1-6 First Midterm

Name: Class: Date:
Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

True / False
1. Most firms give their IT budgets a low priority in good economic times.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
2. A mission-critical system is one that is unimportant to a company’s operations.

a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
3. In an information system, data is information that has been transformed into input that is valuable to users.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
4. Transaction processing (TP) systems are inefficient because they process a set of transaction-related commands
individually rather than as a group.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
5. In a knowledge management system, a knowledge base consists of logical rules that identify data patterns and
relationships.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
6. Most large companies require systems that combine transaction processing, business support, knowledge management,
and user productivity features.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
7. Since middle managers focus on a longer time frame, they need less detailed information than top managers, but
somewhat more than supervisors who oversee day-to-day operations.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
8. Many companies find that a trend called empowerment, which gives employees more responsibility and accountability,
improves employee motivation and increases customer satisfaction.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 1
Name: Class: Date:
9. Network administration includes hardware and software maintenance, support, and security.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
10. The responsibilities of a systems analyst at a small firm are exactly the same as those at a large corporation.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
Modified True / False
11. System software consists of programs that support day-to-day business functions and provide users with the
information they require.
ANSWER: False - Application
12. Joint application development (JAD) is like a compressed version of the entire development process.
ANSWER: False - Rapid application development, Rapid application development (RAD), RAD, RAD (Rapid
application development)
13. User support provides users with technical information, training, and productivity support.
ANSWER: True
Multiple Choice
14. _____ refers to the combination of hardware, software, and services that people use to manage, communicate, and
share information.
a. Instructional technology
b. Information technology
c. Assistive technology
d. Medical technology
ANSWER: b
15. A large concentration of servers working together is called a _____.

a. server window
b. server application
c. server ranch
d. server farm
ANSWER: d
16. _____ controls the flow of data, provides data security, and manages network operations.
a. Enterprise software
b. System software
c. Application software
d. Legacy software
Name: Class: Date:
ANSWER: b
17. Examples of company-wide applications, called _____, include order processing systems, payroll systems, and
company communications networks.
a. enterprise applications
b. network operating systems (NOS)
c. operating applications
d. legacy systems
ANSWER: a
18. When planning an information system, a company must consider how a new system will interface with older systems,
which are called _____.
a. enterprise applications
b. network operating systems (NOS)
c. operating applications
d. legacy systems
ANSWER: d
19. Internet-based commerce is called _____ and includes two main sectors: B2C (business-to-consumer) and B2B
(business-to-business).
a. electronic commerce
b. network-oriented commerce
c. virtual trading
d. online trading
ANSWER: a
20. Which of the following is one of the main sectors of ecommerce?

a. C2C (consumer-to-consumer)
b. B2C (business-to-consumer)
c. C2B (consumer-to-business)
d. BPM (business process model)
ANSWER: b
21. _____ enabled computer-to-computer transfer of data between companies, usually over private telecommunications
networks.
a. Electronic data interchange (EDI)
b. Radio frequency identification (RFID)
c. Enterprise resource planning (ERP)
d. Object-oriented (O-O) analysis
ANSWER: a
22. A _____ is an overview that describes a company’s overall functions, processes, organization, products, services,
customers, suppliers, competitors, constraints, and future direction.
a. business matrix
b. business profile
Name: Class: Date:
c. business index
d. business glossary
ANSWER: b
23. A _____ graphically displays one or more business processes, such as handling an airline reservation, filling a product
order, or updating a customer account.
a. business matrix model (BMM)
b. business process model (BPM)
c. business indexing model (BIM)
d. business strategic model (BSM)
ANSWER: b
24. For complex models, analysts can choose computer-based modeling tools that use _____, which includes standard
shapes and symbols to represent events, processes, workflows, and more.
a. electronic data interchange (EDI)
b. joint application development (JAD)
c. business process modeling notation (BPMN)
d. rapid application development (RAD)
ANSWER: c
25. Transaction processing (TP) systems _____.

a. provide job-related information to users at all levels of a company
b. simulate human reasoning by combining a knowledge base and inference rules that determine how the
knowledge is applied
c. process data generated by day-to-day business operations
d. include email, voice mail, fax, video conferencing, word processing, automated calendars, database
management, spreadsheets, and integrated mobile computing systems
ANSWER: c
26. Business support systems _____.

a. provide job-related information support to users at all levels of a company
d. include email, voice mail, fax, video conferencing, word processing, automated calendars, database
management, spreadsheets, and integrated mobile computing systems
ANSWER: a
27. _____ technology uses high-frequency radio waves to track physical objects.
a. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
b. Radio frequency identification (RFID)
c. Enterprise resource planning (ERP)
d. Management information system (MIS)
ANSWER: b

Name: Class: Date:

28. Knowledge management systems use a large database called a(n) _____ that allows users to find information by
entering keywords or questions in normal English phrases.
a. inference engine
b. knowledge base
c. knowledge database management system
d. inference manager
ANSWER: b
29. User productivity systems _____.

a. provide job-related information to users at all levels of a company
d. include groupware programs that enable users to share data, collaborate on projects, and work in teams
ANSWER: d
30. In a typical organizational model, top managers _____.

a. develop long-range plans, called strategic plans, which define a company’s overall mission and goals
b. provide direction, necessary resources, and performance feedback to supervisors and team leaders
c. oversee operation employees and carry out day-to-day functions, coordinating operational tasks and people
d. include users who rely on transaction processing (TP) systems to enter and receive the data they need to
perform their jobs
ANSWER: a
31. In a typical company organizational model, middle managers _____.

a. develop long-range plans, called strategic plans, which define the company’s overall mission and goals
b. provide direction, necessary resources, and performance feedback to supervisors and team leaders
c. oversee operation employees and carry out day-to-day functions, coordinating operational tasks and people
d. include users who rely on transaction processing (TP) systems to enter and receive the data they need to
perform their jobs
ANSWER: b
32. _____ is a systems development technique that produces a graphical representation of a concept or process that
systems developers can analyze, test, and modify.
a. Prototyping
b. Rapid application development
c. Scrum
d. Modeling
ANSWER: d
33. A _____ describes the information that a system must provide.

a. process model
b. data model
c. business model
d. network model
Name: Class: Date:
ANSWER: c
34. _____ is a systems development technique that tests system concepts and provides an opportunity to examine input,
output, and user interfaces before final decisions are made.
a. Scrum
b. Prototyping
c. Modeling
d. Rapid application development
ANSWER: b
35. Identify a method of developing systems that is well-suited to traditional project management tools and techniques.
a. Object-oriented analysis
b. Adaptive method
c. Structured analysis
ANSWER: c
36. The _____ method of developing systems produces code that is modular and reusable.
a. object-oriented analysis
b. adaptive
c. structured analysis
d. rapid application development
ANSWER: a
37. Which of the following methods of system development stresses intense team-based effort and reflects a set of
community-based values?
a. Object-oriented analysis
b. Agile method
c. Structured analysis
ANSWER: b
38. One of the disadvantages of _____ methods of system development is that the overall project might be subject to
scope change as user requirements change.
a. object-oriented analysis
b. agile
c. structured analysis
d. rapid application development
ANSWER: b
39. Structured analysis is a traditional systems development technique that uses a series of phases, called the _____, to
plan, analyze, design, implement, and support an information system.
a. object-oriented (O-O) analysis
b. systems development life cycle (SDLC)
c. transaction processing (TP) system
Name: Class: Date:
d. enterprise resource planning system (ERP)

ANSWER: b
40. Structured analysis is called a(n) _____ technique because it focuses on processes that transform data into useful
information.
a. iterative
b. process-centered
c. inferred
d. model-specific
ANSWER: b
41. A(n) _____ shows the data that flows in and out of system processes.
a. process model
b. object model
c. business model
d. network model
ANSWER: a
42. A(n) _____ uses various symbols and shapes to represent data flow, processing, and storage.
a. process flow diagram
b. object model
c. data flow diagram
d. network model
ANSWER: c
43. In a(n) _____ model, the result of each phase is called a deliverable, which flows into the next phase.
a. interactive
b. iterative
c. waterfall
d. spiral
ANSWER: c
44. The _____ usually begins with a formal request to the IT department, called a systems request, which describes
problems or desired changes in an information system or a business process.
a. systems design phase
b. systems planning phase
c. systems support and security phase
d. systems analysis phase
ANSWER: b
45. In a systems development life cycle (SDLC) model, the purpose of the _____ is to build a logical model of the new
system.
a. systems analysis phase
b. systems implementation phase

Name: Class: Date:
c. systems design phase

d. systems support and security phase
ANSWER: a
46. In a systems development life cycle (SDLC) model, the purpose of the _____ is to create a physical model that will
satisfy all documented requirements for the system.
a. systems implementation phase
b. systems planning phase
c. systems analysis phase
d. systems design phase
ANSWER: d
47. During the _____ of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), a new system is constructed.
a. systems planning phase
b. systems support and security phase
c. systems design phase
d. systems implementation phase
ANSWER: d
48. The systems implementation phase of the systems development life cycle (SDLC) includes an assessment, called a
_____, to determine whether the system operates properly and if costs and benefits are within expectation.
a. systems estimation
b. systems verification
c. systems validation
d. systems evaluation
ANSWER: d
49. During the _____ of the systems development life cycle (SDLC), the IT staff maintains, enhances, and protects the
system.
a. systems support and security phase
b. systems implementation phase
c. systems analysis phase
d. systems planning phase
ANSWER: a
50. In object-oriented analysis, objects possess characteristics called _____.

a. properties
b. orientations
c. classes
d. inheritances
ANSWER: d
51. In object-oriented analysis, an object is a member of a(n) _____, which is a collection of similar objects.
a. property

Name: Class: Date:
b. class
c. message
d. instance
ANSWER: b
52. In object-oriented design, built-in processes called _____ can change an object’s properties.
a. methods
b. functions
c. attributes
d. features
ANSWER: a
53. Agile methods typically use a(n) _____ , which represents a series of iterations based on user feedback.
a. incremental model
b. extreme model
c. spiral model
d. evaluative model
ANSWER: c
54. The _____ group typically provides leadership and overall guidance, but the systems themselves are developed by
teams consisting of users, managers, and IT staff members.
a. web support
b. application development
c. systems support
d. database administration
ANSWER: b
55. _____ provides vital protection and maintenance services for system hardware and software, including enterprise
computing systems, networks, transaction processing systems, and corporate IT infrastructure.
a. User support
b. Database administration
c. Systems support and security
d. Network administration
ANSWER: c
56. A _____ answers questions, troubleshoots problems, and serves as a clearinghouse for user problems and solutions.
a. user support specialist
b. database administrator
c. web support specialist
d. network administrator
ANSWER: a
57. _____ design and construct webpages, monitor traffic, manage hardware and software, and link web-based
applications to a company’s information systems.

Name: Class: Date:
a. User support specialists

b. Database administrators
c. Web support specialists
d. Network administrators
ANSWER: c
58. Many large IT departments use a(n) _____ team that reviews and tests all applications and systems changes to verify
specifications and software quality standards.
a. beta testing
b. quality assurance
c. alpha testing
d. acceptance verifier
ANSWER: b
59. A(n) _____ investigates, analyzes, designs, develops, installs, evaluates, and maintains a company’s information
systems.
a. application developer
b. database administrator
c. network administrator
d. systems analyst
ANSWER: d
60. Many hardware and software companies offer _____ for IT professionals, which verifies that an individual
demonstrated a certain level of knowledge and skill on a standardized test.
a. spot identification
b. certification
c. education
d. accreditation
ANSWER: b
61. A(n) _____ is the set of beliefs, rules, traditions, values, and attitudes that define a company and influence its way of
doing business.
a. corporate culture
b. team guideline
c. mission statement
d. ongoing rule-set
ANSWER: a
Critical Thinking Questions

Case 1-1
Roark has just joined a company and in his role as a lead analyst, he will be responsible for determining which systems
development method the team uses to create a new application for a major medical supplier.
62. After Roark has spent a week getting to know the members of the team, including their strengths and weaknesses, and
Name: Class: Date:

what has worked well (and not so well) for this particular team in the past, one theme keeps recurring: the team has
particularly weak communications skills. Which of the following methods is Roark least likely to use, given that he
knows about the disadvantages of each method?
a. Structured analysis
b. Agile/adaptive methods
c. Object-oriented analysis
ANSWER: b
63. It is a new day at the firm. Roark has been in place for a few weeks, strengthening the communications skills of his
employees, getting them to work much better together. Now, the challenge that he faces is not an internal one; it lies with
the client, which is increasingly incapable of sticking with decisions. Roark, based on his past experience with other
clients like this, is afraid that the client will throw them a curveball and want to make changes late in the game—but that
they also will be unwilling to absorb the costs of those changes. For this reason, which of the following methods of
development will Roark eliminate?
a. Structured analysis
b. Agile/adaptive methods
c. Object-oriented analysis
ANSWER: a

Case 1-2
Maddy has been performing at a very high level at a firm, and so when two of her colleagues who are currently leading
other development efforts get sick or leave the company, she is asked to step in and help manage these two other efforts.
64. When Maddy sits down at the first meeting at which the first group is gathering, she hears them discussing the
feasibility study in which they are currently engaged. She knows, then, in which phase of the systems development life
cycle (SDLC) this team currently is. Which phase is it?
a. Systems analysis
b. Systems design
c. Systems planning
d. Systems implementation
ANSWER: c
65. After leaving the first meeting, Maddy goes down the hall to meet with the outgoing manager of the second team. In
that meeting, he shares with her the latest draft of the systems requirement document, which is nearly complete. In which
phase is the second team currently?
a. Systems analysis
b. Systems design
c. Systems planning
d. Systems implementation
ANSWER: a
Multiple Response

Name: Class: Date:

66. An example of a vertical system is a(n) _____.
a. inventory application
b. medical practice application
c. payroll application
d. database for an auto dealership
ANSWER: b, d
67. A business process describes a specific set of _____.

a. transactions
b. employees
c. events
d. results
ANSWER: a, c, d
68. Product-oriented firms manufacture _____.

a. retail services
b. routers
c. computers
d. microchips
ANSWER: b, c, d
Matching
Identify the letter of the choice that best matches the phrase or definition.
a. Management information system (MIS)
b. Modeling
c. Message
d. Spiral model
e. Enterprise resource planning (ERP)
f. Team leaders
g. Operational employees
h. Supply chain
i. Scalable design
j. Prototype
69. In many large companies, these kinds of systems provide cost-effective support for users and managers throughout the
company.
ANSWER: e
70. The name for new business support systems that produced valuable information, in addition to performing manual
tasks; their primary users were managers.
ANSWER: a
71. All companies that provide materials, services, and functions needed to provide a product to a customer.
ANSWER: h
Name: Class: Date:
72. An approach that proponents believe reduces risks and speeds up software development
ANSWER: d
73. People who oversee operational employees and carry out day-to-day functions
ANSWER: f
74. People who rely on transaction processing (TP) systems to enter and receive data they need to perform their jobs
ANSWER: g
75. Produces a graphical representation of a concept or process that systems developers can analyze, test, and modify
ANSWER: b
76. Requests specific behavior or information from another object

ANSWER: c
77. Can expand to meet new business requirements and volumes

ANSWER: i
78. An early working version of an information system

ANSWER: j
Essay
79. Who is a knowledge worker, and why this kind of worker is required by successful companies?
ANSWER: Knowledge workers include systems analysts, programmers, accountants, researchers, trainers, human
resource specialists, and other professionals. Knowledge workers also use business support systems,
knowledge management systems, and user productivity systems. Knowledge workers provide support for an
organization's basic functions. Just as a military unit requires logistical support, a successful company needs
knowledge workers to carry out its mission.
80. Discuss the pros and cons of agile methods.

ANSWER: Pros:
Stresses team interaction and reflects a set of community-based values.
Frequent deliverables constantly validate the project and reduce risk.
Cons:
Team members need a high level of technical and communications skills. Lack of structure and
documentation can introduce risk factors.
Overall project might be subject to scope change as user requirements change.

Name: Class: Date:
Chapter 2 – Analyzing the Business Case

True / False
1. Systems requests seldom are aimed at improving service to users within a company.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
2. Internal and external factors affect every business decision that a company makes, and IT systems are no exception.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
3. A strategic plan that stresses technology tends to create an unfavorable climate for IT projects that extends throughout
an organization.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
4. As users rely more heavily on information systems to perform their jobs, they are likely to request even more IT
services and support.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
5. Information systems that interact with customers usually receive low priority.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
6. Competition drives many information systems decisions.

a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
7. Economic activity has a negligible influence on corporate information management.

a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
8. Most large companies rely on one person to evaluate systems requests instead of relying on a systems review
committee.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
9. When assessing schedule feasibility, a systems analyst must consider the interaction between time and costs.
Name: Class: Date:
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
10. The first step in evaluating feasibility is to accept and include all systems requests, even those that are not feasible.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
11. Feasibility analysis is an ongoing task that must be performed throughout the systems development process.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
12. The purpose of an interview, and of the preliminary investigation itself, is to convince others that a project is justified,
not to uncover facts.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
13. It is easier to assign dollar values to intangible benefits.

ANSWER: False - tangible
14. The Pareto chart, sometimes called a scatter diagram, is a problem solving tool.
ANSWER: False - XY chart
15. In a preliminary investigation report, the findings section includes a summary of a project request and a specific
recommendation.
ANSWER: False - recommendations
Multiple Choice
16. The term _____ refers to the reasons, or justifications, for a proposal.
a. business case
b. use case
c. work statement
d. problem charter
ANSWER: a
17. Systems development typically starts with a _____.

a. feasibility study, followed by a systems request, which includes a preliminary investigation
b. systems request, followed by a preliminary investigation, which includes a feasibility study
c. preliminary investigation, followed by a feasibility study, which includes a systems request

Name: Class: Date:
d. feasibility study, followed by a preliminary investigation, which includes a systems request

ANSWER: b
18. _____ planning is the process of identifying long-term organizational goals, strategies, and resources.
a. Prospect
b. Pilot
c. Strategic
d. Vertical
ANSWER: c
19. Strategic planning starts with a _____ that reflects a firm’s vision, purpose, and values.
a. relationship diagram
b. feasibility study
c. performance assessment
d. mission statement
ANSWER: d
20. _____ usually focus on long-term challenges and goals, the importance of a firm’s stakeholders, and a commitment to
the firm’s role as a corporate citizen.
a. Performance assessments
b. Relationship assessments
c. Vision statements
d. Mission statements
ANSWER: d
21. A _____ must be achieved to fulfill a company’s mission.

a. key performance factor
b. core competency
c. critical success factor
d. vision competency
ANSWER: c
22. The overall aim of a _____ is to avoid seeking goals that are unrealistic, unprofitable, or unachievable.
a. SWOT (Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, and Threats) analysis
b. CSF (Critical Success Factor) analysis
c. BCF (Business Case Factor) analysis
d. SWCT (Strategy, Weakness, Cost, and Technology) analysis
ANSWER: a
23. Hardware-based security controls include _____.

a. password fields
b. online forms
c. system patterns
d. biometric devices
Name: Class: Date:
ANSWER: d
24. _____ limitations result when a system that was designed for a specific hardware configuration becomes obsolete
when new hardware is introduced.
a. Accessibility
b. Relationship
c. Feasibility
d. Performance
ANSWER: d
25. _____ technology uses radio frequency identification (RFID) tags to identify and monitor the movement of each
individual product, from a factory floor to the retail checkout counter.
a. EPC (Electronic product code)
b. EPOD (Electronic proof of delivery)
c. MCC (Magnetic character code)
d. RTPD (Real-time product delivery)
ANSWER: a
26. _____ components can provide automated response to sales inquiries, online order processing, and inventory tracking.
a. Just-in-time (JIT)
b. Customer relationship management (CRM)
c. Automatic teller machine (ATM)
d. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
ANSWER: b
27. Electronic data interchange (EDI) enables _____ inventory systems, which rely on computer-to-computer data
exchange to minimize unnecessary inventory.
a. CRM (Customer relationship management)
b. EPOD (Electronic proof of delivery)
c. JIT (Just-in-time)
d. RFID (Radio frequency identification)
ANSWER: c
28. Many companies implement _____ systems that integrate all customer-related events and transactions.
a. CRM (Customer relationship management)
b. TCO (Total cost of ownership)
c. JIT (Just-in-time)
d. RFID (Radio frequency identification)
ANSWER: a
29. Using _____, a supplier can use radio frequency identification (RFID) tags on each crate, case, or shipping unit to
create a digital shipping list.
a. EPOD (Electronic proof of delivery)
b. PPOD (Physical proof of delivery)
c. RPS (Radio positioning system)
Name: Class: Date:
d. RDS (Radar detection system)

ANSWER: a
30. The objective of a _____ is to use the combined judgement and experience of several analysts to evaluate systems
projects.
a. computer resources committee
b. data storage committee
c. system networking committee
d. topology identification committee
ANSWER: a
31. _____ means that a proposed system will be used effectively after it has been developed.
a. Operational feasibility
b. Technical feasibility
c. Schedule feasibility
d. Economic feasibility
ANSWER: a
32. _____ refers to the practical resources needed to develop, purchase, install, or operate a system.
d. Market feasibility
ANSWER: b
33. _____ includes ongoing support and maintenance costs, as well as acquisition costs.
a. CRC (Customer relationship costs)
b. TCO (Total cost of ownership)
c. JIT (Just-in-time costs)
d. RCT (Real cost of time)
ANSWER: b
34. Of the measures of feasibility, questions such as “Does management support the project?” and “Will the new system
require training for users?” would help predict a system’s _____.
a. schedule feasibility
b. technical feasibility
c. economic feasibility
d. operational feasibility
ANSWER: d
35. Of the measures of feasibility, questions such as “Does the proposed platform have sufficient capacity for future
needs?” and “Will the hardware and software environment be reliable?” should be considered while assessing _____.

Name: Class: Date:
d. ethical feasibility
ANSWER: b
36. _____ means that the projected benefits of a proposed system outweigh the estimated costs.
a. Economic feasibility
b. Schedule feasibility
c. Operational feasibility
d. Technical feasibility
ANSWER: a
37. Which of the following is an example of a tangible benefit?

a. A user-friendly system that improves employee job satisfaction
b. A sales tracking system that supplies better information for marketing decisions
c. A new website that enhances a company’s image
d. An online package tracking system that improves service and decreases the need for clerical staff
ANSWER: d
38. Which of the following is an example of an intangible benefit?

a. A user-friendly system that improves employee job satisfaction
b. A new scheduling system that reduces overtime
c. An online package tracking system that improves service and decreases the need for clerical staff
d. A sophisticated inventory control system that cuts excess inventory
ANSWER: a
39. _____ are the benefits that can be measured in dollars.

a. Tangible benefits
b. Intangible benefits
c. Ethical benefits
d. Agile benefits
ANSWER: a
40. _____ are advantages that are difficult to measure in dollars but are important to a company.
c. Tactile benefits
d. Real benefits
ANSWER: b
41. _____ result from a decrease in expenses, an increase in revenues, or both.

c. Agile benefits
d. Ethical benefits
Name: Class: Date:
ANSWER: a
42. Of the measures of feasibility, _____ assesses tangible and intangible benefits to a company in addition to costs.
d. operational feasibility
ANSWER: c
43. _____ means that a project can be implemented in an acceptable time frame.
d. Economic feasibility
ANSWER: c
44. When assessing _____, a systems analyst must consider the interaction between time and costs.
a. resource feasibility
c. schedule feasibility
d. market feasibility
ANSWER: c
45. Projects that provide the _____ are assigned the highest priority when setting priorities for systems requests.
a. greatest benefit, at the lowest cost, in the shortest period of time
b. greatest benefit, at the highest cost, in the shortest period of time
c. least benefit, at the lowest cost, in the longest period of time
d. least benefit, at the highest cost, in the longest period of time
ANSWER: a
46. Which of the following is an example of a discretionary project?

a. Creating a new report for a user
b. Adding a report required by a new federal law
c. Including annual updates to payroll and tax percentages
d. Updating quarterly changes in reporting requirements for an insurance processing system
ANSWER: a
47. Projects where management has a choice in implementing them are called _____ projects.
a. discretionary
b. nondiscretionary
c. appended
d. concatenated
ANSWER: a

Name: Class: Date:

48. Projects where management has no choice in implementing them are called _____ projects.
a. discretionary
b. nondiscretionary
c. appended
d. concatenated
ANSWER: b
49. A systems analyst conducts a preliminary investigation to study the _____ and recommend specific action.
a. systems request
b. project scheduling report
c. systems validation
d. project staffing report
ANSWER: a
50. A popular technique for investigating causes and effects is called a _____ diagram.
a. causebone
b. fishbone
c. jawbone
d. crossbone
ANSWER: b
51. A _____ is an analysis tool that represents the possible causes of a problem as a graphical outline.
a. causebone diagram
b. fishbone diagram
c. jawbone diagram
d. crossbone diagram
ANSWER: b
52. When using a _____ to investigate the causes of a problem, an analyst first states the problem and then draws a main
bone with sub-bones that represent possible causes of the problem.
a. causebone diagram
b. fishbone diagram
c. jawbone diagram
d. crossbone diagram
ANSWER: b
53. Determining the _____ means defining the specific boundaries, or extent, of a project.
a. project index
b. project matrix
c. project scope
d. project table
ANSWER: c
54. To avoid the problem of _____, a project’s scope should be defined as clearly as possible.
Name: Class: Date:
a. project dilation
b. project expansion
c. project creep
d. project drift
ANSWER: c
55. Projects with very general scope definitions are at risk of expanding gradually, without specific authorization, in a
process called _____.
a. project dilation
b. project creep
c. project expansion
d. project drift
ANSWER: b
56. A _____ is a requirement or condition that a system must satisfy or an outcome that a system must achieve.
a. trigger
b. constraint
c. query
d. key
ANSWER: b
57. The objective of _____ is to gather data about project usability, costs, benefits, and schedules.
a. mediation
b. fact-finding
c. project execution
d. project maintenance
ANSWER: b
58. A(n) _____ is not as flexible as a series of interviews, but it is less expensive, generally takes less time, and can
involve a broad cross-section of people.
a. fishbone
b. experiment
c. survey
d. research
ANSWER: c
59. The _____, named after a nineteenth-century economist, is a widely used tool for visualizing issues that need attention
and is drawn as a vertical bar graph.
a. Pareto chart
b. Gantt chart
c. Scatter chart
d. XY chart
ANSWER: a

Name: Class: Date:

60. A _____ is a summary of a project request and a specific recommendation.
a. case for action
b. routine report
c. breakdown report
d. case for approval
ANSWER: a
61. In a preliminary investigation report, the _____ section contains a brief description of the system, the name of the
person or group performing the investigation, and the name of the person or group who initiated the investigation.
a. introduction
b. recommendations
c. expected benefits
d. time and costs estimates
ANSWER: a
62. In a preliminary investigation report, the _____ section contains the results of the preliminary investigation, including
a description of the project’s scope, constraints, and feasibility.
a. appendix
b. introduction
c. recommendations
d. findings
ANSWER: d
63. In a preliminary investigation report, the _____ section is included in the report if supporting information must be
attached.
a. appendix
b. introduction
c. recommendations
d. findings
ANSWER: a
CASE
Case 2-1
Lara, managing director of an information technology firm, has received a big project from one of their highly valuable
clients. However,
the project received is different from the usual projects they handle.
64. Lara performs certain analyses and ensures that the company’s image will not be at risk by taking this project. This is
an example of _____.
a. operational feasibility
b. economic feasibility
c. technical feasibility
d. schedule feasibility
Name: Class: Date:
ANSWER: a
65. Lara is involved in many other projects so she appoints a project manager for this project to ensure that the project is
completed on time. This is an example of _____.
a. operational feasibility
b. economic feasibility
c. technical feasibility
d. schedule feasibility
ANSWER: d
Multiple Response
66. A SWOT (Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, and Threats) analysis contributes to the strategic planning process by
examining a firm’s _____ resources.
a. technical
b. human
c. financial
d. logistical
ANSWER: a, b, c
67. The main reasons for systems requests are _____.

a. improved services to customers
b. reduced support for new products and services
c. better performance
d. reduced cost
ANSWER: a, c, d
68. _____ are external factors that shape corporate IT choices.

a. Technology
b. Competitors
c. Managers
d. Suppliers
ANSWER: a, b, d
69. _____ are internal factors that shape corporate IT choices.

a. Technology
b. User requests
c. Strategic plan
d. Company finances
ANSWER: b, c, d
Matching
Identify the letters of the choices that best match the sentences or definitions.
a. Schedule feasibility
Name: Class: Date:
b. Electronic product code

c. Customer relationship management components
d. Systems development
e. Electronic proof of delivery
f. Systems request
g. Just-in-time
h. Preliminary investigation
i. Organization chart
j. Case for action
70. It typically starts with a systems request, followed by a preliminary investigation, which includes a feasibility study.
ANSWER: d
71. This might propose enhancements for an existing system, the correction of problems, or the development of an
entirely new information system.
ANSWER: f
72. It is a system that provides the right products at the right place at the right time.
ANSWER: g
73. It is a technology that is expected to overshadow bar code technology in the future.
ANSWER: b
74. They provide automated responses to sales inquiries, online order processing, and inventory tracking.
ANSWER: c
75. With this application, a supplier can use radio frequency identification (RFID) tags on each crate, case, or shipping
unit to create a digital shipping list.
ANSWER: e
76. When assessing this, a systems analyst must consider the interaction between time and costs.
ANSWER: a
77. Its end product is a report to management.

ANSWER: h
78. It shows formal reporting relationships of a group.

ANSWER: i
79. It is a summary of a project request and a specific recommendation.

ANSWER: j
Essay
80. Discuss in detail the six main reasons for systems requests, including examples where appropriate.
ANSWER: The six main reasons for systems requests are stronger controls, reduced cost, more information, better
performance, improved service to customers, and more support for new products and services.
Name: Class: Date:
Stronger controls: A system must have effective controls to ensure that data is secure and accurate. Some
common security controls include passwords, various levels of user access, and encryption, or coding of data
to keep it safe from unauthorized users. Hardware-based security controls include biometric devices that can
identify a person by a retina scan or by mapping a fingerprint pattern. The technology uses infrared scanners
that create images with thousands of measurements of hand and finger characteristics. In addition to being
secure, data also must be accurate. Controls should minimize data entry errors whenever possible. For
example, if a user enters an invalid customer number, the order processing system should reject the entry
immediately and prompt the user to enter a valid number. Data entry controls must be effective without being
excessive. If a system requires users to confirm every item with an “Are you sure? Y/N” message, internal
users and customers might complain that the system is not user-friendly.
Reduced cost: The current system could be expensive to operate or maintain as a result of technical
problems, design weaknesses, or the changing demands of a business. It might be possible to adapt the
system to newer technology or upgrade it. On the other hand, cost-benefit analysis might show that a new
system would be more cost effective and provide better support for long-term objectives.
More information: A system might produce information that is insufficient, incomplete, or unable to
support the company’s changing information needs. For example, a system that tracks customer orders might
not be capable of analyzing and predicting marketing trends. In the face of intense competition and rapid
product development cycles, managers need the best possible information to make major decisions on
planning, designing, and marketing new products and services.
Better performance: The current system might not meet performance requirements. For example, it might
respond slowly to data inquiries at certain times, or it might be unable to support company growth.
Performance limitations also result when a system that was designed for a specific hardware configuration
becomes obsolete when new hardware is introduced.
Improved service: Systems requests often are aimed at improving service to customers or users within a
company. For instance, allowing mutual fund investors to check their account balances on a website, storing
data on rental car customer preferences, or creating an online college registration system are all examples of
providing valuable services and increased customer satisfaction.
More support for new products and services: New products and services often require new types or levels
of IT support. For example, a software vendor might offer an automatic upgrade service for subscribers, or a
package delivery company might add a special service for radio frequency identification (RFID)-tagged
shipments. In situations like these, it is most likely that additional IT support will be required. At the other
end of the spectrum, product obsolescence can also be an important factor in IT planning. As new products
enter the marketplace, vendors often announce that they will no longer provide support for older versions. A
lack of vendor support would be an important consideration in deciding whether or not to upgrade.
81. Describe in detail the internal factors that affect the business decisions a company makes.
ANSWER: Internal factors include the strategic plan, top managers, user requests, information technology department,
existing systems and data, and company finances.
Strategic plan: A company’s strategic plan sets the overall direction for a firm and has an important impact
on IT projects. Company goals and objectives that need IT support will generate systems requests and
influence IT priorities. A strategic plan that stresses technology tends to create a favorable climate for IT
projects that extends throughout the organization.
Top managers: Because significant resources are required, top management usually initiates large-scale
systems projects. Those decisions often result from strategic business goals that require new IT systems,
more information for decision making, or better support for mission-critical information systems.
Name: Class: Date:
User requests: As users rely more heavily on information systems to perform their jobs, they are likely to
request even more IT services and support. For example, sales reps might request improvements to a
company’s website, a more powerful sales analysis report, a network to link all sales locations, or an online
system that allows customers to obtain the status of their orders instantly. Or, users might not be satisfied
with the current system because it is difficult to learn or lacks flexibility. They might want information
systems support for business requirements that did not even exist when the system was developed.
Information technology department: Systems project requests come from the IT department. IT staff
members often make recommendations based on their knowledge of business operations and technology
trends. IT proposals might be strictly technical matters, such as replacement of certain network components,
or suggestions might be more business oriented, such as proposing a new reporting or data collection system.
Existing systems and data: Errors or problems in existing systems can trigger requests for systems projects.
When dealing with older systems, analysts sometimes spend too much time reacting to day-to-day problems
without looking at underlying causes. This approach can turn an information system into a patchwork of
corrections and changes that cannot support the company’s overall business needs. This problem typically
occurs with legacy systems, which are older systems that are less technologically advanced. When migrating
to a new system, IT planners must plan the conversion of existing data.
Company finances: A company’s financial status can affect systems projects. If the company is going
through a difficult time, the project may be postponed until there is more cash available to finance the effort.
On the other hand, if the company is enjoying financial success, the decision to embark on a new project may
be easier to make.

Name: Class: Date:
Chapter 3 – Managing Systems Projects

True / False
1. System developers can initiate a formal project as early as the preliminary investigation stage, or later on, as analysis,
design, and implementation activities occur.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
2. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)/Critical Path Method (CPM) and Gantt charts are mutually exclusive
techniques.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
3. Using a work breakdown structure (WBS) allows one to manage a project as one large task.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
4. In most systems analysis tasks, time and people are interchangeable.

a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
5. The prior experience method to make time and cost estimates works best for large projects.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
6. In a Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)/Critical Path Method (CPM) chart, each rectangular box, called a
task box, has five sections that contain important information about a task.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
7. When tasks must be completed one after another, they are called concurrent tasks.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
8. If any task along a critical path falls behind schedule, the entire project will be delayed.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
9. Generally, systems analysts review the work of other systems analysts, and programmers review the work of other
Name: Class: Date:

programmers, as a form of peer review, in structured walk-throughs.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
10. If team members lack experience with certain aspects of the required technology, temporary help might be obtained
from IT consultants or part-time staff.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
11. Critical time is the amount of time that a task could be late without pushing back the completion date of an entire
project.
ANSWER: False - Slack time
12. Quantitative risk analysis evaluates each risk by estimating the probability that it will occur and the degree of impact.
ANSWER: False - Qualitative risk analysis
13. The purpose of quantitative risk analysis is to understand the actual impact of a risk in terms of dollars, time, project
scope, or quality.
ANSWER: True
Multiple Choice
14. The three legs of a project triangle are _____, scope, and time.
a. requirements
b. resources
c. environment
d. cost
ANSWER: d
15. Project planning, an activity of a project manager, _____.

a. involves requires guiding, supervising, and coordinating the a project team’s workload
b. includes monitoring the progress of the a project, evaluating results, and taking corrective action when
necessary to stay on target
c. focuses on long-term challenges and goals, the importance of stakeholders, and a commitment to the firm’s
role as a corporate citizenconsists of staffing, which includes selecting the project team and assigning specific
tasks to team members
d. includes identifying project tasks and estimating completion times and costs
ANSWER: d
16. A _____ negotiates with users who might have conflicting requirements or want changes that would require additional
time or expense.
a. project manager

Name: Class: Date:
b. project reporter
c. software tester
d. software developer
ANSWER: d
17. Project scheduling, an activity of a project manager, _____.

a. requires guiding, supervising, and coordinating a project team’s workload
b. includes monitoring the progress of a project, evaluating results, and taking corrective action when necessary
to stay on target
c. involves staffing, which includes selecting the project team and assigning specific tasks to team members
d. includes budgeting a project based on the number of modules and their complexity in a project
ANSWER: c
18. Project monitoring, an activity of a project manager, _____.

a. requires guiding, supervising, and coordinating a project team’s workload
b. involves the creation of a specific timetable, usually in the form of charts that show tasks, task dependencies,
and critical tasks that might delay a project
c. consists of staffing, which includes selecting the project team and assigning specific tasks to team members
d. includes identifying and arranging project tasks and estimating completion times and costs
ANSWER: a
19. Project reporting, an activity of a project manager, _____.

a. involves the creation of a specific timetable, usually in the form of charts that show tasks, task dependencies,
and critical tasks that might delay a project
b. includes informing management, users, and the project team about the progress of a project
c. consists of staffing, which includes selecting the project team and assigning specific tasks to team members
d. includes identifying and arranging project tasks and estimating completion times and costs
ANSWER: b
20. Effective project reporting requires _____.
a. strong communication skills

b. strong intervention skills
c. strong negotiation skills
d. strong leadership skills
ANSWER: a
21. A _____ involves breaking a project down into a series of smaller tasks.
a. work breakdown structure (WBS)
b. value breakdown structure (VBS)
c. risk breakdown structure (RBS)
d. concept breakdown structure (CBS)
ANSWER: a
22. The first step in the creation of a Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)/Critical Path Method (CPM) chart is
Name: Class: Date:

to _____.
a. the graphical planning aids to use
b. determine the logical order of project tasks identify
c. determine the status of all tasks
d. identify all the project tasks
ANSWER: d
23. Using a(n) _____, a project manager can convert task start and finish times to actual dates by laying out the entire
project on a calendar.
a. XY chart
b. Pedigree chart
c. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) chart
d. Scatter chart
ANSWER: c
24. A _____ chart displays complex task patterns and relationships.

a. Gantt
b. Pareto
c. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)
d. Scatter
ANSWER: c
25. The first step in creating a work breakdown structure (WBS) is to _____.
a. mark all recognizable events
b. determine time requirements
c. list all tasks
d. estimate task completion time and cost
ANSWER: c
26. A(n) _____ is a recognizable reference point that can be used to monitor progress.
a. event
b. notification
c. alert
d. task
ANSWER: a
27. A _____ represents the work that one person can complete in one day.
a. person-day
b. work-day
c. work-duration
d. person-work
ANSWER: a
28. The _____ is the most pessimistic outcome of a task.

Name: Class: Date:
a. best-case estimate (B)

b. probable-case estimate (P)
c. worst-case estimate (W)
d. dominant-case estimate (D)
ANSWER: c
29. A(n) _____ is a condition, restriction, or requirement that the system must satisfy.
a. constraint
b. index
c. milestone
d. viewport
ANSWER: a
30. A _____ might involve maximums for one or more resources, such as time, dollars, or people.
a. successor task
b. constraint
c. task ID
d. milestone
ANSWER: b
31. A _____ cannot be started until a previous task is completed.

a. dependent task
b. predecessor task
c. precursor task
d. concurrent task
ANSWER: a
32. Two or more _____ depend on a predecessor task.

a. dependent tasks
b. concurrent tasks
c. ancestor tasks
d. precursor tasks
ANSWER: b
33. When several tasks can start at the same time, each is called a(n) _____ task.
a. model
b. asynchronous
c. baseline
d. concurrent
ANSWER: d
34. Two or more concurrent tasks often depend on a single prior task, which is called a _____.
a. predecessor task
b. wireframe task
Name: Class: Date:
c. beneficiary task
d. discrete task
ANSWER: a
35. When two or more concurrent tasks depend on a single prior task, each of the concurrent tasks is called a(n) _____.
a. successor task
b. discrete task
c. antecedent task
d. descendent task
ANSWER: a
36. A(n) _____ is a series of tasks that, if delayed, would affect the completion date of the overall project.
a. critical path
b. dynamic path
c. absolute path
d. relative path
ANSWER: a
37. Project managers always must be aware of the _____, so they can monitor the vital tasks and keep a project on track.
a. absolute path
b. relative path
c. critical path
d. dynamic path
ANSWER: c
38. A _____ is a series of events and activities with no slack time.

a. risk path
b. foundation path
c. baseline path
d. critical path
ANSWER: d
39. A _____ is a review of a project team member’s work by other members of a team.
a. critical walk-through
b. foundational walk-through
c. baseline walk-through
d. structured walk-through
ANSWER: d
40. When maintaining schedules, if enough _____ and frequent checkpoints exist, problems will be detected rapidly.
a. activity diagrams
b. milestones
c. data flow diagrams
d. viewports
Name: Class: Date:
ANSWER: b
41. _____ give team members of a project an opportunity to share information, discuss common problems, and explain
new techniques.
a. Board meetings
b. Project status meetings
c. Project review reports
d. Status reports
ANSWER: b
42. _____ give the project managers an opportunity to seek input and conduct brainstorming sessions.
a. Status reports
b. Project review reports
c. Project status meetings
d. Board meetings
ANSWER: c
43. _____ is a full-featured program that holds the dominant share of the project management software market.
a. Apptivo
b. GanttProject
c. Microsoft Project
d. Gantter
ANSWER: c
44. A _____ consists of horizontal bars, connected with arrows that indicate task dependencies.
a. Gantt chart
b. viewport
c. Scatter chart
d. wireframe
ANSWER: a
45. A _____ displays the same information as the Gantt chart, including task dependencies, but uses task boxes to include
much more detail.
a. semantic wireframe
b. mesh topology
c. ring topology
d. network diagram
ANSWER: d
46. _____, a free cloud-based project management tool, runs in a browser window, so there is no software to install to use
it.
a. Apptivo
b. Smartsheet

Name: Class: Date:
d. Gantter
ANSWER: d
47. A(n) _____ is an event that could affect a project negatively.

a. issue
b. webinar
c. uncertainty
d. risk
ANSWER: d
48. A _____ includes a review of a project’s scope, stakeholders, budget, schedule, and any other internal or external
factors that might affect the project.
a. change management plan
b. configuration management plan
c. debt management plan
d. risk management plan
ANSWER: d
49. _____ lists each risk and assesses the likelihood that it could affect a project.
a. Risk averting
b. Risk dominance
c. Risk identification
d. Risk analytics
ANSWER: c
50. A _____ is a proactive effort to anticipate a risk and describe an action plan to deal with it.
a. risk identification plan
b. risk response plan
c. risk balance plan
d. risk management plan
ANSWER: b
51. A continuous risk-tracking process can _____.

a. notice changes in existing risks
b. revert reported risks
c. prevent human resource turnover issues
d. prevent new issues
ANSWER: a
52. Microsoft claims that the Microsoft Project software can _____.
a. link risks with specific vendors
b. link risks with specific tasks and projects
c. eliminate risks
d. prevent risks
Name: Class: Date:
ANSWER: b
53. _____ can involve a modeling process called what-if analysis, which allows a project manager to vary one or more
element(s) in a model to measure the effect on other elements.
a. Qualitative risk analysis
b. Quantitative risk analysis
c. Resource list analysis
d. Trigger analysis
ANSWER: b
54. Microsoft’s risk management model includes _____, which specifies the risk type.
a. category
b. description
c. trigger
d. probability
ANSWER: a
55. Microsoft’s risk management model includes _____, which represents the likelihood that the risk will happen.
a. category
b. probability
c. trigger
d. description
ANSWER: b
56. _____, a human resource issue, is a possible cause of cost overruns in an organization.
a. Inadequate training
b. Inaccurate demand forecast
c. Poor monitoring of progress
d. Unrealistic estimates
ANSWER: a
57. When a project manager first recognizes that a project is in trouble, one of the options available to the manager
includes _____.
a. delaying the project deadline
b. expanding the project requirements
c. reducing the project resources
d. eliminating controls and procedures
ANSWER: a
58. Adding more people to a project actually might increase the time necessary to complete the project because of a
principle called _____.
a. Brooks’ Law
b. Bernoulli’s Law
c. Hooke’s Law

Name: Class: Date:
d. Moody’s Law
ANSWER: a

Mauricio, a project manager at a reputed firm, has been assigned to handle a new project that the firm has received. This
project involves a lot of scheduling that has to be handled by Mauricio.
59. Mauricio estimates that the first module of the project could be completed in as few as 15 days or could take as many
as 25 days, but most likely will require 20 days. Determine the expected task duration.
a. 22.5
b. 17.5
c. 20
d. 25
ANSWER: b
60. Mauricio has decided to use a project management tool for this project. He wants the tool to be free and cloud-based
so that there is no need for software to be installed. Help Mauricio in identifying the project management tool that best fits
the purpose.
a. Apptivo
b. Smartsheet
d. Gantter
ANSWER: b
61. A task that represents several activities is known as a _____.

a. task group
b. task name
c. task review
d. task ID
ANSWER: a
62. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) is a _____ technique because it analyzes a large, complex project as a
series of individual tasks.
a. top-down
Name: Class: Date:
b. bottom-up
c. three-point estimate
d. six-point estimate
ANSWER: b
Multiple Response
63. A(n) _____ is any work that has a beginning and an end and requires the use of company resources such as people,
time, or money.
a. benchmark
b. activity
c. milestone
d. breakthrough
ANSWER: c
64. Project managers typically perform the tasks of _____.

a. project planning
b. project scheduling
c. project monitoring
d. project testing
ANSWER: a, b, c
65. The _____ are time estimates made by project managers for a task.
a. best-case estimate
b. worst-case estimate
c. dominant-case estimate
d. probable-case estimate
ANSWER: a, b, d
66. Structured walk-throughs take place throughout the SDLC and are called _____ reviews, depending on the phase in
which they occur.
a. technical
b. design
c. code
d. testing
ANSWER: b, c, d
Matching
Identify the letters of the choices that best match the phrases or definitions.
a. Project management b. Project coordinator
c. Project leader d. Milestone
e. Constraint f. Weight
g. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT) h. dependent

Name: Class: Date:
i. Concurrent tasks j. Predecessor tasks
67. The process of planning, scheduling, monitoring, and reporting on the development of an information system
ANSWER: a
68. Handles the administrative responsibilities for a development team

ANSWER: b
69. Usually a senior systems analyst or an IT department manager, if the project is large
ANSWER: c
70. Developed by the U.S. Navy to manage very complex projects

ANSWER: g
71. A recognizable reference point that can be used to monitor progress and manage a project
ANSWER: d
72. An important value assigned to an estimate

ANSWER: f
73. A condition, restriction, or requirement that a system must satisfy

ANSWER: e
74. Tasks that must be completed one after another

ANSWER: h
75. Defines the tasks that can start at the same time
ANSWER: i
76. Tasks that must be completed before another task can start.
ANSWER: j
Essay
77. Briefly explain the tasks performed by a project manager.

ANSWER: Project managers typically perform four activities, or functions: planning, scheduling, monitoring, and
reporting:
• Project planning includes identifying project tasks and estimating completion time and costs.
• Project scheduling involves the creation of a specific timetable, usually in the form of charts that show
tasks, task dependencies, and critical tasks that might delay the project. Scheduling also involves selecting
and staffing the project team and assigning specific tasks to team members. Project scheduling uses Gantt
charts and PERT/CPM charts.
• Project monitoring requires guiding, supervising, and coordinating the project team’s workload. The
project manager must monitor the project’s progress, evaluate the results, and take corrective action when
necessary to control the project and stay on target.
• Project reporting tasks include regular progress reports to management, users, and the project team itself.
Effective reporting requires strong communication skills and a sense of what others want and need to know
about the project.

Name: Class: Date:

78. Define risk and give a basic list of risk management steps.
ANSWER: A risk is an event that could affect the project negatively. Risk management is the process of identifying,
analyzing, anticipating, and monitoring risks to minimize their impact on a project.
The first step in risk management is to develop a specific plan. Although project management experts differ
with regard to the number of steps or phases, a basic list would include the following tasks:
• Develop a risk management plan. A risk management plan includes a review of the project’s scope,
stakeholders, budget, schedule, and any other internal or external factors that might affect the project. The
plan should define project roles and responsibilities, risk management methods and procedures, categories of
risks, and contingency plans.
• Identify the risks. Risk identification lists each risk and assesses the likelihood that it could affect the
project. The details would depend on the specific project, but most lists would include a means of
identification, and a brief description of the risk, what might cause it to occur, who would be responsible for
responding, and the potential impact of the risk.
• Analyze the risks. This typically is a two-step process: Qualitative risk analysis and quantitative risk
analysis. Qualitative risk analysis evaluates each risk by estimating the probability that it will occur and the
degree of impact. Project managers can use a formula to weigh risk and impact values, or they can display
the results in a two-axis grid. For example, a Microsoft Excel XY chart can be used to display the matrix. In
the chart, notice the various combinations of risk and impact ratings for the five sample values. This tool can
help a project manager focus on the most critical areas, where risk probability and potential impact are high.
The purpose of quantitative risk analysis is to understand the actual impact in terms of dollars, time, project
scope, or quality. Quantitative risk analysis can involve a modeling process called what-if analysis, which
allows a project manager to vary one or more element(s) in a model to measure the effect on other elements.
• Create a risk response plan. A risk response plan is a proactive effort to anticipate a risk and describe an
action plan to deal with it. An effective risk response plan can reduce the overall impact by triggering timely
and appropriate action.
• Monitor risks. This activity is ongoing throughout the risk management process. It is important to conduct a
continuous tracking process that can identify new risks, notice changes in existing risks, and update any other
areas of the risk management plan.

Name: Class: Date:
Chapter 4 – Requirements Modeling

True / False
1. Each activity within the systems analysis phase has an end product and one or more milestones.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
2. Systems developers use joint application development (JAD) whenever group input and interaction are not desired,
because it is linked to a specific development methodology.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
3. IT professionals recognize that successful systems must be user-oriented, and users need to be involved, formally or
informally, at every stage of system development.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
4. Due to the limited range of input and interaction among participants, few companies believe that a joint application
development (JAD) group does not produce the best definition of a new system.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
5. Compared with traditional methods, the entire rapid application development (RAD) process is expanded and, as a
result, the new system is built, delivered, and placed in operation much later.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
6. The main objective of all rapid application development (RAD) approaches is to extend development time and expense
by excluding users from every phase of systems development.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
7. Because use cases depict a system through the eyes of a user, common business language can be used to describe the
transactions.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
8. System requirements serve as benchmarks to measure the overall acceptability of a finished system.
a. True
b. False
Name: Class: Date:
ANSWER: True
9. System requirements fall into five general categories: outputs, inputs, processes, performance, and controls.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
10. In addition to helping to gather and analyze facts, many programs also automatically perform fact-finding for systems
analysts.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
11. When using fact-finding techniques, asking what is being done is the same as asking what could or should be done.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
12. Knowledge of a company’s formal and informal structures helps a systems analyst determine the people to interview
during the systems analysis phase.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
13. In the early stages of systems analysis, interviews usually focus on specific topics, but as the fact-finding process
continues, the interviews are more general.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
14. Creating a standard list of interview questions helps a systems analyst to keep on track and avoid unnecessary
tangents.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
15. A list of topics should be sent to an interviewee several days before the meeting, especially when detailed information
is needed, so the person can prepare for the interview and minimize the need for a follow-up meeting.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
16. When conducting an interview, after asking a question, allow the person enough time to think about the question and
arrive at an answer.
a. True
b. False
Name: Class: Date:
ANSWER: True
17. Although taking notes during an interview has both advantages and disadvantages, the accepted view is that note
taking should be extensive.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
18. System documentation always is up-to-date.

a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
19. Personal observation allows a systems analyst to verify statements made in interviews and determine whether
procedures really operate as they are described.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
20. When designing a questionnaire, the most important rule of all is to make sure that questions collect the right data in a
form that can be used to further the fact-finding effort.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
21. When designing a questionnaire, arrange questions in a random order, intermixing simple and more complex topics.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
22. Before publishing a form on the Internet or a company intranet, a systems analyst should protect it so users can change
the layout or design but cannot fill it in.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
23. The main objective of a sample is to ensure that it represents the overall population accurately.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
24. A single site visit usually gives true pictures, so it is unnecessary to visit more than one installation.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False

Name: Class: Date:

25. The ability to manage information is the mark of a successful systems analyst and an important skill for all IT
professionals.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
26. Joint application development (JAD) provides a fast-track approach to a full spectrum of system development tasks,
including planning, design, construction, and implementation.
ANSWER: False - RAD, Rapid application development, Rapid application development (RAD), RAD (Rapid
application development)
27. An agile approach emphasizes continuous feedback, and each incremental step is affected by what was learned in the
prior steps.
ANSWER: True
28. In a sequence diagram, vertical arrows represent messages from one object to another.
ANSWER: False - horizontal
29. The personal interview usually is the least expensive fact-finding technique.
ANSWER: False - most
30. A graphic modeling program is used to manage details of a complex project, create queries to retrieve specific
information, and generate custom reports.
ANSWER: False - database
Multiple Choice
31. The _____ phase of the SDLC includes four main activities: requirements modeling, data and process modeling,
object modeling, and consideration of development strategies.
a. systems planning
b. systems analysis
c. systems design
d. systems implementation
ANSWER: b
32. One of the main activities in the systems analysis phase is _____, which involves fact-finding to describe the current
system and identification of the specifications for the new system.
a. objective modeling
b. requirements modeling
c. goal-based modeling
d. user-based modeling
ANSWER: b
33. _____ enable a systems analyst to identify a problem, evaluate the key elements, and develop a useful solution.
a. Analytical skills
Name: Class: Date:
b. Artistic skills
c. Interpersonal skills
d. Confrontational skills
ANSWER: a
34. Greater user involvement in the system development process usually results in _____.
a. poorer communication
b. more satisfied users
c. slower development times
d. lower quality deliverable
ANSWER: b
35. _____ are important to a systems analyst who must work with people at all organizational levels, balance conflicting
needs of users, and communicate effectively.
a. Problem solving skills
b. Artistic skills
c. Interpersonal skills
d. Confrontational skills
ANSWER: c
36. In addition to joint application development, another popular user-oriented method is _____, which resembles a
condensed version of the entire SDLC with users involved every step of the way.
a. agile method
b. sampling
c. rapid application development
d. brainstorming
ANSWER: c
37. Rapid application development (RAD) relies heavily on _____.

a. prototyping
b. management direction
c. agile methods
d. scrum
ANSWER: a
38. In the rapid application development (RAD) model in the accompanying figure, during the _____ phase, users interact
with systems analysts and develop models and prototypes that represent all system processes, outputs, and inputs.
a. requirements planning
b. user design
c. construction
d. cutover
ANSWER: b
39. In the rapid application development (RAD) model in the accompanying figure, the _____ phase focuses on program
and application development tasks similar to the SDLC.
Name: Class: Date:
b. user design
c. construction
d. cutover
ANSWER: c
40. In the rapid application development (RAD) model, the _____ phase resembles the final tasks in the SDLC
implementation phase.
b. user design
c. construction
d. cutover
ANSWER: d
41. The primary advantage of rapid application development (RAD) is that _____.
a. systems can be developed more quickly with significant cost savings
b. a company’s strategic business needs are emphasized and the mechanics of the system are not stressed
c. the decelerated time cycle allows more time to develop quality, consistency, and design standards
d. systems are developed more slowly with fewer bugs
ANSWER: a
42. In a(n) _____, team members prepare to lunge at each other to achieve their objectives.
a. pool
b. resequencing session
c. scrum
d. adaptation
ANSWER: c
43. Using _____, an analyst can show business functions and break them down into lower-level functions and processes.
a. Unified Modeling Language (UML)
b. total cost of ownership (TCO)
c. functional decomposition diagrams (FDD)
d. Rapid Economic Justification (REJ)
ANSWER: c
44. The _____ is a top-down representation of a process.

c. functional decomposition diagram (FDD)
ANSWER: c
45. The _____ is a widely used method of visualizing and documenting software systems design.
Name: Class: Date:

c. functional decomposition diagram (FDD)
ANSWER: a
46. A _____ is a Unified Modeling Language (UML) technique that visually represents the interaction between users and
an information system.
a. surface flowchart
b. scatter diagram
c. use case diagram
d. user-based flowchart
ANSWER: c
47. In a use case diagram, the user becomes a(n) _____, with a specific role that describes how he or she interacts with a
system.
a. agent
b. actor
c. interlocutor
d. master
ANSWER: b
48. A(n) _____ is a characteristic or feature that must be included in an information system to satisfy business needs and
be acceptable to users.
a. system requirement
b. property
c. questionnaire
d. object
ANSWER: a
49. A(n) _____ shows the timing of interactions between objects as they occur.
a. timing diagram
b. class diagram
c. orientation diagram
d. sequence diagram
ANSWER: d
50. Which of the following is a general category of system requirements?

a. Daily reports
b. Inputs
c. Response time
d. Login security
ANSWER: b
51. Which of the following is a typical example of a system requirement for the output category?

Name: Class: Date:
a. Manufacturing employees must swipe their ID cards into data collection terminals that record labor costs.
b. The contact management system must generate a daily reminder list for all sales reps.
c. All transactions must have audit trails.
d. As the final step in year-end processing, the payroll system must update employee salaries, bonuses, and
benefits and produce tax data required by the IRS.
ANSWER: b
52. Identify a typical example of a system requirement for the input category.
a. As a final step in year-end processing, the payroll system must update employee salaries, bonuses, and
benefits.
b. Response time must not exceed four seconds.
c. The system must provide logon security at the operating system level and at the application level.
d. Student grades must be entered on machine-readable forms prepared by the instructor.
ANSWER: d
53. Which of the following is a typical example of a system requirement for the process category?
a. The website must report online volume statistics every four hours and hourly during peak periods.
b. The system must be operated seven days a week, 365 days a year.
c. The equipment rental system must not execute new rental transactions for customers who have overdue
accounts.
d. All transactions must have audit trails.
ANSWER: c
54. Identify is a typical example of a system requirement for the performance category.
a. The purchasing system must provide suppliers with up-to-date specifications.
b. Each input form must include date, time, product code, customer number, and quantity.
c. The manager of the sales department must approve orders that exceed a customer’s credit limit.
d. The student records system must produce class lists within five hours after the end of registration.
ANSWER: d
55. Which of the following is a typical example of a system requirement for the control category?
a. The customer analysis system must produce a quarterly report that identifies changes in ordering patterns.
b. The system must maintain separate levels of security for users and the system administrator.
c. The data entry screens must be uniform, except for background color, which can be changed by the user.
d. The warehouse distribution system must analyze daily orders and create a routing pattern for delivery trucks.
ANSWER: b
56. To evaluate _____, a systems analyst needs information about projected future volume for all outputs, inputs, and
processes.
a. scalability
b. reliability
c. compatibility
d. applicability
ANSWER: a
Name: Class: Date:

57. The term _____ refers to a system’s ability to handle increased business volume and transactions in the future.
a. scalability
b. reliability
c. compatibility
d. applicability
ANSWER: a
58. In addition to direct evaluations, systems developers must identify and document indirect expenses that contribute to
the _____.
a. business process modeling notation
(BPMN)
c. functional decomposition diagrams (FDD)
ANSWER: b
59. _____ is a model that asks the traditional fact-finding questions in a systems development context.
a. A functional decomposition diagram
b. A class diagram
c. The Unified Modeling Language
d. The Zachman Framework for Enterprise Architecture
ANSWER: d
60. _____ is a planned meeting during which a systems analyst obtains information from another person.
a. A survey
b. An interview
c. Sampling
d. Research
ANSWER: b
61. In a(n) _____ structure, which usually is based on interpersonal relationships, some people have more influence or
knowledge than appears on an organization chart.
a. spontaneous
b. unstructured
c. informal
d. open-ended
ANSWER: c
62. In an interview, _____ encourage spontaneous and unstructured responses.

a. open-ended questions
b. closed-ended questions
c. leading questions
d. range-of-response questions
ANSWER: a
Name: Class: Date:

63. In an interview, _____ limit or restrict the response.
b. closed-ended questions
ANSWER: b
64. In an interview, _____ are questions that ask a person to evaluate something by providing limited answers to specific
responses or on a numeric scale.
b. factual questions
ANSWER: d
65. When phrasing interview questions, a systems analyst should avoid _____ that suggest or favor a particular reply.
a. range-of-response questions
b. open-ended questions
c. closed-ended questions
d. leading questions
ANSWER: d
66. The process of concentrating on what is said in an interview and noticing any nonverbal communication that takes
place is called _____.
a. brainstorming
b. sampling
c. engaged listening
d. fact-finding
ANSWER: c
67. Supporters of neutral locations for interviews believe that it _____.

a. makes the interviewee feel comfortable during the meeting
b. gives the interviewee easy access to supporting material that might be needed
c. keeps interruptions to a minimum so people can concentrate fully
d. gives the interviewee an opportunity to take calls during the interview
ANSWER: c
68. If an interviewee gives only short or incomplete responses to open-ended questions, a systems analyst should _____.
a. switch to closed-ended questions
b. give the interviewee easy access to supporting material that might be needed
c. continue using open-ended questions
d. rudely conclude the meeting
ANSWER: a

Name: Class: Date:

69. _____ is a fact-finding technique that can help a systems analyst understand how the current system is supposed to
work.
a. Document review
b. Brainstorming
c. A systematic sample
d. Productivity software
ANSWER: a
70. When studying an information system, illustrations of actual documents should be collected using a process called
_____.
a. stratification
b. randomization
c. indexing
d. sampling
ANSWER: d
71. When preparing a representative sample from a list of 200 customers who complained about errors in their statements,
a _____ might select every tenth customer for review.
a. systematic sample
b. stratified sample
c. random sample
d. comprehensive sample
ANSWER: a
a _____ could ensure the sample is balanced geographically by selecting five customers from each of four zip codes.
c. random sample
ANSWER: b
a _____ might select any 20 customers.
c. random sample
ANSWER: c
74. A common tool for showing the distribution of a questionnaire or sampling results is a vertical bar chart called a
_____.
a. flowchart
b. histogram
c. tree map
Name: Class: Date:
d. streamgraph
ANSWER: b
75. A(n) _____, such as Microsoft Outlook, includes a private calendar, a to-do list, and powerful contact management
features.
a. personal information manager (PIM)
b. enterprise architecture
c. swim lane
d. fact-finding application
ANSWER: a
76. Software such as Microsoft OneNote is a type of _____ software.

a. personal information manager (PIM)
b. personal data management
c. project data management
d. personal digital assistant (PDA)
ANSWER: c
77. In projects where it is desirable to obtain input from a large number of people, a(n) _____, such as that shown in the
accompanying figure, can be a valuable tool.
a. observation
b. questionnaire
c. suggestion
d. title
ANSWER: b
78. The kind of document shown in the accompanying figure starts with a heading, which should include all except
_____.
a. a brief statement of purpose
b. your suggestions
c. your signature
d. your observations
ANSWER: a

Case 4-1
John has finished compiling a list of the various members of the joint application development (JAD) group and the list is
as follows: John is the JAD project leader, Tom is the representative from top management, Jennifer is a manager, Alen
and Ian are users, Linda and Alex are systems analysts, and Clark is the recorder.
79. As John develops the agenda, he wants to put the name of the appropriate person next to the agenda item. Whose
name would he put next to the final task on the agenda, the task of documenting the results of the JAD session and
preparing the report that will be sent to JAD team members?
a. Clark
b. Tom
Name: Class: Date:
c. Linda
d. His own
ANSWER: d
80. There have been some rumblings within the firm that this development project is not necessary so John and others feel
it is important to explain the reason for the project at the outset. Whose name goes next to this point on the agenda?
a. His own
b. Jennifer
c. Alex
d. Tom
ANSWER: d

Case 4-2
Jerry has inherited an Excel sheet that lists all of the system requirements for his team’s new project. But unfortunately,
his predecessor did not label the requirements with categories—or in some cases failed to categorize them correctly. He
needs to take care of this so the requirements can be sorted correctly.
81. Jerry knows that there were supposed to be three performance examples but he finds four in the spreadsheet. Which
one of these is mislabeled as a performance example?
a. The system must automatically generate an insurance claim form.
b. Response time must not exceed four seconds.
c. The online inventory control system must flag all low-stock items within one hour after the quantity falls
below a predetermined minimum.
d. The records system must produce key reports within five hours of the end of each fiscal quarter.
ANSWER: a
82. Jerry has found one system requirement that he thinks could fit into a couple of different categories. The requirement
is as follows: An employee record must be added, changed, or deleted only by a member of the human resources
department. What is the best categorization of this requirement?
a. Performance
b. Control
c. Process
d. Input
ANSWER: b
Multiple Response
83. Compared with traditional methods, when properly used, joint application development (JAD) can result in _____.
a. less expense and greater manageability if the group is too large
b. a more accurate statement of system requirements
c. a better understanding of common goals
d. a stronger commitment to the success of the new system
ANSWER: b, c, d

Name: Class: Date:

84. When designing a questionnaire, which of the following ideas should be kept in mind?
a. Providing clear instructions that will answer all anticipated questions
b. Arranging questions in a logical order
c. Trying to lead the response or use questions that give clues to expected answers
d. Phrasing all questions to avoid misunderstandings, and use simple terms and wording
ANSWER: a, b, d
85. When recording facts, a systems analyst should document the work by _____.
a. recording information as soon as it is obtained
b. recording findings in such a way that they can be understood by someone else
c. organizing documentation so related material is located easily
d. using the most complex recording method possible
ANSWER: a, b, c
Matching
Identify the letter of the choice that best matches the sentence or definition.
a. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
b. Closed-ended
c. Agile method
d. A functional decomposition diagram (FDD)
e. Rapid application development (RAD)
f. Open-ended
g. CASE tool
h. Pool
i. The Unified Modeling Language (UML)
j. Scalable system
86. If one of these is available, analysts can use it to develop models and enter documentation from the joint application
development (JAD) session.
ANSWER: g
87. These methods develop a system incrementally, by building a series of prototypes and constantly adjusting them to
user requirements.
ANSWER: c
88. One of its risks is that a system might work well in the short term, but the corporate and long-term objectives for the
system might not be met.
ANSWER: e
89. This is the overall diagram in business process modeling notation (BPMN) terminology.
ANSWER: h
90. The creation of this representation is similar to drawing an organization chart.

ANSWER: d

Name: Class: Date:

91. This provides various graphical tools, such as use case diagrams and sequence diagrams.
ANSWER: i
92. This offers a better return on the initial investment because it will have a longer useful life.
ANSWER: j
93. In determining this, one problem is that cost estimates tend to understate costs such as user support and downtime
productivity losses.
ANSWER: a
94. These are the kinds of questions that are useful when a systems analyst wants to understand a larger process or draw
out the interviewee’s opinions, attitudes, or suggestions.
ANSWER: f
95. Systems analysts use this kind of question when they want information that is more specific, or when
facts must be verified.
ANSWER: b
Essay
96. Briefly describe the four phases of the rapid application development (RAD) model.
ANSWER: The four phases of the RAD model are requirements planning, user design, construction, and cutover.
REQUIREMENTS PLANNING: The requirements planning phase combines elements of the systems
planning and systems analysis phases of the SDLC. Users, managers, and IT staff members discuss and agree
on business needs, project scope, constraints, and system requirements. The requirements planning phase
ends when the team agrees on the key issues and obtains management authorization to continue.
USER DESIGN: During the user design phase, users interact with systems analysts and develop models and
prototypes that represent all system processes, outputs, and inputs. The RAD group or subgroups typically
use a combination of JAD techniques and CASE tools to translate user needs into working models. User
design is a continuous, interactive process that allows users to understand, modify, and eventually approve a
working model of the system that meets their needs.
CONSTRUCTION: The construction phase focuses on program and application development tasks similar
to the SDLC. In RAD, however, users continue to participate and still can suggest changes or improvements
as actual screens or reports are developed.
CUTOVER:
The cutover phase resembles the final tasks in the SDLC implementation phase, including data conversion,
testing, changeover to the new system, and user training. Compared with traditional methods, the entire
process is compressed. As a result, the new system is built, delivered, and placed in operation much sooner.
97. Joint application development (JAD), rapid application development (RAD), and agile methods all have advantages
and disadvantages. What are they?
ANSWER:
Compared with traditional methods, JAD is more expensive and can be cumbersome if the group is too large
relative to the size of the project. Many companies find, however, that JAD allows key users to participate
effectively in the requirements modeling process. When users participate in the systems development
process, they are more likely to feel a sense of ownership in the results and support for the new system.
Name: Class: Date:
When properly used, JAD can result in a more accurate statement of system requirements, a better
understanding of common goals, and a stronger commitment to the success of the new system.
RAD has advantages and disadvantages compared with traditional structured analysis methods. The primary
advantage is that systems can be developed more quickly with significant cost savings. A disadvantage is that
RAD stresses the mechanics of the system itself and does not emphasize the company’s strategic business
needs. The risk is that a system might work well in the short term, but the corporate and long-term objectives
for the system might not be met. Another potential disadvantage is that the accelerated time cycle might
allow less time to develop quality, consistency, and design standards. RAD can be an attractive alternative,
however, if an organization understands the possible risks.
Agile, or adaptive, methods are very flexible and efficient in dealing with change. They are popular because
they stress team interaction and reflect a set of community-based values. Also, frequent deliverables
constantly validate the project and reduce risk. However, some potential problems exist. For example, team
members need a high level of technical and interpersonal skills. Also, a lack of structure and documentation
can introduce risk factors. Finally, the overall project may be subject to significant change in scope as user
requirements continue to evolve during the project.
98. What are the issues to consider as you compile a checklist of specific tasks to be observed and questions to be asked
during an observation of current operating procedures?
ANSWER: 1. Ask sufficient questions to ensure that you have a complete understanding of the present system operation.
A primary goal is to identify the methods of handling situations that are not covered by standard operating
procedures. For example, what happens in a payroll system if an employee loses a time card? What is the
procedure if an employee starts a shift 10 minutes late but then works 20 minutes overtime? Often, the rules
for exceptions such as these are not written or formalized; therefore, you must try to document any
procedures for handling exceptions.
2. Observe all the steps in a transaction and note the documents, inputs, outputs, and processes involved.
3. Examine each form, record, and report. Determine the purpose each item of information serves.
4. Consider each user who works with the system and the following questions: What information does that
person receive from other people? What information does this person generate? How is the information
communicated? How often do interruptions occur? How much downtime occurs? How much support does
the user require, and who provides it?
5. Talk to the people who receive current reports to see whether the reports are complete, timely, accurate,
and in a useful form. Ask whether information can be eliminated or improved and whether people would like
to receive additional information.

Name: Class: Date:
Chapter 5 – Data and Process Modeling

True / False
1. In a data flow diagram (DFD), processes contain the business logic, also called business rules, which transform the data
and produce the required results.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
2. In a data flow diagram (DFD), a process symbol can have only one outgoing data flow.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
3. In a data flow diagram (DFD), a data flow must have a process symbol on at least one end.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
4. A data flow diagram (DFD) does not show the external entities that provide data to the system or receive output from
the system.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
5. In a data flow diagram (DFD), systems analysts call an entity that receives data from the system a source.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
6. Data stores are shown in a context diagram because data stores are external to the system.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
7. What makes one system more complex than another is the number of components, the number of levels, and the degree
of interaction among its processes, entities, data stores, and data flows.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
8. When a context diagram is expanded into data flow diagram (DFD) diagram 0, all the connections that flow into and
out of process 0 must be retained.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True

Name: Class: Date:

9. Deciding whether to explode a process further or determine that it is a functional primitive is a matter of experience,
judgment, and interaction with programmers who must translate the logical design into code.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
10. When a data flow diagram (DFD) is exploded, the higher-level diagram is called the child diagram, and the lower-
level diagram is referred to as the parent diagram.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
11. When a data flow diagram (DFD) is exploded, the higher-level diagram is called the child diagram, and the lower-
level diagram is referred to as the parent diagram.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
12. Later in the systems design phase, you build a logical model that describes how a system will be constructed.
ANSWER: False - physical
13. Using Gane and Sarson symbols, a data flow diagram (DFD) represents processes as rectangles with rounded corners.
ANSWER: True
14. In data flow diagrams (DFD), systems analysts call an entity that supplies data to the system a sink.
ANSWER: False - source
15. The primary purpose of pseudocode is to describe the underlying business logic of code.
ANSWER: False - structured English
16. A decision tree is read from left to right, with the conditions along the various branches and the actions at the far left.
ANSWER: False - right
Multiple Choice
17. In data and process modeling, a(n) _____ shows what the system must do, regardless of how it will be implemented
physically.
a. organizational model
b. physical model
c. logical model
d. relational model
ANSWER: c
18. A data flow diagram (DFD) shows _____.

Name: Class: Date:
a. how data is related

b. what key fields are stored in the system
c. how a system transforms input data into useful information
d. what data is stored in the system
ANSWER: c
19.
A _____ shows how data acts through an information system but does not show program logic or processing steps.
a. data flow diagram
b. data tree diagram
c. data model diagram
d. data structure diagram
ANSWER: a
20. In addition to the Gane and Sarson symbol set, another popular symbol set is _____.
a. Mantissa
b. Jira
c. Zachman
d. Yourdon
ANSWER: d
21. Among the symbols in the accompanying figure, a _____ receives input data and produces output that has a different
content, form, or both.
a. data store
b. data flow
c. process
d. gray hole
ANSWER: c

Name: Class: Date:

22. Among the symbols in the accompanying figure, a _____ is a path for data to move from one part of the information
system to another.
a. data store
b. data flow
c. process
d. gray hole
ANSWER: b
23. In data flow diagrams (DFDs), a process resembles a _____, where the inputs, outputs, and general functions of the
process are known, but the underlying details are not shown.
a. black box
b. terminator
c. business rule
d. decision table
ANSWER: a
24. By showing processes as _____, an analyst can create data flow diagrams (DFDs) that show how the system functions
but avoid unnecessary detail and clutter.
a. black boxes
b. process descriptions
c. business rules
d. decision tables
ANSWER: a
25. In a data flow diagram (DFD), the Gane and Sarson symbol for a process is a _____.
a. rectangle with rounded corners
b. line with a single or double arrowhead
c. flat rectangle that is open on the right side and closed on the left side
d. rectangle, which may be shaded to make it look three-dimensional
ANSWER: a

Name: Class: Date:
26. Among the symbols in the accompanying figure, a _____ is used to represent data that a system stores because one or
more processes need to use the data at a later time.
a. data store
b. data flow
c. process
d. gray hole
ANSWER: a
27. In a data flow diagram (DFD), the Gane and Sarson symbol for a data flow is a _____.
a. segment of a differentiable curve
d. triangle, which may be shaded to make it look three-dimensional
ANSWER: b
28. In a data flow diagram (DFD), a spontaneous generation process is a process that has _____.
a. no input
b. at least one output and one input, but the output obviously is insufficient to generate the input shown
c. no output
d. at least one input and one output, but the input obviously is insufficient to generate the output shown
ANSWER: a
29. In a data flow diagram (DFD), a black hole is a process that has _____.
a. no input
c. no output
ANSWER: c
Name: Class: Date:
30. In a data flow diagram (DFD), a gray hole is a process that has _____.
a. no input
c. no output
ANSWER: d
31. A _____ is logically impossible in a data flow diagram (DFD) because a process must act on input, shown by an
incoming data flow, and produce output, represented by an outgoing data flow.
a. spontaneous combustion
b. gray matter
c. black hole
d. server farm
ANSWER: c
32. In a data flow diagram (DFD), the Gane and Sarson symbol for a data store is a _____.
ANSWER: a
33. In a data flow diagram (DFD), the Gane and Sarson symbol for an entity is a ____.
ANSWER: d
34. Data flow diagram (DFD) entities are also called _____ because they are data origins or final data destinations.
a. data stores
b. pseudocodes
c. terminators
d. gray holes
ANSWER: c
35. If processes must be performed in a specific sequence, the information should be documented in the _____.
a. leveling guide
b. process descriptions
c. data dictionary
d. data flow diagram (DFD)
ANSWER: b

Name: Class: Date:

36. Since diagram 0 is a(n) _____ version of process 0, it shows considerably more detail than a context diagram.
a. contracted
b. exploded
c. condensed
d. extrapolated
ANSWER: b
37. Leveling _____.

a. uses a series of increasingly detailed data flow diagrams (DFDs) to describe an information system
b. ensures that the input and output data flows of the parent data flow diagram (DFD) are maintained on the child
data flow diagram (DFD)
c. uses a series of increasingly sketchy data flow diagrams (DFDs) to describe an information system
d. ensures that the input and output data flows of the child data flow diagram (DFD) are maintained on the parent
ANSWER: a
38. _____ is the process of drawing a series of increasingly detailed data flow diagrams (DFDs), until all functional
primitives are identified.
a. Leveling
b. Balancing
c. Indexing
d. Looping
ANSWER: a
39. _____ maintains consistency among data flow diagrams (DFDs) by ensuring that input and output data flows align
properly.
a. Balancing
b. Indexing
c. Adapting
d. Shipping
ANSWER: a
40. Using _____, an analyst starts with an overall view, which is a context diagram with a single process symbol, and then
the analyst creates diagram 0, which shows more detail.
a. balancing
b. indexing
c. exploding
d. leveling
ANSWER: d
41. Balancing _____.

a. uses a series of increasingly detailed data flow diagrams (DFDs) to describe an information system
b. ensures that the input and output data flows of the parent data flow diagram (DFD) are maintained on the child
c. uses a series of increasingly sketchy data flow diagrams (DFDs) to describe an information system
Name: Class: Date:
d. ensures that the input and output data flows of the child data flow diagram (DFD) are maintained on the parent
ANSWER: b
42. A _____ is a central storehouse of information about a system’s data.

a. data cube
b. data feed
c. data mart
d. data repository
ANSWER: d
43. In a data dictionary, a(n) _____ is the smallest piece of data that has meaning within an information system.
a. field
b. index
c. record
d. pixel
ANSWER: a
44. In a data dictionary, data elements are combined into _____ that are meaningful combinations of data elements that
are included in data flows or retained in data stores.
a. fields
b. columns
c. records
d. decimals
ANSWER: c
45. In a data dictionary, any name other than the standard data element name is called a(n) _____.
a. clone
b. cipher
c. alias
d. alias
ANSWER: c
46. The data dictionary usually records and describes a default value, which is the _____.
a. the set of values permitted for the data element
b. identification of the user(s) responsible for changing values for the data element
c. specification for the origination point for the data element’s value
d. value for the data element if a value otherwise is not entered for it
ANSWER: d
47. In a data dictionary, _____ refers to whether the data element contains numeric, alphabetic, or character values.
a. pool
b. type
c. valence
Name: Class: Date:
d. domain
ANSWER: b
48. In a data dictionary, _____ is the maximum number of characters for an alphabetic or character data element or the
maximum number of digits and number of decimal positions for a numeric data element.
a. domain
b. valence
c. length
d. index
ANSWER: c
49. A data dictionary specifies a data element’s _____, which is the set of values permitted for the data element.
a. index
b. domain
c. array
d. record
ANSWER: b
50. In a data dictionary, some data elements have _____ rules. For example, an employee’s salary must be within the
range defined for the employee’s job classification.
a. domain
b. range
c. validity
d. mastered
ANSWER: c
51. Typical process description tools include _____.

a. context diagrams
b. decision trees
c. pseudocode
d. database tables
ANSWER: b
52. A _____ documents the details of a functional primitive, which represents a specific set of processing steps and
business logic.
a. logical description
b. primitive description
c. process description
d. function-based description
ANSWER: c
53. _____ is based on combinations of the three logical structures, or control structures (one of which is shown in the
accompanying figure), which serve as building blocks for the process.
a. Modular design
b. Interface design
Name: Class: Date:
c. Visual design
d. Product design
ANSWER: a
54. In the accompanying figure, the sequence structure is the completion of _____.
a. one or more process steps based on the results of a test or condition
b. steps in a chronological order, one after another
c. a process step that is repeated until a specific condition changes
d. a specific condition that is repeated until a process changes
ANSWER: b
55. The selection structure is the completion of _____.

ANSWER: a
56. The iteration structure is the completion of _____.

ANSWER: c
57. Structured English might look familiar to programming students because it resembles _____, which is used in program
design.
a. pseudocode
b. a decision tree
c. iterative code
d. decision code
ANSWER: a
58. In modular design, _____ also is called looping.

a. sequence
b. selection
c. iteration
d. process description
ANSWER: c
59. A _____ shows a logical structure, with all possible combinations of conditions and resulting actions.
a. pseudo table
b. database table
c. decision table
Name: Class: Date:
d. validation table
ANSWER: c
60. Decision trees show the logic structure in a _____.

a. vertical form that resembles a tree with the roots at the bottom and the branches at the top
b. horizontal form that resembles a tree with the roots at the left and the branches to the right
c. vertical form that resembles a tree with the roots at the top and the branches at the bottom
d. horizontal form that resembles a tree with the roots at the right and the branches to the left
ANSWER: b
61. A _____ is a graphical representation of the conditions, actions, and rules found in a decision table.
a. decision board
b. decision tree
c. decision element
d. decision point
ANSWER: b
62. Many analysts follow _____, which means that they develop a physical model of the current system, a logical model
of the current system, a logical model of the new system, and a physical model of the new system.
a. a four-model approach
b. a process description
c. the Zachman Framework
d. the Gane and Sarson symbol
ANSWER: a
63. The major benefit of _____ is that it gives a clear picture of current system functions before any modifications or
improvements are made.
a. the four-model approach
b. balancing
c. leveling
d. the Zachman Framework
ANSWER: a
64. The disadvantage of the four-model approach is that ____.

a. it gives an unclear picture of the current system functions before any modifications or improvements are made
b. the requirements of a new information system always are different from the current information system
c. additional time and cost are required to develop a logical and physical model of the current system
d. it does not take additional steps to avoid mistakes made earlier in systems development
ANSWER: c

Nathan is an expert on all of the different kinds of process description tools. So, when his colleagues have questions, they
know where to turn.
65. One of the firm’s trainee analysts is working on a financial process that will continue to print vendor payments until it
Name: Class: Date:

reaches the end of the file. Which of the following processes will Nathan suggest the analyst to use?
a. Sequence
b. Selection
c. Concatenation
d. Iteration
ANSWER: d
66. Another of the firm’s analysts is unable to figure out what is wrong with some structured English he has been using to
describe the processing logic. Nathan walks over and spots the problem in an instant. Which of the following can Nathan
identify as the problem?
a. The structured English is indented.
b. The structured English is not using a sequence, selection, or iteration structure.
c. The structured English uses a limited vocabulary.
d. The structured English is used as a shorthand notation for actual code by programmers.
ANSWER: b

The analysts at Techno InfoSystems are considering the four-model approach to system development for a new client.
67. Which of the following is a benefit if they use the four-model approach?
a. It will take less time to build a logical and physical model of the current system.
b. It will not incur additional costs to develop logical and physical model of the current system.
c. It will provide a clear picture of current system functions before any modifications or improvements are made.
d. It will provide time to create the current system models even for projects with tight schedules.
ANSWER: c
68. If they make use of the four-model approach, which of the following is a likely outcome?
a. Time taken to develop the model increases.
b. Costs needed to develop a logical and physical model of the current system will be less.
c. It will not be possible to get a clear picture of the current system functions before modifications are made.
d. The requirements of a new information system will always be different from the current information system.
ANSWER: a
69. Which of the following provides a report of all data flows and data stores that use a particular data element?
a. Data dictionaries
b. Data types
c. Databases
d. Data warehouses
ANSWER: a
Multiple Response
70. When data flow diagrams (DFDs) are drawn, which of the following conventions should be followed?
a. Each context diagram must fit on one page.
Name: Class: Date:
b. Use the same names within each set of symbols.

c. Do not cross lines.
d. Use a unique reference number for each process symbol.
ANSWER: a, c, d
71. Leveling is also called _____.

a. exploding
b. partitioning
c. decomposing
d. indexing
ANSWER: a, b, c
72. When structured English is used, which of the following rules must be conformed to?
a. Use only the three building blocks of sequence, selection, and iteration.
b. Use indentation for readability.
c. Use a limited vocabulary.
d. Avoid standard terms used in the data dictionary.
ANSWER: a, b, c
Matching
a. Balancing b. Structured analysis
c. Leveling d. Data flow diagram (DFD)
e. Physical model f. Data dictionary
g. Decision table h. Logical model
i. Data flow j. Record
73. Describes how a system will be constructed

ANSWER: e
74. Shows what the system must do, regardless of how it will be implemented
ANSWER: h
75. Shows how a system transforms input data into useful information
ANSWER: d
76. Data flow diagram (DFD) component that represents one or more data items
ANSWER: i
77. An analyst starts with an overall view, which is a context diagram with a single process symbol
ANSWER: c
78. Ensures that the input and output data flows of the parent DFD are maintained on the child DFD
ANSWER: a

Name: Class: Date:

79. A set of Data flow diagrams (DFDs) that produces a logical model of the system, but the details within those DFDs
are documented separately in a data dictionary, which is the second component of this
ANSWER: b
80. Documentation of all data flows along with documenting each data element
ANSWER: f
81. A data structure that contains a set of related data elements that are stored and processed together
ANSWER: j
82. Can have more than two possible outcomes in addition to multiple conditions
ANSWER: g
Essay
83. What are the guidelines to be followed when you draw a context diagram and other data flow diagrams (DFDs)?
ANSWER: The following are the guidelines to be followed when drawing a context diagram and other data flow
diagrams:
• Draw the context diagram so it fits on one page.
• Use the name of the information system as the process name in the context diagram.
• Use unique names within each set of symbols.
• Do not cross lines. One way to achieve that goal is to restrict the number of symbols in any DFD. On
lower-level diagrams with multiple processes, you should not have more than nine process symbols.
Including more than nine symbols usually is a signal that your diagram is too complex and that you should
reconsider your analysis. Another way to avoid crossing lines is to duplicate an entity or data store. When
duplicating a symbol on a diagram, make sure to document the duplication to avoid possible confusion. A
special notation, such as an asterisk, next to the symbol name and inside the duplicated symbols signifies that
they are duplicated on the diagram.
• Provide a unique name and reference number for each process. Because it is the highest-level DFD, the
context diagram contains process 0, which represents the entire information system, but does not show the
internal workings. To describe the next level of detail inside process 0, you must create a DFD named
diagram 0, which will reveal additional processes that must be named and numbered. As you continue to
create lower-level DFDs, you assign unique names and reference numbers to all processes, until you
complete the logical model.
• Obtain as much user input and feedback as possible. Your main objective is to ensure that the model is
accurate, easy to understand, and meets the needs of its users.
84. Explain what a data dictionary is, making sure to include definitions of the terms data element and record in your
explanation. Provide examples of each of these terms as you include them.
ANSWER: A data dictionary, or data repository, is a central storehouse of information about the system’s data. An
analyst uses the data dictionary to collect, document, and organize specific facts about the system, including
the contents of data flows, data stores, entities, and processes. The data dictionary also defines and describes
all data elements and meaningful combinations of data elements. A data element, also called a data item or
field, is the smallest piece of data that has meaning within an information system. Examples of data elements
are student grade, salary, Social Security number, account balance, and company name. Data elements are
combined into records, also called data structures. A record is a meaningful combination of related data
elements that is included in a data flow or retained in a data store. For example, an auto parts store inventory
record might include part number, description, supplier code, minimum and maximum stock levels, cost, and
list price.

Name: Class: Date:

Name: Class: Date:
Chapter 6 – Object Modeling

True / False
1. Some objects might have a few attributes; others might have dozens.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
2. Just as objects are similar to adjectives, attributes resemble verbs that describe what and how an object does something.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
3. The same message to two different objects produces the same results.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
4. A black box does not want or need outside interference.

a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
5. By limiting access to internal processes, an object prevents its internal code from being altered by another object or
process.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
6. Use cases cannot interact with other use cases.

a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
7. When use cases are identified, all the related transactions should be kept separate.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
8. Class diagrams evolve into code modules, data objects, and other system components.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
9. In a state transition diagram, the states appear as rounded rectangles with the state names inside.
a. True
Name: Class: Date:
b. False
ANSWER: True
10. A class diagram resembles a horizontal flowchart that shows the actions and events as they occur.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
11. A method is like a blueprint, or template, for all the objects within a class.
ANSWER: False - class
12. In a state transition diagram, the circle at the right with a hollow border is the initial state.
ANSWER: False - final
13. After one identifies a system’s objects, classes, and relationships, one should develop a(n) object relationship diagram
that provides an overview of the system.
ANSWER: True
Multiple Choice
14. _____ is a widely used method of visualizing and documenting an information system.
b. Java Virtual Machine (JVM)
c. UNiplexed Information and Computing System (UNIX)
d. Multimedia Logic (ML)
ANSWER: a
15. A(n) _____ represents a person, a place, an event, or a transaction that is significant to the information system.
a. object
b. instance
c. class
d. model
ANSWER: a
16. An object has certain _____, which are characteristics that describe the object, such as the make, model, and color of a
car.
a. keys
b. attributes
c. indices
d. elements
ANSWER: b
17. An object’s _____ are the tasks or functions that the object performs when it receives a command to do so.

Name: Class: Date:
a. roles
b. utilities
c. instances
d. methods
ANSWER: d
18. A car performs a(n) _____ called OPERATE WIPERS when it is sent a message with the wiper control.
a. method
b. role
c. command
d. objective
ANSWER: a
19. A(n) _____ is a group of similar objects.

a. aggregate
b. concatenation
c. class
d. packet
ANSWER: c
20. A(n) _____ is a specific member of a class.

a. key
b. index
c. file
d. instance
ANSWER: d
21. A red Mustang is a(n) _____ of the CAR class.

a. index
b. key
c. metric
d. instance
ANSWER: d
22. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) represents an object as a _____ with the object name at the top, followed by
the object’s attributes and methods.
a. circle
b. rectangle
c. pentagon
d. rhombus
ANSWER: b
23. The number of _____ needed to describe the characteristics of an object depends on the business requirements of the
information system and its users.
Name: Class: Date:
a. attributes
b. packets
c. indices
d. keys
ANSWER: a
24. In an object-oriented system, objects can _____ certain attributes from other objects.
a. broadcast
b. concatenate
c. inherit
d. reformat
ANSWER: c
25. The _____ of an object is an adjective that describes the object’s current status.
a. polymorphism
b. encapsulation
c. resemblance
d. state
ANSWER: d
26. An object, such as a bank account, can have a specific attribute called a(n) _____ that can be active, inactive, closed,
or frozen.
a. state
b. grade
c. instance
d. status
ANSWER: a
27. A(n) _____ resembles a verb and defines specific tasks that an object can perform.
a. attribute
b. method
c. command
d. message
ANSWER: b
28. A _____ is a command that tells an object to perform a certain method.

a. dictum
b. message
c. pledge
d. pronouncement
ANSWER: b
29. The concept that a message gives different meanings to different objects is called _____.
a. encapsulation
Name: Class: Date:
b. dynamic addressing
c. polymorphism
d. linear addressing
ANSWER: c
30. An object can be viewed as a(n) _____, because a message to the object triggers changes within the object without
specifying how the changes must be carried out.
a. black box
b. class diagram
c. use case
d. activity diagram
ANSWER: a
31. The black box concept is an example of _____, which means that all data and methods are self-contained.
a. polymorphism
b. inheritance
c. encapsulation
d. use case modeling
ANSWER: c
32. _____ allows objects to be used as modular components anywhere in a system.

a. Dynamic addressing
c. Encapsulation
d. Linear addressing
ANSWER: c
33. A major advantage of object-oriented (O-O) designs is that systems analysts can save time and avoid errors by using
_____ objects.
a. dynamic
b. feasible
c. modular
d. linear
ANSWER: c
34. All objects within a(n) _____ share common attributes and methods.
a. catalog
b. register
c. index
d. class
ANSWER: d
35. Objects within a class can be grouped into _____, which are more specific categories within a class.
a. grids
Name: Class: Date:
b. units
c. subclasses
d. matrices
ANSWER: c
36. A class can belong to a more general category called a _____.

a. superclass
b. register
c. subclass
d. catalog
ANSWER: a
37. _____ enable objects to communicate and interact as they perform business functions and transactions required by a
system.
a. Aggregates
b. Relationships
c. Clusters
d. Linkages
ANSWER: b
38. _____ describe what objects need to know about each other, how objects respond to changes in other objects, and the
effects of membership in classes, superclasses, and subclasses.
a. Instances
b. Relationships
c. Aggregates
d. Clusters
ANSWER: b
39. Inheritance enables an object, called a _____, to derive one or more of its attributes from a parent.
a. child
b. user
c. package
d. suite
ANSWER: a
40. An _____ shows the objects and how they interact to perform business functions and transactions.
a. object relationship diagram
b. object precedent chart
c. object antecedent chart
d. object interaction diagram
ANSWER: a
41. A(n) _____ represents the steps in a specific business function or process.
a. relationship diagram
Name: Class: Date:
b. use case
c. data flow unit
d. interaction diagram
ANSWER: b
42. In a use case, an external entity, called a(n) _____, initiates a use case by requesting the system to perform a
function or process.
a. beneficiary
b. user
c. domain
d. actor
ANSWER: d
43. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) symbol for a use case is a(n) _____ with a label that describes the action or
event.
a. rectangle
b. triangle
c. dashed line
d. oval
ANSWER: d
44. In a use case, the _____ is shown as a stick figure with a label that identifies its role.
a. actor
b. association
c. linkage
d. service request
ANSWER: a
45. The line from the actor to the use case is called a(n) _____.
a. association
b. aggregation
c. lifeline
d. observation
ANSWER: a
46. For each use case, a _____ in the form of a table is developed to document the name of the use case, the actor, a
description of the use case, and so forth.
a. use case description
b. use case diagram
c. use case schematic
d. use case outline
ANSWER: a
47. A _____ is a visual summary of several related use cases within a system or subsystem.

Name: Class: Date:
a. use case description

b. use case diagram
c. use case schema
d. use case matrix
ANSWER: b
48. When a use case diagram is created, the first step is to identify the system boundary, which is represented by a _____.
a. triangle
b. circle
c. rectangle
d. square
ANSWER: c
49. For a use case diagram, the _____ shows what is included in the system and what is not included in the system.
a. system design
b. system boundary
c. system layout
d. system matrix
ANSWER: b
50. A(n) _____ shows the object classes and relationships involved in a use case.
a. class diagram
b. association diagram
c. use case diagram
d. modeling diagram
ANSWER: a
51. In a class diagram, each class appears as a(n) _____, with the class name at the top, followed by the class’s attributes
and methods.
a. rectangle
b. circle
c. oval
d. triangle
ANSWER: a
52. _____ describes how instances of one class relate to instances of another class.
a. A modifier
b. A deliverable
c. Scope
d. Cardinality
ANSWER: c
53. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) notation _____ identifies a zero or many relation.
a. 0..1
Name: Class: Date:
b. 1..*
c. 0..*
d. 0..0
ANSWER: c
54. A(n) _____ graphically documents a use case by showing the classes, the messages, and the timing of the messages.
a. state transition diagram
b. sequence diagram
c. data flow diagram
d. scatter diagram
ANSWER: b
55. In a sequence diagram, a lifeline is identified by a _____ line.

a. solid
b. dashed
c. red
d. curved
ANSWER: b
56. In a sequence diagram, a _____ represents the time during which an object above it is able to interact with the other
objects in the use case.
a. focus point
b. schematic matrix
c. validity link
d. lifeline
ANSWER: d
57. In a sequence diagram, a _____ is identified by a line showing direction that runs between two objects.
a. message
b. procedure
c. method
d. response
ANSWER: a
58. In a sequence diagram, the _____ indicates when an object sends or receives a message.
a. request link
b. focus
c. command line
d. lifeline
ANSWER: b
59. A _____ shows how an object changes from one state to another, depending on events that affect the object.
b. case tools diagram
Name: Class: Date:
c. scatter diagram
d. business process diagram
ANSWER: a
60. A(n) _____ resembles a horizontal flowchart that shows the actions and events as they occur.
b. sequence diagram
c. business model diagram
d. activity diagram
ANSWER: d
61. Object modeling requires many types of diagrams, creating which by hand is very time consuming and tedious, so
systems analysts rely on _____ to speed up the process.
a. CRC modeling
b. extreme Programming (XP)
c. whiteboard sketches
d. CASE tools
ANSWER: d

Kevin, the trainee analyst at Lynach TechSystems, is in charge of allocating suitable Unified Modeling Language (UML)
notations to a particular class diagram.
62. In a given diagram, Kevin is designing a relationship in which a given employee can have no payroll deductions or
he/she can have many deductions. Which of the following notations should Kevin write to mark this relationship?
a. 0..1
b. 1
c. 0..*
d. 1..*
ANSWER: c
63. Which of the following relationships corresponds to the Unified Modeling Language (UML) notation on the class
diagram 0..1 that Kevin has written?
a. An employee can have no direct reports or many direct reports.
b. An employee can have no spouse or one spouse.
c. An office manager manages one and only one office.
d. One order can include one or many items ordered.
ANSWER: b
Multiple Response
64. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) uses a set of symbols to represent graphically the _____ within a system.
a. feasibility

Name: Class: Date:
b. accuracy
c. components
d. relationships
ANSWER: c, d
65. In structured analysis, _____ are transformed into data structures and program code.
a. processes
b. data stores
c. entities
d. keys
ANSWER: a, b, c
66. A sequence diagram _____.

a. is a dynamic model of a use case
b. is like a blueprint for all the objects within a class
c. is another term for a state transition diagram
d. shows the interaction among classes during a specified time period
ANSWER: a, d
Matching
a. Class diagram b. Business process models (BPM)
c. Lifeline d. Object relationship diagram
e. State transition diagram f. Activity diagram
g. CASE tools h. Black box
i. Unified Modeling Language (UML) j. System boundary
67. It is based on the idea that all data and methods are self-contained.
ANSWER: h
68. It is used as a guide to continue to develop additional diagrams and documentation.

ANSWER: d
69. This is mainly used to support (object-oriented) O-O system analysis and to develop object models.
ANSWER: i
70. After this is identified, the use cases are placed on the diagram, the actors are added, and the relationships are shown.
ANSWER: j
71. In this, lines show relationships between classes and have labels identifying the action that relates the two classes.
ANSWER: a
72. In a sequence diagram, an X marks the end of this.

ANSWER: c

Name: Class: Date:

73. In this, reading from left to right, the lines show direction and describe the action or event that causes a transition from
one state to another.
ANSWER: e
74. This shows the order in which the actions take place and identify the outcomes.
ANSWER: f
75. It is a requirements modeling tool, but it can be used anytime during the systems development process.
ANSWER: b
76. This ensures consistency and provides common links so that once objects are described and used in one part of the
design, they can be reused multiple times without further effort.
ANSWER: g
Essay
77. What do relationships enable objects to do? What is the strongest kind of relationship? Walk through an example that
demonstrates your understanding of the concept.
ANSWER: Relationships enable objects to communicate and interact as they perform business functions and transactions
required by the system. Relationships describe what objects need to know about each other, how objects
respond to changes in other objects, and the effects of membership in classes, superclasses, and subclasses.
Some relationships are stronger than others (just as a relationship between family members is stronger than
one between casual acquaintances). The strongest relationship is called inheritance. Inheritance enables an
object, called a child, to derive one or more of its attributes from another object, called a parent. As one
example, the INSTRUCTOR object (child) inherits many traits from the EMPLOYEE object (parent),
including Social Security number, Telephone number, and Hire date. The INSTRUCTOR object also can
possess additional attributes, such as Type of Instructor. Because all employees share certain attributes, those
attributes are assumed through inheritance and do not need to be repeated in the INSTRUCTOR object.
78. Explain a class diagram. Also, explain how a class diagram is like a data flow diagram (DFD).
ANSWER: A class diagram shows the object classes and relationships involved in a use case. Like a DFD, a class
diagram is a logical model, which evolves into a physical model and finally becomes a functioning
information system. In structured analysis, entities, data stores, and processes are transformed into data
structures and program code. Similarly, class diagrams evolve into code modules, data objects, and other
system components.
In a class diagram, each class appears as a rectangle, with the class name at the top, followed by the class’s
attributes and methods. Lines show relationships between classes and have labels identifying the action that
relates the two classes. To create a class diagram, you review the use case and identify the classes that
participate in the underlying business process.
The class diagram also includes a concept called cardinality, which describes how instances of one class
relate to instances of another class. For example, an employee might have earned no vacation days or one
vacation day or many vacation days. Similarly, an employee might have no spouse or one spouse.

1-6 First Midterm

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

1-6 First Midterm

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Name: Class: Date:

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

2. A mission-critical system is one that is unimportant to a company’s operations.

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

Modified True / False

15. A large concentration of servers working together is called a _____.

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

20. Which of the following is one of the main sectors of ecommerce?

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

25. Transaction processing (TP) systems _____.

26. Business support systems _____.

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 4

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

29. User productivity systems _____.

30. In a typical organizational model, top managers _____.

31. In a typical company organizational model, middle managers _____.

33. A _____ describes the information that a system must provide.

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

d. enterprise resource planning system (ERP)

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 7

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

c. systems design phase

50. In object-oriented analysis, objects possess characteristics called _____.

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 8

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 9

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

a. User support specialists

Critical Thinking Questions

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

Critical Thinking Questions

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 11

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

67. A business process describes a specific set of _____.

68. Product-oriented firms manufacture _____.

Chapter 1 – Introduction to Systems Analysis and Design

76. Requests specific behavior or information from another object

77. Can expand to meet new business requirements and volumes

78. An early working version of an information system

80. Discuss the pros and cons of agile methods.

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 13

Chapter 2 – Analyzing the Business Case

6. Competition drives many information systems decisions.

7. Economic activity has a negligible influence on corporate information management.

Chapter 2 – Analyzing the Business Case

Modified True / False

13. It is easier to assign dollar values to intangible benefits.

17. Systems development typically starts with a _____.

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 2

Chapter 2 – Analyzing the Business Case

d. feasibility study, followed by a preliminary investigation, which includes a systems request

21. A _____ must be achieved to fulfill a company’s mission.

23. Hardware-based security controls include _____.

Chapter 2 – Analyzing the Business Case

Chapter 2 – Analyzing the Business Case

d. RDS (Radar detection system)

Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero. Page 5

Chapter 2 – Analyzing the Business Case

37. Which of the following is an example of a tangible benefit?

38. Which of the following is an example of an intangible benefit?

39. _____ are the benefits that can be measured in dollars.

41. _____ result from a decrease in expenses, an increase in revenues, or both.

Chapter 2 – Analyzing the Business Case