) Reimer-Tiemann reaction ( Kolbe’s reaction is used
presence of sunlight to prepare salicylic acid, Etard reaction for
bl
benzaldehyde, Reimer-Tiemann reaction for
Cl2(g) +H2O(l) → HCl(g) +HOCl(aq)
salicylaldehyde and Stephen’s reduction for aldehyde)
9. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating 12. Which of the following is an example of a solid
Pu
with concentrated H2SO4, the initiation step is : solution ?
(a) protonation of alcohol molecule (a) sea water (b) sugar solution
(b) formation of carbocation (c) smoke (d) 22 carat gold
(c) elimination of water Sol. (d) 22 carat gold (it is an alloy so solid in solid
(d) formation of an ester solution)
h

Sol. (a) protonation of alcohol molecule 13. The boiling points of alcohols are higher than those
Step 1 : Formation of protonated alcohol. of hydrocarbons of comparable masses due to :
es

(a) Hydrogen bonding


H H H H H
Fast
(b) Ion-dipole interaction
H – C – C – O – H + H+ H – C – C – O+ – H (c) Dipole-dipole interaction
in

H H H H (d) Van der Waal’s forces.


Ethanol Protonated alcohol
(Ethyl oxonium ion) Sol. (a) Hydrogen bonding (alcohols form intermolecular
hydrogen bonds)
D

Step 2 : Formation of carbocation : It is the slowest


14. Which of the following has the lowest boiling
step and hence, the rate determining step of the
point ?
reaction.
(a) H2O (b) H2S
H H H H H
(c) H2Se (d) H2Te
+ Slow +
H–C–C–O –H H – C – C + H2O Sol. (b) H2S (boiling point increases down the group but
H H H H water forms strong hydrogen bonds so has higher
boiling point than H2S)
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021-22 (Term–I) 3

15. Which of the following statement is correct : 20. All elements of Group 15 show allotropy except :
(a) Fibrous proteins are generally soluble in water (a) Nitrogen (b) Arsenic
(b) Albumin is an example of fibrous proteins (c) Antimony (d) Bismuth
(c) In fibrous proteins, the structure is stabilised Sol. (a) Nitrogen (because it has tendency for catenation)
by hydrogen bonds and disulphide bonds
21. Which of the following is a polysaccharide ?
(d) pH does not affect the primary structure of
(a) glucose (b) maltose
protein.
Sol. (d) pH does not affect the primary structure of protein (c) glycogen (d) lactose
(pH affects the secondary and tertiary structure) Sol. (c) glycogen (It is a polymer of glucose)

ns
16. Major product obtained on reaction of 3-Phenyl 22. Substance having the lowest boiling point :
propene with HBr in presence of organic peroxide (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
(a) 3- Phenyl 1- bromopropane (c) Nitrogen (d) Helium

tio
(b) 1-Phenyl -3- bromopropane
Sol. (d) Helium (He is monoatomic and has small size
(c) 1-Phenyl -2-bromopropane mass)
(d) 3-Phenyl -2- bromopropane 23. Lower molecular mass alcohols are :
Sol. (b) 1-Phenyl-3- bromopropane

a
(a) miscible in limited amount of water
((C6H5) CH2CH = CH2 + HBr (organic peroxide) →
(b) miscible in excess of water
(C6H5) CH2CH2CH2Br anti-Markovnikov addition)
17. Which of the following is a correct statement for
C2H5Br ?
ic (c) miscible in water in all proportions
(d) immiscible in water
bl
(a) It reacts with metallic Na to give ethane. Sol. (c) miscible in water in all proportions C Lower
(b) It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous molecular mass alcohols are able to form hydrogen
solution of AgNO2 bonds with water)
Pu

(c) It gives C2H5OH on boiling with alcoholic potash. 24. Maximum oxidation state exhibited by chlorine is :
(d) It forms diethylthioether on heating with alcoholic (a) +1 (b) +3
KSH.
(c) +5 (d) +7
Sol. (b) It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous
Sol. (d) +7 (Cl : 1s22s22p63s23p5)
solution of AgNO2 (C2H5Br reacts with metallic
h

Na to give butane , gives ethene on boiling with


III ES
alcoholic potash. and forms C2H5SH (thiol) on
ns1 np3 nd3
es

heating with alcoholic KSH)


(7 Paired electrons account for +7 oxidation state)
18. Covalency of nitrogen is restricted to :
(a) 2 (b) 3 25. In which of the following cases blood cells will
shrink ?
(c) 4 (d) 5
in

Sol. (c) 4 (Covalency of nitrogen is restricted to 4 due to (a) when placed in water containing more than 0.9%
non availability of d orbitals) (mass/ volume) NaCl solution.
19. Solubility of gases in liquids decreases with rise in (b) when placed in water containing less than 0.9%
D

temperature because dissolution is an : (mass /volume) NaCl solution.


(a) endothermic and reversible process (c) when placed in water containing 0.9%
(b) exothermic and reversible process (mass/volume) NaCl solution.
(c) endothermic and irreversible process
(d) when placed in distilled water.
(d) exothermic and irreversible process
Sol. (b) exothermic and reversible process (according to Sol. (a) When placed in water containing more than 0.9%
Le-Chatlier principle, solubility of gases in liquids (mass/ volume) NaCl solution because fluid inside
decreases with rise in temperature) blood cells is isotonic with 0.9% NaCl solution.
4 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
SECTION–B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

26. How much ethyl alcohol must be added to 1 litre of 30. Phenol does not undergo nucleophilic substitution
water so that the solution will freeze at –14°C ? reaction easily due to :
(Kf for water = 1.86°C/mol) (a) acidic nature of phenol
(a) 7.5 mol (b) 8.5 mol (b) partial double bond character of C-OH bond
(c) 9.5 mol (d) 10.5 mol

ns
(c) partial double bond character of C-C bond
Sol. (a) 7.5 mol
(d) instability of phenoxide ion
∆T f = Kf m
Sol. (b) partial double bond character of C-OH bond.
n2 1000

tio
31. Which of the following has highest ionisation
∆T f = Kf ×
w1 enthalpy ?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorus
n2 1000
14 = 1.86 × (c) Oxygen (d) Sulphur
1000

a
Sol. (a) Nitrogen (High I.E. of N is because of smallest
n2 = 7.5 mol
size in the group and completely half-filled
27. Which reagents are required for one step conversion
of chlorobenzene to toluene ?
(a) CH3Cl / AlCl3 (b) CH3Cl, Na, Dry ether ic p- subshell)
32. Metal M ions form a ccp structure. Oxide ions
bl
occupy ½ octahedral and ½ tetrahedral voids. What
(c) CH3Cl/Fe dark (d) NaNO2/ HCl/0–5°C is the formula of the oxide ?
Sol. (b) CH3Cl, Na, Dry ether (Wurtz Fittig reaction) (a) MO (b) MO2
Pu

Cl CH3 (c) MO3 (d) M2O3


ether
+ Na + CH3Cl Sol. (d) M2O3
Metal M ions form ccp structure. Let number of ions
of M be : X
Chlorobenzene Toluene
No. of tetrahedral voids = 2x
h

28. On partial hydrolysis, XeF6 gives :


No. of octahedral voids = x
(a) XeO3 + 4HF (b) XeO2F + HF
Number of oxide ions will be 1/2 x + ½ (2x) = 3/2 x
es

(c) XeOF4 + H2 (d) XeO2F2 + 4HF


Formula of oxide = MxO3/2 x = M2O3
Sol. (d) XeO2F2 + 4HF
33. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3
XeF4 + H2O → XeO2F2 + 4HF gives ‘X’ while that of toluene with Cl2 in presence
in

29. Which one of the following statement is correct of light gives ‘Y’. Thus ‘X’ and ‘Y’are :
about sucrose ? (a) X = benzyl chloride
(a) It can reduce tollen’s reagent however cannot Y = o and p – chlorotoluene
D

reduce Fehling’s reagent (b) X = m – chlorotoluene


(b) It undergoes mutarotation like glucose and Y = p – chlorotoluene
fructose (c) X = o and p–chlorotoluene
(c) It undergoes inversion in the configuration on Y = trichloromethylbenzene
hydrolysis (d) X = benzyl chloride,
(d) It is laevorotatory in nature. Y = m-chlorotoluene
Sol. (c) It undergoes inversion in the configuration on Sol. (c) X = o and p–chlorotoluene Y = trichloromethyl-
hydrolysis. benzene
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021-22 (Term–I) 5

The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3


gives ‘X’ due to electrophilic substitution reaction CHO
taking place at ortho and para positions and reaction
in the presence of light gives ‘Y’, due to substitution Acetic anhydride
reaction occurring via free radical mechanism.
Thus ‘X’ and ‘Y’are X = o and p–chlorotoluene Glucose
Y = trichloromethylbenzene
34. Ozone is a/an .............. molecule and the two CHO
O-O bond lengths in ozone are (i) ............ and

ns
(ii) ............... .
(a) linear ,110 pm ; 148 pm
(b) angular, 110 pm ; 148 pm O
(c) linear, 128 pm ; 128 pm

tio
(d) angular, 128 pm ; 128 pm Glucose penta acetate
Sol. (d) angular, 128 pm ; 128 pm (Ozone is a resonance
hybrid of two equivalent structures) 37. In lake test for Al3+ ions, there is the formation of
coloured ‘floating lake’. It is due to :

a
35. Water retention or puffiness due to high salt intake
occurs due to : (a) Absorption of litmus by [Al(OH)4]–

ic
(a) diffusion (b) Absorption of litmus by Al(OH)3
(b) vapour pressure difference (c) Adsorption of litmus by [Al(OH)4]–
(c) osmosis (d) Adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3
bl
(d) reverse osmosis Sol. (d) Adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3
Sol. (c) Osmosis In lake test for Al3+ ions, there is the formation of
36. In the following reaction, identify A and B : coloured ‘floating lake’ In lake test for Al3+ ions, there
Pu

Acetic anhydride is the formation of coloured ‘floating lake’ due to


C6H12O6 A
adsorption.
Conc. nitric acid 38. A unit cell of NaCl has 4 formula units. Its edge length
is 0.50 nm. Calculate the density if molar mass of
NaCl = 58.5 g/mol.
B
h

(a) A = COOH–(CH2)4 –COOH, (a) 1 g/cm3 (b) 2 g/cm3


B = OHC–(CHOCOCH3)4–CH2OCOCH3 (c) 3 g/cm3 (d) 4g/cm3
es

(b) A = COOH-(CH2)4–CHO, Sol. (c) 3 g/cm3


B = OHC-(CHOCOCH3)4–CH2OCOCH3 Using formula
(c) A = OHC-(CHOCOCH3)3–CH2OCOCH3 Z× M
Density =
in

B = COOH–(CH2)4–CHO, a 3 × Na
(d) A = OHC–(CHOCOCH3)4–CH2OCOCH3
B = COOH–(CH2)4–COOH 4 58.5
D

D = (0.5 10 7 )3 6.023 1023


Sol. (d) A = OHC – (CHOCOCH3)4–CH2OCOCH3
B = COOH – (CH2)4 – COOH = 3.1 g/cm3
39. Which one of the following are correctly arranged
CHO COOH
on the basis of the property indicated ?
(a) I2< Br2 < F2< Cl2
[increasing bond dissociation enthalpy]
(b) H2O > H2S < H2Te < H2Se
Glucose Saccharic acid [increasing acidic strength]
6 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
(c) NH3 < N2O< NH2OH < N2O5
CH2OH CH2Cl
[increasing oxidation state] OH OH
(d) BiH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3 < NH3
[increasing bond angle]
Sol. (d) BiH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3 < NH3 [increasing 42. Which of the following statements is true ?
bond angle] correct order
(a) Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent and the
(a) I2 < Br2 < F2 < Cl2 [ increasing bond dissociation
strongest base among Group 15 hydrides.
enthalpy] : incorrect order , correct order is Cl2

ns
> Br2 > F2 > I2. (b) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent as well
as the strongest base among Group 15 hydrides.
(b) H2O > H2S < H2Te < H2Se [ increasing acidic
strength] : incorrect order , correct order is H2O (c) Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent as well
< H2S < H2Se < H2Te as the weakest base among Group 15 hydrides.

tio
(c) NH 3 < N 2O < NH 2OH < N 2O5 [increasing (d) Ammonia is the strongest reducing agent and the
oxidation state ] : incorrect order NH3 (Oxidation weakest base among Group 15 hydrides.
state-3) N 2O (Oxidation state +1) NH 2 OH Sol. (a) Ammonia is the weakest reducing agent and the
(Oxidation state-1) N2O5 (Oxidation state + 5)

a
strongest base among Group 15 hydrides.
40. What would be the reactant and reagent used to obtain The reducing character of hydrides increases down
2, 4–dimethyl pentan-3-ol ?

ic
the group due to decrease in bond dissociation
(a) Propanal and propyl magnesium bromide enthalpy whereas basic strength decreases down
the group.
(b) 3-methylbutanal and 2-methyl magnesium iodide
bl
43. Identify the secondary alcohols from the following
(c) 2-dimethylpropanone and methyl magnesium
set :
iodide
(i) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
Pu
(d) 2-methylpropanal and isopropyl magnesium
iodide (ii) (C2H5)3COH
Sol. (d) 2- methylpropanal and isopropyl magnesium OH
iodide (iii)
h

OH
CH3
es

(iv)

(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)


(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
in

Sol. (a) (i) and (iv)


(i) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 (secondary)
D

41. o-hydroxy benzyl alcohol when reacted with PCl3 gives (ii) (C2H5)3COH (tertiary)
the product as (IUPAC name)
OH
(a) o- hydroxy benzyl chloride (iii) Phenol not an alcohol
(b) 2- chloromethylphenol
(c) o-chloromethylchlorobenzene OH
(d) 4-hydroxymethylphenol
CH3
Sol. (b) 2- chloromethylphenol (iv) secondary
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021-22 (Term–I) 7

44. Alkenes decolourise bromine water in presence of Alkyl halides are insoluble in water because they are
CCl4 due to formation of : unable to form hydrogen bonds with water or break
(a) allyl bromide (b) vinyl bromide pre-existing hydrogen bonds.
(c) bromoform (d) vicinal dibromide 47. Given below are two statements labelled as
Sol. (d) vicinal dibromide Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
CH2 = CH2 + Br2 → BrCH2 – CH2Br Assertion (A) : Molarity of a solution changes with
45. Given below are two statements labelled as temperature.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Reason (R) : Molarity is a colligative property.
Assertion (A) : Electron gain enthalpy of Oxygen Select the most appropriate answer from the options

ns
is less than that of Flourine but greater than Nitrogen. given below :
Reason (R) : Ionisation enthalpies of the elements (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
follow the order : Nitrogen > Oxygen > Fluorine explanation of A
Select the most appropriate answer from the options

tio
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
given below : explanation of A.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (c) A is true but R is false.
explanation of A
(d) A is false but R is true.

a
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Sol. (c) A is true but R is false.
explanation of A.
Assertion : Molarity of a solution changes with

ic
(c) A is true but R is false.
temperature. (correct)
(d) A is false but R is true.
Reason : Molarity is a colligative property.
Sol. (c) A is true but R is false.
(incorrect)
bl
Assertion : Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is less
Molarity is a means to express concentration. It is
than that of Flourine but greater than Nitrogen.
not a colligative property.
(correct)
Pu
48. Given below are two statements labelled as
Reason : Ionisation enthalpies of the elements follow
Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
the order Nitrogen > Oxygen > Fluorine (incorrect)
Ionisation enthalpies of the elements follow the order Assertion (A) : SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is an
Fluorine > Nitrogen > Oxygen oxidising agent.
46. Given below are two statements labelled as Reason (R) : Reducing property of dioxide
decreases from SO2 to TeO2.
h

Assertion (A) and Reason (R)


Assertion (A) : Alkyl halides are insoluble in water. Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
es

Reason (R) : Alkyl halides have halogen attached


to sp3 hybrid carbon. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Select the most appropriate answer from the options explanation of A
given below : (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
in

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct


explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (d) A is false but R is true.
D

explanation of A. Sol. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) A is true but R is false. explanation of A
(d) A is false but R is true. Assertion : SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is an
Sol. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct oxidising agent. (correct)
explanation of A. Reason : Reducing property of dioxide
Assertion : Alkyl halides are insoluble in water. decreases from SO2 to TeO2 (correct and reason
(correct) for Assertion)
Reason : Alkyl halides have halogen attached to sp3 Due to increase in inert pair effect down the
hybrid carbon. (correct) group, +4 O.S. becomes more stable.
8 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
49. Given below are two statements labelled as (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) explanation of A.
Assertion (A) : Cryoscopic constant depends on (c) A is true but R is false.
nature of solvent. (d) A is false but R is true
Reason(R ) : Cryoscopic constant is a universal Sol. (c) A is true but R is false.
constant. Assertion : Cryoscopic constant depends on
Select the most appropriate answer from the options nature of solvent. (correct)
given below : Reason : Cryoscopic constant is a universal
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct constant (incorrect)

ns
explanation of A Cryoscopic constant various with type of solvent.

SECTION–C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than

tio
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50. Match the following : Carbon : maximum compounds :: Xenon: no
compounds , Xenon forms compounds
I II

a
XeF2 : Linear :: ClF3: Trigonal planar , ClF3 is
(i) Amino acids (A) protein T shaped not trigonal planar

ic
(ii) Thymine (B) Nucleic acid 52. Complete the following analogy :
(iii) Insulin (C) DNA
Same molecular formula but different structures
(iv) Phosphodiester (D) Zwitter ion
bl : A:: Non superimposable mirror images : B
linkage (a) A : Isomers B : Enantiomer
(v) Uracil (b) A : Enantiomers B : Racemic mixture
Pu

Which of the following is the best matched (c) A : Stereoisomers B : Retention


options ? (d) A : Isomers B: Stereoisomers
(a) (i)-A, (v)- D, (iii)- C, (iv)-B
Sol. (a) A : Isomers B: Enantiomer
(b) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)- A, (iv)-B
(c) (i)-D, (v)- D, (iii)- A, (iv)-B Isomers have Same molecular formula but different
structure
h

(d) (i)-A, (ii)- C, (iii)- D, (iv)-B


Sol. (b) (i)-D, (ii)-C, (iii)- A, (iv)-B Enantiomers are Non superimposable mirror images
Amino acids form proteins and exist as zwitter ion ,
es

CASE 1 : Read the passage given below and answer


Thymine is a nitrogenous base in DNA, Insulin is a the following questions 53-55
protein , phosphodiester linkage is found in nucleic
acids so also in DNA and Uracil is nitrogenous base Early crystallographers had trouble solving the
found in RNA which is a nucleic acid. structures of inorganic solids using X-ray diffraction
in

because some of the mathematical tools for


51. Which of the following analogies is correct ?
analyzing the data had not yet been developed. Once
(a) Nitrogen : 1s22s22p3 :: Argon : 1s22s22p6
a trial structure was proposed, it was relatively easy
(b) Carbon : maximum compounds :: Xenon: no
D

to calculate the diffraction pattern, but it was difficult


compounds
to go the other way (from the diffraction pattern to
(c) XeF2 : Linear :: ClF3 : Trigonal planar
the structure) if nothing was known a priori about
(d) Helium : meteorological observations :: Argon : the arrangement of atoms in the unit cell. It was
metallurgical processes important to develop some guidelines for guessing
Sol. (d) Helium : meteorological observations :: Argon : the coordination numbers and bonding geometries
metallurgical processes of atoms in crystals. The first such rules were
Nitrogen : 1s22s 22p3 :: Argon :1s 22s2 2p6 is proposed by Linus Pauling, who considered how
configuration of Neon not Argon one might pack together oppositely charged spheres
CBSE Sample Question Paper 2021-22 (Term–I) 9

of different radii. Pauling proposed from geometric Sol. (c) 6


considerations that the quality of the “fit” depended The radius of Ag+ ion is 126pm and of I– ion is
on the radius ratio of the anion and the cation. 216 pm. The coordination number of Ag+ ion is :
If the anion is considered as the packing atom in the ρ = rcation/ranion = 126/ 216 = 0.58
crystal, then the smaller cation fills interstitial sites
(“holes”). Cations will find arrangements in which they Radius ratio lies in the range 0.414 – 0.732, so has
can contact the largest number of anions. If the cation coordination number 6 or 4 according to the table.
can touch all of its nearest neighbour anions then the Since none of the options is 4, so the answer is 6
fit is good. If the cation is too small for a given site,
54. A solid AB has square planar structure. If the radius

ns
that coordination number will be unstable and it will
of cation A+ is 120 pm, calculate the maximum
prefer a lower coordination structure. The table below
possible value of anion B–
gives the ranges of cation/anion radius ratios that give
the best fit for a given coordination geometry. (a) 240 pm (b) 270 pm

tio
Coordination Geometry ρ = rcation/ranion (c) 280 pm (d) 290 pm
number Sol. (d) 290 pm
2 linear 0 - 0.155 Square planar means ratio ratio is between 0.414 –

a
3 triangular 0.155 - 0.225 0.732
4 tetrahedral 0.225 - 0.414 If radius of cation is 120 pm then anion should be in
4
6
square planar
octahedral
0.414 - 0.732
0.414 - 0.732
ic the range ρ = rcation / ranion
0.414 = 120/ x so x = 289.8 = 290 pm
bl
8 cubic 0.732 - 1.0 0.732 = 120/ x so x = 163.9 = 164 pm
12 cuboctahedral 1.0 55. A “good fit” is considered to be one where the cation
Pu
can touch :
(Source : Ionic Radii and Radius Ratios.
(2021, June 8). Retrieved June 29, 2021, from (a) all of its nearest neighbour anions.
https://chem.libretexts.org/@go/page/183346) (b) most of its nearest neighbour anions.
53. The radius of Ag+
ion is 126 pm and of ion is I– (c) some of its nearest neighbour anions.
216 pm. The coordination number of Ag+ ion is :
(d) none of its nearest neighbour anions.
h

(a) 2 (b) 3
Sol. (a) all of its nearest neighbour anions
(c) 6 (d) 8
es
in
D
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 1

MOCK TEST PAPERS (TERM-I)


Mock Test Paper-1
Subject : Chemistry (043)
Class–XII (Term-I)
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35

ns
General Instructions :
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section–A has 25 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section–B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

tio
4. Section–C has 6 questions. Attempt any 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.

a
SECTION–A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case

ic
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Which of the following statements is not correct for (a) Dichloromethane
bl
nitrogen ? (b) 1,2-dichloroethane
(a) Its electronegativity is very high. (c) Ethylidene chloride
(b) d-orbitals are available for bonding. (d) Allyl chloride
Pu

(c) It is a typical non-metal. 6. Glucose on oxidation with Br2 (aq) gives :


(d) Its molecular size is small. (a) Gluconic acid (b) Tartaric acid
(c) Saccharic acid (d) None of these
2. The packing fraction for a body centred cubic
structure is : 7. If the alkyl or aryl groups attached to the oxygen
atom in an ether are the same, then :
(a) 0.42 (b) 0.53
h

(a) Ether is symmetrical


(c) 0.68 (d) 0.82
(b) Ether is asymmetrical
es

3. Solutions which distill without change in


(c) Both (a) and (b)
composition are called :
(d) None of these
(a) Amorphous
8. Fluorine differs from rest of the halogens in some
(b) Azeotropic mixture of its properties. This is due to :
in

(c) Supersaturated solution (a) its smaller size and high electronegativity.
(d) Ideal solution (b) lack of d-orbitals.
D

4. A crystalline solid : (c) low bond dissociation energy.


(a) changes abruptly from solid to liquid when (d) All of these.
heated. 9. The bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than the
(b) has no definite melting point. tetrahedral angle due to :
(c) undergoes deformation of its geometry easily. (a) attraction between unshared pair of electrons.
(d) has an irregular 3-dimensional arrangements. (b) repulsion between unshared pair of electrons.
5. Which of the following is an example of (c) repulsion between shared pair of electrons.
vic-dihalide ? (d) attraction between shared pair of electrons.
1
2 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
10. Vacant spaces in two dimensional close packing (c) 1-Bromo-1-ethylpropane
are called : (d) 1-Bromopentane
(a) Tetrahedral voids 17. A primary alkyl halide would prefer to undergo :
(b) Octahedral voids (a) SN1 reaction
(c) Hexagonal voids (b) SN2 reaction
(d) Triangular voids (c) α–Elimination
11. Which of the following reactions is used to prepare (d) Racemisation
salicylaldehyde ? 18. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from

ns
(a) Kolbe’s reaction fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should
(b) Etard reaction have highest bond dissociation enthalpy ?
(c) Reimer- Tiemann reaction (a) HF
(b) HCl

tio
(d) Stephen’s reduction
12. Which of the following shows negative deviation (c) HBr
from Raoult’s law ? (d) HI
(a) CHCl3 and acetone 19. In which mode of expression, the concentration

a
(b) C6H6 and C2H5OH of a solution remains independent of temperature ?
(c) C6H6 and C6H5CH3 (a) Molarity
(d) C6H6 and CCl4
13. In alcohols, the oxygen of the –OH group is
ic (b) Molality
(c) Both (a) and (b)
bl
attached to carbon by a : (d) None of these
(a) π-bond 20. Among the 15th group elements, as we move from
(b) σ- bond nitrogen to bismuth, the pentavalency becomes less
Pu

(c) Coordinate bond pronounced and trivalency becomes more


pronounced due to :
(d) All of these
(a) Non metallic character
14. Helium is preferred to be used in balloons instead
of hydrogen because it is : (b) Inert pair effect

(a) incombustible (c) High electronegativity


h

(b) lighter than hydrogen (d) Large ionization energy


21. α-D (+) glucose and β-D (+) glucose are :
es

(c) more abundant than hydrogen


(d) non polarizable (a) Enantiomers
15. Proteins are found to have two different types of (b) Geometrical isomers
secondary structures viz. α-helix and β-pleated sheet (c) Anomers
in

structure, α-helix structure of protein is stabilized (d) None of these


by : 22. Which of the following has the highest pπ – pπ
(a) Peptide bonds bonding tendency ?
D

(b) van der Waals’ forces (a) N


(c) Hydrogen bonds (b) P
(d) Dipole-dipole interactions (c) As
16. What should be the correct IUPAC name for (d) Sb
diethylbromomethane ? 23. In allylic alcohols –OH group is attached to :
(a) 1-Bromo-1,1-diethylmethane (a) sp hybridized carbon
(b) 3-Bromopentane (b) sp2 hybridized carbon
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 3

(c) sp3 hybridized carbon (c) Nitrogen dioxide


(d) sp2d2 hybridized carbon (d) Dinitrogen tetraoxide
24. Which oxide of nitrogen is obtained on heating 25. Glucose solution is 25% by weight of solution. Its
ammonium nitrate at 250°C ? percent concentration by weight of solvent is :
(a) Nitric oxide (a) 20% (b) 25%
(b) Nitrous oxide (c) 33.3% (d) 16.66%

SECTION–B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case

ns
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids boils at a 32. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic
temperature lower than either of them when : systems; simple cubic, body centred cubic and face

tio
(a) It is saturated. centred, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in
(b) It does not deviate from Raoult’s law. these systems will be respectively :
(c) It shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law. 1 3 2
(a) a: a: a
(d) It shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law. 2 2 2

a
27. The negative part of the addendum (the molecule (b) a : 3a : 2 a
to be added) adds on the carbon atom of the double 1 3 1
bond containing the least number of hydrogen
atoms. This rule is known as:
(a) Saytzeff’s rule
ic (c)
2
1
a:
4
a:

(d) 2 a : 3a :
2 2
1
a
a
bl
2
(b) Peroxide rule
33. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of
(c) Markovnikov’s rule
FeCl3 gives ‘X’ while the reaction of toluene with
Pu
(d) van’t hoff rule
Cl2 in presence of light gives ‘Y’. Thus ‘X’ and
28. Sulphur molecule is : ‘Y’are :
(a) diatomic (b) triatamic (a) X = benzyl chloride,Y = o and p – chlorotoluene
(c) tetratomic (d) Octaatomic (b) X = m – chlorotoluene, Y = p – chlorotoluene
29. Which of the following statement is incorrect (c) X = o- or p–chlorotoluene, Y =
regarding glucose ?
h

trichloromethylbenzene
(a) It is an aldohexose. (d) X = benzyl chloride, Y = m-chlorotoluene
(b) It is also known as dextrose.
es

34. Interhalogen compounds are more reactive as


(c) It is a monomer of cellulose. compared to halogens because :
(d) It is least abundant organic compound on earth. (a) they are prepared by direct combination of
30. Phenol reacts with  Br2 in CS2 at low temperature halogens.
in

to give : (b) they are thermally more stable than halogens.


(a) o-Bromophenol (c) X–X′ bond is weaker than X–X or X′–X′ bond.
(b) o-and p-promophenols (d) they have large difference in electronegativity.
D

(c) p-Bromophenol 35. Due to which reason, O2 gas liberates from the
(d) 2, 4, 6- Tribromophenol blood of tissues of animal bodies ?
31. The correct order of group 16 elements in order (a) less temperature of tissues.
of increasing stability is : (b) partial pressure of oxygen gas is more in
(a) H2S < H2O < H2Te > H2Se tissues.
(b) H2O < H2Te < H2Se < H2S (c) partial pressure of carbon dioxide is less in
(c) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te tissues.
(d) H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O (d) partial pressure of oxygen gas is less in tissues.
4 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
36. Glucose does not react with : Assertion (A) : All halogens are coloured.
(a) NH2OH (b) Conc. HNO3 Reason (R) : Halogens absorb radiations in visible
(c) (CH3CO)2O (d) NaHSO3 region.
Select the most appropriate answer from the
37. Which group elements are known as Chalcogeus
options given below :
(a) Group 15 (b) Group 16
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) Group 17 (d) Group 18 explanation of A.
38. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom ? explanation of A.

ns
(a) 108 pm (b) 127 pm (c) A is true but R is false.
(c) 157 pm (d) 181 pm (d) A is false but R is true.
39. When Cl2 reacts with hot and conc. NaOH , the 46. Given below are two statements labelled as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

tio
oxidation number of chlorine changes from :
(a) zero to +1 and zero to +5. Assertion (A) : Racemic mixture is optically active.
Reason (R): Racemic mixture is an equimolar
(b) 0 to –1 and 0 to +5.
mixture of dextrorotatory and laevorotatory form.
(c) zero to –1 and zero to +3.

a
Select the most appropriate answer from the
(d) 0 to +1 and 0 to –3. options given below :
40. In the following reaction : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

X is :
Red
C2H5—O—C2H5 + 2HI ¾¾¾ ® 2X + H2O

ic (b)
explanation of A.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
bl
explanation of A.
(a) ethane (b) ethyl iodide (c) A is true but R is false.
(c) butane (d) propane (d) A is false but R is true.
Pu

41. Which of the following cannot be made by using 47. Given below are two statements labelled as
Williamson synthesis ? Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(a) Methoxybenzene Assertion (A) : Osmotic pressure is a colligative
(b) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether property.
Reason (R) : Osmotic pressure is preferred for
(c) tert-butyl methyl ether
the determination of molar mass of
h

(d) Ditert- butyl ether macromolecules.


42. Which is the strongest reducing agent amongst all Select the most appropriate answer from the
es

the hydrides of group 15 ? options given below :


(a) NH3 (b) PH3 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) AsH3 (d) BiH3 explanation of A.
43. Ethers are :
in

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct


(a) Neutral (b) Basic explanation of A.
(c) Acidic (d) Amphoteric (c) A is true but R is false.
D

44. Which of the following compounds has the highest (d) A is false but R is true.
boiling point ? 48. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) CH3CH2CH2Cl Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(b) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl Assertion (A) : HNO3 makes iron passive.
(c) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl Reason(R) : HNO3 forms a protective layer of
(d) (CH3)3CCl ferric nitrate on the surface of iron.
45. Given below are two statements labelled as Select the most appropriate answer from the
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). options given below :
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 5

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Reason (R) : Solubility of gases in water decreases
explanation of A. with increase in temperature.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Select the most appropriate answer from the
explanation of A. options given below:
(c) A is true but R is false. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(d) A is false but R is true. explanation of A.
49. Given below are two statements labelled as (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). explanation of A.
Assertion (A) : Aquatic animals are more (c) A is true but R is false.

ns
comfortable in cold waters than in warm waters. (d) A is false but R is true.

SECTION–C

tio
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more
than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.

50. Match the following :


CASE 1 : Read the passage given below and

a
Column-I Column-II answer the following questions 53-55.
1. DNA (i) normal maintenance of One of the basic problems related to X-ray

2. RNA
optimum growth
(ii) reserve of genetic
information
ic diffraction analysis is the identification of crystal
lattices. It is usually solved by comparing estimated
parameters of analyzed lattice with those of selected
bl
sample. The lattice parameters either previously
3. Vitamins (iii) source of energy
investigated or derived by modeling can be used
4. Carbohydrates (iv) proteins synthesis as samples. Therefore, the accurate identification
Pu

(a) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii) of a crystal lattice requires a large data base of the
preselected sample parameters.
(b) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii)
There are several methods to describe crystal
(c) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii)
lattices. The most widespread method was offered
(d) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii) by Auguste Bravais. Bravais unit cell is
h

51. Bond angle in water is higher than the bond angle characterized by a set of six parameters : lengths
in hydrogen sulphide. This difference is due to : of the three edges a, b and c and values of the
three angles between the edges α, β and γ All
es

(a) oxygen is diatomic while sulphur is tetraatomic.


Bravais lattices are subdivided into seven lattice
(b) difference in electronegativity of oxygen and
systems.
sulphur.
53. Out of 14 Bravais lattices, how many are cubic
(c) difference in oxidation state of oxygen and
in

lattices ?
sulphur.
(a) 2 (b) 3
(d) difference in hybrid orbitals of oxygen and
sulphur. (c) 4 (d) 1
D

52. Complete the following analogy : 54. By how many parameters, a Bravais unit cell is
characterized ?
Same molecular formula but different structures :
A:: Non superimposable mirror images : B (a) 3 (b) 6
(a) A : Isomers B : Enantiomer (c) 2 (d) 4
(b) A : Enantiomers B : Racemic mixture 55. Number of atoms per unit cell in cubic unit cell ?
(c) A : Sterioisomers B : Retention (a) 2 (b) 1
(d) A : Isomers B: Sterioisomers (c) 4 (d) 3
6 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)

Mock Test Paper-2


Subject : Chemistry (043)
Class–XII (Term-I)
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions : Same as Mock Test Paper-1.

SECTION–A

ns
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Covalency of oxygen cannot exceed 4 because : 5. Grignard reagent may be made by reacting
(a) oxygen does not have d orbital. magnesium with :

tio
(a) Methyl amine (b) Diethyl ether
(b) oxygen atom has two unpaired electrons in its
valence shell. (c) Ethyl iodide (d) Ethyl alcohol
(c) oxygen can form double bonds. 6. Which one of the following reactions is not
explained by the open chain structure of glucose ?

a
(d) electrons of oxygen atom cannot be promoted
to d-orbitals due to its small size. (a) formation of pentaacetate of glucose with acetic
anhydride.
2. What type of crystal defect is indicated in the
diagram below ?

Na+ Cl – Na+ Cl – Na+ Cl –


ic (b) formation of addition product with 2,4 DNP
reagent
(c) silver mirror formation with Tollen’s reagent.
bl
(d) existence of anomers of glucose.
Cl– Cl – Na+ Na+ 7. The ether produces
Pu

Na+ Cl– Cl– Na+


O CH2
Cl – Na+ Cl – Na+ Cl – Na+

(a) Frenkel defect when treated with HI Identify the products formed.
(b) Frenkel and Schottky defect
h

(c) Interstitial defect (i) CH2I (ii) CH2OH


es

(d) Schottky defect


3. In which of the following specific condition, CO2
gas is filled in cold drinks, and in soda water
I OH
bottles ? (iii) (iv)
in

(a) at high temperature and high pressure.


(b) at low temperature and high pressure. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
(c) at low temperature and low pressure.
D

8. Chlorine water loses its yellow colour on standing


(d) at high temperature and low pressure. because :
4. Non-stoichiometric metal deficiency is shown by (a) HCl gas is produced, due to the action of
the compounds of : sunlight.
(a) all metals (b) a mixture of HOCl and HCl is produced in the
(b) alkali metals only presence of light.
(c) alkaline earth metals only (c) HOCl and hydrogen gas is produced.
(d) a mixture of HCl and HClO3 is produced, due
(d) transition metals only
to the action of sunlight.
6
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 7

9. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating (a) Longer and weaker (b) Shorter and weaker
with concentrated H2SO4, the initiation step is : (c) Shorter and stronger(d) Longer and stronger
(a) protonation of alcohol molecule. 18. Which of the following does not show allotropy ?
(b) formation of carbocation. (a) nitrogen (b) bismuth
(c) elimination of water. (c) antimony (d) arsenic
(d) formation of an ester. 19. In which condition, Henry’s law is applicable ?
10. The major binding force of diamond is : (a) ideal behaviour of gaseous solute at high
(a) ionic bond (b) covalent bond pressure and low temperature.

ns
(c) dipole-dipole attraction (b) gaseous solute neither associate nor dissociate
(d) induced dipole-dipole attraction in solution.
11. Which of the following compounds of similar (c) gaseous solute react with solvent.
nuclear masses has highest boiling point ? (d) applicable in given all conditions.

tio
(a) Alcohols (b) Aldehydes 20. If chlorine is passed through a solution of hydrogen
(c) Ketones (d) Carboxylic acids sulphide, the solution turns turbid due to the
formation of :

12. Solute + solvent   solution; ∆ H > 0 What
mix (a) nascent oxygen (b) free chlorine

a
would be the change in solubility of substance on
(c) free sulphur (d) nascent hydrogen
increasing the temperature at equilibrium ?
21. In which of the following order base, phosphate

ic
(a) increases (b) decreases
and sugar are arranged in the nucleotide of DNA ?
(c) remains constant (d) can’t be predicted
(a) Base-phosphate-sugar
13. The boiling points of alcohols and phenols increase
bl (b) Base-sugar-phosphate
with increase in the number of carbon atoms. This
is due to : (c) Phosphate-base-sugar
(a) Increase in van der Waals’ forces. (d) Sugar-base-phosphate
Pu

(b) Decrease in van der Waals’ forces. 22. In preparation of chlorine from HCl, MnO2 acts as :
(c) Both (a) and (b). (a) oxidizing agent (b) reducing agent
(d) None of these. (c) catalyst (d) dehydration agent
14. When three parts of conc. HCl and one part of 23. Lower molecular mass alcohols are :
conc. HNO3 are mixed a mixture ‘X’ is formed. (a) miscible in limited amount of water.
h

The correct statement related to ‘X’ is : (b) miscible in excess of water.


(a) ‘X’ is aqua regia. (c) miscible in water in all proportions.
es

(b) ‘X’ is used for dissolving gold. (d) immiscible in water.


(c) both (a) and (b) 24. Which of the following is not a correctly matched
(d) none of these use of noble gas ?
15. Which of the following is not an essential amino (a) Argon : is filled in electric bulbs.
in

acid ? (b) Neon : is used in safety devices.


(a) Glycine (b) Lysine (c) Helium : is filled in tyres of vehicles.
(c) Valine (d) None of these (d) Radon : is used in treating cancer.
D

16. Major product obtained on reaction of 3-Phenyl 25. In which of the following cases blood cells will shrink :
propene with HBr in presence of organic peroxide is : (a) when placed in water containing more than
(a) 3- Phenyl 1- bromopropane 0.9% (mass/ volume) NaCl solution.
(b) 1-Phenyl -3- bromopropane (b) when placed in water containing less than 0.9%
(c) 1-Phenyl -2-bromopropane (mass /volume) NaCl solution.
(d) 3-Phenyl -2- bromopropane (c) when placed in water containing 0.9% (mass/
17. C-Cl bond of chlorobenzene in comparison to C-Cl volume) NaCl solution.
bond in methyl chloride is : (d) when placed in distilled water.
8 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
SECTION–B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

26. Which of the following property indicates weak 34. Which of following noble gas does not have octet
intermolecular forces of attraction in liquids ? of electrons in the valence shell ?
(a) High heat of vapourization. (a) He (b) Rn
(b) High vapour pressure. (c) Ar (d) Ne
(c) High critical temperature. 35. Water retention or puffiness due to high salt intake

ns
(d) High boiling point. occurs due to :
27. Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic (a) diffusion
substitution exclusively by SN1 mechanism ? (b) vapour pressure difference
(a) Benzyl chloride (b) Ethyl chloride

tio
(c) osmosis
(c) Chlorobenzene (d) Isopropyl chloride (d) reverse osmosis
28. The high boiling point of HF is attributed by : 36. Nucleic acids are the polymers of :
(a) high reactivity of fluorine. (a) Nucleosides (b) Nucleotides

a
(b) small size of hydrogen atom. (c) Bases (d) Sugars
(c) formation of hydrogen bonds. 37. Which is the most basic agent amongst all the
(d) small size of fluorine.
29. The sugar most abundantly present in honey is :
ic hydrides of group 15 ?
(a) NH3 (b) PH3
bl
(a) Lactose (b) Fructose (c) AsH3 (d) BiH3
(c) Glucose (d) Sucrose 38. Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest
30. Phenol does not undergo nucleophilic substitution neighbour distance 4.52 Å. Its atomic mass is 39.
Pu

reaction easily due to : Its density will be :


(a) acidic nature of phenol. (a) 454 kg/m3 (b) 804 kg/m3
(b) partial double bond character of C–OH bond. (c) 852 kg/m3 (d) 910 kg/m3
(c) partial double bond character of C–C bond. 39. When chlorine reacts with cold and dilute solution
of sodium hydroxide, it forms :
(d) instability of phenoxide ion.
h

(a) Cl– and ClO– (b) Cl– and ClO2–


31. The increasing order of reducing power of the
halogen acids is : (c) Cl– and ClO3– (d) Cl– and ClO4–
es

(a) HF < HCl < HBr < HI 40. Aldehydes and ketones are reduced to the
corresponding alcohols by addition of hydrogen in
(b) HI < HBr < HCl < HF
the presence of catalysts. The usual catalyst is :
(c) HBr < HCl < HF < HI
(a) Finely divide nickel
(d) HCl < HBr < HF < HI
in

(b) Finely divide palladium


32. A solid compound contains X, Y and Z atoms in a
(c) Finely divide platinum
cubic lattice with X atoms occupying the corners,
(d) Any of these
D

Y atoms in the body centred positions and Z atoms


at the centres of faces of the unit cell. What is the 41. Which reagent is used to bring about the following
empirical formula of the compound ? conversion ?
(a) XY2Z3 (b) XYZ3
CH3
(c) X2Y2Z3 (d) X8YZ6 CH2 ?
OH
33. The correct order of nucleophilicity is :
(a) Cl– < Br– < l– (b) l– < Cl– < Br– (a) KMnO4/H+
(c) Br– < Cl– < F– (d) l– < Br– < Cl– (b) H2O/H+
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 9

(c) Hydroboration Oxidation reaction (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(d) OsO4 explanation of A.
42. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, (c) A is true but R is false.
colourless fumes are evolved but in case of iodide (d) A is false but R is true.
salt, violet flames come out. This is because : 47. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2. Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(b) HI is of violet colour. Assertion (A) : Molarity is a better concentration
(c) HI gets oxidised to I2. term as compared to molality.

ns
(d) HI changes to HIO3. Reason (R) : Molality of a solution is temperature
43. Catalytic reduction of butanal yields : independent.
(a) Butan-2-ol Select the most appropriate answer from the
(b) Butan-1-ol options given below :

tio
(c) Butan-3-ol (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(d) None of these
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
44. Which of the following is the most reactive towards
explanation of A.

a
nucleophilic substitution reaction ?
(c) A is true but R is false.
(a) ClCH2–CH = CH2

ic
(b) CH2 = CH—Cl (d) A is false but R is true.
(c) CH3CH = CH — Cl 48. Given below are two statements labelled as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(d) C6H6Cl
bl
Assertion (A) : All halogens exhibit-1 oxidation state.
45. Given below are two statements labelled as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Reason(R) : Fluorine is most electronegative
element.
Pu
Assertion (A) : Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen
is less than that of fluorine but greater than Select the most appropriate answer from the
nitrogen. options given below :
Reason (R) : Ionization enthalpies of the elements (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
follow the order Fluorine > Nitrogen > Oxygen explanation of A.
Select the most appropriate answer from the (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
h

options given below : explanation of A.


(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (c) A is true but R is false.
es

explanation of A. (d) A is false but R is true.


(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 49. Given below are two statements labelled as
explanation of A. Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(c) A is true but R is false.
in

Assertion (A) : Blood cells collapse in saline water.


(d) A is false but R is true.
Reason (R) : Osmotic pressure is a colligative
46. Given below are two statements labelled as property.
D

Assertion (A) and Reason (R).


Select the most appropriate answer from the
Assertion (A) : Aryl halides are insoluble in water. options given below :
Reason(R) : Aryl halides have halogen attached to (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
sp3 hybrid carbon. explanation of A.
Select the most appropriate answer from the
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
options given below :
explanation of A.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) A is true but R is false.
explanation of A.
(d) A is false but R is true.
10 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
SECTION–C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.

50. Which of the following statement is not correct CASE 1 : Read the passage given below and
regarding fructose ? answer the following questions 53-55.
(a) It is a dextrorotatory compound. NaCl is an ionic compound that occurs naturally
as white crystals. It is extracted from the mineral
(b) It exists in two cyclic forms.
form halite or evaporation of seawater. The
(c) It exists as five membered ring. structure of NaCl is formed by repeating the face

ns
(d) It is also named as furanose. centered cubic unit cell. It has 1:1 stoichiometry
51. Match the following : ratio of Na : Cl with a molar mass of 58.4 g/mol.
Compounds with the sodium chloride structure
Column-I Column-II
include alkali halides and metal oxides and

tio
1. XeO3 (i) Square planar transition-metal compounds. An important role to
2. XeOF4 (ii) Linear many important applications is structure and
3. XeF2 (iit) Triangular pyramidal dynamics of water. Some applications include
crystallization of proteins and conformational
4. XeF4 (iv) Square pyramidal

a
behaviour of peptides and nucleic acids.
(a) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(iii) Read the following and answer the following

ic
(b) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i) questions :
53. A salt which is isostructural with sodium chloride
(c) 1(iii), 2(i), 3(ii), 4(iv)
is :
bl
(d) 1(iii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(i)
(a) KCl (b) Nal
52. CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Cl alc.KOH HBr
¾¾¾¾® B ¾¾¾
® C (c) MgO (d) All of these
Pu
Na/ether 54. Sodium chloride is also known as :
¾¾¾¾ ® D
In the above reaction, the product D is : (a) Rock salt (b) Table salt
(a) Propane (c) Sea salt (d) All of these
(b) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane 55. What is the coordination number of constituent ions
in sodium chloride crystal ?
(c) Hexane
h

(a) 3 (b) 6
(d) Allyl bromide
(c) 2 (d) 4
es
in
D
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 11

Mock Test Paper-3


Subject : Chemistry (043)
Class–XII (Term-I)
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions : Same as Mock Test Paper-1.
SECTION–A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case

ns
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Which of the following statement is incorrect for 6. In aqueous solution, an amino acid exist as :
group 15 elements ? (a) cation (b) anion

tio
(a) Order of ionization enthalpies is (c) zwitter ion (d) neutral molecule
ΔiH1 < ΔiH2 < ΔiH3 7. Cyclic alcohols are named using the prefix :
(b) The boiling point and melting point increases (a) Cyclo (b) Hydro
from top to bottom in the group. (c) Meth (d) Eth

a
(c) Dinitrogen is a gas while all others are solids. 8. Which of the following exists as a diatomic
(d) All statements are correct. molecule ?

ic
2. If an atom is present in the centre of the cube, the (a) N (b) P
participation of that atom per unit cell is : (c) As (d) Sb
9. Which of the following is also called carbolic
1
bl
(a) 1 (b) acid ?
4
(a) Alcohol (b) Phenol
1 1 (c) Ether (d) None of these
Pu
(c) (d)
8 2 10. Schottky defects occur mainly in electrovalent
3. Which of the following option is correct for a compounds where :
homogeneous mixture of liquid A and B which (a) Positive ions and negative ions are of different size.
shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law ? (b) Positive ions and negative ions are of similar size.
(a) A-B intermolecular attraction is more than (c) Positive ions are small and negative ions are big.
h

intermolecular attraction A-A and B-B. (d) Positive ions are big and negative ions are small.
(b) A-B intermolecular attraction is less than 11. Which of the following is most acidic ?
es

intermolecular attraction A-A and B-B. (a) Phenol (b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) Intermolecular attraction in B-B is less than (c) p-chlorophenol (d) p-cresol
intermolecular attraction A-A. 12. Equimolar solutions in same solvent have :
(d) Intermolecular attraction in A-A is less than (a) Same boiling point but different freezing points.
in

intermolecular attraction B-B. (b) Same freezing points but different boiling
4. Structure of ZnS is : points.
(a) Body centred cubic (c) Same boiling and freezing points.
D

(d) Different boiling and freezing points.


(b) Face centred cubic
13. The boiling points of alcohols and phenols increase
(c) Simple cubic
with increase in the number of carbon atoms. This
(d) None of these is due to :
5. The position of –Br in the compound in (a) Increase in van der Waals’ forces.
CH3CH = CHC(Br) (CH3)2 as : (b) Decrease in van der Waals’ forces.
(a) Allyl (b) Aryl (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Vinyl (d) Secondary (d) None of these
11
12 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
14. Which one of the following does not form 18. The correct order of acidic strength is :
hydrogen bonding ? (a) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(a) NH3 (b) H2O (b) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(c) HCl (d) HF
(c) HClO4 < HClO< HClO2 < HClO3
15. Nucleic acids are the polymers of :
(d) HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO
(a) Nucleosides (b) Nucleotides
19. The colligative properties of a dilute solution
(c) Bases (d) Sugars
depends on :
16. The correct order of increasing order of boiling
points of compounds labelled (a),(b) and (c) is : (a) Nature of solute.

ns
(b) Nature of solvent.
CH3
(i) CH CH2Br (c) Number of solute particles.
CH3 (d) Number of solvent particles.

tio
(ii) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br 20. H2S is more acidic than H2O because :
CH3 (a) oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur.
(iii) H3C C CH3 (b) atomic number of sulphur is higher than
oxygen.

a
Br (c) H—S bond dissociation enthalpy is less as
(a) (ii) < (i) < (iii) (b) (i) < (ii) < (iii) compared to H—O bond.
(c) (iii) < (i) < (ii) (d) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
17. What is ‘A’ in the following reaction ?
ic (d) H—O bond dissociation energy is less also as
compared to H—S bond.
bl
CH2—CH==CH2 21. Which of the following will give positive Fehling’s
solution test ?
+HCl A (a) Proteins (b) Glucose
Pu

(c) Sucrose (d) Fats


22. Which has highest boiling point ?
(i) CH2 —CH==CH2
Cl
(a) Krypton (b) Xenon
(c) Helium (d) Neon
23. Which of the following is least acidic ?
h

(a) Phenol
CH2—CH2—CH2—Cl
es

(b) Benzyl alcohol


(ii) (c) m-chlorophenol
(d) p-cresol
24. As compared to nitrogen, oxygen is :
in

CH2—CH—CH2
(a) less electronegative and less reactive.
Cl
(iii) (b) more electronegative and less reactive.
D

(c) more electronegative and more reactive.


(d) less electronegative and more reactive.
Cl 25. Isotonic solutions have :
CH—CH2—CH2 (a) Same boiling point
(iv) (b) Same vapour pressure
(c) Same osmotic pressure
(d) Same melting point
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 13

SECTION–B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.

26. What state does point “S” in the figure indicate ? (a) Sr2+ions (b) Sr+ions

(c) Cl ions (d) Both Sr2+ and Cl– ions
P0B 33. Alkyl halides are immiscible in water though they
are polar because :
P0A (a) they react with water to give alcohols.

ns
vapour (b) they cannot form hydrogen bonds with water.
pressure S
(c) C–X bond cannot be broken easily.
(d) they are stable compounds and are not reactive.
34. Ozone is a/an :

tio
(a) linear molecule (b) angular molecule
XB = 0 Mole fraction XB = 1 (c) pyramidal molecule (d) triagonal molecule
XA = 1 XA = 0 35. Molarity is expressed as :
(a) Mole-fraction and partial vapour pressure of

a
(a) mol L–1 (b) g L–1
both the liquids are same.
(c) L mol–1 (d) mol kg–1
(b) Mole-fraction of the both the liquids are same,

ic
but their partial vapour pressures are different. 36. Which of the following reactions of glucose can
be explained only by its cyclic structure ?
(c) Mole-fraction and partial vapour pressures of
both the liquids are different. (a) Glucose forms pentaacetate.
bl
(d) Mole-fraction of both the liquids are different, (b) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an
but their partial pressures are same. oxime.
Pu
27. Which reagents are required for one step (c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with
conversion of chloroethane to butane ? hydroxylamine.
(a) CH3Cl/AlCl3 (b) Na, Dry ether (d) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to gluconic
(c) CH3Cl/Fe dark (d) NaNO2/HCl/0–5°C acid.
28. On complete hydrolysis, XeF6 gives : 37. Which oxide of nitrogen is obtained on heating
(a) XeO3 + 4HF (b) XeO2F2 + HF ammonium nitrate ?
h

(c) XeOF4 + H2 (d) XeO3 + 6HF (a) Nitric oxide (b) Nitrous oxide
29. The function of glucose is to : (c) Nitrogen dioxide (d) Dinitrogentetraoxide
es

(a) Provide energy (b) Promote growth 38. When molten zinc is cooled to solid state it assumes
(c) Prevent diseases (d) None of these hcp structure. Then the number of nearest
neighbours of zinc atom will be :
30. Dehydration of alcohol to ethers is catalysed by :
(a) 4 (b) 6
in

(a) conc. H2SO4 at 413 K


(b) Hot NaOH (c) 8 (d) 12
(c) Hot HBr 39. Which of the following has highest bond enthalpy ?
D

(d) Hot nitric acid (a) O—O (b) S—S


31. Which of the following has highest ionization (c) Se—Se (d) Te—Te
enthalpy ? 40. An ether is more volatile than alcohol having the
(a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorus same molecular formula. This is due to :
(c) Oxygen (d) Sulphur (a) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols.
32. If molten NaCl containing a little amount of SrCl2 (b) dipolar character of ethers
is crystallized some the sites of Na + ions are (c) alcohols, having resonance structures
occupied by : (d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers.
14 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
41. Acetone reacts with Grignard reagent followed by Select the most appropriate answer from the
hydrolysis to form : options given below :
(a) 3° alcohol (b) 2° alcohol (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) ether (d) no reaction explanation of A.
42. In the preparation of sulphuric acid, V2O5 is used (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
in a reaction, which is : explanation of A.
(a) S + O2 → SO2 (c) A is true but R is false.
(b) 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 (d) A is false but R is true.
(c) SO3 + H2O → H2SO4 47. Given below are two statements labelled as

ns
(d) None of these Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
43. Acid-cataylsed hydration of alkenes except ethene Assertion (A): 0.1M of glucose has higher depression
leads to the formation of : in freezing point than 0.1M solution of urea.
(a) primary alcohol. Reason (R) : K f for both glucose and urea
solutions are same.

tio
(b) secondary or tertiary alcohol.
(c) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols. Select the most appropriate answer from the
(d) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols. options given below :
44. Which is the correct increasing order of boiling (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
points of the following compounds ? explanation of A.

a
1-Iodobutane, 1-Bromobutane, 1-Chlorobutane, (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Butane explanation of A.
(a) Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Bromobutane <
1-Iodobutane.
(b) 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-
ic (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
48. Given below are two statements labelled as
bl
Chlorobutane < Butane. Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(c) Butane < 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < Assertion (A) : Chlorine and sulphur dioxide both
1-Chlorobutane. are bleaching agents.
Pu

(d) Butane< 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Iodobutane < Reason (R) : The bleaching action of the respective
1-Bromobutane. compounds is performed due to the process of oxidation.
45. Given below are two statements labelled as Select the most appropriate answer from the
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). options given below :
Assertion (A) : Noble gases have highest ionization (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
enthalpies in their respective periods. explanation of A.
h

Reason (R) : Noble gases have stable electronic (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
configuration. explanation of A.
es

Select the most appropriate answer from the (c) A is true but R is false.
options given below : (d) A is false but R is true.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 49. Given below are two statements labelled as
explanation of A. Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
in

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Assertion (A) : Molarity of a solution changes with
explanation of A. temperature but molality and mole fraction do not.
(c) A is true but R is false. Reason (R) : Volume of a solution changes with
D

(d) A is false but R is true. temperature and mass do not.


46. Given below are two statements labelled as Select the most appropriate answer from the
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). options given below :
Assertion (A) : The boiling points of alkyl halides (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
decrease in the order : RI > RBr >RCl >RF. explanation of A.
Reason(R) : The boiling points of alkyl chlorides, (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
bromides and iodides are considerably higher than explanation of A.
that of the hydrocarbon of comparable molecular (c) A is true but R is false.
mass. (d) A is false but R is true.
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 15

SECTION–C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.
50. A solution of D-glucose in water rotates plane CASE 1 : Read the passage given below and
polarized light : answer the following questions 53-55.
(a) To right (b) To left For a crystalline solid we have tacitly assumed that
(c) To either side (d) None of these perfect order exists throughout the material on an
51. Match the following : atomic scale. However, such an idealized solid does
not exist; all contain large numbers of various

ns
Column–I Column–II defects or imperfections. As a matter of fact, many
of the properties of materials are profoundly
O sensitive to deviations from crystalline perfection;
1. (i) Chlorous acid the influence is not always adverse, and often
H Cl

tio
specific characteristics are deliberately fashioned
O by the introduction of controlled amounts or
O
2. (ii) Chloric acid numbers of particular defects, as detailed in
H Cl succeeding chapters. By ‘crystalline defect’ is

a
meant a lattice irregularity having one or more of
H its dimensions on the order of an atomic diameter.

ic
O Classification of crystalline imperfections is
frequently made according to geometry or
3. Cl (iii) Hypochlorous acid dimensionality of the defect. Several different
bl
O imperfections are discussed in this chapter,
O including point defects (those associated with one
or two atomic positions), linear (or one-
Pu
dimensional) defects, as well as interfacial defects,
or boundaries, which are two-dimensional.
53. The irregularities in the arrangement of constituent
particles around a point is termed as:
4. (iv) Perchloric acid (a) Perfection in crystal
(b) Point defect
h

(c) Line defect


(a) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(iii) (d) All of these
es

(b) 1(iv), 2(i), 3(ii), 4(iii) 54. Which of the following factors can give rise to
defect in crystal ?
(c) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(ii)
(a) Dislocation of particles
(d) 1(iii), 2(i), 3(ii), 4(iv)
(b) Stoichiometric disturbance
in

52. In the following sequence of reaction :


(c) Impurity addition
C2H5Br ¾¾¾¾AgCN Reduction
® X ¾¾¾¾¾ ® Y ; Y is (d) All of these
(a) n-propylamine
D

55. F- centres created as a result of defect in crystal


(b) isopropylamine makes the crystal :
(c) ethylamine (a) Coloured (b) Colourless
(d) ethylmethylamine (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
16 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)

Mock Test Paper-4


Subject : Chemistry (043)
Class–XII (Term-I)
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions : Same as Mock Test Paper-1.
SECTION–A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case

ns
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Ionic radii (in Å) of As3+, Sb3+ and Bi3+ follow 7. In ethers, the four electron pairs, i.e., the two bond
the order : pairs and two lone pairs of electrons on oxygen
(a) As3+ > Sb3+ > Bi3+ are arranged approximately in a:

tio
(b) Sb3+ > Bi3+ >As3+ (a) Pyramidal arrangement
(c) Bi3+ > As3+ > Sb3+ (b) Tetrahedral arrangement
(d) Bi3+ > Sb3+ > As3+ (c) Triagonal pyramidal arrangement

a
2. Copper crystallizes in fcc with a unit cell length of (d) None of these
361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom ? 8. In which of its oxidation state Bi acts as a strong
(a) 108 pm
(c) 157 pm
(b) 127 pm
(d) 181 pm
ic oxidizing agent ?
(a) +3 (b) +5
bl
3. The system that forms maximum boiling (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
azeotrope is : 9. Benzene when sulphonated with _______ to give
(a) carbondisulphide – acetone benzene sulphonic acid.
Pu

(b) benzene – toluene (a) Water (b) Conc. H2SO4


(c) acetone – chloroform (c) Sulphur (d) None of these
(d) n-hexane – n-heptane 10. Which of the following statement is correct ?
4. In a compound, atoms of Y form ccp lattice and (a) Schottky defect lowers the density.
those of element X occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral
h

(b) Frenkel defect increases the dielectric constant


voids. The formula of the compound will be:
of the crystals.
es

(a) X2Y3 (b) X2Y


(c) Stoichiometric defects make the crystals good
(c) X3Y4 (d) X4Y3 electrical conductors.
5. What should be the correct IUPAC name for (d) All of these.
diethylbromomethane ?
11. In CH 3 CH 2 OH, the bond that undergoes
in

(a) 1-Bromo-1,1-diethylmethane heterolytical cleavage most readily is :


(b) 3-Bromopentane (a) C–C (b) C–O
D

(c) 1-Bromo-1-ethylpropane (c) C–H (d) O–H


(d) 1-Bromopentane 12. The highest temperature at which vapour pressure
6. In proteins, amino acids are linked by : of a liquid can be measured is called :
(a) Peptide bonds (a) Critical temperature
(b) van der Waals forces (b) Inversion temperature
(c) Hydrogen bonds (c) Critical solution temperature
(d) Dipole-dipole interactions (d) Boiling point
16
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 17

13. The high boiling points of alcohols are mainly due 18. At what temperature, both α and β form of sulphur
to the presence of : are stable ?
(a) Intermolecular H-bonding (a) 369°C (b) 369 K
(b) Intramolecular H-bonding (c) 4°C (d) 0°C
(c) Both (a) and (b) 19. The osmotic pressure increases, if :
(a) Temperature is changed.
(d) None of these
(b) Volume of solution is increased.
14. Which one of the following order is correct for
(c) Concentration of solute is decreased.
the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen
(d) Concentration of solute is increased.
molecule ?

ns
20. Fluorine differs from rest of the halogens in some
(a) Br2 > I2 > F2 >Cl2 of its properties. This is due to :
(b) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (a) its smaller size and high electronegativity.
(c) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (b) lack of d-orbitals.

tio
(d) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (c) low bond dissociation energy.
15. Each polypeptide in a protein has amino acids linked (d) All of these.
with each other in a specific sequence. This 21. Glucose gives silver mirror test with Tollen’s
sequence of amino acids is said to be : reagent. It shows the presence of :
(a) Acidic group (b) Alcoholic group

a
(a) primary structure of proteins.
(b) secondary structure of proteins. (c) Aldehydic group (d) Ketonic group
22. Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some

ic
(c) tertiary structure of proteins.
properties in common. Which of the following
(d) quaternary structure of proteins.
properties is shown by one and not by other ?
16. In which of the following molecules carbon atom (a) forms acid rain
bl
marked with asterisk (*) is asymmetric ?
(b) is a reducing agent
H D (c) is soluble in water
Pu

(i) I C Cl (ii) I C Cl (d) is used as food preservative


Br Br 23. When phenol is distilled with zinc dust, it gives :
(a) Benzene (b) Toluene
H H
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Benzoic acid
(iii) OH C CH5 (iv) H C CH5 24. The angular shape of ozone consists of ________
C2H5 C2H5 sigma bonds.
h

(a) (a), (b), (c), (d) (b) (a), (b), (c) (a) 1 (b) 2
es

(c) (b), (c), (d) (d) (a), (c), (d) (c) 3 (d) 4
17. Molecules whose mirror image is non- 25. The movement of solvent molecules from higher
superimposable over them are known as chiral. concentration to lower concentration through
Which of the following molecules is chiral in semipermeable membrane under pressure is
called :
in

nature ?
(a) 2-Bromobutane (b) 1-Bromobutane (a) Osmosis (b) Reverse osmosis
(c) 2-Bromopropane (d) 2-Bromopropan-2-ol (c) Dialysis (d) Diffusion
D

SECTION–B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is : (d) none of these.
(a) an exothermic process. 27. Fittig reaction can be used to prepare :
(b) an endothermic process. (a) toluene (b) acetophenone
(c) either exothermic or endothermic. (c) diphenyl (d) chlorobenzene
18 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
28. Which among the following is most reactive ? 38. The fraction of the total volume occupied by the
(a) I 2 (b) ICl atoms present in a simple cube is :
(c) Cl2 (d) Br2  
(a) (b)
29. Monosaccharides usually contain ______ carbon 3 2 4 2
atoms.
 
(a) 3-10 (b) 1-6 (c) (d)
4 6
(c) 4-10 (d) 5-8 39. HCOOH reacts with concentrated H 2 SO 4 to
30. Among the following, the one which reacts most produce:
readily with ethanol is :

ns
(a) CO (b) CO2
(a) p-Nitrobenzyl bromide
(c) SO2 (d) SO3
(b) p-Chlorobenzyl bromide
40. Strength of acidity is in order :
(c) p-methoxybenzyl bromide

tio
(d) p-methyl benzyl bromide OH OH OH OH
31. Which of the following is not true regarding NO2
interhalogen compounds ?
(a) they are covalent compounds.

a
(b) they are volatile solids or liquids except ClF. CH3 NO2 NO2
(c) they are all paramagnetic in nature. I II III IV

(d) none of these.


32. The general formula of an ionic compound
ic (a) II > I > III > IV (b) III > IV > I > II
(c) I > IV > III > II (d) IV > III > I > II
bl
crystallizing in the rock-salt structure is :
41. The product of acid catalysed hydration of
(a) AB (b) AB2 2-phenylpropene is :
(c) A2B (d) AB3 (a) 3-Phenyl-2-propanol
Pu

33. SN1 reaction of alkyl halides leads to:


(b) 1-Phenyl-2-propanol
(a) retention (b) inversion
(c) 2-phenyl-2-propanol
(c) racemization (d) none of these
(d) 2-phenyl-1-propanol
34. Two O–O bond lengths in ozone are :
42. Which of the following is having largest bond
(a) 110 pm, 148 pm (b) 110 pm, 137 pm
h

angles ?
(c) 128 pm, 128pm (d) 110 pm, 111 pm
(a) AsH3 (b) SbH3
35. In which mode of expression, the concentration
es

(c) PH3 (d) NH3


of a solution remains independent of temperature ?
(a) Molarity (b) Molality 43. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating
with conc. H2SO4 the initial step is :
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(a) formation of an ester
in

36. Which is least stable form of glucose ?


(b) protonation of alcohol molecule
(a) α–D glucose
(c) formation of carbocation
(b) β–D glucose
D

(c) Open chain structure of glucose. (d) elimination of water


(d) All are equally stable. 44. Which of the following compounds can yield only
one monochlorinated product upon free radical
37. Which of the following relationship is correct
chlorination ?
regarding glucose and fructose ?
(a) They are functional isomers (a) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane
(b) They are chain isomers (b) 2-Methylpropane
(c) They are position isomers (c) 2-Methylbutane
(d) All of these (d) n-Butane
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 19

45. Given below are two statements labelled as Select the most appropriate answer from the
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). options given below :
Assertion (A) : At room temperature, oxygen (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
exists as diatomic gas whereas sulphur exists as explanation of A.
solid. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
Reason (R) : The catenated oxygen atom chains explanation of A.
are less stable than O = O (c) A is true but R is false.
Select the most appropriate answer from the (d) A is false but R is true.
options given below : 48. Given below are two statements labelled as

ns
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
explanation of A. Assertion (A) : Nitrous oxide may act as oxidizing
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct as well as reducing agent.
explanation of A. Reason (R) : The oxidation number of nitrogen

tio
(c) A is true but R is false. remains same in all compounds.
(d) A is false but R is true. Select the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
46. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

a
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
explanation of A.
Assertion (A) : KCN reacts with methyl chloride
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct

ic
to give methyl isocyanide.
explanation of A.
Reason (R) : CN– is an ambident nucleophile. (c) A is true but R is false.
Select the most appropriate answer from the (d) A is false but R is true.
bl
options given below : 49. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
explanation of A. Assertion (A) : To avoid bends, the tanks used
Pu

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct by scuba divers are filled with air diluted with
explanation of A. helium.
(c) A is true but R is false. Reason(R) : Helium is highly soluble in blood at
(d) A is false but R is true. high temperature.
Select the most appropriate answer from the
47. Given below are two statements labelled as
h

options given below:


Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Assertion (A) : The solutions, which show a large
es

explanation of A.
positive deviation from Raoult’s law form maximum
boiling azeotrope at a specific composition. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
Reason (R) : Ethanol – water mixture containing
95% ethanol by volume form minimum boiling (c) A is true but R is false.
in

azeotrope. (d) A is false but R is true.


SECTION–C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any 5. In case more than
D

desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.

50. The number of chiral carbon present in cyclic


(a) oxygen and argon
structure of α – D (+) glucose is :
(a) 3 (b) 4 (b) oxygen and helium
(c) 5 (d) 6 (c) carbon dioxide and argon
51. Sea divers go deep in the sea water with a mixture (d) oxygen and carbon dioxide
of :
20 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
52. The preservation of integrity of the spatial Inc., 2011. Original Russian Text © E.A. Belenkov, V.A.
arrangement of bonds to an asymmetric centre AliPasha, 2011, published in Kristallografiya, 2011,
during a chemical reaction or transformation is Vol. 56, No. 1, pp. 107-112.)
called : 53. The search for new carbon structures with high
(a) retention of configuration strength characteristics in all crystallographic
directions is important because :
(b) inversion of configuration
(a) A very few forms of carbon are known.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(b) Graphite and diamond are the allotropes of carbon.
(d) none of these
(c) Diamond is hard but has high cost of synthesis.
CASE1: Read the passage given below and

ns
(d) Carbon is found in both crystalline and amorphous
answer the following questions 53-55. forms.
The structure of carbon materials, which is composed 54. Diamond has high strength characteristics in all
of sp2 hybridized atoms, is layered and graphite like; crystallographic directions due to :
these materials are characterized by a strong

tio
(a) high strength characteristics along the layer plane.
anisotropy of properties : high strength characteristics
along the layer plane and smaller values by an order (b) weak strength characteristics along the normal
of magnitude in the normal direction. Hence, they are direction.
used only as fillers in composites. Diamond (which (c) high strength characteristics along the layer plane

a
consists of sp3 hybridized atoms) has high strength as well as in the normal direction.
characteristics in all crystallographic directions; (d) 3D network structure with strong covalent bonds.
however, diamond based materials have not found

ic
55. Which of the following properties makes graphite
wide application because of the high cost of synthesis. soft ?
Therefore, the search for new carbon structures with
(a) high strength characteristics along the layer plane.
high strength characteristics in all crystallographic
bl
directions is a problem of great practical and scientific (b) weak strength characteristics along the normal
importance. Obviously, high strength characteristics can direction.
be provided in the case of 3D bound structures (3D (c) high strength characteristics along the layer plane
Pu
structure) with strong covalent bonds. as well as in the normal direction.
(Reference: ISSN 10637745, Crystallography Reports, (d) high strength characteristics along the layer plane
2011, Vol. 56, No. 1, pp. 101-106. © Pleiades Publishing, as well as in the normal direction.
h
es
in
D
Mock Test Paper-5
Subject : Chemistry (043)
Class–XII (Term-I)
Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 35
General Instructions : Same as Mock Test Paper-1.
SECTION–A
This section consists of 25 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case

ns
more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
1. Ammonia can be dried using : 7. Carboxylic acids are reduced to primary alcohols
in excellent yields by :
(a) CaO (b) P4O10
(a) Lithium aluminium hydride

tio
(c) conc. H2SO4 (d) anhydrous CaCl2
(b) Hydrogen
2. The cubic unit cell of Al (molar mass 27 g mol–1)
has an edge length of 405 pm. Its density is 2.7 g cm–3. (c) Both (a) and (b)
The cubic unit cell is : (d) None of these

a
(a) face centred (b) body centred 8. Which of the following are more covalent for
metals : trihalides or pentahalides ?
(c) primitive (d) edge centred

ic
(a) trihalides
3. “The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is
(b) pentahalides
directly proportional to the mole fraction of the
gas in the solution.’’ (c) Both are equally covalent
bl
(a) Raoult’s law (b) Dulong Petit law (d) None of these
9. The IUPAC name of cumene is :
(c) Henry’s law (d) Le-Chatelier’s Principle
(a) Isobutylbenzene (b) Isopropylbenzene
Pu
4. Due to Frenkel defect the density of ionic solid :
(c) Methylbenzene (d) None of these
(a) increases (b) decreases
10. The solid solution of CdCl2 and AgCl is the example
(c) remains same (d) fluctuates
of :
5. The correct order of reactivity of following alcohols
(a) Point defect (b) Impurity defect
with Na is :
(c) Interstitial defect (d) Both (a) and (b)
h

(A) CH3CH2—CH2—OH
11. The reaction between ethanol and methyl
(B) CH3CH2 CH OH magnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will
es

yield :
CH3
(a) secondary butyl alcohol
CH3 (b) tertiary butyl alcohol
(c) isobutyl alcohol
C
in

(C) CH3CH2 OH
(d) isopropyl alcohol
CH3 12. Molecular weight of biomolecules such as protein
can be determined by ______ method.
D

(a) (A) > (B) > (C) (b) (C) > (B) > (A)
(a) Osmotic pressure measurement.
(c) (B) > (A) > (C) (d) (A) > (C) > (B)
(b) Depression in freezing point measurement.
6. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides
(c) Elevation in boiling point measurement.
together by phosphodiester linkage. Between which
carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are (d) Vapour pressure measurement.
these linkages present ? 13. In the reaction of phenol with CHCl3 and aqueous
(a) 5′ and 3′ (b) 1′ and 5′ NaOH at 343 K, the product formed is :
(a) Salicylic acid (b) Aspirin
(c) 5′ and 5′ (d) 3′ and 3′
(c) Crotonic acid (d) Salicylaldehyde
21
22 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
14. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to : (b) Saturated solution of KCl.
(a) reduction (b) oxidation (c) Saturated solution of 1:1 mixture of NaCl and
(c) hydrolysis (d) acidic nature KCl.
15. Which of the following reactions of glucose can (d) Normal solution of NaCl.
be explained only by its cyclic structure ? 20. Chlorine is used in water for :
(a) Glucose forms pentaacetate. (a) killing germs (b) prevention of pollution
(b) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an (c) cleansing (d) removing dirt
oxime. 21. The symbol D and L represents :
(c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with (a) The optical activity of a compound.

ns
hydroxylamine. (b) The relative configuration of a particular
(d) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to gluconic isomer.
acid. (c) The dextrorotatory nature of the molecule.
16. Alkylhalides + Mg → (G) 
H 2O
→ Propane (d) The leavorotatory nature of the molecule.

tio
Boil
22. When copper is heated with conc. HNO 3 , it
The alkyl halide is : produces :
(a) Ethyl bromide (b) n-propyl iodide (a) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2
(c) isopropyl iodine (d) both (b) and (c) (b) Cu(NO3)2 and NO

a
17. Which of the following carbon atoms present in (c) Cu(NO3)2, NO2 and NO
the molecule given below are asymmetric ?
(d) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
HO
C
a
OH

C
b
H

C
c d
C
O

ic 23. Diethyl ether may be regarded as anhydride of :


(a) C2H5COOH (b) C2H5OH
bl (c) C2H5CHO (d) C2H5COOC2H5
O
H OH H 24. The range of common oxidation states shown by
(a) a, b, c, d (b) b, c phosphours is
(c) a, d (d) a, b, c
Pu
(a) –3 to 5 (b) –3 to 0
18. Chlorine reacts with excess of NH3 to form : (c) 0 to +5 (d) –4 to +2
(a) NH4Cl (b) N2 + HCl 25. Which of the following is equal to zero for ideal
(c) N2 + NH4Cl (d) NCl3 + HCl solution ?
19. Blood has been found isotonic with : (a) ∆Hmix (b) ∆Vmix
(a) Saturated solution of NaCl. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
h

SECTION–B
This section consists of 24 multiple choice questions with overall choice to attempt any 20 questions. In case
es

more than desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 20 will be considered for evaluation.
26. If 18 g of glucose is present in 1000 g of solvent, 30. tert-Butyl methyl ether on heating with HI gives a
the solution is said to be : mixture of :
(a) 1.0 molar (b) 0.1 molal (a) tert-Butyl alcohol and methyl iodide.
in

(c) 0.1 molar (d) 1.0 molal (b) tert-Butyl iodide and methanol.
27. Alkyl halides gives which of the following reaction ? (c) Isobutylene and methyl iodide.
D

(a) addition reaction (b) substitution reaction (d) Isobutylene and methanol.
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these 31. The most abundant noble gas in atmosphere is :
28. Which of the following is non-reducing ? (a) Helium (b) neon
(a) H2S (b) H2Se (c) argon (d) krypton
(c) H2Te (d) H2O 32. In face centred cubic unit cell, the edge length is :
29. A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed further 4r 4r
(a) (b)
into smaller units is called : 3 2
(a) Monosaccharides (b) Disaccharides 3r
(c) 2r (d)
(c) Trisaccharides (d) Polysaccharides 2
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 23

33. Which of the following compounds can yield only (c) methyl iodide and magnesium (Grignard
one monochlorinated product upon free radical reagent)
chlorination ? (d) methyl bromide and aluminium bromide
(a) n-Pentane (b) Isopentane 44. Bromination of methane in presence of sunlight
(c) Neopentane (d) All the above is a :
34. The noble gas which is most soluble in water is : (a) nucleophilic substitution
(a) xenon (b) argon (b) free radical substitution
(c) neon (d) helium (c) electrophilic substitution
35. The mass of solute is expressed as 116 ppm. The (d) nucleophilic addition

ns
mass percentage of solute is : 45. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) 11.6 (b) 0.116 Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(c) 1.16 (d) 0.0116 Assertion (A) : Xenon form fluorides.
36. Fructose is : Reason(R) : 5d orbitals are available for valence

tio
(a) Hemiacetal (b) Acetal shell expansion.
(c) Hemiketal (d) Ketal Select the most appropriate answer from the
37. Helium is preferred to be used in balloons instead options given below :
of hydrogen because it is : (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

a
(a) incombustible explanation of A.
(b) lighter than hydrogen (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct

ic
(c) more abundant than hydrogen explanation of A.
(d) non polarizable (c) A is true but R is false.
38. Percentage of free space in a body-centred cubic (d) A is false but R is true.
bl
unit cell is : 46. Given below are two statements labelled as
(a) 32 % (b) 34% Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : tert-Butyl bromide undergoes Wurtz
Pu
(c) 28% (d) 30%
reaction to give 2, 2, 3, 3- tetramethylbutane.
39. Which oxide of nitrogen forms dimer ?
Reason (R) : In Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides react
(a) N2O5 (b) NO2
with sodium in dry ether to give hydrocarbon
(c) NO (d) N2O
containing double the number of carbon atoms
40. Cyclohexene is best prepared from cyclohexanol present in the halide.
by which of the following ?
Select the most appropriate answer from the
h

(a) Conc. H3PO4 (b) Conc. HCl/ZnCl2 options given below :


(c) Conc. HCl (d) Conc. HBr (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
es

41. Which of the following compounds is most explanation of A.


acidic ? (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
OH explanation of A.
OH
(c) A is true but R is false.
in

(a) (b)
CH3 (d) A is false but R is true.
NO2
OH 47. Given below are two statements labelled as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
D

(c) (d) Cl—CH2—CH2—OH


Assertion (A) : If the intermolecular attractive
42. The maximum covalency of sulphur is : forces between the A – A and B –B are nearly
equal to those between A – B, this leads to the
(a) 2 (b) 4
formation of ideal solution.
(c) 6 (d) 8
Reason (R) : Most of the solution are nearly ideal
43. 1-Phenylethanol can be prepared by the reaction in behaviour.
of benzaldehyde with :
Select the most appropriate answer from the
(a) methyl bromide options given below :
(b) ethyl iodide and magnesium
24 CHEMISTRY-XII (CBSE)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A. explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (c) A is true but R is false.
explanation of A. (d) A is false but R is true.
(c) A is true but R is false. 49. Given below are two statements labelled as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(d) A is false but R is true.
Assertion (A) : Colloidal solution show colligative
48. Given below are two statements labelled as
properties.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Reason (R) : Colloidal particles are large in size.

ns
Assertion (A) : Dioxygen is paramagnetic in Select the most appropriate answer from the
nature. options given below :
Reason (R) : Oxygen is found in free state only. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Select the most appropriate answer from the explanation of A.

tio
options given below : (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

a
SECTION–C
This section consists of 6multiple choice questions with an overall choice to attempt any5. In case more than

ic
desirable number of questions are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation.

50. Match the following :


bl
CASE 1: Read the passage given below and
Column–I Column–II answer the following questions 53-55.
1. Glucose + HI (i) Glucose oxime Silica is one of the most abundant material found
Pu

+ heat in earth’s crust. In its amorphous form it is found


2. Glucose + NH2OH (ii) Glucose pentaacetate as quartz glass. An extremely versatile material
3. Glucose + Br2 (iii) n-Hexane used in manufacturing lens, windows and optical
– water transmission has outstanding thermal properties,
4. Gluocse + acetic (iv) Gluconic acid with good electrical performance. However
experimental verification revealed that refractive
h

anhydride
index of quartz is different from quartz glass.
(a) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i) 53. The chemical formula of quartz glass is :
es

(b) 1(iii), 2(i), 3(ii), 4(iv)


(a) Si (b) SiO
(c) 1(iii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(ii)
(d) 1(iv), 2(ii), 3(i), 4(iii) (c) SiO2 (d) None of these
51. Which of the following statement is false ? 54. Refractive index of a solid is observed to have
in

(a) nitrogen has the ability to form bonds with same value along different directions. Solid is :
itself. (a) anisotropic (b) isotropic
(b) bismuth form metallic bonds in elemental state.
D

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these


(c) catenation tendency is higher in nitrogen when
compared to other members of the same group. 55. Quartz, a crystalline solid can be converted into
quartz glass by :
(d) nitrogen has higher first ionization enthalpy when
compared to other elements of the same group. (a) meting and then slow cooling.
52. If a compound rotates plane polarized light to the (b) melting and rapid cooling.
right it is called: (c) melting and heating very strongly.
(a) dextrorotatory (b) leavorotatory
(d) all of these methods.
(c) both(a) and (b) (d) none of these
Mock Test Papers (Term–I) 25

Mock Test Paper–1


1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b)

ns
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (b)

Mock Test Paper–2

tio
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (d)

a
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (b)

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a)ic


Mock Test Paper–3
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)
bl
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (?) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (a)
Pu

41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (a)

Mock Test Paper–4


1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d)
h

11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (b)
es

41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b)

Mock Test Paper–5


in

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (a)
D

21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (b)

You might also like