Exam Guru

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\ 18-Sep-2021 Shailesh Proof-3 Reader’s Sign _______________________ Date __________
TERM - 1 10 CBSE
2021-22
SOCIAL SCIENCE
(As per the Latest CBSE Syllabus Released in July 2021)
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Preface
Social Science-10 (Term-1) is based on the latest curriculum guidelines released

by the CBSE in July 2021 for the examination to be conducted between November-December
2021. It will certainly prove to be a torch-bearer for those who toil hard to achieve their goal.
This Question Bank has been developed keeping in mind all the requirements of the students
for Board Examination preparations like learning, practising, revising and assessing their
progress.
Salient Features of the Book:

● Each chapter is designed in a ‘Topicwise’ manner where every topic is briefly explained
followed by Exercise to that topic.

● Topics are presented in easy-to-understand points that help in memorising and retention.
● Every exercise covers all possible varieties of questions with answers in the form of Multiple
Choice Questions and other questions based on Assertion and Reasoning, Information, Data/
Graph, Picture/Figure, Case Study Source, Map Questions, etc.
● All important NCERT Textbook questions are covered with answers.
● Previous Years’ Important Board Questions with answers are also included.
● Latest CBSE Sample Paper and 2 Sample Papers for Mock Test are given with answers
and OMR Sheets for self-assessment.
● The book has been well prepared to build confidence among students.
We earnestly hope that this book will prove to be highly useful for students.
uggestions for further improvement of the book, pointing out printing errors/mistakes which
S
might have crept in spite of all efforts, will be thankfully received and incorporated in the next
edition.
–Publishers
(iii)
Syllabus
(TERM – I)
Time: 3 Hrs. Marks: 40
No. Units No. of Periods Marks
I India and the Contemporary World -1 12 10
II Contemporary India – I 16 10
III Democratic Politics – I 14 10
IV Economics 20 10
Total 62 40
COURSE CONTENT
Unit 1: India and the Contemporary World – II
Themes Learning Objectives
Section 1: Events and Processes • Enable the learners to identify and comprehend
1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe the forms in which nationalism developed along
• The French Revolution and the Idea of the with the formation of nation states in Europe
Nation in the post-1830 period.
• The Making of Nationalism in Europe • Establish the relationship and bring out the
difference between European nationalism and
• The Age of Revolutions: 1830-1848 anti-colonial nationalisms.
• The Making of Germany and Italy • Understand the way the idea of nationalism
• Visualizing the Nation emerged and led to the formation of nation
• Nationalism and Imperialism states in Europe and elsewhere.
Unit 2: Contemporary India – II
1. Resources and Development
• T y p e s o f R e s o u r c e s • D e v e l o p m e n t o f • Understand the value of resources and the need
Resources • Resource Planning in India
for their judicious utilization and conservation.
• Land Resources • Land Utilization •
Land Use Pattern in India • Land Degradation
and Conservation Measures • Soil as a Resource
• Classification of Soils • Soil Erosion and Soil
Conservation
3. Water Resources
• W ater Scarcity and The Need for Water • Comprehend the importance of water as a
Conservation and Management • Multi-Purpose
resource as well as develop awareness towards
River Projects and Integrated Water Resources
Management • Rainwater Harvesting its judicious use and conservation.
Note: The theoretical aspect of chapter • Identify different Dams in the country.
‘Water Resources’ to be assessed in the
Periodic Tests only and will not be evaluated
in Board Examination. However, the map
items of this chapter as listed will be
evaluated in Board Examination.
4. Agriculture • Explain the importance of agriculture in national
• Types of farming economy.
• Cropping Pattern • Identify various types of farming and discuss the
• Major Crops various farming methods; describe the spatial
• Technological and Institutional Reforms distribution of major crops as well as understand
• Impact of Globalization on Agriculture the relationship between rainfall regimes and
cropping pattern.
• Explain various government policies for
institutional as well as technological reforms
since independence.
(iv)
Unit 3: Democratic Politics – II

1. Power Sharing: • Familiarize with the centrality of power sharing
• Case Studies of Belgium and Sri Lanka in a democracy.
• Why power sharing is desirable? • Understand the working of spatial and social
• Forms of Power Sharing power sharing mechanisms.
2. Federalism:
• What is Federalism? • Analyse federal provisions and institutions.
• What make India a Federal Country? • Explain decentralization in rural and urban
• How is Federalism practiced? areas.
• Decentralization in India
Unit 4: Economics
1. Development: Familiarize with concepts of macroeconomics.
•
• What Development Promises - Different people • Understand the rationale for overall human
different goals • Income and other goals •
development in our country, which includes
National Development
• How to compare different countries or states? the rise of income, improvements in health and
• Income and other criteria • Public Facilities education rather than income.
• Sustainability of development • Understand the importance of quality of life and
sustainable development.
2. Sectors of the Indian Economy:
• Sectors of Economic Activities Identify major employment generating sectors.
•
• Comparing the three sectors
• Reason out the government investment in
• Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Sectors in
India different sectors of economy.
• Division of sectors as organized and unorganized
• Sectors in terms of ownership: Public and
Private Sectors
INTERNAL ASSESSMENT
Marks Description
Periodic Assessment 10 Marks
Pen Paper Test 5 marks
Assessment using multiple 5 marks
strategies
For example, Quiz, Debate,
Role Play, Viva, Group Dis-
cussion, Visual Expression,
Interactive Bulletin Boards,
Gallery Walks, Exit Cards,
Concept Maps, Peer Assess-
ment, Self-Assessment, etc.
Portfolio 5 Marks • Classwork and Assignments
• Any exemplary work done by the student
• Reflections, Narrations, Journals, etc.
• Achievements of the student in the subject
throughout the year
• Participation of the student in different activities
like Heritage India Quiz
Subject Enrichment Activity 5 Marks Project Work
(v)
CONTENTS
Unit-1: History (India and the Contemporary World-II)............................. 7–24

1. The Rise of Nationalism in Europe........................................................................ 7
Unit-2: Geography (Contemporary India-II).................................................. 25–58

1. Resources and Development.................................................................................. 25
3. Water Resources (Only Map Items will be evaluated in the
Board Examination)............................................................................................... 39
4. Agriculture.............................................................................................................. 41
Unit-3: Political Science (Democratic Politics-II)......................................... 59–84

1. Power Sharing......................................................................................................... 59
2. Federalism.............................................................................................................. 72
Unit-4: Economics (Understanding Economic Development-II)............. 85–118

1. Development........................................................................................................... 85
2. Sectors of the Indian Economy............................................................................... 98
• Sample Papers-1 (Issued by CBSE on 2nd September, 2021)........................ 119

• Sample Papers-2.............................................................................................. 128
• Sample Papers-3.............................................................................................. 136
• Answers to Sample Papers (1 to 3).............................................................. 145
• OMR Sheets............................................................................................... 147-152
(vi)
E:\New Working\EG_Social_Science-10_(Term_1)\Open\01_History\01_His-01
Unit-1
History (India and the Contemporary World-II)
1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe
Topics covered
1. TheFrench Revolution and the Idea of the Nation, and the Making of Nationalism in Europe
2. The Age of Revolutions: 1830–1848 3. The Making of Germany and Italy
4. Visualising the Nation 5. Nationalism and Imperialism
TOPICWISE IMPORTANT POINTS
The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics

• In 1848, Frederic Sorrieu, a French artist, prepared a series of four prints visualising his
dream of world.
• In Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the peoples of the world are grouped as distinct nations, identified
through their flags and national costume.
• It showed series of people of Europe and America marching in a long train offering homage
to Statue of Liberty.
• This procession is followed by United States, Switzerland, Germany, Austria, the Kingdom
of Two Sicilies, Lombardy, Poland, England, Ireland, Hungary and Russia.
• From the heavens above Christ, saints and angels gaze upon scene as if they are blessing
them.
• During the 19th century, nationalism emerge as a force which brought about political
changes in the world.
• Nation-state emerge in the place of multinational dynastic empires of Europe.
EXERCISE
I. Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
1. Choose the correct answer from the given options (MCQs)
(i) Which of the following is true regarding Frederic Sorrieu? He was a/an
(a) German artist (b) French artist (c) Swedish artist (d) Italian artist
(ii) The artists at the time of French Revolution personified liberty as a
(a) Male figure (b) Female figure
(c) Both male and female figures (d) None of these
(iii) Which of the following artists prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of
a world?
(a) Auguste Rodin (b) Frederic Sorrieu
(c) Edgar Degas (d) Berth Morisot
7
(iv) In Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the peoples of the world are identified through which
among the following?
(a) Flags (b) National costume
(c) Both flags and national costume (d) None of these
(v) Leading the procession, way past the Statue of Liberty, the peoples of Germany were
bearing which of the following colour flags?
(a) Black (b) Red (c) Gold (d) Black, red and gold
(vi) What was the main theme of the paintings of Frederic Sorrieu?
(a) Democracy (b) Liberalism (c) Socialism (d) Capitalism
II. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks)
2. Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most
appropriate option.
Ernst Renan, ‘What is a Nation?’
In a lecture delivered at the University of Sorbonne in 1882, the French philosopher
Ernst Renan (1823-92) outlined his understanding of what makes a nation. The lecture
was subsequently published as a famous essay entitled ‘Qu’est-ce qu’une nation?’ (‘What
is a Nation?’). In this essay Renan criticises the notion suggested by others that a nation
is formed by a common language, race, religion, or territory:
‘A nation is the culmination of a long past of endeavours, sacrifice and devotion. A heroic
past, great men, glory, that is the social capital upon which one bases a national idea. To
have common glories in the past, to have a common will in the present, to have performed
great deeds together, to wish to perform still more, these are the essential conditions of
being a people. A nation is therefore a large-scale solidarity … Its existence is a daily
plebiscite … A province is its inhabitants; if anyone has the right to be consulted, it
is the inhabitant. A nation never has any real interest in annexing or holding on to a
country against its will. The existence of nations is a good thing, a necessity even. Their
existence is a guarantee of liberty, which would be lost if the world had only one law
and only one master.
2.1. Who was Ernst Renan?
(a) He was a Russian philosopher. (b) He was an American philosopher.
(c) He was a French philosopher. (d) He was a German philosopher.
2.2. When was Ernst Renan born?
(a) 2 October 1892 (b) 27 February 1923
(c) 27 February 1892 (d) 15 March 1882
2.3. Fill in the blank from the given options.
Ernst Renan believed that racial features were instinctual and deterministic. He gave
the idea of ...................... .
(a) a revolution (b) unification of a country
(c) ‘what is a Nation’ (d) ‘what is a Common Man’
2.4. How are Nations formed according to Ernst Renan?
(a) Nations are formed by removing internal impediments to trade and enterprise.
(b) They are not formed only by common language, race, religion or territory.
(c) They are formed on social capital i.e., a heroic past, great men, glories, sacrifices
and devotion. (d) Both (b) and (c)
2.5. What is plebiscite?
(a) It is a system of indirect vote by which the people of a religion, themselves decide
to accept or reject a proposal.
8 Social Science-10
(b) It is a system of direct vote by which the people of a religion, themselves decide to
accept a proposal.
(c) It is a system of direct vote by which the people of a religion themselves decide to
accept or reject a proposal.
(d) It is a system in which people of a religion do not have power to accept or reject a
proposal.
2.6. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): The lecture of Ernst Renan was published as a famous essay.
Reason (A): In this eassy he condemns the concepts suggested by others about the
nation.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explaination of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explaination of A.
(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answers
1. (i)– (b), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(c), (v)–(d), (vi)–(a)
2. 2.1 (c) 2.2 (b) 2.3 (c) 2.4 (d) 2.5 (c) 2.6 (a)
1. The French Revolution and the Idea of the Nation, and the Making
of Nationalism in Europe
THE FRENCH REVOLUTION AND THE IDEA OF THE NATION
• The French Revolution in 1789 marked the age of revolution in Europe. It led to the transfer
of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens.
• The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would make the nation and shape its
destiny.
• French revolutionaries introduced (took) various steps to unite the people of France. They
considered it as the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the people of
Europe from despotism by introducing
(a) A new French flag
(b) The idea of la patrie and le citoyen
(c) A centralised administration system
(d) Uniform laws for all citizens
(e) Uniform system of weights and measures.
• Students, educated-middle classes set up Jacobin clubs to spread the ideas of revolutionaries
into Holland, Belgium, Switzerland and much of Italy in the 1790s.
• Napoleon introduced many reforms to simplify the administration and to make the whole
system more efficient. His revolutionaries principles were called Civil Code of 1804 usually
known as the Napoleonic Code.
• This code was exported to the regions of Switzerland, Italy and Germany.
• The French armies were welcomed as a symbol of liberty in Brussels, Mainz, Milan and
Warsaw.
• The people became hostile due to increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the
French army.
The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 9

THE MAKING OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE

• Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons.
• Eastern and central Europe were under autocratic monarchies within the territories of
which lived diverse people. They did not see themselves as sharing a collective identity or a
common culture.
• The Habsburg Empire that ruled over Austria-Hungary, for example, was a patchwork of
many different regions and peoples. It included the Alpine regions–the Tyrol, Austria and
the Sudetenland–as well as Bohemia, where the aristocracy was predominantly German-
speaking. It also included the Italian-speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia.
• In Hungary, half of the population spoke Magyar while the other half spoke a variety of
dialects.
• In Galicia, the aristocracy spoke Polish.
• Besides these three dominant groups, there also lived within the boundaries of the empire, a
mass of subjects peasant peoples–Bohemians and Slovaks to the north, Slovenes in Carniola,
Croats to the south and Roumans to the east in Transylvania.
THE ARISTOCRACY AND THE NEW MIDDLE CLASS
• A landed aristocracy was the dominant class of the continent, socially and politically. The
members of this class were united by a common way of life that cut across regional divisions.
• Industrialisation began in France and parts of the German states during the nineteenth
century. New social groups came into being: a working-class population, and middle classes.
• Slowly and steadily ideas of national unity among the educated, liberal middle classes
gained popularity which led to the abolition of aristocratic privileges.
WHAT DID LIBERAL NATIONALISM STAND FOR?
• The term ‘liberalism’ is taken from the Latin word liber which means free.
• The ideology of liberalism emerged which ended the state interference in the economic life of
society. Freedom of markets was achieved and state-imposed restrictions on the movement
of goods and capital were abolished. Napoleon’s administrative measures were altered.
• For the new middle classes liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality for
all before the law.
• In 1834, a customs union or Zollverein was formed.
A NEW CONSERVATISM AFTER 1815
• In 1815, Britain, Russia, Prussia and Austria collectively defeated Napoleon and to make
a settlement, the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 was signed. According to the provisions of this
treaty, the Bourbon dynasty was restored to power, France lost the territories it had annexed
under Napoleon.
• A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in
future.
(a) Netherlands and Belgium to look after the north boundaries.
(b) Genoa and Piedmont in the south.
(c) Austria and northern Italy.
(d) In the east, Russia was given part of Poland.
(e) Prussia was given a portion of Saxony.
• The main aim was to restore the monarchies and to create a new conservative order in
Europe.
• The autocratic regimes did not tolerate criticism and to curb activities that questioned the
legitimacy of autocratic government. It imposed censorship laws to newspapers, books, plays
and songs that reflected the idea of freedom and liberty.
10 Social Science-10
THE REVOLUTIONARIES
• During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists
underground.
• Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their
ideas.
• Most of these revolutionaries saw the creation of nation-states as an essential part of this
struggle for freedom.
• The Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was the member of the secret society of the
Carbonari. He opposed monarchical form and fought for Liberty and freedom.
• Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind. So Italy
could not continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms. It had to be forged into
a single united republic within a wider alliance of nations.
• Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republic frightened
the conservatives. Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’.
EXERCISE 1.1
(i) The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in the year of
(a) 1789 (b) 1879 (c) 1798 (d) 1778
(ii) In 1789 France was under the rule of
(a) federal government (b) an absolute monarch
(c) socialist (d) capitalist
(iii) What is the meaning of the Latin word liber?
(a) Free (b) Freedom (c) Liberty (d) Liberal
(iv) Which of the following countries was not divided into kingdoms, duchies and cantons?
(a) Germany (b) Italy (c) France (d) Switzerland
(v) Which of the following was not a quality of Napoleon’s Civil Code?
(a) Right by birth (b) Right of property
(c) Right to vote for all (d) Equality before law
(vi) Identify the correct statement about the liberal nationalists of Europe from the options
given below.
(a) They emphasized the concept of government by the consent of the people.
(b) They criticized the glorification of science.
(c) They created a sense of collective heritage.
(d) They did not stand for the freedom of markets.
appropriate option.
The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789.
France, as you would remember, was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the
rule of an absolute monarch. The political and constitutional changes that came in the
wake of the French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to
a body of French citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would
henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.

From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and
practices that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. The
ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of
a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the
tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was
elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns
were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the nation.
A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws
for all citizens within its territory. Internal customs duties and dues were abolished
and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted. Regional dialects were
discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common
language of the nation.
2.1. Which of the following revolutions is called as the first expression of nationalism?
(a) French Revolution (b) Russian Revolution
(c) Glorious Revolution (d) The Revolution of the Liberals
2.2. When did the French Revolution take place?
(a) In 1889 (b) In 1789 (c) In 1788 (d) In 1751
The idea of la patrie was initiated by French revolutionaries. It means .................. .
(a) the fatherland (b) the motherland (c) the citizen (d) the Constitution
2.4. Identify the purpose of the French revolutionaries from the following options:
(a) To establish republic (b) To provide equal rights for all
(c) To create a sense for collective responsibility
(d) All of the above
2.5. Which of the following measures was not adopted by the French revolutionaries?
(a) Ideas of la patrie and le citoyen (b) The tricolour French flag
(c) Hymns composed (d) Regional dialects were encouraged
Assertion (A) : In 1798, the first clear expression of nationalism came with the French
Revolution.
Reason (A) : The idea of French revolutionaries emphasised the notion of a united
community enjoying equal rights under a Constitution.
Options:
appropriate option.
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven
by a spirit of conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional
institutions of state and society – like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies,
property and the family – should be preserved. Most conservatives, however, did
not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days. Rather, they realised,
from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact strengthen
traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make state power more effective and
stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of

feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of Europe. In 1815,
representatives of the European powers who had collectively defeated Napoleon, met at
Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian
Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 with the
object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic
wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was
restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series
of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future.
3.1. Which of the following statements correctly describes about European conservative
ideology?
(a) Preservation of believes introduced by Napoleon
(b) Preservation of two sects of Christianity
(c) Preservation of socialist ideology in economic sphere
(d) Preservation of traditionalist beliefs in state and society
3.2. Identify the purpose to convene the Vienna of Congress in 1815 from the following
options.
(a) To declare competition of German unification
(b) To restore conservative regime in Europe
(c) To declare war against France
(d) To start the process of Italian unification
Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society
should be preserved. They focused on ..................... at the Congress of Vienna.
(a) to re-establish peace and stability in Europe
(b) to establish socialism in Europe
(c) to introduce democracy in France
(d) to set up a new Parliament in Austria
3.4. How did the Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? Select the appropriate option.
(a) With the restoration of Bourbon Dynasty
(b) Austria was not given the control of Northern Italy
(c) Laying out a balance of power between all the great powers in Europe
(d) By giving power to the German confederation
3.5. Which of the following is not a result of the Treaty of Vienna, 1815?
(a) Austria was given control of Northern Italy.
(b) Russia was given German confederation of 39 states.
(c) The Kingdom of Netherlands was established in the North.
(d) Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers.
Assertion (A): In 1815s the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists
underground.
Reason (R): Most of these revolutionaries saw the creation of nation-states as a
necessary part of this struggle for freedom.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Answers
1. (i) (a), (ii) (b), (iii) (a), (iv) (c), (v) (c), (vi) (a)
2. 2.1 (a) 2.2 (b) 2.3 (a) 2.4 (d) 2.5 (d) 2.6 (d)
3. 3.1 (d) 3.2 (b) 3.3 (a) 3.4 (c) 3.5 (b) 3.6 (a)
2. The Age of Revolutions: 1830-1848

• The period between 1830–1848 is symbolised with the age of revolutions. The first upheaval
took place in France in July 1830. The Bourbon kings were now overthrown by liberal
revolutionaries. Louis Philippe was made a constitutional monarch. Belgium got separated
from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands.
• The Greek war of Independence started in 1821.
• It created nationalist feelings among the educated people in Europe.
• Their struggle for Independence began in 1821 and got support from the Greeks living in
other European countries.
• Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.
THE ROMANTIC IMAGINATION AND NATIONAL FEELING
• Romanticism, cultural movements develop a sense of nationalism through art, poetry,
stories, music and past experiences.
• They promote emotions and mystical feelings to create a sense of oneness and love for nation.
Johann Gottfried Herder, a German philosopher created a spirit of nationalism through folk
songs, folk poetry and folk dances.
• Karol Kurpinski of Poland created nationalist feeling through his operas, music and folk
dances.
• Language too played a major role in developing nationalist sentiments.
• Poland was occupied by Russia and people fought for their language and culture.
HUNGER, HARDSHIP AND POPULAR REVOLT
• The 1830s were the years of great economic hardship in Europe. The first half of the
nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe which gave rise
to unemployment.
• Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums.
• Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap
machine-made goods from England.
• In those regions of Europe where the aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled
under the burden of feudal dues and obligations. The rise of food prices or a year of bad
harvest led to widespread pauperism in town and country.
• Food shortages and widespread unemployment brought the population of Paris out on the
roads.
THE REVOLUTIONS OF THE LIBERALS: 1848
• In 1848, a revolution led by educated middle class professionals, businessmen, and prosperous
artisans.
• They demanded a creation of a nation state on parliamentary principles, a constitution,
freedom of press and freedom of association.
• On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives marched in the Frankfurt parliament in
St. Paul Church to draft the Constitution, headed by monarchy.
• The Friedrich Wilhelm IV, King of Prussia rejected the crown; the assembly was disbanded.
• Political rights to men were controversial.
• Women had formed their own political associations, founded newspapers and taken part in
political meetings and demonstrations. Despite this they were not given the right to vote.
EXERCISE 1.2
(i) Identify the correct statement with regard to Johann Gottfried Herder is correct.
(a) He was a French philosopher. (b) He was a German philosopher.
(c) He was an Italian philosopher. (d) He was an Indian philosopher.
(ii) The first upheaval took place in France in July in which of the following years?
(a) 1820 (b) 1830 (c) 1840 (d) 1850
(iii) Which of the following treaties recognized Greece as an independent nation?
[CBSE S.P. 2020-21]
(a) Treaty of Sevres (b) Treaty of Versailles
(c) Treaty of Lausanne (d) Treaty of Constantinople
(iv) Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nations?
(a) Treaty of Constantinople (b) Treaty of Vienna
(c) Treaty of Versailles (d) Treaty of Paris
(v) What does Romanticism refer to?
(a) Literary movement (b) Political movement
(c) Cultural movement (d) Religious movement
2. Assertion and Reasoning Type Question
Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read
the statements and choose the appropriate below:
Assertion (A): Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation.
Reason (R): Collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was essential to the
project of nation-building.
Options:
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
appropriate option.
The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the
liberal movement, in which large numbers of women had participated actively over the
years. Women had formed their own political associations, founded newspapers and
taken part in political meetings and demonstrations. Despite this they were denied
suffrage rights during the election of the Assembly. When the Frankfurt parliament
convened in the Church of St Paul, women were admitted only as observers to stand in
the visitors’ gallery.
Though conservative forces were able to suppress liberal movements in 1848, they could
not restore the old order. Monarchs were beginning to realise that the cycles of revolution
and repression could only be ended by granting concessions to the liberal-nationalist

revolutionaries. Hence, in the years after 1848, the autocratic monarchies of Central
and Eastern Europe began to introduce the changes that had already taken place in
Western Europe before 1815. Thus serfdom and bonded labour were abolished both in
the Habsburg dominions and in Russia. The Habsburg rulers granted more autonomy
to the Hungarians in 1867.
3.1. What did women do to extend their political rights?
(a) They had formed their own political association.
(b) They had published newspapers.
(c) They had taken part in political meeting and demonstations.
3.2. The Frankruft Parliament was held on
(a) 18 August 1948 (b) 8 May 1948
(c) 18 June 1948 (d) 18 May 1948
The Frankruft Parliament was a German National Assembly. The .................., where
it was convened in 1848.
(a) Indoor Tennis Court (b) Church of St. Pauls
(c) Bastille (d) Hall of Mirrors
3.4. What happened when Frankfurt Parliament was convened?
(a) Women were welcomed.
(b) They were allowed to take part in the discussion.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Women were admitted only as observers to stand in the visitor’s gallary.
3.5. Conservative forces did not believe in establishing
(a) Social hierarchies (b) Traditional institutions
(c) The democracy (d) The monarchy
Assertion (A): Conservatives were able to repress liberal movements in 1848.
Reason (R): The Habsburg rulers glanted more autonomy to the Hungarians in 1867.
Options:
appropriate option.
Parallel to the revolts of the poor, unemployed and starving peasants and workers in
many European countries in the year 1848, a revolution led by the educated middle
classes was under way. Events of February 1848 in France had brought about the
abdication of the monarch and a republic based on universal male suffrage had been
proclaimed. In other parts of Europe where independent nation-states did not yet exist
– such as Germany, Italy, Poland, the Austro-Hungarian Empire – men and women of
the liberal middle classes combined their demands for constitutionalism with national
unification. They took advantage of the growing popular unrest to push their demands
for the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary principles – a constitution, freedom
of the press and freedom of association.
4.1. What are the demands of liberal middle class?

(a) A Constitution (b) Freedom of the press
(c) Freedom of association (d) All of these
4.2. Which of the following is not an European country?
(a) Germany (b) Italy (c) USA (d) Poland
Independent nation-states existed in other parts of Europe such as ..................... .
(a) Poland, Ireland (b) Italy, Germany
(c) Hungary, Greece (d) Germany, Netherlands
4.4. Which of the following did not define the term ‘Liberal Nationalism’ for Europeans in
the 19th century?
(a) End of autocracy and clerical privileges
(b) Freedom for the individual and equality
(c) Government empowered to violate the right of private property
(d) Government by consent
4.5. Which of the following statements best describes the idea of liberal nationalism of 19th
century Europe?
(a) Freedom of individual and equality before law
(b) Emphasis on social justice
(c) Supremacy of state oriented nationalism
(d) None of the above
Assertion (A): Events of February 1848 in France had brought about the abdication
of the monarch.
Reason (R): This revolution led by the lower classes was underway.
Options:
Answers
1. (i) (b), (ii) (b), (iii) (d), (iv) (a), (v) (c)
2. (a)
3. 3.1 (d) 3.2 (c) 3.3 (b) 3.4 (d) 3.5 (c) 3.6 (b)
4. 4.1 (d) 4.2 (c) 4.3 (b) 4.4 (c) 4.5 (a) 4.6 (c)
3. The Making of Germany and Italy

GERMANY UNIFICATION
• After 1848, nationalist feeling were widespread among middle class Germans.
• Germany and Italy came to be unified as nation-states.
• National feelings were widespread among middle-class German. Prussia took on the
leadership of the movement for national unification.
• The Chief Minister, Otto von Bismarck was the architect of this process carried out with
the help of the Prussian army and bureaucracy. Three wars over seven years with Austria,
Denmark and France ended in Prussian victory and completed the process of unification.

• On the 18 January 1871, the princes of the German states, representatives of the army,
important Prussian ministers including Otto von Bismarck gathered in the Palace of
Versailles to proclaim the new German Empire headed by Kaiser William I of Prussia.
• The new state placed a story emphasis on modernising the currency, banking, legal and
judicial systems in Germany. Prussian measures and practices often become a model for the
rest of Germany.
ITALY UNIFIED
• Like Germany, Italy, too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered
over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire.
• During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for
a unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the
dissemination of his goals.
• Italy offered them the possibility of economic development and political dominance.
• Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was neither a
revolutionary nor a democrat.
• In 1860, a large number of armed volunteers under the leadership of Giuseppe marched into
South Italy and the Kingdom of Two Sicilies and succeeded in winning support and drove
out the Spanish rulers.
• In 1861 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of united Italy.
THE STRANGE CASE OF BRITAIN
• The history of nationalism in Britain was different from the rest of Europe. Before the
eighteenth century there was no British nation. The people of different identities comprised
English, Welsh, Scot or Irish lived in the British Isles.
• The Act of Union of 1707 between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the
‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’. This led to the demolition of Scotland’s distinctive culture
and political institutions.
• In Ireland, the English helped the protestants and established their control over the Catholic
country and Ireland was dominated by United Kingdom in 1801.
• A British nation was formed with English culture, British flag, the national anthem and the
English language.
EXERCISE 1.3
(i) Which of the following was the only state of Italy that was ruled by an Italian princely
house?
(a) Sardinia-Piedmont (b) Romania
(c) Bulgaria (d) Hungary
(ii) Identify the correct statement with regard to ‘The Act of Union-1707’ from the following
options. [CBSE S.P. 2020-21]
(a) The British monarchy surrendered the power to English Parliament.
(b) The British Parliament seized power from Ireland.
(c) The formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’.
(d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.
(iii) Large landowners of Prussia were called
(a) Junkers (b) Artisans (c) Freedom fighters (d) Philosophers
(iv) In which of the following years, the Prussian king, Kaiser William I, was proclaimed
German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles?
(a) January 1671 (b) January 1771
(c) January 1871 (d) January 1971
(v) Young Italy, a secret society was formed by
(a) Metternich (b) Mazzini (c) Bismarck (d) Wilhelm Wolff
(vi) Which of the following was not a condition of Italy before unification?
(a) Political fragmentation. (b) Italy was dominated by UK in 1801.
(c) Italy was divided into seven states.
(d) Italians were scattered over several dynastic states.
(vii) By whom was/were the various states of Italy ruled?
(a) The North was under Austrian Habsburgs.
(b) The centre was ruled by Pope.
(c) The southern regimes were under the Bourbon Kings of Spain.
(viii) Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy in 1861?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Macedonia
appropriate option.
On the bitterly cold morning of 18 January 1871, an assembly comprising the princes of
the German states, representatives of the army, important Prussian ministers including
the chief minister Otto von Bismarck gathered in the unheated Hall of Mirrors in the
Palace of Versailles to proclaim the new German Empire headed by Kaiser William I
of Prussia.
The nation-building process in Germany had demonstrated the dominance of Prussian
state power. The new state placed a strong emphasis on modernising the currency,
banking, legal and judicial systems in Germany. Prussian measures and practices often
became a model for the rest of Germany.
2.1. King William-I was belonged to which of the following nations?
(a) Prussia (b) Austria (c) Denmark (d) France
2.2. Who among the following personalities played an important role in unifying Germany?
(a) Mazzini (b) Matternich
(c) Otto von Bismarck (d) Kaiser William-I
Bismarck manipulated European rivalries to make Germany a world power. On 18
January 1871 in his leadership an assembly was held in ...................... .
(a) The Church of St. Pauls (b) The Hall of Mirrors
(c) Indoor Tennis Court (d) None of these
2.4. Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany after the unification of Germany?
(a) Otto von Bismarck (b) Voltaire
(c) Matternich (d) Kaiser William-I
2.5. The new state emphasised on moderning the
(a) Banking (b) Currency
(c) Legal and judicial systems (d) All of these

Assertion (A): Otto von Bismarck was a Prussian minister.
Reason (R): Other Prussian measures and practices became a model for other parts
of Germany.
Options:
appropriate option.
Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were
scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire.
During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states, of
which only one, Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north
was under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern
regions were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain. Even the Italian
language had not acquired one common form and still had many regional and local
variations.
During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme
for a unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for
the dissemination of his goals. The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and
1848 meant that the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler King Victor
Emmanuel II to unify the Italian states through war. In the eyes of the ruling elites of
this region, a unified Italy offered them the possibility of economic development and
political dominance.
3.1. During the middle of the 19th century, Italy was divided into how many states?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 8
3.2. Who among the following did not play any role in the process of unification of Italy?
(a) Napoleon (b) Cavour
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Garibaldi
Italy had a long history of political fragmentation. ..................... led the process of the
unification of Italy.
(a) Venetia (b) Papal State
(c) Sardinia-Piedmont (d) None of these
3.4. What do you know about Giuseppe Mazzini?
(a) He was a Russian revolutionary. (b) He was a French revolutionary.
(c) He was an Italian revolutionary. (d) He was a Prussian revolutionary.
3.5. Which of the following regions was ruled by the Hubsburg Empire?
(a) Spain-Portugal (b) Austria-Hungary
(c) Scotland-Ireland (d) France-Netherlands
Assertion (A): Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely house.
Reason (R): In 19th century, the central Italy was ruled by the Pope while the
northern Italy was under Austrian Habsburgs.
Options:
Answers
1. (i) (a), (ii) (c), (iii) (a), (iv) (c), (v) (b), (vi) (b), (vii) (d), (viii) (b)
2. 2.1 (a) 2.2 (c) 2.3 (b) 2.4 (d) 2.5 (d) 2.6 (b)
3. 3.1 (b) 3.2 (a) 3.3 (c) 3.4 (c) 3.5 (b) 3.6 (b)
4. Visualising The Nation

• The artist in the 18th and 19th centuries personify nations as a female figures that did not
resemble for any particular woman in real life.
• The female figure became an allegory of the nation, to portray ideas such as liberty, justice
and the republic. These ideals were represented through specific objects or symbols.
• Marianne, a Christian name, became the allegory of France. Her statues were erected in
public squares to create the feeling of unity. Her images were marked on coins and stamps.
• Germania, the allegory of German nation, wear a crown of oak leaves, as the German-Oak
stands for heroism.
EXERCISE 1.4
Objective Type Questions (1 Mark)
(i) Which among the following figure became an allegory of the nation?
(a) Female (b) Male (c) Both (d) None of these
(ii) The attribute of liberty was
(a) red cap (b) broken chain
(c) blindfolded woman (d) both (a) and (b)
(iii) Germania became the allegory of
(a) France (b) Germany (c) Italy (d) All of these
(iv) Which of the following was the female allegory which represented the peoples nations
in France?
(a) Marianne (b) Bharat Mata (c) Germania (d) None of these
(v) Marianne represented the Republic of
(a) England (b) Britain (c) US (d) France
(vi) What does the German oak stand for?
(a) Patriotism (b) Liberalism (c) Heroism (d) Socialism
(vii) What was the significance of ‘Broken Chains’?
(a) Readiness to fight (b) Willingness to make peace
(c) Heroism (d) Being freed
2. Arrange the correct sequence of Column I against the Column II
Column I (Attribute) Column II (Significance)
I. Sword 1. Symbol of the German empire-strength
II. Breast plate with eagle 2. Readiness to fight
III. Rays of the rising sun 3. Heroism
IV. Crown of the oak leaves 4. Beginning of a new era


Choose the correct answer.
(a) II-4, IV-3, III-1, I-2 (b) III-4, I-2, IV-3, II-1
(c) I-4, III-1, II-3, IV-2 (d) IV-1, II-4, I-3, III-1
Answers
1. (i) (a), (ii) (d), (iii) (b), (iv) (a), (v) (d), (vi) (c), (vii) (d) 2. (b)
5. Nationalism And Imperialism

• During the last quarter of the nineteenth century, nationalist groups became increasing
intolerant of each other and over ready to go to war.
• The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the
Balkans. The Balkan was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising Romania,
Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Bosnia, Serbia, etc. Their inhabitants were known as Slaves.
• A large part of Balkan was under the control of Ottoman empire.
• The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism and disintegration of Ottoman empire
created problems in this region.
• One by one its European subject nationalities declare themselves independent.
• The Balkan states were jealous of each other and wanted to gain others territory.
• When European powers like Russia, Germany, England and Austro-Hungary tried to gain
control over this region. They led to a series of wars and finally the First Worl6d War.
• Nationalism aligned with imperialism that led Europe to disaster in 1914 because many
countries were colonised by the European powers began to oppose imperial domination. The
anti-imperial movements that developed everywhere were nationalist.
• The nationalists struggled to form independent nation-states and were inspired by a sense
of collective national unity, forged in confrontation with imperialism.
EXERCISE 1.5
(i) After 1871 the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe was the area called
(a) Germany (b) Balkans (c) Italy (d) Ottoman Empire
(ii) An important part of the Bankans was under the control of
(a) Italy (b) Germany
(c) Ottoman Empire (d) US
(iii) Balkans comprised countries such as
(a) Greece, Albania, Bulgaria, Slovenia
(b) Romania, Greece, Macedonia, Montenegro
(c) Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Serbia
(iv) On what basis did the Balkans claim for freedom?
(a) Nationality (b) Social rights
(c) Political rights (d) None of these
(v) Which of the following powers was not interested to increase their own control over the
Balkans?
(a) Switzerland (b) England (c) Russia (d) Germany
2. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions

Two statements are given in the questions (i) and (ii) below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning
(R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option:
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): The Balkan area became an area of intense conflict.
Reason (R): The Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each other and each hoped to gain
more territory at the expense of the others.
(ii) Assertion (A): The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was
the area called the Balkans.
Reason (R): The rebellious nationalities in the Balkans thought of their struggles as
attempts to win back their long-lost independence.
Answers
1. (i) –(b), (ii) –(c), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(a), (v)–(a) 2. (i)–(a), (ii)–(a)
Picture Based Questions

1. Following image is the personification of Germany generally associated
with the Romantic Era and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its aspect
from among the following options.
(a) Folk and Cultural Tradition
(b) Heroism and Justice
(c) Austerity and Asceticism
(d) Revenge and Vengeance
ns. (b)
A
2. Following image is represented as a postman here who had incorporated revolutionary
principles by introducing the Civil Code of 1804. Identify its name from among the
following options.
(a) Giuseppe Mazzini (b) Cavour

(c) Napoleon Bonaparte (d) Frederic Sorrieu
Ans. (c)

Main Events
1714 : George-I became the king of the Great Britain.

1715 : Louis XVI became the king of France.
1740-1748 : The War of the Austrian Succession.
1756-1763 : The Seven Years War.
1776 : The American Declaration of Independence.
1789 : The French Revolution took place.
1797 : Napoleon invaded Italy; Napoleonic wars began.
1814 : The First Treaty of Paris: established a lenient peace with France.
1814-1815 : Fall of Napoleon; the Vienna Peace Settlement; Napoleon escaped from
Elba, gathered a new army, but was defeated at Waterloo.
1821 : Greek struggle for independence began.
1831 : Giuseppe Mazzini established Young Italy.
1830 : Period of economic crisis in Europe.
1832 : Greece gained independence from the Ottoman Empire.
1849-1878 : The reign of Victor Emmanuel-II of Sardinia-Piedmont.
1852 : Camillo Cavour became the premier of Sardinia-Piedmont.
1858 : Cavour formed an alliance with France
1859 : Piedmont and France defeated Austria; Piedmont annexed Lombardy.
1859-1870 : Unification of Italy.
1860 : Garibaldi defeated Spanish from the kingdom of Two Sicilies.
1861 : The Kingdom of Italy was announced; Victor Emmanuel-II of Sardinia-
Piedmont became king of Italy.
1870 : After France declared war on Prussia, Italy annexed Rome.
1861-1888 : Reign of King William-I of Prussia.
1866-1871 : Unification of Germany.
1867 : Prussia created the North German Confederation.
1870-1871 : Franco-Prussian War.
1871 : The German Empire was formed; Germany annexed Alsace and Lorraine;
the Provinces of France
1848 : Revolutions in Europe; artisans, industrial workers and peasants revolt
against economic hardships; middle classes demand constitutions and
representative governments; Italians, Germans, Magyars, Poles, Czechs,
etc. demand nation-states.
1905 : Slav nationalism gathered force in the Habsburg and Ottoman Empires.
1914 : Beginning of First World War
E:\New Working\EG_Social_Science-10_(Term_1)\Open\02_Geography\02_Geo-01
Unit-2
Geography (Contemporary India-II)
1 Resources and Development
Topics Covered
1. Resources and Its Classification and Types 2. Development of Resources
3. Resource Planning in India and Conservation of Resources
4. Land Resources, Land Utilisation, Land Use Pattern in India, Land Degradation and Conservation Measures
5. Soil as a Resource, Classification of Soils, Soil Erosion and Soil Conservation
1. Resources and Its Classification and Types

•• Everything available in our environment which is technologically accessible, economically
feasible and culturally acceptable and can satisfy over needs is known as resource.
Example: human beings, plants, animals, etc.
•• The process of transformation of things available in the environment involves an interactive
relationship between nature, technology and institution.
•• Resources can be classified on the basis of origin, exhaustibility, ownership and the status
of development.
EXERCISE 1.1
(i) Which one of the following is not the basis of the classification of resources?
(a) Origin (b) Shape (c) Ownership (d) Exhaustibility
(ii) Which of the following resources is based on exhaustibility?
(a) Community resources (b) National resources
(c) Individual resources (d) Renewable resources
(iii) Which of the following is not a renewable resource?
(a) Solar energy (b) Water
(c) Metals (d) Forests and wildlife
(iv) Which of the following resources is considered a biotic resource?
(a) Air (b) Plants (c) Oil (d) Rocks
(v) Rocks and minerals are examples of
(a) Abiotic resources (b) Biotic resources
(c) Renewable resources (d) Non-renewable resources
(vi) On the basis of its origin, resources can be classified into:
(a) Renewable and non-renewable (b) Continuous and biological
(c) Biotic and abiotic (d) Recyclable and non-recyclable
25
(vii) The ocean resources beyond 200 nautical miles is classified under which zone?
(a) Exclusive Economic Zone (b) Export-processing Zone
(c) Special Economic Zone (d) None of these
(viii) Everything available in our environment to satisfy our needs is termed as:
(a) Technology (b) Resource
(c) Natural vegetation (d) None of these
(ix) Individual, community, national and International resources are classified on the
basis of
(a) Origin (b) Exhaustibility
(c) Ownership (d) Status of development
(x) Which of the following is not classified on the basis of status of development?
(a) Potential resource (b) Developed stock resource
(c) Reserves resource (d) Renewable resource
(xi) The resources which are obtained from biosphere and have life are called
(a) Biotic (b) Abiotic (c) Parasitic (d) None of these
(xii) Which one of the following types of resource is iron ore?
(a) Renewable (b) Biotic (c) Flow (d) Non-renewable
(xiii) Under which of the following types of resource can tidal energy be put?
(a) Replenishable (b) Human-made (c) Abiotic (d) Non-recyclable
(xiv) Which of the following are examples of national resources?
(a) Minerals and water resources (b) Roads and Railways
(c) Forests and wildlife (d) All of these
2. Choose the correct pair
(i) Choose the correctly matched pair about the classification of resources from the
following options:
(a) On the basis of origin—Individual community, national and international
(b) On the basis of inexhaustibility—Renewable and non-renewable
(c) On the basis of status and development—Biotic and abiotic
(d) On the basis of ownership—Potential, developed stock and reserves
(ii) Choose the correctly matched pair about the resources and development.
(a) Developed resources—Living things (b) Biotic resources—Non-living things
(c) Abiotic resources—Hydrogen and oxygen
(d) Reserves—Subset of the stock
3. Fill in the blanks
(i) Biotic and Abiotic resources: on the basis of origin, Renewable and non-renewable
resources: on the basis of exhaustibility, ____________: on the basis of the status of
development.
(a) National and International resources (b) Potential and Developed resources
(c) Individual and Community-owned resources
(d) Human resources
(ii) On the basis of origin resources are __________ and __________ .
(a) Potential; Developed (b) Renewable; Non-renewable
(c) Biotic; Abiotic (d) National; International
(iii) Water is a compound of two gases: __________ and __________ .
(a) Nitrogen; Carbon dioxide (b) Hydrogen; Oxygen
(c) Oxygen; Carbon dioxide (d) Hydrogen; Nitrogen
(iv) Resources are __________ accessible; __________ feasible and __________ acceptable.
(a) socially; culturally; economically
(b) economically; socially; technologically
(c) nicely; properly; socially
(d) technologically; economically; culturally
4. Information Based Question
Analyse the information given below and select the correct option.
Technically, all the resources belong to the nation. The country has legal powers to
acquire even private property for public good. All the minerals, water resources, forests,
wildlife, land within the political boundaries and oceanic area up to 12 nautical miles
(22.2 km) from the coast termed as territorial water and resources therein belong to the
nation.
(a) Renewable Resources (b) Individual Resources
(c) National Resources (d) Potential Resources
Answers
1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(b), (v)–(a), (vi)–(c), (vii)–(a), (viii)–(b), (ix)–(c),
(x)–(d), (xi)–(a), (xii)–(d), (xiii)–(a), (xiv)–(d)
2. (i)–(b), (ii)–(a) 3. (i)–(b), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(d) 4. (c)
2. Development of Resources And Resource Planning

• For the maintaining of the quality of life, resources are played vital role for human survival.
Therefore, human used them indiscriminately.
• As a result, resources are depleted, accumulate in few hands, and led to global ecological
crises such as global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land
degradation.
• Sustainable Development means development should take place without damaging the
environment and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the
future generations.
• Agenda 21 is the declaration signed by the world leaders of the countries in 1992 at the Rio
Earth Summit. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through
global co-operation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities.
EXERCISE 1.2
(i) Which of the following statements is true about the term Resources?
(a) Resources are the functions of human activities.
(b) Human beings used resources properly.
(c) Resources are free gifts of nature.
(d) Resources are not important for human survival.
(ii) Which of the following statements defines Sustainable Development?
[CBSE SP 2019-20]
(a) Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the need of the future
generation.
Resources and Development 27

(b) Present generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of the future
generation as well.
(c) It means utilization of natural resources by the past, present and forthcoming
future generation.
(d) To meets the needs of the future generations even if the needs of the present
generation go unmet.
(iii) Agenda 21 was signed in
(a) 1990 (b) 1892 (c) 1992 (d) 1991
(iv) Resource planning is essential for _______ existence of all forms of life.
(a) Ecological balance (b) Sustainable
(c) Exploitation (d) None of these
(v) Which of the following states is not rich in coal deposits?
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Jharkhand
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained
quality of life and global peace.
Reason (R): Resource planning is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life.
Options:
(d) R is true but A is false.
appropriate option.
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance
in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources.
There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some
other resources. There are some regions which can be considered self sufficient in terms
of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of
some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya
Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of
water resources but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is
very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold
desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich
cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals.
This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.
Resource planning is a complex process which involves: (i) identification and
inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying,
mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the
resources (ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology,
skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.
(iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.
3.1. Which of the following is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life?
(a) Resource planning (b) Resource management
(c) Resource extraction (d) Resource generation
3.2. Resource planning is important in a country like India, which has enormous diversity
in the availability of resources. Which one of the following is not essential for a
developed region?
(a) Availability of resources (b) Valuation of resources
(c) Utilisation of resources (d) Valuation of planning
3.3. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options.
I. Jharkhand is rich in coal deposits.
II. Rajasthan has abundance of water resources.
III. Resources planning is a simple process.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I only (d) III only
3.4. The state of Rajasthan lacks in which of the following resources?
(a) Water resources (b) Soil resources
(c) Biotic resources (d) Potential resources
3.5. Which of the following union territories has cold desert?
(a) Puducherry (b) Chandigarh (c) Ladakh (d) Lakshadweep
3.6. Which of the following processes is involved in Resource Planning?
(a) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country.
(b) Evolving a planning structure with suitable technology
(c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development
plans
appropriate option.
In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, for the first
International Earth Summit. The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems
of environmental protection and socioe-conomic development at the global level. The
assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological
Diversity. The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda
21 for achieving sustainable development in the 21st century.
Agenda 21 is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through
global co-operation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities. One
major objective of the Agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own local
Agenda 21.
4.1. Where was the first International Earth Summit held?
(a) Nagpur (b) Moscow (c) Rio de Janeiro (d) Beijing
I. The first International Earth Summit was convened to discuss problems of socio-
economic development at local level.
II. To achieve sustainable development its members signed Agenda 21.
III. The aim of Agenda 21 is not only to protect the present generation but also
posterity.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III only (d) II only

4.3. What does Agenda 21 mean?

(a) It is an agreement between 10 developing countries on climate change.
(b) It is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the UN with regard to
sustainable development.
(c) It is a free trade between 5 developed countries.
4.4. When was sustainable development came into existence?
(a) 1990 (b) 1949 (c) 1995 (d) 1992
4.5. What is the meaning of sustainable economic development?
(a) Development should take place without damaging the environment.
(b) Development should not compromise with needs of the future generations.
(c) Development should take place on technological and level of their feasibility.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
4.6. Using which of the following resources will aid in achieving sustainable development?
(a) Hydroelectricity (b) Solar and Wind energy
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Natural gas
Answers
1. (i)–(a), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(b), (v)–(d)
2. (a)
3. 3.1 (a) 3.2 (b) 3.3 (b) 3.4 (a) 3.5 (c) 3.6 (d)
4. 4.1 (c) 4.2 (b) 4.3 (b) 4.4 (d) 4.5 (d) 4.6 (c)
3. Resource Planning in India and Conservation of Resources

• Resource Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. Country like
India, there has enormous diversity in the availability of resources, therefore it is important
to plan about the resources.
• There are some regions in India which can be considered self sufficient in terms of availability
of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources.
Therefore, India needs balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local
levels.
• Resource planning is a complex process which involves in three steps:
(i) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country.
(ii) Proper planning with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for
implementing resource development plans.
(iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.
• Resource are important for any developmental activity. India has made enormous efforts for
conservation of resources.
• India has made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning right from the
First Five Year Plan launched after independence.
• There are many regions but these are included in economically backward regions.
• On the contrary there are some regions which have a poor resource base but they are
economically developed.
• Irrational consumption and over-utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and
environment problems. To overcome these problems, resource conservation at various levels
is important.
EXERCISE 1.3
(i) Resource planing is a complex process which involves step/steps such as–
(b) Proper planning with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for
implementing resource development plans.
(c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development
plans.
(ii) Who said, ‘‘There is enough for everybody’s need and not for everybody’s greed’’?
(a) Dr Ambedkar (b) Pt. Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Sardar Patel
(iii) India has made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning right
from the–
(a) First Five Year Plan (b) Second Five Year Plan
(c) Fourth Five Year Plan (d) Sixth Five Year Plan
Assertion (A): The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development
of any region.
Reason (R): Dr. Rajendra Prasad was against mass production and wanted to replace
it with the production by the masses.
Options:
(d) A is false but R is True.
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a) 2. (c)
4. Land Resources, Land Utilisation, Land Use Pattern in India, Land

Degradation and Conservation Measures
• We live on land. It is a natural resource of utmost importance. It supports natural vegetation,
wildlife, human life, economic activities, transport and communication systems.
• In India, about 43% of land area is plain, 30% is of mountains and 27% is of plateaus.
• Land resources are used for many purposes like forests, land not available for cultivation,
other uncultivated land, follow lands and net shown area.
• Area sown only once in any agricultural year is known as net sown area.
• Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as gross
cropped area.
• Land use pattern is determined both by physical factors like topography, climate, soil
types and human factors like population density, technological capability and culture and
traditions, etc.

• Total geographical area of India is 3.28 million sq. km but only 93% are used due to some
internal and land dispute issues.
• The land under permanent pasture has decreased and also the pattern of net sown area
varies greatly from one state to another. Forest area in the country is far lower than the
desired 33% of geographical area.
• Continuous use of land over a long period of time, resulted in land degradation. Human
activities have not only brought about degradation of land but have also aggravated the pace
of natural forces to cause damage to land.
• There are many ways to solve the problems of land degradation such as afforestation, proper
management of grazing, planting of shelter belt of plants, stablisation of sand dunes, control
of mining activities, proper disposal of industrial effluents, and proper management of waste
lands, etc.
EXERCISE 1.4
(i) What is the total geographical area of India?
(a) 1.38 million sq. km (b) 2.28 million sq. km
(c) 3.28 million sq. km (d) 4.48 million sq. km
(ii) Land not available for cultivation is called
(a) forests (b) barren and waste lands
(c) fallow lands (d) net sown area
(iii) The land (with deep channels) which cannot be used for cultivation is
(a) Good land (b) Bad land (c) Fallow land (d) Arable land
(iv) Which one of the following is an example of cultivable wasteland? [CBSE SP 2019-20]
(a) Gross Cropped Area (b) Uncultivable Land
(c) Barren Wasteland (d) Current Follow Land
(v) Which of the following North-Eastern states has been fully surveyed for its land use?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur (c) Tripura (d) Assam
(vi) Land use data is available only for _______ of the total geographical area because the
land use reporting for most of the north-east states except Assam has not done fully.
(a) 99 per cent (b) 93 per cent (c) 50 per cent (d) 60 per cent
(vii) What percentage of land in India consist of fertile plains?
(a) 70% (b) 38% (c) 61% (d) 43%
(viii) Area sown more than once in agricultural year plus net sown area is known as
(a) Fallow lands (b) Gross cropped area
(c) Cropped area (d) Grazing land
Assertion (A): Land is a natural resource of utmost importance.
Reason (R): Land can be used for various purposes.
Options:

appropriate option.
The pattern of net sown area varies greatly from one state to another. It is over 80 per
cent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana and less than 10 per cent in Arunachal
Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Andaman Nicobar Islands.
Forest area in the country is far lower than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area,
as it was outlined in the National Forest Policy (1952). It was considered essential for
maintenance of the ecological balance. The livelihood of millions of people who live on
the fringes of these forests depends upon it. A part of the land is termed as waste land
and land put to other non-agricultural uses. Waste land includes rocky, arid and desert
areas and land put to other non-agricultural uses includes settlements, roads, railways,
industry etc. Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate
measures to conserve and manage it, has resulted in land degradation. This, in turn,
has serious repercussions on society and the environment.
3.1. The pattern of net sown area is less than 10 per cent in which of the following regions
of India?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Mizoram and Manipur
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (d) All of these
I. Net sown area is over 80 per cent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana.
II. India’s forest area is far higher than the desired 33 per cent of geographical area.
III. Human activities are responsible for maximum land degradation.
Options:
(a) II and III (b) I and III (c) II only (d) I only
3.3. The National Forest Policy came into existence in
(a) 1950 (b) 1952 (c) 1947 (d) 2000
3.4. India’s forest area is far lower than the desired ______ of geographical area as per the
national forest policy.
3.5. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation (b) Deforestation (c) Over irrigation (d) Overgrazing
3.6. Which human activities have led to land degredation?
(a) Agriculture (b) Construction of roads and building
(c) Deforestation and overgrazing (d) Afforestation
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(b), (v)–(d), (vi)–(b), (vii)–(d), (viii)–(b) 2. (a)
3.
3.1 (d) 3.2 (c) 3.3 (b) 3.4 (a) 3.5 (c) 3.6 (c)
5. Soil as a Resource, Classification of Soils, Soil Erosion and Soil

Conservation
• Soil is the most significant renewable natural resource. It is a living system where plants
grow and many types of living organisms take breaths.
• India has varied relief features, landforms, climatic realms and vegetation types. These
have contributed in the development of various types of soils. In India, alluvial soil, black
soil, red soil, yellow soil, laterite soil, arid soil and forest soil are some major soils.

• Alluvial soils, are deposited by the three important Himalayan river systems – the Indus,
the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. It is found in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari,
the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers. According to their age, alluvial soils can be classified as
Bangar (old alluvial) and Khadar (new alluvial).
• Black soil is ideal for growing cotton and is also known as black cotton soil.
• Due to the diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks, red soils appear reddish
colour. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
• Laterite soil is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rain. It is suitable for cultivation
with adequate doses of manures and fertilizers.
• Arid soils are sandy in texture and saline in nature. Due to the dry climate, high temperature,
evaporation is faster and the soil lacks humus and moisture.
• Forest soils are loamy and silty in valley sides and coarse grained in the upper slopes. These
soils are acidic with humus content in the snow covered areas of Himalayas.
• Soil is uppermost layer of the earth’s crust which is loose and fragmented.
• The denudation of the top soil cover and its washing down is described as soil erosion.
• The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies, it is
known as gully erosion. The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In
the Chambal basin such lands are called ravines.
• When the top soil is washed away due to heavy flow of water over large areas down a slope,
it is known as sheet erosion.
• When the top fertile soil blows off due to wind it is known as wind erosion.
• Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is
called contour ploughing.
• Planting lines of trees to create shelter to break up the force of the wind is known as shelter
belts.
EXERCISE 1.5
(i) Which is the most important soil of India?
(a) Black soil (b) Alluvial soil (c) Red soil (d) Laterite soil
(ii) Red soil looks yellow when it occurs in
(a) Hydrated form (b) Original form (c) Oxidated form (d) Degraded form
(iii) Which type of soil has a good capacity to hold moisture?
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Arid soil (c) Forest soil (d) Black soil
(iv) Which of the following soils is more common in Piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos
and Terai?
(a) Black soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Alluvial soil (d) Red soil
(v) Which soil is also known as regur soil?
(a) Black soil (b) Red soil (c) Alluvial soil (d) Laterite soil
(vi) In the snow-covered areas of Himalayas, which of the following soils experiences
denudation and is acidic in nature with humus content?
(a) Laterite soil (b) Black soil (c) Alluvial soil (d) Forest soil
(vii) The lower horizons of the arid soil is occupied by kankar due to increasing
(a) Calcium content (b) Potash content
(c) Lime, potash and phosphorous contents
(d) Phosphorous content

Choose the correctly matched pair about the soils found in India from the following options:
(i) (a) Alluvial soils – Himalayan river systems
(b) Arid soils – Tropical and sub-tropical climate
(c) Forest soils – Regur soils
(d) Laterite soils – Red to brown is colour
(ii) (a) Black soils – West Bengal
(b) Forest soils – Ladakh
(c) Arid soils – Karnataka
(d) Red and yellow soils – Gujarat
Two statements are given in the questions (i) to (v) below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): Evaporation is faster in the arid soil region and the soil lacks humus
and moisture.
Reason (R): There is dry climate and high temperature in the arid soil region.
(ii) Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is ideal for growth of paddy, wheat, cereal and pulse crops.
Reason (R): Alluvial soil is well-known for its capacity to hold moisture.
(iii) Assertion (A): Soil is the most important renewable natural resource.
Reason (R): Soil supports different types of living organisms on the earth.
(iv) Assertion (A): Processes of soil formation and erosion goes simultaneously and creates
a balance between the two.
Reason (R): The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is soil
erosion.
(v) Assertion (A): Arid soil is unsuitable for cultivation.
Reason (R): Arid soil is generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. It restricts the
filtration of water.
(i) Tea and coffee: Laterite soils, Maize and pulses: Arid soils, _____________ : Black soils
(a) Rubber and coconut (b) Barley and spices
(c) Cotton and jowar (d) Wheat and cinchona
(ii) Maharashtra: Black soil, Karnataka: Laterite soil, _____________: Arid soil
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Rajasthan (c) Kerala (d) Assam
5. R
ead the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most
appropriate option.
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion.
The processes of soil formation and erosion, go on simultaneously and generally there is
a balance between the two. Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities
like deforestation, over-grazing, construction and mining etc., while natural forces like
wind, glacier and water lead to soil erosion.

Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This
is called contour ploughing. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace
cultivation restricts erosion. Western and central Himalayas have well developed
terrace farming. Large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow
between the crops. This breaks up the force of the wind. This method is known as strip
cropping. Planting lines of trees to create shelter also works in a similar way. Rows of
such trees are called shelter belts. These shelter belts have contributed significantly to
the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.
5.1. The denudation of earth cover and subsequent washing down is called.
(a) Sheet erosion (b) Soil erosion
(c) Gully erosion (d) Wind erosion
5.2. Read the following statements of find the INCORRECT from the given options.
I. When the land becomes useless for agriculture it is known as bad land.
II. Wind erosion refers to the top infertile soil blows off due to wind.
III. Shelter belts have contributed importantly in stabilising the desert in eastern
India.
(a) II and III only (b) I and II only (c) III only (d) I only
5.3. The running water cuts through the clayey soils
(a) Bad land (b) Gullies (c) Deltas (d) None of these
5.4. Where is gully erosion common?
(a) In Bramhaputra Basin (b) In Ganga Basin
(c) In Chambal Basin (d) In Narmada Basin
5.5. Planting lines of trees to build shelter to break up the wind force is called
(a) Wind erosion (b) Soil erosion
(c) Contour ploughing (d) Shelter belts
5.6. Which of the following is not the soil conservation method?
(a) Terracing of slopes (b) Checking overgrazing
(c) Contour ploughing (d) Strip cropping
Answers
1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c), (v)–(a), (vi)–(d), (vii)–(a)
2. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b) 3. (i)–(a), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(c), (v)–(c)
4. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b) 5. 5.1 (b) 5.2 (a) 5.3 (b) 5.4 (c) 5.5 (d) 5.6 (a)
Graph Based Question

Which of the following options best signifies this graph?
(a) About 43% of the land area is plain which provides facilities for agriculture and
industry.
(b) Mountains account for about 30% of the land area
which provides facilities for tourism and ecological
aspects.
(c) About 27% of the plateau region possesses rich
resources of minerals, fossil fuels and forests.
Ans. (d)
Map Based Questions

1. Identify the major soil types shown in the given outline map of India and write their
names.[As per the CBSE Map List]
On the same outline map of India, identify the locations and choose the correct option.
2. Which of the following soils are found in Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh and Uttarakhand
regions where sufficient rainforests are available?
(a) Alluvial soil (b) Laterite soil
(c) Forest and mountainous soil (d) Black soil
3. Which of the following soils ranges from red to brown in colour?
(a) Black soil (b) Arid soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Alluvial soil
(iii) 2
3
(iii)
(i)
(vi) (iv)
Tropic of Cancer
(v)
(vi)
(ii)
12°
(iv)
8°
Ans. 1. (i) Arid/Desert soil, (ii) Laterite soil, (iii) Forest and Mountainous soil, (iv) Red and
Yellow soil (v) Black soil (vi) Alluvial soil 2. (c), 3. (b)

On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified
informations.
4. (i) On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as a soil. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) Arid soil (b) Regur soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Alluvial soil
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
32°
32°
28° 28°
A
24°
24°
20°
20°
B
16°
16°
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
(ii) On the same map given above, ‘B’ is also marked as a soil which is ideal for growing
cotton.
(a) Black soil (b) Forest soil (c) Red and Yellow soil (d) Desert soil
5. (i) On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as a soil. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) Laterite soil (b) Red and Yellow soil
(c) Arid soil (d) Alluvial soil
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
32°
32°
28° 28°
A
24°
24°
20°
20°
16°
16°
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
(ii) On the same map given above. ‘B’ is also makred as a soil which is very soil for
growing tea and coffee. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Arid soil (b) Black soil
(c) Laterite soil (d) Mountainous soil
Ans. 4. (i)-(d), (ii)-(a) 5. (i)-(b), (ii)-(c)
3 Water Resources
Note: The theoretical aspect of the chapter to be assessed in Periodic Tests only and will not be
evaluated in Board Examination. Only Map items as given in the CBSE Map List from this
chapter will be evaluated in Board Examination.
Map Based Questions
1. On an outline map of India locate and label the following dams along with river lines:
[As per the CBSE Map List]
1. Salal 2. Bhakra Nangal 3. Tehri 4. Rana Pratap Sagar
5. Sardar Sarovar 6. Hirakud 7. Nagarjuna Sagar
8. Tungabhadra
Ans.
R.1.
ab Salal
en
Ch
2.
Bhakra Nangal
j R.
Satlu 3. Tehri
R.
Ga
al
ng
b
4. am
a
Rana Pratap Ch
R.
Sagar
5. Narmada R. 6.
Mah
andi
R
Kr
ishn
aR
. 7.
Nagarjuna Sagar
8.
ra
ad
bh
ga
n
Tu
39
informations.
2. On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as dam. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) Salal dam (b) Hirakud dam
(c) Bhakra Nangal dam (d) Rana Pratap Sagar dam
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
32°
32°
B
28° 28°
24°
24°
20°
A 20°
16°
16°
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
3. On the same map of India given below, ‘B’ is also marked as a major dam located in
Uttarakhand. Identified it from the following options.
(a) Sardar Sarovar dam (b) Kallanai dam
(c) Pandoh dam (d) Tehri dam
4. On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as a dam. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) Tungabhadra dam (b) Bhakra Nangal dam
(c) Koyna dam (d) Banasura dam
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
32° B 32°
28° 28°
24°
24°
20°
20°
16°
16°
A
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
5. On the same map given above, ‘B’ is also marked as major dam located in Jammu and
Kashmir on Chenab river. Identify if from the following options.
(a) Hirakud dam (b) Nagarjura Sagar dam
(c) Mettur dam (d) Salal dam
Ans. 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d)
4 Agriculture
Topics Covered
1. Types of Farming 2. Cropping Pattern
3. Food Crops other than Grains 4. Non-Food Crops
5. Technological and Institutional Reforms 6. Impact of Globalisation on Agriculture

1. Types of Farming
•• Agriculture is an age-old economic activity is our country but over these year, cultivation
methods have changed with the use of modern techniques.
•• Farming varies from subsistence to commercial type. At present, in different parts of India
these types of farming systems are practised.
•• Primitive Subsistence Farming is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture in which farmers clear a
patch of land and grow crops with the help of primitive tools to sustain their family.
•• ‘Slash and burn’ agriculture is known as Jhumming in north-eastern states, Pamlou in
Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
•• Intensive subsistence farming is practised in areas of high population pressure on land, where
high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher production.
•• Commercial Farming in which farmers grow crops with the aim of selling the products for
commercial purpose.
•• Plantation is a type of commercial farming. In this farming a single crop is grown on large
area. It is practised on large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of
migrant labourers.
EXERCISE 4.1
(i) Name the farming that is also known as ‘slash and burn’ agricultural.
(a) Primitive subsistence farming (b) Intensive subsistence farming
(c) Plantation farming (d) Dairy farming
(ii) What is jhumming cultivation called in Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Dahiya (b) Kumari (c) Khil (d) Podu or Penda
(iii) In which state of India ‘slash-and burn’ agriculture is called ‘Pamlou’?
(a) Meghalaya (b) Manipur (c) Mizoram (d) Nagaland
(iv) Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is
grown on a large area?
(a) Shifting agricultural (b) Plantation agriculture
(c) Horticulture (d) Intensive agriculture
41
(v) Which of the following is an age-old economic activity?

(a) Fishing (b) Tailoring (c) Agriculture (d) Weaving
(vi) Which of the following methods have been changed depending upon the characteristics
of physical environment, technological know-how and socio-cultural practice?
(a) Industrial activity (b) Irrigation Pattern
(c) Cultivation (d) None of these
(vii) Jhumming in Brazil is called–
(a) Ladang (b) Roca (c) Masole (d) None of these
(viii) ________ is a slash and burn agriculture.
(a) Extensive farming (b) Commercial subsistence farming
(c) Jhumming (d) None of these
(ix) Which of the following farming practice depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the
soil and suitability of other environmental conditions?
(a) Commercial farming (b) Internsive subsistence farming
(c) Plantation (d) Primitive subsistence farming
(x) Which type of agriculture practice is famous in North-Eastern states like Assam,
Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland?
(a) Jhumming (b) Slash and burn farming
(c) Commercial farming (d) Subsistence farming
(xi) What population of India is engaged in agricultural activities?
(a) Two-third (b) Three-fourth (c) One-fourth (d) Two-fourth
(xii) Tick the characteristic of commercial farming.
(a) Plots of land are fragmented.
(b) Transport and communication plays an important role.
(c) The yield is usually low.
(d) The pressure of population is high on land.
(i) Choose the correctly matched pair about the Primitive cultivation in India from the
following options: (CBSE SP 2020-21)
(a) Dahiya – Madhya Pradesh (b) Kumari – Jharkhand
(c) Khil – Andhra Pradesh (d) Koman – Karnataka
(ii) Choose the correctly matched pair about the slash and burn agriculture in other
countries from the following options:
(a) Ray – Mexico (b) Milpa – Vietnam
(c) Roca – China (d) Conuco – Venezuela
(i) Bewar: Madhya Pradesh, Penda: Andhra Pradesh, _________ : Odisha
(a) Kuruwa (b) Podu (c) Khil (d) Bringa
(ii) North-eastern region: Jhumming, Waltre: South-eastern Rajasthan, __________ :
Odisha
(a) Valre (b) Pama Dabi (c) Kuruwa (d) Podu

Two statements are given in the questions (i), (ii) and (iii) below as Assertion (A) and
Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option:
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): Plantation, a type of commercial farming, in this a single crop is grown
on a large area.
Reason (R): Since the production is mainly for market, a well developed network of
transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries and
markets.
(ii) Assertion (A): India’s primary activity is agriculture.
Reason (R): Two-thirds of India’s population is engaged in agricultural activities.
(iii) Assertion (A): Biochemical inputs and irrigation are used for obtaining higher
production.
Reason (R): Doses of biochemical input are used to grow crops rapidly.
appropriate option.
Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop
is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of
migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries.
In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea
in Assam and North Bengal coffee in Karnataka are some of the important plantation
crops grown in these states. Since the production is mainly for market, a well developed
network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing
industries and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.
5.1. Plantation is a type of commercial farming. Which of the following crops come under
plantation farming?
(a) Rubber, coffee, wheat, banana, cotton
(b) Tea, rice, rubber, coffee, maize
(c) Sugarcane, tea, coffee, banana, rubber
(d) Jute, tea, coffee, maize, banana
5.2. Plantation covers large tracts of land. Read the following statements and find the
INCORRECT from the given options.
I. Planation is practised in areas where population pressure on land is high.
II. It has an interface of agriculture and industry.
III. It requires well-developed network of transport and communication connecting
the plantation areas.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III only (d) I only
5.3. Which of the following states of India is famous for spices and rubber?
(a) West Bengal (b) Odisha (c) Karnataka (d) Kerala
5.4. Laterite soil is useful for growing which of the following commercial crops?
(a) Rubber and sugarcane (b) Cotton and jute
(c) Barley and gram (d) Tea and coffee
Agriculture 43
5.5. Which form of agriculture is plantation farming?

(a) Extensive farming (b) Commercial farming
(c) Mixed farming (d) Subsistence farming
5.6. Which of the following is not a major planation crop of India?
(a) Banana (b) Grapes (c) Rubber (d) Tea
Answers
1. (i)–(a), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(b), (v)–(c), (vi)–(c), (vii)–(b), (viii)–(c), (ix)–(d), (x)–(a),
(xi)–(a), (xii)–(b)
2. (i)–(a), (ii)–(d) 3. (i)–(d), (ii)–(b)
4. (i)–(b), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(a)
5. 5.1 (c) 5.2 (d) 5.3 (d) 5.4 (d) 5.5 (b) 5.6 (b)
2. Cropping Pattern
•• Cropping Season: Season in which some particular crops are grown. India has three cropping
season– rabi, kharif and zaid.
 Rabi crops: These crops are grown in winter between October to December and
harvested in summer between April to June.
 Kharif crops: These crops are sown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the
country and harvested in September-October.
 Zaid crops: In between the Rabi and the Kharif seasons, there is a short season during
the summer months known as the Zaid season.
•• Major crops grown in India are rice, wheat, millets, pulses, tea, coffee, sugarcane, oilseeds,
cotton, jute, etc.
•• Rice is the staple food crop of the majority of people in India.
•• India is the second largest producer of rice in the world after China.
•• Wheat is the second most important cereal crop. It is the main food crop in north and north-
western part of the country.
•• Jowar, bajra and ragi are the important millets grown in India.
•• Maize is a crop which is used both as food and fodder. It grows well in old alluvial soil.
EXERCISE 4.2
(i) Which crop is harvested in the months of September-October?
(a) Zaid (b) Rabi (c) Kharif (d) None of these
(ii) During which season/seasons important crops like watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber
and vegetables crops are produced?
(a) Zaid season (b) Kharif season (c) Rabi season (d) All of these
(iii) Which one of the following is a rabi crop?
(a) Paddy (b) Gram (c) Jowar (d) Soyabean
(iv) What is ‘Boro’?
(a) Kharif crop (b) Zaid crop (c) Rabi crop (d) None of these
(v) Ragi is very rich in
(a) Zinc (b) Iodine (c) Iron (d) Phosphorous
(vi) Rabi crops are sown in

(a) Winters (b) Monsoon (c) Summers (d) None of these
(vii) Which of the following is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India?
(a) Jowar (b) Bajra (c) Wheat (d) Rice
(viii) Which out of the following is a zaid crop?
(a) Moong (b) Mustard (c) Urad (d) Watermelon
(ix) The crops grown in rabi season are
(a) Wheat, peas, barley and mustard (b) Rice, jute, maize, soyabean
(c) Pulses, melons, vegetables (d) Sugarcane and tobacco
(x) In which months are the kharif crops harvested?
(a) April – June (b) September – October
(c) January – February (d) June – July
(xi) Important crops like paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, etc. are grown during which of the
following seasons?
(a) Spring (b) Summer (c) Monsoon (d) Winter
(xii) Aus, aman and boro are types of which crop?
(a) Maize (b) Paddy (c) Jowar (d) Bajra
(xiii) Which of the following crops is used both as food and fodder?
(a) Ragi (b) Jowar (c) Maize (d) None of these
C hoose the correctly matched pair about the largest producing country from the following
options:
(a) Brazil – Pulses (b) China – Rice
(c) India – Fruits and vegetables (d) Sugarcane – Japan
(i) Pulses: leguminous crop, watermelon: zaid crop, ____________: rabi crop
(a) Maize (b) Jowar (c) Bajra (d) Barley
(ii) Barley: rabi crop, cotton: kharif crop, ________: zaid crop (CBSE S.P. 2020-21)
(a) Wheat (b) Mustard (c) Soyabean (d) Cucumber
(iii) A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micro nutrients and roughage is
_____________. (CBSE S.P. 2020-21)
(a) Bajra (b) Rajma (c) Jowar (d) Ragi
(iv) Peas: rabi crop, Muskmelon: zaid crop, _________ : kharif crop
(a) Gram (b) Bajra (c) Wheat (d) Barley
(v) West Bengal: Rice, Punjab: Wheat ________: Maize
(a) Karnataka (b) Uttarakhand (c) Haryana (d) Assam
(R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Options:
Agriculture 45
(i) Assertion (A): Crops are grown depending upon the variations in soil, climate and
cultivation practices.
Reason (R): Crops are also grown according to availability of water.
(ii) Assertion (A): Staple food crop in India is rice and requires less rain.
Reason (R): Our country is the fourth largest producer of rice in the world.
appropriate option.
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer
from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram
and mustard. Through, these crops are grown in large parts of India, states from the
north and north-western parts such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu
and Kashmir (UT), Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production
of wheat and other rabi crops. Availability of precipitation during winter months due
to the western temperate cyclones help in the success of these crops. However, the
success of the green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and Parts
of Rajasthan has also been an important factor in the growth of the above mentioned
rabi crops.
Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and
these are harvested in September-October. Important crops grown during this season
are paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and
soyabean. Some of the most important rice growing regions are Assam, West Bengal,
coastal regions of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Karala and
Maharashtra, particularly the (Konkan coast) along with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Recently, paddy has also become an important crop of Punjab and Haryana. In states
like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These
are Aus, Aman and Boro.
5.1. Which of the following crops grown in rabi season?
(a) Barely, soyabean, watermelon (b) Rice, peas, bajra
(c) Gram, mustard, barley (d) Jowar, urad, gram
I. Rabi crops are grown in summer and harvested from October to December.
II. Kharif crops are harvested in September-October.
III. West Bengal and Assam are major rice producing states of India.
Options:
5.3. Which of the following is not a kharif crop?
(a) Arhar (b) Moong (c) Cotton (d) Mustard
5.4. Which of the following is the main crop of rabi reason?
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Maize (d) Jowar
5.5. The three main cropping seasons of India are
(a) Pongal, Lohri and Onam (b) Aus, Aman and Boro
(c) Rabi, Kharif and Zaid (d) Chat, Baishakh and Lohri
5.6. The staple food of India is
(a) Soyabean (b) Rice (c) Maize (d) Gram
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(a), (v)–(c), (vi)–(a), (vii)–(d), (viii)–(d), (ix)–(a), (x)–(b),
(xi)–(c) (xii)–(b), (xiii)–(c)
2. (b) 3. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c), (v)–(a) 4. (i)–(b), (ii)–(c)
5. 5.1 (c) 5.2 (c) 5.3 (d) 5.4 (a) 5.5 (c) 5.6 (b)
3. Food Crops other than Grains

•• India is the second largest producer of sugarcane only after Brazil.
•• India was the second largest producer of groundnut in the world after China.
•• India was the third largest producer rapeseed in the world after Canada and China.
•• Main oilseeds produced in India are groundnut, coconut, sesamum (til), soyabean, castor
seeds, cotton seeds, linseed and sunflower.
•• Groundnut is a kharif crop and accounts for about half of the major oilseeds produced in the
country. It grows well in Gujarat, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra.
•• Tea is an beverage crop introduced in India initially by the British. It is a labour intensive
industry. India was the second largest producer of tea after China and Turkey in 2014.
•• Indian coffee is known in the world for its good quality. India produced 3.5 per cent of the
world coffee production in 2014. The Arabica variety which is in great demand all over the
world is produced in India. Its cultivation was introduced on the Baba Budan Hills.
•• Horticulture refers to intensive cultivation of vegetables, fruits and flower crops for the
market. India was the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world after
China in 2014.
EXERCISE 4.3
(i) The largest sugarcane producing state of India is
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) Which of the following crops is grown once a year?
(a) Sugarcane (b) Cotton (c) Rice (d) Pulses
(iii) Which of the following is the largest tea producer state in India?
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Rajasthan (d) Assam
(iv) Which of the following countries is the largest producer of sugarcane?
(a) China (b) Brazil (c) France (d) India
(v) Which of the following states is not a major sugarcane producing states in India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Rajasthan
(vi) Which of the following are the two main beverage crops produced in India?
(a) Cocoa and sugarcane (b) Rice and pulses
(c) Tea and coffee (d) Jowar and Bajra
(vii) Which of the following varieties of coffee is grown in India?
(a) American (b) Arabica (c) Espresso (d) Cappuccino
(viii) Which of the following countries is the largest producer of Horticulture crops?
(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Japan (d) China
Agriculture 47

Options:
(i) Assertion (A): Tea cultivation is a labour-intensive industry.
Reason (R): Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate throughout the year.
(ii) Assertion (A): Groundnut is a zaid crop and accounts for about one-third of the major
oilseeds produced in the country.
Reason (R): Castor seed is grown both as rabi and kharif crop.
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(b), (v)–(d), (vi)–(c), (vii)–(b), (viii)–(d)
2. (i)–(b), (ii)–(d)
4. Non-Food Crops
•• Rubber is a major industrial raw material. It is an equatorial crop, but under special
condition.
•• Cotton, jute, hemp and natural silk are the four major fibre crops grown in India.
•• Sericulture is the rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre.
•• India was the second largest producer of cotton after China in 2008.
•• Jute is known as the golden fibre. It grows well in well-drained fertile soils in the flood
plains where soils are renewed every year.
EXERCISE 4.4
(i) Which of the following crops requires moist and humid climate with rainfall of more
than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C?
(a) Jute (b) Rice (c) Rubber (d) Wheat
(ii) India was the second largest producer of this crop after China in 2015.
(a) Barley (b) Cotton (c) Maize (d) Sugarcane
(iii) Which of the following crops is mainly grows in Kerala?
(a) Tea (b) Coffee (c) Rubber (d) Jute
(iv) Which of the following countries was the second largest producer of cotton in 2015, but
now it is the largest cotton producing country in the world?
(a) India (b) China (c) Brazil (d) Sri Lanka
(v) Cotton grows well in
(a) Arid soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Alluvial soil (d) Black soil
(vi) Which of the following is being used in making gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets
and other artefacts?
(a) Jute (b) Cotton (c) Fibre (d) None of these
(vii) Which of the following is not a fibre crop grown in India?
(a) Silk (b) Maize (c) Hemp (d) Cotton
Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops from the following options:
(a) Golden fibre – Jute (b) Fibre crop – Rubber
(c) Food crop – Cotton (d) Non-food crop – Tea
(i) On black soil ______________ is grown.
(a) Cotton (b) Maize (c) Silk (d) Mulberry
(ii) ______________ a major industrial raw material which is mainly grown in Kerala and
Tamil Nadu.
(a) Coffee (b) Rubber (c) Coconut (d) Rice
(iii) Rearing and breeding of fishes: Pisciculture, Honey-bee farming: Apiculture, Rearing
of silkworms: __________
(a) Silkculture (b) Sericulture
(c) Mulberryculture (d) Wormculture
Assertion (A): Rubber is grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas.
Reason (R): It requires moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 100 cm and
temperature above 50°C
Options:
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(a), (v)–(d), (vi)–(a), (vii)–(b)
2. (a)
3. (i)–(a), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(b) 4. (c)
5. Technological and Institutional Reforms

•• Collectivisation, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and abolition of zamindari, etc. were
given priority to bring about institutional reforms in the country after independence.
•• The Green Revolution and the White Revolution (Operation Flood) were some of the
strategies initiated to improve the lot of Indian agriculture.
•• Green Revolution refers to technologies that were introduced to increase the agricultural
production such as use of HYV seeds, fertilizers, modern machinery and inputs.
Agriculture 49
•• White Revolution: Increase in milk production due to introduction of technological and

institutional reforms.
•• Kissan Credit Cards (KCC) and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS) are introduced
by government for the benefit of the farmers.
•• Special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers were introduced on
radio and television.
•• The government announces Minimum Support Price (MSP), remunerative and procurement
prices for important crops.
•• The Bhoodan-Gramdan movement initiated by Vinoba Bhave is also known as the Blood-
less Revolution.
•• Establishment of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), agricultural universities,
veterinary services and animal breeding centers, horticulture development, research
and development in the field of meteorology and weather forecast were given priority for
improving Indian agriculture.
•• Today, Indian farmers are facing a big challenge from international competition and
reduction in the public investment in agriculture sector.
•• Reduction in import duties on agricultural products have proved detrimental to agricultural
in the country.
•• India’s rural population is about 83.3 crore which depends upon 25 crore (approx.) hectares
of agricultural land, an average of less than half a hectare per person.
•• Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops.
EXERCISE 4.5
(i) Who was declared as spiritual heir of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Vinoba Bhave (d) Sardar Patel
(ii) _______ is a scheme introduced by the Government of India for the benefit of the
farmers.
(a) Kisan Credit Card (b) Mudra Yojana
(c) Farmer Scheme (d) Jan Dhan Yojana
(iii) Who initiated Bhoodan-Gramdan movement?
(a) Pt. Nehru (b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Vinoba Bhave
(iv) Which which of the following is the Operation Flood related?
(a) French Revolution (b) White Revolution
(c) Green Revolution (d) None of these
(v) Agriculture contributes _______ to the national income of India.
(a) 33% (b) 22% (c) 40% (d) None of these
Assertion (A): The Government of India embarked upon introducing agricultural reforms
to improve Indian agriculture in the 1960s and 1970s.
Reason (R): KCC, PAIS are some schemes introduced by Government of India for the
benefit of farmers.
Options:
appropriate option.
Agriculture has been practised in India for thousands of years. Sustained uses of land
without compatible techno–institutional changes have hindered the pace of agricultural
development. Inspite of development of sources of irrigation most of the farmers in
large parts of the country still depend upon monsoon and natural fertility in order to
carry on their agriculture. For a growing population, this poses a serious challenge.
Agriculture which provides livelihood for more than 60 per cent of its population, needs
some serious technical and institutional reforms. Thus, collectivisation, consolidation
of holdings, cooperation and abolition of zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring
about institutional reforms in the country after Independence. ‘Land reform’ was the
main focus of our First Five Year Plan. The right of inheritance had already lead to
fragmentation of land holdings necessitating consolidation of holdings.
3.1. _____ belongs to ______ sector.
(a) Construction; tertiary (b) Agriculture; primary
(c) Smelting; primary (d) Banking; secondary
3.2. Arrange the correct sequence of Column I against the Column II.
Column I Column II
(a) Agriculture 1. Main farming production is consumed
by farmer’s family
(b) Subsistence agriculture 2. Primary economic activity
(c) Land reform 3. Abolition of Zamidari
(d) Institutional reform 4. Five Year Plan
(a) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1 (b) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-4
(c) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 (d) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
3.3. For irrigation, most of the Indian farmers depend on
(a) Monsoon (b) Rivers (c) Reservoirs (d) Tube wells
3.4. Grouping of small land holdings into a bigger one is called
(a) Collectivisation (b) Cooperation and abolition of zamidari
(c) Consolidation of land holdings (d) Institutional reforms
Agriculture 51
3.5. Which of the following was the main forces of the First Five Year plan of India?
(a) Privatisation (b) Globalisation
(c) Industrialisation (d) Land reform
3.6. Land reform is covered under which list?
(a) State list (b) Concurrent list (c) Central list (d) Board list
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(b), (v)–(d) 2. (b)
3. 3.1 (b) 3.2 (d) 3.3 (a) 3.4 (c) 3.5 (d) 3.6 (a)
6. Impact of Globalisation on Agriculture

•• Globalisation is not a new phenomenon. It was there at the time of colonisation when
European traders came to India.
•• Indian spices and cotton were exported to different countries but during the British period
cotton belts of India attracted the British and ultimately cotton was exported to Britain
textile industries.
•• After 1990, the farmers in India have been exposed to new challenges that they are not able
to compite with developed countries because of the highly subsidised agriculture in those
countries.
•• The Green Revolution and Gene Revolution make agriculture successful and profitable but
somehow it leads to land degradation.
•• Organic farming which does not affect environment in a negative manner, is more in practice.
•• Indian farmers’ future will change when they shifted their traditional patterns to high-value
crops. This will increase incomes and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously.
EXERCISE 4.6
(i) Which of the following is/are bio-diesel crops?
(a) Jatropha (b) Jojoba (c) Cactus (d) Both (a) and (b)
(ii) In the 19th century who among the following came to India?
(a) Asian traders (b) European traders
(c) African traders (d) American traders
(iii) After 1990, under _______, the Indian farmers have been exposed to new challenges.
(a) Privatisation (b) Industrialisation
(c) Globalisation (d) Capitalisation
(iv) What are the challenges faced by the Indian farmers at present?
(a) International competition and reduction in public investment in irrigation, power
infrastructure and other inputs.
(b) Decreased subsidy on fertilizers leads to higher cost of production and reduction
in import duties on farmers’ produce.
(c) Nature of monsoon affects crops production.
(v) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) In the 19th century Indian spices were exported to different countries of the world.
(b) During the colonial period cotton was exported to Britain.
(c) Indian farmers have been exposed to new challenges after 2001.
(d) Organic farming does not affect environment negatively.
(vi) Point out the India’s rural population as per census 2011?
(a) 833 million (b) 250 million (c) 200 million (d) 900 million
(i) Assertion (A): Organic farming is much in vogue.
Reason (R): In organic farming, crops are grown using high doses to increase production.
(ii) Assertion (A): Globalisation is a latest phenomenon.
Reason (R): It was there at the time of colonisation when Europeon traders entered India.
Options:
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(d), (v)–(c), (vi)–(a)
2. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d)
Graph Based Question

Study the given graph releated to consumption of natural rubber and answer the question:

Which among the following sectors consume more natural rubber?
(a) Dipped Goods (b) Camel Back (c) Latex Foam (d) Footwears
Ans. (d)
Agriculture 53
Map Based Questions

1. On an outline map of India, identify the major areas of rice and wheat.
2. Which of the following is the largest rice producing state? Choose the correct option.
(a) Punjab (b) Rajasthan (c) Odisha (d) West Bengal
2.
Answers
1. Major areas of Rice Major areas of Wheat
2. (d)
3. On an outline map of India given below, identify the largest/major states of sugarcane,
tea and coffee and write their names with the help of symbols marked in the map.
Tropic of Cancer
REFERENCES
Sugarcane producing states
Tea producing states
Coffee producing states
Ans. Major sugarcane producing states: Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka,

Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana.
Major tea producing states: Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Kerala

Major coffee producing states: Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu.

Agriculture 55
4. (i) Five jute producing states are shown as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 on the given outline map of
India. Identify these states and write their names in the map.
(ii) On the same outline map of India, identify the largest/major producer states of rubber
and cotton and write their names with the help of symbols marked in the map.
3
2 5
Tropic of Cancer
Major Rubber Producing States

Major Cotton Producing States
Major Rubber and Cotton
Producing States
Ans. (i) Jute producing states: 1. West Bengal, 2. Bihar, 3. Assam, 4. Odisha
5. Meghalaya
(ii) Major Rubber producing states: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andaman
and Nicobar (UT)
(iii) Major Cotton producing states: Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh,
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh
On the given outline map of India (5 to 10), identify the locations with the help of specified
informations.
5. On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as a major rice producing state.
Identify it from the following options.
(a) West Bengal (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand (d) Uttarakhand
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
32°
32°
B
28° 28°
24°
24°
A
20°
20°
16°
16°
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
6. On the same map given above, ‘B’ is also marked as a major wheat producing state.
(a) Karnataka (b) Punjab (c) Telangana (d) Gujarat
7. On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as a major sugarcane producing
state. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Manipur (b) Mizorom (c) Tripura (d) Uttar Pradesh
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
32°
32°
28° 28°
A
24°
24°
20°
20°
16°
16°
B
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
8. On the same map given above, ‘B’ is marked as a major coffee producing state. Identify it
from the following options.
(a) Bihar (b) Gujarat (c) Karnataka (d) Nagaland
Agriculture 57
9. On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as a major rubber producing state.
(a) Assam (b) Kerala (c) Meghalaya (d) Punjab
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
32°
32°
28° 28°
24°
24°
20°
20°
16°
16°
12°
12°
A
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
10. On the same map given above, ‘B’ is marked as a major tea producing state. Identify it
from the following options.
(a) Assam (b) Tripura (c) Uttarakhand (d) Jharkhand
11. On the political map of India given below, ‘A’ is marked as a major cotton producing state.
(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan (c) Maharashtra (d) Punjab
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
32°
32°
28° 28°
24°
B
24°
20°
20°
16°
16°
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
12. On the same map given above, ‘B’ is marked as a jute producing state. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) West Bengal (b) Odisha (c) Meghalaya (d) Bihar
Ans. 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (d)
E:\New Working\EG_Social_Science-10_(Term_1)\Open\03_Political\03_Pol-01
Unit-3
Political Science (Democratic Politics-II)
1 Power Sharing
Topics covered
1. Belgium and Sri Lanka 2. Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka
3. Accommodation in Belgium 4. Forms of Power Sharing

1. Belgium and Sri Lanka
•• Belgium is a small country in Europe, bordered with France, Netherlands, Germany and
Luxembourg with the ethnic composition of Dutch 59%, French 40% and others.
•• In the capital city Brussels, 80% people speak French while 20% speak Dutch.
•• The minority French speaking community was rich and powerful. So, they got the benefits
of economic development and education earlier than the Dutch community.
•• The Dutch speaking community constitute majority in the country but minority in the
capital.
•• Sri Lanka is an island nation, just a few kilometres off the Southern coast of Tamil Nadu.
•• Sri Lanka has an diverse population with 74% Sinhala speakers and 18% Tamil speakers.
•• The two sub-groups of Tamil are Sri Lankan Tamils 13% and Indian Tamils 5%.
•• Most of the Sinhala-speakers are Buddhists. Most of the Tamils are Hindus or Muslims.
•• In Belgium, the Dutch community could take advantage of its numeric majority and similarly
in Sri Lanka, the Sinhala community enjoyed an even bigger majority could impose its will
on the entire country.
EXERCISE 1.1
(i) Population of Sri Lankan Tamils is concentrated in _____________ region of Sri Lanka.
(CBSE S.P. 2020-21)
(a) North and South (b) North and East
(c) East and West (d) South and East
(ii) Identify the community which was rich and powerful in Belgium.
(a) German-speaking (b) French-speaking
(c) Dutch-speaking (d) None of these
(iii) Which of the following compositions of the Belgium is very complex?
(a) Ethinic (b) Population (c) Religions (d) Sect
(iv) How many population of the Belgium lives in the Flemish region?
59
(v) Which of the following cities is the capital of the Belgium?

(a) Bruge (b) Ghent (c) Antwerp (d) Brussels
(vi) Which of the following neighbouring countries of India situated of the southern coast
of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Myanmar (c) Maldives (d) Seychelles
(vii) Most of the population of Sri Lanka follow
(a) Islam (b) Hinduism (c) Buddhism (d) Christianity
(viii) Which one of the following countries does not share its boundary with Belgium?
(a) Germany (b) Netherlands (c) Sweden (d) Luxembourg
(ix) In Belgium, the percentage of French community is
(a) 54% (b) 40% (c) 30% (d) 50%
(x) Which language is dominantly spoken in Belgium?
(a) Dutch (b) Spanish (c) France (d) English
(xi) Belgium shares its border with
(a) France (b) Germany (c) Luxembourg (d) All of these
(xii) Sri Lanka is an island nation, just a few kilometres from the Southern coast of
(a) Goa (b) Kerala (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Lakshadweep
(xiii) What is the percentage of Sinhala-speaking people in Sri Lanka?
(xiv) What is the percentage of Sri Lankan Tamils out of the total population of Sri Lanka?
Two statements are given in the questions (i) and (ii) below as Assertion (A) and
Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): Tensions took place between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking
communities during the 1950s and 1960s.
Reason (R): French-speaking community got the benefit of economic development
and good education.
(ii) Assertion (A): French-speaking community in Belgium was rich and powerful.
Reason (R): Belgian Government favoured French-speaking community.
3. Identify the country with the help of the following information.
• Leaders of this country shared equal powers with all communities.
• There is a community government to look after the issues associated with culture,
education and languages.
• The government enables every community to live together and avoid civil war.
Select the appropriate option from the following:
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Germany (c) France (d) Belgium
Answers
1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(c), (v)–(d), (vi)–(a), (vii)–(c), (viii)–(c), (ix)–(b), (x)–(a),
(xi)–(d), (xii)–(a), (xiii)–(c) ), (xiv)–(c)
2. (i)–(a), (ii)–(c)
3. (d)
2. Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka

•• Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The democratically elected
government adopted measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
•• In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language. Sinhalas were
favoured for university position and government jobs, and state will protect only Buddhism.
•• The Sri Lankan Tamils felt that the constitution and the government discriminated against
them in getting jobs and other opportunities and denied them equal political rights. So, the
relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over times.
•• The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggle for the recognition of Tamil as an
official language. They demanded opportunities in government jobs and university positions
and an independent state Tamil Eelam.
•• The gap between the two communities widened and led to the civil war.
•• Thousands of people have been killed, forced to leave the country, lost their livelihood and
terrible setback to the social, cultural and economic life of the country.
EXERCISE 1.2
(i) What are similarities between Belgium and Sri Lanka?
(a) Both are poor countries. (b) Both are non-democratic countries.
(c) Both are democratic countries. (d) None of these
(ii) Which one of the following is a major caste group of Sri Lanka? [CBSE 2020]
(a) Christian and Tamil (b) Buddhist and Hindu
(c) Sinhala and Tamil (d) Sinhala and Christian
(iii) The Sri Lankan government adopted a series of _______ measures to establish Sinhala
supremacy.
(a) Majoritarian (b) Religious
(c) Constitutional amendment (d) Community
(iv) A new Constitution of Sri Lanka stipulated that the state shall protect and foster
(a) Islam (b) Christianity
(c) Buddhism (d) Hinduism
(v) In which of the following years did Sri Lankan government recognise Sinhala as the
only official language?
(a) 1957 (b) 1956 (c) 1958 (d) 1948
(vi) Which of the following reasons lead a gap between the Sinhala and Tamil communities?
(a) No Buddhist Sinhala leader was sensitive to Tamil language and culture.
Power Sharing 61

(b) Tamils felt that the Constitution and government policies denied them political
rights.
(c) Government discriminated Tamil against in getting job and other opportunities
and ignored their interests.
(vii) By 1980s several political organisations were demanding an independent Tamil Eelan
in which parts of the Sri Lanka?
(a) Northern part (b) Eastern part
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Western part
(viii) Which one of the following launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil
as an official language?
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils (b) Sri Lankan Sinhalas
(c) Sri Lankan Christians (d) Indian Tamils
(ix) The civil war was ended in
(a) 2008 (b) 2009 (c) 2006 (d) 2007

Two statements are given in the questions (i) to (iii) below as Assertion (A) and
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): An Act was passed in 1958 to recognise Sinhala as the only official
language.
Reason (R): The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhalas.
(ii) Assertion (A): There was a feeling of alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils.
Reason (R): The Sri Lankan government denied them equal political rights and
discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities.
(iii) Assertion (A): Sinhala was recognized as only offical language of Sri Lanka.
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish the supremacy of
Sinhala community.
3. Identify the country with the help of the following information.
• In 1948 this country emerged as an independent country.
• Here the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala-
speaking majority.
• Due to this, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over
time.
(a) India (b) Belgium (c) Sri Lanka (d) Pakistan

appropriate option.
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala
community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority.
As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of Majoritarian
measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus
disregarding Tamil. The governments followed preferential policies that favoured
Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. A new constitution
stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
4.1. A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country is called as–
(a) Communitarianism (b) People’s Rule
(c) Majoritarianism (d) Democracy
4.2. Sri Lanka was emerged as an independent country in
(a) 1974 (b) 1947
(c) 1998 (d) 1948
4.3. What is the official language of Sri Lanka?
(a) Hindi (b) Parsi
(c) Sinhala (d) Buddhism
4.4. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language,
disregarding __________.
(a) Telugu (b) Kannada
(c) Tamil (d) English
4.5. A new Constitution of Sri Lanka stipulated that the state shall protect and foster
which of the following religions?
(a) Hinduism (b) Buddhism (c) Jainism (d) Islam
I. The measures of the Act 1956 introduced by Sinhalese government made Tamils
in Sri Lanka feel alienated.
II. Sri Lanka Tamils felt that the only important political parties led by the Buddhist
Sinhalese were sensitive to their language and culture.
III. They also felt that the Constitution and policies of the government denied them
equal political rights and ignore their interest.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) I only (d) II only
appropriate option.
All these government measures, coming one after the other, gradually increased the
feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major
political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and
culture. They felt that the constitution and between the Sinhala and Tamil communities
strained over time.
Power Sharing 63

The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil
as an official language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing
education and jobs. But their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the
Tamils was repeatedly denied. By 1980s several political organisations were formed
demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and eastern parts of Sri
Lanka. The distrust between the two communities turned into widespread conflict. It
soon turned into a CIVIL WAR. As a result thousands of people of both the communities
have been killed. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many
more lost their livelihoods.
5.1. Power struggle demanding separate Eelam was launched by
(a) Sinhalas (b) Buddhists (c) Tamilians (d) None of these
5.2. All these government measures, coming one after the other, gradually increased the
feeling of alienation among the _______ Tamils.
(a) Sri Lankan (b) Indian
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Buddhist
5.3. Name the most vibrant minority group in Sri Lanka?
(a) Christians (b) Tamils (c) Buddhists (d) Sinhalas
5.4. What is the percentage of people in Sri Lanka who speak Sinhala?
(a) 74 (b) 60 (c) 50 (d) 90
5.5. A war-like conflict between two opposite group in a country is called–
(a) Cold war (b) Civil war (c) Ethnic war (d) The World War
5.6. Why did Tamilians during 1980s form various political organisations?
(a) Because their demand for seperate state was denied.
(b) Because their demand for seperate election to provinces populated by the Tamils
was denied.
(c) Because their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils
was repeatedly denied.
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(c), (v)–(b), (vi)–(d), (vii)–(c), (viii)–(a), (ix)–(b)
2. (i)–(d), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(a) 3. (c)
4. 4.1 (c) 4.2 (d) 4.3 (c) 4.4 (c) 4.5 (b) 4.6 (d)
5. 5.1 (c) 5.2 (a) 5.3 (b) 5.4 (a) 5.5 (b) 5.6 (c)
3. Accommodation in Belgium
•• The Belgium government amended its Constitution four times between 1970 and 1993, that
would enable everyone to live together within the same country.
•• The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French ministers shall be equal
in the Central government.
•• Many powers of the Central Government have been given to state government of the two
regions. Brussels has a separate government with equal representation.
•• A system of community government, which has the power regarding cultural, educational
and language related issues.
•• In Belgium the leaders have realised that unity of the country is possible by respecting
the feelings and interests of different communities, but Sri Lanka shows that if a majority
community wants to force its dominance over others and refuses to share power, it can
disturb the unity of the country and lead to a civil war.
•• The power sharing is desirable because of prudential and moral reasons. While prudential
reasons stress that power sharing will bring out better outcomes and moral reasons emphasis
the very act of power sharing as valuable.
Exercise 1.3
(i) There is a third kind of government apart from the central and the state government
in Belgium. What is this government known as?
(a) Regional government (b) Provincial government
(c) Community government (d) Local government
(ii) Which type of powers does the Community Government to Belgum enjoy?
(a) The government has the power regarding culture related issue
(b) The government has the power regarding education related issue
(c) The government has the power regarding language related issue
(iii) Belgium has worked on the principles of
(a) Majoritarianism (b) Accommodation
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(iv) Identify the correct statement/s about the Power sharing.
I. Power sharing helps the people of different communities to celebrated their festivals.
II. It imposes the will of the majority community over others.
III. It reduces the conflict between social groups.
IV. It ensures the stability of political order.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) III only (d) I only
(v) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
(a) Power sharing increases the possibility of conflict between social groups.
(b) Power sharing is desirable and reduces possibilities of conflict within the country.
(c) The feeling of accommodation has led to the problem in Sri Lanka.
(vi) Both ______ and French-speaking people share power on an equal basis at central
government in Belgium.
(a) Dutch (b) German (c) Latin (d) English
(vii) In Belgium, lastly the power is shared between central, state and __________ .
(a) Lower government (b) Local-self government
(c) Provincial government (d) Community government
(viii) The community government in Belgium is elected by:
(a) People belonging to one language community
(b) All the citizens
(c) All the community (d) All the leaders
2. Arrange the correct sequence of Column I against the Column II.
Column I Column II
I. Brussels has a separate government 1. accepted equal representation in
in which Brussels
II. Belgian leaders between 1970-1993 2. In a legitimate government
III. French-speaking people 3. Dutch and French speaking people
have equal representation
IV. Citizens aquire a stake in the system 4. Amended their constitution four times
through participation
Power Sharing 65


(a) IV-2, I-3, III-1, II-4 (b) I-4, III-2, IV-1, II-3
(c) III-2, II-4, I-3, IV-1 (d) II-1, IV-3, I-2, III-4
Two statements are given in the questions (i) to (vi) below as Assertion (A) and
Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option:
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): Power sharing is good.
Reason (R): Power sharing helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between
different social groups.
(ii) Assertion (A): Tyranny of majority is not highly desirable.
Reason (R): It helps in making the political order more stable.
(iii) Assertion (A): In Belgium, the leaders realized that the unity of the country is
possible by respecting the feelings and interest of different countries.
Reason (R): Belgium did not favoured Dutch speaking community.
(iv) Assertion (A): Power sharing is good.
Reason (R): It leads to ethical tension.
(v) Assertion (A): Belgium and Sri Lanka both faced ethical tension among different
communities.
Reason (R): Both the countries resolved the conflict by power sharing arrangement
which gave equal representation to all the communities.
(vi) Assertion (A): Community government in Belgium is elected by one language
community.
Reason (R): Community government helped in resolving conflict between different
linguistic groups.
appropriate option.
Thus, two different sets of reasons can be given in favour of power sharing. Firstly,
power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between
social groups. Since social conflict often leads to violence and political instability, power
sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order. Imposing the will of
majority community over others may look like an attractive option in the short run,
but in the long run it undermines the unity of the nation. Tyranny of the majority
is not just oppressive for the minority; it often brings ruin to the majority as well.
There is a second, deeper reason why power sharing is good for democracies. Power
sharing is the very spirit of democracy. A democratic rule involves sharing power with
those affected by its exercise, and who have to live with its effects. People have a right
to be consulted on how they are to be governed. A legitimate government is one where
citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system. Let us call the first set
of reasons PRUDENTIAL and the second moral. While prudential reasons stress that
power sharing will bring out better outcomes, moral reasons emphasise the very act
of power sharing as valuable.
4.1. Power sharing is desirable in democracy because of:

(a) Prudential reasons (b) Moral reasons
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Political reasons
4.2. A _________ rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise and who
have to lie with its effect.
(a) Demoractic (b) Dictatorial (c) Majoritarian (d) Monarchical
4.3. Which of the following countries faced ethical tension among different communities?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Belgium (c) India (d) Only (a) and (b)
4.4. Which of the following options is the very spirit of democracy?
(a) Political parties (b) Local-self government
(c) Power sharing (d) Community government
4.5. What is the basic principle of democracy?
(a) Power of a government resides in a single person.
(b) People are the source of all political power.
(c) To reduce religious conflict between social groups
(d) To reduce social conflict between different groups
4.6. The prudent reason for power sharing is
(a) It takes time in decision-making process.
(b) Vertical division of power.
(c) It reduces the possibilities of conflict between communities and ensures the
stability of political order.
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(c), (v)–(b), (vi)–(a), (vii)–(d), (viii)–(a)
2. (a)
3. (i)–(a), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c), (v)–(c), (vi)–(a)
4. 4.1. (c) 4.2. (a) 4.3. (d) 4.4. (c) 4.5 (b) 4.6 (c)
4. Forms of Power Sharing

•• The basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power. Due
respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society. Everyone has a voice in
the shaping of public policies.
•• In modern democracy power is shared among different organs of the government, such as
the legislature, executive and judiciary placed at the same level to exercise different powers
called horizontal distribution of powers.
•• In vertical division of powers, involving higher and lower levels of government, also called
federal division of power between central and the state governments.
•• Power is also shared among different social groups, such as linguistic groups, religious
groups socially weaker sections and women.
•• Power is shared among different political parties and pressure groups, because different
political parties represent different ideologies and social groups.
Power Sharing 67

EXERCISE 1.4
(i) Which is not one of the forms of power sharing?
(a) Horizontal division of power (b) Vertical division of power
(c) Division of power among social group (d) Division of power between people
(ii) Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option
based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement. [Delhi 2020]
(a) Central government, state government, local bodies
(b) Legislature, Executive, Judiciary
(c) Among different social groups
(d) Among different pressure groups
(iii) Power shared among governments at different levels is also called
(a) Horizontal distribution (b) Vertical distribution
(c) Slant distribution (d) None of these
(iv) Intelligent sharing of power is done among
(a) Legislature and Central Government (b) Executive and Judiciary
(c) Legislature and Executive (d) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
(v) Division of power between higher and lower level of government is known as
(a) Vertical division of power (b) Horizontal distributions of power
(c) Union devision of power (d) Community division of power
(vi) Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of
(a) Population (b) Political order
(vii) When power is shared among different organs of the government it is called as
(a) Horizontal distribution of power (b) Community distribution of power
(c) Coalition of power (d) Federal distribution of power
(viii) Which of the following is not the benefit of power sharing?
(a) It upholds the spirit of democracy.
(b) Political parties get their expected share.
(c) It ensures political stability in the long-run.
(d) It reduces the possibility of conflicts between social groups.
Two statements are given in the questions (i) to (iv) below as Assertion (A) and
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(i) Assertion (A): Horizontal distribution of power is necessary.
Reason (R): It allows different organs of government placed at the same level to
exercise different powers.
(ii) Assertion (A): Power should reside with one person and group located at one place in
a democracy.
Reason (R): If the power is dispersed, it will be possible to take decision quickly and
enforce it.
(iii) Assertion (A): In a democracy, everyone has voice in the shaping of public policies.
Reason (R): India has federal system.
(iv) Assertion (A): Power may also be shared among different social groups.
Reason (R): This type of arrangement gives space in government and administration
to diverse social groups who otherwise would feel alienated from the government.
3. Identify the system of power sharing with the help of the following information:
• It means power is shared among governments at different levels such as Union
Government and the State Government.
• The division of the power involves higher and lower levels of government at entire
country level and the state level.
• The Constitution lays down the powers of different levels of government.
(a) Horizontal power sharing (b) Vertical power sharing
(c) Community power sharing (d) None of these
appropriate option.
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive
and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different
organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a
separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ
checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions. We
know that in a democracy, even though ministers and government officials exercise
power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although
judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive
or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and
balances.
4.1. The above extract related to which of the following options–

(a) Horizontal power sharing (b) Vertical power sharing
(c) Regional power sharing (d) Local self-government
4.2. Which among the following options is correct regarding horizontal power sharing?
(a) When power is shared among government at different levels.
(b) When power is shared among different organs of the government.
(c) The division of the power involves higher and lower levels of government.
4.3. Horizontal power sharing is called as _______ because it allows different organs of
government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
(a) vertical distribution of power (b) traditional distribution of power
(c) horizontal distribution of power (d) regional distribution of power
Power Sharing 69

4.4. Which among the following is called a system of checks and balances?
(a) The judges are appointed by the executive and further judges can check the
functioning of executive or laws made by the legislature.
(b) The President of India appoints the Prime Minister and further the Prime Minister
checks the powers of the President.
(c) The Supreme Court Judges check the powers of the High Court Judges.
4.5. Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option
based on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Among different pressuge groups
(b) Among different social groups
(c) Central, state and local governments
(d) Legislative, Executive, Judiciary
4.6. Which of the following is not a form of power sharing?
(a) Division of power among social groups
(b) Division of power between people
(c) Horizontal distribution of power
(d) Vertical division of power
appropriate option.
The idea of power sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided political
power. For a long time it was believed that all power of a government must reside in one
person or group of persons located at one place. It was felt that if the power to decide
is dispersed, it would not be possible to take quick decisions and to enforce them. But
these notions have changed with the emergence of democracy. One basic principle of
democracy is that people are the source of all political power. In a democracy, people rule
themselves through institutions of self-government. In a good democratic government,
due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society.
5.1. In how many tiers is power shared in India?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
5.2. What is Power sharing?
(a) It is the system of checks and balances.
(b) It is the separation of power at different levels.
(c) It is a kind of balancing powers.
(d) It is the spirit of democracy.
5.3. Power sharing is good as it
(a) ensures the instability of political order.
(b) reduces the possibility of conflicts between different groups.
(c) increase the possibilities of conflicts between social groups.
(d) increases the possibilities of violence around.
5.4. Power is shared among different political parties that consider _____________ .
(a) different ideologies and social groups (b) regional autonomy
(c) different candidates (d) instability of political order
5.5. Power sharing is essential for democracy because–

(a) it helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between different organs of the
government
(b) it help to reduce the possibility of conflicts between different social groups
(c) it fulfils the demands of different social groups
5.6. Which of the following is an appropriate in a good democratic government?
(a) Power is shared among central government and state governments.
(b) Power to take quick decisions and to enforce them.
(c) All power resides in a single person.
(d) Everyone has an equal right in shaping of public policies.
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(d), (v)–(a), (vi)–(b), (vii)–(a), (viii)–(b)
2. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(a)
3. (b)
4. 4.1 (a) 4.2 (b) 4.3 (c) 4.4 (a) 4.5 (d) 4.6 (b)
5. 5.1 (c) 5.2 (d) 5.3 (b) 5.4 (a) 5.5 (b) 5.6 (d)
Picture Based Question

Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon?
(a) Relationship between democracy and concentration of power

(b) Visit of US President of Russia
(c) Both the Head of the State drive democracy by their own
(d) Making rules to facilitate democracy
Ans. (a)
Power Sharing 71

2 Federalism
Topics covered
1. What is Federalism? 2. What Makes India a Federal Country?
3. How is Federalism Practiced? 4. Decentralisation in India

1. What is Federalism?
• From the previous chapter, would recall the contrast between Belgium and Sri Lanka
where, one of the key changes made by Belgium government that reduced the power of
the Central government and gave their powers to the regional government in 1993. Thus
Belgium shifted from a unitary to a federal form of government.
• Sri Lanka continues to be unitary system where the national government has all the powers
but Tamil leaders want Sri Lanka to become a federal system.
• Both Sri Lanka and Belgium are examples of federalism where a large country divide its
power between the national government and the constituent states.
• Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central
authority and various constituent units of the country.
• Government for the entire country is responsible for the subjects of national interest.
• Government at the level of provinces or state that look after day to day administration of
their states.
• In unitary system only one level of the government or sub-units are subordinate to the
central government whereas in federal system state government has powerfits own.
• Key features of federalism:
(a) Two or more levels of the government,
(b) Each tier of the government has its own jurisdictions.
• The jurisdictions of each tier is specified in the Constitution.
• Courts have the powers to interpret the Constitution and the power of different levels of
government.
• The sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its
financial autonomy.
• The federal system has dual objectives:
(a) To safeguard and promote unity of the country.
(b) To accommodate regional diversity.
• An ideal federal system has both aspects
(a) Mutual trust (b) agreement to live together
• There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.
72
(a) Coming together federations e.g., in USA, Switzerland and Australia.

(b) Holding together federations e.g., in India, Spain and Belgium.
EXERCISE 2.1
(i) Which group of countries follow the unitary system?
(a) France, Germany and India
(b) United Arab Emirates, China and Sri Lanka
(c) The United States, Japan and Spain
(d) Belgium, India and Spain
(ii) In which forms of government, there is only one level of government or sub-units are
subordinate to the central government?
(a) Unitary form of government (b) Federal form of government
(c) Monarchical form of government (d) Democratic form of government
(iii) The area over which someone has legal authority is called
(a) Sovereignty (b) Jurisdiction (c) Accession (d) Delimitation
(iv) Which of the organs acts as an umpire if dispute arises between different levels of
governments in India?
(a) Supreme Court (b) High Courts
(c) Attorney-General of India (d) Solicitor General of India
(v) Which of the following aspects is necessary for an ideal federal system?
(a) Mutual trust (b) Agreement to live together
(vi) In federalism, power is divided between various constituent units and
(a) Central authority (b) States
(vii) In federal system, central government cannot order the
(a) Community government (b) Local government
(c) State government (d) None of these
(viii) State government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to the:
(a) Central government (b) Judiciary
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Prime Minister
(ix) Which country is an example of coming together federation?
(a) USA (b) Belgium (c) Sri Lanka (d) India
(x) Power to interpret the constitution is with the
(a) Executive (b) Judiciary (c) State government (d) Legislature
Options:
(d) R is true but A is false.
Federalism 73
(i) Assertion (A): Belgium and Spain has ‘holding together’ federation.
Reason (R): A big country divides power between constituent states and national
government.
(ii) Assertion (A): In a federal system, the central government orders the state
government to do something.
Reason (R): State government has powers of its own for which it is not answerable to
the central government.
(iii) Assertion (A): The exact balance of power between the central and the state
government varies from one federation to another.
Reason (R): This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which the
federation was formed.
(iv) Assertion (A): Australia and Spain has ‘coming together’ federation.
Reason (R): Independent states coming together on their own to form a bigger unit,
so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.
appropriate option.
Regional governments existed in Belgium even earlier. They had their roles and
powers. But all these powers were given to these governments and could be withdrawn
by the Central Government. The change that took place in 1993 was that the regional
governments were given constitutional powers that were no longer dependent on
the central government. Thus, Belgium shifted from a unitary to a federal form of
government. Sri Lanka continues to be, for all practical purposes, a unitary system
where the national government has all the powers. Tamil leaders want Sri Lanka to
become a federal system.
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central
authority and various constituent units of the country. Usually, a federation has two
levels of government. One is the government for the entire country that is usually
responsible for a few subjects of common national interest. The others are governments
at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering
of their state. Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the
other. In this sense, federations are contrasted with unitary governments. Under
the unitary system, either there is only one level of government or the sub-units are
subordinate to the central government. The central government can pass on orders to
the provincial or the local government. But in a federal system, the central government
cannot order the state government to do something. State government has powers of its
own for which it is not answerable to the central government. Both these governments
are separately answerable to the people.
3.1. A system of government in which power is divided between a central authority and
various constituent unit of the country is called
(a) Federalism (b) Unitary (c) Socialism (d) Democracy
3.2. In a federation there is the government for the _______ that is usually responsible for
a few subjects of common national interest.
(a) Provinces (b) Entire country (c) States (d) Legislatures
3.3. Which one of the following countries continues to be a unitary system where the
national government has all the power?
(a) USA (b) Australia (c) Sri Lanka (d) Belgium
3.4. In which of the following years the regional governments were given constitutional
powers in Belgium?
(a) 1991 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1993
3.5. Belgium shifted from a unitary form of government to
(a) Democratic government (b) Federal government
(c) Authoritarian (d) None of these
3.6. Which of the following is not a feature of federalism?
(a) Written Constitution
(b) Central government has all powers
(c) Two or more level of government
(d) Division of powers between the central government and governments of units
(centre and state)
Answers
1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(a), (v)–(c), (vi)–(c), (vii)–(c), (viii)–(a), (ix)–(a), (x)–(b)
2. (i)–(a), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(d)
3. 3.1 (a) 3.2 (b) 3.3 (c) 3.4 (d) 3.5 (b) 3.6 (b)
2. What Makes India a Federal Country?

• Soon after independence, the Constitution of India declared India as a Union of States
which is based on the principles of federalism.
• The Constitution of India originally provided for a two-tier system of government, that
is, Union Government or Central government and State government. Later a third-tier
government was added in the form of Panchayats and Municipalities. All these tiers enjoy
separate powers.
• The Constitution of India provides a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between
the union government and the state governments under three lists.
(i) Union list includes subjects of national importance, because government needs a uniform
policy on these matters throughout the country, like defence, banking, currency, etc.
(ii) State list includes subjects of state level importance, e.g. police, trade, agriculture, etc.
(iii) Concurrent list includes the subjects of common interest to both the union government
and the state governments like education, marriage, forests.
(iv) The subjects which do not fall in any of the three lists are included in Residuary lists,
like-computer software, hardware, etc.
• The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Bill was presented in the Rajya Sabha on
5 August 2019 for the abolition of Article 370 and Article 35-A from Kashmir, which was
passed by a majority. The bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 6 August 2019. After the
President’s assent on 9 August 2019, both the Articles 370 and 35A were repealed and
Jammu and Kashmir got divided into two Union Territories i.e, Ladakh and Jammu and
Kashmir.
• Some territories do not have the power of a state. The central government has special powers
in running these areas called union territories.
• It is not easy to make changes in the power sharing between the union and the state
governments. Any change has to be first passed by both the houses of the Parliament with
at least two-thirds majority, then it has to ratified by atleast half of the total states.
• The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional
provisions and procedures.
Federalism 75
EXERCISE 2.2
(i) Residuary subjects include subjects which among the following?
(a) of national importance
(b) of state level importance
(c) which do not fall in any of union, state and current lists
(d) of common interest of both the central and the state governments
(ii) Who is the guardian of the Constitution of India?
(a) The High Court (b) The Supreme Court
(c) The President (d) The Prime Minister
(iii) Which of the following subjects is not included in the union list?
(a) Deference of the country (b) Agriculture and irrigation
(c) Communication and currency (d) Foreign affairs
(iv) In which of the following lists both union and state governments can make laws?
(a) Residuary Subject (b) State List
(c) Union List (d) Concurrent List
(v) Transfer of property other than agricultural land comes under _______ List.
(a) Union (b) State
(c) Concurrent (d) Residuary
(vi) Holding together country decides to divides its power between the _______ and the
national government.
(a) Constituent states (b) Central government
(c) Linguistic (d) Judiciary
(vii) Which of the following Indian states enjoys special power under certain provisions of
Article 371 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Assam (b) Nagaland
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) All of these
(viii) The territories or areas which are too small to become an independent state and also
could not be merged with any of the existing states is called:
(a) Union Territory (b) State Territory
(c) Executive Area (d) Schedule Area
(ix) Who has special power in administering the union territories in India?
(a) The President of India (b) The Governor
(c) The Central Government (d) The Chief Minister
(x) Through which of the following arrangement the basic structure of the Constitution
can be amend?
(a) Passed the amendment bill by both the houses of the Parliament with at least
two-thirds majority.
(b) The bill has to ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total states.

Two statements are given in the questions (i) to (iii) below as Assertion (A) and
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): It is very difficult to make the changes in the basic structure of the
constitution.
Reason (R): Both the houses have power to amend the constitution independently.
(ii) Assertion (A): India is a federation.
Reason (R): Power resides with the central authority.
(iii) Assertion (A): The subjects which are not included in Union List, State List and
Concurrent List are considered as residuary subjects.
Reason (R): The subjects included that came after constitution was made and thus
could not be classified.
3. Identify the list mentioned in the Indian Constitution with the help of the
following information.
• The central government makes decisions on matters such as defence, foreign affairs,
banking, etc.
• The aim of these matters is to ensure uniformity in the policy of these areas
throughout the country.
• It includes all subjects of national importance.
(a) Government List (b) State List (c) Concurrent List (d) Union List
appropriate option.
The Constitution of India originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the
Union Government or what we call the Central Government, representing the Union of
India and the State governments. Later a third tier of federalism was added in the form
of Panchayats and Municipalities. As in any federation, these difference tiers enjoy
separate jurisdiction. The Constitution clearly provided a three-fold distribution of
legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments. Thus,
it contains three lists.
4.1. To make India a strong federation, we need:
(a) Written constitution (b) Rigid constitution
(c) Independent judiciary (d) All of these
4.2. Usually a federation has how many levels of government?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Six
4.3. The Constitution of India originally provided for which system of government?
(a) Two-tier system (b) One-tier system
(c) Three-tier system (d) Four-tier system
Federalism 77
4.4. What is the first-tier of government in India called?

(a) District Government (b) Provincial Government
(c) Central Government (d) Community Government
4.5. Municipalities are set up in _____________ .
(a) houses (b) towns
(c) villages (d) metropolitan cities
4.6. What did the Indian Constitution provide?
(a) Three-fold distribution of legislative powers
(b) Two-fold distribution of legislative powers
(c) Four-fold distribution of legislative powers
appropriate option.
Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the country
foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are included in this list
because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country. The Union
Government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union List.
State List contains subjects of State and local importance such as police, trade,
commerce, agriculture and irrigation. The State Governments alone can make laws
relating to the subjects mentioned in the State List.
Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union Government
as well as the State Governments, such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage,
adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make
laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws conflict with each other, the law
made by the Union Government will prevail.
5.1. Both the Union and State Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in
the
(a) Union List (b) State List
(c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary power
5.2. Which of the following is not included in the State List?
(a) Law and order (b) National defence
(c) Trade and commerce (d) Agriculture and irrigation
5.3. Marriage, adoption, succession come under
(a) Concurrent List (b) State List (c) Union List (d) None of these
5.4. Which of the following is a subject of the Union List?
(a) Education (b) Foreign affairs
(c) Trade unions (d) Law and order
5.5. Which of the following governments has the power to legislate on Residuary subjects?
(a) State Government (b) Union Government
(c) Local Government (d) Community Government
5.6. What do you mean by Residuary subjects?
(a) Subjects under State list
(b) Subject under Union list
(c) Subjects under both Union and State list
(d) Subjects which are not under any list
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(d), (v)–(c), (vi)–(a), (vii)–(d), (viii)–(a), (ix)–(c), (x)–(c)
2. (i)–(c), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(a)
3. (d)
4. 4.1 (d) 4.2 (c) 4.3 (a) 4.4 (c) 4.5 (b) 4.6 (a)
5. 5.1 (c) 5.2 (b) 5.3 (a) 5.4 (b) 5.5 (b) 5.6 (d)
3. How is Federalism Practiced?

• Constitutional provisions are necessary for the success of federalism but the real success of
federalism in India can be attributed to the natural of democratic politics. This ensured that
the spirit of federalism, respect for diversity and desire for living together became shared
ideals in our country.
• Some of the ways that strengthened the federalism are:
(i) Linguistic states policy (ii) Language policy
(iii) Centre-state relations (iv) Coalition government
• In 1947, the boundaries of several old states of India were changed in order to create new
states, to ensure that people who spoke the same language lived in the same states. Some
states were created on the basis of culture and geography, e.g. Nagaland, Jharkhand and
Uttarakhand.
• Hindi and 21 other languages are identified as the official language and recognised as
Scheduled languages by the Constitution. The use of English along with Hindi for official
purposes continued.
• For a long time the same party ruled both at the centre and in most of the states, where
state government did not exercise their rights as autonomous federal units. In those days
central government often misuse their powers, which undermine the spirit of federalism.
• In 1990 the rise of regional political parties in many states responsible for the beginning of
the era of coalition governments at the centre. This led to a new culture of power sharing
and respect for the automny of the state governments.
• This trend was supported by Supreme Court therefore it made difficult for the central
government to dismiss state government in an arbitrary manner. Thus, federal power
sharing is more effective today than it was in the early years after the Constitution of India
came into force.
EXERCISE 2.3
(i) Besides _________ there are 21 other languages recognised by the Constitution of
India.
(a) English (b) Punjabi (c) Hindi (d) Konkani
(ii) The first and major test for democratic politics in our country was
(a) Caste problem (b) Language problem
(c) Problems related to union territories (d) Creation of linguistic state
(iii) Indian official language is
(a) Hindi (b) English (c) Urdu (d) None of these
Federalism 79
(iv) How any languages are included in the Eight Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 15 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 21
(v) Which language has status of the national language in India?
(a) Tamil (b) Hindi (c) English (d) None of these
(vi) The state which violently demanded that the use of English for official purpose should
be continued, is
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh
(vii) Which of the following states created to recognise differences based on culture,
ethnicity or geography?
(a) Nagaland (b) Jharkhand (c) Uttarakhand (d) All of these
(viii) Which of the following years was the beginning of the era of coalition governments at
the centre?
(a) 1990s (b) 1980s (c) 2000s (d) 2014s
Column I Column II
I. Official language of India 1. 1990
II. Scheduled languages of India 2. 1947
III. The boundaries of Indian states were changed 3. Hindi
IV. The rise of regional political parties in many states 4. 22
(a) I-2, III-4, IV-3, II-1 (b) III-2, I-4, II-1, IV-3
(c) II-4, IV-1, I-3, III-2 (d) IV-2, III-1, I-4, II-3
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): Hindi is identified as the only official language of India.
Reason (R): It helped in creating supremacy of Hindi speaking people over others.
(ii) Assertion (A): Coalition government is formed during dearth of coal in the country.
Reason (R): This led to a new culture of power sharing and respect for the autonomy
of state government.
(iii) Assertion (A): In 1947, the boundaries of several old stats of India were changed in
order to create new states.
Reason (R): This was done to ensure that people who spoke the same language lived
in the same state.
(iv) Assertion (A): Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the government
of India.
Reason (R): The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid
the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
4. Identify the states of India with the help of the following information.
• The boundaries of several old states of India were changed in order to create new
states in 1947.
• This was done to ensure that people who spoke the same language lived in the same
state.
• Some states were created not on the basis of language but to recognise differences
based on culture, ethnicity or geography.
(a) Uttarakhand, Gujarat and Rajasthan (b) Odisha and West Bengal
(c) Nagaland, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand (d) Punjab and Maharashtra
5. Identify the one of the scheduled languages of India with the help of the
• This language is the mother tongue of about 40 per cent of Indians.
• It was identified as the official language.
• It is also spoken with regional accents like Rajasthani and Haryanvi.
(a) Sanskrit (b) Hindi (c) Konkani (d) English
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(b), (v)–(d), (vi)–(c), (vii)–(d), (viii)–(a)
2. (c) 3. (i)–(c), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(b)
4. (c) 5. (b)
4. Decentralisation in India
• Federal government have two or more tiers of governments. But a vast country like India
cannot be run only through two-tiers. So there was a need of another tier of government.
• In terms of population, Uttar Pradesh is bigger than Russia, Maharashtra is as big as
Germany. Many of these states are internally very diverse so there is a need for power
sharing within these states.
• Federal power sharing in India needs another tier of government, below that of the state
governments. This is the rationale for decentralisation of power. This resulted a third-tier
government called local government.
• So, when power is taken away from central and state government and given to local
government it is called decentralisation.
• There are large problems and issues which are best settled at local levels, because people
have better ideas where to spend and how to spend efficiently.
• In the beginning, panchayat in villages and municipalities in urban areas were set up in all
the states but elections to these local bodies were not held regularly and they did not have
any power or resources of their own.
• The Constitution was amended in 1992 to make third-tier of the government more powerful
and effective.
• The rural local self-government known as Panchayati Raj came into existence, which have
three tiers—
(a) Each village or a group of villages has a Gram Panchayat, consisting of Panch and
Sarpanch.
Federalism 81
(b) A few Gram Panchayats are grouped together to form a Block Samiti, Panchayat
Samiti or Mandal.
(c) All the Panchayat samities in a district together formed a Zila Parishad.
• Similarly, local government bodies exist for urban areas as well. The bodies of small towns,
called Municipality, headed by Municipal Chairperson and in big towns called Municipal
Corporation, headed by Mayor.
EXERCISE 2.4
(i) What was the main objective of the Constitutional amendment made in 1992 in India?
(a) To make the first-tier of the democracy more powerful and effective
(b) To make the second-tier of the democracy more powerful and effective
(c) To make the third-tier of the democracy more powerful and effective
(ii) The Mayor is the head of
(a) Panchayat (b) Municipality
(c) Zila Parishad (d) Municipal Corporation
(iii) The number of seats reserved for women in Panchayati Raj bodies is ________ part of
the total seats.
(a) one-third (b) two-third (c) half (d) one-fourth
(iv) Major step towards decentralisation in India was taken up in:
(a) 1992 (b) 1993 (c) 1991 (d) 1990
(v) Who is the head of urban local government?
(a) Sarpanch (b) Ward commissioner
(c) Mukhiya (d) Mayor
(vi) The Municipal Corporation Officers are called
(a) Mayors (b) MLAs (c) Sarpanchs (d) None of these
(vii) Federal power sharing in India needs another tier of government i.e. third-tier of
government called _______ government.
(a) Lower (b) Local (c) Self (d) Regional
(viii) An independent institution called the _________ has been created in each state to
conduct Panchayat and Municipal elections.
(a) State Election Commission (b) Local Election Commission
(c) Regional Election Commission (d) Decentralise Election Commission
(ix) Which of the following is/are the member(s) of Zila Parishad?
(a) Member of the Lock Sabha of that district
(b) Member of Legislative Assembly of that district.
(c) Member of all Panchayat Samitis or mandals in an district
Two statements are given in the questions (i) to (v) below as Assertion (A) and
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): When power is taken away from central and state governments and
given to local government, it is called decentralisation.
Reason (R): The basic idea behind decentralisation is that there are a large number
of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.
(ii) Assertion (A): When the power is taken from the local and state government and
given to central government, it is called decentralisation.
Reason (R): Decentralisation helps to build effective communication.
(iiii) Assertion (A): Zila Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad.
Reason (R): Mayor is the head of municipalities.
(iv) Assertion (A): A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992 by amending
the constitution.
Reason (R): Mayor is the head of municipalities.
(v) Assertion (A): Third-tier of government is local government.
Reason (R): It made democracy weak.
3. Identify the political ideology of the Indian Constitution with the help of the
• Power is taken away from central and state governments and given to local
government.
• The main idea behind it is that there are many people and their different issues
which are well settled at the local level.
• Its need was highlighted in the Indian Constitution.
(a) Privatisation (b) Nationalisation (c) Decentralisation (d) Industrialisation
appropriate option.
When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local
government, it is called decentralisation. The basic idea behind decentralisation is that
there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.
People have better knowledge of problems in their localities. They also have better
ideas on where to spend money and how to manage things more efficiently. Besides,
at the local level it is possible for the people to directly participate in decision making.
This helps to inculcate a habit of democratic participation. Local government is the
best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government.
The need for decentralisation was recognised in our Constitution. Since then, there
have been several attempts to decentralise power to the level of villages and towns.
Panchayats in villages and municipalities in urban areas were set up in all the States.
But these were directly under the control of state governments. Elections to these local
governments were not held regularly. Local governments did not have any powers or
resources of their own. Thus, there was very little decentralisation in effective terms.
Federalism 83
4.1. Which of the following is/the basic idea behind the decentralisation?
(a) There are a large number of problems and issue are best settled at the local level.
(b) People have better knowledge of problems in their localities.
(c) People have better ideas on where to spend money and how to manage things
more efficiently.
4.2. In India, an important step towards decentralisation was taken in
(a) 1990 (b) 1992 (c) 1991 (d) 2000
4.3. Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of ______ namely
local self-government.
(a) republic (b) Monarchy (c) Democracy (d) Dictatorship
4.4. Municipalities were set up in
(a) Urban areas (b) Rural areas
(c) Notified areas (d) Industrial towns
4.5. Third-tier government in India is known as
(a) Community government (b) Local self-government
(c) Democratic government (d) Institutional government
4.6. Which of the following options helps local self-government to deepen democracy in
India?
(a) The members of the local-self government
(b) Constitutional status for local-self government
(c) Parliamentary bills for the local-self government
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(a), (v)–(d), (vi)–(a), (vii)–(b), (viii)–(a), (ix)–(d)
2. (i)–(b), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(a), (v)–(c)
3. (c)
4. 4.1 (d) 4.2 (b) 4.3 (c) 4.4 (a) 4.5 (b) 4.6 (b)

Which of the following options best signifies this
cartoon?
(a) The ruling party and the opposition party
forms the coalition government.
(b) In the coalition government the leader decides
every rule.
(c) Coalition government is a new form of
government in India.
(d) The leader of the coalition keep the partners of
the government satisfied.
Ans. (b)
E:\New Working\EG_Social_Science-10_(Term_1)\Open\04_Economics\04_Eco-01
Unit-4
Economics (Understanding Economic Development-II)
1 Development
Topics covered
1. What Development Promises – Different People, Different Goals
2. Income and Other Goals and National Development and How to Compare Different Countries or States?
3. Income and Other Criteria, and Public Facilities and Sustainability of Development

1. What Development Promises – Different People, Different Goals
• Any positive change in a person’s life or society or country can be termed as development.
• Different people have different developmental goals. They seek things that are most
important for them, i.e. which can fulfil their aspirations or desires.
• Different persons have different notion of development or progress.
• Developmental goals of a person/group may be destructive and conflicting for others.
EXERCISE 1.1
(i) An adivasi from Narmada Valley has which of the following development goals?
(a) No social discrimination (b) School education for children
(c) PDS ration shop in village (d) All of these
(ii) Which one of the following goals is an aspiration for urban unemployed youth?
(a) More opportunity for higher education (b) A permanent white collar job.
(c) Having a self owned home to live in. (d) All of these
(iii) Which category of persons has as much freedom as her brother and is able to decide
what she wants to do in life?
(a) A girl from a rich urban family (b) A girl earns for her family
(c) A rural woman from a land owing family
(d) None of these
(iv) Meaning of development is different for
(a) Different people (b) Alien people (c) Same people (d) None of these
(v) Development of an individual refers to
(a) Mental development (b) Physical development
(c) Spiritual development (d) Overall development
(vi) Development goal for landless agricultural labour is
(a) High prices for crops (b) More days of work
(c) Cheap labour (d) Pollution-free environment
85
(vii) If industrialists want more dams then why do local people resist it?
(a) They will be displaced. (b) Their lands will be submerged.
(c) Their will be no source of earning for them.
(viii) People may have different developmental goals; what may be development for one may
not be development, may even be ______ for the other.
(a) Destructive (b) Constructive (c) Same (d) Equal
(ix) Assured a high family income through higher support prices for their crops and through
hardworking and cheap labourers, they should be able to settle their children abroad.
Find out in which of the following categories of persons have this kind of development
goals?
(a) Rich rural women
(b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab
(c) Landless rural labourers
(d) Farmers who depend on rain for agriculture
Two statements are given in the questions (i) to (iii) below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): Different people have different development goals. [CBSE SP 2020-21]
Reason (R): People want freedom, equality, security and respect.
(ii) Assertion (A): Different people have different developmental goals.
Reason (R): The capitalist approach to development is detrimental to poor section of
the society.
(iii) Assertion (A): Every person has different development goals.
Reason (R): Every person has different needs.
3. Data/Table Based Questions
(i) Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate
answer from the given options: [CBSE S.P. 2021-22]
Table For Comparison of Three Countries
Monthly income of citizens in 2007 (in Rupees)
Countries I II III IV V
Country A 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200
Country B 500 500 500 500 48000
Country C 5000 1000 15000 4000 25000
Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different
countries after every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to
choose any one out of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job
location. She calculates average income of all these countries as per the given data and
chooses to be transferred to Country A.
Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.

(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable
(b) Has most equitable distribution of income
(c) National income of its citizens is higher
(d) Average income of its citizens is lower
(ii) Read the given data and find out which country has most equitable distribution of
income.
Countries Monthly Income of Citizens in four countries in 2018

Citizen I Citizen II Citizen III Citizen IV Citizen V
Country A 10500 11200 10800 11000 10700
Country B 600 5000 600 600 600
Country C 550 10500 400 7500 2000
Country D 800 4800 700 5000 750
Let us consider the four countries, A, B, C and we have assumed that they have only
five citizens each. Perhaps some of us may like to live in these countries by comparing
the average income. Which of the countries will we prefer on the basic of average
income to live?
(a) Country A (b) Country B (c) Country C (d) Country D
appropriate option.
The idea of development or progress has always been with us. We have aspirations or
desires about what we would like to do and how we would like to live. Similarly, we
have ideas about what a country should be like. Different category of persons have
different kind of development goals or aspirations. All of these persons have the same
notion of development or progress. Each one of them seeks different things. They seek
things that are most important for them. i.e., that which can fulfil their aspirations or
desires. In fact, at times, two persons or groups of persons may seek things which are
conflicting. A girl expects as much freedom and opportunity as her brother, and that
he also shares in the household work. Her brother may not like this. Similarly, to get
more electricity, industrialists may want more dams. but this may submerge the land
and disrupt the lives of people who are displaced – such as tribals. They might resent
this and may prefer small check dams or tanks to irrigate their land.
So, two things are quite clear: one, different persons can have different developmental
goals and two, what may be development for one may not be development for the other.
It may even be destructive for the other. People desire are regular work, better wages,
and decent price for their crops or other products that they produce. In other words,
they want more income.
4.1. Economic development applies to the ____________ development of a country where

the people earn __________ income and can satisfy all their needs.
(a) social; higher (b) social; lower
(c) all round; higher (d) political; average
Development 87
4.2. An urban unemployed youth aspire to get a suitable job where he can expand his level of:
(a) skill and talents (b) get a better remuneration
(c) become a great financial support to his family
(d) All of these
4.3. Which of the following is not an important goal of people’s life?
(a) Good education (b) Blood donation
(c) High salaried job (d) Facilities for going abroad
4.4. Different people have different goals or aspirations. Identify which development goals/
aspirations the following people belong to: [Delhi 2020]
Category of person Development goals/Aspirations
a. Landless rural labourers 1. More days of work and better wages
b. Prosperous farmers from Punjab 2. Availability of other sources of
irrigation
c. Farmers who depend only on rain 3. Assured a higher support prices for
for growing crops their crops
d. A rural woman from a land 4. Education of her child in English
owning family medium school by more earning from
the land by giving it on rent
Choose the correct option.
(a) a–1, b–3, c–2, d–4 (b) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2
(c) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2 (d) a–4, b–2, c–1, d–3
4.5. To get more electricity, industrialists may want more dams. This will lead the submerge
of land and disrupt the lives of who among the following people?
(a) Rural happy families (b) Adivasis
(c) Prosperous farmers (d) Rich urban family
4.6. Which of the following statements is correct about development?
(a) People have always the idea of development or progress.
(b) They may have different development goals.
(c) Development may even be destructive for the other.
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(a), (v)–(d), (vi)–(b), (vii)–(d), (viii)–(a), (ix)–(b)
2. (i)–(a), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(a) 3. (i)–(a), (ii)–(b)
4. 4.1 (c) 4.2 (d) 4.3 (b) 4.4 (a) 4.5 (b) 4.6 (d)
2. Income and Other Goals, National Development and How to

Compare Different Countries or States?
• Material goals includes money or any material thing that we can buy with it.
• Non-material goals includes equal treatment, freedom, respect, security, etc.
• The quality of our life depends on both national and non-national goals that are not easily
measured but mean a lot to our lives.
• People look at a mix of goals for development. The developmental goals that people have are
not only about better income but also about other important things in life.
• Individuals seek different goals, then their notion of national development is likely to be
different. Therefore, different persons could have different as well as conflicting notions of
a country’s development.
• Depending upon the purpose of comparison, we use different parameters or criteria.

• For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes.
• Countries with per capita income of US $12,056 per annum and above, are called rich
countries and those with per capita income of US $955 or less are called low-income countries
(as per 2017 data).
• India is included in low-middle income countries. Total income is the income of all the
residents of the country.
• Average income can be calculated by dividing the total income by the total population. It is
also called per capita income.
EXERCISE 1.2
(i) The calculation of per capita income of all countries is made in
(a) Rupees (b) Dollars (c) Yen (d) Pounds
(ii) National development is measured by
(a) Average Income and Per Capita Income (b) Net Attendance Ratio
(c) National Income (d) Human Development Index
(iii) Which of the following is also called average income?
(a) Per Capita Income (b) National income (c) Total income (d) None of these
(iv) Read the given statements in context of ‘National development’ and choose the correct
option.
(a) It is measured by National Income.
(b) It is measured by Average Income and Per Capita Income.
(c) It is measured by Human Development Index.
(d) It is measured by Net Attendance Ratio.
(v) Per capita income hides
(a) Disparities (b) Average income
(c) Total population (d) None of these
(vi) Dividing the total income of country with its population, we get
I. Per capita income II. National income
III. Average Income IV. Total Income
(a) Only III (b) I and II (c) II and II (d) None of these
(vii) The per capita income of different countries is counted in which currency?
(a) Rupees (b) Pounds (c) US Dollars (d) Canadian Dollars
(viii) Meaning of development is different for
(a) Different people (b) Alien people (c) Same people (d) None of these
(ix) Development criteria include
(a) Income (b) Equal treatment (c) Freedom (d) All of these
(x) Per capita income of low-income countries is
(a) < 30,000 or less (b) < 37,000 or less (c) < 40,000 or less (d) None of these
Development 89
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): The average income of a country is about USS 12,056; however, the
country is still not a developed country.
Reason (R): The income levels are highly skewed for the country.
(ii) Assertion (A): Besides seeking more income, one-way or the other, people also seek
things like equal treatment, freedom, security, and respect of others.
Reason (R): All of these are important goals.
(iii) Assertion (A): When we compare different things they could have similarities as well
as differences.
Reason (R): Different persons can have different developmental goals.
Read the information given below and select the appropriate option.
In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this criterion is used in
classifying countries. Countries with per capita income of US$ 12,056 per annum and
above in 2017, are called rich countries and those with per capita income of US$ 955 or
less are called low-income countries. India comes in the category of low middle income
countries because its per capita income in 2017 was just US$ 1820 per annum. The rich
countries, excluding countries of Middle East and certain other small countries, are
generally called developed countries.
What is the criterion of a developed country?
(a) Total income of that of the country
(b) Different populations of that of the country
(c) Average income of that of the country
(d) Being rich
OR
For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important
attributes. In this regard which of the following is correct about the per capita income?
(a) It is total income of the country divided by its total population.
(b) It is also known as average income.
(c) It is the total national income minus GDP of the country.
Answers
1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(b), (v)–(a), (vi)–(a), (vii)–(c), (viii)–(a), (ix)–(a), (x)–(b)
2. (i)–(a), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b) 3. (c) OR (d)
3. Income and Other Criteria, Public Facilities and Sustainability of

Development
• States are compared on the basis of infant mortality rate, literacy rate and net attendance
ratio.
• Money cannot buy all the goods and services that we need to live well. So, income by itself
is not a completely adequate indicator of material goods and services that citizens are able
to use.
• Public facilities include health, education, water, sanitation, transport, etc.
• Body Mass Index tells us that a person is undernourished or not.
• Human Development Report is published by UNDP to know the development level of a
country.
• Development without harming the environment and keeping for the future generation is
called sustainable development.
• Renewable resources are resources which get replenished by nature. For example, air, water.
• Non-renewable resources are resources which cannot be replenished by nature. We have a
fixed stock of these on the earth, for example, coal, petroleum.
• Sustainability of development is comparatively a new area of knowledge in which scientists,
economists, philosophers and other social scientists are working together.
EXERCISE 1.3
(i) Developmental goals are different for different people. Which of the following
statements is true to justify it?
(a) Development or progress does not mean one and same thing for every individual.
Each individual has his/her own notion of development.
(b) People seek things that are most important for then, i.e. things can fulfil their
aspiration or desires.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
(ii) The total number of children attending school as a percentage of total number of
children in the same age group is called
(a) Net attendance ratio (b) Literacy rate
(c) Gross enrolment ratio (d) Level of education
(iii) Per capital income of Kerala is higher than that of
(a) Bihar (b) Pubjab (c) Gujarat (d) None of these
(iv) Among Haryana, Kerala and Bhihar, the lowest per capita income state is Bihar. It
show that
(a) Bihar has high standard of living. (b) People are earning less in Kerala.
(c) Maharashtra has more number of rich people.
(d) On an average, people in Bihar have low income.
(v) IMR stands for
(a) Infant Mortality Ratio (b) Indian Mortality Ratio
(c) International Mortality Ratio (d) None of these
(vi) The literacy rate is highest in Kerala while the infant mortality rate is highest in
Bihar. What does it show?
(a) Most of the people in Kerala and Bihar have good living conditions.
(b) Both Bihar and Kerala lack basic necessities of life.
(c) The standard of living in Kerala is better than Bihar.
(d) The m standard of living in Bihar is better than Kerala.
Development 91
(vii) The Human Development Report (HDR) published by UNDP compares countries
based on literacy rate, health status and _______ .
(a) National income (b) Per capita income
(c) Both (a)and (b) (d) None of these
(viii) Full form of SED is
(a) Sustainable Economic Development (b) Simple Economic Development
(c) Sound Economic Development (d) None of these
(ix) A good way to measure the quality of life in countries across the world is by comparing
their _______ .
(a) Per Capita Income (b) Human Development Index
(c) Gross National Income (d) Sustainable Development
(x) Which among the following is not a public facility?
(a) Transport and electricity (b) Roads and bridges
(c) Private schools (d) Government hospitals
(xi) The ______ helps in maintaining the nutritional levels of poor people by proving food
at lower cost.
(a) BMI (Body Mass Index) (b) PDS (Public Distribution System)
(c) GNI (Gross National Income) (d) HDI (Human Development Index)
(xii) Economic development by maintaining the natural resources for present and future
use is known as
(a) Sustainable development (b) Planned development
(c) Human Development Index (d) Development
(xiii) Choose the correct option from the following.
List I (Country) List II (HDI rank in the world, 2020)
(a) Sri Lanka 76
(b) India 130
(c) Myanmar 140
(d) Bangladesh 133
Two statements are given in the questions (i) to (viii) below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): Suppose the literacy rate in a state is 78% and the net attendance ratio
in secondary stage is 47%.
Reason (R): More than half of the students are going to other states for elementary
education.
(ii) Assertion (A): A state has a per capita income of ` 2,25,000 per annum. The infant
mortality rate in the state is cannot be considered a developed state.
Reason (R): There are medical facilities in the state, but people fail to take their children
to hospital in time.
(iii) Assertion (A): A small town has a high rate of robbery; however, a locality in this town
has well-maintained law and order.
Reason (R): The people in the locality are aware of the importance of having security
guards, and they collectively pay to have the security guards in the locality.
(iv) Assertion (A): A country that was extremely rich in natural resources has mainly relied
on oil extraction for revenue generation for several centuries. However, the scientists
predict that the country may become poor in the future if other means of generating
income are not devised.
Reason (R): Oil is a non-renewable resource, and it is likely to get exhausted if not
used judiciously.
(v) Assertion (A): A high average income is not indicative of the overall well-being or
human development in a country.
Reason (R): Average income does not cover indicators like level of literacy rate, health
facilities and public facilities in a country.
(vi) Assertion (A): Non-renewable resources are abundant in nature.
Reason (R): Non-renewable resources cannot be replenished over a period of time.
(vii) Assertion (A): Sustainable development is essential for economic growth of the countries.
Reason (R): Sustainable development ensures that environment friendly measures are
adopted for carrying out production processes.
(viii) Assertion (A): The crude oil reserves are going down for the entire world, and the
countries need to find substitute fuel for crude oil.
Reason (R): A country that is dependent on imports for crude oil will demand more
crude oil in the future.
3. Table/Data Based Questions
(i) Read the given table and find out in comparison to Kerala, which state has the highest
infant mortality rate.
Some comparative data on Haryana, Kerala and Bihar
State Infant Mortality Literacy Net Attendance Ratio
Rate per 1,000 Rate % (per 100 persons) secondary stage
live births (2017) 2011 (age 14 and 15 years)
2013-14
Haryana 30 82 61
Kerala 10 94 83
Bihar 35 62 43
Sources: Economic Survey, 2018-19 P.A. 160, Government of India; National Sample Survey
Organisation (Report No. 575)
(a) Haryana (b) Bihar
(c) Both Haryana and Bihar (d) None of these

(ii) Read the given data and information carefully which gives an estimate of reserves of
crude oil. Select the most appropriate answer from the given option.
Region/Country Reserves (2017) Number of Years
(Thousand Million Reserves will last
Barrels)
Middle East 808 70
United States of America 50 10.5
World 1697 50.2
Source: BP Statistical Review of World Energy, June 2018

Development 93
The table tells us that the stock of crude oil would last only 50 years more. This is for the
world as a whole. However, different countries face different situations. On this basis find
out which of the following options defines why crude oil is essential for the development
process of a country:
(a) If prices of crude oil increase this becomes a burden for all.
(b) Reserves of crude oil are going to last for 50 years and more.
(c) Middle East and USA may face energy crisis in future due to exhaustion of crude oil.
(d) Crude oil is a major source of energy for agriculture and industrial development.
(iii) Read the given data and find out which country is at the top regarding GNI and HDI
rank in the world.
Countries Gross National Life Mean Years of HDI Rank in
Income (GNI) Expectancy at Schooling of the world
Per Capita birth People aged 25 (2018)
(2011 PPP $) (2017) and above
(2017)
Sri Lanka 11,326 75.5 10.9 76
India 6,353 68.8 6.4 130
Myanmar 5,567 66.7 4.9 148
Pakistan 5,331 66.6 5.2 150
Nepal 2,471 70.6 4.9 149
Bangladesh 3,677 72.8 5.8 136
Source: Human Development Report, 2018, United Nations Development Programme, New York
(a) Nepal (b) India (c) Pakistan (d) Sri Lanka
(iv) According to 2018-19 data, the Infant mortality rate (IMR) and literacy rate of Kerala,
Bihar and Haryana are:
 Kerala — 10 (IMR), 94 (literacy rate)
 Bihar — 35 (IMR), 62 (literacy rate)
 Haryana — 30 (IMR), 82 (literacy rate)
The infant mortality rate is lowest in Bihar while the literacy rate is highest in Kerala.
What does it indicate?
(a) Bihar and Kerala lack essential necessities in life.
(b) The standard of living in Bihar is better than Kerala.
(d) Mostly people in Bihar and Kerala have good living condition.
Read the information given below and select the correct option.
Once it is realised that even though the level of income is important, yet it is an
inadequate measure of the level of development, we begin to think of other criterion.
There could be a long list of such criterion but then it would not be so useful. What we
need is a small number of the most important things. Health and education indicators,
such as the ones we used in comparison of Kerala and Haryana, are among them. Over
the past decade or so, health and education indicators have come to be widely used
along with income as a measure of development. For instance, Human Development
Report published by UNDP compares countries based on the educational levels of the
people, their health status and per capita income. It would be interesting to look at
certain relevant data regarding India and its neighbours from Human Development
Report 2019.
Human Development Report published by UNDP compares countries based on–
(a) the education levels of the people
(b) the health status of the people
(c) the per capita income of the people
(d) All of these
OR
Some indicators have been used to compare the human development report of Kerala
and Haryana. Which of the following is/are those indicators?
(a) Health (b) Education
(c) Per capita income (d) Only (a) and (b)
appropriate option.
Groundwater is an example of renewable resources. These resources are replenished
by nature as in the case of crops and plants. However, even these resources may be
overused. For example, in the case of groundwater, if we use more than what is being
replenished by rain then we would be overusing this resource. Non-renewable resources
are those which will get exhausted after years of use. We have a fixed stock on earth
which cannot be replenished. We do discover new resources that we did not know of
earlier. New sources in this way add to the stock. However, over time, even this will get
exhausted.
5.1. Groundwater is a
(a) renewable resource (b) non-renewable resource
(c) reserve stock (d) None of these
5.2. Why is groundwater overused?
(a) Due to overpopulation
(b) Due to industialisation
(c) Due to commercialisation of agriculture
5.3. Which of the following is not a renewable resource?
(a) Wind energy (b) Fossil fuels
(c) Solar energy (d) Forests
5.4. Development is possible without the overuse of resources. In this context choose the
correct option which describes the importance of sustainable development.
(a) It helps in maintaining ecological balance.
(b) It promotes an efficient use of natural resources.
(c) It lays emphasis on quality of life.
Development 95
5.5. Which of the following is not a measure of sustainable development?

(a) Using natural resources properly and scientifically
(b) Reducing pollution or environmental degradation
(c) Preventing infectious diseases
(d) Adopting measures to check global warming
5.6. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given option.
I. Non-renewable resources are those which will not get exhausted after years of use.
II. Renewable resources include biomass energy, wind energy, solar energy, etc.
III. Oil, natural gas, coal, etc. are the example of non-renewable resources.
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only
(c) I only (d) III only
appropriate option.
Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in
many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of
over 4 metres during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the country is overusing
their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years, 60 per cent of the country would
be doing the same if the present way of using this resource continues. Groundwater
overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and
Western Uttar Pradesh, hard rock plateau areas of central and south India, some
coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban settlements.
6.1. The passage given above relates to which of the following options–
(a) Use of water (b) Overuse of groundwater
(c) Groundwater (d) Water in coastal areas
6.2. According to the passage, development without harming the environment and also
keeping for the future generation is indicated which among the following options?
(a) Marginal development (b) Unused development
(c) Sustainable development (d) Futuristic development
6.3. The groundwater overuse particularly found in–
(a) the agriculturally prosperous regions of Punjab and Western Uttar Pradesh
(b) hard rock plateau regions of Central and South India
(c) some coastal areas
6.4. The groundwater is need to conserve because–
(a) the rate of consumption is more than the rate of regeneration.
(b) human beings are using the groundwater less than the need.
(c) water pollution may effect the groundwater.
(d) it is very useful for drinking.
6.5. Where is groundwater overuse particularly found?
(a) Punjab (b) Gujarat
(c) West Bengal (d) Tripura
6.6. If we use more that what is being replenished by rain, then we would be overusing

................... resources.
(a) Non-renewable (b) Groundwater
(c) Man-made resources (d) None of these
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(d), (v)–(a), (vi)–(c), (vii)–(b), (viii)–(a), (ix)–(b),
(x)–(c) (xi)–(b), (xii)–(a), (xiii)–(d)
2. (i)–(c), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(a), (v)–(a), (vi)–(d), (vii)–(a), (viii)–(b)
3. (i)–(b), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c)
4. (d) OR (d)
5. 5.1 (a) 5.2 (d) 5.3 (b) 5.4 (d) 5.5 (c) 5.6 (c)
6. 6.1 (b) 6.2 (c) 6.3 (d) 6.4 (a) 6.5 (a) 6.6 (b)

Study the cartoon which one of the following options best signifies it?
(a) 90 per cent of income is distributed between the population

(b) 90 per cent of the income is stored with 10 percent of the population
(c) Equal distribution of income
Ans. (d)
Development 97
2 Sectors of the Indian Economy
Topics covered
1. Sectors of Economic Activities 2. Comparing the Three Sectors
3. Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Sectors in India 4. Division of Sectors as Organised and Unorganised
5. Sectors in Terms of Ownership: Public and Private Sectors
1. Sectors of Economic Activities

• When a goods is produced by exploiting natural resources it is called primary sector activity.
It is called primary because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently
make.
• In secondary sector, natural products are changed into other different forms through ways
of manufacturing. It is also called industrial sector because it is related to different kinds of
industries that came up.
• In the tertiary sector, goods are not produced but they are an aid or a support for the production
process. It is also called service sector because sometimes these activities generate services
rather than goods.
• Certain new services based on information technology such as internet cafe, ATM booths,
call centres, software companies, etc. have become important and come under service sector.
EXERCISE 2.1
(i) Identify reasons why economic activities are interdependent.
I. If the companies decide not to buy cotton from Indian producers then the Indian
cotton cultivation will become less profitable and may even go bankrupt. In this
case it is clear that primary sector is dependent on the secondary sector.
II. In case farmers refuse to sell sugarcane to a particular sugar mill then the mill
have to shutdown. It is clear in this case that secondary sector is dependent on the
primary sector.
III. In case transporters are on strike then the primary sector and secondary sector
will face loss.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) III only (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
(ii) Which of the following profession belongs to the tertiary sector of economy?
[CBSE S.P. 2019-20]
(a) Fishermen (b) Farmer (c) Factory worker (d) Teacher
98
(iii) Which sector helps in the development of the primary and secondary sector?
(a) Public sector (b) Private sector
(c) Tertiary sector (d) None of these
(iv) ATM service is an example of
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) None of these
(v) Animal husbandry is a part of which of the following sectors?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) None of these
(vi) Which among the following activities is not related to primary sector?
(a) Fishing (b) Natural gas extraction
(c) Making of sugar (d) Mining
(vii) All economic activities that directly involve conversion of natural resources are
classified under
(a) Secondary sector (b) Primary sector
(c) Tertiary sector (d) Government sector
(viii) The secondary sector is also known as ______ as this sector produces useful items from
natural products.
(a) Manufacturing (b) Producing (c) Building (d) None of these
(ix) Under which economic sector does the production of a community through the natural
process come?
(a) Public sector (b) Primary sector
(c) Secondary sector (d) Public sector
(x) Choose the correct option from the following.
List I (Sectors) List II (Examples)
(a) Primary sector Manufacturing
(b) Secondary sector Call centre
(c) Tertiary sector Banking
(d) Service sector Dairy
Two statements are given in the questions (i) to (iv) below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): Several services such as hospitals, educational institutions and police
stations are some examples of tertiary activities.
Reason (R): These activities generate services rather than goods.
(ii) Assertion (A): An individual who manufactures flour from wheat is engaged in secondary
sector.
Reason (R): When some process of manufacturing is used the product is a part of
secondary sector.
(iii) Assertion (A): The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development
of service sector.
Reason (R): As the primary and secondary sectors develops, the demand for transport,
storage structures, banks, insurance, etc. increases.
Sectors of the Indian Economy 99

(iv) Assertion (A): After primary of secondary, there is a third category of activities that
falls under tertiary sector.
Reason (R): These activities do not help in the development of the primary and
secondary sectors.
3. Table Based Questions
(i)
Study the table and find out the occupations that come under primary sectors from the
options given below.
Tailor Workers in match factory
Basket weaver Moneylender
Flower cultivator Gardener
Milk vendor Potter
Fishermen Bee-keeper
Priest Astronaut
Courier Call centre employee
(a) Tailor, Milk vendor, Priest, Courier, Moneylender, Call centre employee
(b) Flower cultivator, Fishermen, Gardener, Potter
(c) Basket weaver, Workers in match factory, Bee-keeper
(d) Milk vendor, Flower cultivator, Bee-keeper, Fishermen
(ii) Read the following information given in table carefully and select the most appropriate
answer from the given options.
Examples of Economic Activities
Example What Does This Show?
Imagine what would happen if farmers This is an example of the secondary or
refuse to sell sugarcane to a particular industrial sector being dependent on the
sugar mill. The mill will have to shut primary.
down.
Farmers buy many goods such as tractors, This is an example of primary sector i.e.,
pumpsets, electricity, pesticides and agriculture being dependent in secondary
fertilisers. Imagine what would happen if sector i.e., industry.
the price of fertilisers or pumpsets go up.
Cost of cultivation of the farmers will rise
and their profits will be reduced.
People working in industrial and service This is an example of the primary sector
sectors need food. Imagine what would being dependent on the tertiary sector.
happen if there is a strike by transporters
and lorries refuse to take vegetables, milk,
etc. from rural areas. Food will become
scarce in urban areas whereas farmers will
be unable to sell their products.
Imagine what would happen to cotton cultivation if companies decide not to buy from
the Indian market and import all cotton they need from other countries. Indian cotton
cultivation will become less profitable and the farmers may even go bankrupt, if they
cannot quickly switch to other crops. Cotton prices will fall.
Identify the example for which the statement is based on–
(a) This is an example of primary sector which is dependent on secondary sector.

(b) This is an example of only primary sector.

(c) This is an example of sectary sector that dependent on primary sector
(d) This is an example of tertiary sector which is dependent on secondary and primary
both sectors.
4. Information Based Questions
(i) Read the information given below and select the appropriate option.
There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources.
Take, for example, the cultivation of cotton. It takes place within a crop season.
For the growth of the cotton plant, we depend mainly, but not entirely, on natural
factors like rainfall, sunshine and climate. The product of this activity, cotton, is a
natural product. Similarly, in the case of an activity like dairy, we are dependent on
the biological process of the animals and availability of fodder etc. The product here,
milk, also is a natural product.
When we produce a product by natural activity. It is an activity of the–
(a) industrial sector (b) primary sector
(c) service sector (d) agriculture sector
OR
The most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, forestry,
this sector is also called–
(a) industrial and related sector (b) service sector
(c) agriculture and related sector (d) secondary sector
(ii) Read the information given below and select the appropriate option.
After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under
tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are activities that help in the
development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves,
do not produce a goods but they are an aid or a support for the production process.
For example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would need
to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops. At
times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns.

Which of the following is the correct option for classification on the basis of nature of
activity?
(a) Organised sector and Unorganised sector
(b) Public sector and Private sector
(c) Primary sector, Secondary sector and Tertiary sector
(d) Agriculture-related sector and Industrial sector
OR
An economy is best understood when we study its components or sectors. Sectoral
classification can be done on the basis of several criteria. Which of the following is/are
correct about the secondary sector?
(a) It covers the activities in which natural products are changed into other forms.
(b) Here some process of manufacturing is essential.
(c) It is also called as manufacturing sector.


appropriate option.
After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under
tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are activities that help in the
development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves,
do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the production process. For
example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would need to be
transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops. At times,
it may be necessary to store these in godowns. We also may need to talk to others
over telephone or send letters (communication) or borrow money from banks (banking)
to help production and trade. Transport, storage, communication, banking, trade are
some examples of tertiary activities. Since these activities generate services rather
than goods, the tertiary sector is also called the service sector.
5.1. The source given above relates to which of the following options?
(a) Service sector (b) Tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector (d) Both (a) and (b)
5.2. Which of the following activities do not produce a goods, but they are an aid or support
for the production process?
(a) Tertiary activities (b) Quinary activities
(c) Secondary activities (d) Both (a) and (c)
5.3. It is a sector that gradually became associated with the different kinds of industries
that came up. It is called as–
(a) Primary sector (b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector (d) Quinary sector
5.4. Which of the following are the example of service sector?
(a) Teachers (b) Doctors
(c) People who do administrative works, etc.
I. There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources
come under primary sector.
II. There are many activities where the natural products are changed into other
forms come under the tertiary sector.
III. Banking, transport, communication are examples of service sector.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I only (d) Quinary sector
5.6. ................... activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a
support for the production process.
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) Manufacturing
Answers
1. (i)–(d), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(c), (iv)–(c), (v)–(a), (vi)–(c), (vii)–(b), (viii)–(a), (ix)–(b), (x)–(c)
2. (i)–(a), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(c) 3. (i)–(b), (ii)–(a)
4. (i) (b) OR (c) (ii) (c) OR (d)
5. 5.1 (d) 5.2 (a) 5.3 (b) 5.4 (d) 5.5 (b) 5.6 (c)

2. Comparing the Three Sectors

• The three sectors have a large number of people working and produce a very large number
of goods and services. But in economy, one and more sector dominant while other sectors are
relatively small in size in terms of total production and employment.
• Economists suggest that the values of goods and services should be used rather than adding
up the actual numbers. Similarly, the value of goods and services in the three sectors are
calculated, and then added up.
• Not every goods or services needs to be counted unless it includes the final goods and services.
Final goods and services are those products which finally reach the consumers.
• The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year
provides the total production of the sector for that year.
• GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product. It is the total value of all the final goods and
services produced in the three sectors in a particular year within the country.
• The history of developed countries indicate that earlier primary sector was dominant, then
secondary sector became dominant and now it is service sector which is dominant. Most of
the working people are employed in the service sector.
• All these happened with the introduction of new methods. Firstly it was introduced in
farming or agriculture sector, then in manufacturing sector and finally in tertiary sector.
EXERCISE 2.2
(i) The value of which of the following should be added while calculating the national
income?
(a) Final goods (b) Final services
(c) Final goods and services (d) None of these
(ii) The value of each final goods and service produced within the country during a
participate year is called as:
(a) Average Income (b) GDP
(c) National Income (d) NDP
(iii) The goods that are used as raw materials for further production are known by which
name?
(a) Final goods (b) Consumer goods
(c) Material goods (d) Intermediate goods
(iv) GDP of a country is based on
(a) Total value of good and services (b) Final value of goods and services
(c) Initial value of goods and services (d) All of these
(v) The sum total of production of all goods and services in the three sectors are combinedly
(a) NDP (b) NI (c) GNI (d) GDP
(vi) In the last 100 years, the sector gaining prominance is
(a) Secondary sector (b) Primary sector
(c) Tertiary sector (d) All of these
Two statements are given in the questions below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).
Read the statements and choose the appropriate option:
Options:

(i) Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted
to know the total production in each sector.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate
goods.
(ii) Assertion (A): GDP shows how big an economy is.
Reason (R): GDP is the value of all goods and services produced within the domestic
territory of a country in a year.
(iii) Assertion (A): When calculating the total value of goods and services produced in a
country, the value of final goods and services of production is calculated.
Reason (R): At each stage of production some value is added to a good or service,
therefore, the value added at each stage of production is added to derive the total value
of gods and services in an economy
3. Arrange the following in correct sequence
(i) The biscuit company uses the flour and things such as sugar and oil to make four
packets of biscuits. It sells biscuits in the market to the consumers.
(ii) The mill grinds the wheat.
(iii) Farmer sells wheat to a flour mill.
(iv) The flour is sold to a biscuit company.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(c) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (d) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
appropriate option.
The various production activities in the primary, secondary and tertiary sectors produce
a very large number of goods and services. Also, the three sectors have a large number
of people working in them to produce these goods and services. The next step, therefore,
is to see how much goods and services are produced and how many people work in each
sector. In an economy there could be one or more sectors which are dominant in terms
of total production and employment, while other sectors are relatively small in size.
Remember, there is one precaution one has to take. Not every goods (or services) that
is produced and sold needs to be counted. It makes sense only to include the final goods
and services. Take, for instance, a farmer who sells wheat to a flour mill for ` 8 per kg.
The mill grinds the wheat and sells the flour to a biscuit company for ` 10 per kg. The
biscuit company uses the flour and things such as sugar and oil to make four packets
of biscuits. It sells biscuits in the market to the consumers for ` 60 (` 15 per packet).
4.1. The passage given above relates to which of the following options?
(a) Comparing three sectors (b) International competition
(c) Comparing only primary and secondary sectors
(d) Increased employment
4.2. According to the passage, which among the following options is called as intermediate
goods?
(a) Goods and services that finally reach to the consumers.

(b) Goods and services that intermediately reach to the consumers.

(c) Goods that used in the production of final goods and services.
(d) Goods that used in initially to produced a material.
4.3. It is calculated by summing the value of all the final goods and services produced in
all the three sectors in a country in a financial year. It is called as–
(a) Gross National Product(GNP) (b) Net National Product (NNP)
(c) Gross Decentralised Product (GDP) (d) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
4.4. Which of the following sectors provides maximum number of job opportunities?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector (d) Quaternary Sector
4.5. Which of the following sectors has emerged as the largest producing sector?
(a) Primary sector (b) Industrial sector
(c) Secondary sector (d) Tertiary sector
4.6. The tertiary sector is also called the ___________ sector.
(a) Industrial (b) Service
(c) Administrative (d) None of these
appropriate option. (6 Marks)
The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular year
provides the total production of the sector for that year. And the sum of production in
the three sectors gives what is called the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country. It
is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular
year. GDP shows how big the economy is. In India, the mammoth task of measuring
GDP is undertaken by a central government ministry. This Ministry, with the help of
various government departments of all the Indian states and union territories, collects
information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then
estimates the GDP.
5.1. How is GDP calculated?
(a) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a
particular year and the sum of production in the three sectors.
(b) The value of intermediate goods and services produced in each sector during a
particular year provides the approximate production of the sector for that year.
(c) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a particular
year provides the total production of sector for that year, and the sum of production
in the three sectors.
(d) The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during last three
years provides the total production of the sector for that year.
5.2. What do final goods and services mean?
(a) Production of goods and services
(b) Those goods and services that finally reach the consumers
(c) Those goods and services that are out of reach of consumers

5.3. In how many sectors does the sum of production give GDP of a country?
(a) Two (b) Five (c) Four (d) Three
5.4. Who is responsible for collecting data for the GDP in India?
(a) Central Government Ministry (b) State Government Ministry
(c) Mayor (d) None of these
5.5. Read the following statements and final the INCORRECT from the given options.
I. GDP is the monetary value of all finished goods and services.
II. GDP provides an economic snapshot of a country.
III. GDP is the most commonly used measure of social activity.
Options:
(a) II and III (b) I and III (c) I only (d) III only
5.6. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a _________ ministry.
(a) State government (b) Central government
(c) Independent body set up (d) Economic survey set up
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(b), (v)–(d), (vi)–(c)
2. (i)–(a), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(c) 3. (b)
4. 4.1 (a) 4.2 (c) 4.3 (d) 4.4 (a) 4.5 (d) 4.6 (b)
5. 5.1 (c) 5.2 (b) 5.3 (d) 5.4 (a) 5.5 (d) 5.6 (b)
3. Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Sectors in India

• Over forty five years, the production in all three sectors has increased, but it has increased
the most in the tertiary sector, therefore, it has emerged as largest producing sector in India
replacing the primary sector.
• Tertiary sector is becoming so important in India because of basic services has been taken by
government, development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services,
rise in income level and finally enhance the services like information and communication
technology.
• During 70s and 80s number of employment were seen in agriculture sector in India. It is
because not enough jobs were created in secondary and tertiary sectors.
• More than half of the workers are working in the primary sector that produce only a quarter
of the GDP. In contrast to this, secondary and tertiary sectors produce four-fifths of the
produce whereas they employ less than half the people.
• It means, more people working in agriculture sector than is necessary. In other words,
workers in the agricultural sector are underemployed. It means where people are apparently
working but all of them are made to work less than their potential.
• This kind of underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and
is clearly visible as unemployed. Hence, it is also called disguised unemployment.
• This underemployment can also happen in other sectors like in service sector where casual
workers, painters, plumbers, etc. spend the whole day but earn very little.
• The problem of underemployment in agricultural sector can be reduced through opening
new opportunities like duging canals for irrigation, constructing dams, etc. Government
also can invests some money in transportation and storage of corps. This activities generate
employment to not just farmers but also those in services.

• Another way by which government can tackle this problem is to identify, promote and locate
industries and services in semi-rural areas where a large number of people may be employed.
• There is nearly 20 lakh jobs can be created in the education sector alone as well as in health
sector also. The erstwhile Planning Commission (now known as NITI Aayog) says that if
tourism as a sector is improved, every year we can give additional employment to more than
35 lakh people.
• The central government made a law implementing the Right to Work in about 625 districts
of India. It is called Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005
(MGNREGA, 2005). Under this, all those who are able to, and are in need of, work in rural
areas are guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year by the government.
EXERCISE 2.3
(i) Which among the following workers are not very productive in tertiary sector?
(a) Educated and trained professionals (b) Repair persons and daily wage earners
(c) People in defence services
(d) People working in health centres and hospitals
(ii) Converting iron is a part of
(a) Primary activity (b) Secondary activity
(iii) Hidden unemployment is also called
(a) Organised sector (b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Tertiary sector (d) Contractual unemployment
(iv) Public health is responsibility of
(a) Primary sector (b) Government (c) Private sector (d) None of these
(v) MGNREGA guarantees job poor for
(a) 100 days (b) 90 days (c) 60 days (d) 50 days
(vi) The task of collection of data in all the three sectors of the economy is done by which
of the following organisation.
(a) NSSO (b) BPO (c) KPO (d) UNDP
(vii) The type of unemployment in which more number of people work than actually needed
is known as
(a) Disguised unemployment (b) Seasonal unemployment
(c) Underemployed (d) Over employed
(viii) As per the workers in different sectors (in millions) the data shown only for organised
sector is
 Primary Sector — 0.012% (approx.)
 Secondary Sector — 50%
 Tertiary Sector — 48.8% (approx.)
Out of the three sectors, why did employment in the secondary sector increase?
(a) An increase in machinary on farms.
(b) People tend to migrate to urban areas to get jobs in factories.
(c) Most people are engaged in agricultural activities.
(d) all of the above are correct reason.


Two statements are given in the questions (i) to (v) below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): Maximum workers in India works in the primary sector.
Reason (R): Tertiary sector has emerged the largest producing sector of India.
(ii) Assertion (A): In India, over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while
production in all the three sectors has increased, it has increased the most in the tertiary
sector.
Reason (R): Tertiary sector is the only organized sector in the economy so the
government spends a lot of money for creating jobs in tertiary sector.
(iii) Assertion (A): In India, the primary sector is the largest employer.
Reason (R): The demand for services has increased enormously.
(iv) Assertion (A): There are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and
educated workers.
Reason (R): Not all of the service sector is growing equally well.
(v) Assertion (A): The primary sector continues to be the largest employer even now.
Reason (R): Not enough job were created in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
Laxmi owning about two hectares of unirrigated land dependent only on rain and
growing crops like jowar and arhar. All five members of her family work in the plot
throughout the year. In case the government can spend some money or banks can
provide a loan to construct a well for her family to irrigate the land. Laxmi will then
be able to irrigate her land and take a second crop, wheat.
You see that everyone is working, none remains idle in the two hectares of land, but
in actual fact, their labour effort gets divided. Each one is doing some work but no one
is fully employed. This is the situation of
(a) Underemployment (b) Rotational employment
(c) Cycle unemployment (d) Rotational employment
OR
Along with water, which of the following will help the farmer like Laxi for farming to
improve?
(a) Government efforts (b) Cheap agricultural loan
(c) Hard working farmers (d) Skill labours
(ii) Read the information given below and select the appropriate option.
The central government in India made a law implementing the Right to Work in about
625 districts of India. It is called Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act 2005 (MGNREGA 2005). Under MGNREGA 2005, all those who
are able to, and are in need of, work in rural areas are guaranteed 100 days of
employment in a year by the government.
Every year we can give additional employment to more than 35 lakh people. Recognising
this, government of India passed an act in 2005. It is called:
(a) Right to Work Act (b) MGNREGA
(c) PMRY (d) Central Employment Scheme

OR
Which of the following objectives is not mentioned in the MGNREGA 2005?
(a) To give at least 100 days of guaranteed work in rural areas.
(b) It is required to provide employment within 10 km of an applicant’s home and to
pay maximum wage.
(c) If government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment
allowances to the people.
(d) To flourish durable assets like roads, canals, ponds and wells.
appropriate option.
A study conducted by the erstwhile Planning Commission (now known as NITI Aayog)
estimates that nearly 20 lakh jobs can be created in the education sector alone. Similarly,
if we are to improve the health situation, we need many more doctors, nurses, health
workers etc. to work in rural areas. These are some ways by which jobs would be created
and we would also be able to address the important aspects of development. Every state
or region has potential for increasing the income and employment for people in that
area. It could be tourism, or regional craft industry, or new services like IT. Some of
these would require proper planning and support from the government. For example,
the same study by the Planning Commission says that if tourism as a sector is
improved, every year we can give additional employment to more than 35 lakh people.
We must realise that some of the suggestions discussed above would take a long time
to implement. For the short-term, we need some quick measures. Recognising this, the
central government in India made a law implementing the Right to Work in about 625
districts of India. It is called Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee
Act 2005 (MGNREGA 2005). Under MGNREGA 2005, all those who are able to, and
are in need of, work in rural areas are guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year by
the government. If the government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give
unemployment allowances to the people. The types of work that would in future help to
increase the production from land will be given preference under the Act.
4.1. In which year the NITI Aayog has been set up?
(a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2017 (d) 2018
4.2. According to the given source, which of the following suggestions are suggested by
erstwhile Planning Commission to create jobs?
(a) To improve the health situation, need more doctors, nurses, health workers, etc.
(b) To improve tourism or regional craft industry.
(c) Jobs can also be created in educational field.
4.3. In how many districts in India, Government of India implemented the Right to Work?
(a) About 625 (b) About 535 (c) About 600 (d) About 800
4.4. In which year among the following years MGNREGA came into existence?
(a) 2003 (b) 2004 (c) 2005 (d) 2006
4.5. MGNREGA is referred to as
(a) Right to Water (b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Life (d) Right to Work

4.6. Which of the following is the main objective of MGNGEGA?

(a) It have given rise to the largest employment programme.
(b) It provides a legal guarantee for wage employment.
(c) It is a demand-driven programme where provision of work is triggered by the
demand for work by wage-seekers.
appropriate option.
First, in any country several services such as hospitals, educational institutions, post
and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative offices, municipal
corporations, defence, transport, banks, insurance companies, etc. are required. These
can be considered as basic services. In a developing country the government has to
take responsibility for the provision of these services. Second, the development of
agriculture and industry leads to the development of services such as transport, trade,
storage and the like, as we have already seen. Greater the development of the primary
and secondary sectors, more would be the demand for such services. Third, as income
levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services like eating
out, tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools, professional training etc.
You can see this change quite sharply in cities, especially in big cities. Fourth, over
the past decade or so, certain new services such as those based on information and
communication technology have become important and essential. The production of
these services has been rising rapidly.
5.1. Which one of the following options is considered as basic services?
(a) Village administrative officers (b) Banks
(c) Educational institutions (d) All of these
5.2. The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services such
as:
(a) Transport (b) Trade (c) Storage (d) All of these
5.3. Which of the following changes is quite sharply in cities, especially in big cities?
(a) Private hospitals (b) Private schools
(c) Tourism (d) All of these
5.4. Which of the following services rise rapidly?
(a) Banking and trade (b) Call centres
(c) Information and Communication Technology
(d) Software companies
5.5. Information and Communication Technology is a part of
(a) Tertiary sector (b) Primary sector
(c) Secondary sector (d) All of these
Assertion (A): Certain sections of people start demanding many more services
like eating out, tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools, professional
training, etc.
Reason (R): As income level of certain sections of people rise.

Answers
1. (i)–(b), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(b), (v)–(a), (vi)–(a), (vii)–(a), (viii)–(d)
2. (i)–(b), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(a), (v)–(a)
3. (i) (a) OR (b), (ii)–(b) OR (b)
4. 4.1 (b) 4.2 (d) 4.3 (a) 4.4 (c) 4.5 (d) 4.6 (d)
5. 5.1 (d) 5.2 (d) 5.3 (d) 5.4 (c) 5.5 (a) 5.6 (a)
4. Division of Sectors as Organised and Unorganised

• Organised sectors covers those enterprises, or places of work where the terms of employment
are regular and have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow
its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as Factories Act, Minimum
Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc.
• They provide job security, paid leave, provident fund, safe working environment fixed
working hours and paid over time, if they work more.
• Unorganised sectors are small and scattered units. They are largely outside the control
of the government. Rules and regulations are there but often ignored here. They don’t
have benefits like provident fund, proper leave, bonus, etc. Job insecurity, low paid and no
provision of overtime, etc. can be seen in these sectors.
• Large number of workers are forced to take up jobs in the unorganised sectors from
organised sectors since the 1990s. Hence, it needs protection and support of the workers in
the unorganised sector.
• In urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in small-scale industry,
casual workers in construction, trade and transport etc. and those who work as street
vendors, head load workers, garment makers, rag-pickers etc.
• Small scale industry needs government’s support for procuring raw material and marketing
of output. The casual workers in both rural and urban areas need to be protected. Workers
from SCs, STs and backward communities force social discrimination.
• Protection and support to the workers of unorganised sector is necessary for both economic
and social development.
EXERCISE 2.4
(i) Which among the following is a feature of unorganised sector?
(a) Fixed number of work hours (b) Paid holidays
(c) Employment is insecure (d) Registered with the government
(ii) Places of work which follow rules and regulation are termed as
(a) Organised sector (b) Unorganised sector
(c) Tertiary sector (d) Secondary sector
(iii) A labourer working under a contractor, is in which type of sector?
(a) Public sector (b) Unorganised sector
(c) Service sector (d) None of these

(iv) In which of the following organisations people cannot expect job security?
(a) Organised sector (b) Unorganised sector
(v) In which of the following organisations the provision of appointment letter is not
there?
(a) Unorganised sector (b) Primary sector
(c) Organised sector (d) Service sector
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): An individual who manufactures flour from wheat is engaged in secondary
sector.
Reason (R): When some process of manufacturing is used the product is a part of
secondary sector.
(ii) Assertion (A): Since the 1990s, it is also common to see a large number of workers
losing their jobs in the organised sector.
Reason (R): Organised factories closed due to facing heavy competition with
multinational companies.
Column I Column II
I. Organised sector 1. The government owns most of the assets and provides
all the services.
II. Unorganised sector 2. Ownership of assets and delivery of services in the
hands of private individuals or companies
III. Public sector 3. Ignores rules and regulations
IV. Private sector 4. Provides job security, paid leaves, etc.
(a) IV-2, II-4, III-1, I-3 (b) II-3, IV-2, I-4, III-1
(c) I-2, III-4, IV-3, II-1 (d) III-2, I-4, II-1, IV-3
Kanta works in an office. She attends her office from 9:30 a.m. to 5:30 p.m. She
gets her salary regularly at the end of every month. In addition to the salary, she
also gets provident fund as per the rule laid down by the government. She also gets
medical and other allowances. Kanta does not go to office on Sundays. This is a paid
holiday. When she joined work, she was given an appointment letter starting all the
terms and conditions of work.
Like Kanta, people who work in the organised sector–
(a) do not worry about medical benefits and pensions
(b) do not get security of employment
(c) do not get overtime
(d) are not sure about their paid leaves, medical benefits, etc.

OR
Many people work in the unorganised sector. Which of the following statements about
this sector is correct?
(a) It provides medical benefits. (b) It ensures security of employment.
(c) It is one where the terms of employment are regular.
(d) Jobs are low paid and some kind of work is seasonal in nature.
(ii) Read the information given below and select the correct option.
Kamal is Kanta’s neighbour. He is a daily wage labourer in a nearby grocery shop.
He goes to the shop at 7:30 in the morning and works till 8:00 p.m. in the evening.
He gets no other allowances apart from his wages. He is not paid for the days he
does not work. He has therefore no leave or paid holidays. Nor was he given any for
mal letter saying that he has been employed in the shop. He can be asked to leave
anytime by his employer.
‘This sector includes a large number of people who are employed on their own doing
small jobs like Kamal’. The statement is talk about:
(a) Unorganised sector (b) Private sector (c) Service sector (d) Organised sector
OR
Which of the following characteristics is related to the unorganised sector?
(a) It has small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the
government.
(b) Jobs here are low paid and often not regular.
(c) A lot of workers depend on the whims of the employer.
5. Table/Data Based Questions
(i) Study the given table and find out the ways for generating more employment in the city
rather than in unorganised sector by the government from the options given below.
Unorganised
Organised Sector Total
Sector
No. of workers 4,00,000 10,00,000 14,00,000
Income 32,000 million 28,000 million 60,000 million
(a) Opening a cold storage (b) Invest some money in transportation
(c) Increase vocational education courses (d) Provide cheap agricultural credit
(ii) Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate
answer from the given option.
Workers in Different Sector (In Millions)
Sector Organised Unorganised Total
Primary 1 232
Secondary 41 74 115
Tertiary 40 88 128
Total 82
Total In Percentage 100%
The table shows the estimated number of workers in India in the organised and
unorganised sectors. If we look at the country as a whole we find that 82.7% of the
workers in India are in the unorganised sector. Find out how many percent of workers
in India employ in organised sector?
(a) About 18.4% (b) About 19.3% (c) About 16.8% (d) About 17.3%


appropriate option.
The organised sector offers jobs that are the most sought-after. But the employment
opportunities in the organised sector have been expanding very slowly. It is also
common to find many organised sector enterprises in the unorganised sector. They
adopt such strategies to evade taxes and refuse to follow laws that protect labourers.
As a result, a large number of workers are forced to enter the unorganised sector
jobs, which pay a very low salary. They are often exploited and not paid a fair wage.
Their earnings are low and not regular. These jobs are not secure and have no other
benefits. Since the 1990s, it is also common to see a large number of workers losing
their jobs in the organised sector. These workers are forced to take up jobs in the
unorganised sector with low earnings. Hence, besides the need for more work, there
is also a need for protection and support of the workers in the unorganised sector.
In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly of workers in small-scale
industry, casual workers in construction, trade and transport etc., and those who work
as street vendors, head load workers, garment makers, rag pickers etc. Small-scale
industry also needs government’s support for procuring raw material and marketing
of output. The casual workers in both rural and urban areas need to be protected.
6.1. In which one of the following sectors employment opportunities have been expanding
very slowly?
(a) Organised Sector (b) Unorganised Sector
(c) Private Sector (d) Public Sector
6.2. According to the given passage, in the urban areas unorganised sector comprises
mainly of workers in–
(a) Small-scale industry (b) Casual workers in construction
(c) Trade and transport (d) All of these
6.3. Which among the following sectors adopt such strategies to evade taxes and refuse to
follow laws that protect labourers?
(a) Organised sector enterprises in the unorganised sector
(b) Unorganised sector enterprises in the organised sector
(c) Only unorganised sector
(d) Only organised sector
6.4. Which of the following sectors/industries needs government’s support for procuring
raw material and marketing of output?
(a) Public Sector (b) Unorganised Sector
(c) Organised Sector (d) Small-scale Industry
6.5. Mohan is a labourer in a near by shop. He gets unpaid holidays and his working hours
are not fixed. He works in–
(a) Private sector (b) Organised sector
(c) Unorganised sector (d) None of these
6.6. Since the ................... it is also common to see a large number of workers losing their
jobs in the ................... sector.
(a) 1990s, organised (b) 1980s, unorganised
(c) 2000s, organised (d) 2010s, organised

appropriate option.
In the rural areas, the unorganised sector mostly comprises of landless agricultural
labourers, small and marginal farmers, sharecroppers and artisans (such as weavers,
blacksmiths, carpenters and goldsmiths). Nearly 80 per cent of rural households in
India are in small and marginal farmer category. These farmers need to be supported
through adequate facility for timely delivery of seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, storage
facilities and marketing outlets. In the urban areas, unorganised sector comprises mainly
of workers in small-scale industry, casual workers in construction, trade and transport
etc., and those who work as street vendors, head load workers, garment makers, rag
pickers etc. Small-scale industry also needs government’s support for procuring raw
material and marketing of output. The casual workers in both rural and urban areas
need to be protected. We also find that majority of workers from scheduled castes,
tribes and backward communities find themselves in the unorganised sector. Besides
getting the irregular and low paid work, these workers also face social discrimination.
Protection and support to the unorganised sector workers is thus necessary for both
economic and social development.
7.1. In the rural areas the unorganised sector comprises of:
(a) Landless agricultural labourers (b) Small and marginal farmers
(c) Sharecroppers and artisans (d) All of these
7.2. Which among the following farmers need to be supported through adequate facility for
seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, etc.?
(a) Small and marginal farmer (b) Landless agricultural farmer
(c) Prosperours farmer (d) All of these
7.3. Small-scale industry needs government’s support for:
(a) Procurring raw material (b) Marketing of output
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Large scale of labour
7.4. Which of the social communities is mostly engaged is urorganised sector?
(a) Scheduled castes (b) Scheduled tribes
(c) Backward communities (d) All of these
7.5. Besides getting the irregular and low paid work, which of the following workers also
face social discrimination?
(a) Scheduled castes (b) Backward communities
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Marginal worker
7.6. Read the following statements and find the CORRECT regarding workers condition
from the given options.
I. In urban areas, unorganised sector consists of basically of workers in small-scale
industry, casual workers, street vendors, head load workers, garment workers,
etc.
II. In rural areas, about 80% of a households in India are in small and marginal
farmer category.
(a) I Only (b) II Only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(b), (v)–(a) 2. (i)–(d), (ii)–(a)
3. (b) 4. (i) (a) OR (d), (ii) (a) OR (d) 5. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d)
6. 6.1 (a) 6.2 (d) 6.3 (a) 6.4 (d) 6.5 (c) 6.6 (a)
7. 7.1 (d) 7.2 (a) 7.3 (c) 7.4 (d) 7.5 (c) 7.6 (c)
5. Sectors in Terms of Ownership: Public and Private Sectors

• Public sectors are those sectors where assets are own by the government and provides all
the services. Example: Railways, post office, etc.
• Private sectors are those sectors where ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the
hands of private individuals or companies. Example: TISCO, RIL, etc. In private sector to
get services, have to pay money to companies or private individuals.
• Such things that needed by the society as a whole are undertaken by the government and
ensure these facilities are available for everyone. For example; roads, railways, electricity,
dams, etc.
• The private sector may not continue their production or business unless government
encourages it.
• The Government in India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a fair price and stores in its
godowns and then sells at a lower price to consumers through ration shops. In this way, the
government supports both farmers and consumers.
• There are large number of activities which are the primary responsibility of the government.
The government must spend on these.
• Government should provide health and education facilities for all. It needs to pay attention to
aspects of human development such as availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities
for the poor and food nutrition. It also the duty of the government to take care of the poorest
and most ignored regions of the country through increased spending in such areas.
EXERCISE 2.5
(i) The sector in which the productive units are owned, maintained and managed by
government
(a) Organised sector (b) Primary sector
(c) Public sector (d) Industrial sector
(ii) In terms of ownership, enterprises owned by individuals are known as ________ .
(a) Public sector (b) Primary sector
(c) Unorganised sector (d) Private sector
(iii) Which of the following may not continue their production or business unless government
encourages it?
(a) Public sector (b) Private sector
(iv) Which among the following is responsible for the education facilities?
(a) NGOs (b) Government
(c) Private sector (d) People themselves

(v) Choose the correct option from the following.

List I (Example) List II (Sectors)
(a) SAIL Private Sector
(b) TISCO Public Sector
(c) Post Office Public Sector
(d) NTPC Private Sector
Options:
(i) Assertion (A): The Government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at fair price.
Reason (R): Public sector contributes to the economic development.
(ii) Assertion (A): Reliance industries is a privately-owned firm.
Reason (R): Government is a major stakeholder is reliance industries.
(iii) Assertion (A): There are several goods and services that the society needs; however,
the private sector does not produce all of them.
Reason (R): Private sector is profit-driven.
Read the information given below and select the appropriate option.
Similarly, we know that nearly half of India’s children are malnourished and a quarter of
them are critically ill. We have read about Infant Mortality Rates. The infant mortality
rate of Odisha (41) or Madhya Pradesh (47) is higher than some of the poorest
regions of the world. Government also needs to pay attention to aspects of human
development such as availability of safe drinking water, housing facilities for the poor
and food and nutrition.
It indicates the number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of
1000 live children born in that particular year. It is called:
(a) Child sex ratio (b) Infant mortality rate
(c) Net attendance ratio (d) Child mortality rate
OR
Which among the following states has lowest and highest infant mortality rates in India?
(a) Goa and Kerala respectively
(b) Manipur and Madhya Pradesh respectively
(c) Goa and Madya Pradesh respectively
(d) Kerala and Uttar Pradesh respectively
Answers
1. (i)–(c), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(b), (v)–(c) 2. (i)–(a), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(a)
3. (b) OR (c)

Graph Based Questions

1. Study the graph and answer the question that follows:
Graph 1. GDP by Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Sectors
Which one of the following options best signifies this graph?

(a) Primary sector was the largest producing sector in 1973-74.
(b) Tertiary sector is the largest producing sector in 2013-2014.
(c) Tertiary sector has grown the most over 40 years.
2. Study the given data in graph and find out what it shows from the given options.
Graph 2 : Share of Sectors in GDP(%) Sectors
100%
90%
80%
60%
60%
50%
40%
30%
20%
10%
0%
1973-74 2013-14
Primary Secondery Tertiary
(a) It presents percentage share of the three sectors in GDP.

(b) It shows the share of employment in the three sectors.
(c) It shows the tertiary sectors share largest GDP in 2013-14.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. 1. (d) 2. (c)

E:\New Working\EG_Social_Science-10_(Term_1)\Open\05_Sample Papers\05_Sample Papers
Sample Paper - 1
(Issued by CBSE on 2nd September, 2021)
Time Allowed: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:
(i) The Question Paper contains four sections.
(ii) Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
(iii) Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
(iv) Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10 questions.
(v) Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
(vi) All questions carry equal marks.
(vii) There is no negative marking.
SECTION-A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions)
1. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Europe’ underground secret society
in Berne?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Count Cavour (d) Otto von Bismark
2. Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union, 1707?
(a) Unification of Germany (b) Unification of the kingdom of Great Britain
(c) Unification of Italy (d) Unification of Vietnam
3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the ‘Zollverein’ from the following options:
(a) It was a coalition of Prussian states formed to manage political alliances.
(b) Its aim was to bind the Prussia politically into an association.
(c) It was a customs union at the initiative of Prussia.
(d) It helped to awaken and raise national sentiment in Europe.
4. Which of the following countries were involved in the Three Wars with Prussia and ended
with victory and unification of Germany?.
(a) Austria, Poland and France (b) Austria, Denmark and France
(c) Austria, Turkey and France (d) Austria, England and France
5. Identify the ideology under which people demanded freedom of markets in early-nineteenth
century Europe.
(a) Romanticism (b) Liberalism (c) Socialism (d) Rationalism
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in:
(a) Groundnut – Assam (b) Tea – Gujarat
(c) Coffee – Karnataka (d) Sugarcane – Chhattisgarh
7. The piece of land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years is called _________.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Barren land (b) Forest land (c) Grazing land (d) Fallow land
119
8. Which one of the following conferences convened to discuss environmental protection and
socio-economic development at the global level in 1992?
(a) Kyoto Protocol (b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit (d) World Summit on Sustainable Development
9. India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure
perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects?
(a) Plains (b) Plateaus (c) Islands (d) Mountains
10. Which one of the following human activities has contributed significantly in land
degradation?
(a) Deforestation (b) Crop rotation (c) Shelter belts (d) Ploughing
11. Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution?
(a) Nepal (b) India (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh
12. Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options.
(a) Reduces socio-economic conflicts (b) Provides ethnic-cultural development
(c) Allows people to enjoy specific rights (d) Restricts supremacy of one party
13. Apart from the Central and the State Governments, Belgium has a third kind of government
as well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options:
(a) Democratic Government (b) Socialist Government
(c) Community Government (d) Liberal Government
14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘Coming Together Federation’?
(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) USA (d) Belgium
15. Why is the power shared amongst different organs of government called as horizontal
distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.
(a) It gives judiciary more power than legislature and executive.
(b) It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level.
(c) It gives representation to different ideologies at political level.
(d) It influences and coordinates in the decision-making process.
16. In India’s federal system, the Central and the State governments have the power to legislate
on all those subjects which are included in the:
(a) Union list (b) State list (c) Concurrent list (d) Residuary subjects
17. Which of the following states of India enjoy special powers under Article 371-A of the
Constitution of India?
(a) Nagaland (b) Rajasthan (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
18. Which one the following is an example of Primary Sector activity?
(a) Baking (b) Outsourcing (c) Farming (d) Banking
19. Which of the following measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and
above age group?
(a) Net Attendance Ratio (b) Enrolment Rate
(c) Literacy Rate (d) Drop out Ratio
20. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?
(a) The total income of the country divided by its earning population.
(b) The total income of the country divided by its total population.
(c) The total income of all the residents of the country.
(d) The total income from the domestic and foreign sources.

21. Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index (HDI)?
(a) Improvement in science, information and technology
(b) Improvement in health, education and income
(c) Improvement in information and communication
(d) Improvement in investment, finance and technology
22. “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.”
Which of the following is the essence of this statement?
(a) Economic Development (b) Human Development
(c) Sustainable Development (d) National Development
23. Which of the following examples fall under an organized sector?
(a) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor
(b) An engineer getting all employment benefits
(c) A cleaning staff in a private school
(d) A tailor stitching clothes at his home
24. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 states a guarantee
of minimum 100 days of employment per year. If government is unable to fulfil these 100
days of an employment the government would have to ............................. .
(a) Pay the compensation in lieu of these days
(b) Provide another scheme for the same
(c) Pay at least 1/3 per cent allowance
(d) Provide health care as compensation
SECTION-B
25. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the Romantic
Era and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its name from among the following options.
Options:
(a) Marianna (b) Philip Viet (c) Germania (d) La Italia
26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Balkan nationalism?
I. The Balkan region became part of the conflict because of the Ottoman Empire.
II. The region comprised of ethnic groups included Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro, etc.
III. British and ethnic nationalities struggled to establish their identity.
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) Only II (d) Only I
Sample Paper - 1 121

27. Why did the weavers in Silesia revolt against contractors in 1845? Identify the appropriate
reason from the following options.
(a) Contractors did not pay their dues. (b) Contractors appointed a few on high posts.
(c) Contactors used government policies.
(d) Contractors gave them loans on high interests.
28. Identify the major aspect that helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain.
(a) In 1688, the monarch of Britain fought war with English Parliament.
(b) The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy.
(c) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Ireland and Wales.
(d) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of many revolts.
29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below.
• develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall
• is low in humus content
• found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(a) Forest soil (b) Yellow soil (c) Black soil (d) Laterite soil
30. Which of the following categories of resources can we put Tidal energy in?
(a) Renewable resources (b) Non-renewable resources
(c) Actual resources (d) Potential resources
31. Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using the codes
given below:
I. It is good for democracy. II. It creates harmony in different groups.
III. It brings transparency in the governance.
IV. It brings socio-political competition among parties.
Options:
(a) I, II & III (b) II, III & IV (c) I, III & IV (d) I, II & IV
32. How Judiciary acts as an umpire in a federal nation?
(a) Judiciary rules over Centre and State. (b) Centre and Judiciary work collectively.
(c) Courts can change structure of Constitution
(d) Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution.
33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read
Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted Sinhala as the official language of the state.
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to foster their culture, language and
religion.
Options:
34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.
Column A Column B
I. Information Technology 1. Concurrent List
II. Police 2. Union List
III. Education 3. State List
IV. Defence 4. Residuary Subjects

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a) I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2 (b) I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2
(c) I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2 (d) I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3
35. Anita is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment to Central Government
positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the 8th Schedule can she opt to take
the exam in? Select the appropriate option.
(a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 25
36. Identify the administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the following
information.
• Power shared between Central and State Governments to Local Governments.
• It is called as a third tier of the Government.
• The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Federal system (b) Unitary Federal system
(c) Decentralised system (d) Unitary system
37. Which of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state?
I. More powers with Centre II. Residuary subjects with Centre
III. Equal subjects with Centre and States IV. Currency and Railways with Centre
Options:
(a) I, III & IV (b) I, II & IV (c) II, III & IV (d) II, III & IV
38. Identify the correct statement/s about the theory of Federalism in the Indian Constitution.
I. The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.
II. Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic
to the structure of the Constitution.
III. It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.
IV. The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement.
Options:
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) I & III (d) II & IV
Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much socio-economic development
has happened in a country.
Reason (R): Comparison of national income of two countries explains Human Development
Index.
Options:
40. Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) Courier Tertiary Sector
(b) Fisherman Secondary Sector
(c) Carpenter Primary Sector
(d) Transporter Secondary Sector

41. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer
from the given options :
Table For Comparison of Three Countries
Monthly income of citizens in 2007 (in Rupees)
Countries I II III IV V
Country A 9500 10500 9800 10000 10200
Country B 500 500 500 500 48000
Country C 5000 1000 15000 4000 25000
Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries
after every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to choose any one out
of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job location. She calculates
average income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred
to Country A.
Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.
(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable (b) Has most equitable distribution of income
(c) National income of its citizens is higher (d) Average income of its citizens is lower
42. Vijay is undernourished as his weight is 45 kgs and his height is 1.78 meters. Find out
his Body Mass Index (BMI) from the following options.
(a) 12.6 (b) 13.5 (c) 14.7 (d) 15.2
43. A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets meagre salary
after working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave, rather her employer
deducts her salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in which of the following
sectors she is working?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Service Sector (c) Organised Sector (d) Unorganised Sector
44. According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) in
India was
 Primary Sector - 44%  Secondary Sector - 25%  Tertiary Sector - 31%
Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in Primary Sector high? Select
the most suitable option from the following:
(a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed
(b) Low job opportunities in Secondary Sector
(c) Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors
(d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in Secondary Sector
Assertion (A): Crude oil reserves in the entire world are depleting, we need to find a
sustainable substitute for it.
Reason (R): Oil and petrol prices are increasing day by day.
Options:
(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true
46. A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual work.
His wife and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day. Of which type of
employment is this an example?
(a) Disguised employment (b) Seasonal employment
(c) Over employment (d) Cyclical employment

SECTION-C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section.
Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most
appropriate option:
Grimms’ Fairy Tales is a familiar name in Germany. The brothers Jacob and Wilhelm
Grimm were born in the German city of Hanau. While both of them studied law, they soon
developed an interest in collecting old folktales. They spent six years travelling from village
to village, talking to people and writing down fairy tales, which were handed down through
the generations. These were popular both among children and adults.
In 1812, they published their first collection of tales. Subsequently, both the brothers became
active in liberal politics, especially the movement for freedom of the press. In the meantime,
they also published a 33-volume dictionary of the German language.
The Grimm brothers also saw French domination as a threat to German culture and believed
that the folktales they had collected were expressions of a pure and authentic German spirit.
They considered their projects of collecting folktales and developing the German language as
part of the wider effort to oppose French domination and create a German national identity.
47. Why did the Grimm brothers give the tales a readable form without changing their folkloric
character? Choose the correct options from the following:
(a) The collection enjoyed wide distribution in Germany.
(b) It became a model for the collecting of fantasy tales.
(c) It formed the basis for the science of the language.
(d) People easily accepted their written adventurous tales.
48. The impact of literary contributions of Grimm brothers was widespread. Identify the best
suitable option depicting the same from the following:
(a) Development of cities and towns (b) Setting up of new political parties
(c) Promotion of ethnic belonging (d) Emergence of socialist ideology
49. Fill in the blank from the given options.
The work of the Grimm Brothers influenced and inspired people to collect tales. They
believed in a spirit of ____________ and considered it essential for the reflection of national
identity.
(a) Culturalism (b) Conservatism (c) Extremism (d) Liberalism
50. Why the foreign domination was considered a threat to nation building? Select the best
suitable option from the following in reference to the context.
(a) Exploitation of natural resources (b) Erosion of native values and ethos
(c) Violence and mass killing of people (d) Spread of new diseases in the country
51. How were the Germans able to connect with their culture? With reference to the above
context, infer the appropriate option.
(a) Through the feeling of formal way of communication
(b) Through the feeling of oneness as European community
(c) Through the feeling of collective belonging among nationals
(d) Through the feeling of coherence in reference to mannerism
Assertion (A): Regimes of 1815 did not tolerate criticism and dissent.
Reason (R): Conservative regimes were autocratic.

Options:
appropriate option:
There has been a gradual shift from cultivation of food crops to cultivation of fruits, vegetables,
oil-seeds and industrial crops. This has led to the reduction in net sown area under cereals
and pulses. With the growing population of India, the declining food production puts a big
question mark over the country’s future food security.
The competition for land between non-agricultural uses such as housing etc. and agriculture
has resulted in reduction in the net sown area. The productivity of land has started showing a
declining trend. Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results,
are now being held responsible for degrading the soils. Periodic scarcity of water has led to
reduction in area under irrigation. Inefficient water management has led to water logging
and salinity.
53. One can infer from the above given information that marginal and small farmers have
been pushed out of cultivation. Which one of the following is the prominent cause?
(a) Food and fruit crops are expensive in market
(b) Shift to multifarious crops according to demand
(c) Periodic scarcity of water in many regions
(d) Soil degradation and extensive Green Revolution
54. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options:
I. Indian farmers are diversifying their cropping pattern.
II. They are shifting production from cereals to fruits, vegetables, etc.
III. Jute is in high demand in the Indian market.
Options:
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) III Only (d) II Only
55. According to the information given above, there has been reduction in the net sown area
under cereals and pulses. Identify the reason.
(a) Lack of markets to sell cereals and pulses
(b) Earn more income from non-agricultural sector
(c) Need of huge labour in cultivating cereals and pulses
(d) Availability of more profits from commercial crops
56. ‘Fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides, which once showed dramatic results, are now being
held responsible for degrading the soil.’ Infer the positive effects of these inputs noticed
earlier from the following statements.
(a) These inputs have shown increased outputs and productivity.
(b) These are integral to the process of reducing agrarian losses.
(c) These inputs can cut the amount of harvestable produce.
(d) These are the leading causes of mortality and health problems.
57. There are states in India which are using fertilisers, pesticides and insecticides at excessive
level to increase their agricultural production. Identify the states which are at prominent
level from the following options.
(a) Karnataka and Kerala (b) Haryana and Punjab
(c) Punjab and Gujarat (d) Haryana and Telangana

58. Food production provides the base for food security and is a key determinant of food
availability. Why is this trend shifting towards industrial crops? Choose the correct option
in reference to the context.
(a) To improve the land use pattern (b) To use intensive farming techniques
(c) To improve the fertility of soil (d) To fetch more income and high profit
SECTION-D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
information.
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
32°
32°
A
28° 28°
B
24°
24°
20°
20°
16°
16°
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
59. On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a Dam. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Salal (b) Bhakra-Nangal (c) Tehri (d) Rana Pratap Sagar
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is also marked as a major Tea cultivating state. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) Assam (b) Punjab (c) Bihar (d) Gujarat

Sample Paper - 2
Same as Sample Paper-1.
SECTION-A
1. Which of the following artists prepared a series of four prints visualising his dream of a
world?
(a) Auguste Rodin (b) Frederic Sorrieu (c) Edgar Degas (d) Berthe Morisot
2. Leading the procession, way past the Statue of Liberty, the peoples of Germany were
bearing which of the following flags?
(a) Black (b) Red (c) Gold (d) Black, red and gold
3. Identify the person who formed ‘Young Italy’, a secret society?
(a) Mazzini (b) Metternich (c) Wilhelm Wolff (d) Bismarck
4. What does La patrie mean?
(a) The citizen (b) The motherland (c) The fatherland (d) The country
5. Identify the female allegory which represented the peoples nations in France?
(a) Marianne (b) Bharat Mata (c) Germania (d) None of these
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the industries in India from the following options:
(a) Cotton – Srinagar (b) Jute – Jaipur
(c) Woollen – Ludhiana (d) Silk – Kanpur
7. The piece of land left cultivated for more than 5 years is called _________ .
(a) Cultruable waste land (b) Barren land
(c) Grazing land (d) Net sown area
8. What is jhumming cultivation called in Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Dahiya (b) Kumari (c) Khil (d) Podu or Penda
9. Which one of the following is not the basis of the classification of resources?
(a) Origin (b) Shape (c) Ownership (d) Exhaustibility
10. Which crop is harvested in the months of September-October?
(a) Zaid (b) Rabi (c) Kharif (d) None of these
11. Which of the following compositions of the Belgium is very complex?
(a) Ethinic (b) Population (c) Religions (d) Sect
12. Modern democracies maintain check and balance system. Identify the correct option based
on the horizontal power sharing arrangement.
(a) Central government, state government, local bodies
(b) Legislature, Executive, Judiciary
(c) Among different social groups
(d) Among different pressure groups
128
13. Which country is an example of coming together federation?

(a) USA (b) Belgium (c) Sri Lanka (d) India
14. Which of the following Indian states enjoys special power under certain provisions of Article
371 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Assam (b) Nagaland
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) All of these
15. Population of Sri Lankan Tamils is concentrated in which of the following regions of
Sri Lanka?
(a) North and South (b) North and East (c) East and West (d) South and East
16. How many languages are included in the Eight Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 15 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 21
17. Which type of powers does the Community Government to Belgum enjoy?
(a) The government has the power regarding culture related issue
(b) The government has the power regarding education related issue
(c) The government has the power regarding language related issue
18. Economic development by maintaining the natural resources for present and future use
is known as
(a) Sustainable development (b) Planned development
(c) Human Development Index (d) Development
19. Which of the following helps in maintaining the nutritional levels of poor people by proving
food at lower cost.
(a) BMI (Body Mass Index) (b) PDS (Public Distribution System)
(c) GNI (Gross National Income) (d) HDI (Human Development Index)
20. Which of the following objectives is not mentioned in the MGNREGA 2005?
(a) To give at least 100 days of guaranteed work in rural areas.
(b) It is required to provide employment within 10 km of an applicant’s home and to pay
maximum wage.
(c) If government fails in its duty to provide employment, it will give unemployment
allowances to the people.
(d) To flourish durable assets like roads, canals, ponds and wells.
21. Which of the following sectors is the largest employer in India?
(a) IT Sector (b) Primary Sector (c) Secondary Sector (d) Tertiary Sector
22. Among Haryana, Kerala and Bihar, the lowest per capita income state is Bihar. It shows
that
(a) Bihar has high standard of living. (b) People are earning less in Kerala.
(c) Maharashtra has more number of rich people.
(d) On an average, people in Bihar have low income.
23. Which sector helps in the development of the primary and secondary sector?
(a) Public sector (b) Private sector (c) Tertiary sector (d) None of these
24. Read the given statements in context of ‘National development’ and choose the correct
option.
(a) It is measured by National Income.
(b) It is measured by Average Income and Per Capita Income.
(c) It is measured by Human Development Index.
(d) It is measured by Net Attendance Ratio.

SECTION-B
25. Following image represents here as a postman who had reformed
the French legal system. Identify its name from among the
following options.

(a) Otto von Bismark
(b) Frederic Sorrieu
(c) Napoleon Bonaparte
(d) Karl Marx
26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Ernst Renan?
I. He was a German philosopher who gave the idea of ‘what is a nation’.
II. He was a French philosopher.
III. He gave the idea of ‘what is a nation’.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) Only III (d) Only I
27. Which of the following treaties recognized Greece as an independent nation?
(a) Treaty of Sevres (b) Treaty of Versailles
(c) Treaty of Lausanne (d) Treaty of Constantinople
28. Identify the correct statement about the liberal nationalists of Europe from the options
given below.
(a) They emphasized the concept of government by the consent of the people.
(b) They criticized the glorification of science.
(c) They created a sense of collective heritage.
(d) They did not stand for the freedom of markets.
29. Identify the crop with the help of clues given below.
• requires high temperature
• is a Kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to mature
• grows well in black soil
(a) Rubber (b) Cotton (c) Rice (d) Maize
30. Which of the following is not the soil conservation method?
(a) Terracing of slopes (b) Strip cropping
(c) Contour ploughing (d) None of these
31. Consider the following statements of Power Sharing and select the answer using the codes
given below.
I. Power sharing upholds the spirit of democracy.
II. It reduces the possibilities of conflicts between social groups.
III. It ensures political stability in the long run.
IV. It is the kind of balancing powers.
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) I, II and III
32. Which are the two major ethnic groups of Belgium?
(a) French and German (b) Dutch and French
(c) Dutch and German (d) None of these

Assertion (A) : When the power is taken away from control and state governments and
given to local government, it is called decentralisation.
Reason (R) : The basis idea behind decentralisation is that there is a large number of
problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.
Options:
Column A Column B
I. Sri Lanka 1. BAMCEF
II. Belgium 2. Community government
III. Pressure group 3. Sinhala
IV. Belgian model of power sharing 4. Complex ethric composition
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
35. Hindi is the mother tongue of about 40 per cent of Indians. Besides Hindi, how many other
languages recognised as scheduled languages by the Indian Constitution?
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 20 (d) 21
36. Identify the community on the basis of their demands in the government of Sri Lanka.
• Demand of recognition as an official language.
• Equal opportunities for them in government jobs and educational institutions.
• Provincial autonormy for their dominated provinces.
(a) Buddhists (b) Tamils (c) Sinhalas (d) Muslims
37. Which of the following options prove the impact of the civil war in Sri Lanka?
I. Thousands of people of both the Sinhala community and Tamil community were killed.
II. Finally preferences were given to Sinhala applicants for university positions and
government jobs.
III. Many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and many more lost their
livelihoods.
IV. It caused a terrible setback to the social, cultural and economic lives of the country.
(a) I, II and IV (b) I, II and III (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
38. Identify the correct statement/s about of federal system of the government.
I. A federation has two levels of government, and the central and state governments are
separately answerable to the people.
II. Federations are considered with unitary system.
III. In federal system, the central government can pass orders to the provincial or the local
government.
IV. In this system, the state government is answerable to the central government.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I and IV

Assertion (A) : Different people having different developmental goals.
Reason (R) : Different people having different life situations.
Options:
(a) Dairy farming Secondary sector
(b) Convert soil into bricks Primary sector
(c) Agriculture Tertiary sector
(d) Registered big units Organised sector
41. Read the given data which gives an estimate of reserves of crude oil. Select the correct
option which defines how it is essential for the development process of a country.
Region/Country Reserves (2017) Number of Years
(Thousand Million Barrels) Reserves will last
Middle East 808 70
United States of America 50 10.5
World 1697 50.2
(a) If prices of crude oil increase this becomes a burden for all.
(b) Reserves of crude oil are going to last for 50 years and more.
(c) Middle East and USA may face energy crisis in future due to exhaustion of crude oil.
(d) Crude oil is a major source of energy for agriculture and industrial development.
42. Rahul works in a small shop. Like him, many people work in the unorganised sector. Which
of the following statements about this sector is correct?
(a) Jobs are low paid. (b) It ensures security of employment.
(c) It provides medical benefits. (d) Terms of employment are regular.
43. There are many activities that are undertaken by directly using natural resources. For the
growth of some plants, we depend mainly, but not entirely on natural factors like rainfall,
sunshine and climate. Find out when we produce a product using natural resources, it
refers to which of the following sectors?
(a) Primary sector (b) Industrial sector (c) Service sector (d) Public sector
44. According to 2018-19 data, the infant mortality rate (IMR) and literacy rate of Kerala,
Bihar and Haryana are:
 Kerala — 10 (IMR), 94 (literacy rate)
 Bihar — 35 (IMR), 62 (literacy rate)
 Haryana — 30 (IMR), 82 (literacy rate)
The infant mortality rate (IMR) is lowest in Bihar while the literacy rate is highest in
Kerala. What does it indicate?
(a) Bihar and Kerala lack essential necessities in life.
(b) The standard of living in Bihar is better than Kerala.
(d) Mostly people in Bihar and Kerala have good living condition.

Assertion (A): There are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and
educated workers.
Reason (R): Not all of the service sector is growing equally well.
Options:
46. National development is measured by
(a) Average Income and Per Capita Income (b) Net Attendance Ratio
(c) National Income (d) Human Development Index
SECTION-C
Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
appropriate option.
The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. France,
as you would remember, was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the rule of an
absolute monarch. The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the
French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French
citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute
the nation and shape its destiny.
From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and
practices that could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. The ideas
of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of a united
community enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the tricolour, was
chosen to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was elected by the body of
active citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New hymns were composed, oaths taken
and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of the nation. A centralised administrative
system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and
measures was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and
written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.
47. The first expression of nationalism came with which of the following revolutions?
(a) The Russian Revolution (b) The French Revolution
(c) Greek War of Independence (d) The American Revolution
48. When did the French Revolution take place?
(a) In 1889 (b) In 1789 (c) In 1788 (d) In 1751
49. Fill in the blank from the given options.
The idea of la patrie mean ___________ .
(a) The fatherland (b) The motherland (c) The citizen (d) The constitution
50. Identify the purpose of the French revolutionaries from the following options:
(a) To establish republic (b) To provide equal rights for all
(c) To create a sense for collective responsibility

51. Which of the following measures was not adopted by the French revolutionaries?
(a) Ideas of la patrie and le citoyen (b) The tricolour French flag
(c) Hymns composed (d) Regional dialects were encouraged
Assertion (A) : The major changes that came with the French Revolution led to the
transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to the body of French people.
Reason (R) : Regional dialects were incouraged and French was written in Paris.
Options:
appropriate option.
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from
April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
Through, these crops are grown in large parts of India, states from the north and north-
western parts such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir (UT),
Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are important for the production of wheat and other rabi
crops. Availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate
cyclones help in the success of these crops. However, the success of the green revolution in
Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh and Parts of Rajasthan has also been an important
factor in the growth of the above mentioned rabi crops.
Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of the country and
these are harvested in September-October. Important crops grown during this season are
paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean.
Some of the most important rice growing regions are Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions
of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Karala and Maharashtra, particularly
the (Konkan coast) along with Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. Recently, paddy has also become an
important crop of Punjab and Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three
crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are Aus, Aman and Boro.
53. Which of the following crops grown in rabi season?
(a) Wheat, barley, gram, maize (b) Gram, wheat, peas, barley
(c) Peas, paddy, cotton, jute (d) Bajra, paddy, wheat, watermelon
54. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options.
I. Gram, wheat, barley and peas are rabi crops.
II. Kharif crops are harvested in July-August.
III. In Assam, two crops of paddy are grown in a year.
55. This important kharif crop is used both for food and fodder–
(a) Maize (b) Barley (c) Muskmelon (d) Wheat
56. Which of the following is not a kharif crop?
(a) Arhar (b) Moong (c) Cotton (d) Mustard
57. The staple food of India is
(a) Soyabean (b) Rice (c) Maize (d) Gram
58. Bora, Aus and Aman are types of which of the following crops?
(a) Paddy (b) Bajra (c) Maize (d) Jowar

SECTION-D
On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
32°
32°
28° 28°
24°
A
24°
20°
20°
16°
16°
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
59. On the political map of India, ‘A’ is marked as a dam. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Tungabhadra (b) Hirakud
(c) Rana Pratap Sagar (d) Sardar Sarovar
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is marked as a major coffee cultivating state. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) Assam (b) West Bengal (c) Gujarat (d) Karnataka

Sample Paper - 3
Same as Sample Paper-1.
SECTION-A
1. Who among the following had prepared a series of four prints called ‘The Dream of
Worldwide Democratic and Social Republic’?
(a) Giuesppe Garibaldi (b) Frederic Sorrieu
(c) Count Cavour (d) Andreas Rebmann
2. The cover of a German almanac designed by whom among the following journalists?
(a) Andreas Rebmann (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Karl Kaspar Fritz (d) Giacomo Mantegazza
3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the French revolutionaries from the following
options.
(a) They introduced various measures and practices that could create a sense of collective
identify.
(b) The ideas of la patrie and le citoyen.
(c) A new French flag was chosen to replace the former royal standard
(d) All of the above statements
4. In which of the following cities the French armies were initially welcomed?
(a) Brussels (b) Mainz (c) Switzerland (d) Only A and B
5. Identify the year in which Napoleon invaded Italy and Napoleonic wars were begun?
(a) 1758 (b) 1797 (c) 1799 (d) 1801
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and their categories or names from the
following options:
(a) Golden fibre – Jute (b) Fibre crop – rubber
(c) Food crop – Cotton (d) Non-food crop – Silk
7. Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised is called ___________ .
(a) Developed Resources (b) Stock Resources
(c) Potential Resources (d) Reserve Resources
8. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive cultivation (b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation (d) Overgrazing
9. Which of the following rivers have been deposited the alluvial soil in the northern plains
of India?
(a) Indus, Ganga and Narmada (b) Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godavari (d) Ganga, Mahanadi and Krishna
136
10. Which of the following crops is grown once a year?

(a) Sugarcane (b) Cotton
(c) Rice (d) Pulses
11. In which of the following countries the majority community could impose its will on the
entire country?
(a) Belgium (b) Sri Lanka (c) Pakistan (d) Nepal
12. Identify the significant reason for adopted a majoritarianism Constitution in Sri Lanka?
(a) The Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of
their majority.
(b) Most of the population in Sri Lanka wanted to dominance over government.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) The Sinhala community wanted to supress the Tamils.
13. When the power is shared among governments at different levels it is called–
(a) Horizontal Government (b) Fedral Government
(c) Unitary Government (d) Democratic Government
14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘holding together’ federations?
(a) USA (b) Belgium (c) Australia (d) Switzerland
15. In which of the following forms of government, the citizens must have freedom to choose
among various contenders for power?
(a) Democratic Government (b) Republic Government
(c) Dictatorial Government (d) Majoritarian Government
16. Which of the following plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of
constitutional provisions and procedures?
(a) Legislative (b) Judiciary (c) Executive (d) Only (a) and (c)
17. Which of the following years witnessed the rise of regional political parties in many states
of India?
(a) 1989 (b) 1985 (c) 1990 (d) 1992
18. Which of the following sectors generates services rather than goods?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Secondary Sector (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Service sector
19. If the BMI of a boy aged 15 years and 6 month is 28, then he is
(a) Malnutrition (b) Average weight (c) Overweight (d) Underweight
20. Which of the following measures the proprotion of literate population in the 7 and above
age group?
(a) Net Education Ratio (b) Literacy Rate
(c) Infant Education Rate (d) All India Literacy Rate
21. Which of the following is not an important goal of people’s life?
(a) Good education (b) Blood donation
(c) High salaried job (d) Facilities for going abroad
22. Development is possible without the overuse of resources. In this context choose the correct
option which describes the importance of sustainable development.
(a) It helps in maintaining ecological balance.
(b) It promotes an efficient use of natural resources.
(c) It lays emphasis on quality of life.

E:\Working\EG_Social_Science-10_(Term_1)_(18-09-2021)\Open_Files\05_Sample Papers\05_Sample Papers
23. In which of the following sectors where the terms of employment are regular and, therefore,
people have assured work?
(a) Service sector (b) Government sector
(c) Unorganised sector (d) Organised sector
24. The Infant Mortality Rate of Odisha or ..................... is higher than some of the poorest
regions of the world.
(a) Jharkhand (b) Chhattisgarh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Bihar
SECTION-B
25. Following image is a personality who along with other officials gathered on 18 January
1871 in the Hall of Mirrors. Which of the options best embarks this caricature?
Options:
(a) Napoleon in the French Paraliament
(b) Otto van Bismark in the German Reichstag (Parliament)
(c) Victor Emmanuel II in the Prussian Parliament
(d) Kaiser William II in the German Reichstag (Parliament)
26. Which of the following option (s) is/are correct about the nation-building process in Germany?
I. The Prussian king Willian I was proclaimed German Emperor.
II. The new state placed a strong emphasis on modernising the currency, banking, legal
and and judicial systems in Germany.
III. Prussian measures and practices often became a model for the rest of Germany.
Options:
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) Only II (d) I, II and III
27. Why did the female figure become an allegory of the nation? Identify the appropriate
reason from the following options.
(a) The female did not stand for any particular woman in real life.
(b) The female sought to give the abstract idea of the nation a concrete form.
(d) The female represented the ideas such as Liberty, ‘Justice and the Republic.
28. Identify the major aspect that incorporated Ireland into United Kingdom.
(a) Catholic revolts against British dominance were suppressed.

(b) The revolt led by wolfe Tone and his United Kingdom was forcibly supressed.
(d) The British declared war against Ireland.
29. Identify the soils with help of clues given below.
• They are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature.
• The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by Kankar.
• After proper irrigation these soils become cultivable.
(a) Laterite soils (b) Forest soils (c) Arid soils (d) Black soils
30. Which of the following categories of resources can we put pasture lands in?
(a) Reserve Resources (b) Community-owned resources
(c) Individual resources (d) National Resources
31. Consider the following statements on accommodation in Belgium and select the answer
using the codes given below.
I. The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French speaking ministers
shall be equal in the central government.
II. No single community can make decisions unilaterally.
III. The state governments are not subordinate to the central government.
IV. The government followed preferential policies towards Dutch people.
Options:
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) II, III and IV
32. How does union government supervise over state government?
(a) The Governor is the representative of union government in the state.
(b) If any laws conflict over State list, the law mode by the union government will prevail.
Assertion (A): Power sharing is good.
Reason (R): Power sharing helps to reduce the possiblity of conflicts between different
social groups.
Options:
Column A Column B
I. Foreign Affairs 1. State List
II. Agriculture 2. Concurrent List
III. Computer Software 3. Union List
IV. Forests 4. Residuary Subjects

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


35. Many old states have been created between 1947 and 2019. Some states were created to
recognise differences based on culture, ethnicity or geography. On this basis, which of the
following states carve(s) out? Select the appropriate option.
(a) Nagaland (b) Jharkhand (c) Uttarakhand (d) All of these
36. Identify the local government bodies with the help of the following information.
• At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.
• An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created
for conducting elections to these bodies.
• The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with these
bodies.
(a) Panchayati Raj centres (b) Municiplaities
(c) Municipal Corporations (d) All of these
37. Identify the correct statements(s) about the language policy of the government.
I. The Constitution of India did not give the status of national language.
II. Beside Hindi, these are 20 other language recognised as scheduled language.
III. The Government of India continues the use of English along with Hindi for official
purposes.
IV. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India.
Options:
(a) I, III and IV (b) I, II and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
38. Identify the correct statement(s) about the key feature(s) of federalism.
I. There are two or more levels or tiers of government.
II. The jurisdictions of the respective levels of government are specified in the constitution.
III. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution.
IV. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own
jurisdiction.
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
Assertion (A): A high average income is not indicative of the overall well-being or human
development in a country.
Reason (R): Average income does not cover indicators like level of literacy rate, health
facilities and public facilities in a country.
Options:
(a) Washerman Service sector
(b) Forestry Tertiary sector
(c) Banking Secondary sector
(d) Manufactured goods Tertiary sector

41. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer
from the given options.
Organised sector Unorganised sector Total
No. of workers 4,00,000 11,00,000 15,00,000
Income 32,000 million 28, 000 million 60,000 million
A study in Ahmedabad found that out of 15,00,000 workers in the city, 11,00,000 worked in
the unorganised sector. The total income of the city in this year (1997-1998) was ` 60,000
million. Out of this, ` 32,000 million was generated in the organised sector.
Identify what kind of way(s) should be thought of for generating more employment in the
city.
(a) More companies need to be brought under organised sector so that workers from
unorganised sector may get jobs these with higher and more secure wages.
(b) The Government must provide loans and aid to companies transferring from
unorganised to organised sectors.
42. Which one of the following goals is an aspiration for urban unemployed youth?
(a) More opportunity for higher education
(b) A permanent white collar job.
(c) Having a self owned home to live in.
(d) All of these
43. Every year government can give additional employment to more than 35 lakh people.
Recognising this, the Government of India passed on Act in 2005. Which of the following
options is that Act?
(a) Right to Work act (b) MGNREGA
(c) PMRY Act (d) Central Employment Act
44. As per the workers in different sectors (in millions) the data shown only for organised
sector is
 Primary Sector — 0.12% (approx)
 Secondary Sector — 50%
 Tertiary Sector — 48.8% (approx)
Out of the three sectors, why did employment in the secondary sector increase?
(a) An increase in machinary on farms.
(b) People tend to migrate to urban areas to get jobs in factories.
(c) Most people are engaged in agricultural activities.
(d) All of the above are correct reasons.
Assertion (A): Non-renewable resources are abundant in nature.
Reason (R): Non-renewable resources cannot be replenished over a period of time.
Options:

46. Kamal works in the sector that includes a large number of people who are employed on
their own doing small jobs. The given statement is talking about which of the following
options?
(a) Unorganised Sector (b) Private Sector
(c) Service Sector (d) Organised Sector.
SECTION-C
Attempt any 10 questions from this section)
appropriate option:
Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered
over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire. During the
middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one,
Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under Austrian
Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions were under the
domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain. Even the Italian language had not acquired one
common form and still had many regional and local variations.
During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for
a unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the
dissemination of his goals. The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and 1848
meant that the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler King Victor Emmanuel
II to unify the Italian states through war. In the eyes of the ruling elites of this region, a
unified Italy offered them the possibility of economic development and political dominance.
47. Who among the following did not play any role in the process of unification of Italy
(a) Napoleon (b) Cavour (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Garibaldi
48. Who among the following led the process of the unification of Italy?
(a) Venetia (b) Papal State (c) Sardinia-Piedmont (d) None of these
49. Fill in the blank from the given option.
During the middle of the 19th century, Italy was divided into __________ states.
(a) Six (b) Five (c) Eight (d) Seven
50. Who formed ‘Young Italy’, a secret society?
(a) Emmanuel II (b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Count Camillo de Cavour (d) None of these
51. What do you know about Giuseppe Mazzini?
(a) He was a Russian revolutionary. (b) He was a French revolutionary.
(c) He was an Italian revolutionary. (d) He was a Prussian revolutionary.
Assertion (A): Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely house.
Reason (R): The centre was ruled by the Bourbon kings of Spain while the north was
under the Pope.
Options:

appropriate option:
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in
a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There
are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other
resources. There are some regions which can be considered self sufficient in terms of the
availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital
resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are
rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources
but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with
solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively
isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in
water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at
the national, state, regional and local levels.
Resource planning is a complex process which involves: (i) identification and inventory
of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and
qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources (ii) Evolving a
planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for
implementing resource development plans. (iii) Matching the resource development plans
with overall national development plans.
53. Which of the following is not essential for a developed region?
(a) Availability of resources
(b) Valuation of resources
(c) Utilisation of resources
(d) Valuation of planning
54. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options:
I. Rajasthan has abundance of with solar and wind energy.
II. Jharkhand, West Bengal and Tripura and rich in minerals and coal deposits.
III. Arunachal Pradesh is also rich in infrastructural development.
(a) II and III (b) I and II (c) I Only (d) III Only
55. The state of Rajasthan lacks in
(a) Water resources (b) Soil resources
(c) Biotic resources (d) Potential resources
56. Which of the following processes is involved in Resource Planning?
(b) Evolving a planning structure with suitable technology
(c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans
57. Which of the following union territories is isolated from other parts of India despite of its
very rich cultural heritage?
(a) Goa (b) Chandigarh
(c) Ladakh (d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
58. Which two famous coal deposits are located in Jharkhand?
(a) Bokaro and Jharia (b) Raniganj and Bokaro
(c) Singrauli and Korba (d) Jharia and Singrauali

SECTION-D
On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.
36° 68° 72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92° 96°
36°
A
32°
32°
28° 28°
24°
24°
B
20°
20°
16°
16°
12°
12°
8°
8°
72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°
59. On the political map of India. ‘A’ is marked as a union territory of Jammu and Kashmir
where a kind of soil is found. Identify it from the following options.
(a) Black soil (b) Arid soil
(c) Forest and mountainous soil (d) Alluvial soil
60. On the same map, ‘B’ is marked as a major rice producing state. Identify it from the
following options.
(a) Rajasthan (b) West Bengal (c) Kerala (d) Uttar Pradesh

ANSWERS TO SAMPLE PAPERS (1 to 3)

Sample Paper–1
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b)
6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b)
16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c)
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c)
36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b)
46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (d)
56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (a)
Sample Paper–2
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c)
26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (d)
36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (a)
46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (a)
56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (d)
Sample Paper–3
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b)
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d)
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (d)
46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (a)
56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (b)
145
PRACTICE MAP
36 68 72 76 80 84 88 92 96
36
32
32
28 28
24
24
20
20
16
16
12
12
8
8
72 76 80 84 88 92
146
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\ 18-Sep-2021 Shailesh Proof-3 Reader’s Sign _______________________ Date __________

Visit https://telegram.me/booksforcbse for more books.

Full Marks Pvt Ltd

An ISO : 9001-2015 Company

9, Daryaganj, New Delhi-110002

Social Science-10 (Term-1) is based on the latest curriculum guidelines released

Salient Features of the Book:

followed by Exercise to that topic.

Unit 3: Democratic Politics – II

Unit-1: History (India and the Contemporary World-II)............................. 7–24

Unit-2: Geography (Contemporary India-II).................................................. 25–58

Unit-3: Political Science (Democratic Politics-II)......................................... 59–84

Unit-4: Economics (Understanding Economic Development-II)............. 85–118

• Sample Papers-1 (Issued by CBSE on 2nd September, 2021)........................ 119

1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

TOPICWISE IMPORTANT POINTS

The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 9

THE MAKING OF NATIONALISM IN EUROPE

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 11

stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic economy, the abolition of

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 13

2. The Age of Revolutions: 1830-1848

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 15

4.1. What are the demands of liberal middle class?

3. The Making of Germany and Italy

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 17

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 19

4. Visualising The Nation

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 21

5. Nationalism And Imperialism

2. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions

Picture Based Questions

(a) Giuseppe Mazzini (b) Cavour

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 23

1714 : George-I became the king of the Great Britain.

1 Resources and Development

TOPICWISE IMPORTANT POINTS

1. Resources and Its Classification and Types

2. Development of Resources And Resource Planning

Resources and Development 27

Resources and Development 29

4.3. What does Agenda 21 mean?

3. Resource Planning in India and Conservation of Resources

4. Land Resources, Land Utilisation, Land Use Pattern in India, Land

Resources and Development 31

II. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks)

5. Soil as a Resource, Classification of Soils, Soil Erosion and Soil

Resources and Development 33

2. Choose the correct pair

Resources and Development 35

Graph Based Question

Map Based Questions

Resources and Development 37

72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°

72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°

72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°

72° 76° 80° 84° 88° 92°

\ 18-Sep-2021 Shailesh Proof-3 Reader’s Sign _____________ Date

II. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks)

II. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks)

2. Income and Other Goals, National Development and How to

3. Income and Other Criteria, Public Facilities and Sustainability of

II. Case/Source Based Questions (6 Marks)